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After admitting, he read his chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide? a. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don¶t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin b. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ c. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn¶t found d. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells 2. For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client? a. ³Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.´ b. ³Client doesn¶t guess at prognosis.´ c. ³Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.´ d. ³Client stops seeking information.´ 3. A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which ³relatedto´ phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement? a. Related to visual field deficits b. Related to difficulty swallowing c. Related to impaired balance d. Related to psychomotor seizures 4. A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect: a. hair loss. b. stomatitis. c. fatigue. d. vomiting. 5. Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by: a. breast self-examination. b. mammography. c. fine needle aspiration. d. chest X-ray. 6. A male client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction? a. ³Keep the stoma uncovered.´ b. ³Keep the stoma dry.´ c. ³Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the procedure.´ d. ³Keep the stoma moist.´ 7. A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy? a. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours b. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L c. Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg d. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips 8. Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the purpose of performing the examination
is to discover: a. cancerous lumps. b. areas of thickness or fullness. c. changes from previous self-examinations. d. fibrocystic masses. 9. A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client¶s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer? a. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17 b. Spontaneous abortion at age 19 c. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27 d. Human papillomavirus infection at age 32 10. A female client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12 g/m2 I.V., to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other drug to protect normal cells? a. probenecid (Benemid) b. cytarabine (ara-C, cytosine arabinoside [Cytosar-U]) c. thioguanine (6-thioguanine, 6-TG) d. leucovorin (citrovorum factor or folinic acid [Wellcovorin]) 11. The nurse is interviewing a male client about his past medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer? a. Duodenal ulcers b. Hemorrhoids c. Weight gain d. Polyps 12. Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The average age of the women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women: a. perform breast self-examination annually. b. have a mammogram annually. c. have a hormonal receptor assay annually. d. have a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years. 13. A male client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer? a. Persistent nausea b. Rash c. Indigestion d. Chronic ache or pain 14. For a female client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care? a. Administering aspirin if the temperature exceeds 102° F (38.8° C) b. Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift c. Providing for frequent rest periods d. Placing the client in strict isolation 15. Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get mammograms: a. yearly after age 40. b. after the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter. c. after the first menstrual period and annually thereafter. d. every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter.
normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle. The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. d. She isn¶t considered at high risk for breast cancer. A 35 years old client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations. 24. infusion of morphine? a. 7 to 14 days d. b. c. contralateral homonymous hemianopia. the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. tactile agnosia. Yellow tooth discoloration c. She should eat a low-fat diet to further decrease her risk of breast cancer. an oncology client has a nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous membrane related to decreased nutrition and immunosuppression secondary to the cytotoxic effects of chemotherapy. if the client can tolerate fluids d. DNA synthesis. 21. Bence Jones protein in the urine. 2 to 4 days c. d. A 35 years old client with ovarian cancer is prescribed hydroxyurea (Hydrea). one or more stages of ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis. the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). b. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. weight loss. Headache d.O. or both (cell cycle±nonspecific). the physician orders a diagnostic workup. hypocalcemia. the chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chemical binding between DNA molecules (cell cycle± nonspecific). seizures. c. Jeovina. c. She should perform breast self-examination during the first 5 days of each menstrual cycle. Changing the administration route to P. What does the A stand for? a. A female client is undergoing tests for multiple myeloma. d. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)? a. Recommending that the client discontinue chemotherapy b. Diagnostic study findings in multiple myeloma include: a. cottage cheese±like patches on the tongue b. vomiting. Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering the first dose 17. Vision changes b. Discontinuing the drug immediately if signs of dependence appear c. Checking regularly for signs and symptoms of stomatitis 23. What should a male client over age 52 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer? a. 21 to 28 days . Which nursing intervention is most likely to decrease the pain of stomatitis? a. Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy department immediately. an antimetabolite drug. Assessment 19. d. breast self-examinations will no longer be necessary. Anorexia 27. Chronic low self-esteem 25. b. with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). c. the nurse expects to assess: a. A male client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer. Providing a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water for use as a mouth rinse c. especially after age 50. open sores on the oral mucosa d. A male client complains of sporadic epigastric pain.16. When caring for a male client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe. 26. and call for help. d. Arcus d.V. b. Suspecting gallbladder disease. yellow skin. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes with: a. Liver b. d. which reveals gallbladder cancer. 20. Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring for a male client in severe pain receiving a continuous I. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead-lined container. Actinic b. Stand as far away from the implant as possible and call for help. Reproductive tract d. Disturbed body image d. a low serum protein level. What should the nurse do first? a. Hearing loss c. How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable? a. Two hours later. 24 hours b. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years. 18. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. b. Nurse Brian is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression. A 34-year-old female client is requesting information about mammograms and breast cancer. Anticipatory grieving b. Rust-colored sputum 22. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells? a. c. short-term memory impairment. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels checked yearly. When teaching the client about this drug. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client? a. Red. What should the nurse tell this client? a. Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the cell. White. Put the implant back in place. White blood cells (WBCs) 28. Impaired swallowing c. Colon c. and fatigue. cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle. Asymmetry c. 29. using forceps and a shield for self-protection. When she begins having yearly mammograms. She should have had a baseline mammogram before age 30. Monitoring the client¶s platelet and leukocyte counts d. b. the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately? a. a decreased serum creatinine level. c. nausea. During chemotherapy. Assisting with a naloxone challenge test before therapy begins b.
decreased urine output (less than 40 ml/hour). Other risk factors for this disease include frequent sexual intercourse before age 16. 11.Answer D. Mammography is used to detect tumors that are too small to palpate. Fine needle aspiration and biopsy provide cells for histologic examination to confirm a diagnosis of cancer. Difficulty swallowing suggests medullary dysfunction. and organization of differentiated cells.Answer D. 3. Option B is inappropriate because suppressing speculation may prevent the client from coming to terms with the crisis and planning accordingly. An increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ is called hyperplasia. which methotrexate could destroy if given alone.Answer A. which of the following would pose a threat to the client? a. all women should perform breast self-examination monthly [not annually]. 6. The other six are a change in bowel or bladder habits.Answer C.Answer D. a thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere. or masses that are fibrocystic as opposed to malignant. 14. not generalized. purpura. Dysplasia refers to an alteration in the size. Only a physician can diagnose lumps that are cancerous. Indigestion. During the MRI scan. which may lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances.Answer A.Answer D. Women are instructed to examine themselves to discover changes that have occurred in the breast. c. The client should begin performing stoma care without assistance as soon as possible to gain independence in self-care activities. shape. 5. and anorexia regardless of the treatment site. A spontaneous abortion and pregnancy complicated by eclampsia aren¶t risk factors for cervical cancer. The client lies still. occipital lobe.Answer C. A naloxone challenge test may be administered before using a narcotic antagonist. pons. Signs of fluid loss include dry oral mucous membranes. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting. Like other viral and bacterial venereal infections. Visual field deficits. The American Cancer Society recommends a mammogram yearly for women over age 40. The nurse should instruct the client to keep the stoma moist. difficulty swallowing. and multiple pregnancies. Probenecid should be avoided in clients receiving methotrexate because it reduces renal elimination of methotrexate. adverse effects of radiation therapy. The nurse shouldn¶t discontinue a narcotic agonist abruptly because withdrawal symptoms may occur. The American Cancer Society guidelines state. and vomiting are site-specific.Answer C. because a dry stoma may become irritated. Frequent rest periods are indicated for clients with anemia. 16. abnormally low blood pressure. the nurse should inspect the client regularly for signs of bleeding. 8. helping guide psychosocial care. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn¶t found is called metaplasia. increasing the risk of methotrexate toxicity. Option C is undesirable because some methods of reducing tension. Radiation therapy may cause fatigue. cracked lips. parietal lobe. and psychomotor seizures may result from dysfunction of the pituitary gland. 9. human papillomavirus is a risk factor for cervical cancer. The presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don¶t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin is called anaplasia. not thrombocytopenia." The hormonal receptor assay is done on a known breast tumor to determine whether the tumor is estrogen. may prevent the client from coming to terms with the threat of death as well as cause physiologic harm. 4. The nurse should avoid administering aspirin because it may increase the risk of bleeding. or difficulty swallowing. and bleeding gums. such as illicit drug or alcohol use. Morphine commonly is used as a continuous infusion in clients with severe pain regardless of the ability to tolerate fluids. d. The client hears thumping sounds. b. multiple sex partners. 13. an obvious change in a wart or mole. It¶s recommended that women between ages 20 and 40 have a professional breast examination (not a mammogram) every 3 years.Answer D. if done regularly.Answer C. Because thrombocytopenia impairs blood clotting. stomatitis. . is the most reliable method for detecting breast lumps early. The nurse should obtain the client¶s baseline blood pressure and pulse and respiratory rates before administering the initial dose and then continue to monitor vital signs throughout therapy. 15. not a narcotic agonist. or temporal lobe ² not from a cerebellar brain tumor. epistaxis. Duodenal ulcers and hemorrhoids aren¶t preexisting conditions of colorectal cancer.Answer C. Persistent nausea may signal stomach cancer but isn¶t one of the seven major warning signs. 2. Colorectal polyps are common with colon cancer.30. The nurse is preparing for a female client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. A client with a cerebellar brain tumor may suffer injury from impaired balance as well as disturbed gait and incoordination. Hair loss. 12. Weight loss ² not gain ² is an indication of colorectal cancer. The client wears a watch and wedding band. "Women older than age 40 should have a mammogram annually and a clinical examination at least annually [not every 2 years]. 10. 1. Psychomotor seizures suggest temporal lobe dysfunction.5 mEq/L. such as petechiae.Answer D. The other statements are incorrect. Leucovorin is administered with methotrexate to protect normal cells. Chest X-rays can be used to pinpoint rib metastasis. Rash and chronic ache or pain seldom indicate cancer. Option D isn¶t appropriate because seeking information can help a client with cancer gain a sense of control over the crisis. a sore that does not heal. Verbalizing feelings is the client¶s first step in coping with the situational crisis. such as by applying a thin layer of petroleum jelly around the edges. is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. Strict isolation is indicated only for clients who have highly contagious or virulent infections that are spread by air or physical contact. The client asks questions. unusual bleeding or discharge. It also helps the health care team gain insight into the client¶s feelings. The nurse should recommend placing a stoma bib over the stoma to filter and warm air before it enters the stoma. Cytarabine and thioguanine aren¶t used to treat osteogenic carcinoma. and a nagging cough or hoarseness.Answer B.Answer D. areas of thickness or fullness that signal the presence of a malignancy. skin toxicities. A breast self-examination.Answer B. 7.or progesterone-dependent. and a serum potassium level below 3.
Answer A.Answer A. the A stands for "asymmetry. Bone marrow suppression becomes noticeable 7 to 14 days after floxuridine administration. The client should continue to perform monthly breast self-examinations even when receiving yearly mammograms. Although surgery typically is done to remove the gallbladder and. A transrectal ultrasound. White. Which one is accurate? a. 29. or both. CBC. they may kill dividing cells in all phases of the cell cycle and may also kill nondividing cells. the nurse should stay alert for this potential problem to ensure prompt treatment." and the D for "diameter. Part 2 1.Answer B.Answer D. The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. and PSA test.) The nurse also may administer viscous lidocaine or systemic analgesics as prescribed. Although the drug may cause anorexia. d. If a radioactive implant becomes dislodged. To decrease the pain of stomatitis. 26. The highest priority is to minimize radiation exposure for the client and the nurse. causing injury to the client and (if they fly off) to others. Seizures may result from a tumor of the frontal. Questions and comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding of some aspects of the disease. Yellow tooth discoloration may result from antibiotic therapy.Answer B.17. or attempting to put it back in place can greatly increase the risk of harm to the client and the nurse from excessive radiation exposure.Answer C. it isn¶t disfiguring and doesn¶t cause Disturbed body image. The others are the lymph nodes." the B for "border irregularity. Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. Instead. Mammography is the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer. Men can develop breast cancer. The client must report changes in visual acuity immediately because this adverse effect may be irreversible. The client must lie still during the MRI but can talk to those performing the test by way of the microphone inside the scanner tunnel. Presence of Bence Jones protein in the urine almost always confirms the disease.Answer B. Serum calcium levels are elevated because calcium is lost from the bone and reabsorbed in the serum. 22. leaving the room with the implant still exposed. They¶re most effective against rapidly proliferating cancers. another common adverse effect of chemotherapy. lung. which identifies enlargement or irregularity of the prostate. Various members of the audience have made all of the following statements. such as jewelry. Bone marrow recovery occurs in 21 to 28 days. b. or occipital lobe. 18. Testicular self-examinations won¶t identify changes in the prostate gland due to its location in the body. then notify the radiation therapy department immediately. Alkylating agents affect all rapidly proliferating cells by interfering with DNA. 27. temporal. Breast cancer requires a mastectomy. Short-term memory impairment occurs with a frontal lobe tumor. Tactile agnosia (inability to identify objects by touch) is a sign of a parietal lobe tumor. 25. the nurse should pick it up with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead-lined container. . DNA. 20. not cancer chemotherapy. possibly. a tumor marker for prostate cancer. Stomatitis occurs 7 to 10 days after chemotherapy begins. are effective diagnostic measures that should be done yearly. preventing normal cell growth and reproduction. Serum protein electrophoresis shows elevated globulin spike. Chronic low self-esteem isn¶t an appropriate nursing diagnosis at this time because the diagnosis has just been made. stopping chemotherapy wouldn¶t be helpful or practical. an oncology nurse educator is speaking to a women¶s group about breast cancer. Monitoring platelet and leukocyte counts may help prevent bleeding and infection but wouldn¶t decrease pain in this highly susceptible client. and BUN and creatinine levels are usually done after diagnosis to identify the extent of the disease and potential metastases 24. therefore. Antimetabolites act during the S phase of the cell cycle. The colon. (Commercially prepared mouthwashes contain alcohol and may cause dryness and irritation of the oral mucosa. Rust-colored sputum suggests a respiratory disorder. The client should hear thumping sounds. d. at the end of her menstrual cycle. 28. which are caused by the sound waves thumping on the magnetic field. contributing to cell destruction or preventing cell replication. reproductive tract. 21.Answer A.Answer B. c. because the strong magnetic field can pull on them. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination: a. but absence doesn¶t rule it out.Answer C.Answer B. Standing as far from the implant as possible. A baseline mammogram should be done between ages 30 and 40. Miotic inhibitors interfere with cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle. such as pneumonia. bone. Nina. on the same day each month. Monthly breast self-examinations should be done between days 7 and 10 of the menstrual cycle. The serum creatinine level may also be increased. 30. When following the ABCD method for assessing skin lesions. and brain. a section of the liver. Impaired swallowing isn¶t associated with gallbladder cancer. Tamoxifen isn¶t associated with hearing loss. immediately after her menstrual period. c. the client should wear no metal objects. Anticipatory grieving is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client because few clients with gallbladder cancer live more than 1 year after diagnosis. headache. cottage cheese±like patches on the tongue suggest a candidal infection. Antineoplastic antibiotic agents interfere with one or more stages of the synthesis of RNA. During an MRI. and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites." 19. b. the nurse must not take any action that delays implant removal. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia suggests an occipital lobe tumor. thus. 2. the nurse should provide a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water for the client to use as a mouth rinse. open sores. resulting in ulcers on the oral mucosa that appear as red.Answer B. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle. Checking for signs and symptoms of stomatitis also wouldn¶t decrease the pain. The incidence of prostate cancer increases after age 50. The tissue-destructive effects of cancer chemotherapy typically cause stomatitis. Breast cancer is the leading killer of women of childbearing age. 23.Answer A.Answer C." the C for "color variation. and hot flashes. the client need not report these adverse effects immediately because they don¶t warrant a change in therapy. A low-fat diet (one that maintains weight within 20% of recommended body weight) has been found to decrease a woman¶s risk of breast cancer. The digital rectal examination.
That the best time for the examination is after a shower c. As part of her chemotherapy. a community health nurse conducts a health promotion program regarding testicular cancer to community members. Increased white blood cells c. A male client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor and several diagnostic tests are prescribed. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder? a. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test 11. Elevating the knee gatch on the bed b. 1 month 5. Out of bed ad lib c. A cervical radiation implant is placed in the client for treatment of cervical cancer. who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. 10 mg by mouth daily. Biopsy of the tumor b. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth d. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift b. Monitoring the platelet count d. Weekly at the same time of day d. 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure c. c. 1 week after menstruation begins 9. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. d. The nurse avoids which of the following in the care of this client? a. Testicular cancer is more common in older men. a community health nurse is instructing a group of female clients about breast self-examination. Gian. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months 7. The nurse bases the response on which description of this disorder? a. has malignant lymphoma. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes d. Monitoring for pathological fractures 8. Abdominal ultrasound c. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client? a. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make? a. Vanessa. A female client diagnosed with multiple myeloma and the client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. Immediately b. Nurse Cecilia is caring for a client who has undergone a vaginal hysterectomy. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone 13. the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil. How soon after the first administration of chlorambucil might this reaction occur? a. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males. 2 to 3 weeks d. Monitoring temperature b. the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran). The nurse instructs the client to perform the examination: a. It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication only. When caring for the client. Ambulation three times daily c. It destroys the cell membrane. b. The most likely side effect to be expected is: a. the nurse should observe which of the following principles? a. Bed rest b. It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription. The male client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. c. A male client is receiving the cell cycle±nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (Thioplex). d. b. Rhea. Back pain c. Removal of antiembolism stockings twice daily d. Individuals younger than 16 years old may be allowed to go in the room as long as they are 6 feet away from the client 17. Sore throat d. Checking placement of pneumatic compression boots 10. 1 week c. Increased calcium b. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Altered red blood cell production b. The nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care? a. It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription only. Painless testicular swelling d. Diarrhea c. Heavy sensation in the scrotum 15. Decreased blood urea nitrogen level d. The nurse initiates what most appropriate activity order for this client? a. At the onset of menstruation b. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure d. Assisting with range-of-motion leg exercises c. To examine the testicles while lying down b. The nurse determines that further information needs to be provided if a community member states that which of the following is a sign of testicular cancer? a. Computerized tomography scan 12. The nurse tells the client: a. Constipation 16. A female client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow 14. Out of bed in a chair only d. such as alopecia.3. Dyspnea b. Magnetic resonance imaging d. Nurse Bea is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Altered production of lymph nodes c. Mina. Eat a light breakfast only b. Remove the dosimeter badge when entering the client¶s room d. When caring for the client. Nurse Joy is caring for a client with an internal radiation implant. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer. Alopecia b. The nurse understands that which test will confirm the diagnosis of malignancy? a. Ambulation to the bathroom only . 4. Do not allow pregnant women into the client¶s room c. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. 6. causing lysis. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects? a. Every month during ovulation c.
A male client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin¶s disease. Cigarette smoking c. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer d. Alopecia c. On the 1st and last days of the cycle. Nurse Farah is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Restrict all visitors b. Answer D. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing: a. A mastectomy may not be required if the tumor is small. Urine specific gravity 22. Incision appearance d. The female client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina.18. The nurse tells the client that the purpose if the allopurinol is to prevent: a. Alcohol abuse b. melanoma. The most reliable method for detecting breast cancer is monthly self-examination. the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery? a. Hyperuricemia 1. Men can develop breast cancer. Testicular cancer is found more commonly in younger men. The client with leukemia is receiving busulfan (Myleran) and allopurinol (Zyloprim). Testicular cancer is highly curable. Pain at the incisional site b. 3. Arm edema on the operative side c. The client¶s pain rating b. You know this type of cancer is classified as: a. Use of chewing tobacco d. the nurse recognizes which symptom as typical of the disease? a. Sarah. 26. Call the physician b. During the admission assessment of a 35 year old client with advanced ovarian cancer. c. Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of colonization with a client who has microinvasive cervical cancer. Weakness c. 4. The nurse makes which priority assessment before administering the diet? a. Denial c. The nurse¶s impression of the client¶s pain d. should select one particular day of the month to do breast self-examination. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy 30. Answer D. Anger b. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain d. 2. Fatigue b. Abdominal distention 24. The highest mortality rates from cancer among men are in men with lung cancer. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site 28. indicates a need for further teaching? a. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention 21. Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene d. Weight gain d. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container. Diarrhea b. Pick up the implant with gloved hands and flush it down the toilet d. I¶ll be ready to die. Cervical stenosis d. the woman¶s breasts are still very tender. Restrict fluid intake c. sarcoma. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula c. confined. Answer A. The nurse is caring for a female client experiencing neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy and develops a plan of care for the client. not mammography. The nurse is admitting a male client with laryngeal cancer to the nursing unit. Selfexamination allows early detection and facilitates the early initiation of treatment. Chlorambucil-induced alopecia occurs 2 to 3 weeks after therapy begins. 19. if identified by the client. The nurse assesses for which most common risk factor for this type of cancer? a. although they seldom do. the client expresses that ³If I can just live long enough to attend my daughter¶s graduation. Abdominal bleeding d. Depression 27. and in an early stage. Hemorrhage c. The home health care nurse is caring for a male client with cancer and the client is complaining of acute pain. Enlarged lymph nodes 23. Answer C. Exposure to air pollutants 29. Miller has been diagnosed with bone cancer. when the breasts are least tender and least lumpy. Ovarian perforation 25. Premenopausal women should do their selfexamination immediately after the menstrual period. A female client is hospitalized for insertion of an internal cervical radiation implant. Ability to ambulate c. During the visit. Bargaining d. Postmenopausal women because their bodies lack fluctuation of hormone levels. carcinoma. The initial action by the nurse is to: a. Bowel sounds b. Which complication. lymphoma. Lung cancer causes more deaths than breast cancer in women of all ages. Nurse Mickey is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration and the physician changes the client¶s diet from NPO status to clear liquids. Mr. . Nonverbal cues from the client c. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin breakdown 20. Hypermenorrhea c. b. While giving care.´ Which phrase of coping is this client experiencing? a. The nurse plans to: a. Rupture of the bladder b. particularly when it¶s treated in its early stage. d. Infection b. Reinsert the implant into the vagina immediately c. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect to note specifically in the client? a. a hospice nurse visits a client dying of ovarian cancer. Nausea b. The appropriate nursing assessment of the client¶s pain would include which of the following? a. Vomiting d.
The client with a cervical radiation implant should be maintained on bed rest in the dorsal position to prevent movement of the radiation source. Complications of the procedure include hemorrhage. Answer D. 20. 13. although important in the plan of care. Performing the examination weekly is not recommended. only the area in the treatment field is affected by the radiation. An increased white blood cell count may or may not be present and is not related specifically to multiple myeloma. and an elevated blood urea nitrogen level. Thrombocytopenia indicates a decrease in the number of platelets in the circulating blood. as a result of radiation or chemotherapy. and anorexia may occur with radiation to any site. anemia. pleural effusion. A biopsy is done to determine whether a tumor is malignant or benign. Ovarian perforation is not a complication. infection. Assessing pain relief is an important measure. Answer C. C. 6. and D are assessment findings in testicular cancer. If no distention occurs. Answer C. 12. Findings indicative of multiple myeloma are an increased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow. and C are inaccurate interventions. Options B. with fingers under the scrotum and thumbs on top. the nurse should pick up the implant with longhandled forceps and place it in the lead container. 7. antiembolism stockings. Answer D. whereas other side effects occur only when specific areas are involved in treatment. Hodgkin¶s disease is a chronic progressive neoplastic disorder of lymphoid tissue characterized by the painless enlargement of lymph nodes with progression to extralymphatic sites. often resulting in hypermenorrhea. fatigue.5. urinary frequency and urgency. Thiotepa interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription. If turning is absolutely necessary. For this reason. Answer D. Answer A. 21. The nurse should ask the client about the description of the pain and listen carefully to the client¶s words used to describe the pain. however. Skin reactions. The dosimeter badge must be worn when in the client¶s room. 8. Alopecia may occur. as for any other major surgery. 19. A lead container and long-handled forceps should be kept in the client¶s room at all times during internal radiation therapy. In general. but the client is protected from persons with known infections. visitors. A full bladder is necessary so that it will be visualized as such and not mistaken for a possible pelvic growth. feeling for any lumps. 15. 23. 16. 18. 24. At the onset of menstruation and during ovulation. Fluids should be encouraged. Answer A. nausea. and pneumatic compression boots are helpful. Answer A. 14. Using both hands. malnutrition. It doesn¶t destroy the cell membrane. Answer C. Options A and B are not characteristics of multiple myeloma. particularly if leukopenia is present. Option C is unrelated to this specific procedure. and cervical stenosis. such as the spleen and liver. and ultrasound will visualize the presence of a mass but will not confirm a diagnosis of malignancy. Answer D. Dyspnea may occur with lung involvement. and staff. Answer B. Clinical manifestations of ovarian cancer include abdominal distention. Answer A. Nonverbal cues from the client are important but are not the most appropriate pain assessment measure. The nurse should avoid using the knee gatch in the bed. If the implant becomes dislodged. The client should stand to examine the testicles. Multiple myeloma is a B-cell neoplastic condition characterized by abnormal malignant proliferation of plasma cells and the accumulation of mature plasma cells in the bone marrow. Range-ofmotion exercises. A client receiving radiation to the larynx is most likely to experience a sore throat. Answer D. Answer D. Option A elates to monitoring for infection. Answer A. Options A. but this option is not related to the subject of the question. 22. When signs of bowel function return. are not related directly to thrombocytopenia. 9. Conization procedure involves removal of a cone-shaped area of the cervix. Alopecia is not an assessment finding in testicular cancer. Invasive measures such as an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided to prevent infections. Abnormal bleeding. The nurse¶s impression of the client¶s pain is not appropriate in determining the client¶s level of pain. C. computed tomography scan. 17. The time that the nurse spends in a room of a client with an internal radiation implant is 30 minutes per 8-hour shift. Back pain may indicate metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. meticulous hand hygiene education is implemented for the client. and D are unrelated to the subject of the question. Option C describes the leukemic process. Options B and D may occur with radiation to the gastrointestinal tract. A major concern is monitoring for and preventing bleeding. The most important assessment is to assess bowel sounds before feeding the client. The client is at risk of deep vein thrombosis or thrombophlebitis after this surgery. Answer A. Fatigue and weakness may occur but are not related significantly to the disease. A pelvic ultrasound requires the ingestion of large volumes of water just before the procedure. Not all visitors are restricted. The client is kept NPO until peristalsis returns. pain from pressure caused by the growing tumor and the effects of urinary or bowel obstruction. In the neutropenic client. Answer D. Children younger than 16 years of age and pregnant women are not allowed in the client¶s room. . thus placing the client more at risk for deep vein thrombosis or thrombophlebitis. clear fluids are given to the client. The head of the bed is elevated to a maximum of 10 to 15 degrees for comfort. and ultimately general severe pain. Answer C. the diet is advanced as tolerated. Magnetic resonance imaging. 11. An abdominal ultrasound may require that the client abstain from food or fluid for several hours before the procedure. a pillow is placed between the knees and. Answer A. is associated with uterine cancer. 10. The client¶s self-report is a critical component of pain assessment. which inhibits venous return. constipation. family. the nurse implements measures that will prevent this complication. The testicular-self examination is recommended monthly after a warm bath or shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. with the body in straight alignment. The nurse avoids turning the client on the side. the client should gently roll the testicles. B. Options B. hormonal changes occur that may alter breast tissue. hypercalcemia caused by the release of calcium from the deteriorating bone tissue. usually in 4 to 6 days. Answer B. ascites with dyspnea. the client is logrolled. Options B and D. Weight loss is most likely to be noted. The breast self-examination should be performed monthly 7 days after the onset of the menstrual period.
Allopurinol decreases uric acid production and reduces uric acid concentrations in serum and urine. and D are expected occurrences following mastectomy and do not indicate a complication. and other connective tissue are called sarcomas. Allopurinol is not used to prevent alopecia. The most common risk factor associated with laryngeal cancer is cigarette smoking. Answer A. In the client receiving chemotherapy. 28. nausea. Answer B. 26. 29. Bargaining identifies a behavior in which the individual is willing to do anything to avoid loss or change prognosis or fate. depression. weeping openly. Arm edema on the operative side (lymphedema) is a complication following mastectomy and can occur immediately postoperatively or may occur months or even years after surgery. Depression may be manifested by hopelessness. Denial is expressed as shock and disbelief and may be the first response to hearing bad news. Another risk factor is exposure to environmental pollutants. if this occurs. or vomiting. .25. Options A. This medication prevents or treats hyperuricemia caused by chemotherapy. Denial. Heavy alcohol use and the combined use of tobacco increase the risk. Anger also may be a first response to upsetting news and the predominant theme is ³why me?´ or the blaming of others. C. 30. Answer D. and D. and acceptance are recognized stages that a person facing a lifethreatening illness experiences. Tumors that originate from bone. bargaining. Answer B. 27. the client may experience drainage of urine through the vagina. The client¶s complaint is not associated with options A. or remaining quiet or withdrawn. anger. uric acid levels increase as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurs from the chemotherapy. A vesicovaginal fistula is a genital fistula that occurs between the bladder and vagina. Answer B. C. The fistula is an abnormal opening between these two body parts and.muscle. Answer C.
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