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Q1.
Read the following information and answer the questions that follow:
Ten politicians A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J ve from Akhilesh side and ve from Mulayam side. They
all are sitting in two parallel rows with ve politicians in each row to solve the rift in SP party. A, B,
C, D, E are sitting in a row facing to north and F, G, H, I, J are sitting in a row facing to south. Each
politician in row faces another politician from the other row. All of them are holding di erent
ministries viz. Agriculture, Home, Forest, Textile, Urban Development, Labour, Rural Development,
Jail, Education and Transport and they are from di erent constituencies’ viz. Shamli,
Muzzafarnagar, Merrut, Ghaziabad, Hapur, Aligarh, Mathura, Agra, Bijnor and Bareilly, but not
necessarily in the same order. The politicians who are Urban Development and Labour minister sit
opposite to each other. There is only one politician between H’s father and H’s paternal uncle. H is
from Meerut constituency. The one who is Jail minister is on the immediate right of H’s
grandmother, who is not transport minister. H’s grandmother is not from Muzzafarnagar
constituency. E sits opposite the one who sits second to the left of the one who is Forest minister.
The one who is Urban Development minister is from Bijnor constituency. J sits third to the left of
H’s mother, who is Home minister. G is from Ghaziabad constituency and sits immediate left to the
one who is Transport minister. F sits opposite to A, who is Agriculture minister. The one who is
Home minister sits opposite the one who is Jail minister. H’s grandmother has three children and
one daughter-in-law and one son-in-law. E is the wife of I and is from Shamli constituency. A is the
grandfather of J and H. D is the grandmother of F. E sits at one of the ends of the row and is
Labour minister. G is the wife of B and mother of both F and J. The politician who is Forest minister
and Textile minister respectively are not facing north. C is Rural Development minister and is from
Agra constituency. The one who is Forest minister sits opposite to the one who is immediate right
of H’s father. E’s husband is not Transport minister. The one who is from Mathura constituency sits
diagonally opposite the one who is from Bijnor constituency. Politicians who is from Aligarh
constituency and Hapur constituency face south direction. The one who is from Aligarh
constituency does not face the one who is from Agra constituency. A is not from Bareilly
constituency. E is the sister of B and C. The one who is from Meerut constituency faces Education
minister.
If Transport ministry is related to Muzzafarnagar in the same way as Forest ministry related to
Shamli. Which of the following is Home ministry related to, following the same pattern? (2 Mark)
A. Shamli
B. Bareilly
C. Muzzafarnagar
D. Agra
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E. Mathura
Your Answer: Not Attempted
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Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q2.
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and Textile minister respectively are not facing north. C is Rural Development minister Us is from
and
minister.
Who sits diagonally opposite to J? (2 Mark)

A. The one who is Education minister
B. The one whose constituency is Bareilly.
C. The one whose constituency is Mathura
D. The one who is Home minister.
E. Either (A) or (C)
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Q3.
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minister.
How is I related to the one, who is Agricultural minister? (2 Mark)

A. Son
B. Daughter
C. Grandson
D. Son-in-law
E. Daughter-in-law
Correct Answer: D
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Solution
Q4.
of H’s father. E’s husband is not Transport minister. The one who is from Mathura Talk to Us
constituency sits
minister.
If the ministry of F & J are interchanged, then which of the following ministry does F hold? (2 Mark)
A. Rural development
B. Urban Development
C. Textile
D. Forest
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q5.
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necessarily in the same order. The politicians who are Urban Development and Labour Us sit
minister.
Four of the following ve are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to that group? (2 Mark)
A. Textile
B. Labour
C. Mathura
D. J
E. Transport
Correct Answer: A
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Solution
Q6.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A word arrangement Machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular
rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of rearrangement.
Input: rat acute 36 animal 17 mouse in basket 7 11
Step I: acute rat 36 animal 17 mouse in basket 7 11
Step II: acute 36 rat animal 17 mouse in basket 7 11
Step III: acute 36 animal rat 17 mouse in basket 7 11
Step IV: acute 36 animal 7 rat 17 mouse in basket 11
Step V: acute 36 animal 7 in rat 17 mouse basket 11
Step VI: acute 36 animal 7 in 17 rat mouse basket 11
Step VII: acute 36 animal 7 in 17 basket rat mouse 11
Step VIII: acute 36 animal 7 in 17 basket 11 rat mouse
Step IX: acute 36 animal 7 in 17 basket 11 mouse rat
Step IX is the last step.
If the following is the IInd step of an input what will be the Vth step?
Step II: After 89 she 38 wins 11 Olympic 22 the 7 (1 Mark)
A. after 89 she 7 the 22 Olympic 11 wins 38
B. after 89 Olympic she 38 wins 11 22 the 7
C. after 89 Olympic 7 she 38 the wins 11 22
D. after 89 Olympic 7 she 38 the 11 wins 22
E. None of the above
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Correct Answer: C
Solution
Word arrangement machine rst arranges words having rst letter vowel in alphabetical order,
after that words having rst letter consonant will be arranged in alphabetical order. Alternately the
numbers are chosen such that- greatest, lowest, 2nd greatest, 2nd lowest and so on.
Step II: After 89 she 38 wins 11 Olympic 22 the 7
Step III: After 89 Olympic she 38 wins 11 22 the 7
Step IV: After 89 Olympic 7 she 38 wins 11 22 the
Step V: After 89 Olympic 7 she 38 the wins 11 22
Q7.
Which of the following is the last step for the Input ‘eat 9 fast icecream 22 3 umbrella cat 5’? (1
Mark)
A. cat eat 9 fast 5 icecream 22 umbrella 3
B. eat 22 icecream 3 umbrella 9 cat 5 fast
C. eat 22 umbrella 3 icecream 9 cat 5 fast
D. eat 22 icecream 3 umbrella 5 cat 9 fast
Correct Answer: B
Solution
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Input : eat 9 fast icecream 22 3 umbrella cat 5
Step I: eat 22 9 fast icecream 3 umbrella cat 5
Step II: eat 22 icecream 9 fast 3 umbrella cat 5
Step III: eat 22 icecream 3 9 fast umbrella cat 5
Step IV: eat 22 icecream 3 umbrella 9 fast cat 5
Step V: eat 22 icecream 3 umbrella 9 cat fast 5
Step VI: eat 22 icecream 3 umbrella 9 cat 5 fast
Q8.
Which step will be the last step for the Input ‘expenses 17 rate over 41 27 pro t 15’? (1 Mark)
A. IV
B. V
C. VI
D. VII
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Input : expenses 17 rate over 41 27 pro t 15
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Step I: expenses 41 17 rate over 27 pro t 15
Step II: expenses 41 over 17 rate 27 pro t 15
Step III: expenses 41 over 15 17 rate 27 pro t
Step IV: expenses 41 over 15 pro t 17 rate 27
Step V: expenses 41 over 15 pro t 27 17 rate
Step VI: expenses 41 over 15 pro t 27 rate 17
Q9.
Which word/number will be at 4th from the left in step V for the given input in above question i.e.
‘expenses 17 rate over 41 27 pro t 15’? (1 Mark)
A. 41
B. pro t
C. over
D. 15
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q10.
Talk
A word arrangement Machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a to Us
particular
Which word/number will be 3rd to the right of ‘41’ in step IV for the given input in above question
i.e. ‘expenses 17 rate over 41 27 pro t 15’? (1 Mark)
A. over
B. pro t
C. 15
D. 17
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q11.
After a long time, for reunion and to give time to family, six Kapoor’s family members P, Q, R, S, T
and U are shooting in a same city for upcoming movies. And they live in eight di erent oors of
building. Two of the oors in the building are vacant. The lowermost oor of the building is
numbered one, the one above that is numbered two, and so on till the topmost oor is numbered
eight. Each one of them is shooting for di erent movies namely Tubelight, Rangoon Poorna,
Firangi, Irada and Baadshaho (but not necessarily in the same order). There are two married
couple in the family.
The number of oors above U’s brother is same as the number of oors between S’s father and
U’s wife. P’s son T lives at odd numbered oor above the oor numbered four. There are three
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people live between the two vacant oors. Only three oors between U’s wife and the one who is
shooting for Firangi. The one who is shooting for Irada lives immediately above U. Only three
oors are there between U and S’s grandfather. The one who is shooting for Baadshaho lives
immediately above the one who is shooting for Tubelight. U’s mother lives immediately above the
one who is shooting for Poorna. T is the son of P. The number of oors between T and the one
who is shooting for Rangoon is one. The one who is shooting for Rangoon lives immediately below
the one of the vacant oors. The oor number of the vacant oors are even-number. R is the wife
of U. Only two oors are there between the one who is shooting for Baadshaho and Firangi. S’s
grand mother lived immediately below the one of the vacant oors and not on the ground oor. Q
neither lived on oor number 5, 2 nor oor number 3. The one who is shooting for Rangoon lives
on one of the oors below the oor number 4. U is the uncle of S.
How many oors are between U’s mother oor and S’s oor? (1 Mark)
A. Four
B. Three
C. None
D. Five
E. Two
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q12.
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Four of the following ve are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to the group? (1 Mark)
A. S’s uncle – Irada
B. Q – Firangi
C. R’s brother-in-law – Irada
D. S – Tubelight
E. R – Rangoon
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q13.
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Which of the following pair represents vacant oors? (1 Mark)

A. 4, 6
B. 2, 6
C. 4, 8
D. 2, 8
E. 6, 8
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q14.
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Who amongst the following lives exactly between the fourth oor and the one who is shooting for
Tubelight? (1 Mark)
A. U’s brother, Q
B. U, U’s wife
C. T, U
D. U’s father, U
E. S, S’s grandfather
Correct Answer: E
Solution
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Q15.
Which of the following Statements is true with respect to the given information? (1 Mark)
A. R’s husband lives immediately above the one who is shooting for Firangi.
B. S lives immediately above U’s mother.
C. Only three people live between T and the one who is shooting for Baadshaho.
D. T’s sister-in-law is shooting for Poorna.
E. All the given statements are true.
Correct Answer: A
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Solution
Q16.
Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a building, there are six friends i.e Vidhi, Garima, Sandeep, Sagar, Ankur and Deepti- working in
di erent institute- CAREER POWER, PARAMOUNT, ALLEN, AKASH, BANSAL and KD CAMPUS – and
they are located on six di erent oors of a building, numbered 1 to 6. They drive six di erent
vehicles Pulsar bike, Karizma, Splender, CD100, CBZ and Ford, in no particular order. Each institute
is closed on a di erent day from Monday to Saturday. Garima drives CBZ and her institute,
PARAMOUNT is on the 6th oor of the building. Ankur and Vidhi have institute on even numbered
oors which are closed on Saturday and Monday respectively. CAREER POWER is on the lowest
oor and it is closed on Tuesday. AKASH institute is on the oor next to the institute where Garima
works and it is closed on Thursday. The manager of KD CAMPUS drives a Ford and has leave on
Monday. Deepti drives a CD100 and She has only one neighbour. One of the institutes on even
numbered oors has a leave on Friday. There is only one oor between Sandeep and Sagar.
Sandeep’s workplace is above from Sagar’s workplace. Sagar drives a Splendor. Ankur, who is not a
neighbour of Sandeep, drives a Pulsar bike and has leave on Saturday. BANSAL is on an even
numbered oor.
Who is the working in CAREER POWER? (1 Mark)

A. Vidhi
B. Deepti
C. Sagar
D. Garima
E. Sandeep
Correct Answer: B
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Solution
Q17.
numbered oor.
Which vehicle does Ankur drive? (1 Mark)

A. Ford
B. CBZ
C. Pulsar bike
D. CD100
E. Karizma
Correct Answer: C
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Solution
Q18.
numbered oor.
Who has leave on Thursday? (1 Mark)

A. Sagar
B. Deepti
C. Vidhi
D. Garima
E. Sandeep
Correct Answer: E
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Solution
Q19.
numbered oor.
If Sagar is related to Sandeep and Ankur is related to Vidhi, in the same way Deepti is related to? (1
Mark)
A. Garima
B. Deepti
C. Vidhi
D. Sagar
E. Sandeep
Correct Answer: D
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Solution
Q20.
numbered oor.
Which of the following combination is correct? (1 Mark)

A. Sagar – ALLEN – Karizma
B. Sandeep – AKASH – Splender
C. Vidhi – BANSAL – Ford
D. Garima – PARAMOUNT – Pulsar bike
E. Deepti – CAREER POWER – CD100
Correct Answer: E
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Solution
Q21.
Following are the conditions for granting advance of Rs. 10 lakh to the farmers for purchasing a
tractor by a Gramin Bank. The farmer must-
I. Have at least ve acres of cultivable land.
II. be able to produce collateral of at least Rs. 8 lakh.
III. Not be more than 50 yr as on 1.12.2010.
IV. Not have any outstanding unpaid loan from any bank.
V. Be able to produce a recommendation letter from the Panchayat Pradhan.
In the case of farmer who satis es all other criteria except
A. at (i) above, but is able to cultivate more than one crop in each piece of land, the case is to be
referred to Chairman of the bank.
B. at (iv) above, but has xed deposits of at least Rs. 4 lakh with the bank, the case is to be referred
to the General Manager of the bank.
In each question below, detailed information of each farmer is given. You have to carefully study
the information provided, in each case, and take one of the following courses of actions, based on
the information and the conditions given above you are not to assume anything other than the
information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.12.2010.
You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows
Give answer
Mohan Sadukhan was born on 2nd February, 1961. He has six acres of cultivable land. He has
submitted a recommendation letter issue by the Panchayat Pradhan. He can pledge collateral of
more than Rs. 8 lakhs. He does not have any unpaid loan from the bank. (2 Mark)
A. If the advance is not be granted
B. If the case is to be referred to the General Manager of the bank
C. If the data provided is not adequate, to take a decision
D. If the advance is to be granted
E. If the case is to be referred to the Chairman of the bank
Your Answer: Not Attempted Talk to Us
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q22.
Give answer
Sudhir Maiti has seven acres of cultivable land. He has obtained a recommendation letter from the
Panchayat Pradhan. He does not have any unpaid loan from the bank. He grows two crops in the
entire land. He can produce collateral of more than Rs. 6 lakh. (2 Mark)
C. If the data provided is not adequate, to take a decision Talk to Us

Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q23.
Give answer
Prabhakar Awale has obtained a recommendation letter from the Panchayat Pradhan. He has
seven acres of cultivable land and can produce collateral of Rs. 8 lakh. He was born on 4th July,
1960. He does not have any outstanding loan from the bank. (2 Mark) Talk to Us

Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q24.
Give answer Talk to Us
Akhilesh Mazumdar was born on 8th June, 1962. He has obtained a recommendation letter from
the Panchayat Pradhan. He has eight acres of cultivable land and can pledge collateral of Rs. 8 lakh
in addition to his xed deposits of Rs. 6 lakh. He has an outstanding loan of Rs. 4 lakh. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q25.
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In each question below, detailed information of each farmer is given. You have to carefully
Give answer
Sukhchand Mahato was born on 8th October, 1961. He has obtained a recommendation letter
from the Panchayat Pradhan. He has four acres of cultivable land with two crops in each piece of
land. He can pledge Rs. 8 lakh as collateral. He has no outstanding load from the bank. So, his case
is to be referred to the Chairman of the bank. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Q26.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
F, H, K, L, T, M, V and A are members of a family. There are four males and four females in the
family. Not more than two males or two females can sit together. They are sitting around a circular
table facing to the centre. M is third to the left of F. Females are not near to L, who is a female.
There are two people sitting between V and A and both are of di erent genders. K is second to the
right of H, who is third to the left of L. The females are sitting opposite to females. H is neither
opposite to V nor to A.
Which of the following is a group of females? (1 Mark)

A. HTVL Talk to Us
B. FATL
C. AFHL
D. KTVL
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Q27.
What is the position of H with respect of T? (1 Mark)

A. Second to the left
B. Second to the right
C. Third to the left
D. Third to the right
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
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Solution
Q28.
If F is on second place from A then who is sitting between them? Also nd the gender of that
person. (1 Mark)
A. T, female
B. H, female
C. T, male
D. H, male
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: D
Solution
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Q29.
Which of the following statement is de nitely true? (1 Mark)

A. All males are sitting on alternate position
B. K and M are sitting opposite to each other
C. V and T are of the same gender
D. There are two males between H and T.
E. A and K are opposite to each other
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q30.
“There is nothing so stupid as an educated man, if you can get him o the thing he was educated
in.” (1 Mark)
A. True education implies a well rounded exposure to major subjects.
B. An educated man will not discuss things which he does not understand.
C. The cost of a general education has led to the unfortunate fact that a person’s education is
con ned to one eld. Talk to Us
D. Stupidity, like intelligence, is relative and therefore depends on the intelligence of the persons’
peers.
E. Education is one of the main causes of people recognizing their capabilities and developing
them further.
Correct Answer: A
Solution
The author says that education o ers intellectual development in a speci c eld only. Statement
(a) is contradictory to this statement; hence it undermines the author’s contention.
Q31.
Each of the following questions consists of six statements followed by ve options. Choose the
option that can be concluded if other ve statements are considered and that option will be your
answer.
i. Some keys are locks.

ii. No chain is a locket.
iii. All the chains are locks.
iv. Some locks are doors.
v. No lock is a locket.
vi. Some lockets are windows. (1 Mark)
A. ii
B. [iv]
C. [iii]
D. [i]
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution
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Q32.
answer.
i. All foods are money.

ii. Some money are house.
iii. All the house are clothing.
iv. All the money are needs .
v. Some needs are house.
vi. All the clothing are needs. (1 Mark)
A. [iii]
B. [i]
C. [ii]
D. [vi]
E. [v]
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Q33.
answer.
i. All the clock are time.

ii. No time is a watch.
iii. No watch is a minute.
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iv. Some minutes are seconds.
v. No second is a house.
vi. No clock is a watch. (1 Mark)
A. [iii]
B. [i]
C. [ii]
D. [vi]
E. [v]
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q34.
answer.
i. Some teeth are enamel.

ii. No enamel is a tongue.
iii. Some tongues are nose.
iv. Some tongues which are nose are also eyes.
v. All the throats are tongues
vi. Some throat is tongue. (1 Mark)
A. [ii]
B. [vi]
C. [iii]
D. [i]
E. None is correct
Correct Answer: B
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Solution
Q35.
answer.
i. All the wire are copper.

ii. All the walter are copper.
iii. No wire is a walter.
iv. No copper is a pinkman.
v. All the pinkman are saul.
vi. No walter is a pinkman. (1 Mark)
A. [ii]
B. [iv]
C. [iii]
D. [vi]
E. None is correct
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q36.
In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between
‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. 'Strong’ arguments are those which are important and
directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and
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also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the
question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to
decide which of the arguments a strong argument is and which a weak argument is.
Give answer
Statement:
Should the provision to dissolve the assembly prematurely be amended?
Arguments:
I. Yes, on many occasions the provision has been used by ruling governments to ful ll their vested
interests.
II. No, to ful l the constitutional obligations and norms, it sometimes becomes the need of the
hour to dissolve the assembly prematurely. (2 Mark)
A. if only Argument I is strong
B. if only Argument II is strong
C. if either Argument I or II is strong
D. if neither Argument I nor II is strong
E. if both Argument I and II are strong
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Either Argument I or II is strong because many times ruling government misuse it while sometimes
dissolving the assembly becomes the need of the hour.
Q37.
Give answer
Statement:
Should only reputed NGO’s be authorised to distribute the commodities to the public under the
programme of Public Distribution System (PDS)?
Arguments:
I. Yes, the move will be helpful to implement the programme more e ectively and will keep a tab
on various problems like black marketing of the commodities supplied under PDS.
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II. Yes, NGO’s have helped government on many occasions (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Argument I is strong because it will reduce the problem of black marketing of commodities
supplied under PDS. Argument II is not strong because it is not directly related with the statement.
Q38.
Give answer
Statement:
Should the government sell major part of its stake in all the pro t-making public-sector
undertakings?
Arguments:
I. No, government should not give up its control of these undertaking as these are pro t making
organizations.
II. Yes, this will help government reduce the quantum of huge budgetary de cit and argument its
resources. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: A
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Solution
Argument I is strong because the organizations are pro t making and it will boost government
nancially. Argument II is not strong because the organizations are pro t making so there is no
question of budgetary de cit.
Q39.
Give answer
Statement:
Should the private companies be allowed to operate passenger train services in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will improve the quality of service in Indian Railways as it will have to face severe
competition.
II. No, the private companies may not agree to operate in the non-pro table sectors. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Argument I is strong because competition increases the quality of service. From the statement it is
not clear that railways is a non-pro table sector and private companies are also operating in non-
pro table sectors. So, Argument II is not strong.
Q40.
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Give answer
Statement:
Should all the electricity state boards be privatized in India?
Arguments:
I. No, this will increase the grievances of the people.
II. Yes, it will check the growing menace of power theft which has resulted in annual pilferage of a
huge amount. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Argument I is not strong because it does not tell that why the grievances of people will increase.
Argument II is strong because it will reduce the power theft which has resulted a huge amount.
Q41.
These questions are based on the following information.
In a certain code:
‘All in or nothing’ is written as- ‘OO OM LS LH’
‘Just do its’ is written as- ‘OG LP OH’
‘Now or never’ is written as- ‘LX LS OI’
‘Leave not doubts’ is written as- ‘OV LU LT’
What can be the code for ‘Bankersadda’? (1 Mark)

A. OZ
B. OI
C. LO
D. LZ
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
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Solution
Logic:
All the words are converted into two letter code as per following rules.
(i) if the word contains letter O, then L is used as the rst letter of the code and next alphabet of
the last letter of the word becomes the second letter code.
For example:
(ii) if the word does not contain letter O, then O is used as the rst letter of the code and the last
letter of the word is reversed and used as the second letter of the code.
For example:
Q42.
In a certain code:
What is the code for or? (1 Mark)

A. OZ
B. OI
C. LS
D. LZ
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Logic:
For example:
For example:
Q43.
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In a certain code:
What is the code for ‘Just say never’? (1 Mark)

A. OZ OB OI
B. OI OB OZ
C. LS OG OB
D. OG OB OI
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Logic:
For example:
For example:
Q44.
In a certain code:
‘OB LE’ can be the code for which of the following words? (1 Mark)
A. Career Power
B. Good Life
C. Snoop Dog
D. Almighty God
E. Say Boss
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Correct Answer: D
Solution
Logic:
For example:
For example:
Q45.
In a certain code:
Prosecuted can be coded as? (1 Mark)

A. OE
B. LD
C. OI
D. OB
E. LE
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Logic:
For example:
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For example:
Q46.
Given below the table shows, total number of SBI branches in six cities, total number of accounts
in these branches and ratio between saving and current accounts in each branches. Some data are
missing, which have to calculate according to given data in questions. Read table carefully and
answer the questions given below:
( Note: (1) Number of accounts opened in each branches are equal in each cities
(2) All branches opened only two types of accounts saving and Current.
If 5/18 th of total current accounts opened in city P are 10000 and average number of accounts
opened in each branch is 900 then total branches in city P are what percent more or less than total
branches in city R. Given that average number accounts opened in each branches in city R is 400 ?
(2 Mark)
A. 48.25%
B. 66.25%
C. 46.25%
D. 56.25 %
E. 36.25%
Correct Answer: D
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Solution
Q47.
(2) All branches opened only two types of accounts saving and Current. Talk to Us
13/25 th of total current accounts opened in city U are used for daily transaction and remaining
used occasionally. If di erence between current accounts used for daily transaction and current
account used occasionally is 320 then ratio between average number of accounts opened in each
branches in city U to number of branches in city R. (Given that average number of account opened
in each branches of city R is 400) (2 Mark)
A. 48 : 125
B. 127 : 48
C. 125 : 48
D. 121 : 48
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q48.
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If in city T all branches charged Rs.12.5 and Rs.7.5 for opening one saving account and one current
account respectively and total amount generated in opening account from all branches in city T is
Rs.262500 then nd di erence between total number of currents accounts and saving accounts
opened in city T ? (2 Mark)
A. 8800
B. 9800
C. 7800
D. 6800
E. 5800
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q49.
in these branches and ratio between saving and current accounts in each branches. Some
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In city Q ratio between total opened saving account to total opened current accounts is 5 : 2 and in
city S average number of accounts opened in each branches is 550. Find average of total saving
accounts opened in city Q and S, if in city S ratio between total saving accounts to current accounts
in each branches is 7 : 4. ? (2 Mark)
A. 28600
B. 26800
C. 28400
D. 28200
E. 24800
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q50.
Rahul, Sachin and Sanjeev speaks 2 times, 5 times and 3 times truth out of 5 times, 6 times and 8
times respectively. Find the probability that they contradict each other when asked to speak on a
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fact? (2 Mark)
A. 3/16
B. 5/16
C. 7/16
D. 13/16
E. 9/16
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Probability that Rahul speaks truth = 2/5

Probability that Sachin speaks truth = 5/6
Probability that Sanjeev speaks truth = 3/8
Rahul, Sachin and Sanjeev do not contradict with each other if they all are correct or they all are
incorrect means if they all speak truth or they all speak lie.
Q51.
Yogesh mark up an article 40% above its cost price. At the time of sale, he gave 20% discount on
mark price but take 2.5% CGST and 2.5% SGST as tax on discounted price of article. On selling the
article Yogesh earns Rs. 352 as pro t. Find the mark price of article. (2 Mark)
A. 2000
B. 1400
C. 2800
D. 2200
E. 2400
Correct Answer: C
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Solution
Q52.
A well whose shape is of equilateral triangle having side 8 cm has to be dug 44√3 cm deep. The
earth taken out of the well is used to ll a cylindrical tank having diameter 8 cm. Find the height up
to which earth is lled in the tank. (2 Mark)
A. 10.5 cm
B. 21 cm
C. 42 cm
D. 84 cm
E. 32 cm
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q53.
A car and a bus starts from point ‘A’. After ‘T’ hours bus is 48 km ahead of car, while after ‘8’ hours
distance between bus and car is same as distance covered by bus in one hour. If relative speed of
car and bus if they move towards each other is 240, then how much distance can bus cover in
hour. (2 Mark)
A. 320 km Talk to Us
B. 280 km
C. 384 km
D. 336 km
E. 256 km
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q54.
Probability of choosing one boy from a group of 26 girls and ‘x’ boys is 3/5. If one more boy joined
the group then nd the probability of choosing one boy and one girl from that group? (2 Mark)
A. 8/33
B. 6/11
C. 4/11
D. 14/33
E. 16/33
Correct Answer: E
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Solution
Q55.
Total surface area of cube and sphere are equal.
Quantity I: Volume of cube ÷ √π
Quantity II: volume of sphere (2 Mark)
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q56.
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A dice is thrown. If an even number comes, then a coin is tossed once but if an odd prime number
comes, then two coins are tossed.
Quantity I: Probability of getting exactly one head.
Quantity II : Probability of getting at least one tail. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q57.
Figure I and II shows two semicircles of radius 14 cm with O and P as their centres respectively.
Quantity I: Area of shaded region in gure I Talk to Us

Quantity II: Area of triangle in gure II (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q58.
When a 30% discount is given on marked price of an article, 20% pro t is earned . If article is sold
for Rs 35 more, then value of pro t percent increases by 50%.
Quantity I: Selling price of article after Rs 35 more is added.
Quantity II: Selling price of article when it sold at 24⅙% discount. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: E
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Solution
Q59.
Number of ways in which word ‘SOMETHING’ can be arranged.
Quantity I : When all vowels comes together.
Quantity II: When all consonants comes together. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q60.
Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.
A total of 1650 employees are working in a company in di erent departments. TheTalk
ratio of male
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employees to female employees in the organisation is 86 : 79. There are total 5 departments in the
company i.e. Product Devlopment, Sales and marketing, R& D and reinvestment, ‘Finance’ and HR.
Total 198 males work in “Product Devlopment department”. 18% employees works in Sales and
marketing department, in which male to female ratio is 5 : 4. In Finance department, 77 males are
working and the number of females in this department is 5/7 of the number of males. The number
of males in Sales and marketing department is equal to number of females in Product Devlopment
department. The number of males of Finance department is half of the number of males in HR
department. Male to female ratio in R& D and reinvestment department is 14 : 19.
No. of males in R& D and reinvestment department is now much more than females in Product
Devlopment department? (1 Mark)
A. 99
B. 91
C. 109
D. 105
E. 101
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Q61.
A total of 1650 employees are working in a company in di erent departments. TheTalk to Us
ratio of male
Females in R& D and reinvestment department is what percent of total number of females in the
company (approximate)? (1 Mark)
A. 44.7%
B. 45.7%
C. 48.9%
D. 49.2%
E. 38.9%
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q62.
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A total of 1650 employees are working in a company in di erent departments. The ratio of male
No. of Females in Finance department is what percent less than the no. of females in Product
Devlopment department? (1 Mark)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q63. Talk to Us

What is the di erence between no. of male employees of Product Devlopment, Sales and
marketing and HR department together and no. of females of Product Devlopment, Finance and
R& D and reinvestment department together? (1 Mark)
A. 54
B. 64
C. 35
D. 96
E. 58
Correct Answer: B
Solution
no. of males in Product development , Sales and marketing and HR departments = 198+ 165 + 154
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= 517
No. of females in Product development , nance and R&D and reinvestment department = 361 + 55
+ 165 = 581
Di erence = 64
Q64.
If the 5/12 of the females of the Sales and marketing department are shifted in HR department.
Then males in HR department is what times of no. of females in the same department. (round o
to 2 decimal places). (1 Mark)
A. 1.07
B. 1.17
C. 1.27
D. 1.37
E. 1.32
Correct Answer: B
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Solution
Q65.
A coin is biased, it gives 3 times more head as compare to tail. Another coin is also biased such
that the head occurs 64% of the times. When two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the
probability of occurring one tail at a time. (2 Mark)
A. 47.2%
B. 47.8%
C. 46.2%
D. 41.6%
E. 56%
Correct Answer: D
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Solution
Q66.
Rahul takes more time to cover a distance in upstream as compare to cover same distance
in downstream. If his friend’s speed and his speed are in ratio 6 : 7, when they go in downstream,
then nd the ratio of speed of Rahul and his friend in still water. (Speed of stream is same in both
cases) (2 Mark)
A. 4 : 5
B. 5 : 4
C. 7 : 6
D. 3 : 5
E. 6 : 7
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q67.
A, B and C entered in a business for one year, 8 months and 9 months respectively. A and C earn a
pro t of 10,000 and 20,000 from the total pro t of 55000 after one year. If ‘A’ invest 1,50,000
initially then nd the di erence between investment of B and C. (2 Mark)
A. 162500 Talk to Us
B. 400000
C. 250000
D. can’t be determined
E. 190000
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Q68.
In a company ratio of number of o cers to the number of clerks is 4 : 5. Total salary of all the
o cers is 140% more than the total salary of clerks. If total salary of all clerks and o cers is
1020000 Rs. then nd the salary of a o cer is what % more than the salary of a clerk? (2 Mark)
A. 300%
B. 100%
C. 150%
D. 200%
E. 50%
Correct Answer: D
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Solution
Q69.
Vikas score 42 marks in an exam and failed by 2% and Sumit scores 36% and passed by 9 marks in
same exam. How much marks they together required to reach 80% in same exam. (2 Mark)
A. 138
B. 160
C. 150
D. 120
E. 144
Correct Answer: E
Solution
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Q70.
A shopkeeper has a stock of rice. 20% of rice is spoiled, then shopkeeper sell remaining rice at
110% of the cost price and weight 200 gram less than 1 kg. Find his overall pro t %. (2 Mark)
A. 12%
B. 14%
C. 8%
D. 10%
E. 4.4%
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q71.
The following questions are accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to determine
which statements(s) is/are su cient/necessary to answer the questions.
Find Veer’s age four years hence from present?

(I) Ratio between Veer’s age and Rahul’s age, three years ago was 8 : 9, while Veer is two years
younger than Rahul.
(II) Ratio between present age of Rahul and Veer is 21: 19, while ve year hence average age of
Rahul and Veer will be 25 years. (1 Mark)
A. Statement (I) alone is su cient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not su cient
to answer the questions.
B. Statement (II) alone is su cient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not su cient
to answer the question.
C. Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the
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statements alone is su cient to answer the question.
D. Either statement (I) or statement (II) is su cient to answer the question.
E. Statements (I) and (II) together are not su cient to answer the question.
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q72.
What will be pro t share of Ankit out of total pro t?

(I) Ankit Invest Rs. 1600 for 8 months and Satish joined him after third month with capital of Rs.
1200.
(II) Satish got Rs. 630 as pro t share. (1 Mark)
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Correct Answer: E
Solution
From I
Ankit Investment share = 1600 Rs.
Time on which Ankit Invest = 8 months
Satish investment share = 1200 Rs.
From II
Given, pro t share of Satish = 630 Rs.
So, from both sentence we could not made answer, time period on which Satish invest his capital
not given, so we could not determine pro t ratio of Ankit and Satish.
Q73.
How many man and women working on this task?

(I) (x – 4) man work for rst (x – 8) days, after that (x+2) woman complete the remaining work in (x
– 8) days.
(II) Ratio between work did by men to work did by women is 2 : 3. (1 Mark)
Correct Answer: C
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Solution
Q74.
Find the cost price of laptop if cost price of laptop on both shops is same?
(I) Marked price of laptop on two shops A and B is same. Shops ‘A’ allows 20% discount and shop B
allows 25% discount on laptop. A man purchased laptop from shop B, if man spend Rs. 640 more,
he could purchase the same laptop from shop A.
(II) Marked price of laptop is more than its cost price. If discount of 30% allows on M.P. of
laptop, shopkeeper made a pro t of Rs. 560. (1 Mark)
Correct Answer: B
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Solution
Q75.
There are some red and some blue balls in a bag. Find how many blue balls in the bag.
(I) Total number of balls in bag is ten. If selecting two balls at random probability of being at least
one ball red is 14/15.
(II) Total number of balls in bag is ten. Selecting two balls from out of total balls at random,
probability of being both ball blue is 1/15 . (1 Mark)
Correct Answer: D Talk to Us
Solution
Q76.
The given table show the S.I. and C.I. rate per annum given by ve lenders.
Note: Some values are missing, you must calculate these values according to question.
Lender A, lends some amount at S.I. for 3 years and another amount, which is 1500 more than the
previous one, at C.I. for 2 years. Both sum earns equal amount. Find the amount lends at C.I. (2
Mark)
A. 12900
B. 13500
C. 15000
D. 14400 Talk to Us
E. 11500
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q77.
Lender C lends a sum for 2 years at S.I. then after 2 year he re-lend the total amount for 2 years at
C.I. and earn a total pro t which is 45.2% of sum invest by him in S.I. Find the rate of C.I. (2 Mark)
A. 10%
B. 11%
C. 12%
D. 20%
E. 15%
Correct Answer: A
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Solution
Q78.
If D lend money in S.I. for 8 year he earns double Interest as he earns on same money in 2 years at
C.I. then nd the interest he earns on 1500 at S.I. in 3 year. (2 Mark)
A. 500 Rs.
B. 360 Rs.
C. 900 Rs.
D. 495 Rs.
E. 600 Rs.
Correct Answer: D
Solution
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Q79.
Interest earn by E in 2 years at C.I. is 25% more than the interest earns by him in 4 years at S.I. on
same amount. What is the ratio of amount occurred when same sum is lend by D and E for 3 years
at C.I. (2 Mark)
A. 36 : 125
B. 64 : 113
C. 64 : 125
D. 75 : 113
E. 216 : 125
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Q80.
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When B lends same sum on S.I. and C.I. each, he earn interest in ratio of 3 : 2 in which he lend
amount at S.I. for 3 years and at C.I. for 2 years. If di erence between total interest earn in S.I. and
C.I. is 2640 Rs. then nd rate at S.I. lends by B ? (2 Mark)
A. 20%
B. 22%
C. 24%
D. 10%
E. 25%
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Q81.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
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While there is no blueprint for transforming a largely government –controlled economy into a free
one, the experience of the United Kingdom since 1979 clearly shows one approach that works:
privatization, in which state- owned industries are sold to private companies. By 1979, the total
borrowings and losses of state-owned industries were running at about £3 billion a year. By selling
many of these industries, the government has decreased these borrowings and losses, gained
over £34 billion from the sales, and now receive tax revenues from the newly privatized
companies. Along with a dramatically improved overall economy the government has been able to
repay 12.5 percent of the net national debt over a two-year period.
In fact, privatization has not only rescued individual industries and a whole economy headed for
disaster, but has also raised the level of performance in every area. At British Airways and British
Gas, For example, productivity per employee has risen by 20 percent. At associated British Ports,
labour disruptions common in the 1970s and early 1980’s have now virtually disappeared. At
British Telecom there is no longer a waiting list- as there always was before privatization- to have a
telephone installed.
Part of this improved productivity has come about because the employees of privatized industries
were given the opportunity to buy shares in their own companies. The responded enthusiastically
to the o er of shares: at British Aerospace, 89 percent of the eligible work force bought shares; at
Associated British Ports 90 percent; and at British Telecom 92 percent. When people have a
personal stake in something, they think about it, care about it, and work to make it prosper. At the
National Freight Consortium the new employee owners grew so concerned about their company’s
pro ts that during wage negotiations they actually pressed their union to lower its wage demands.
Some economists have suggested that giving away free shares would provide a needed
acceleration of the privatization process. Yet they miss Thomas Paine’s point that “what we obtain
too cheap we esteem too lightly.” In order for the far-ranging bene ts of individual ownership to
be achieved by owners, companies, and countries, employees and other individuals must make
their own decisions to buy, and they must commit some of their own resources to the choice.
According to the passage, all of the following were bene ts of privatizing state-owned industries in
the United Kingdom EXCEPT: (1 Mark)
A. Privatized industries paid taxes to the government.
B. The government gained revenue from selling state-owned industries.
C. The government repaid some of its national debt.
D. Pro ts from industries that were still state- owned increased.
Correct Answer: D
Solution
This question begins with the phrase according to the passage, indicating that it can betoanswered
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using facts stated in the passage. The rst paragraph lists the bene ts of privatization, Use the
process of elimination and heck the ve possible answer choices against the bene ts. The point
that is NOT discussed in the passage is the correct answer.
Q82.
According to the passage, which of the following resulted in increased productivity in companies
that have been privatized? (1 Mark)
A. A large number of employees chose to purchase shares in their companies.
B. Free shares were widely distributed to individual shareholders.
C. The government ceased to regulate major industries.
D. Unions conducted wage negotiations for employees.
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Correct Answer: A
Solution
The second paragraph describes the increased productivity, and the third paragraph begins by
stating one reason for it: employees of privatized industries were given the opportunity to buy
shares in their own companies. The paragraph also cites the high percentage of employees buying
shares in three privatized companies, supporting the idea that many employees bought shares.
Q83.
It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers labor disruptions to be (1 Mark)
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A. An inevitable problem in a weak national economy
B. A positive sign of employee concern about a company
C. A predictor of employee reactions to a company’s o er to sell shares to them
D. A deterrence to high performance levels in an industry
Correct Answer: D
Solution
This question states that an inference is required; this inference is based on material presented in
the second paragraph. To demonstrate that privatization has raised the level of performance in
every area, the author gives three examples. One example is the disappearance of labour
disruptions, once common. If the absence of labour disruptions raises the level of performance,
then the author must believe that the presence of labor disruptions impedes a high level of
performance.
Q84.
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The passage supports which of the following statements about employee’s buying shares in their
own companies? (1 Mark)
A. At three di erent companies, approximately nine out of ten of the workers were eligible to buy
shares in their companies.
B. Approximately 90 percent of the eligible workers at three di erent companies chose to buy
shares in their companies.
C. The opportunity to buy shares was discouraged by at least some labour unions.
D. Companies that demonstrated the highest productivity were the rst to allow their employees
the opportunity to buy shares.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Only one statement is supported. The third paragraph presents the percentages of the eligible
employees who purchased shares in their companies: 89 percent at one company, 90 percent at a
second, and 92 percent at a third. Thus, it is true that roughly 90 percent of the eligible work force
at three di erent companies bought shares in their companies once they were given the
opportunity to do so.
Q85.
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Which of the following statement/(s) is most consistent with the principle? (1 Mark)
A. A democratic government that decides it is inappropriate to own a particular industry has in no
way abdicated its responsibilities as guardian of the public interest.
B. The ideal way for a government to protect employee interests is to force companies to maintain
their share of a competitive market without government subsidies.
C. The failure to harness the power of self-interest is an important reason that state- owned
industries perform poorly.
D. Governments that want to implement privatization programs must try to eliminate all
resistance to the free- market system.
Correct Answer: C
Solution
First identify the principle involved, and then nd the statement that is most compatible with that
principle. Argue that having a personal stake in a business makes employees work to make it
prosper. When there is no personal stake, or self-interest, involved, employees do not have the
same incentive to work hard to make their industry prosper. Thus, the poor performance of state-
owned industries can be ascribed in part to the lack of motivation employees su er when they
have no personal stake in the business.
Q86.
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Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the privatization process in the
United Kingdom? (1 Mark)
A. It depends to a potentially dangerous degree on individual ownership of shares.
B. It conforms in its most general outlines to Thomas Paine’s prescription for business ownership.
C. It was originally conceived to include some giving away of free shares
D. It is taking place more slowly than some economists suggest is necessary.
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Support for the inference about the pace of privatization is provided by the suggestion of some
economists that giving away free shares would provide a needed acceleration of the privatization
process. If privatization needs to be accelerated, then it must be going too slowly at least
according to these economists. Talk to Us
Q87.
Thomas Paine’s quotation is most probably used to describe which of the following statement? (1
Mark)
A. Counter a position that the author of the passage believes is incorrect
B. State a solution to a problem described in the previous sentence
C. Show how opponents of the viewpoint of the author of the passage have supported their
arguments
D. Point out a paradox contained in a controversial viewpoint.
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Correct Answer: A
Solution
Paine’s quotation o ers a concise and time- honoured counterargument to the view voice in the
preceding sentence. The economists suggest giving away free shares, but the author notes that
these economists are forgetting that, according to Paine, people do not value what they get too
cheaply. The author uses the quotation to show the basic error in the economists’ thinking.
Q88.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are
given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The state of India’s rural economy is puzzling. There is enough evidence to support two opposing
statements: one, that the rural economy has improved; and, two, that the rural economy is in the
doldrums. On the one hand, some indicators are positive. The unemployment rate has been
falling while rural wages have been rising. On the other hand, instances of rural distress are rife
and rural consumer sentiment has weakened. There has been a surge of demands for farm loan
waivers. Four states have already announced waivers worth about 0.5% of national gross domestic
product (GDP). Four more are threatening to do the same and, if they do, waivers could rise to
0.75% of GDP, endangering a hard-won reduction in debt and de cit ratios. Some of this distress
was likely triggered by the large fall in food prices and the resulting shift in the terms of trade (the
cost of producing food versus the income derived) to the detriment of rural India. Even if some of
the causes of falling food prices are one-time (for example, a bumper crop) or short lived (such as
demonetization and goods and services tax related uncertainties), other factors may keep food
prices low for longer (such as structural improvements in food distribution).
It helps to solve the puzzle if we note that the rural economy consists of two distinct parts,
“landless” and “landed”. We de ne landless as those owning less than a hectare of land, and
landed as those owning more than a hectare. The landless, by our de nition, make up about 70%
of rural households and the landed the rest. This distinction illuminates three other things. One,
we nd that the landless rural population has a negative income-consumption gap, which basically
means that its income is hardly enough to cover its consumption requirements. On the other
hand, the landed have a positive income-consumption gap. Two, it is the landed who are more
indebted as a group than the landless. They also use more formal sector sources of credit than the
landless. Finally, we nd that a majority of the income for the landless comes from wages while
that of the landed from cultivation.
Putting all this together, we can build a compelling narrative. After a two-year drought, the good
monsoon rains in 2016 increased the demand for labour. As a result, real wages have risen
gradually and the unemployment rate has fallen in tandem. This has largely bene ted the
landless, given that the majority of their income is from wages. In contrast, the landed, who pay
these wages and depend more directly on income from cultivation, have borne the brunt of falling
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food prices, as what they have received from selling farm produce has been lower than expected.
Real indebtedness for this group has been growing at a faster clip than real incomes since FY14,
which explains the growing clamour for bank farm loan waivers . Eventually, however, one would
imagine that the fates of the landed and landless are likely to move together (given that the
landless are often indebted to the landed). For now, the fact that these two groups are not yet
moving in the same direction is throwing up confusing signals about the health of the rural
economy.
There are two broader points to be made here: The rst is that one-o reforms cannot improve an
economy. There needs to be a series of reforms, each supporting the other. In the worst case,
stray reforms may even do harm. Let us explain. In ation-targeting was a welcome reform with
distinct economy-wide bene ts. But the large fall in in ation that it helped engineer has hurt the
indebted by increasing “real” indebtedness, i.e. debt relative to in ation. And that is the bitter
truth. Large and desirable reforms always tend to hurt some sub-groups.
What is needed now is another spate of reforms to help those who have been hurt. Agricultural
reforms, such as in irrigation and warehousing infrastructure, can help increase farm productivity
and therefore incomes. They will not just help fund consumption expenditure, but will leave extra
funds in the hands of rural India, which can then be used to service the higher real debt bill.
The second broader point to be made is that farm loan waivers may do more harm than good.
They spoil the credit culture, making formal nance more nervous about serving rural India. They
also erode macro-economic stability. In particular, a rapid rise in farm loan waiver expenses could
bind India’s states in a vicious cycle, increasing their interest bill or lowering the quality of their
spending, or both. Rural distress is a recurring theme in India. Every few years, farm loan waivers
or a good monsoon provide some short-lived respite. Clearly, the bene ts from neither are
sustainable. The panacea for rural distress can only be reforms that will help raise farm
productivity and incomes.
Why has the author mentioned the state of India’s rural economy as puzzling?
(I) As some cases are positive and some are negative, the rate of unemployment is falling while
rural wages are increasing and so are their su erings.
(II) As debt and de cit ratio of the nation is increasing with rising demands of farm loan waivers.
(III) A major portion of the rural economy is landless and they depend upon other sources for their
needs which make the state of India’s rural economy puzzling. (2 Mark)
A. Only (I) is correct
B. Only (II) is correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Both (I) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: C
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Solution
Referring to the rst paragraph of the passage, we conclude that sentences (I) and (II) are correct.
The puzzling state of rural India economy is due to the rise in the wages while the unemployment
rate is falling making their su ering rise in return and the surge in demands for farm loan waivers
is making the debt and de cit ratio increase.
Q89.
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economy.
According to the passage, how does the author di erentiate between landless and landed rural
population? (1 Mark)
A. The income of landless and landed rural population depends on the monsoon rains and a
majority of the income for the landless comes from wages while that of the landed from
cultivation.
B. Landless population depends on other sources of income for their consumption requirements
while landed population depends upon other sources for their debt burden.
C. Landless population gets less bene t of their production as compared to the landed population.
D. Both (A) and (B) are correct.
E. All are correct.
Correct Answer: E
Solution Talk to Us
Referring to the second and third paragraphs of the passage, it can be inferred that all the
sentences are correct. As according to the passage, landless rural population have negative
income-consumption gap while landed rural population have positive income- consumption gap.
Q90.
Talk to Us
economy.
According to the passage, what is the reason behind growing demand for bank farm loan waivers?
(I) The income of landed population which depends on cultivation are more prone to the
consequences of falling food prices and hence their debt burden is rising. (II) Consistent fall in
prices of food and shift in trade are the reasons behind growing demand for bank farm loan
waivers. (III) To solve the consumption requirements of the landless population and to minimize
their negative income-consumption gap. (1 Mark)
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Both (I) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Refer to the third paragraph of the passage “the landed, who pay these wages and depend more
directly on income from cultivation, have borne the brunt of falling food prices, as what they have
received from selling farm produce has been lower than expected. Real indebtedness forUsthis
Talk to
group has been growing at a faster clip than real incomes since FY14, which explains the growing
clamour for bank farm loan waivers”.
Q91.
moving in the same direction is throwing up confusing signals about the health of Talk
the to
rural
Us
economy.
According to the passage, what needs to be done to improve the rural economy?
(I) The Government should waive o the loan of farmers to improve the condition of farmers and
thereby improving the gross domestic product. (II) Agricultural reforms should be given more
stress that can help increment in farm productivity and therefore incomes. (III) Supporting reforms
should be implemented so that landed and landless population grow together with less debt
burden for landed population and better consumption requirement for the landless population. (1
Mark)
C. Both (I) and (III) are correct
D. Both (II) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Referring to the last paragraph of the passage, we can infer that the steps mentioned in sentences
(II) and (III) need to be done in order to improve the rural economy.
Talk to Us
Q92.
economy.
economy. There needs to be a series of reforms, each supporting the other. In theTalk
worst case,
to Us
Which of the following sentences is not true in context of the passage? (2 Mark)
A. A rapid rise in farm loan waiver expenses could bind India’s states in a vicious cycle, increasing
their interest bill or lowering the quality of their spending, or both.
B. The causes of falling food prices are one-time or short-lived, other factors may keep food prices
lower for longer.
C. The major portion of the rural households is landless and hence the responsible for major
su ering like consumption requirement.
D. The monsoon bene ts both the landless and landed rural population.
E. All are true.
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The monsoon bene ts the landless population directly as rains increase the labour and thereby
the income but the income of landed rural population depends on cultivation and their bene t is
more prone to the falling of food prices. Hence their bene t is not guaranteed. Hence sentence (d)
is not true in context of the passage.
Q93.
Talk to Us
economy.
truth. Large and desirable reforms always tend to hurt some sub-groups. Talk to Us
Choose the word/group of words which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words
printed in bold as used in passage.
Panacea (1 Mark)
A. plaudit
B. elixir
C. trite
D. ubiquitous
E. upbraid
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Panacea means a solution or remedy for all di culties or diseases. Hence it has the same
meaning as elixir.
Plaudit means enthusiastic approval.
Trite means repeated too often, over familiar through overuse.
Ubiquitous means being present everywhere at once.
Upbraid means express criticism towards.
Q94.
Talk to Us
economy.
reforms, such as in irrigation and warehousing infrastructure, can help increase farm
Talk productivity
to Us
Choose the word/group of words which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words
Rife (1 Mark)
A. abject
B. eclectic
C. dearth
D. contrite
E. pervasive
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Rife means of common occurrence, widespread. Hence it has the same meaning as pervasive.
Abject means experienced or present to the maximum degree.
Contrite means feeling or expressing pain or sorrow for sins or o ences.
Dearth means an insu cient quantity or number.
Eclectic means selecting what seems best of various styles or ideas.
Q95.
Talk to Us
economy.
The second broader point to be made is that farm loan waivers may do more harm than
Talk good.
to Us
Choose the word/group of words which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/group of words
Clamor (1 Mark)
A. Tranquility
B. portent
C. edict
D. connive
E. amenable
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Clamor means a loud and confused noise, especially that of people shouting. Hence it has the
opposite meaning of tranquility which means peace.
Amenable means open and responsive to suggestion , easily persuaded or controlled.
Connive means secretly allow (something immoral, illegal, or harmful) to occur.
Edict means a formal or authoritative proclamation.
Portent means a sign of something about to happen.
Q96.
Find the odd word out from each of the following sets of four word. (1 Mark)
A. Impetuosity
B. Equanimity
C. Zealousness
D. E ervescence
E. gusto
Correct Answer: B
Talk to Us
Solution
All others have a quality of excitement in them.
Equanimity means calmness and composure, especially in a di cult situation.
E ervescence means vivacity and enthusiasm.
Q97.
A. Drip
B. Intrusion
C. Percolation
D. E uence
E. Trickle
Correct Answer: B
Solution
All others refer to a ow of a liquid.
Trickle means a small ow of liquid.
Drip means the action or sound of liquid falling steadily in small drops.
E uence the action of owing out.
Q98.
A. Duplicity
B. Guilelessness
C. Artfulness
D. Shrewdness
E. subterfuge
Correct Answer: B
Solution
All others refer to deception in some form.
Subterfuge means deceit used in order to achieve one's goal.
Duplicity means deceitfulness.
Q99.
A. Revival Talk to Us
B. Stimulation
C. Implication
D. Upturn
E. Amelioration
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Upturn means an improvement or upward trend, especially in economic conditions or someone's
fortunes.
Amelioration means make (something bad or unsatisfactory) better.
Implication means the conclusion that can be drawn from something although it is not explicitly
stated.
Q100.
A. ine able
B. Reciprocate
C. Impalpable
D. ethereal
E. Elusive
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Ine able means too great or extreme to be expressed or described in words.
Reciprocate means respond to (a gesture or action) by making a corresponding one.
Q101.
In each of the following questions given below there are three blanks, each blank indicates that
something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best ts to the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
With a _______ ending the 104-day-long blockade in the Darjeeling hills, the Union and West Bengal
governments must move forthwith to _______ the ‘truce’ and address the setback to livelihoods and
the local economy _______ over this period. (1 Mark)
A. extreme, incorporate, received
B. upgradation, integrate, recognized Talk to Us
C. exceptional, a liate, assuaged

D. breakthrough, consolidate, su ered
E. liberal, dissuade, tolerated
Correct Answer: D
Solution
‘breakthrough, consolidate, su ered’ is a set of words making the sentence meaningful.
Dissuage means to accuse or to defend.
A liate means o cially attach or connect (a subsidiary group or a person) to an organization.
Q102.
The blockade had ______ hit life in the hill districts, and it is ______ that local support for the
agitation was ________. (1 Mark)
A. severely, clear, waning
B. genuinely, vindicate, slackening
C. recklessly, exculpate, reducing
D. explicitly, eloquent, failing
E. alarmingly, evident, maturing
Correct Answer: A
Solution
‘severely, clear, waning’ is a set of words making the sentence meaningful.
Vindicate means show or prove to be right, reasonable, or justi ed.
Exculpate means show or declare that (someone) is not guilty of wrongdoing.
Eloquent means clearly expressing or indicating something.
Q103.
Talk
Put together, the maximalist position of the agitators, the discomfort within the BJP to Us
government at
the Centre on o cially responding to such _______, and Ms. Banerjee’s ploy of using the issue to
sharpen a Bengali chauvinist ______ in the rest of the State to gain more support for her Trinamool
Congress, all _________ to the stalemate. (1 Mark)
A. objectives, disclaimer, rewarded
B. emulation, inquire, executed
C. apathy, question, donated
D. aspirations, appeal, contributed
E. pretentions, inquiry, neglected
Correct Answer: D
Solution
‘aspirations, appeal, contributed’ is a set of words making the sentence meaningful.
Emulation means e ort to match or surpass a person or achievement, typically by imitation.
Apathy means lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern.
Q104.
Prime Minister Shinzo Abe has ______ his career by calling snap elections to the Lower House of the
Japanese Diet in late-October. The term of the House would have ordinarily _______ another year,
but he clearly senses a turn in the popular breeze in his _________. (1 Mark)
A. tried, promoted, regard
B. challenged, evanesces, recognition
C. ventured, prevailed, acceptance
D. gambled, lasted, favour
E. attempted, maintained, adoption
Correct Answer: D
Solution
‘gambled, lasted, favour’ is a set of words making the sentence meaningful.
Ventured means undertake a risky or daring journey or course of action.
Q105.
Talk to Us that
In each of the following questions given below there are three blanks, each blank indicates
A new anti-conspiracy legislation to ______ terrorism was criticised for lack of public _______ and for
incorporating _________ provisions on individual privacy and free speech. (1 Mark)
A. strife, diligence, questioning
B. invade, review, cordial
C. dispute, control, brazen
D. assault, immersion, tempering
E. combat, scrutiny, intrusive
Correct Answer: E
Solution
‘combat, scrutiny, intrusive’is a set of words making the sentence meaningful.
Intrusive means causing disruption or annoyance through being unwelcome or uninvited.
Brazen means bold and without shame.
Q106.
In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage
missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the ve answer choices given, to make
the passage complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound).
According to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation
and Resettlement Act, 2013, compensation for the land should be based on market rates. But the
State government often chooses to buy land under the Maharashtra Industrial Development
Corporation Act or the National Highway Act. For the Mumbai-Nagpur expressway, the
government is o ering farmers the option of land pooling or a one-time settlement.
_______________________________. ( EASY) (1 Mark)
A. For irrigated land, farmers get a compensation of 30 per cent of the total acquired land.
B. In the case of unirrigated land, it will be 25 per cent.
C. Farmers have been resisting land acquisition for other large infrastructure projects as well.
D. Land pooling is seen as a convenient method of land acquisition for large projects because it
eases the problem of acquiring small holdings.
E. The other option on o er is developed land, which will be a percentage of the total land
acquired.
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The paragraph talks about purchasing of land by Maharashtra government under the
Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation Act or the National Highway Act instead of
choosing to purchase under According to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in
Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013. The sentence before the blank is
about land pooling option which government is o ering to the farmers for Mumbai-Nagpur
expressway.
Hence the blank must be lled by the sentence related to land pooling. Sentence (d) is correct here
as it mentions about land pooling which is a convenient method of land acquisition.
Hence option (d) is the correct option.
Q107.
The Nobel laureate Malala Yousafzai released a strong statement against the violence. She said:
“Every time I see the news, my heart breaks at the su ering of the Rohingya Muslims in Myanmar.
I call for the following: Stop the violence. Today we have seen pictures of small children killed by
Myanmar’s security forces. These children attacked no one, but still their homes were burnt to the
ground. ____________________________________________. ( MODERATE) (1 Mark)
A. The dead included children.
B. If their home is not Myanmar, where they have lived for generations, then where is it?
C. However, the Myanmarese government accused the Rohingya of setting re to their own
homes.
D. On August 23, the recommendations of the Advisory Commission on Rakhine State were
released.
E. The Rohingya are the most persecuted minority in the world.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The given paragraph is about the statement given by Nobel laureate Malala Yousafzai against the
violence in Myanmar. Sentences before the blank specify about the innocent children who were
killed in the violence and their homes have burnt. Hence the blank must be lled by the sentence
related to the children who were a ected by the violence. Going through the sentences, we nd
Talk to Us
that sentence (b) goes correctly as it talks about the children who may survive if their homes
would not be in Myanmar. Hence option (b) is the correct choice. All other sentences are
irrelevant.
Q108.
In recent years, Mahan has been in the news for reasons other than its ecological and livelihood
signi cance. It began on April 12, 2006, when the Union Ministry of Coal allocated the Mahan coal
block, which is in the Singrauli coal eld, to a joint venture of Essar and Hindalco Limited called
Mahan Coal Ltd. The proposed coal mine would have led to the loss of approximately ve lakh
trees, a ected the livelihoods of over 50,000 people in 54 villages, displaced forest-dwelling
communities, destroyed and fragmented good-quality natural forests rich in biodiversity, and
destroyed the catchment area of perennial rivers which provide water to the entire region.
______________________________________________.Clearing this coal block would open the way for other
coal blocks in the region to be mined. ( DIFFICULT) (1 Mark)
A. One might think that that was the end of the environmental and human rights violations in
Mahan.
B. This biodiverse region supports a substantial forest-dwelling tribal population.
C. Besides, there were blatant violations of the Forest Rights Act1 (FRA) and other mandatory
regulations.
D. A large number of Dalit and tribal families who had houses in the villages with proper records
to prove their ownership were shown as non-inhabitants.
E. The communities in these villages alleged that there were many irregularities in the land
acquisition process.
Correct Answer: C
Solution
The paragraph talks about the loss of natural forests and communities by the Mahan coal mine
which was allocated to a joint venture of Essar and Hindalco Limited by the Union Ministry of Coal.
The sentences before the blank talk about the loss of ve lakh trees, livelihoods and destruction in
the area of perennial rivers. The sentence after the blank is about the clearing the way for other
coal mines if this coal block gets cleared. Hence the blank must be lled by the sentence related to
these arguments. After reading all the given sentences, we infer that sentence (c) is correct as it is
about the coal mines which are violating the FRA act apart from creating havoc to livelihoods and
nature.
Talk to Us
Hence sentence (c) is the correct option.
Q109.
Oxford University Press (OUP) and other international publishers are withdrawing their lawsuit
against Rameshwari Photocopy Service, a licensed vendor located in Delhi University’s North
Campus. (_______________________________________________).OUP, Cambridge University Press and
Taylor and Francis Group have together decided to withdraw the case against Rameshwari
Photocopy from selling photocopies of parts of their books to students. They believe that it is not
correct to engage in a legal battle with their stakeholders, that is educational institutions. (1 Mark)
A. In September 2016, the court had ruled in favour of the students and held that “copyright in a
literary work is not an inevitable, divine or natural right” conferred on an author.
B. Sumeet Malik, director of EBC (Eastern Book Co.) Publishing Pvt. Ltd said it is “unfortunate that
the publishers have decided to withdraw the suit”.
C. In October, these publishers had moved a fresh appeal against a September judgment of a
single judge bench of the Delhi high court that had rejected the international publishers’ case and
allowed the photocopy shop to continue its business.
D. The case has, over the last ve years, attracted international attention as a test case for
copyright violation.
E. The move is being seen by some as a step back by the publishers, who said that they are willing
to work “more closely with academic institutions, teachers and students to understand and
address their needs”.
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Option (d) is correct .Withdrawal of lawsuit has been discussed in the rst sentence, so sentence in
option (d) is the best suited follow up.
Q110.
India has never been a perfect democracy. But for decades it’s succeeded in being a
representative one. Its politics are raucous, with dozens of parties and unwieldy ruling coalitions.
Talk to Us
(___________________________________________________). Those Indians should beware what they wish
for. (1 Mark)
A. Politically, if not constitutionally, India is edging ever closer to being a one-party state .
B. In 2014, under Narendra Modi, the Hindu nationalist Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) won an
absolute majority of seats in Parliament on its own, something that hadn’t happened in three
decades.
C. The party has since extended its dominance, sweeping to power in several more states this
month including India’s most populous, Uttar Pradesh.
D. Some observers think Modi is showing his real colours.
E. This has long been a source of dismay to its in uential middle class, who speak longingly of the
“e ciency” they imagine one-party rule has delivered to countries as big as China and as tiny as
Singapore.
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Option (e) is correct. The sentence written in option (e) , complete the passage in most appropriate
way. This sentence is the most suitable follow up on the previous sentence.
Q111.
Five statements are given below, labelled a, b, c, d and e. Among these, four statements are in
logical order and form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the option that does
not t into the theme of the paragraph. (1 Mark)
A. An empathetic listener is hard to come by.
B. Listening involves complex a ective, cognitive, and behavioral processes.
C. In despair, the dejected seek solace from someone, anyone — on the World Wide Web, on the
street, just about anywhere — and end up pouring their heart out to total strangers.
D. When there is no one to talk to —rather, when there is no one who will listen to what you want
to say — desperation sets in.
E. You lose hope and the will to live.
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Sentence (b) is not a part of the coherent paragraph as sentences forming the coherent paragraph
(DEAC) is about causes and consequences of desperation while sentence (b) is about the process
of listening. Hence option (b) is the correct choice.
Q112. Talk to Us
A. Love, a ection, honesty, integrity and truth, for instance, are values that are as important to life
as breathing or eating.
B. They generate negativity and manifest in the form of lying, cheating or causing other harm.
C. The three fundamental gunas —satvik, rajasik and tamasik —which characterise the nature of
the human being, very often in a combo, are further subdivided into many basic qualities
commonly known as human values.
D. Though these values are positive, in the course of practice and because they emanate from a
mind that is susceptible to negative thoughts, they get corrupted.
E. Good intent and good deed contribute to good karma and future happiness, while bad intent
and bad deed contribute to bad karma and future su ering.
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Sentences CADB form a coherent paragraph talking about fundamental gunas that comprises of
basic qualities called as positive human values (Love, a ection, honesty, integrity and truth) which
gets contaminated to negative thoughts and thus results to lying, cheating or causing harm to
others. Sentence (e) which talks about theory of Karma which fails to connect with the other
sentences of the paragraph. Hence option (e) is the correct choice.
Q113.
A. The Buddhist scriptures, written in Pali, have a word ‘Martyr’.
B. Martyrdom is not limited to the ambit of a country or the limits of a local ideology.
C. Unfortunately, the jingoistic nationalistic wave of the last two centuries and limited collective
vision, restricted the otherwise boundless canvas of the term martyr.
D. It means, whose life is dedicated to knowing the Truth and its essence.
E. This sixth-century Pali word still has the same meaning: one who de es death for the Truth.
Correct Answer: B
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Solution
The sentences (ADEC) forming coherent paragraph is about understanding the term ‘martyr’ as
written in Pali in Buddhist scriptures. Sentence (b) which is about ‘Martydom’, fails to link with the
other options. Hence option (b) is the correct choice.
Q114.
A. Life happens in the present.
B. Let your actions not beg for happiness.
C. Treat the present as a present and then you will be total in what you do.
D. We don’t learn from a problem because we don’t want to grow up.
E. When you beg for happiness, you position happiness in the future.
Correct Answer: D
Solution
We can infer after going through the sentences that sentences BEAC form a coherent paragraph
discussing about living in present and not begging for happiness. Sentence (d) does not t with
any other sentence as it is about learning from a problem, which is unrelated to the other
sentences. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.
Q115.
A. With compassion, the ego relaxes and we can e ortlessly become aware of the indwelling soul.
B. Ego discovers its identity, in this case, with the In nite Spirit.
C. Expanding sympathy helps the ego to be aware of its subtle identity with other people and with
the universe.
D. Next, our understanding is limited by the way we use reason to process that information.
E. One’s own happiness, in consequence, expands exponentially.
Correct Answer: D
Talk to Us
Solution
Sentences CEAB are interrelated to each other and hence form a coherent paragraph which
revolves around the theme of discovering the identity of Ego through compassion and sympathy
towards others. Sentence (d) that talks about individual’s understanding to process the
information fails to get linked with other sentences of the paragraph. Hence option (d) is the
correct choice.
Q116.
What is an Indian depository receipt?
A. A deposit account with a public-sector bank
B. A depository account with any of the depositories in India
C. An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against
underlying equity shares of the issuing company
D. An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
E. None of the given options is true
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Indian depository receipt is an instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian
depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company.
Q117.
Name the retired Justice of the Supreme Court of India who has been appointed as the new
Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
A. Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel
B. Justice Swatanter Kumar
C. Justice Umesh Dattatraya Salvi
D. Justice Jawad Rahim
E. Justice Prakash Vempur
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel, who retired from the Supreme Court of India has been appointed as
the new Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT). He has been appointedTalk
to to
theUsposition
for a term of ve years, as per an order issued by the personnel ministry.
Q118.
Facebook has con rmed it is working on a new satellite project, named __________, that will provide
broadband internet connections to rural and underserved areas.
A. FBSS- I
B. Nanchuck
C. Athena
D. Atomi
E. Hercules
Correct Answer: C
Solution
Facebook has con rmed it is working on a new satellite project, named Athena, that will provide
broadband internet connections to rural and underserved areas. The company aims to launch
satellite in early 2019.
Q119.
When an agent asks a customer to invest in a mutual fund product without telling him/her about
the risks involved in the investment, the process is termed as-
A. mis-selling
B. undertaking
C. misappropriation of funds
D. cross-selling
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Misselling is a signi cant problem in nancial services industry and for nancial industry
regulators. Brokers, nancial advisors, bank representatives or other salespeople of nancial
products or services who are compensated based on commissions may have signi cant incentives
to sell investments or investment products based on how much they can earn rather than what is
suitable or what is needed by a customer. Misselling may occur with insurance products,
annuities, investments, mortgages and a variety of other nancial products. A nancial loss is not
necessarily required to meet the de nition of misselling; the sale of an unsuitable product is
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enough.
Q120.
The Union Cabinet has approved the signing of MoU amongst BRICS Nations on the RAPC. RAPC
stands for ___________________.
A. Reconstruction Aviation Partnership Cooperation
B. Rural Aviation Partnership Cooperation
C. Regular Aviation Partnership Cooperation
D. Regional Aviation Partnership Cooperation
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The Union Cabinet has approved the signing of MoU amongst BRICS Nations on the Regional
Aviation Partnership Cooperation (RAPC). The objective is that BRICS countries will bene t from
the establishment of an institutional framework to cooperate in the eld of civil aviation.
Q121.
The stock market index of London, stock market is referred as-
A. sensex
B. footsie
C. nifty
D. bullish
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The Financial Times Stock Exchange 100 Index, also called the FTSE 100 Index, FTSE 100, FTSE, or,
informally, the "Footsie", is a share index of the 100 companies listed on the London Stock
Exchange with the highest market capitalization.
Q122.
Name the female athlete who has become the oldest Indian woman to complete an Ironman
Triathlon.
A. Krishna Poonia
B. Anju Khosla
C. Anjali Bhagwat Talk to Us
D. Kunjarani Devi
E. K. M. Beenamol
Correct Answer: B
Solution
At 52, Anju Khosla has become the oldest Indian woman to complete an Ironman Triathlon – one
of the toughest one-day sporting events. The New Delhi resident completed her rst full Ironman
Triathlon, in Carinthia, Austria, in 15 hours, 54 minutes and 54 seconds.
Q123.
Name the bank that has organized the Kisan Mela at its rural and semi-urban branches across the
country to impart nancial literacy to farmers.
A. Bank of Baroda
B. Allahabad Bank
C. ICICI Bank
D. State Bank of India
E. Axis Bank
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Kisan Mela was organized at State Bank of India's rural and semi-urban branches across the
country to impart nancial literacy to farmers. It is one-of-its-kind initiative to develop connect
with farmer customers, resolve their grievances and educate them about their various rights and
bank's initiatives.
Q124.
The availability or cash and other cash like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases
and investments are commonly known as-?
A. cash crunch
B. liquidity
C. credit
D. marketability
Correct Answer: B Talk to Us
Solution
The availability or cash and other cash like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases
and investments are commonly known as is liquidity.
Q125.
Who became the rst-ever Indian javelin-thrower to win an Asian Games gold medal?
A. Niraj Singh
B. Neeraj Chopra
C. Neeraj Kumar
D. Neeraj Mishra
E. Neeraj Gehlot
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Neeraj Chopra has created history by becoming the rst-ever Indian javelin-thrower to win an
Asian Games gold medal. He shattered his own national record by clearing a distance of 88.06m at
the 2018 Jakarta Asian Games on August 27. He also became the 2nd Indian after Milkha Singh to
win a Commonwealth and Asian Games gold in the event in the same year. Beside this, Neeraj
became the 3rd Indian javelin-thrower to win a medal at the Asian Games after Gurtej Singh (who
won a bronze in the 1982 edition in New Delhi) and Parsa Singh (who became the rst Indian to
won a silver at the 1951 New Delhi Asian Games).
Q126.
In a company, the use of price-sensitive corporate information by the company people to make
gains or cover losses is known as-
A. Insider trading
B. Future trading
C. Foreign trading
D. Stock trading
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Talk to Uswith
Insider trading is the trading of a public company's stock or other securities by individuals
access to nonpublic information about the company. In various countries, some kinds of trading
based on insider information is illegal.
Q127.
Name the SFB that has announced the commercial launch of its banking operations, the last
micro nance company to convert itself into a small nance bank (SFB).
A. Jana Small Finance Bank
B. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
C. Equitas Small Finance Bank
D. AU Small Finance Bank
E. ESAF Small Finance Bank
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Jana Small Finance Bank announced the commercial launch of its banking operations, the last
micro nance company to convert itself into a small nance bank (SFB), three years after the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gave its in-principle approval.
Q128.
Which of the following company has brie y crossed $900-billion market cap for the rst time in its
history becoming only the second company after Apple to achieve this milestone?
A. Google
B. Infosys
C. Xiomi
D. Microsoft
E. Amazon
Correct Answer: E
Solution
E-commerce giant Amazon brie y crossed $900-billion market cap for the rst time in its history
becoming only the second company after Apple to achieve this milestone.
Q129.
Many a times, we read a term ‘SEPA’ in nancial newspapers. What is the full form of the SEPA?
A. Single Exchange Processing Agency
B. Single Euro Payments Area Talk to Us
C. Single Electronic Processing Agency
D. Super Electronic Purchase Agency
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The Single Euro Payments Area (SEPA) is a payment-integration initiative of the European Union
for simpli cation of bank transfers denominated in euro.
Q130.
The Reserve Bank of India will shortly issue Rs100 denomination banknotes in the Mahatma
Gandhi (New) Series. The new denomination has Motif of _____________.
A. Lothal Nav
B. Virupaksha Latha
C. Brihadeeswara Temple
D. Rani Ki Vav
E. Bhimbetka Ka Tilan
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The Reserve Bank of India will shortly issue Rs100 denomination banknotes in the Mahatma
Gandhi (New) Series, bearing the signature of Dr Urjit R. Patel, Governor, Reserve Bank of India.
The new denomination has Motif of “RANI KI VAV” on the reverse, depicting the country’s cultural
heritage. The base colour of the note is Lavender. The dimension of the banknote will be 66 mm ×
142 mm.
Q131.
__________________ is a state-owned investment fund that invests in real and nancial assets such as
stocks, bonds, real estate, precious metals, or in alternative investments such as private equity
fund or hedge funds.
A. Development bonds
B. Insurance policies
C. Mutual funds
D. Sovereign wealth funds
Your Answer: Not Attempted Talk to Us
Correct Answer: D
Solution
A sovereign wealth fund (SWF) or sovereign investment fund is a state-owned investment fund
that invests in real and nancial assets such as stocks, bonds, real estate, precious metals, or in
alternative investments such as private equity fund or hedge funds. Sovereign wealth funds invest
globally.
Q132.
Fouaad Mirza is related to which sports?
A. Equestrian
B. Cricket
C. Chess
D. Football
E. Hockey
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Fouaad Mirza from Bangaluru clinched silver in the equestrian event with a score of 26.40 at the
2018 Jakarta Asian Games on August 26. With this, he became the rst Indian to win an Asian
Games individual medal in the equestrian event after 36 years.
Q133.
India’s rst-ever test ight powered by biojet fuel was successfully conducted by which airline?
A. Air India
B. Jet Airways
C. Indigo
D. Spice jet
E. Vistara
Correct Answer: D
Solution
SpiceJet has successfully conducted India’s rst-ever test ight powered by biojet fuel between
Dehradun and Delhi on August 27, 2018. The 43 minute ight was operated by the airline’s
Bombardier Q-400 aircraft with total 25 on onboard, including crew. The ight wasTalk to Us with a
powered
blend of 75% Air Turbine Fuel (ATF) and 25% biojet fuel. The biojet fuel, which is made from
Jatropha crop, has been developed by the Council for Scienti c and Industrial Research (CSIR)
based in Dehradun along with Indian Institute of Petroleum (IIP). The advantage of using biojet
fuel as compared to ATF is that it reduces carbon emissions and enhances fuel e ciency. The
biojet fuel has been recognised by American Standard Testing Method (ASTM) and meets the
speci cation standards of Pratt & Whitney and Bombardier for commercial application in aircraft.
Globally, bio-fuel powered ights are operated in Canada.
Q134.
The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all
of a sudden. In nancial sector, this type of phenomenon is known as-
A. probability risk
B. market risk
C. in ation risk
D. credit risk
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Market risk is the possibility of an investor experiencing losses due to factors that a ect the overall
performance of the nancial markets in which he or she is involved. Market risk, also called
"systematic risk," cannot be eliminated through diversi cation, though it can be hedged against.
Q135.
The Electoral bonds will be issued in multiples of Rs1,000, Rs10,000, Rs1 lakh, Rs10 lakh and Rs1
crore and will be available at speci ed branches of-
A. Bank of India
B. HDFC
C. Bank of Baroda
D. State Bank of India
E. YES Bank
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The Electoral bonds will be issued in multiples of Rs1,000, Rs10,000, Rs1 lakh, Rs10 lakh and Rs1
Talk
crore and will be available at speci ed branches of State Bank of India. They can be to Us by the
bought
donor with a KYC-compliant account. Donors can donate the bonds to their party of choice which
can then be cashed in via the party's veri ed account within 15 days.
Q136.
Each subscriber under APY shall receive a Central Government guaranteed minimum pension of-
A. Rs. 2000 per month
B. Rs. 3000 per month
C. Rs. 4000 per month
D. Rs. 1000 per month
E. Rs. 5000 per month
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Each subscriber under APY shall receive a Central Government guaranteed minimum pension of
Rs. 1000 per month or Rs. 2000 per month or Rs. 3000 per month or Rs. 4000 per month or Rs.
5000 per month, after the age of 60 years until death.
Q137.
The world’s rst public blockchain bond “bond-i” has recently launched by which International
organization?
A. World Bank
B. AIIB
C. SAARC
D. UNO
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution
The world’s rst blockchain bond “bond-i” has recently launched by World Bank (WB), which is to
be created, allocated, transferred and managed through its life cycle using distributed ledger
technology. The “bond-I” stands for Blockchain Operated New Debt Instrument and is also has
reference to Sydney’s most famous beach ‘Bondi Beach’. The Commonwealth Bank of Australia is
the sole arranger of the issuance for the bond. It was the rst time that the World Bank bond
raised capital from public investors through a legally valid bond issuance that uses blockchain
from start to nish. This 2-year maturity bond has successfully raised 110 million Australian dollars
(USD 80.48 million). Talk to Us
Q138.
JK Rowling will come out with the fourth novel titled ___________ in the series about the exploits of
private investigator Cormoran Strike in September 2018.
A. The Silkworm
B. Career of Evil
C. The Cuckoo's Calling
D. Lethal White
E. The Knowledge of Ice
Correct Answer: D
Solution
JK Rowling will come out with the fourth novel titled 'Lethal White' in the series about the exploits
of private investigator Cormoran Strike in September 2018 under her pseudonym Robert
Galbraith.
Q139.
IRDAI has formed a panel to review the regulations pertaining to insurance marketing rms. The
committee is headed by-
A. CV Rao
B. E Sreedharan
C. Suresh Mathur
D. Biju Patnaik
E. Subhash Chandra Khuntia
Correct Answer: C
Solution
IRDAI has formed a panel to review the regulations pertaining to insurance marketing rms. The
committee is headed by Suresh Mathur, Executive Director (insurance marketing rms), IRDAI,
with nine more members.
Q140.
IIT Madras has launched world’s rst remotely operatable microscope "LEAP" that would enable a
precise atom-by-atom view of a material. The ‘LEAP’ stands for ____________.
A. Local Electronic Atomic Push
B. Local Electrode Atom Push Talk to Us
C. Local Electronic Atomic Periphery

D. Local Electrode Atom Probe
Correct Answer: D
Solution
IIT Madras has launched “world’s rst” remotely operatable microscope that would enable a
precise atom-by-atom view of a material. The 'Local Electrode Atom Probe' (LEAP) was developed
in a collaborative exercise involving eight top research institutions headed by IIT Madras.
Q141.
According to data on language released as part of Census 2011, which is the most spoken
language in India?
A. Hindi
B. Telugu
C. Kannada
D. Urdu
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution
According to data on language released by the Union government as part of Census 2011, Hindi is
the most spoken language in India. As per data, the percentage of Indian population with Hindi as
their mother tongue has risen to 43.63% from 41.03% in 2001. Bengali has taken the second spot,
followed by Marathi, Telugu, Tamil and Gujarati. Urdu is the 7th most spoken language in India,
while Sanskrit was the least spoken of the country’s 22 scheduled languages. Out of unscheduled
languages, the most spoken language was Bhili or Bhilodi, native to Rajasthan with 1.04 crore
speakers and is followed by Gondi with 29 lakh speakers. According to Census authorities, mother
tongue is de ned as the language spoken in childhood by the person’s mother to the person or,
where the mother has died in the person’s infancy, the language mainly spoken in the person’s
household during childhood.
Q142.
The Union Government has reduced the minimum annual deposit requirement for accounts
under Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana from Rs 1000 to _______________.
A. Rs.200 Talk to Us
B. Rs.250
C. Rs.300
D. Rs.500
E. Rs.750
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The Union Government has reduced the minimum annual deposit requirement for accounts
under Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana from Rs 1000 to Rs 250. The minimum initial deposit to open the
account has also been reduced to Rs 250.
Q143.
The Ministry of HRD has embarked on a major and new initiative Project called ___________ which
will provide one integrated platform and portal for online courses.
A. SAMARTH
B. SAMRIDDHI
C. SWAYAM
D. SAMPARK
E. SAKSHAM
Correct Answer: C
Solution
The Ministry of HRD has embarked on a major and new initiative Project called 'Study Webs of
Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds' (SWAYAM), which will provide one integrated platform
and portal for online courses. This covers all higher education subjects and skill sector courses.
Q144.
In the Wimbledon Championships 2018, Novak Djokovic of Serbia won the men's singles Title for
the fourth time. He defeated _____________ in the nals.
A. Roger Federer
B. Rafale Nadal
C. Kevin Anderson
D. Andy Murray
E. Pete Sampras
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: C
Solution
In the Wimbledon Championships 2018 Novak Djokovic of Serbia won the men's singles Title for
the fourth time. He defeated Kevin Anderson of South Africa in the nals.
Q145.
ETFs are mutual funds listed and traded on stock exchanges like shares. ETFs stands for-
A. Electronic Traded Funds
B. Exchange Time Funds
C. Exchange Traded Finance
D. Exchange Traded Flows
E. Exchange Traded Funds
Correct Answer: E
Solution
Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) are mutual funds listed and traded on stock exchanges like shares.
Q146.
The book “281 and Beyond” is the autobiography of which Indian cricketer?
A. Sachin Tendulkar
B. VVS Laxman
C. Rahul Dravid
D. Kapil Dev
E. Sunil Gavaskar
Correct Answer: B
Solution
The book “281 and Beyond” is the autobiography of veteran cricketer VVS Laxman, which will be
launched by Westland Sport in November 2018. The title has been borrowed from the Hyderabad
stylist’s fabulous series-turning innings of 281 against Australia at the Eden Gardens in 2001. His
partnership along with Rahul Dravid in that match is one of the best batting partnerships in cricket
history. He was known for his patience and wrist work and scored many memorable centuries
during his playing days. Laxman played 134 Tests, amassing 8,781 runs at an average of 45.97. He
scored 17 centuries and 56 half centuries. He also played in 86 ODIs for an aggregate of 2338 and
average of 30.76 in the shorter format. Talk to Us
Q147.
The rst-ever International Day of Parliamentarism is celebrated across the world on which date to
recognize the importance of parliaments and their responsibility of representing the people?
A. 30th June
B. 1st July
C. 2nd July
D. 3rd July
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution
The rst-ever International Day of Parliamentarism was celebrated across the world on June 30,
2018 to recognize the importance of parliaments and their responsibility of representing the
people.
Q148.
The book “War or Peace: The Struggle for World Power “is written by which author?
A. Gaurav Sharma
B. Hemant Shesh
C. Gopi Chand Narang
D. Deepak Lal
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Q149.
What is the currency of South Korea?
A. renminbi
B. yen
C. won
D. krone
E. dollar
Talk to Us
Correct Answer: C
Solution
South Korea Capital- Seoul, Currency- South Korean won.
Q150.
Rourkela is a planned city located in the northern part of Odisha and it is situated on which river?
A. Godavari
B. Brahmani
C. Brahmaputra
D. Jhelum
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Rourkela is a planned city located in the northern part of Odisha. It is situated on the bank of river
Brahmani.
Q151.
Mettur Dam built across Kaveri River at Salem district in which state?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Odisha
D. West Bengal
E. Assam
Correct Answer: A
Solution
Mettur Dam built across Kaveri River at Salem district in Tamil Nadu with a height of 120 ft. It is
one the largest and one of the oldest dam built in India. Mettur Dam has biggest and the most
power generating capacity dam in Tamil Nadu.
Q152.
Kuchipudi is the famous dance of which state?
A. Telangana
B. Andhra Pradesh Talk to Us
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Kuchipudi is one of the eight major Indian classical dances. It originated in a village named
Kuchipudi in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
Q153.
Fontainhas Festival is celebrated across which state of India?
A. Puducherry
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Goa
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
The week-long Fontainhas Festival of art celebrated every year in Goa.
Q154.
The Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is located in _________ that covers an area of about 389.54 sq km.
A. West Bengal
B. Tripura
C. Assam
D. Sikkim
E. Manipur
Correct Answer: B
Solution
Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is a Wildlife Sanctuary in Tripura, India.
Q155. Talk to Us
Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station in the Singrauli district of which state?
A. Jammu Kashmir
B. Odisha
C. Haryana
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D
Solution
Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station in the Singrauli district of Madhya Pradesh, with an installed
capacity of 4,760MW, is currently the biggest thermal power plant in India. It is a coal-based power
plant owned and operated by NTPC.
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