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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018

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MENTAL ABILITY MARKS : 30


This section contains 30 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
Directions : Q.1 to Q.30 are multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (Q.1 to Q.4) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
A B 7 C D 9 Z Y ® P 2 M © K S 3 ? 5 N T @
1. Which of the following term is exactly midway between only letters falling between C and 5?
(1) P (2) M (3) 2 (4) Y
2. If each symbol of the above sequence is replaced with a letter and each digit is replaced with new
symbol, then how many letters will be there in the sequence?
(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 12 (4) 17
3. How many such digits are there in the sequence each of which is immediately preceded as well as
followed by a letter?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) None
4. If the first element from the left interchanges place with the tenth element from the left, similarly
second with ninth, third with eighth and so on, then which of the following will be seventh to the left
of eighth element from the right?
(1) Z (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) C
Direction (Q.5 to Q.9) : These question based on the following letter /symbol/number sequence. Study it
carefully and answer the question.
M3R #AP 49@KD1UH5$2N$WEQ6TV7*8B X
5. Which of the following elements is the 4th to the right of 12th from right end?
(1) 9 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) $
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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018
6. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement which are immediately preceded by a
symbol?
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) None (4) 3
7. If started from M, M is interchanged with 3 and R is interchanged with # and so on than which element
will be twelfth from left?
(1) 1 (2) $ (3) N (4) D
8. What will come next in the following sequence - MRP, 9KU, 52W, ?
(1) QT7 (2) 6V8 (3) QT* (4) QV7
9. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement.
Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(1) M3X (2) R#8 (3) P4V (4) KDW
10. 2R*Cf8E$G2#49Lc%B<K1&AW?Pe+Q@7F6
If the above sequence is written in reverse order, then which element will be 5th to the right of 16th
element from the right end?
(1) 2 (2) # (3) 4 (4) 9
Direction (Q.11 to Q.15) Arrange the given words in a meaningful order.
11. 1. Frog 2. Eagle 3. Grasshopper 4. Snake 5. Grass
(1) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 (2) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 (3) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2 (4) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
12. 1. Wall 2. Clay 3. House 4. Room 5. Bricks
(1) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 (2) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 (3) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 (4) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
13. 1. Community 2. Locality 3. Family 4. Country 5. Person
(1) 4,1,2,5,3 (2) 4,2,1,3,5 (3) 5,3,2,1,4 (4) 5,3,1,4,2
14. 1. Tractor 2.Yacht 3. Bicycle 4. Truck 5. Car
(1) 1,3,5,4,2 (2) 3,1,4,5,2 (3) 3,5,1,4,2 (4) 3,1,4,2,5
15. 1. Animal 2. Biology 3. Science 4. Lion 5. Zoology
(1) 3,2,5,1,4 (2) 3,5,2,1,4 (3) 3,1,2,5,4 (4) 3,1,4,5,2
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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018

16. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letter in the series increased by one. Which of the
following series follow the given rule?
(1) ACFJO (2) AEIMQ (3) DINSX (4) EHKNQ
17. Arrange the words in the alphabetical order and pick the one that comes second last.
(1) Brook (2) Bandit (3) Boisterous (4) Bright
18. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and choose the one that comes first.
(1) Guarantee (2) Group (3) Grotesque (4) Groan
19. Arrange the given words in the alphabetical order and pick the one that comes in the second position
from right.
(1) Alive (2) Afforest (3) Anticipate (4) Appreciate
Directions (Q.20 and Q.21): Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T UV W XY Z
20. Which letter will be 6th to the right of the 11th letter from the right end of the alphabet?
(1) K (2) V (3) J (4) U
21. If the above letters were in the reverse order, which will be the 5th letter to the left of the 9th letter from
the right end?
(1) P (2) N (3) M (4) W
22. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the
given word."BOOK BINDING"
(1) DIGING (2) BONDINK (3) DINING (4) DOING
23. Name a single letter, which can be deleted from the body of the following words to form entirely new
words HOST POST COST LOST STOP
(1) O (2) S (3) T (4) P
24. If the words are organised in reverse order of what they appear in dictionary, which word will come in
the third place?
(1) Occulist (2) Ordeum (3) Odious (4) Odium
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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018
25. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary:
1. Hale 2. Hake 3. Halt 4. Hamlet 5. Ham
(1) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 (2) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 (3) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 (4) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
26. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TROUBLE each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three
27. Make a meaningful word from the given responses. AL_E_
(1) S T (2) L R (3) T R (4) M R
28. If in the English alphabet, all the letters at odd-numbered positions are written in serial order from left
to right followed by the letters at even-numbered positions written in reverse order, which letter will be
sixth to the left of seventeenth letter from left?
(1) D (2) B (3) V (4) U
29. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, fourth, fifth, eleventh and thirteenth
letters of the word ESTABLISHMENT, using each letter only once, write second letter of that word as
your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, write 'M' as your answer and if no such word
can be formed, write 'X' as your answer.
(1) X (2) A (3) E (4) M
30. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have same number of letters
between them as in the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
PHYSICS MARKS : 15
This section contains 15 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
Directions : Q.31 to Q.45 are multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. A sound wave produce 40 compressions and 40 rarefactions in 0.4 sec. Find the frequency of the
wave.
(1) 10 Hz (2) 100 Hz (3) 0.4 Hz (4) 40 Hz
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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018

32. An ultrasonic scanner produces waves with a speed of 2.1 m/s. If the operating frequency is 4.2 MHz,
its wavelength is
(1) 2 × 10–2m (2) 5 × 10–7m (3) 4 × 10–4m (4) 8 × 10–8m
33. The frequency of a wave is 50 Hz, the total number of compressions and rarefactions passing through
a point in 1 sec is
(1) 200 (2) 150 (3) 100 (4) 50
34. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) The distance between two consecutive compressions is called frequency of sound wave
(ii) Sound propagates as pressure variations
(iii) Compressions are regions of high molecular density
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) only (3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iii) only
35. The dipper in a ripple tank vibrates at a frequency of 4.0 Hz and the resulting wave pattern is
photographed as shown in figure. What is the speed of the wave?
20 cm

(1) 4 cm/s (2) 5 cm/s (3) 40 cm/s (4) 20 cm/s


36. Which of the following sound wave frequency can be heard by us?
(1) 10 Hz (2) 550 Hz (3) 22000 Hz (4) 30500 Hz
37. Intensity of sound is
(1) measured in W/m2
(2) directly proportional to the square of amplitude of the sound
(3) an objective property of sound wave
(4) all of the above
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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018
38. Which of the following property of a sound wave determines its loudness?
(1) Frequency (2) Wavelength (3) Velocity (4) Amplitude
39. To reduce reverberation, walls of auditorium are covered with
(1) fibreboard (2) rough plaster (3) loose woolens (4) All of these
40. Which of the following is not an application of multiple reflection of sound?
(1) Echocardiography (2) Stethoscope (3) Horn (4) Megaphones
41. A person clapped his hands near a cliff and heard the echo after 4 s. What is the distance of the cliff
from the person if the speed of sound in air is taken as 340 m/s?
(1) 85 m (2) 1360 m (3) 680 m (4) 340 m
42. The ultrasonic waves take 4 seconds to travel from the ship to the bottom of the sea and back to the
ship (in the form of an echo). What is the depth of the sea? (Speed of sound in water = 1500 m/s.)
(1) 500 m (2) 3000 m (3) 2000 m (4) 1000 m
43. Speed of sound in air does not depend on
(1) density of air (2) humidity (3) speed of wind (4) pressure
44. Which of the below two graphs (a) and (b) representing the human voice is likely to be the male
voice?
a b

Time
(1) Graph (a) (2) Graph (b)
(3) Both graphs (a) and (b) (4) None of these
45. Sound produced in front of a tall building which is 18 m away is repeated again. Name the phenomena
responsible for this.
(1) Reverberation (2) Multiple reflection of sound
(3) Echo (4) All of these
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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018
CHEMISTRY MARKS : 15
This section contains 15 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
Directions : Q.46 to Q.60 are multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
46. Given a few compounds.
(a) Graphite (b) Coke (c) Charcoal (d) Fullerene
Pick the correct statement.
(1) Both a and b are crystalline (2) a, b are crystalline while c, d are amorphous
(3) b, c are amorphous and a, d are crystalline (4) a,b,c,d are crystalline forms
47. The correct increasing order of carbon content in the following is -
(1) Peat > Lignite > Sub-bituminous > Bituminous > Anthracite
(2) Peat < Lignite < Sub-bituminous < Bituminous < Anthracite
(3) Peat > Lignite > Bituminous > Anthracite > Sub-bituminous
(4) Peat < Sub-bituminous < Bituminous < Anthracite < Lignite
48. Sugar charcoal is prepared by treating X with a concentrated acid Y. X and Y are respectively -
(1) C6H12O6, H2SO4 (2) C6H12O6, HCl
(3) C12H22O11, H2SO4 (4) C12H22O11, HCl
49. The charcoal which is used as a decolourising agent and for purification of water is-
(1) wood charcoal (2) animal charcoal (3) sugar charcoal (4) none of these
50. The process of conversion of dead vegetation into coal is known as -
(1) allotropy (2) catenation (3) carbonisation (4) none of these
51. Formation of coke takes place by the process of-
(1) smelting (2) fractional distillation
(3) destructive distillation (4) sublimation
52. The property of carbon to combine with other carbon atoms is known as-
(1) allotropy (2) catenation (3) coalification (4) none of these
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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018

53. Which one of the following is the allotrope of carbon?


(1) Diamond (2) Fullerene (3) Graphite (4) All of these
54. The percentage carbon present in lamp black is around-
(1) 90% (2) 80% (3) 99% (4) 70%
55. Which one of the following is not obtained from fractional distillation of petroleum ?
(1) LPG (2) Gasoline (3) Asphalt (4) Charcoal
56. The carbon compounds are generally characterized by
(1) strong intermolecular bonds but weak intramolecular bonds
(2) strong intermolecular bonds and strong intramolecular bonds
(3) weak intermolecular bonds and weak intramolecular bonds
(4) weak intermolecular bonds but strong intramolecular bonds
57. Petroleum is also known as-
(1) yellow gold (2) black gold (3) white gold (4) none of these
58. Which of the following is correct for the properties of methane?
(1) It has covalent bonding involved.
(2) It has ionic bonding as well as covalent bonding involved.
(3) It has low melting and boiling point.
(4) Both (1) and (3).
59. The lead used in pencils is made by the combination of-
(1) graphite and clay (2) only graphite
(3) graphite and charcoal (4) graphite and coke
60. Major component of CNG is-
(1) butane (2) methane (3) hexane (4) pentane
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BIOLOGY MARKS : 15
This section contains 15 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
Directions : Q.61 to Q.75 are multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Which of the following statement is incorrect about temperate deciduous forest ?
(1) Trees shed their leaves in autumn and new foliage grows in spring.
(2) Winter lasts for more than six months.
(3) Temperature is moderate.
(4) Soil is rich in nutrients.
62. Match the crops with the season in which they are harvested.

(A) Rabi (p) Melons (i) Monsoon crop


(B) Kharif (q) Wheat (ii) Harvested before Rainy season
(C) Zayed (r) Rice (iii) Sowing starts in Winter

(1) (A)-(q)-(iii), (B)-(r)-(ii), (C)-(p)-(i)


(2) (A)-(r)-(i), (B)-(q)-(iii), (C)-(p)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(p)-(i), (B)-(q)-(ii), (C)-(r)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(q)-(iii), (B)-(r)-(i), (C)-(p)-(ii)
63. Which of the following organism shows Migration?
(1) Tuna (2) Siberian crane (3) African elephant (4) All of these
64. Which of the following is explained in the given information?
i. It is the science or practice of growing crops.
ii. It covers all the activities connected with cultivation.
iii. It covers all the activities of animals for food and for doing useful work.
(1) Animal Husbandry (2) Agriculture (3) Horticulture (4) Nurseries
65. Which of the following crop is grown at the bottom of river valley system?
(1) Coffee (2) Rubber (3) Coconut (4) Rice
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66. Statement: A farmer grew berseem and cowpea in his field and then after some time ploughed those
plants back into the soil.
Reason: Back ploughing increases soil fertility without usage of fertilizers.
(1) Statement is true but the reason is false.
(2) Statement given is false and reason given is also false.
(3) Statement is true and reason given for it is also true as well as is correct explanation for the statement.
(4) Statement and reason both are true but the given reason is not the correct explanation for the
statement.
67. Which of the following temperature is of coniferous forests?
(1) Above 0°C (2) 20° C to 30° C (3) 10°C to 20°C (4) below 0°C
68. A harrow is used to remove _________.
(1) weeds (2) crop plants (3) stones (4) rocks
69. Analyze the given table regarding the conditions of the fields and other requirements and identify the
irrigation system best suited for the two farmers Sohan and Harish.
Condition / Farmer Sohan Harish
Field surface Irregular Levelled
Soil type Sandy Clayey
Crop Cereals Fruit plants
Financial budget High Low
Sohan Harish
(1) Sprinkler Drip
(2) Drip Sprinkler
(3) Surface Drip
(4) Drip Surface

70. Manure increases humus content of the soil which causes the soil to
(1) become more porous
(2) allow more water to penetrate deep underground
(3) allow air to reach deep underground root
(4) all of the above
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71. Method (1) : Growing of different crops alternatively on the same field.
Method (2) : Leaving field uncultivated for sometime.
Method (3) : Using large amount of manures.
Method (4) : Usage of certain specific microbes like anabaena, nostoc.
Method (5) : Using proper insecticides and pesticides.
Method (6) : Using large amount of chemical fertilizers.
If you are a naturalist which of the following methods would you advice to increase fertility of the
soil?
(1) Method (1) (3), (5), (6) (2) Method (1), (2), (4)
(3) Method (1), (2), (3), (4) (4) Method (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6)
72. Which of the following methods of cultivation causes salinization of soil?
(1) Transplantation (2) Crop rotation (3) Excessive irrigation (4) Broadcasting
73. Read carefully the information given in the chart below and identify the type of forests A, B, C.

(1) A - Deciduous forests, B - Tropical forests, C - Boreal forests


(2) A - Evergreen forests, B - Temperate deciduous forests, C - Deciduous forests
(3) A - Tropical forests, B - Boreal forests, C - Temperate deciduous forests
(4) A - Tropical forests, B - Deciduous forests, C - Evergreen forests
74. Which of the following chemical is used as a rodenticides?
(1) Bordeaux Mixture (2) Zinc phosphide (3) Aldrin (4) HgCl2
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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018
75. Which one of the following is not the use of forest ?
(1) They are the main source of carbondioxide.
(2) Trees are used such as bamboo in making furniture, baskets etc.
(3) They provide shelter and food to animals.
(4) They play important role in food chain.

MATHS MARKS : 25
This section contains 25 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
Directions : Q.76 to Q.100 are multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2 1 1
76. Solve for x : + =- ; x ¹ ± 1
x -1 x +1
2
7

(1) –5 (2) –6 (3) 8 (4) –8

77. If the sum of four consecutive odd numbers is 40, the smallest number is
(1) 7 (2) 13 (3) 17 (4) 19
2 x 4
78. Solve for x : + 2 = ;x¹±3
x -3 x -9 x +3
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 22 (4) 24
79. In 7 years from now, Rakesh will be twice as old as he was 8 years ago. How old is he now?
(1) 19 years (2) 21 years (3) 23 years (4) 25 years
80. A father is twice as old as his son. 20 years ago, the age of father was 12 times the age of his son. The
present age of father (in years) is
(1) 40 (2) 42 (3) 43 (4) 44
81. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 8. If the sum of the numbers is 165, then find the numbers.
(1) 45, 120 (2) 40, 125 (3) 30, 135 (4) 65, 100
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5
82. Amina thinks of a number and subtracts from it. She multiplies the result by 8. The result now
2
obtained is 3 times the same number she thought of. What is the number she thought of ?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

4 2
83. The base of an isosceles triangle is cm. The perimeter of the triangle is 4 cm. What is the length
3 15
of the either of the remaining equal sides ?
2 2 4 4
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm (3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm
5 5 5 5
84. A number consists of two digits such that the digit in the ten's place is less by 2 then the digit in the
6
unit's place. Three times the number added to times the number obtained by reversing the digits
7
equals 108. The sum of the digits in the numbers is
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9
85. A man's age is 42 years and his son's age is 12 years. After how many years will the man be thrice as
old as his son ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
86. Average of first 15 prime numbers is:
(1) 15.93 (2) 17.93 (3) 19.98 (4) 21.87

87. Krishna has an equal number of two rupee and five rupee coins. He has also some one rupee coins. If
the total number of coins is 40 and their value is Rs.120, how many five rupee coins does he have?
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16
2 - 7x 3 + 7x
88. Solve for x : =
1 - 5x 4 + 5x
1 1
(1) 2 (2) –2 (3) (4) -
2 2
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89. Half of a herd of deer are grazing in the field and three fourth of the remaining are playing nearby. The
rest 9 are drinking water from the pond. Find the total number of deers in the herd.
(1) 48 (2) 56 (3) 64 (4) 72

(x + 2)(2x - 3) - 2x 2 + 6
90. Solve for x : =2
x-5
10 10
(1) (2) - (3) –10 (4) 10
3 3
91. The sum of two consecutive multiples of 8 is 136. One of these multiple is
(1) 48 (2) 56 (3) 64 (4) 80
92. There are 20 students in a class having average age as 'x' years. Now one more student joined the class
having age x years. What is new average age of all the students?
x + 20
(1) x years (2) (x + 1) years (3) (x – 1) years (4) years
21
93. Two years ago, Dilip was three times as old as his son and two years hence, twice his age will be equal
to five times that of his son. Find sum of their present ages.
(1) 46 years (2) 52 years (3) 54 years (4) 58 years
94. Ratio of ages of Ram and Shyam is 4 : 5. After 8 years ratio of their ages becomes 5 : 6. The sum of
their present ages is.
(1) 8 years (2) 72 years (3) 88 years (4) 80 years
95. After fifteen years, Kamal's age will be four times his age 15 years ago from now. Find his present age.
(1) 40 years (2) 10 years (3) 25 years (4) 75 years
96. A rectangle has its area numerically equal to its perimeter. If its one side is 10 cm, then find its perimeter.
(1) 15 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 25 cm (4) 30 cm
97. Product of two natural numbers is 17. Then, the sum of reciprocals of their squares is

290 1 290 290


(1) (2) (3) (4)
289 289 90 19
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PROFICIENCY TEST : CLASS - VIII 15-07-2018

98. The organizers of an essay competition decide that a winner in the competition gets a price of
Rs. 100 and a participant who does not win gets a price of Rs. 25. The total price money distributed is
Rs. 3000. Find the number of winners, if the total number of participants are 63.

(1) 19 (2) 25 (3) 57 (4) 97

99. Sam's age is one-fourth of his father's age and two-third of his sister Rita's age. What is the ratio of the
ages of Sam, Rita and their father respectively ?

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 : 8 (3) 2 : 3 : 4 (4) 5 : 6 : 9

100. Solve : x - 2 + 3x - 5 = 5x - 7 - 1
3 5 6 10
(1) x = 2 (2) x = 3 (3) x = 4 (4) x = 5

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