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CLASS-10TH A,B,C

History-Nationalism in Europe, Nationalism in India, Age of Industrialisation
Geography-Resources & Development, Water Resources
S.St
Civics-Power Sharing, Federalism
Economics-Development, Sectors of Indian Economy, Money and Credit
Two Gentlemen of Verona, Mrs. Packletide's Tiger, The Letter, The frog and the nightingale, Mirror, Not
marble, Nor the gilded monuments, The dear departed, The diary of a young girl, The story of my life,
English
Omission, Editing, Dialogues Completion, Fillers, Comprehension Passages, Story Writing, Formal Letter
Writing
Real Numbers, Polynomials, Linear Equations In Two Variables, Quadratic Equations, Arithmetic
Maths
Progressions, Co-Ordinate Geometry, Trigonometry, Heights And Distances

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Physics Electricity, Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

Chemistry Chemical Reactions and Equations, Acids, Bases & Salts, Metals & Non-Metals

Biology Life Process, Control & Coordination
VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited

HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– SCIENCE
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –Xth Time : 3 Hours

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
I. The question paper is divided into three sections :

SECTION A : Physics 25 MARKS
1 questions of 2 mark each, 3 questions of 3 marks each, 2 questions of 5 marks each and 2 Practical/
Activity/knowledge based questions of 2 marks each (Q.7 and Q.8).

SECTION B : Chemistry 25 MARKS
1 questions of 2 mark each, 3 questions of 3 marks each, 2 questions of 5 marks each and 2 Practical/
Activity/knowledge based questions of 2 marks each (Q.15 and Q.16).

SECTION C : Biology 30 MARKS
2 questions of 2 mark each, 4 questions of 3 marks each, 2 questions of 5 marks each and 2 Practical/
Activity/knowledge based questions of 2 marks each (Q.27 and Q.28).
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. You may attempt any section at a time.
IV. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
V. Use only pencil to draw the diagram.

SECTION –A
1. Define electric current. Write its mathematical expression and SI unit. [2 Marks]

2. Write the conclusions of Oersted's experiment. [3 Marks]

3. Write any three properties of magnetic field lines. [3 Marks]

4. A household uses the following electric appliances [3 Marks]
(i) Refrigerator of rating 400W for 10 hr each day
(ii) 2-electric fans of rating 40 W each for 6 hr daily.
(iii) Six-electric tubes of rating 20 W each for 6 hr daily
Calculate the electricity bill for the household for a month of September, if cost of electrical energy is
`3 unit/day

5. (a) For a household circuit, different appliances are connected in parallel to one another. Why?
(b) An electrician places a fuse of rating 5A in that part of domestic electrical circuit where a heater is
operating of rating (1.5 kW, 220 V). What is likely to happen in this case and why? What changes, if
any, need to be made? [2+3=5 Marks]
6. (a) Draw a well-labelled diagram of D.C. motor and write its principle of working. [3+2=5 Marks]
(b) State the 'Faraday's laws of EMI.

7. Plot a graph between V and I values for given set of observations: [2 Marks]
V 0.8 1.7 3.2 3.9 6.4
I 0.2 0.4 0.8 1.0 1.6
Also state what conclusion can be drawn from these values?

8. You are given a straight conductor wire, a battery, a key, a cardboard and some iron filings. [2 Marks]
Write the steps along with a well-labelled diagram of the set-up to find the magnetic field lines.

SECTION –B
9. (a) Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yield bleaching powder [2 Marks]
(b) Name the sodium compound which is used for softening of hard water

10. Explain the following terms with one example each [3 Marks]
(a) Corrosion (b) Rancidity

11. (a) Which gas is usually liberated when acid reacts with metal? Illustrate with example. How will you test
presence of gas?
(b) Metals A react with dilute HCl & evolved a gas which produce effervescence. The gas evolved
extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical reaction if one of the compound is
calcium chloride [3 Marks]

12. Write the balanced chemical equation for following [3 Marks]
(i) Iron react with steam
(ii) Calcium & Potassium react with water

13. Explain the following reaction with example [5 Marks]
(a) Combination Reaction
(b) Displacement Reaction
(c) Double Displacement Reaction
(d) Redox Reaction.

14. Differentiate between metals & non-metal on the basis of (write any 3 difference of both) [5 Marks]
(a) Physical Properties (b) Chemical Properties

15. Rajesh took a carbon black powder on a spatula & heated it in excess oxygen. He collect gas evolved
by inverting a test tube over it [2 Marks]
(a) What is the action of gas on
(i) dry litmus paper
(ii) moist litmus paper
(iii) Write a method used for detection of evolved has.

16. Four Test tubes A, B, C, D contain distilled water. Now in [2 Marks]
Test tube A we add Potassium Sulphate
Test tube B we add Ammonium Nitrate
Test tube C we add Copper Sulphate
Test tube D we add Iron filling
(a) What will happen if we add solution of test tube A in test tube D. Write the balanced chemical equation
(b) What will happen if we add Zinc granules in test tube C. Write the balanced chemical equation

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SECTION –C

17. How would digestion of food be affected, if the bile duct is completely blocked? [2 Marks]

18. Name the physical process which is actually responsible for the gaseous exchange. [2 Marks]

19. Give the final product and number of ATP by breakdown of glucose in a cell [3 Marks]
(a) In the presence of oxygen
(b) In the absence of oxygen in yeast
(c) In lack of oxygen in muscle cell

20. (a) Name the artery that has deoxygenated blood and vein that has oxygenated blood. [3 Marks]
(b) Give an example of a plant parasite.
(c) Write the names of inhibitor hormones present in the plants ?

21. Write down the function of the following in digestive process.
(a) Mucus
(b) Bicarbonate secreted by duodenal wall
(c) Pancreatic amylase

22. (a) Draw a diagram to show open stomatal pore and label on it [3 Marks]
(i) Guard cell (ii) Chloroplast
(b) State two functions of stomata
(c) How do guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pore?
OR
Draw a neat diagram of human excretory system and label the following parts
(a) left kidney (b) ureter (c) urinary bladder (d) urethra

23. (a) How is brain protected from injury and shock? [3 Marks]
(b) Name two main parts of hind brain and state the functions of each.

24. (a) Photosynthesis occurs in sites other than leaves also, yet leaves are considered as the most
suitable site for photosynthesis. Why?
(b) What happens to the muscles of the diaphragm, the external intercostal muscles and the position of
diaphragm during inspiration?
(c) The energy needs of plants and animals vary considerably. Suggest a possible explanation for this
difference in need for energy in them.
OR
25. Explain double circulation in human heart with the help of a diagram. [5 Marks]

26. (a) Answer the following : [5 Marks]
(i) Name the part where air is filtered by fine hair and mucus.
(ii) Name the part that terminates in balloon-like structures.
(iii) Name balloon-like structures where exchange of gases takes place.
(iv) Name the part that separated chest cavity from abdominal cavity.
(b) Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial organisms ?
27. A part of de-starched leaf of a potted plant was covered with black paper strips on both sides and the plant
was kept in the sunlight for 8 hours. The leaf was then tested with iodine after boiling it in alcohol. If only the
uncovered part of the leaf turned blue-black, then what can be concluded from this? [2 Marks]
28. Can the experiment ‘to show the necessity of sunlight in photosynthesis’ be performed with a detached
leaf from the plant? Give reason. [2 Marks]

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VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited

HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– MATHEMATICS
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –Xth Time : 3 Hours

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each.
Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each.
Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in four questions of 3 marks
each and three questions of 4 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such
questions.
(v) Use of calculators is not permitted.

SECTION –A

1. Find the cubic polynomial with the sum, sum of the product of its zeros taken two at a time and product
of its zeros as 0, –7 and – 6 respectively. [1 Mark]

5 1  tan 
2. If sec  = , evaluate . [1 Mark]
4 1  tan 
3. Solve : 6x2 – x – 2 = 0 by the factorisation method. [1 Mark]
th th
4. Find the 12 , 24 , and nth term of the A.P. given by 9, 13, 17, 21, 25, ….. [1 Mark]
5. A number when divided by 61 gives 27 as quotient and 32 as remainder. Find the number. [1 Mark]
2
6. If the product of the zeros of the polynomial (ax – 6x – 6) is 4, find the value of a. [1 Mark]

SECTION –B
7. Use Euclid’s algorithm to find the HCF of 272 and 1032 [2 Marks]
2 2
8. If one zero of the polynomial (a + 9) x + 13x + 6a is reciprocal of the other. Find the value of a.
[2 Marks]

2 3 17 5 1
9. Solve :   ;  2 [2 Marks]
3x  2y 3x  2y 5 3x  2y 3x  2y

tan2 60  4 sin2 45  3 sec 2 30  5 cos2 90
10. Evaluate : [2 Marks]
cos ec30  sec 60  cot 2 30
1
11. The sum of two natural numbers is 9 and the sum of their reciprocals is . Find the numbers. [2 Marks]
2
12. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the join of A(–1, 7) and B(4, –3) in the ratio 2 : 3. [2 Marks]
SECTION–C
13. Find the values of m and n for which the following system of linear equations has infinitely many
solutions: 3x + 4y = 12, (m + n) x + 2 (m – n)y = (5m – 1) [3 Marks]
14. A person sells two articles together for Rs. 46, making a profit of 10% on one and 20% on the other. If
he had sold each article at 15% profit, the result would have been the same. At what price does he sell
each article ? [3 Marks]
15. Prove that : sec2  + cosec2  = sec2  cosec 2  [3 Marks]
2
16. Solve the equation 2x + x – 4 = 0 by the method of completing the square. [3 Marks]
2
17. Find the value of k for which the quadratic equation (k + 4)x + (k + 1) x + 1 = 0 has two real equal roots.
[3 Marks]
18. The area of a right-angled triangle is 600 sq cm. If the base of the triangle exceeds the altitude by 10
cm, find the dimensions of the triangle. [3 Marks]
19. The first term of an A.P. is –7 and the common difference 5. Find its 18th term and the general term.
[3 Marks]
20. A manufacturer of radio sets produced 800 units in the third year and 1700 units in the seventh year.
Assuming that the product increases uniformly by a fixed number every year, find
(i) the production in the first year
(ii) the production in the 10th year. [3 Marks]
21. Find the sum of all odd numbers between 100 and 200. [3 Marks]
22. If the point C(–2, 3) is equidistant from the points A(3, –1) and B(x, 8), find the values of x. Also, find the
distance BC. [3 Marks]
SECTION–D
23. Prove that the square of any positive integer is of the form 5m, 5m + 1 or 5m + 4 for some integer m.
[4 Marks]
24. In a school there are two section, namely A and B, of class X. There are 30 students in section A and 28
students in section B. Find the minimum number of books required for their class library so that they can
be distributed equally among students of section A or section B. [4 Marks]

25. If two zeros of the polynomial f(x) = x4 – 6x3 – 26x2 + 138x – 35 are 2  3 , find other zeros. [4 Marks]

(1  cot A  tan A)(sin A  cos A)
26. Prove that : = sin2 Acos2 A. [4 Marks]
sec 3 A  cos ec 3 A
27. The total cost of a certain length of a piece of wire is Rs. 200. If the piece was 5 metre longer and each
metre of wire costs Rs. 2 less, the cost of the piece would have remained unchanged. How long is the
piece and what is its original rate per metre? [4 Marks]
28. A statue 1.46 m tall stand on the top of a pedestal. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of
the top of the statue is 60° and from the same point, the angle of elevation of the top of the pedestal is
45°. Find the height of the pedestal. [4 Marks]
29. Show that the points A(–5, 6), B(3, 0) and C(9, 8) are the vertices of an isosceles right-angled triangle.
Calculate its area. [4 Marks]

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AP 1
30. Point P divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 1) and B(5, –8) such that  . If P lies on
AB 3
the line 2x – y + k = 0, find the value of k. [4 Marks]

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ANSWER KEY
COURSE – X Half Yearly DATE :
1 2 1
1. x3 – 7x + 6 2. 3. or  4. 53, 101, 4n + 5 5. 1679
7 3 2

3
6. – 7. 8 8. 3 9. x = 1, y = 1 10. 9 11. 6, 3
2

1  33
12. (1, 3) 13. m = 5, n = 1 14. 22 Rs., 24 Rs. 16. 17. 5, –3
4
18. 30, 40, 50 cm 19. 78, 5n – 12 20. 350, 2375 21. 7500

22. 2, – 6, 41 units 24. 420 25. 7, –5 27. 20 m, 10 Rs./m

28. 1.99 m 29. 50 sq. units 30. –8

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VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited

HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– SOCIAL SCIENCE
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –Xth Time : 3 Hours

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 7 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 11 questions of 3 marks each.
Section C contains 7 questions of 5 marks each.
Section D contains 1 question of 5 marks (Map works).

SECTION –A
1. What is sustainable development ? [1 Mark]

2. What is GDP ? [1 Mark]

3. Define the term money. [1 Mark]

4. What is ethnic composition ? [1 Mark]

5. What are the sources of fresh water ? [1 Mark]

6. What was Rowlatt Act ? [1 Mark]

7. Name two secret societies set up in Italy in early 19th century. [1 Mark]

SECTION –B
8. “Different persons can have different development goals”. Explain. [3 Marks]

9. ‘Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well.’ Explain. [3 Marks]

10. 'While estimating the national income, only the value of the final goods and services is used.' Explain
with the help of an example. [3 Marks]

11. ‘Problem of lack of double coincidence of wants exists in Barter system'. Explain. [3 Marks]

12. Explain the major forms of power sharing in modern democracies. [3 Marks]

13. What is decentralisation ? What is the importance or need for decentralisation ? [3 Marks]

14. Differentiate between horizontal division of powers and vertical division of powers. [3 Marks]
15. What is resource planning ? Mention the steps which are involved in resource planning. [3 Marks]

16. Multipurpose projects are called the “Temple of modern India”. Discuss. [3 Marks]

17. What is the importance of the Lahore Congress Session of 1929 ? [3 Marks]

18. What were the major proposals of the Vienna Congress. [3 Marks]

SECTION –C
19. What is the main criterion used by the world Bank in classifying different countries ? What are the
limitations of this criterion ? [5 Marks]

20. Explain the major key features of federalism. [5 Marks]

21. How were the ethnic problems solved in Belgium? Mention any four steps which were taken by the
government to solve the problems ? [5 Marks]

22. Explain five different types of soil and their important features. [5 Marks]

23. What are the drawbacks of multipurpose river project ? [5 Marks]

24. How was the Civil Disobedience Movement differ from earlier movements ? [5 Marks]

25. Explain the reasons for decline of Indian textile industry by the end of 19th century. [5 Marks]

SECTION –D

26. (i) On the political map of India mark & Name (label) the following places: [5 Marks]
(a) Movement of Indigo planters
(b) Jallianwala Bagh Incident

(ii) On the political map of India locate and label the following:
(a) Bhakra Nangal Dam
(b) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
(c) Hirakud Dam

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– ENGLISH
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –Xth Time : 3 Hours

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
I. The question paper is divided into three sections :
SECTION A : Reading 20 MARKS
SECTION B : Writing & Grammar 30 MARKS
SECTION C : Literature 30 MARKS
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. You may attempt any section at a time.
IV. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

Section A : Reading [20 Marks]
1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : [12 Marks]
Time management is the act of planning and managing time that is spent on various activities. It helps
to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the time utilised. It helps us to work smarter instead of
harder and also enables us to get more work done in less amount of time. Planning the time may seem
as a wastage of time in itself ; however, the benefits of time management are enormous. It results in
less stress, increased productivity, efficiency, professional and personal growth etc.
Time is limited and hence, it is important that we plan our time wisely and make the best use of the
limited hours in a day. Time is something that we cannot store or save for later use. We cannot retrieve
the time that has been wasted ; hence, we need to learn to use it effectively. If we have to manage time
effectively, we need to be organised and focused.
With the help of time management techniques, we can accomplish more with lesser efforts. Time
management includes effective planning of activities, setting of goals, setting deadlines, delegating
work, prioritising our activities etc.
Most people feel that they always have too much to do and within too little time. Managing time wisely
will help to find the right balance between time and work. A few people resort to multi-tasking in order to
get the work done within the specified time limit. At times, this may result in poor performance in the
various tasks assigned. The major mistake committed while working is when one is in a rush to meet the
deadline without taking proper breaks for rest or relaxation. It is impossible for anyone to focus on work
and to produce good results without
Considering any break in between. It helps to perform better if one takes a five minute break every two hours
of work. One can either take a walk, enjoy a cup of coffee or simply meditate. Proper time management is
the cornerstone of a successful life and ensure achievement of one's goals in a healthy manner.
(i) State two ways in which time management helps us. [1 Marks]
(ii) What are the results of better time management? [1 Marks]
(iii) Why do we need to learn to use time effectively? [1 Marks]
(iv) What are the time management techniques used? [1 Marks]
(v) What is the major benefit of using time management techniques? [2 Marks]
(vi) How does managing time wisely help people who feel that they have too little time to do their work?
[2 Marks]
(vii) How is multi-tasking to get the work done within the specified time limit not helpful? [2 Marks]
(viii) Why does taking a short break in between sessions of work helpful for better results? [2 Marks]
2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : [8 Marks]
Till a few years ago, cyclists were a rare sight on city roads, as traversing through steep climbs seemed
an unimaginable task. However, cycling seems to be fast catching up among locals in the hill town.
Given the steady rise in vehicle population, it is indeed a welcome change. With more people pedalling
their way around the city, some taking it as a form of outdoor physical activity, vehicular traffic is bound
to decrease on roads.
Every morning, Rohit Rajpal, owner of a cafe on the Mail Road, zealously cycles his way to Company
Garden or Camel's Back Road, besides the Library Bazaar, whenever he wants to pick up goodies for
his cafe. "I think cycling is one of the best aerobic exercises. Besides, you also contribute in keeping the
environment clean", said the cycling enthusiast. For some, cycling continues to be an energetic and
enthralling experience.
Norway-based Keshave Nrugham, who has been living in Mussoorie for nearly three years. says it's the
best way to stay fit and do your bit for the environment. Aged above 50 years, Keshav rides more than
15 km (one way) from Kempty Road till Lal Tibba every morning. Though traffic on the route, particularly
around kempty Road and the steep climb from Landour to Lal Tibba, poses hurdles on the way, it has
failed to deter his spirit. Despite the age factor, he cycles for almost 30 kms daily. Due to the rising
number of cyclists in the city, shops have also come up wherein fitness freaks and tourists can take
bicycles on rent. "We started renting cycles on an experimental basis but it has become a popular
activity now. In fact, there are days when people have to wait to get cycles on rent. We received an
overwhelming response from tourists", says pitamber, owner of a cycle shop.
Sandeep Jain, an advocate from Faridabad, who recently visited Mussoorie along with his three friends,
told TOI, "We rented cycles for the entire day and rode to George Everest House and also the Mail
Road. It was a great experience.
(i) How is vehicular traffic bound to decrease?
(ii) Rajat Rajpal is the .......... of a cafe on .......... Road.
(iii) .......... from Norway finds it the best way to stay fit and also do his bit to save the environment.
(iv) What has failed to deter Keshav's spirit?
(v) Due to the rising trend for cycling in the city, the cycles are also now available on ..........
(vi) What has happened due to rising number of cyclists in the city?
(vii) Pitambar, owner of a cycle shop, says that on some days the response is so overwhelming that
people .......... .
(viii) Where did Sandeep Jain ride on the cycle?

Section B : Writing & Grammar [30 Marks]
3. Caste-based discrimination is a stigma on the forehead of our country and is one of the main factors
that impede the progress of the nation. Being a concerned citizen, write your views to the Editor of The
Hindu. [8 Marks]

4. Write a short story in 200-250 words with the beginning given below : [10 Marks]
Tim came running to Helen. He was out of breath and immeasurable horror was conspicuous on his
face. He blurted out, "Grandma is ....."

5. Read the passage given below. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate
words/phrases from the given options.
My deadline for the day's incredible, awe inspiring column (a) ......... the Tribune was three hours away,
and I was in a jam. I (b) ....... already tossed three ideas into the recycle bin and was staring at a blank
screen again. The really tricky thing about (c) ……… a 'witty' column is that between Mark Twain, Oscar
Wilde and Dorothy Parker, everything worth saying (d) ……. Already been said.
(a) (i) at (ii) on (iii) in (iv) for
(b) (i) had (ii) have (iii) will have (iv) am
(c) (i) drawing (ii) inditing (iii) making (iv) writing
(d) (i) had (ii) has (iii) have (iv) did [1 × 4 = 4 Marks]
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6. The following passages have not been edited. There is an error in each of the lines against
which a blank is given. Write the correct word in the space provided. Remember to underline the
word that you have supplied. [1 × 4 = 4 Marks]
Incorrect Correct
(a) Cancer is an deadly disease. ………… …………
(b) Thousands of people succumbed ………… …………
(c) their lives in it every year. ………… …………
(d) We must avoids cancer-causing things. ………… …………

7. Rearrange the following words/phrases to form meaningful sentences. [1 × 4 = 4 Marks]
(a) election except/ commiseration/ of /for/ the/ have/ never/ shown/ this/ country/ in / campaigns/ they /poor .
(b) eat/have/they/to/why/anything/never/had.
(C) death/him/put/offence/petty/who/to/a/for/such
(D) says/what/he/mind/never/should/you

Section C : Literature 30 [Marks]

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow: [4 marks]
8. ln a world, that is supposed to be chiefly swayed by hunger and by love, Mrs. Packletide was an
exception, her movements and motive were largely governed by dislike of Loona Bimberton.
(a) How is the world chiefly swayed by ?
(b) How was Mrs. Packletide an exception ?
(c) How was Mrs. Packletide governed ?
(d) Why did she dislike Loona?
OR

‘Not marble, nor the gilded monuments
Of princes, shall outlive this powerful rhyme;’
(a) What does the poet mean by marble?
(b) Who are the people who get gilded monuments made?
(c) What will happen to ‘marble’ and ‘gilded monuments’?
(d) Who indited this poem?

9. Answer the following questions in 30-40 words each. [8 Marks]
1. Why is the frog's joy both sweet and bitter?
2. Comment on the greediness of the Slaters and the Jordans.
3. The two boys were gentlemen in truth. Enumerate.
4. What sustained Ali's faith and hope that the letter would come?

10. Answer the following question in detail. [8 Marks]
"The Frog and the Nightingale" portrays the exploiter and the exploited. Enumerate.

11. Determination and perseverance is the key that surmounts all obstacles. Explain in light of Helen Keller's
life in "The Story of My Life". [10 Marks]
OR
"The Diary of a Young Girl" poignantly portrays the plight of the Jews during Hitler's persecution and
carnage of them.

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v) Z
okf"kZ
d i j h{kk
fo"k; – fgUnh *v*
vf/kdre vad : 80 d{kk –Xth le; : 3 ?k.Vs
lkekU; funsZ'k
(i) lHkh iz'u djuk vfuok;Z gS-
(ii) bl iz'u i= esa pkj [k.M fn;s x;s gS
[k.M ^d* & vifBr x|ka'k
[k.M ^[k* & O;kdj.k
[k.M ^x* & ikB~;iwLrd
[k.M ^?k* & jpuk
[k.M ^d*&vifBr x|ka'k
1. fuEufyf[kr x|ka'k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+dj iwNs x, Á'uksa ds mÙkj fyf[k, [9 Marks]
laLd`r esa ,d dgkor gS fd nqtZu nwljksa ds jkbZ ds leku ekewyh nks"kksa dks igkM+ ds leku cM+k cukdj ns[krk gS vkSj
vius igkM+ ds leku cM+s ikiksa dks ns[krs gq, Hkh ugha ns[krkA lTtu ;k egkRek Bhd blds foijhr gksrs gSaA mudk
/;ku nwljksa dh ctk; dsoy vius nks"kksa ij tkrk gSA vf/kdka'k O;fDr;ksa esa dksbZ u dksbZ cqjkbZ vo'; gksrh gSA dksbZ Hkh
cqjkbZ u gksus ij O;fDr nsork dh dksfV esa vk tkrk gSA euq"; dks viuh cqjkb;ksa dks nwj djus dk Á;Ru djuk pkfg,
u fd nwljksa dh dfe;ksa dks ysdj NhaVkd'kh djus dk ;k Vhdk fVIi.kh djus dkA vius eu dh ij[k eu dks ifo=
djus dk lcls mÙke lk/ku gSA
vkRefujh{k.k vkRek dh mUufr dk loZJs"B ekxZ gSA egkRek dchj us dgk gS fd tc eSaus eu dh iM+rky dh rks eq>s
vius tSlk cqjk dksbZ u feykA egkRek xk¡/kh us dbZ ckj Li"V :i ls dgk Fkk fd eSaus thou esa fgeky; tSlh cM+h Hkwy
dh gSA viuh Hkwyksa dks /;ku nsuk ;k mUgsa Lohdkj djuk vkRecy dk Árhd gSA
tks yksx nwljksa ds lkeus viuh Hkwy ugha ekurs vkSj u gh vius dks nks"kh Lohdkj djrs gSa] os lcls cM+s dk;j gSaA
ftudk var%dj.k 'kh'ks ds leku mtyk gS] mls rqjar viuh Hkwy eglwl gks tkrh gSA eu rks niZ.k gSA eu esa iki gS]
rks tx esa iki fn[kkbZ nsrk gSA ifo= vkpj.k okys vius eu dks ns[krs gSa] rks mUgsa yxrk gS fd vHkh blesa dksbZ deh
jg xbZ gSA blfy, os vius dks cqjk dgrs gSaA ;gh mudh uezrk o lk/kuk gSA
¼d½ nqtZu o lTtu O;fDr viuh fdl pkfjf=d fo'ks"krk ds dkj.k fHkUu dgykrs gS\a [2 Marks]
¼[k½ mUufr dk loZJs"B ekxZ fdls o D;ksa ekuk x;k gS\ [2 Marks]
¼x½ lcls cM+k dk;j dkSu gS\ [2 Marks]
¼?k½ lTtu O;fDr;ksa dh uezrk dk ifjp; fdl Ádkj feyrk gS\ [2 Marks]
¼³½ ÁLrqr x|ka'k dk mi;qDr 'kh"kZd fyf[k,A [1 Marks]
2. ÁLrqr dkO;ka'k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+dj iwNs x, Á'uksa ds lgh mÙkj fyf[k,A [2 × 3 = 6 Marks]
ge tax u gksus nsaxs!
fo'o 'kkafr ds ge lk/kd gS]
tax u gksus nsax!
dHkh u [ksrksa esa fQj [kwuh [kkn Qysxh]
[kfygkuksa esa ugha ekSr dh Qly f[kysx h
vkleku fQj dHkh u v¡xkjs mxysxk]
,Ve esa ukxklkdh fQj ugha tysxk]
;q)foghu fo'o dk liuk Hkax u gksus nsaxsA
tax u gksus nsaxsA
gfFk;kjksa ds <sjksa ij ftudk gS Msjk]
eq¡g esa 'kkafr] cxy esa ce] /kks[ks dk Qsjk
dQ+u cspus okyksa ls dg nks fpYykdj
nqfu;k tku xbZ gS mudk mlyh psgjk]
dke;kc gks mudh pkysa] <ax u gksus nsaxsA
tax u gksus nsaxsA
gesa pkfg, 'kkafr] fT+kanxh gedks I;kjh
gesa pkfg, 'kkafr] l`tu dh gS rS;kjh
geus NsM+h tax Hkw[ k ls] chekjh ls
vkxs vkdj gkFk c¡Vk, nqfu;k lkjhA
gjh&Hkjh /kjrh dks [kwuh jax u ysus nsaxsA
tax u gksus nsaxsA
I. dfo ds vuqlkj] og [kfygkuksa esa fdldh Qly ugha gksus nsxk\
II. dQ+u cspus okyksa ls dfo D;k dguk pkgrk gS\
III. dfo ds vuqlkj] geus fdlls tax NsM+h gS\

[k.M ^[k*&O;kdj.k
3. okD; dh ifjHkk"kk nsrs gq, mlds vaxksa ds uke crkb,A [3 Marks]

4. la;qDr o fefJr ;k feJ okD;ksa ls vki D;k le>rs gSa\ [3 Marks]

5. fuEufyf[kr okD;ksa dks la;qDr okD;ksa esa cnfy, [2 x 2 = 4 Marks]
(i) vki ogha cSBdj Árh{kk djsaA
(ii) ;fn og rst nkSM +rk] rks thr tkrkA

6. okP; fdls dgrs gS\a mnkgj.k lfgr le>k,¡A [3 Marks]

7. okP; ds fdrus Hksn gS\a [3 Marks]

8. fuEufyf[kr okD;ksa esa okP; igpkudj Hksn crkb, [2 x 4 = 8 Marks]
(i) eq>ls cks> mBk;k ugha tkrkA
(ii) jk"Vªi fr dy Hkk"k.k nsaxsA
(iii) esjk fe= leL;k ij fopkj dj jgk gSA
(iv) vfer ls nkSM+k ugha tkrkA

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[k.M ^x*&ikB~;iqLrd
9. xksfi;ksa }kjk m)o dks HkkX;oku dgus esa D;k O;aX; fufgr gS\ [4 x 7 = 28 Marks]

10. y{e.k us ohj ;ks)k dh D;k & D;k fo'ks"krk,¡ crkbZ\a

11. dfork dk 'kh"kZd *mRlkg* D;ksa j[kk x;k gS\
12. cPps dh narqfjr eqldku dk dfo ds eu ij D;k ÁHkko iM+rk gS\
13. lsukuh u gksrs gq, Hkh p'esokys dks yksx dSIVu D;ksa dgrs Fks\

14. [ksrhckM+h ls tqM+s x`g LFk ckyxksfcu Hkxr viuh fdu pkfjf=d fo'ks"krkvksa ds dkj.k lk/kq dgykrs Fks\
15. ys[kd us Qknj cqYds dks *ekuoh; d:.kk dh fnO; ped* D;ksa dgk gSa\

[k.M ^?k*&jpuk
16. fuEufyf[kr fo"k;ksa ij fn, x, ladsr fcanqvksa ds vk/kkj ij ¼200&250½ 'kCnksa esa ,d fuca/k fyf[k,A [13 Marks]

(i) foeqæhdj.k
ladsr fcanq
  Hkwfedk  foeqæhdj.k ds dkj.k
 foeqæhdj.k dk YkkHk  foeqæhdj.k dh gkfu
 milagkj
vFkok
(ii) cky&Je
ladsr fcanq
  Hkwfedk  cky&Je ds dkj.k
  cky&Je jksdus ds mik; ,oa Á;kl  milagkj 

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2425408 (edge.vibrantacademy.com) 3
VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited

v) Z
okf"kZ
d i j h{kk
fo"k; – fgUnh *c*
vf/kdre vad : 80 d{kk –Xth le; : 3 ?k.Vs
lkekU; funsZ'k
(i) lHkh iz'u djuk vfuok;Z gS-
(ii) bl iz'u i= esa pkj [k.M fn;s x;s gS
[k.M ^d* & vifBr x|ka'k
[k.M ^[k* & O;kdj.k
[k.M ^x* & ikB~;iwLrd
[k.M ^?k* & jpuk
[k.M ^d*&vifBr x|ka'k

1. fuEufyf[kr x|ka'k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+dj iwNs x, Á'uksa ds mÙkj fyf[k, [9 Marks]
laLd`r esa ,d dgkor gS fd nqtZu nwljksa ds jkbZ ds leku ekewyh nks"kksa dks igkM+ ds leku cM+k cukdj ns[krk gS vkSj vius
igkM+ ds leku cM+s ikiksa dks ns[krs gq, Hkh ugha ns[krkA lTtu ;k egkRek Bhd blds foijhr gksrs gSaA mudk /;ku nwljksa
dh ctk; dsoy vius nks"kksa ij tkrk gSA vf/kdka'k O;fDr;ksa esa dksbZ u dksbZ cqjkbZ vo'; gksrh gSA dksbZ Hkh cqjkbZ u gksus ij
O;fDr nsork dh dksfV esa vk tkrk gSA euq"; dks viuh cqjkb;ksa dks nwj djus dk Á;Ru djuk pkfg, u fd nwljksa dh
dfe;ksa dks ysdj NhaVkd'kh djus dk ;k Vhdk fVIi.kh djus dkA vius eu dh ij[k eu dks ifo= djus dk lcls mÙke
lk/ku gSA
vkRefujh{k.k vkRek dh mUufr dk loZJs"B ekxZ gSA egkRek dchj us dgk gS fd tc eSaus eu dh iM+rky dh rks eq>s vius
tSlk cqjk dksbZ u feykA egkRek xk¡/kh us dbZ ckj Li"V :i ls dgk Fkk fd eSaus thou esa fgeky; tSlh cM+h Hkwy dh gSA
viuh Hkwyksa dks /;ku nsuk ;k mUgsa Lohdkj djuk vkRecy dk Árhd gSA
tks yksx nwljksa ds lkeus viuh Hkwy ugha ekurs vkSj u gh vius dks nks"kh Lohdkj djrs gSa] os lcls cM+s dk;j gSaA ftudk
var%dj.k 'kh'ks ds leku mtyk gS] mls rqjar viuh Hkwy eglwl gks tkrh gSA eu rks niZ.k gSA eu esa iki gS] rks tx esa iki
fn[kkbZ nsrk gSA ifo= vkpj.k okys vius eu dks ns[krs gSa] rks mUgsa yxrk gS fd vHkh blesa dksbZ deh jg xbZ gSA blfy, os
vius dks cqjk dgrs gSaA ;gh mudh uezrk o lk/kuk gSA
¼d½ nqtZu o lTtu O;fDr viuh fdl pkfjf=d fo'ks"krk ds dkj.k fHkUu dgykrs gS\a [2 Marks]
¼[k½ mUufr dk loZJs"B ekxZ fdls o D;ksa ekuk x;k gS\ [2 Marks]
¼x½ lcls cM+k dk;j dkSu gS\ [2 Marks]
¼?k½ lTtu O;fDr;ksa dh uezrk dk ifjp; fdl Ádkj feyrk gS\ [2 Marks]
¼³½ ÁLrqr x|ka'k dk mi;qDr 'kh"kZd fyf[k,A [1 Mark]
2. ÁLrqr dkO;ka'k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+dj iwNs x, Á'uksa ds lgh mÙkj fyf[k,A [2 × 3 = 6 Marks]
ge tax u gksus nsaxs!
fo'o 'kkafr ds ge lk/kd gS]
tax u gksus nsax!
dHkh u [ksrksa esa fQj [kwuh [kkn Qysxh]
[kfygkuksa esa ugha ekSr dh Qly f[kysx h
vkleku fQj dHkh u v¡xkjs mxysxk]
,Ve esa ukxklkdh fQj ugha tysxk]
;q)foghu fo'o dk liuk Hkax u gksus nsaxsA
tax u gksus nsaxsA
gfFk;kjksa ds <sjksa ij ftudk gS Msjk]
eq¡g esa 'kkafr] cxy esa ce] /kks[ks dk Qsjk
dQ+u cspus okyksa ls dg nks fpYykdj
nqfu;k tku xbZ gS mudk mlyh psgjk]
dke;kc gks mudh pkysa] <ax u gksus nsaxsA
tax u gksus nsaxsA
gesa pkfg, 'kkafr] fT+kanxh gedks I;kjh
gesa pkfg, 'kkafr] l`tu dh gS rS;kjh
geus NsM+h tax Hkw[ k ls] chekjh ls
vkxs vkdj gkFk c¡Vk, nqfu;k lkjhA
gjh&Hkjh /kjrh dks [kwuh jax u ysus nsaxsA
tax u gksus nsaxsA
I. dfo ds vuqlkj] og [kfygkuksa esa fdldh Qly ugha gksus nsxk\
II. dQ+u cspus okyksa ls dfo D;k dguk pkgrk gS\
III. dfo ds vuqlkj] geus fdlls tax NsM+h gS\

[k.M ^[k*&O;kdj.k
3. 'kCn rFkk in esa varj Li"V dhft,A [3 Marks]

4. *flag tSls ohj] rqe bu rqPN yksxksa ls Hk;Hkhr gks\ js[kkafdr okD; esa dkSu&lk inca/k gS\ [3 Marks]

5. thrus okys f[kykM+h blh 'kgj ds gSaA js[kkafdr okD; esa dkSu&lk inca/k gS\ [3 Marks]

6. jpuk ds vk/kkj ij okD; ds fdrus Hksn gksrs gSa\ uke fyf[k,A [3 Marks]

7. fuEufyf[kr okD;ksa dks feJ okD;ksa esa cnfy,A [2 × 2 = 4 Marks]
(i) og Qy [kjhnus ds fy, ckT+kkj x;kA
(ii) mlds 'kksj epkus ds ckn mlds iM+kslh ckgj vk x,A

8. fuEufyf[kr okD;ksa dks la;qDr okD;ksa esa cnfy,A [2 × 2 = 4 Marks]
(i) Ákr%dky gksus ij fpfM+;k¡ pgpgkus yxrh gSaA
(ii) ?kj igq¡pdj cPps us x`gdk;Z djuk 'kq: fd;kA

9. lekl ds fdrus Hksn gS\a ÁR;sd dk uke fyf[k,A [4 Marks]

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10. fuEufyf[kr leLrinksa dk foxzg dhft,] rFkk lekl dk uke Hkh fyf[k,A [1 × 5 = 5 Marks]
(i) nsoewfrZ (ii) gLrfyf[kr
(iii) deyu;u (iv) tyÁnw"k.k
(v) fnu&jkr

[k.M ^x*&ikB~;iwLrd

11. bZ'oj d.k&d.k esa O;kIr gS] ij ge mls D;ksa ugha ns[k ikrs\ [4 × 7 = 28 Marks]

12. ehjkckbZ us Jhd`".k ds :i&lkSan;Z dk o.kZu dSls fd;k gS\
13. *lPps eu esa jke clrs gSa* &nksgs ds lans'k dks lanHkkZuqlkj Li"V dhft,A
14. *euq";rk* dfork ds ek/;e ls dfo D;k lans'k nsuk pkgrk gS\
15. NksVs HkkbZ us viuh i<+kbZ dk Vkbe&Vsfcy cukrs le; D;k&D;k lkspk vkSj fQj mldk ikyu D;ksa ugha dj ik;k\
16. Þvkt tks ckr Fkh og fujkyh Fkhß fdl ckr ls irk py jgk Fkk fd vkt dk fnu vius vki esa fujkyk gS\ Li"V
dhft,A
17. rrk¡jk&okehjks dh R;kxe;h e`R;q ls fudksckj esa D;k ifjorZu vk;k\

[k.M ^?k*&jpuk
18. fuEu esa ls fdlh ,d fo"k; ij ¼80&100½ 'kCnksa esa vuqPNsn fyf[k, [8 Marks]
(i) Xyksc y okfeZx
• Xyksc y okfeZx D;k gS rFkk dSls gksrh gS\
• nq"ifj.kke
• cpko RkFkk milagkj
vFkok
(ii) yksdra= vkSj pquko
• yksdra= dk vFkZ
• pquko dh vko';drk
• lgh izfrfuf/k ds pqu ko ls yksdra= dh j{kk

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