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TNLMN51 2018

BYJU’S TEST SERIES

(MOCK NEET PAPER – 2)
Maximum Marks: 720
Topics Covered:

Physics : 1 & 2- Dimensional & Projectile Motion, Units & Dimensions, Vectors & calculus

Chemistry: Chemical Bonding, Atomic Structure & periodic Classification

Biology: Plant Kingdom & Animal Kingdom, Living World & Biological Classification

Important Instruction:

1. Use Blue / Black Ball point pen only.

2. There are three sections of equal weightage in the question paper A, B, C Physics, Chemistry
having 45 questions each and Biology having 90 questions.
3. You are awarded +4 marks for each correct answer and -1 mark for each incorrect answer.
4. Use of calculator and other electronic devices is not allowed during the exam.
5. No extra sheets will be provided for any kind of work.

Roll No……………………………………… Contact No: ………………………………….

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PART – A (PHYSICS)

1. Given vector A  2iˆ  3 ˆj, the angle between A and y-axis is

1 1 1 1
(a) tan 3 / 2 (b) tan 2 / 3 (c) sin 2 / 3 (d) cos 2 / 3

2. Velocity time graph of an object in linear motion is represented by the adjacent graph, displacement of the
object after 28 seconds from the origin is

(a) 75 m (b) 125 m (c) 50 m (d) 100 m

3. According to Newton, the viscous force acting between liquid layers of area A and velocity gradient v / z is
v
given by F  A where  is constant called coefficient of viscosity. The dimensions of  are
z
(a) [ML2T 2 ] 1 1
(b) [ML T ]
2 2
(c) [ML T ]
0 0 0
(d) [M L T ]

4. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate  for some time, after which it decelerates at a constant rate  ,
and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t , the maximum velocity acquired by the car will be
2   2 2   2  
(a) (b) t (c) t (d) t
   

5. A particle (A) is dropped from a height and another particle (B) is thrown in horizontal direction with speed of 5
m/sec from the same height. The correct statement is
(a) Both particles will reach at ground simultaneously
(b) Both particles will reach at ground with same speed
(c) Particle (A) will reach at ground first with respect to particle (B)
(d) Particle (B) will reach at ground first with respect to particle (A)

6. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How much will be
the maximum error in the estimation of the kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed?
(a) 11% (b) 8% (c) 5% (d) 1%

7. Find the resultant of three vectors OA, OB and OC shown in the following figure. Radius of the circle is R.

(a) 2R (b) R(1  2) (c) R 2 (d) R( 2  1)

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8. Newton–second is the unit of
(a) Velocity (b) Angular momentum (c) Momentum (d) Energy

 v0 
9. The position of a particle at time t is given by the relation x(t )    (1  c t ) , where v0 is a constant and
 
  0 . The dimensions of v0 and  are respectively
(a) M 0 L1T 1 and T 1 (b) M 0 L1T 0 and T 1 (c) M 0 L1T 1 and LT 2 (d) M 0 L1T 1 and T

10. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of 500 m/s and a bomb released from it, strikes the ground
in 10 sec. Angle at which it strikes the ground will be ( g  10 m / s 2 )
1 1 1
tan1 (5)
(a) tan1   (b) tan   (c) tan (1) (d)
 5 5
11. The equation of motion of a projectile are given by x = 36 t metre and 2y = 96 t – 9.8 t2 metre. The angle of
projection is
 4  3  4  3
(a) sin 1   (b) sin 1   (c) sin 1   (d) sin 1  
5 5  3  4
12. A wire has a mass 0.3  0.003 g , radius 0.5  0.005mm and length 6  0.06cm . The maximum percentage
error in the measurement of its density is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

13. The position of a bird with respect to a reference point in metre is given by x  2t  7t  2 . The
2

displacement of the bird between the time interval t  0 to t  2 seconds is

(a) 6 m (b) 10 m (c)  10 m (d)  6 m

14. The vectors from origin to the points A and B are A  3iˆ  6 ˆj  2kˆ and B  2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ respectively. The
area of the triangle OAB be
5 2 3 5
(a) 17 sq.unit (b) 17 sq.unit (c) 17 sq.unit (d) 17 sq.unit
2 5 5 3

15. The displacement-time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30o and 60o
with the time axis. The ratio of velocities of VA : VB is
(a) 1: 2 (b) 1: 3 (c) 3 :1 (d) 1: 3
1/ 2
p F 
16. The frequency of vibration of string is given by     . Here p is number of segments in the string and
2l  m 
l is the length. The dimensional formula for m will be
(a) [M 0 LT 1 ] (b) [ML T ]
0 1 1
(c) [ML T ]
0
(d) [M
0 0
L T0]

17. Position of a body with acceleration 'a' is given by x  Ka t , here t is time. Find dimension of m and n.
m n

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(a) V1 is parallel to V2 (b) V 1 V 2 (c) V1 and V2 are mutually perpendicular (d) | V 1 | | V 2 |

20. If radius of the sphere is (5.3  0.1) cm. Then percentage error in its volume will be
100 1 100  3  0.1  0.1
(a) 3  6.01 (b)  0.01 (c)   100 (d) 100
5.3 3 5.3  5.3  5.3
21. The unit of percentage error is
(a) Same as that of physical quantity
(b) Different from that of physical quantity
(c) Percentage error is unit less
(d) Errors have got their own units which are different from that of physical quantity measured

b
22. The velocity v (in cm / sec ) of a particle is given in terms of time t (in sec) by the relation v  at  ; the
t c
dimensions of a, b and c are
(a) a  L , b  T , c  LT 2
2
(b) a  LT 2 , b  LT , c  L
(c) a  LT 2 , b  L, c  T (d) a  L, b  LT , c  T 2

23. An object is moving through the liquid. The viscous damping force acting on it is proportional to the velocity.
Then dimension of constant of proportionality is
(a) ML1T 1 (b) MLT1 (c) M 0 LT 1 (d) ML0T 1

24. A 100 m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/hr. The time taken by the train to cross a bridge
of length 1 km is
(a) 58 s (b) 68 s (c) 78 s (d) 88 s

25. A particle is moving eastwards with velocity of 5 m/s. In 10 second the velocity changes to 5 m/s northwards.
The average acceleration in this time is
1
(a) Zero (b) m/s 2 toward north-west
2
1 1
(c) m/s 2 toward north-east (d) m/s 2 toward north-west
2 2

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26. Figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank the paths according
to initial horizontal velocity component, highest first

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 (c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

27. Two forces 3N and 2 N are at an angle  such that the resultant is R. The first force is now increased to 6N and
the resultant become 2R. The value of  is
(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 120°

28. Accuracy of measurement is determined by

(a) Absolute error (b) Percentage (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

29. A plane is revolving around the earth with a speed of 100 km/hr at a constant height from the surface of earth.
The change in the velocity as it travels half circle is
(a) 200 km/hr (b) 150 km/hr (c) 100 2 km/ hr (d) 0

30. The correct statement from the following is

(a) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero acceleration
(b) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero acceleration
(c) A body having uniform speed can have only uniform acceleration
(d) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero acceleration

1
31. A river is 20 m wide. River speed is 3ms . A boat starts with velocity 2 2 m s at angle 45o from the river
current. Find the time taken by the boat to reach the opposite bank
(a) 15s (b) 20s (c) 10s (d) 5s

1
32. The dimensions of K in the equation W  Kx2 is
2
(a) M 1L0T 2 (b) M 0 L1T 1 (c) M 1L1T 2 (d) M 1L0T 1

33. From the following displacement-time graph find out the velocity of a moving body

1 1
(a) m/s (b) 3 m/s (c) 3 m/s (d)
3 3

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34. 0.4iˆ  0.8 ˆj  ckˆ represents a unit vector when c is

(a) – 0.2 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.8 (d) 0

35. The angles which a vector iˆ  ˆj  2 kˆ makes with X, Y and Z axes respectively are
(a) 60°, 60°, 60° (b) 45°, 45°, 45° (c) 60°, 60°, 45° (d) 45°, 45°, 60°

36. The length, breadth and thickness of a block are given by l  12 cm, b  6 cm and t  2.45cm
The volume of the block according to the idea of significant figures should be
(a) 1102 cm3 (b) 2 102 cm3 (c) 1.76310 cm
2 3
(d) None of these

37. What is the number of significant figures in 0.310 × 103

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

38. For a given velocity, a projectile has the same range R for two angles of projection if t1 and t2 are the times of
flight in the two cases then
1 1
(a) t1t 2  R 2 (b) t1t2  R (c) t1t 2  (d) t1t 2 
R R2

39. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle  with the horizontal reaches maximum height H1. When it is
 
projected with velocity u at an angle     with the horizontal, it reaches maximum height H2. The
2 
relation between the horizontal range R of the projectile, H1 and H2 is
H1 2
(a) R  4 H1 H 2 (b) R  4(H1  H2 ) (c) R  4(H1  H2 ) (d) R 
H22
40. Following forces start acting on a particle at rest at the origin of the co-ordinate system simultaneously
F 1  4iˆ  5 ˆj  5kˆ , F 2  5iˆ  8 ˆj  6kˆ , F 3  3iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ and F 4  2iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ then the particle
will move
(a) In x – y plane (b) In y – z plane (c) In x – z plane (d) Along x -axis

41. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average speed is
1 v  v2 2v1v 2 5v1v 2
(a) v1v 2 (b) 1 (c) (d)
2 2 v1  v 2 3v1  2v 2

42. In a system of units if force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units then the
dimensional formula of energy is
(a) FA2T (b) FAT 2 (c) F 2 AT (d) FAT

43. The resultant of A B is R1. On reversing the vector B, the resultant becomes R 2 . What is the value of
R12  R22
(a) A2  B2 (b) A2  B2 (c) 2( A2  B 2 ) (d) 2( A2  B 2 )

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44. Which of the following velocity-time graphs shows a realistic situation for a body in motion

45. A cricket ball is hit at 30o with the horizontal with kinetic energy K . The kinetic energy at the highest point is
(a) Zero (b) K / 4 (c) K / 2 (d) 3K / 4

PART – B (CHEMISTRY)

46. If the electronic structure of oxygen atom is written as 1s2 2s2 2p4 it would violate
(a) Hund’s rule (b) Paulis exclusion principle (c) Both Hunds’ and Paulis’ principles (d) None of these

47. Number of nodal planes for f-orbital are

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0

48. One Bohr magneton equals

ehc ec hc eh
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4n 4hm me4 4mc

49. Three isotopes of an element have mass numbers M, (M + 1) and (M + 2). If the mean mass number is
(M + 0.5) than which of the following ratio may be accepted for M, (M + 1), (M + 2) in that order.
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 : 1

50. A possible set of quantum numbers for the last electron added to a gallium atom (Z = 31) in its ground state is
n l m mS
(a) 4 1 –1 +1/2
(b) 4 0 0 –1/2
(c) 3 2 +2 +1/2
(d) 3 0 0 –1/2

51. The hybridization in sulphur dioxide is

(a) sp (b) sp 3 (c) sp 2 (d) dsp2

52. The distance between 3rd and 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom is
(a) 2.646 10–8 cm (b) 2.116 10–8 cm (c) 1.058 10–8 cm (d) 0.529  10–8 cm

53. An atom has four unpaired electrons. The total spin of this atom will be
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 4

54. For a ‘d’ electron, the orbital angular momentum is

(a) 6 (b) 2 (c)  (d) 2

55. Which of the following pairs can form correct set of isosters ?
(a) MgS, CaF2 (b) C6H6, B3N3H6 (c) CO, N2O (d) All the above

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56. Amongst Cd, Hg, Ag, Au
The I.P. Value order will be
(a) Ag  Cd  Au  Hg (b) Ag  Au  Cd  Hg (c) Ag  Hg  Au  Cd (d) Ag = Cl  Hg  Au

57. In Slater’s rule, the correct arrangement of electron are according to the extent of their screening
(a) (1s, 2s), 2p (b) (1s), (2s, 2p) (c) (1s), (2s), (2p) (d) none of these

58. O–2 or S–2 formation is endothermic because

(a) more stability of O–2 or S–2
(b) more energy gain due to coupling
(c) electrostatic repulsion outweighs the energy gain due to coupling
(d) (a, b) both are correct

59. The complexing ability of Mn+2, Fe+2, Co+2 is

(a) Mn+2  Fe+2  Co+2 (b) Mn+2  Co+2  Fe+2 (c) Co+2  Fe+2  Mn+2 (d) None of these

60. In the process, 𝑂2+ → 𝑂2+2 + 𝑒 − the electron lost is from

(a) Bonding -orbital (b) Antibonding -orbital (c) 2 pz orbital (d) 2 px orbital

61. Highest covalent character is found in which of the following

(a) CaF2 (b) CaCl2 (c) Cal2 (d) CaBr2

62. Which is correct in the following

(a) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å, while that of Na+ ion is 1.54 Å
(b) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å while that of Na atom is 1.54 Å
(c) The radius of Cl atom is 0.95 Å while that of Cl– ion is 0.81 Å
(d) Radius of Na atom is 0.95 Å, while that of Na+ ion is 1.54 Å

63. In the transition of Cu to Cu2+, there is a decrease in

(a) Atomic number (b) Atomic mass (c) Equivalent weight (d) Number of valency electrons

64. IP1 and IP2 of Mg are 178 and 348 kcal mole–1. The energy required for the reaction Mg  Mg2+ + 2e– is
(a) +170 kcal (b) +526 kcal (c) –170 kcal (d) –526 kcal

65. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The element is likely\
to be
(a) Na (b) Si (c) F (d) Ca

66. C2 – C3 sigma single bond in vinyl acetylene CH2 = CH – C  CH is due to overlapping of

(a) sp – sp (b) sp2 – sp2 (c) sp – sp2 (d) sp2 – sp

67. Among HF, CH4, CH3OH and N2O4, intermolecular hydrogen bonding is expected
(a) In all (b) In all expect one (c) In two (d) In none

68. Among the following which one is having See Saw shape?
(a) Xe F6 (b) Xe O3 (c) Xe O F4 (d) XeO2 F2

69. For resonance structure a molecule may not have

(a) Identical arrangement of atoms (b) Nearly same energy contents
(c) The same number of paired electrons (d) Identical bonding

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70. Which of the following diatomic molecules would be stabilized by the removal of an electron?
(a) C2 (b) CN (c) N2 (d) O2

71. Molecule in which the distance between two adjacent carbon atoms is largest, is:
(a) Benzene (b) Ethyne (c) Ethene (d) Ethane

72. Which of the following compounds of IV group elements would you expect to be most ionic in character?
(a) CCl4 (b) SiCl4 (c) PbCl2 (d) PbCl4

73. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2, the compounds with the greatest and least ionic character respectively
are
(a) LiCl and RbCl (b) RbCl and BeCl2 (c) RbCl and MgCl2 (d) MgCl2 and BeCl2

74. Which of the following is insoluble in water?

(a) AgF (b) AgI (c) KBr (d) CaCl2

75. In the compounds of type ECl3 where E = B, P, As or Bi the angles Cl – E – Cl for different E are in the order:
(a) B>P = As = Bi (b) B > P > As > Bi (c) B < P = As = Bi (d) B < P < As < Bi

76. The sulphate of a metal has the formula M 2 SO4 3 . The formula for its phosphate will be
(a) M HPO4 2 (b) M 3 PO4 2 (c) M 2 PO4 3 (d) MPO4

77. Ionic bonds are usually formed by combination of elements with

(a) High ionisation potential and low electron affinity
(b) Low ionisation potential and high electron affinity
(c) High ionisation potential and high electron affinity
(d) Low ionisation potential and low electron affinity

78. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of

(a) Free electrons (b) Free ions (c) Free molecules (d) Atoms of sodium and chlorine

79. The phosphate of a metal has the formula MHPO4 . The formula of its chloride would be
(a) MCl (b) MCl2 (c) MCl3 (d) M 2Cl3

80. A number of ionic compounds e.g. AgCl, CaF2 , BaSO4 are insoluble in water. This is because
(a) Ionic compounds do not dissolve in water
(b) Water has a high dielectric constant
(c) Water is not a good ionizing solvent
(d) These molecules have exceptionally high alternative forces in the lattice

81. What is the nature of chemical bonding between Cs and F

(a) Covalent (b) Ionic (c) Coordinate (d) Metallic

82. Which one of the following compound is ionic

(a) KCl (b) CH4 (c) Diamond (d) H2

83. Which of the following compound has electrovalent linkage

(a) CH3Cl (b) NaCl (c) CH4 (d) Cl2

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84. An ionic compound is generally a
(a) Good electrolyte (b) Weak electrolyte (c) Non-electrolyte (d) Neutral

85. What metals combine with non-metals, the metal atom tends to
(a) Lose electrons (b) Gain electrons (c) Remain electrically neutral (d) None of these

86. Chemical formula for calcium pyrophosphate is Ca2 P2 O7 . The formula for ferric pyrophosphate will be
(a) Fe3 (P2O7 )3 (b) Fe4 P4O14 (c) Fe4 (P2O7 )3 (d) Fe3 PO4

87. The first five ionization energies of an element are 801, 2428, 3660, 25030, 32835 in kJ/mol. Then the element
could be
(a) a halogen (b) a noble gas (c) a third group element (d) a second group element

88. The energy required to melt 1g ice is 33J. The number of quanta of radiation of frequency 4.67 1013 sec–1,
that must be absorbed to melt 10 g ice is
(a) 1.065 1022 (b) 3.205 1023 (c) 9.076 1020 (d) none of these

89. If the wave length of first line of the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 656.1 nm, the wave length of second
line of this series would be
(a) 218.7 nm (b) 328.0 nm (c) 486.0 nm (d) 640.0 nm

90. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit for He+ ion is –54.4 eV. Which one of the following is a possible
excited state for electron in Bohr orbit of He+ ion?
(a) –6.04 eV (b) – 6.8eV (c) – 1.7 eV (d) +1.36 eV

PART – C (BIOLOGY)

91. Which of the following is not a defining feature of living organisms?

(a)Metabolism (b)Reproduction (c)Consciousness (d)cellular organization

92. Virus lacks which of the following feature?

(a)Nucleic acid (b)Replication (c)cellular organization (d)both b and c

93. Mangifera and Triticum are placed in

(a) same division but different class (b) same class but different family
(c) same order but different class (d) same family but different order

94. Which of the following has collection of living organisms?

(a)Herbarium (b)Museum (c)Botanical gardens (d) None of these

95. The herbarium sheets do not provide information about the plant’s
(a)Genus (b)vernacular name (c)family (d)class

96. mangifera indica is the scientific name of Mango.what is the mistake done while writing it.
(a) species written incorrectly (b) genus written incorrectly
(c) spelling incorrect (d )no mistake

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97. Father of Taxonomy also
(a) coined the term taxonomy (b) gave the three kingdom classification
(c) gave artificial system of classification (d) All of these

98. Assertion : Human being is self-conscious.

Reason:- Human being is the only organism who is aware of himself.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explain the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.

99. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(a) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are living things
(b) growth in living organisms is extrinsic.
(c) prokaryotes can sense and respond to environmental cues
(d) worker bees are sterile males

100. Which serve as quick referral systems in taxonomical studies.

(a) Botanical garden (b) zoos (c) Herbarium (d) Museum

101. _____________ are useful in providing information for identification of names of species found in an area
(a) flora (b) monograph (c) manuals (d) catalogue

102. Which is the most complicated feature of the following?

(a) Irritability (b) reproduction (c) growth (d) presence of genetic material.

103. ‘systema’ means

(a) scientific naming of organisms (b) arrangement of organisms
(c) identification of organisms (d) all of the above

104. suffix “ceae”is for

(a) class (b) order (c) division (d) family

105. National Botanical Research Institute is located in

(a) Howrah (b) Lucknow (c) Delhi (d) Mysore

106. Virus was called infectious living fluid by

(a) pasteur (b) D.J. Ivanowsky (c) Beijerinek (d)stanley

107. Genetic material in viruses can be

(a) only DNA (b) only RNA (c) both DNA and RNA (d) RNA or DNA

108. Which of the following is not made up of proteins

(a) capsomeres (b) pellicle (c) prions (d) diatomaceous earth

109. classification of protists is based upon

(a) mode of reproduction (b) mode of nutrition (c) nature of cell wall (d) habitat

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110. Dikaryophase is not observed in
(a) penicillium (b) ustilago (c) Albugo (d) Puccinia

111. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in which aspect

(a) cell wall (b) reserve food (c) ribosomes (d) all of these

112. Chlorophyll a similar to green plants is found in

(a) Nostoc (b) Green sulphur bacteria
(c) Nitrobacter (d) all of these

113. Autotrophic protists without cell wall

(a) Gonyaulax (b) Diatoms (c) Euglena (d) Physarum

114. Cell wall is absent in

(a) Plasmodium (b) Trypanosoma (c) Mycoplasma (d) All of these

115. Coprophilous fungi are present in

(a) phycomycetes (b) Ascomycetes (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes

116. Phycobiont provides ___________to mycobiont

(a) food (b) minerals (c) shelter (d) all of these

117. Diener discovered

(a)infectious RNA with protein coat (b)infectious RNA without protein coat
(c)Infectious protein coats (d)RNA of high molecular weight

118. Sexual spores among the following

(a)conidia (b)sporangiospores (c)Ascospores (d)zoospores

119. Classification of fungi is not based upon

(a)Mycelium structure (b)Fruiting body (c)spore formation (d)mode of nutrition

120. Incorrect statement among the following

(a)Agaricus produces spores exogenously
(b)penicillium produces spores endogenously
(c)Sex organs are present in Agaricus
(d)In Colletotrichum,both asexual and sexual reproduction is observed
(a)all are correct (b)b and d (c)c and d (d)b,c,d

121. cell wall of fungi is made up of

(a)chitin (b)cellulose (c)silica (d)chitin and polysaccharides

122. Silica shells are present in

(a)flagellated protozoans (b)amoeboid protozoans (c)Sporozoans (d)Ciliated protozoans

123. Criteria not considered by Whittaker for classification

(a) thallus organisation (b)evolutionary relationships
(c) mode of nourishment (d)habitat

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124. Earlier classification systems included bacteria, blue green algae, fungi,mosses under ‘Plants’. The character
that unified all these organisms is
(a) Mode of reproduction (b) mode of nutrition
(c) presence of cell wall (d) they were never placed together

125. Which statement is wrong with respect to bacteria present in gut of ruminants
(a)They are anaerobes (b)They produce methane gas
(c)They are autotrophic. (d)They help in cellulose digestion

126. In the following which one is the example of Bryophyta that has elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal :-
(a) Polysiphonia (b) Marchantia (c) Polytrichum (d) Dryopteris

127. For Bryophytes,Select the incorrect statement in the following :-

(a) The plant body of liver worts is thalloid and isobilateral.
(b) Mosses have upright, slender axis bearing spirally arranged leaves.
(c) Spores germinate to form gametophyte.
(d) The zygote produces a sporophyte

128. Read the following statements and select the correct option :-
(A) Gymnosperms include medium size tree or tall trees, shrubs and herbs.
(B) In cycas, coralloid roots are associated with mycorrhiza.
(C) In conifers, needle like leaves reduce the surface area.
(D) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
How many of the above statements are correct and incorrect :-
(a) 2 - Correct, 2 - Incorrect. (b) 3 - Correct, 1 - Incorrect.
(c) 1 - Correct, 3 - Incorrect. (d) 0 - Correct, 4 - Incorrect.

129. The stored food of massive algae is

(a)Starch (b)Floridean starch (c)Mannitol (d)glycogen

130. Sexual reproduction by non motile spores is observed in

(a)Gracilaria (b)Laminaria (c)Chlorella (d)Spirogyra

131. Multicellular branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are characteristic of :-

(a) All bryophytes (b) Some bryophytes
(c) All pteridophytes (d) Some pteridophytes

132. A plant in which sporophytic generation is represented by zygote is

(a) Pinus (b) Selaginella (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Dryopteris.

133. What will be the correct ploidy sequence in the mentioned below ?
(A) Protonemal cell of a moss (B) Gymnospermic endosperm (C) Leaf cell of a moss
(D) Prothallus cell of a fern (E) Gemma cell in marchantia
(a) n, 3n, n, 2n, n (b) n, n, n, n, n (c) n, 2n, n, 2n, 2n (d) n, 2n, n, n, 2n

(a) amphibians of plant kingdom (b) first vascular plants
(c) first seed plants (d) none of these

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135. Stalked sex organs are found in
(a)Funaria (b)Pteris (c)Kelps (d)Cycas

136. Marchantia differs from Funaria in

(a) spore dispersal
(b) structure of rhizoids
(c) both a and b
(d) marchantia and funaria are bryophytes,hence no differences

138. Frond with air bladder is found in

(a)Laminaria (b)Fucus (c)Dictyota (d)Porphyra

139. _____________is similar in structure to the reserve food material of animals

(a)Laminarin (b)Mannitol (c) floridean starch (d)oil droplets

140. The incorrect match for chlorophyll type is

(a) Chlorophyll a – Green algae (b) Chlorophyll a – cyanobacteria
(c) Chlorophyll c – green sulphur bacteria (d) Chlrophyll d – Red Algae

141. In Pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes then its endosperm will have
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 6 (d) 24

142. Megasporophyll of Cycas is equivalent to

(a) stamen (b) sepal (c) petal (d) carpel

143. Find out the incorrect statement in the following :-

(a) Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in nature
(b) Bacterial structure is very complex & they have very simple behaviour
(c) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission
(d) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having different cell wall structure

144. The thalloid body of a slime mould is known as :-

(a) Fruiting body (b) Mycelium (c) Protonema (d) Plasmodium

145. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect statements.
I. Stalked sex organs are found in first vascular plants
II. Gametophyte is conspicuous and dependent in pteridophytes
III. Endosperm is haploid in cycas
IV. Floridean starch is similar to fungi’s reserve food material in structure.
(a) III & IV (b) I, II, III (c) I & II (d) All are correct except

146. Which of the following is correct regarding Cycas:-

(a) The same sporophyll bears microsporangia and ovule
(b) A single cone consist of both mega & microsporophylls
(c) Male strobilus and mega sporophylls occur on the same plant
(d) Male strobilus and mega sporophylls occur on separate plants

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147. On the Basis of characters in A & B identify the correct option :-
A B
(i) Land plant (i) Land plant
(ii) Plant body (ii) Sporophyte is divided into root,stem and leaves forms thallus
(iii) Gemma cups (iii) Vascular tissue is present on dorsal surface
(iv) Multicellular (iv) Fruits are absent scales are present
(v) Gametophytic (v) Seeds are present plant body
Options :-
(a) A - Spirogyra B – Riccia (b) A - Cycas B - Pinus
(c) A - Marchantia B – Cycas (d) A - Pinus B – Marchantia

148. Independent gametophytes and sporophytes are found in

(a) Funaria (b) Pteris (c) Ginkgo (d) Hibiscus

149. The classification system given by father of taxonomy is

(a) natural system of classification (b) artificial system of classification
(c) Phylogenetic system of classification (d) Numerical taxonomy

150. Based on the characters given, recognize the animal.

(A) It is mostly marine (B) It has parapodia (C) It is unisexual
(a) Locust (b) Limulus (c) Taenia (d) Nereis

151. The organisms having mesoglea lack

(a) gastro vaular cavity (b)tissues (c)intracellular digeston (d)canal system

152. Comb plates help in

(a) digestion (b)respiration (c)locomotion (d)excretion

153. The first triploblastic animals

(a) have osmoregulatory structures (b)exhibit direct development
(c) mesodermal pouches (d)flattened body antero posteriorly

154. Notochord is persistent through out the life in

(a) protochordates (b)urochordates (c)cephalochordates (d)all chordates

155. spiny bodied animals are

(a) exclusively marine (b) have ventral anus
(c) have radially symmetrical larva (d) have excretory system

156. Which of these is not a vertebrate

(a) Columba (b) Pavo (c) Amphioxus (d) Petromyzon

157. Betta and carcharodon differ in

(A) chambers in heart (B) embryo development (C) number of gills (D) endoskeleton
(a) only A (b) A,B,C (c) B,C,D (d) All of these

158. Which belongs to chordata

(a) cuttle fish (b)devil fish (c)silver fish (d)dog fish

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159. Exclusively present in ALL mammals
(a) viviparity (b)pinna (c)homeothermy (d)all of these

160. Found only in birds but no other animal

(a)gizzard (b)beak (c)wings (d)direct development

161. Common feature of all vertebrates

(a) limbs for locomotion (b) persistent notochord
(c) closed circulatory system (d) all of these

162. Creeping vertebrates lack

(a)cloaca (b)exoskeleton (c)external ear opening (d)limbs

163. Air sacs present in

(a)Neophron (b)Macropus (c)Hemidactylus (d)Rana

164. Nerve cells appeared for the first time in

(a)sponges (b)flat worms (c)coelenterates (d)rotifers

165. Bioluminesecens is exhibited by

(a)sea fan (b)sea lily (c)ctenoplana (d)Adamsia

166. __________are modified placoid scales

(a)fins (b)claspers (c)teeth (d)sclaes never modify

167. Worm like marine animals are :-

(a) Protochordates (b) Ctenophores (c) Cephalochordata (d) Hemichordata

168. Lancelet belongs to

(a) Hemichordata (b) Vertebrata (c) Urochordata (d) None

169. Find out correct matching set :-

Excretory Examples Structures
(a) Nephridia Earthworm, Prawn
(b) Malpighian tubules Cockroaches, Ascaris
(c) Kidney Planaria, Frog
(d) Protonephridia Planaria, Amphioxus

170. Which of the following sets of animals belong to same group

(a) Bombyx, Locusta, Nereis, Squid (b) Doliolum, Branchiostoma, clarias, Magur
(c) Bufo, scoliodon, Torpedo, Trygon (d) Labeo, clarias, catla, pterophyllum

171. Which of the following statement is true :-

(a) All acoelomates are bilaterally symmetrical (b) All pseudocoelomates are parasitic
(c) choanocytes are found in flat worms (d) nerve cells first appeared in sponges.

172. Which of the following pair is correct :-

(a) Branchiostoma-Hemichordata (b) Pristis-Bony fish
(c) Obelia-platyhelminthes (d) Salamander-Amphibia

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173. A limbless Amphibian is -
(a) Frog (b) Toad (c) Icthyophis (d) Hyla

174. Metamerism is exhibited by

(a)Ascaris (b)Taenia (c)Earth worm (d)both b and c

175. Cockroach is :-
(a) Ureotelic (b) Uricotelic (c) Ammonotelic (d) Aminotelic

176. Select the peculiar character in sponges :-

(a) Marine & fresh habitat (b) Tissue level body (c) Intracellular digestion (d) Collar cell

(A) Members are found in aquatic habitat
(B) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium
(C) Zygospores are formed by fusion of two gametes
(D) They show all type of syngamy
Above statements are related to which class of fungi -
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Ascomycetes (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes

178. An egg laying mammal is

(a) Delphinus (b) Macaca (c) Ornithorhynchus (d)Macropus

179. Alimentary canal is complete with a well developed muscular pharynx in

(a) Taenia (b) Ascaris (c) Fasciola (d) Both a and b

180. Tape worm resembles leech in which of the following feature?

(a) both are endoparasites (b) both show metamerism
(c) complete digestive system (d) suckers for attaching to host

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