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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION STAGE - 2

(LAST FIVE YEAR PAPERS WITH SOLUTIONS )
INDEX
TEST PAPERS
MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2013 – 01 - 06

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2013 – 07 - 17

MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2014 – 18 - 22

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2014 – 23 - 32

MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2015 – 33 - 37

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2015 – 38 - 47

MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2016 – 48 - 53

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2016 – 54 - 63

MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2017 – 64 - 69

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2017 – 70 - 79

HINT AND SOLUTIONS
MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2013 – 80 - 81

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2013 – 82 - 85

MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2014 – 86

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2014 – 87 - 91

MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2015 – 92 - 93

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2015 – 94 - 98

MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2016 – 99 - 102

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2016 – 103 - 107

MENTAL ABILITY TEST - 2017 – 108 - 112

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2017 – 113 - 120

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
Roll No. NTSE 13_MAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2013
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude Test shall be
administered. Answer to Part-I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental
Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude answer
sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected after the time
is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate
boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

3. Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.

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NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2013
1. Here are some words translated from an artificial 7. Ramesh started going for regular morning walks
language for controlling his blood sugar level. He did so for
mie pie is blue light a month and also started taking Yoga lessons,
mie tie is blue berry without going for any pathological examination.
aie tie is rasp berry He underwent pathological test after two months
Which words could possible mean “light fly” ? and found that the blood sugar level has come
(1) pie zie (2) pie mie down. Presuming that he had not changed his
(3) aie zie (4) aie mie food habits during these two months, which
statement among the alternative given below
2. If in a certain code, STUDENT is written as
follows most logically?
RSTEDMS, then how would TEACHER be written
(1) Blood sugar level comes down after doing
in the same code ?
regular morning walk.
(1) SZZDGEQ (2) SZDDGEQ
(2) Blood sugar level comes down after doing Yoga.
(3) SDZDGDQ (4) SDZCGDQ
(3) Blood sugar level comes down on doing regular
3. Which group of letters is different from others ? morning walk and Yoga.
(1) CBAED (2) IJHGK (4) Regular morning walk, Yoga or both may bring
(3) SRQPT (4) TVWYX down sugar level despite not changing food
habits.
4. In the following letter sequence, some of the letters
are missing. These are given in order as one of 8. Find the number in the position of ‘?’
the alternatives below. Choose the correct
alternative.
a b _ a a _ b b b _ a a a a _ b b b .....
(1) abba (2) baba
(3) aaab (4) abab

5. Fill in the missing number

- C 2B - 3 A
2A ? -B
- 3 C - A - 2B (1) 41 (2) 45
(3) 50 (4) 52
(1) – 3C (2) – 2C
9. Identify the number in the position of ‘?’
(3) 3C (4) 2B

6. Vimla used to board the train from Metro Station
A for going to her office. Since Station A is a
terminus, she had no problem in getting a seat.
Ever since she shifted to Locality B she finds it
difficult to get a seat, as by the time the train
reaches Locality B it becomes crowded. Find the (1) 2 (2) 3
statement among the alternatives which must be (3) 5 (4) 6
true as per the given information. 10. Find the next number in the sequence
(1) Vimla would prefer to take a bus rather than 0, 2, 24, 252, __________
the metro. (1) 620 (2) 1040
(2) Vimla’s travel to office has become less (3) 3120 (4) 5430
comfortable ever since she has shifted. 11. Find the next number in the sequence
(3) Commuters staying in and around Locality B 6, 24, 60, 120, __________
would demand metro services originating (1) 180 (2) 210
from station near Locality B. (3) 240 (4) 360
(4) Vimla would look for a job close to her home

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12. Find the letter to be placed in place of ‘?’ in the 17. Which symbol replaces the ‘?’ Figure below
figure given. represent a balance.

(1) M (2) N
(3) Q (4) R

13. In this multiplication question the five letters (1) (2)
represent five different digits. What are the actual
figures ? There is no zero. (3) (4)

18. On the basis of the four positions of a dice given
(1) M = 3, E = 9, A = 7, T = 4, S = 8 below find the colour of the face opposite ‘Yellow’.
(2) M = 3, E = 9, A = 7, T = 8, S = 4
(3) M = 4, E = 3, A = 9, T = 7, S = 8
(4) M = 4, E = 9, A = 3, T = 7, S = 8

14. Identify which among the pieces given below will
not be required to complete the triangular pattern
shown below. (1) Indigo (2) Red
(3) Pink (4) Blue

19. If the given figure is folded to form a box, which
among the boxes below will be formed ?

(1) q (2) r
(3) s (4) t

15. Find the missing number in the series
2, 10, 26, ______ , 242
(1) 80 (2) 81
(3) 82 (4) 84

16. A pattern is given below. You have to identify
which among the following pieces will not be
required to complete the pattern.
20. Two positions of a dice are shown. Which number
will appear on the face opposite the one having 5 ?

(1) q (2) r
(3) s (4) t (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6

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21. In the figure, the circle represents youth, the 27. Mother was asked how many gifts she had in
triangle represents footballers and the rectangle the bag. She replied that there were all dolls but
represents athletes. Which letter(s) represent(s) six, all cars but six, and all books but six. How
athletes among youths who are not footballers ? many gifts had she in all ?
(1) 9 (2) 18
(3) 27 (4) 36

28. Question given below has a problem and two
statements I & II. Decide if the information given
in the statement is sufficient for answering the
problem.
K, R, S and T are four players in Indian Cricket
team. Who is the oldest among them ?
(1) g (2) g and c I : The total age of K & T together is more than
that of S
(3) f (4) f and d
II : The total age of R & K together is less than
22. Find the odd one out that of S
(1) Data in statement I alone is sufficient
(2) Data in statement II alone is sufficient
(3) Data in both statement together is sufficient
(4) Data in both statement together is not sufficient

29. Which of the following diagram/sets indicate the
relation between women, mothers and parents?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

23. Identify the number corresponding to the ‘?’
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 8
30. In a dairy, there are 60 cows and buffalos. The
24. Which of the given alternative is the mirror image number of cows is twice that of buffalos. Buffalo
of REASON, if the mirror is placed below the X ranked seventeenth in terms of milk delivered.
word ? If there are 9 cows ahead of Buffalo X, how many
(1) (2) buffalos are after in rank in terms of milk delivered?
(3) (4) (1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 12 (4) 13
25. A sprinter goes off the starting block for 100m
run and at that instant the second-hand of a 31. What is the mirror image of b3k4s I ?
stopwatch had pointed towards North. He touches
the finishing line exactly after 12 seconds. In b3k4s ?
which direction did the second hand point when
he just crossed the finishing line ? (1) (2)
(1) 18º North of East (2) 18º East of North (3) (4)
(3) 72º North of East (4) 82º East of North
32-36 Question 32 to 36 are based on the following
26. Two candles are of different lengths and information: a, b, g, d , Î ,f , y , h are sitting on
thicknesses. The short and the long ones can a merry-go-round facing at the centre. d is second
burn respectively for 3.5 hour and 5 hour. After to the left on h who is third to the left of a. b is
burning for 2 hour, the lengths of the candles fourth to the right of g who is immediate neighbour
become equal in length. What fraction of the long of h . y is not a neighbour of b or g . f is not a
candle’s height was the short candle initially ? neighbour of b.
2 5
(1) (2) 32. Who is third to the left of b.
7 7
(1) a (2) g
3 4
(3) (4) (3) f (4) Y
5 5
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33. In which of the following pairs is the first person 41. Statement : All Clocks are Alarms. No Clocks
sitting to the immediate right of the second are Cuckoos. All Cuckoos are Alarms. Some
person ? Cuckoos are Birds .
(1) d, Y (2) b, Î Conclusion :
(3) h , b (4) Y , h I. Some Alarms are Birds.
II. No Clock is a Bird
34. What is f‘s position with respect to Y ? III. All Birds are Alarms
(1) Third towards right (1) Only conclusion I follows.
(2) Third towards left (2) Only conclusion II follows.
(3) Second towards right (3) Only conclusion III follows.
(4) Second towards left (4) Both conclusion II and III follows.

35. Who is sitting between a and b ? 42. Two players X and O play a game of “doughts
and crosses” on a 3 × 3 grid. The purpose of the
(1) Both Î and h (2) Both f and g
game is for a player to get 3 symbols belonging
(3) Only Î (4) Only f
to the player in a straight line (vertically,
horizontally or diagonally). Each player marks
36. How many of them are sitting between g and b ? one symbol on his or her turn.
(1) 0 or 6 (2) 1 or 5 After two moves (1 turn each), the grid looks as
(3) 2 or 4 (4) 3 follows with X to play next.
Where should X put his symbol next so that
37. In a school 120 boys have registered for a singles he will always win this game finally regard
carrom tournament. Each match eliminates one less of how well O plays ?
player. How many matches are to be organized
to determine the champion?
(1) 60 (2) 61
(3) 119 (4) 120

38. Amongst five friends, Lata, Alka, Rani, Asha and
Sadhana. Lata is older than only three of her (1) Bottom row right corner
friends. Alka is younger to Asha and Lata. Rani (2) Bottom row middle cell
is older than only Sadhana. Who amongst them (3) Middle row left most cell
is the eldest? (4) It is not possible to always ensure X wins if O
(1) Asha (2) Lata plays carefully
(3) Alka (4) Sadhana
43. An electrical circuit for a set of 4 lights depends
on a system of switches A, B, C and D. When
39. Twenty four teams are divided into 4 group of six these switches work they have the following effect
teams each. Within each group the teams play on the lights: They each change the state of two
each other exactly once. The winners of each lights (i.e. on becomes off and off becomes on).
group then play in the semifinals. Winners of the The lights that each switch controls are as follows.
semifinals play in the finals and losers for the 3rd
place. How many matches are played?
(1) 60 (2) 63
(3) 64 (4) 66

40-41. Take the given statement(s) as true and decide
which of the conclusion logically follows from the
statements. In configuration 1 shown below, switches CBDA
40. Statement: All Actors are Musicians. No are activated in turn, resulting in configuration 2.
Musician is a Singer. Some Singers are Dancerss. One switch did not work and had no effect at all.
Some Dancers are Musicians. Which was that switch?
Conclusions :
I. Some Actors are Singers
II. Some Dancers are Actors
III : No Actor is a Singer
(1) Only conclusion 1 follows.
(2) Only conclusion III follows.
(3) Exactly one of conclusion I, III follows.
(4) Only conclusion II follows.
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

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47. I left home for bringing milk between 7am and
8am. The angle between the hour-hand and the
minute-hand was 90° I returned home between 7
am and 8 am. Then also the angle between the
minute-hand and hour-hand was 90°. At what time
44. (nearest to second) did I leave and return home?
(1) 7h 18m 35s & 7h 51 m 24s
(2) 7h 19m 24s & 7h 52m 14s
(3) 7h 20m 42s & 7h 53m 11s
(4) 7h 21 m 49s & 7h 54m 33s
(1) (2) 48. I left home at 3:00pm and returned at 3:48pm.
The clock was rotated by 45°, so that when I left,
the hour-hand of a clock was pointing along the
(3) (4) southeast direction. In which direction would the
hour-hand point when I returned?
(1) 15° East of South
(2) 21º East of South
(3) 63° South of East
(4) 27° South of East

45.

49.

(1) (2)

When the above is folded into a cube, which is
the only cube that can be produced amongst the
(3) (4) following?

46. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is
sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not (1) (2)
sitting next to E, who is sitting on the left end of
the bench. C is on the second position from the
right. A is to the right of B and E. Counting from
the left in which position is A sitting?
(1) 2
(3) (4)
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) Cannot be determined from the given conditions
. 50. What will be water image of CHICK?
(1) CHIC (2) C
(3) K (4)

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Roll No. NTSE 13_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2013
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate
boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.

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NTSE STAGE_II (SAT) PAPER-2013
1. An animal cell, a plant cell and a bacterium share 7. Photosynthesis in an aquatic plant was measured
the following structural features : by counting the number of O2 bubbles coming
(1) Cell membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, vacuoles out of the cut end of the plant . What wiill happen
(2) Cell wall, plasma membrane, mitochondria to O2 production if you use a pipe to blow air from
(3) Cell wall, nucleus, cytoplasm your mouth into water in the beaker ?
(4) Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes

2. Given below are figures of three kinds of muscle
fibres.

(1) Air from mouth contains O2 which is being
added to the plant. Hence increase in O2
(1) (2) (3)
production
Which one/ones would you find in the grass (2) Air from mouth contains CO2 which is utilized
hopper’s legs? in photosynthesis. Hence increase in O2
(1) A only (2) B only production.
(3) A and C (4) B and C (3) Bacteria from mouth will infect plant. Hence
reduction in O2 production.
3. A Plant that has well differentiated body, special (4) Water is already in Contact with air. Hence
tissues for transport of water and other substances, air from mouth will have no effect.
but does not have seed or fruits is a (n) :
(1) Bryophyte (2) Angiosperm 8. A person with blood group 'A' can donate blood
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Pteridophyte to the persons with blood group 'A' or 'AB'
because it
4. Raju was suffering from severe stomach pain and (1) has both 'A' and 'B' antigens.
the doctor diagnosed that he was suffering from (2) has only 'A' antigen and 'B' antibodies.
peptic ulcers and treated him with antibiotics. (3) has only 'B' antigen and 'A' antibodies
He was relieved of pain. What could be the reason (4) does not have any antigens and antibodies
for peptic ulcers?
(1) Reduced secretion of hormones. 9. What would happen to the person if cerebellum
(2) Reduced water content of his brain is damaged?
(3) Growth of Helicobacter pylori (1) He will lose his memory power.
(4) Excess secretion of enzyme (2) He will not be able to swallow food properly.
(3) He will be unable to coordinate and stand
5. The average temperature of the Earth remains properly.
fairly steady as compared to that of the moon (4) He will lose his powers of vision and hearing.
because of the
(1) Atmosphere (2) Lithosphere 10. Which of the following statements are correct?
(3) Biosphere (4) Hydrosphere A.. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites and undergo
self-fertilization.
6. In flowers which one of the following conditions B. Earthworms are hermaphrodites and undergo
will increase chances of self-pollination ? self-fertilization.
(1) Pistil is longer than stamens in a flower C. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites but undergo
(2) Stamens are just above the stigma of pistil in cross-fertiIization.
a flower D. Earthworms are hermaphrodites but undergo
(3) In all flowers of the plant only pistil is present cross-fertilization
(4) In all flowers of the plant only stamens are (1) A and B (2) B and C
present. (3) C and D (4) D and A

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11-12 A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a 16. There is a mixture of three solid compounds A,
tree. Beetles multiply through sexual reproduction. Band C. Out of' these compounds A and C are
One day, some green beetles are seen among soluble in water and compound C is sublimable
the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce also. In what sequence the following techniques
green progeny. Crows on the tree eat beetles. can be used for their effcctive separation?
I. Filtration
11. Some green beetles appear among the red beetle II. Sublimation
because Ill. Crystallisation from water extract
(1) Beetles become green by accumulating IV. Dissolution in water
chlorophyll from the green leaves that they eat. (1) (II), (I), (IV), (Ill) (2) (IV), (I), (II), (III)
(2) Natural variations occur during sexual (3) (I), (II), (m), (IV) (4) (II), (IV). (I), (III)
reproduction.
(3) Red beetles mimic green colour of leaves 17. Which of the following is a suitable example for
whenever they see crows. illustrating the law of conservation of mass?
(Atomic mass of O = 16; H = l )
(4) Beetles change colour from red to green with
(1) 18g of water is formed by the combination of
change of season.
16g oxygen with 2g of hydrogen. .
(2) 18g of water in liquid state is obtained by
12. The colour compasItIon of beetle population is
heating 18g of ice.
likely to change in the following manner:
(3) 18g of water is completely converted into
(1) Both red and green beetle survive equally. vapour state on heating.
(2) Only the red beetle survives. (4) 18g of water freezes at 4°C to give same mass
(3) More red beetles survive than the green. of ice.
(4) More green beetles survive than the red.
18. An element X has 7 electrons in its L shell. What
13. In the following food chain who gets less energy is true about the elemt:nt X?
than the tertiary consumer and more than the I. It belongs to period 9 of modern periodic table.
primary consumer? II. Its atom contains 9 protons.
III. It has a valency of 7.
Grass ® Grasshopper ® Frog ® Snake ® IV. Its atoms can accept an electron to acquire
Eagle noble gas configuration.
(1) Grasshopper (2) Frog (1) (I) and (II) (2) (II) and (Ill)
(3) Snake (4) Eagle (3) (Ill) and (IV) (4) (II) and (IV)

14. If a non-degradable and fat soluble pollutant, such 19. The reaction between carbon and oxygen can be
as DDT enters the food chain, the pollutant represented as
(1) magnifies in concentration at each trophic level. C(S) + O2(g) ¾® CO2(g) + heat
(2) degrades at first trophic level. In which of the following type(s), the above reaction
(3) accumulates in the body fat of organism at can be classified?
first trophic level and does not pass to second I. Combustion reaction
trophic level. II. Displacement reaction
(4) decreases in concentration at each trophic III. Endothermic reation
level. IV. Combination reaction
(1) (I) and (III) (2) (I) , (III) and (IV)
15. A drop each of two non-corrosive and non-irritating (3) (I) and (IV) (4) (I) only
liquids A and B at a temperature of 22ºC are placed
on the skin. Liquid A gives a more cooling 20. A metal carbonate X on treatment with a mineral
acid liberates a gas which when passed through
sensation than liquid B.Which of the following can
aqueous solution of a substance Y gives back X.
be said about the liquids A and B? The substance Y on reaction with the gas
(1) Liquid A has higher boiling point than that of obtained at anode during electrolysis of brine
liquid B. gives a compound Z which can decolorise
coloured fabrics. The compounds X,Y and Z
(2) Liquid A has higher latent heat of vaporisation
respectively are
than that of liquid B.
(1) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2, CaOCI2
(3) Liquid A has lower latent heat of vaporisation (2) Ca(OH)2, CaO, CaOCI2
than that of liquid B. (3) CaCO3, CaOCl2, Ca(OH)2
(4) The boiling points of liquid A and B are equal. (4) Ca(OH)2, CaCO3, CaOCI2

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21. A salt can be produced by reaction between 26. An element X combines with hydrogen to form a
A. a weak acid and weak base. compound XH3. The element X is placed on the
right side of the periodic table. What is true about
B. metal oxide and water.
the element X ?
C. metal and a mineral acid.
A. Has 3 valence electrons.
D. metal oxide and a mineral acid.
B. Is a metal and is solid.
(1) A, Band C (2) B,C and D
C. Is a non-metal and is a gas.
(3) C,D and A (4) 0, A and B
D. Has 5 valence electrons.
22. Which of the following is true about the two E. XH3 reacts with water to form a basic
statements? compound.
Statement I : Reactivity of aluminium decreases (1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D
when it is dipped in nitric acid (3) C, D and E (4) E, A and B
Statement II : A protective layer of aluminium
nitrate is formed when aluminium is dipped in 27. An element X (atomic number 12) reacts with
nitric acid. another element Y (atomic number 17) to form a
compound Z. Which of the following statements
(1) I is correct but II is incorrect
are true regarding this compound ?
(2) I is incorrect but II is correct I. Molecular formula of Z is XY2
II. It is soluble in water
(3) Both the statements are correct and II is also
III. X and Y are joined by sharing of electrons
the correct explanation of I
IV. It would conduct electricity in the molten state
(4) Both the statements arc correct but II is not (1) (II) and (III) (2) (I) and (III)
correct explanation of I (3) (I),(III) and (IV) (4) (I) and (IV)

28. A ship sends a sonar wave to the sea bed which
23. A silvery white metal X reacts with water at room
is flat and measured several times over a large
temperature to produce a water soluble area. One day the reflected sound wave takes
compound Y and a colourless gas Z. The reaction longer time than in previous measurements. The
is highly exothermic and the Z catches fire possible reason is :
immediately during the reaction. The solution of (1) The frequency of the sonar wave, generated
Y in water on reacting with stoichiometric amount by the equipment is lower than previous
of dilute solution of hydrochloric acid gives a measurements.
(2) There is a solid object of large size in the
solution of pH = 7.0. The compounds X, Y and Z
path of sonar wave.
respectively are : (3) there is a huge air bubble in the path of sonar
(1) AI, AI(OH)3 and H2 (2) Ag, AgOH and H2 wave.
(4) the loudness of the sonar wave, generated by
(3) K, KCI and H2 (4) Na, NaOH and H2
the equipment is lower than previous
measurement.
24. A compound X is obtained by the reaction of
alkaline KMnO 4 with "mother compound Y 29. Which of the following ray diagram is correct?
followed by acidification. Compound X also reacts
with compound Y in presence of few drops of
H2SO4 to form a sweet smelling compound Z. (1)
The compound X, Y and Z are, respectively
(1) Ethanol, Ethene, Ethanoic Acid
(2) Ethanoic Acid, Ethanol, Ethylethanoate
(2)
(3) Ethanoic Acid, Ethanal, Ethene
(4) Ethanol, Ethanoic Acid, Sodium Ethanoate

25. Which of the following pairs of compounds of carbon (3)
will undergo combustion as well as addition
reaction ?
(1) CH4 and C2H6. (2) C2H6O and C3H8O
(3) C2H4O2 and C3H6O (4) C2H2 and C3H6 (4)

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30. A concave lens always gives a virtual image. In 34. A uranium nucleus at rest decays into a thorium
optical lenses worn by humans which of the nucleus and a helium nucleus, as shown below.
following statements is true? Which of the following is true?
(1) The lens can never be concave. 235 231 4
92 U ® 90 Th + 2He
(2) In some cases the lens can be concave if the
(1) Each decay product has the same kinetic
focal length is much larger than 2.5 cm.
energy.
(3) All focal length concave lenses are possible. (2) The decay products tend to go in the same
(4) All focal length convex lenses are possible. direction.
(3) The thorium nucleus has more momentum
31. A geo-stationary satellite is orbiting around earth than the helium nucleus.
at height of 30,000 km in circular orbit. The radius (4) The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy
of the earth is taken as 6000 km. The geo- than the thorium nucleus.
stationary satellite comes back to its position
after one revolution in exactly 24 hours. Let the
acceleration due to gravity (g) be 10 m/s2 and 35. The figure below shows the position of a ball at t
mass of satellite be 1000 kg; calculate the work = 0, t = 1 s, t = 2 s, t = 3 s and t = 4 s
done in 12 hours when moving under gravitational
force.
(1) 3.6p × 1014 J (2) 2p × 7.2p 1014 J
(3) 1.8p x 1014 J (4) 0 J

32. Consider a simple circuit containing a battery and
Position of ball at five successive times
three identical incandescent bulbs A, B and C.
Bulb A is wired in parallel with bulb B and this Which of the graph below is a possible graph of
combination is wired in series with bulb C. What the position x(t)?
would happen to the brightness of the other two
bulbs if bulb A were to burn out?
(1) Only bulb B would get brighter.
(2) Both A and B would get brighter.
(3) Bulb B would get brighter and bulb C would (1) (2)
get dimmer.
(4) There would be no change in the brightness
of either bulb B or bulb C.

33. Three different circuits (I, II and III) are constructed
using identical batteries and resistors of R and (3) (4)
2R ohm. What can be said about current I in arm
AB of each circuit?
36. The graph shows position as a function of time
for two trains A and B running on parallel tracks.
For times greater than t = 0, which of the following
statement is true?

(1) At time tB both trains have the same velocity.
(2) Both trains speed up all the time.
(3) Both trains may have the same velocity at
some time earlier than tB.
(1) III< II < IIII (2) II < III < IIII
(4) Graph indicates that both trains have the same
(3) II = III = IIII (4) II > III = IIII
acceleration at a given time.

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37. The figure shown below depicts the distance 41. An open box is made from a square lamina of
travelled by a body as a function of time. side 12cm, by cutting equal squares at the
corners and folding up the remaining flaps. The
volume of this box cannot be
(1) 115 c.c. (2) 120 c.c.
(3) 125 c.c. (4) 130 c.c.

42. A has a pair of triangles with corresponding sides
proportional, and B has a pair of pentagons with
corresponding sides proportional.
The average speed and maximum speed between
S1 = A's triangles must be similar
0 and 20 s are
S2 = D's pentagons must be similar
(1) 1 m/s, 2.0 m/s respectively.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(2) 1 m/s, 1.6 m/s respectively.
(1) S1 is true, but S2 is not true.
(3) 2.0 m/s, 2.6 m/s respectively.
(2) S2 is true, but S1 is not true.
(4) 1.3 m/s, 2.0 m/s respectively.
(3) Both S1 and S2 are true.
38. A hypothetical planet has density p, radius R, and (4) Neither S1 nor S2 is true.
surface gravitational acceleration g. If the radius
43. DABC is an equilateral triangle of side 2 3 cms.
of the planet were doubled but the planetary density
P is any point in the interior of D ABC. If x, y, z
stayed the same, the acceleration due to gravity
are the distances of P from the sides of the
at the planet's surface would be :
triangle, then x + y + z =
(1) 4g (2) 2g (3) g (4) g/2
(1) 2 + 3 cms. (2) 5 cms.
39. Three rings P. Q and R are dropped at the same (3) 3 cms. (4) 4 cms.
time over identical hollow magnets as shown
44. Which of the following numbers is the fourth power
below :
of a natural number?
(1) 6765201 (2) 6765206
(3) 6765207 (4) 6765209
45. The square of an odd integer must be of the form
(1) 6n + 1
Which of the following describes the order in (2) 6n + 3
which the ring P, Q and R reach the bottom of (3) 8n + 1
(4) 4n + 1 but may not be 8n + 1
the magnet?
(1) They arrive in the order P, Q, R. 46. ABCD is a square with side a. With centers A,
(2) They arrive in the order P, R, Q. B, C and D four circles are drawn such that each
(3) Rings P and R arrive simultaneously, followed circle touches externally two of the remaining
by Q. three circles. Let d be the area of the region In
(4) Rings Q and R arrive simultaneously, followed the interior of the square and exterior of the
by P. circles. Then the maximum value of d is
æ4-pö
40. An electron moving with uniform (1) a2( 1 – p ) (2) a2 ç 4 ÷
è ø
velocity in x direction enters a
region of uniform magnetic field pa2
(3) a2(p – 1) (4)
along y direction. Which of the 4
following physical quantity(ies) 47. The value of tan1º tan2º tan3º......... tan89º is
is(are) non-zero and remain (1) 0 (2) 1
constant? 1
I. Velocity of the electron. (3) 2 (4)
2
II. Magnitude of the momentum of the electron. 48. ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real, has real
III. Force on the electron. roots if
IV. The kinetic energy of electron. (1) a, b, c are integers. (2) b2 > 3ac.
(1) Only I and II. (2) Only III and IV. (3) ac > 0 and b is zero. (4) c = 0.
(3) All four. (4) Only II and IV.

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49. An open box A is made from a square piece of tin 56. A solid metal sphere of surface area S1 is melted
by cutting equal squares S at the comers and and recast into a number of smaller spheres. S2
folding up the remaining flaps. Another open box is the sum of the surface areas of all the smaller
B is made similarly using one of the squares S. spheres. Then
If U and V are the volumes of A and B respectively, (1) S1 > S2 (2) S2 > S1
then which of the following is not possible? (3) S1 = S2
(1) U > V (4) S1 = S2 only if all the smaller spheres of equal radii
(2) V > U
57. Which of the following is an irrational number?
(3) U = V
(4) minimum value of U > maximum value of V. (1) 41616
(2) 23.232323 ...
50. Which of the following statements holds always?
(1) Every rectangle is a square. (1 + 3 )3 - (1 - 3 )3
(3)
(2) Every parallelogram is a trapezium 3
(3) Every rhombus is a square (4) 23.10100100010000 ...
(4) Every parallelogram is a rectangle
58. Re.1 and Rs.5 coins are available (as many
51. Which of the following polygons are uniquely required). Find the smallest payment which
determined when all the sides are given? cannot be made by these coins, if not more than
(1) Quadrilateral (2) Triangle 5 coins are allowed.
(3) Pentagon (4) Hexagon (1) 3 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 18
52. There are several human beings and several dogs
59. Median of a data set is a number which has an
in a room. One tenth of the humans have lost a equal number of observations below and above it.
leg. The total numbers of feet are 77. Then the The median of 1,9,4,3,7,6,8,8,12,15 is
number of dogs is (1) 7·5 (2) 7
(1) not determinable due to insufficient data (3) 8
(2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (4) any number between 7 and 8
60. Suppose you walk from home to the bus stand
53. All the arcs in the following diagram are
at 4 km/h and immediately return at x km/h. If
semicircles. This diagram shows two paths
the average speed is 6 km/h then x is
connecting A to B. Path I is the single large
(1) 8 km/h
semicircle and Path II consists of the chain of
(2) 10 k m/h
small semicircles. (3) 12 km/h
(4) cannot be detennined unless the distance from
home to bus stand is known.
61. From about 13th century to the time of the French
Revolution sumptuary laws were expected to be
followed strictly to:
(1) regulate the behaviour of the royalty.
(1) Path I is longer than Path II (2) regulate the income of people by social rank.
(2) Path I is of the same length as Path II (3) control the behaviour of those considered
(3) Path I is shorter than Path II social inferiors.
(4) Path I is of the same length as Path II, only if (4) provide religious sanctity to social behaviour.
the number of semi circles is not more than 4 62. Choose the correct response from the given
options.
54. One integer is chosen out of 1, 2, 3, ...,100. What
On 3rd March 1933 the famous Enabling Act was
is the probability that it is neither divisible by 4 nor
passed to:
by 6
a. establish dictatorship in Germany.
(1) 0.59 (2) 0.67
b. give Hitler the power to rule by decree.
(3) 0.41 (4) 0.33 c. ban all trade unions.
55. (a - b )2 + (b - a )2 is d. ban all political parties and their affiliates.
(1) only a and b are correct
(1) Always zero (2) only c and d are correct
(2) Never zero (3) a, band c are correct
(3) Positive if and only if a > b (4) only d is correct
(4) Positive only if a ¹ b

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63. Enclosures in England were seen as : 70. Consider the following statements and choose
(1) hindrance to agricultural expansion and crop the correct response from the options given
rotation. thereafter :
Statement I : The major cricket tournament of
(2) hindrance to commercialization of agriculture.
colonial India, the 'Quadrangular' did not represent
(3) necessary to make long-term investment on regions but religious communities.
land, agriculture and to plan crop rotation to Statement II : The victory of the 'Hindus' in the
improve the soil. 'Quadrangular' cricket tournament in 1923 was
(4) necessary to protect the interests of those equated by a cricket fan with Gandhiji's war on
who depended on the commons for their 'untouchability'.
survival. (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
64. The Balkans, which was a serious source of and II is correct explanation of statement I.
nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, was a (4) Both statement I and statement II are true
region comprising of : but statement II is not the correct explanation
(1) Romaina, Germany, Poland, Bulgaria of statement l.
(2) Romania, Prussia, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland. 71. Match the following columns :
(3) Serbia, Austria, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland Column A Column B
(4) Serbia, Bulgaria, Greece, Croatia, Romania
Ambedkar established the
(I) (A) December,1929
Depressed Classes Association
65. What was Rinderpest? Gandhiji began the Civil
(1) A disease of cattle plagues that spread in (II) (B) August, 1930
Disobedience Movement
Africa in the 1890s Gandhiji ended the Civil
(2) Bubonic plague which spread in the region of (III) (C) March, 1930
Disobedience Movement
Maharashtra in the 1890s. Congress adopted the
(3) A type of cholera that spread in Assam in (IV)
demand for 'Puma Swaraj'
(D) March, 1931
the 1890s.
(4) A devastating bird disease that was imported to (1) (I). (3), (II) - (4), (III) - (2), (IV)· (1)
Italy from British Asia, through chicken meat. (2) (I) - (2), (II) - (3), (III) - (4), (IV) - (1)
(3) (I) -(3), (II) - (1), (III)· (2), (IV) - (4)
66. Which of the following is a correct match ? (4) (I) - (4), (II) - (3), (III) • (2), (IV)· (1)
(1) Rashsundari Debi -lstri Dharma Vichar
(2) Ram Chadda - Amar Jiban
72. Consider the following statements and choose
(3) Kashibaba - Chote Aur Bade ka Sawaal
(4) Sudarshan Chakra - Gulamgiri the correct response from the options given there
after :
67. Printing created possibilities of wider circulation Statement 1: The Act of Union 1707 led to the
of ideas. Who of the following hailed printing as formation of the "United Kingdom of Great
the ultimate gift of God?
(1) Martin Luther Britain".
(2) Menocchio Statement II : The British parliament was
(3) Roman Catholic Church henceforth dominated by its English members.
(4) Gutenberg (1) Both statement I and statement II are false.
68. The Forest Act of 1878 divided forests into : (2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(1) reserved and protected forests. and statement II is the result of statement I.
(2) protected and village forests. (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(3) bio-sphere reserves and wild life sanctuaries. (4) Both statement I and statement II are true but
(4) reserved, protected and village forests. statement II is not a result of statement I.
69. Consider the following statements and identify
the correct response from the options given 73. Consider the following statements and choose
thereafter: the correct response from the options given
Statement I : Hitler said 'In my state the mother thereafter:
is the most important citizen', Statement I : Traders and travellers introduced
Statement II : In Nazi Germany while boys were
taught to be aggressive, muscular and steel new crops to the land they travelled.
hearted; girls were told that they had to become Statement II : Noodles most likely travelled from
good mothers. China through Arab traders to Sicily.
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false. Statement III : Potato reached the West through
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true travellers and became the staple diet of the poor.
but statement II is not the: correct explanation
of statement I. (1) Statement I and statement III are true.
(3) Both the statements are false. (2) Statement II and statement III are true.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true (3) All three statements are true.
and statement II is the correct explanation (4) Statement I and statement II are true.
of statement I.
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74. Assertion (A) : Gandhiji’s idea of satyagraha 78. Assertion (A) : In India, east coast has more
emphasised on the power of truth and the need seaports than the west coast.
to search for truth. Reason (R) : The east coast is broader and is an
Reasoning (R) : Gandhiji believed that a satyagrahi example of emergent coast. Select the correct
could win the battle by appealing to the option from the given alternatives.
conscience of the oppressor. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
Select the correct option from the given (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not
alternatives. explain (A)
(1) A is true and R is false. (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (4) (A) is false and (R) is true
explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 79. W hich pie diagram represents India's age
explanation of A
composition in 2001?
(4) Both A and R are false.

75. Assertion (A) : The Civil Disobedience Movement (1) (2)
was different from the Non-cooperation Movement.
Reason (R) : People in the Civil Disobedience
Movement were asked not only to refuse
cooperation with the British but also to break (3) (4)
colonial laws. Select the correct option from the
given alternatives. 80. Assertion (A) : The north western parts of India
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct receive rainfall in winter. Reason (R) : The winter
explanation of A. rainfall in India occurs due to North East monsoon.
(2) Both A and R are false Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
(3) A is false but R is true (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not
explanation of A explain (A)
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false
76. Assertion (A) : Coal is a fossil fuel. (4) (A) is false and (R) is true
Reason (R): It is formed due to compression of 81. Which four major ports of India lie on the Golden
inorganic material over millions of years. Quadrilateral?
Select the correct option from the given (1) Chennai, Tuticorin, Mangalore, Marmagao
alternatives. (2) Kolkata, Chennai, Mangalore, Mumbai
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A) (3) Marmagao, Mumbai, Kandla, Mangalore
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not (4) Kolkata, Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam, Chennai
explain (A)
82. Match the fishing ports indicated on the map of
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false India (I, II, III and IV) with their respective names.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true A. Kakinada B. Alappuzha
C. Porbandar D. Tuticorin
77. Assertion (A) : The sun rises in Arunachal
Pradesh about two hours before Gujarat.
Reason (R) : Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher
latitude than Gujarat.
Select the correct option from the given
alternatives.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not
explain (A) (1) II-A, III-B, I-C, IV-D
(2) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false (3) l-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true (4) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

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83. Which figure relates the trend of population (1) Advancement of summer monsoon on 1st June.
Growth rate of India from 1951-2001? (2) Line dividing tropical evergreen and deciduous
forest.
(3) Water divide between east and west flowing
(1) (2) rivers.
(4) Line dividing annual rainfall above and below
100 cm.

88. W hich of the following feature has similar
(3) (4) geological structure with Meghalaya, Karbi
Anglong plateau and Cachar Hills?
(1) Aravalli Range
84. Assertion (A) : The Himalayan ranges show (2) Purvanchal Hills
change in vegetation from tropical to tundra. (3) Siwaliks
Reason (R): In mountainous area with increase (4) Chotanagpur Plateau
in altitude there is corresponding decrease in
temperature, which leads to change in vegetation 89. Assertion (A) : Sex Ratio in India is low.
types.
Reason (R):Indian society has been unfavourable
Select the correct option from the given
to females.
alternatives.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A).
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not
explain (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false. explain (A)
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true. (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true
85. Which of the following methods are used to
restrict soil erosion? 90. A pilot takes off from an airport at 15º S latitude
A. Ploughing along contour lines and flies 55º due North. What latitude the pilot
B. Strip cropping has reached?
C. Jhumming (1) 55º N (2) 40º N
D. Mixed farming (3) 70º N (4) 15º N
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) B and D (4) B and C 91. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian
86. Assertion (A) : Although only the southern part federalism?
of India lies in tropical region, the whole of India (1) The Constitution creates a strong Centre.
has tropical climate. (2) The Constitution provides for a single judiciary.
Reason (R) : Himalaya mountain ranges protect (3) The Constitution provides for a common All
it from the north cold winds. India Services.
Select the correct option from the given (4) The Constitution provides equal representation
alternatives. to the States in the Upper House of the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A) Parliament.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not
92. Which of these features is not a guiding value of
explain (A)
the Indian Constitution?
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false. (1) No external power can dictate to the Government
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true. of India.
(2) The head of the State is a hereditary position.
87. What does the zig-zag line indicate on the map
(3) All people are equal before law.
of India?
(4) Citizens have complete freedom to follow any
religion.

93. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the
following is the 'heart and soul' of our Constitution?
(1) The Preamble
(2) Right to Equality
(3) Right against Exploitation
(4) Right to Constitutional Remedies

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94. Democracy is considered to be better than other 97. Which of the following statements is true of
forms of government. Which of the following agriculture in Indian economy between 1973 and
statements support this claim? 2003?
A. It is a more accountable form of government. (1) The sectorial share of agriculture in
B. It improves the quality of decision making. employment has decreased far more than its
C. It ensures rapid economic development of share on total output
citizens. (2) The sectorial share of agriculture in total output
D. It enhances the dignity of citizens has decreased, but its share in employment
(1) A,B and D (2) A and C has increased.
(3) A, B and C (4) B, C and D (3) The sectorial share of agriculture in total output
has increased, but its share in employment
95. The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 has decreased.
to make the third·tier of democracy more (4) The sectorial share of agriculture in output
effective. As a result, at least one-third of all has decreased far more than its share in total
positions in the local bodies are reserved for employment.
women. This is because
(1) women are good at managing resources. 98. Which of the following considered as Foreign
(2) although women constitute nearly half of the
Investment made in India ?
population, they have inadequate representation
in decision-making bodies. A.The TATAs acquire Corus steel plant abroad.
(3) we have many powerful women leaders. B. Mr. Donald, an American citizen, acquires 100
(4) women are obedient and would follow the shares of an Indian listed company.
constitutional provisions well. C. The remittances sent by an Indian doctor in
Dubai back to his hometown in Kerala .
96. In which of the following economies are people
D. The US multinational Google opens its full-
more of a resource?
(1) Country A with 78% of the working age population fledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana.
illiterate and with very low life expectancy (1) (1) and (4) (2) (1) and (2)
(2) Country B with 10% of the working age (3) (4) only (4) (2) and (3)
population illiterate and with high life
expectancy
99. W e accept paper money as a medium of
(3) Country C with 60% of people in the working
age illiterate, but with high life expectancy exchange because
(4) Country D with only 10% of population is the (1) it has gold hacking.
working age illiterate, but has very low life (2) the law legalizes it.
expectancy. (3) Reserve Bank of India has precious metals
against which it prints notes.
(4) everyone else accepts it.

100. Which of the following refers to trade barrier in
the context of WTO?
I. Restrictions on domestic trade
Il. Not allowing companies to do foreign trade
beyond specific quantity
III. Restrictions on the export and import of goods
IV. Restrictions on the price fixed by companies
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (II), (III) and (IV)
(3) (III) and (IV) (4) (I), (II) and (IV)

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Roll No. NTSE 14_MAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2014
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude Test shall be
administered. Answer to Part-I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental
Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude
answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected
after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

3. Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.

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NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2014
1. Select the correct number that is missing in the
number series given below :
8.
214, 265, 367, ?, 724
(1) 520 (2) 501
(3) 525 (4) 571
(1) 14 (2) 16
2. Select the correct alphabet number that is (3) 15 (4) 11
missing in the alphabet-number series given
below : 9. Two faces of a cube are given below, which
NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, ?, YAM31 number will be opposite 3?
(1) RPA31 (2) PRA30
(3) RPA30 (4) PAR31

3. P + Q means P is the father of Q; P – Q means
P is thewife of Q; P × Q means P is the brother
of Q. Which of the following means A is the
materanal uncle of D ? (1) 1 (2) 5
(1) A × B – C + D (2) D × C – B × A (3) 4 (4) 2
(3) A × C + B – D (4) A – C × B + D Directions: (Questions 10-11) : Each of the
follwoing questions has a problem followed by a
4. Select from the alternatives two signs which need few numbered statements. Decide which of the
to be interchanged to make the following equation statements are sufficient for answering the
correct. problem and choose your answer from the
36 ¸ 12 × 6 + 9 – 6 = 38 alternatives.
(1) – and × (2) ¸ and ×
(3) – and + (4) ¸ and + 10. A, B and C together can complete a work in ‘x’
days. How many days would B alone take to
5. According to a certain code, ‘=’ means ‘>’, ‘_’ complete the work ?
means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘_’. If a, b and c are Statements :
positive integers and a = b =c, then which of the I. C can complete the work in half the number
following is true ? of days taken by A.
(1) b = a + c (2) ac = b2 II. B can complete the work in half the number
(3) a – c = 2b (4) ab = c2 of days taken by A and C together.
III. A and C taken together can complete the work
6. Find the correct group of letters in place of ‘?’ in in ‘z’ days.
the following series. (1) Both I and II and required
FNHLJ, WOUQS, BNEKH, ?, DTHPL (2) I alone is sufficient
(1) N B K E H (2) N V P T R (3) II and III taken together are sufficient
(3) N F L H J (4) N D R Z V (4) Either II or III is sufficient
11. A boat travels in a stream from A to B and then
Directions: (Questons 7–8) : Each of the following from B to A. What is the speed of the boat in still
questions contains three figures in which numbers water ?
are written according to a pattern. Find the Statements :
missing number for each question from among I. The speed of the boat in still water is 2 km/h
the alternatives. more than the speed of the current.
7. II. The speed of the current is 1 km/h more than
the speed of the boat.
III. Boat covers the distance of y kilometres
between A and B both downstream and
upstream in x hours.
(1) All of I, II and III are required
(1) 13 (2) 14
(2) Both II and III are required
(3) 12 (4) 18
(3) I and III taken together are sufficient
(4) Either I and II together or II and III together are
sufficient

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12. How many triangles are there in the following 20. Five persons are standing in a line. One of two
figure? persons at the extreme ends is a professor and
the other is businessman. An advocate is
standing to the right of a student. An author is to
the left of the businessman. The student is
standing between the professor and the advocate.
Counting from the left, the advocate is at which
(1) 20 (2) 18 place.
(3) 22 (4) 17 (1) 1st (2) 2nd
rd
(3) 3 (4) 5th
13. There are two statements given below as
prem ises, which support the conclusion Directions (Questiosn 21 - 24) : A code language
suggested in the answer options. You may select has been used to write the words in capital letters
the conclusion that makes the whole argument in English in Column I as Greek letters in Column
valid : II. Greek letters in Column II do not appear in the
Statements : same order as letters in Column I. Decode tha
I. No film actors are Cricketers. language and choose the correct code for the
II. Some Cricketers are poets. word given in each question from amongst the
(1) Therefore, some poets are film actors. alternatives provided.
(2) Therefore, some poets are not film actors.
(3) Therefore, all poets are film actors.
(4) Therefore, all film actors are poets.

14. Find the missing term (?) in the following series
2, 6, 30, 260, ?
(1) 470 (2) 510
(3) 630 (4) 3130

15. One term in the following number series is wrong.
Find out the wrong term.
21. LIVER
2, 6, 18, 82, 650
(1) nhlmp (2) dgqpe
(1) 2 (2) 18
(3) rswen (4) abdgh
(3) 82 (4) 650
22. TROUBLE
16. If RIR is coded as IRI then MUM is coded as
(1) nabdghl (2) nswdgqe
(1) NFN (2) UMU
(3) dghlwen (4) slrpagq
(3) UNU (4) MFM
23. BROWN
17. If FAST is coded as 798 and LAST is coded as
(1) wenlw (2) wdprn
906 then BUSY is coded as
(3) aplhn (4) prbne
(1) 1759 (2) 1431
(3) 952 (4) 948 24. CYCLE
(1) bqgmb (2) bmbnp
18. Six students A, B, C,D, E and F are in a class, A
(3) prpew (4) plbnp
and B are from Town and C, D, E and F are from
village. D and F are studious while others are Direction (Questions 25 - 28) : P, Q, R, S, T, V
casual. A, C, D are girls and B, E, F are boys. and W are seven members of a family. Each of
Who is the studious girl from village ? them has a different profession-Lawyer, Chartered
(1) C (2) D Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher, Doctor,
(3) E (4) F Architect and Pharmacist. There are three female
members. No lady is either Pharmacist or
19. Read the following information carefully and
Chartered Accountant. Each of them has a
answer the questions given below it.
different monthly income. The Chartered
(A) Gopal is shorter than Ashok but taller than
Accountant (CA) earns the most. S, the engineer,
Kunal
earns less than V, the doctor. R, the teacher earns
(B) Navin is shorter than Kunal
more than P and less than S. W’s wife earns the
(C) Jayesh is taller than Navin
least. T is an unmarried lady lawyer and she earns
(D) Ashok is taller than Jayesh
less than P and m ore than only Q. The
Who among them is the tallest ?
pharmacist’s income is not the lowest.
(1) Gopal (2) Ashok
(3) Kunal (4) Navin

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25. Which of the following pairs of professional
represents the professions of hushand and wife?
(1) Pharmacist, Architect
(2) Chartered Accountant, Architect
(3) Engineer, Pharmacist
(4) Chartered Accountant, Engineer
26. Which of the following statements is false ?
(1) The Architect earns more than the Lawyer
(2) The Teacher earns less than the Engineer
(3) The Doctor earns more than the Engineer
(4) The Pharmacist earns more than the Lawyer 33. If urban population is 350 find out the non
educated non working urban females ?
27. What is P’s profession ? (1) 13 (2) 10
(1) Pharmacist (2) Lawyer (3) 9 (4) 20
(3) Teacher (4) None of the above
34. Find out the urban males who are educated but
28. Which of the following represents the three female not working.
members of the family ? (1) 110 (2) 40
(1) PTQ (2) TRQ (3) 30 (4) 7
(3) VTQ (4) Data inadequate
35. If rural population is 150, how many non working
29. Which of the following Venn diagram correctly rural males who are not educated ?
represents Ocean, Indian Ocean Pacific Ocean (1) 5 (2) 1
and Mariana Trench ? (3) 6 (4) 3
36. Find out total non-working females but educated
(1) 80 (2) 79
(3) 51 (4) 19
37. Find out the total rural male population ?
(1) 111 (2) 187
(3) 180 (4) 114
38. Crime : Police :: Flood : ?
30. If RAJASTHAN = 9R17J8L19H13 in a coded (1) Dam (2) River
language, then what is the encrypted form of the (3) Rain (4) Reservoir
MANIPUR in the same language ?
(1) 14R13H11G9 (2) 13M14W11B9 39. When the given sheet of paper (X) is folded to
(3) 13R14J11F9 (4) 14M13V11J9 make a cube, choose the cube that may be
formed.
31. What is the next number in the series 7, 23, 55,
109, ...
(1) 199 (2) 189
(3) 191 (4) 209
32. Find out the missing number in the second figure
on the basis of numbers arranged in the first (1) 1 only (2) 1,2 and 3 only
figure. (3) 2 and 3 only (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

40. In the following diagram, there are four inter locked
figures of a circle, a square, a triangle and a
rectangle representing number of students
passing in English, Maths, Science and Hindi,
respectively. Different regions of the diagrams are
(1) 30 (2) 58 also lattered form A through Q.
(3) 160 (4) 32
Direction: (Questions 33-37) : In the Venn
diagram given below, sample data of a small town
having total population of 500, the square
represents persons form urban areas, the triangle
represents women, the circle represents persons
who are working and the rectangle represents
the persons who are educated. Number given are
number of persons.

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Now consider the following statements : 47. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row.
statements : Q in between P and T. To find who among them
I. There is no letter that represents a student who is in the middle, which of the following information
passed in all the four subjects. given in the following statements is/are sufficient?
II. There are only two letters that represent a Statements :
student who passes on three subject only. I. P is left of Q and right S.
II. R is at the right end.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the correct answer using the code given
(1) I only (2) II only below.
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I and II (1) I only (2) II only
(3) Either I or II (4) Both I and II
41. What is ‘X’ in the following table ?
48. Certain blank spaces are left in the following
series. Which is the group of letters given below,
if put in the blank spaces in sequence, will
complete the series ?
_ ab _ a _ ba _ ab _ _ ab _
(1) bbaabbb (2) babaaaa
(3) abaaaba (4) aaaaaaa
(1) 16 (2) 17
(3) 18 (4) 21 49. If the letters of the word ‘BLUE’ are arranged
according to dictionary, what is the position of
42. Consider the question and two statements that the word ‘UBLE’ ?
follow : (1) 19 (2) 20
What is the total cost of one pen, and one pencil (3) 21 (4) 22
and 1 note book ? 50. All except one does not belong to the same group.
Statements : Which one is that ?
I. The total cost of 5 pen, 6 pencils and 7 note
books is Rs. 178
II. The total cost of 6 pens, 4 pencils and 2 note (1)
books, is Rs. 124
Which one of the following is correct ?
(1) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
quaetion
(2) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question
(3) Statement I and II together are sufficient to
answer the question (2)
(4) Both statements are not sufficient to answer
the question

43. Which one of the following differs the rest ?
(1) MGDLFC (2) JQVIPU
(3) ZUBXTA (4) DYSCXR

44. Which one of the following fits inside the bracket? (3)
714 ( ) 65 if 953 (RVXYS)28
(1) UWZSR (2) UWZRS
(3) TZWVU (4) TZWUV

45. If ‘X’ was born on December 6, 1983 and ‘Y’ on
February 4, 1984, then when will ‘Y’ be half in age
as compared ot ‘X’ ?
(1) April 4, 1984 (2) April 5, 1984
(4)
(3) April 6, 1984 (4) April 8, 1984

46. Famine : Hunger : : War : ___________
(1) Enmity (2) Insecurity
(3) Destruction (4) Infantry

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Roll No. NTSE 14_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2014
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.

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NTSE STAGE_II (SAT) PAPER-2014
1. Which one of the following statements is 8. Cell organelles that are involved in the waste
NOT true about evolution ? diposal system of the cell are :
(1) Evolution leads to generation of diverse forms (1) Golgi apparatus.
of life. (2) Lysosomes
(2) Time dating and fossil studies help in (3) Chromosomes
understanding of evolution. (4) Ribosomes
(3) Evolution is not always progressive series of
changes that occur in organism. 9. Sequence of events which occure in a reflex action
(4) Human beings have not evolved from are
chimpanzees. (1) Receptor — motor neuron — CNS — sensory
neurong — effector muscle
2. Which one of the following is known as energy
(2) Effector muscle — CNS — sensory nerve —
currency of cell ?
sensory organ
(1) Adenosine diphosphate
(3) CNS — sensory neuron — motor neuron —
(2) Adenosine triphosphate
effector muscle
(3) Pyruvate
(4) Receptor organ — sensory neuron — CNS
(4) Glucose
— motor neuron — effector muslce
3. An analysis of soil sample revealed 0.1 mg of a
pesticide and 1 mg of the same pesticide was 10. Movement of food in digestive tract is due to
found in grains. However in the adipose tissue of (1) Concentration gradient
birds the concentration was 2 mg. The reason (2) Secretions
for this is the phenomenon known as (3) Peristalsis
(1) Bio-absorption (2) Bio-translocation (4) Villi
(3) Bio-magnification (4) Bio-multiplication 11. A pea plant with round green (RRyy) pea seed is
4. Diseases that spread by vectors such as crossed another pea plant with wrinkled yellow
mosquitoes are (rrYY) seeds What would be the nature of seed
(1) Encephalitis and Malaria in the first generation (F1 generation) ?
(2) Syphilis and AIDS (1) Round green (2) Wrinkled green
(3) Tuberculosis and sleeping sickness (3) Wrinkled yellow (4) Round yellow
(4) Kala-azar and SARS
12. Some organisms are sensitive to different levels
5. Which one of the following is correct route for of air pollution and are used as pollution -
passage of sperms ? indicators. Suggest which among the following
(1) Testes — scrotum — vasdeferens — urethra fits into the category
— penis (1) Fungi (2) Fresh water algae
(2) Scrotum — testes — urethra — vasdeferends (3) Bacteria (4) Lichens
— penis
(3) Tetes — vasdeferens — urethra — seminal
13. A group of laboratory mice having tails are bred
vesicles together and their progeny studied. The progeny
(4) Testes — vasdeferens — urethra — penis and again bred them for four successive
6. Suggest which among the following is NOT a generations. What do you think would be the
function attributed to endoplasmic reticulum nature of the new progeny ?
(1) Detoxification of poisons and drugs (1) All mice born will have tails.
(2) Digestion / egestioin of foreign materials (2) All mice born will have no tails.
outside the cell (3) The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 3
(3) Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules (4) The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 4
(4) Biogenesis of membranes
14. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
7. In nitrogen cycle, atmospheric nitrogen is fixed
(1) Tendons are tissues with great strength and
by bacteria and converted into ammonia.
flexibility
Ammonia is further converted into other forms of
(2) Bones are connected to each other by tendons
nitrogen . At the end of the cycle it returns to the
(3) Cartilage smoothens bone surface at joints
atmosphere by the process of :
(4) Tendons connect muslces to bones
(1) Ammonification (2) Nitrification
(3) Denitrification (4) Assimilation

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15. Which of the following are the correct examples 21. Oxygen gas reacts with hydrogen to produce
of matter ? water. The reaction is represented
(1) Glass bottle, water and noise by the equation :
(2) Air, wood and vacuum O2 (g) + H2(g) ¾® H2O (g)
(3) Silver foil, hot air and chalk The above reaction is an exampleof
(4) Sand, oxygen and light flash (a) Oxidation of hydrogen
16. Two identical beakers labeled as (X) and (Y) (b) Reduction of oxygen
contain 100 cm3 of water each at 20ºC . To the (c) Reduction of hydrogen
water in the beaker (X) 100 g of water at 0ºC was (d) Redox reaction
added and stirred to mix thoroughly.To the beaker (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(Y) 100g of ice at 0ºC was added and stirred till it (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
melten into water. The water in the beaker (Y)
will be 22. Match the items of Column I with the items of
(1) hotter than water in beaker X the Column II
(2) Colder than water in beaker X Column I Column II
(3) heavier than water in beaker X a) NH4OH + CH3COOH ® (i) Thermal
(4) lighter than water in beaker X CH3COONH4 + H2O decomposition
17. At 283 K a saturated solution of solid X can be (ii) Thermite
b) 2AgBr ®2Ag + Br2
prepared by dissolving 210g of it in 100 g of reaction
water.The maximum amount of X which can be (iii) Photochemical
c) ZnCO3 ® ZnO + CO3
dissolved in 100 g of water at 313 K is 620 g. An reaction
attempt is made to dissove 50.0 g of X in 100g of d) 2AI + Fe2O3 ® (iv) Neutralization
water at 313 K. 2Fe + Al2O3 reaction
A. All the 50.0 g of X will dissove at 313 K.
B. At 313 K 29.0 g of X will remain undissoved (1) d-ii, c-iv, b-i, a-iii (2) c-i, a-ii, c-iii, d-iv
C. Solubility of X decreases with increases of (3) b-ii, d-i, a-iii, c-iv (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
temperature
D. On cooling the solution of X from 313 K to 283 23. Which of the following represents the correct
K more than 210 g of X will crystallize out. order of the acidic strength for equimolar aqueous
Which of the above statements are correct ? solutions of HCl, H2SO4, NH4OH and NaOH
(1) A and B (2) A and D (1) HCl < NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4
(3) B and C (4) A,C and D (2) NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4 < HCl
18. Two elements A and B contain 13 and 8 protons (3) HCl < H2SO4 < NH4OH < NaOH
respectively. If the number of neutrons in them (4) NaOH < NH4OH < HCl < H2SO4
happen to be 14 and 8 respectively ; the formula
unit mass for the compound between And B unit 24. Metals like sodium, potassium calcium and
would be : magnesium are extracted by electrolysis of their
(1) 43 (2) 75 chlorides in molten state. These metals are not
(3) 102 (4) 112 extracted by reduction of their oxides with carbon
because
19. The reaction of burning of carbon in oxygen is a) reduction with carbon is very expensive
represented by the equation: b) carbon readily makes alloys with these metals.
C(s) + O2(g) ¾®CO2(g) + Heat + Light c) carbon has less affinity for oxygen
When 9.0 g of solid carbon is burnt in 16.0 g of d) carbon is a weaker reducing agent than these
oxygen gas, 220g of carbon dioxide is metals.
produced.The mass of carbon dioxide gas formed (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
on burning of 30g of carbon in 320 g of oxygen (3) (c) and (d) (4) (d) and (a)
would be (Note : atomic mass of C = 120 u,
O = 16.0u) 25. A hydrocarbon has a molecular formula as
(1) 6.60 g (2) 7.33 g C6H12 . It does not react with hydrogen to give
(3) 8.25 g (4) 1100g C6H14 nor does it react with chlorine to give
C6H12Cl2 . The hydrocarbon C6H12is
20. An atom of an element (X) has its K, L and M a) A saturated hydrocarbon
shells filled with some electrons. It reacts with
b) An unsaturated hydrocarbon
sodium metal to form a compound NaX. The
c) An open chain hydrocarbon
number of electrons in the M shell of the atom
d) A cyclo-alkane
(X) will be
(1) Eight (2) Seven (1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) Two (4) One (3) (d) and (b) (4) (a) and (d)

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26. An organic compound is a clear liquid having a 32. A force of 10 N is applied on an object of mass
molecular formula C4H8O. It has an open chain 1 kg for 2 s, which was initially at rest. What is
structure. Without any carbon-carbon double the work done on the object by the force?
bond. The compound can be (1) 200 J (2) 20 J
a) an alcohol b) an ester (3) 16 J (4) 180J
c) an aldehyde d) a ketone
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d) 33. Stethoscope of doctors for finding quality,
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (d) and (a) strength and frequency of human heart beat is
27. An element with atomic number 17 is placed in based on the principle of
the group 17 of the long form periodic table. (1) SONAR (2) Reverberation
Element with atomic number 9 is placed above (3) Multiple reflection (4) Echo
and with atomic number 35 is placed below it. 34. A ray of light is incident in medium 1 on a surface
Element with atomic number 16 is placed left
that separates medium 1 from medium 2 Let v1
and with atomic number 18 is placed right to it.
and v2 represent the velocity of light in medium 1
Which of the following statements are correct .
a) Valency of the element with atomic number and medium 2 respectively. Also let n12 and n21
18 is zero. represent the refractive index of medium 1 with
b) Elements with same valency will have atomic respect to medium 2 and refractive index of
number 16,17 and 18. medium 2 with respect to medium 1, respectively.
c) Valency of elements with atomic number 9,17 If i and r denote the angle of incidence and
and 35 is one. angle of refraction, then-
d) Element with atomic number 17 is more sin i v1 sin i v2
electronegative that element with atomic (1) = n21 = v (2) = n21 = v
sin r 2 sin r 1
numbers 16 and 35
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d) sin i v1 sin i v2
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) , (b) and (d) (3) = n12 = v (4) = n12 = v
sin r 2 sin r 1
28. A car is moving with a constant speed of 70 km/
h. Which of the following statements is correct ? 35. A convex lens has a focal length of 0.5 m. It has
(1) The acceleration of the car is definitely zero. to be combined with a second lens, so that the
(2) The car has an acceleration only if it is moving combination has a power of 15 diopter. Which of
along a curved path the following could be the second lens?
(3) The car may have an acceleration even if it is (1) A concave lens of focal length 2 m.
moving along a straight path (2) Another convex lens of focal length 0.5 m.
(4) The car may not have an acceleration even if (3) A concave lens of focal length 0.5 m.
it is moving along a curved path (4) A convex lens of focal length 2 m.
29. A box of mass 20 kg is pushed along a rough floor 36. Which of the following statement is correct ?
with a velocity 2 m/s and then let go. The box (1) A person with myopia can see nearby objects
moves 5 m on the floor before coming to rest. What clearly
must be the frictional force acting on the box ? (2) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby
(1) 4 N (2) 2 N objects clearly
(3) 20 N (4) 8 N (3) A person with myopia can see distant objects
30. Two objects, one 4 times as massive as the other, clearly
are approching each other under their mutual (4) A person with hypermetropia can not see
graitational attraction. When the sepration distant objects clearly
between the objects is 100 km, the acceleration
37. Consider two conducting plates A and B between
of the lighter object is 1 m/s2 When the separation
which the potential difference is 5 volt, plate A
between them is 25 km, the acceleration of the
being at a higher potential. A proton and an
heavier object is
(1) 1m/s2 (2) 2m/s2 electron are released at plates A and B
(3) 8m/s 2
(4) 4m/s2 respectively. The 2 particales then move towards
the opposite plates- the proton to plate B and
31. A spring balance measures the weight of an the electron to plate A. Which one will have a
object in air to be 0.1 N. It shows a reading of larger velocity when they reach their respective
0.08 N when the object is completely immersed
destination plates ?
in water. If the value of acceleration due to gravity
(1) Both will have the same velocity.
is 10m/s2 the volume of the object is
(2) The electron will have the larger velocity.
(1) 20 cm3 (2) 80 cm3
3 (3) The proton will have the larger velocity.
(3) 200 cm (4) 2 cm3
(4) None will be able to reach the destination point.

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38. Which one of the statement best describes the 45. In DABC, D is a point on BC such that 3BD = BC.
nature of the field lines due to a bar magnet? If each side of the triangle is 12 cm, then AD
(1) Field lines start from the north pole and end equals
on the south pole. Any number of field lines (1) 4 5 (2) 4 6
can pass through a point.
(2) Field lines start from the north pole and end (3) 4 7 (4) 4 11
on the south pole. Only one field line passes
through a point. 46. In DABC, XY is paralled to A C and divides the
(3) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside triangle into the two parts of equal area. Then the
and outside the magnet. Only one field line
AX
passes through a point. equals
AB
(4) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside
and outside the magnet. Any number of field
lines can pass through a point.
39. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) AC generator generates a higher voltage
(2) DC generator generates a higher voltage
(3) AC generator has a permanent magnet
whereas a DC generator has an electromagnet
(4) There is a split-ring commutator in a DC
generator but not in an AC generator
40. A star produces its energy through the process of 2 +1 2- 2
(1) (2)
(1) Nuclear fusion (2) Chemical reaction 2 2
(3) Nuclear fission
(4) Gravitational atraction between different parts 2+ 2 2 -1
(3) (4)
of the star. 2 2
41. If f is an acute angle such that tanf = 2/3 then 47. P is point in the interor of an equilateral triangle
evaluate with side a units. If P1, P2 and P3 are the distance
of P form the three sides of the triangle, the
æ 1 + tan f ö æ 1 - cot f ö
çç ÷÷ . çç ÷÷ P1 + P2 + P3
è sin f + cos f ø è sec f + cos ecf ø 2a
(1) equals units
1 4 3
(1) – (2) –
5 13 a 3
(2) equals units
2
1 4 (3) is more than a unit
(3) (4) (4) Cannot be determined unless the location of
5 13
P is specified
42. Value of the expression :
48. In how many ways can given square be cut into
1 3 4
– – two congruent trapeziums?
11 - 2 30 7 - 2 10 8+4 3 (1) Exactly 4 (2) Exactly 8
(3) Exactly 12 (4) More than 12
(1) 30 (2) 2 10
49. In how many ways can you position 6 into ordered
(3) 1 (4) 0 summands? [For exp, 3 can be partitioned into 3
43. The minumum value of the polynomial ways as 1 + 2, 2 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1]
p(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 2 is (1) 27 (2) 29
1 1 (3) 31 (4) 33
(1) – (2)
6 6 50. The number of integers n (<20) for which
1 1 n2 – 3n + 3 is a perfect square is
(3) (4) –
12 12 (1) 0 (2) 1
44. For the equation |x|2 + |x| – 6 = 0 (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) There are four roots 51. For positive x and y, the LCM is 225 and HCF
(2) The sum of the roots is – 1 is 15 There.
(3) The product of the roots is –4 (1) is exactly one such pair
(4) The product of the roots is –6 (2) are exactly two such pair
(3) are exactly three such pair
(4) are exactly four such pair

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52. In the figure, a semicircle with centre O is drawn 59. If a,b, c be the 4th, 7th and 10th term of an AP
on AB. The ratio of the larger shaded area to the respectively then the sum of the roots of the
smaller shaded area is. equation ax2 – 2bx + c = 0
b 2b c+a
(1) – (2) – (3)
a a a
(4) Can not be determined unless some more
information is given about the AP

60. PQRS is a smallest square whose vertices are
on respective sides of the square ABCD. The ratio
of the area of PQRS to ABCD is
4p - 2 3 4p - 3 3
(1) (2) (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2
2p - 2 3 3p - 3 3
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
4p - 3 3 3p - 2 3
(3) (4) 61. Consider the following events related to the
2p - 3 3 2p - 2 3 French Revolution and identify the correct
chronological response from the options given
53. In DABC, angle B is obtuse. The smallest circle thereafter:
which covers the triangle is the a. Convocation of Estates General
(1) Circumcircle b. Storming of the Bastille
(2) Circle with AB as diameter c. Peasant revolts in the countryside
d. Third Estate forms National Assembly
(3) Circle with BC as diameter
(1) a, c, d, b (2) d, b, c, a
(4) Circle with AC as diameter (3) a, d, b, c (4) b. a, c, d

54. Which of the following can be expressed as the 62. Consider the following statements and identify
sum of square of two positive integers, as well the correct response from the options given
as three positive integers ? thereafter:
(1) 75 (2) 192 a. The colonies in the Caribbean were important
(3) 250 (4) 100 suppliers of tobacco, indigo, sugar and coffee.
b. The slave trade began in the 15th century.
55. If P is a point inside the scalene triangle ABC c. French port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes
such that DAPB, DBPC and DCPA have the owed their economic prosperity to the
same area then P must be flourishing slave trade.
(1) in centre of DABC d. Slavery was finally abolished in the French
(2) circumcentre of DABC colonies in 1848.
(3) centroid of DABC (1) a, c, d (2) a, b, d
(4) orthocenter of DABC (3) b. c, d (4) b. c, a

56. If the line segment joining the midpoint of the 63. Match the List-I with List-II and select the 6:
consecutive side of quadrilateral ABCD form a correct response from the options given
recatangle then ABCD must be thereafter:
(1) rhombus (2) square List l
(3) kite (4) all of the above I. Liberals
57. C1 and C2 are two circle in a plane. If N is the II. Radicals
total number of common tangent then which of Ill. Conservatives
the following is wrong IV. Socialists
(1) N = 2 when C1 and C2 interset but do not List II
touch a. Government to be based on the majority of
(2) N = 4 when C1 and C2 are disjoint country's population
(3) when C1 and C2 touch then N must be 3 b. The past has to be respected and change
(4) N can never be more than 4 has to be brought about through a slow
process
58. The side of a triangle are of length 20, 21 and 29 c. Property to be controlled by society as a
units. The sum of the lengths of altitude will be whole
1609 d. Men of property mainly should have the right
(1) units (2) 49 units to vote
29
(1) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d (2) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
1609 (3) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d (4) I-d, II-a, IIl-b, IV-c
(3) units (4) 40 units
21

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64. Consider the following statements and identify 67. Consider the following statement and identify the
the correct response from the options given correct response from the options given thereafter
thereafter: a) Cricket, in Victorian England, was an all
Statement I: Nazism became a mass movement season leisure game for aristocrats.
after the Great Depression.
b) The captain of the team was traditionally a
Statement II; After 1929, banks collapsed and
batsman in Victorian England as amateurs
businesses shut down, workers lost their jobs
played only as batsmen
and the middle classes were threatened with
destitution. c) Len Hutton was the first professional Yorkshire
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true batsman to lead the English test team.
(2) Statement II is true and Statement II is false d) There was a clear social hierarchy between
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true the batsmen and the bowlers in Victorian
and Statement II is the correct explanation of England.
Statement I (1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d
(4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true (3) a, c, and d (4) b, c and d
but Statement II is not the correct explanation
of Statement I 68. Consider the following statements and identify the
65. Consider the following statements and identify correct response from the options given thereafter :
the correct response from the options given Statement I : Campaign for dress reforms by
thereafter: women started with the development of the
Statement I: According to the Criminal Tribes Act suffrage movement.
of 1871, nomadic pastoralists were forced to live Statement II : Dress reform emphasized
only in notified village settlements differences between men and women and
Statement II: Colonial state wanted to transform established the status of women as obedient and
all grazing lands into cultivated farms dutiful.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(1) Statement I is false & statement II is true.
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is true & statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
and Statement II is the correct explanation of (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Statement I and Statement II is the correct explanation of
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true Statement I
but Statement II is not the correct explanation (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
of Statement I but Statement II is not the correct explanation
of Statement I
66. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct
response from the options given thereafter : 69. Consider the following statements and identify
List I the correct response from the options given
a) The British government established monopoly thereafter:
in opium trade in Bengal.
Statement I: Schools became an important place
b) The British government exported 50,000
for political and cultural battles in Vietnam under
chests of opium from Bengal annually.
the French rule.
c) Opium production in British occupied
territories declined rapidly. Statement II: Teachers did not blindly follow the
d) Village headmen started paying peasants for curriculum but sometimes modified the text and
producing opium in advance. criticized what was stated.
List ll (1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
1. 1780s (2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
2. 1820s (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3. 1870 and Statement II is the correct explanation of
4. 1773 Statement I
(1) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (2) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) a-3, b-2, c-1 d-4 (4) a-I, b-2, c-4, d-3
but Statement II is not the correct explanation
of Statement I

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70. Consider the following statements and identify 74. Consider the statement given below and select
the correct response from the options given the correct explanation from the responses given
thereafter: thereafter:
Statement I: In 1921 as the Non Cooperation In 1878 the Vernacular Press Act was passed.
movement spread houses of talukdars were (1) Englishmen criticized the printed matter
looted and merchants were attacked,
objectionable to the Government.
Statement II: Mahatma Gandhi had declared that
tax was not to be paid and land was to be (2) After the Revolt of 1857 the British wanted to
redistributed amongst the poor. clamp down the Indian press.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true (3) British rule needed to be celebrated by journals
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false and paper .
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
and Statement II is the correct explanation of (4) Nationalist newspapers grew in numbers and
Statement I needed to be controlled.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
but Statement II is not the correct explanation 75. By the 18th century which of the following
of Statement I commodities were produced on large plantation
71. Consider the following statements and identify in America by slave labour and exported to other
the correct response from the options given countries.
thereafter: (1) Grains such as wheat and barley
Statement I: In Victorian Britain, the upper
classes - the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie - (2) Tropical fruits such as bananas and oranges
preferred things produced by machine. (3) Animal products such as wool and beef
Statement II: Machine goods were mass (4) Cash crops such as sugar and cotton
produced and were easily available.
76. My stems are succulent, my leaves are mostly
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
thick
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true In which category of the following vegetation type
and Statement II is the correct explanation of I am largely found?
Statement I (1) Tropical deciduous forest
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
but Statement II is not the correct explanation (2) Montane forest
of Statement I (3) Tropical thorn forest and scrubs
72. Consider the following statements and identify (4) Mangrove forest
the correct response from the options given
thereafter:
77. The following diagram shows the general land use
Statement I: In the 19th century, London was a
colossal city. category in India. Identify the shaded category .
Statement II: London had many large factories.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
but Statement II is not the correct explanation (1) Net sown area (2) Forest
of Statement I (3) Current Fallow (4) Barren and waste land
73. Consider the statement given below and select
the correct explanation from the responses given 78. Assertion (A): Since 1981 growth rate of population
thereafter: in India has started declining gradually
People of depressed classes found it difficult to
find housing in Bombay during the late nineteenth Reason (R): Birth rate is declining Select the
century. correct option from the given alternatives
(1) Bombay had a mere 9.5 square yards average (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
space per person. explanation of A.
(2) Wages of depressed classes were usually
(2) Both A and R are false.
less than that of others.
(3) Most people of depressed classes were kept (3) A is false and R is true.
out of chawls. (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) People belonging to the depressed classes explanation of A.
had fixed space allotted per family.

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79. Which of the following diagram shows the 83. The process of manufacturing of cotton garment
approximate relief of India around, 20°N latitude is depicted in the following flow diagram. Identify
from Daman to Bhubaneswar ? the correct sequence.

a. Dyeing and finishing
(1) b. Fiber production
c. Garment manufacture
d. Weaving
(1) 1b, 2a, 3c, 4d (2) 1b, 2d, 3c, 4a
(3) 1b, 2d, 3a, 4c (4) 1b, 2a, 3d, 4c
(2)
84. Match the fresh water lakes on the map of India
(I, ll, III, IV) with their respective names.
A. Bhimtal B. Loktak
C. Barapani D. Dallake

(3)

(4)

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I
80. Identify the right pair from the following : (3) A-III, B-I, C-II. D-lV (4) A-IV, B-Ill, C-I, D·II
Place Source of Energy
A. Ennore 1. Nuclear 85. A major line of latitude that passes through ~
B. Rawat Bhata 2. Thermal Mizoram also passes through which one of the
C. Kopili 3. Hydor electric following state _______ .
D. Naarcoil 4. Wind (1) Nagaland (2) Odisha
(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (3) Bihar (4) Jharkhand
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (4) A-2, B-1, C -4, D-3
86. Observe the following graph of a particular place.
81. The peninsular part of India experience peak It is situated at an altitude of 224 meters above
summers earlier than northern India Mean Sea Level and at latitude 26°18'N. Identify
(1) Due to apparent northward movement of the the type of natural vegetation most likely to be
sun, the global heat belts shift northwards. found in this place
(2) Cold waves from central Asia weeps through (1) Montane forest (2) Mangrove forest
the northern plains during that time. (3) Tropical thorn forest
(3) There is less rainfall in the peninsular India (4) Tropical evergreen forest
during that time.
(4) Clouds do not form in those months. 87. Identify the state from given names which has
all the following characteristics
82. National Highway-7 is the longest national A. Its annual rainfall is 200-400 cm
highway in India, which traverses between B. Most of the area is covered under with
Varanasi and Kanya Kumari. Identify the places alluvial soil
on route from North to South. C. Rice is the predominant crop of this state
(1) Nagpur - Jabalpur - Bangalore - Hyderabad (1) Punjab (2) Assam
- Madurai (3) Odisha (4) TamilNadu
(2) Jabalpur - Nagpur - Hyderabad - Bangalore
- Madurai 88. With the help of given map identify the dates of
(3) Jabalpur - Nagpur - Bangalore - Hyderabad - advancing Monsoon in India.
Madurai (1) I- 1 June -10 June ; III - 15 July
(4) Nagpur - Jabalpur - Hyderabad - Bangalore - (2) I-1 June; II- 10 June ; III - 1 July
Madurai (3) I- 15 June; II- 15 July; III- 15 August
(4) I- 15 July; II- 10 June; III - 1 June

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89. Match the places with altitude 94. Which of the following is not a feature of a non
Column I Column II democratic form of government?
(Altitude in meters above (Place) (1) Majority rule
Mean Sea Level) (2) Rights of minorities
I. 1461 A. Nagpur (3) Universal adult franchise
II. 6 B. Shillong (4) Majoritarianism
III. 224 C. Jodhpur 95. Which of the following institutions have reserved
IV. 312 D . Kolkata seats for women?
(1) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B (2) I-C, lI-A, Ill-B, IV-D A. Lok sabha
(3) I-B, II- D, III-C, IV-A (4) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D B. Rajya Sabha
C. Legislative Assemblies
90. What as the local time in Tokyo situated at D. Municipalities
139°45' East longitude, when the President of E. Panchayats
India was hoisting the Indian National Flag in the (1) A, C, D, E (2) B, C, D, E
presence of Japanese Prime Minister at 10 a.m. (3) D and E (4) E only
in New Delhi? The viewer in Japan were watching
live telecast of this event. 96. The following are major changes that occurred in
(1) 6.11 a.m. (2) 149 a.m. agriculture in the post-Independent India.
(3) 249 a.m. (4) 149 p.m. A. Use of high yielding variety (HYV) seeds
B. Introduction of Genetically modified (OM) crops
91. The following statements are about democracy C. Application of chemical fertilizers and
in the contemporary world. pesticides
A. Democracy expanded throughout the 20th D. Organic fanning
century. Which of the above signifies Green Revolution of
B. Democracy did not spread evenly throughout late 1960s and 1970s?
the world. (1) A and B (2) B and
C. All the member states of the International (3) A and C (4) B and D
Monetary Fund (lMF) are democracies. 97. Information relating to which of the following
D. All the permanent members of the United aspects are used to determine the human
Nations Security Council are democracies. development in a country?
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C (1) Heath, education and poverty
(3) A, B and D (4) B. C and D (2) Inequality, health and education
(3) Health, education and income
92. Match the following : (4) Women's health, education and income
A. Abraham
B. Mahatma Gandhi 98. A father in a farm produces 100 kg of padd in one
C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar acre of land, during every ea. on. One year, his
D. Jawaharlal Nehru son joined him in farming. Which of the following
(i) How long shall we continue to deny equality in definitely indicates disguised unemployment ?
our social and economic life? If we continue (1) Output remains at 100 kilograms
to deny it for long, we will do so only by putting (2) Output increased to 150 kilograms
our political democracy in peril. (3) Output increased to 200 kilograms
(ii) Democracy is 'government of the people, by (4) Output increased to 250 kilograms
the people and for the people'. 99. How membership in a Self Help Group helps a
(iii) The service of India means the service of the poor rural woman?
million who suffer. It means ending of poverty (1) Facilitates her how to help herself in daily
and ignorance: and disease and inequality of work.
opportunity (2) To work together in factories and get regular
(iv) I shall work for an India in which ... all employment
communities shall live in perfect harmony. (3) To overcome the problem of lack of collateral
There can be no room in such an India for the as borrowing is based on the group.
curse of untouchability. (4) To get free money from the government.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II 100. Though consumers in India has the right to
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV information about the product he/she purchases,
93. Parliament of India consists of which of the following aspects of a product, the
(1) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha producer need not inform the consumer ?
(2) President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha (1) Date of production
(3) Election Commission, Rajya Sabha and (2) Date of expiry
LokSabha (3) Address of the producer
(4) President, Election Commission. Rajya Sabha (4) The production process
and Lok Sabha
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Roll No. NTSE 15_MAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2015
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude Test shall be
administered. Answer to Part-I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental
Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude
answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected
after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

3. Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.

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NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2015
1. If RESPOND is coded as EMPOTDS and SENSE 8. Which of the following statments is definitely
is coded as FRODT, then CLARIFY will be coded true?
as : (1) B earns less than F and H
(1) EDTOJME (2) ZEJSBMD
(2) F earns more than B and E
(3) ZEJQBKD (4) ZDKSBKD
(3) B earns more than E and C
2. Madhu walks 15 metres towards north, then she (4) B earns less than A and H
turns left at 90° and walk 30 metres, then turns Direction ( Question 9-11) : Given an input, a machine
right at 90° and walks 25 metres. How far, she is generates pass codes for the six batches each
form the starting point and in which direction ?
day as follows :
(1) 55 mt., north -east (2) 50 mt., north-west
(3) 60 mt., north (4) 50 mt., west Input : these icons were taken out from the sea.
Pass Codes
3. Five friends A,B,C,D and, E are standing in a row Batch I : from sea the out taken were icons these
facing south but not necessarily in the same Batch II : from icons these were taken out the sea
order. Only B is between A and E, C is immediate Batch III : from icons out sea the taken were these
right to E and, D is immediate left to A. On the Batch IV : from icons out sea these were taken the
bais of above information, which of the following
statement is definitely true ? 9. What will be the pass code for the Batch V on a
(1) B is to the left of A day, if the input is “four of the following five form a
(2) B is to the right of E group” ?
(3) A is second to the left of C (1) a five following form four group the of
(4) D is third to the left of E (2) a five following form group the of four
(3) a five following form four of the group
Direction (Question 4-8) : A, B, C, E, F, G and H are (4) a five following form four group of the
seven employees in an organisation working in
the departments of Administration, Accounts and 10. If the pass code for the Batch IV on a day was
Operations. There are at least two employees in ‘back go here people who settle want to’, what
each department. There are three females, one was the pass code for the Batch V on that
in each department. Each of seven employees day?
earns different amount. The only bearded (1) back go here people settle who want to
employee F works in administration and his only (2) back go here people to want settle who
other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the (3) back go here people settle to want who
least earner works in Accounts. B and E are
(4) cannot be determined
brothers and do not work in the same department.
A, husband of H. works in Accounts and earns 11. The pass code for the Batch I on a day was 'he
more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the
so used to sell the surplus items’.What was the
couple earns more than the husband.
input on that day ?
(1) items surplus the sell to used so he
4. Which of the following is a group of females :
(1) GCE (2) GEH (2) he items surplus the sell to used so
(3) GCH (4) GHB (3) so used to sell the surplus items he
(4) cannot be determined
5. In which department(s) do three people work ?
(1) Operations (2) Accounts 12. What is the total number of triangeles and total
numbers of squares in the give figure ?
(3) Operation or Account (4) Data inadequate

6. What will be position of A from the top when they
are arranged in descending order of their income ?
(1) Second (2) Third
(3) Fourth (4) Fifth

7. In which of the following department does B work?
(1) 28 triangles, 10 squares
(1) Operations (2) Accounts (2) 28 triangles, 8 squares
(3) Administration (4) Data inadequate (3) 32 triangles, 10 squares
(4) 32 triangles, 8 squares

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13. A cube whose two adjacent faces are coloured 21. Find the number that does not belong to the group :
is cut into 64 identical small cubes. How many 111,331,482,551,263,383,362,284
of those small cubes are not coloured at all ? (1) 263 (2) 331
(1) 24 (2) 32 (3) 383 (4) 551
(3) 36 (4) 48 22. Which letter replaces the question mark ?
14. If 54/32 =4, 36/42 = 3, 92/22 = 7 then what is 28/
33 = ?
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 4 (4) 9

15. In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means
‘Usha is playing cards’ ‘ ‘Kop Ja ki ma’ means’
Asha is playing tennis’, ‘ki top sop ho’ menas
‘they are playing football’ ; and ‘ po sur kop’ (1) L (2) N
(3) P (4) R
means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in this
language means ‘Asha’ ? 23. Certain blank spaces are left in the following
(1) Ja (2) ma sequence.Which is the group of letters given
(3) kop (4) top below, will complete the sequence ?
c_bba_cab_ac_ab_ac
(1) acbcb (2) bcacb
16. A ship navigating in the Indian Ocean is hit by a
(3) babec (4) abebe
sea storm and drifts as follows :
40 km North 24. A boat starts with the speed of 1km per hour.
28 km north west After every 1km. the speed of boat becomes
36 km west twice. How much will be the average speed of
the boat at the end of journey of 25 km ?
52 km south and 29 km south east.
The ship had finally drifted in...................direction 2. 5 2 .5
(1) (2)
from its original position. 1.5125 1 .75
(1) South West (2) South 2.5 2 .5
(3) West (4) South East (3) (4)
1.625 1 .50
25. Using the total number of alphabets in your
17. Four diagrams marksed A,B,C and D are given solution as a parameter, find the number that
below.The one that best illustrates the relationship represents G if,
among three given classes : A-0,B-0,C-2, D-2,E-1,F-2,G
Women, Teachers, Doctors (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

26. Rs.1000 is given to A,B and C in some ratio, A is
(1) A (2) B wrongly given double and C is wrongly given half,
(3) C (4) D which is Rs. 500 and Rs. 250 repectively.how
18. Identify the missing number in the following much is given to B ?
squence (1) 500 (2) 250
2,17,52,_________,206
(1) 73 (2) 85 (3) 750 (4) None of above
(3) 113 (4) 184
19. Select the missing number 27. Given that the total cost of 5 erasers, 7 sharpeners
and 9 pencils is Rs. 100 and the total cost of 2
ersers, 6 sharpeners and 10 pencils is Rs.
80.What is the total cost (in Rs.) of one eraser,
one sharpender and one pencil ?
(1)10
(1) 184 (2) 210 (2)15
(3) 241 (4) 425 (3) 20
20. Select the missing numbers in the following (4) Data are not sufficient
sequence 3,6,24,30,63,72,?,?,195,210
(1) 117, 123 (2) 120,132
(3) 123,135 (4) 135,144

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28. Renu went to the market betwen 7 am and 8 am. 33. Choose the correct mirror-image most closely
The angle between the hour-hand and the minure- resembles the word-source, from the four given
alternatives.
hand was 90º. She returned home between 7 am
source
and 8 am.Then also the angle between the minute-
hand and hour-hand was 90º. At what time (1) (2)
(nearest to second) did Renu leave and return
(3) (4)
home ?
34. In the problem figure a unfolded cuboid is given.
(1)7h 18 m 35 s and 7h 51 m 24 s Choose from the four given alternatives the box
(2) 7 h 19 m 24 s and 7 h 52 m 14s that will be formed when problem figure is
(3) 7h 20 m 42 s and 7 h 53 m 11 s folded.
(4)7 h 21 m 49 s and 7 h 54 m 33 s

29. Stimulant : Activity :: ?
(1) Symptom : Disease
(2) Food : Hunger
(1) 1 only (2) 1 and 2 only
(3) Fertilizer : Growth (3) 1,2 and 3 only (4) 2 and 3 only
(4) Diagnosis : Treatment
35. A work can be completed by 40 workers in 40
30. Choose the missing number form among the four days. If 5 workers leave every 10 days, in how
alternatives : many days work will be completed ?
(1) 55, 66 (2) 56, 44
(3) 56, 66 (4) 58, 66
36. From among the four alternatives given below,
which figure replaces the question mark ?

(1)15 (2)20
(3)25 (4)40
(1) (2)
31. From among the four alternatives given below,
which numbr replaces the question mark ?
(3) (4)

37. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in two
rows, three persons are sitting in each row
E is not at the end of any row
(1)9 (2)10 D is second to the left of F
(3)18 (4)23 C, the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally
opposite to D
32. From among the four alternatives given below, B is the neighbour of F
which letter replaces in the given figure the question Who are sitting in each column
mark ? (1) A and D ; E and F ; and B and C
(2) A and F ; D and E ; and B and C
(3) B and D ; A and C ; and E and F
(4) A and D ; B and E ; and F and C
38. The sum of the incomes of A and B is more than
that of C and D taken together. The sum of
incomes of A and C is the same as that of B and
D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much
as the sum of the incomes of B and D. Whose
income is highest ?
(1) A (2) B
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(3) S (4) Y

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39. A letter number series is given with one or 44. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday
more terms missing as shown below. Choose and 2 minutes fast at 1 am on Friday When did it
the alternative next in the sequence. show the correct time ?
A4X, D9U, G16R,.............. (1) 5.00 am on Wednesday
(2) 9.00am on Wednesday
(1) K25P (2) J25P (3) 5.00 pm on Wednesday
(3) J25O (4) J25C (4) 9.00 pm on Wednesday
Direction: (Question 45 -47) : A coding language
40. Study the following information and answer the is used to write English words in coded form
question given below it : givenbelow :
Rohit, Kunal, Ashish and, Ramesh are students
of a school. Three of them stay far from the school
and one near it. Two studies in class IV, one in
class V and one in class VI. They study Hindi,
Mathematics, Social Science and Science. one
is good at all four subjects while another is weak
in all of these. Rohit stay far from the school and
is good at mathematics only while Kunal is weak
in mathematics only and stay close to the school. The codes do not appear in the same order of
Neither of these two nor Ashish studies in class the letters in English words. Decode the language
VI. One who is good at all the subjects study in and based on these codes identify the code for
class V. Name the boy who is good at all the English word given in each question from the
subjects. alternatives provided.
45. MINT
(1) Rohit (2) Ramesh
(1) % = & * (2) = # ? %
(3) Kunal (4) Ashish
(3) @%=$ (4) * @ ? +
46. RINSE
41. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their
(1) = ? + * @ (2) % * $ # &
own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate
(3) * $ # @ + (4) $ & # = ?
paddy. One –third of the villagers are below twenty
five. Then, which one of the following is certainly 47. INTEREST
true? (1) = ? * + % & = * (2) ? # = ? + # * $
(1) At least 10 percent villagers who have their (3) + $ @ + $ = * % (4) @ # * # @ $ % &
own houes are literate.
Direction (Question 48–49) There are three circles in
(2) At least 25 percent of the villagers who have the following diagram. A total number of 100
their own huses cultivate paddy. persons were surveyed and the number in the
(3) At least 50 percent of the villagers who diagram indicates the number of tourists who
cultivate paddy are below twenty five. visited different states. 46 tourists visited Sikkim
(4) At least 1333 percent literate must be and 42 tourists visited Karnataka.
below twenty five

42. A tank is filled by three pipes with each pipe having
uniform flow. The first two pipes operating
simultaneously fill the tank in the same time
during in which the tank is filled by the third pipe
alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours
faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than
48. How many tourists have visited at least two
the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe
states?
ot fill the tank is :
(1) 46 (2) 50
(1) 6 hours (2) 10 hours (3) 54 (4) 58
(3) 15 hours (4) 30 hours
49. How many tourists have visited only two states ?
(1) 46 (2) 50
43. If FEED is coded as 47 and TREE is coed as 91,
(3) 54 (4) 96
then MEET will be coded as :
(1) 110 (2) 114 50. If BREAKTHROUGH is as EAOUHRBRGHKT,
(3) 118 (4) 122 DISTRIBUTION will be coded :
(1) STTIBUDIONRI (2) TISTBUONDIRI
(3) STTIBUONRIDI (4) RISTTIBUDION

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Roll No. NTSE 15_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2015
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate
boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.

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NTSE STAGE_II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)-2015

1. A segment of DNA contains 1200 nucleotides, of 7. The gene for hemophilia is present on X
which 200 have adenine base. How many chromosome. If a hemophilic male marries a
cytosine bases are present in this segment of normal female, the probability of their son being
DNA? hemophilic is
(1) 100 (2) 200 (1) Nil (2) 25%
(3) 400 (4) 800 (3) 50% (4) 100%
2. You are observing a nonchlorophyllous, 8. Abundance of coliform bacteria in a water body
eukaryotic organism with chitinous cell wall under is indicative of pollution from
a microscope. You shall describe the organism (1) petroleum refinery. (2) metal smelter
as a (3) fertilizer factory (4) domestic sewage.
(1) Fungus. (2) Alga 9. Prolonged exposure to the fumes released by
(3) Protozoas (4) Bacterium incomplete combustion of coal may cause death
3. Match the items given in Column A and Column of a human because of
B, and identify the correct alternative listed below. (1) Inhalation of unburnt carbon particles.
(2) Continuous exposure to high temperature.
Column-A Column B
(3) Increased level of carbon monoxide.
(a) Flying fish (i) Draco
(4) Increased level of carbon dioxide.
(b) Flying lizard (ii) Echidna
(c) Egg laying mammals (iii) Exocoetus 10. The phenomenon of normla breathing in a human
(d) Flightless bird (v) Struthio being comprises
(1) An active inspiratory and a passive expiratory
(1) (a)-(i), (b)(iii), (c)-(ii), (d) - (iv)
phase
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) -(ii), (d) - (iv)
(2) A passive inspiratory and an active expiratory
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) -(i), (c)-(iv) (d) -(ii)
phase.
(4) (a) -(i), (b)-(iii), (c) -(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) Both active inspiratory and expiratory phases.
4. Which one of the following statements about cell (4) Both passive inspiratory and expiratory
organelles and their funciton is correct ? phases.
(1) Mitochondria are associated with anaerobic
11. Which one of the following statements is true
respiration.
with respect to photosynthesis ?
(2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in
(1) Oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes
protein synthesis.
from CO2
(3) Lysosomes are important in membrane
(2) Chlorophyll a is the only photosynthetic
biogenesis.
pigment in plants.
(4) Golgi bodies are involved in packaging and
(3) Photosynthesis occurs in stem of some plants.
dispatching of materials.
(4) Photosynthesis does not occur in red light.
5. A leguminous plant grown in an autoclaved, 12. The girth of stem increases due to the activity of
sterilized soild fails to produce root nodules (1) Lateral meristem.
because (2) Apical meristem.
(1) Autoclaved soil is not good for root growth. (3) Intercalary meristem
(2) Autoclaved soil is devoid of bacteria. (4) apical and intercalary meristem.
(3) Autoclaving reduces N2 content of soil.
(4) Plants cannot form root hairs in such a soil. 13. Which one of the following represents the correct
sequence of reflex action ?
6. The causative agent of the disease ‘sleeping (1) Receptor ® sensory nerve ® motor nerve ®
sickness’ in human beings is an spinal cord ® muscle
(1) Intracellular parasite found in RBC. (2) Receptor ® motor nerve ® spinal cord ®
(2) Extracellular parasite found in blood plasma sensory nerve ® muscle
(3) Intracellular parasite found in WBC. (3) Receptor ® sensory nerve ® spinal cord ®
(4) Extracellular parasite found on the surface of muscle ® motor nerve
platelets. (4) Receptor ® sensory nerve ® spinal cord ®
motor nerve ® muscle

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14. In human female, immature eggs are for the first 22. A substance A reacts with another substance B
time seen in ovary to produce the product C and a gas D. If a mixture
(1) At puberty of the gas D and ammonia is passed through an
(2) Before birth, at the fetus stage aqueous solution of C, baking soda is formed.
(3) During the first menstrual cycle The substances A and B are :
(4) After the first year birth.
(1) HCl and NaOH (2) HCl and Na2CO3
15. What happens when a fixed amount of oxygen (3) Na and HCl (4) Na2CO3 and H2O
gas is taken in a cylinder and compressed at
constant temperature ? 23. A metal occurs in nature as its ore X which on
(i) Number of collisions of oxygen molecules at heating in air converts to Y.Y reacts with
per unit area of the wall of the cylinder increases. unreacted X to give the metal. The metal is :
(ii) Oxygen (O2) gets converted into ozone (O3). (1) Hg (2) Cu
(iii) Kinetic energy of the molecules of oxygen (3) Zn (4) Fe
gas increases.
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) 24. Assertion (A) : Nitrate ores are rarely available.
(3) (iii) only (4) (i) only Reason (R) : Bond dissociation energy of nitrogen
is very high.
16. The solubility of a substance S in water is 28.6%
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(mass by volume) at 50º C. When 50 mL of its
explanation of A.
saturated solution at 50ºC is cooled to 40ºC, (2)4
g of solid S separates out.The solubility of S in (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
water at 40ºC (mass by volume) is : correct explanation of A.
(1) (2)4 % (2) 1(1)9% (3) A is correct and R is false
(3) 26.2% (4) 2(3)8% (4) Both A and R are False
17. What mass of CO2 will be formed when 6g of 25. The number of structural isomers of the compound
carbon is burnt in 32 g of oxygen ? having molecular formula C4H9Br is :
(1) 38 g (2) 12g (1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 26 g (4) 22 g (3) 4 (4) 2
18. The law of conservation of mass is valid for which
26. The total number of electrons and the number of
of the following ?
electrons involved in the formation of various bonds
a. Reactions involving oxidation
b.Nuclear reactions. present in one molecule of propanal (C2H5CHO)
c. Endothermic reactions are respectively :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (1) 32 and 20 (2) 24 and 20
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) only (3) 24 and 18 (4) 32 and 18
19. How many sub-atomic particles are present in 27. Consider following as a portion of the periodic
an a-particle used in Rutherford’s scattering table from Group No. 13 to 17. Which of the
experiment ? following statments is are true about the elements
No. of protons No. of Neutrons No. of Electrons shown in it ?
(1) 4 0 0
I. V, W, X and Z are less electropositive than X.
(2) 2 0 2
II.V, W, X and Y are more electronegative than Z.
(3) 2 2 0
(4) 2 2 1 III. Atomic size of Y is greater than that of W.
IV. Atomic size of W is smaller than that of X.
20. A certain sample of element Z contains 60% of
69
Z and 40% of 71Z. What is the relative atomic V Z
mass of element Z in this sample ? W Y

(1) 69.2 (2) 69.8 X
(3) 70.0 (4) 70.2
(1) I, II and III (2) II and III
21. Compound A on strong heating in a boiling tube
(3) I and IV (4) III and IV
gives off reddish brown fumes and a yellow residue.
When the aqueous solution of A is treated with a 28. A man running with a uniform speed 'u' on a straight
few drops of sodium hydroxide solution, a white road observes a stationary bus at a distance 'd'
precipitate appeared in the compound A. Identify ahead of him. At that instant, the bus starts with
the cation and anion present in the compound A. an acceleration 'a'. The condition that he would
(1) Copper (II) and nitrate be able to catch the bus is
(2) Lead (II) and chloride
(3) Zinc and sulphate u2 u2
(1) d £ (2) d £
(4) Lead (II) and nitrate a 2a
u2 u2
(3) d £ (4) d £
3a 4a
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29. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a given 33. The disc of a siren containing 60 holes rotates at
velocity 'u' such that it rises for T seconds (T > 1). a constant speed of 360 rotations per minute.
What is the distance traversed by the ball during The emitted sound is in unison with a tuning fork
the last one second of ascent (in meters)? of frequency
(Acceleration due to gravity is g m/s(2)) (1) 270 Hz (2) 360 Hz
1 2 1 (3) 480 Hz (4) 540 Hz
(1) gT (2) uT + g[T 2 - (T - 1) 2 ]
2 2
34. A tuning fork is excited by striking it with a padded
g 1 2 2 hammer. W hat would be the nature of the
(3) (4) g[T - (T - 1) ]
2 2 vibrations executed by the prongs as well as the
30. The radius of a planet A is twice that of planet B. stem of the fork respectively ? (The reference
The average density of the material of planet A is direction is that of the propagation of the sound
thrice that of planet B. The ratio between the wave.)
values of acceleration due to gravity on the (1) Both vibrate longitudinally
surface of planet A and that on the surface of (2) Both vibrate transversely
planet B is (3) The prong vibrate longitudinally whereas the
stem vibrates transversely
2 3
(1) (2) (4) The prong vibrate transversely whereas the
3 2 stem vibrates longitudinally
4
(3) (4) 6 35. Find the reading of the ammeter in the circuit
3 given below.
31. A small spherical ball of mass 'm' is used as the
bob of a pendulum. The work done by the force
of tension on its displacemetn is W 1 The same
ball is made to roll on a frictionless table. The
work done by the force of normal reaction is W 2
Again the same ball is given a positive charge 'g' V 3V
and made to travel with a velocity v in a magnetic (1) (2)
2R 4R
field B. The work done by the force experienced
by the charged ball is W 3 If the displacements in 2V 11V
each case are the same, we have (3) (4)
7R R
(1) W 1 < W 2 < W 3
36. Three bulbs with individual power ratings of 12
(2) W 1 > W 2 > W 3
W, 2 W and 6 W respectively are connected as
(3) W 1 = W 2 = W 3
per the circuit diagram below. Find the amount of
(4) that W 1, W 2, W 3 cannot be related by any
heat dissipated by each in 10 seconds.
equation

32. The variation in the kinetic energy (K.E.) adn the
potential energy (P.E.) of a particle moving along
the x-axis are shown in the graphs below. Which
one of the following graphs violates the law of
conservation of energy ?

(1) (2)

(1) 8 J, 133 J, 4 J (2) 120 J, 20 J, 60 J
(3) 10 J, 0.277 J, 25 J (4) 12 J, 166 J, 5 J
37. Which of the following can produce a magnetic
(3) (4)
field ?
(1) Electric charges at rest
(2) Electric charges in motion
(3) Only by permanent magnets
(4) Electric charges whether at rest or in motion
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38. A wire is lying horizontally in the north-south 43. If the zeros of the polynomial 64x3 – 144 x2 + 92x –15
direction and there is a horizontal magnetic field are in AP, then the difference between the largest
pointing towards the east. Some positive charges and the smallest zeroes of the polynomial is
in the wire move north and an equal number of
7
negative charges move south.The direction of (1) 1 (2)
8
force on the wire will be
3 1
(3) (4)
4 2
44. x and y are two non-negative numbers such that
2x + y =10. The sum of the maximum and
minimum values of (x+y) is
(1) 6 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 15
(1) east (2) down, into the page
45. The number of integral solution of the equation
(3) up, out of the page (4) west
39. Match the following : æ 1ö æ 1ö
7çç y + ÷÷ – 2ç y 2 + 2 ÷ = 9
yø ç y ÷ø
Phenomenon Reason è è
(i) Rainbow A. Scattering of light (1) 0 (2) 1
(ii) Twinkling of stars B. Dispersion of light (3) 2 (4) 3
(iii) Blue colour of sky C. Fluctuation of the 46. A circle with area A cm2 is contained in the interior
refraction index in of a larger circle with area (A + B) cm 2 and the
atmosphere layers
radius of the larger circle is 4 cm. If A, B, A + B
(iv) Advancement of D. Refraction of light are in airthmatic progression, then the diameter
sunrise and delay of
(in cm) of the smaller circle is :
sunset

(1) (i)-B, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-C 3 4 3
(1) (2)
(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-D 2 3
(3) (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-C, (iv) - D
(4) (i) - D, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-C 8 3
(3) (4) 2 3
3
40. A person is suffering from both near sightedness
and far sightedness. His spectacles would be 47. Each of sides of a triangle is 8 cm less than the
made of sum of its other two sides. Area of the triangle
(1) two convex lenses with the upper lens having (in cm2) is
a larger focal length than the lower lens.
(1) 8 (2) 8 3
(2) two concave lenses with the upper lens having
a smaller focal length than the lower lens. (3) 16 (4) 16 3
(3) a concave lens as the upper lens and a convex
lens as the lower lens 1
48. If cosec x – cot x = , where x ¹ 0, then the
(4) a convex lens as the upper lens and a concave 3
lens as the lower lens value of cos2 x – sin2 x is
41. LCM of two numbers x and y is 720 and the LCM 16 9
(1) (2)
of numbers 12x and 5y is also 720. The number 25 25
y is.
(1) 180 (2) 144 (3) 120 (4) 90 8 7
(3) (4)
25 25
42. When a natural number x is divided by 5, the 49. A sector with acute central angle q is cut from a
remainder is 2 When a natural number y is divided circle of diameter 14 cm. The area (in cm2) of the
by 5, the remainder is 4, The remainder is z when circle circumscribing the sector is :
2z - 5
x + y is divided by 5. The value of is 22 q 77
3 (1) sec2q (2) sec2q
(1) –1 (2) 1 (3) –2 (4) 2 7 2 2

77 q 77 q
(3) cos2q (4) sec2
2 2 2 2

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50. In the figure PQSO, is a trapezium in which PQ || 55. In the figure, BC is a chord of the circle with
OS, ÐPOS = 135° and ÐOSQ = 90° points P, Q centre O arc A is a point on the minor arc BC.
and R lie on a circle with centre O and radius 12 Then ÐBAC – ÐOBC is equal to
cm. The area of the shaded part, in cm2, is
2
(1) 61
7
5
(2) 61
7
5
(3) 73
7 (1) 30° (2) 60°
2
(4) 73 (3) 80° (4) 90°
7
51. A solid sphere is cut into identical pieces by three
56. In the figure, DAPB is formed by three tangents
mutually perpendicular plane passing through its
to the circle with centre O. If ÐAPB = 40°, then
centre. Increase in total surface area of all the
the measure of ÐBOA is :
pieces with respect to the total surface area of
the original sphere is
(1) 250% (2) 175%
(3) 150% (4) 125%

52. A right circular cylinder has its height equal to
two times its radius. It is inscribed in a right
circular cone having its diameter equal to10 cm
(1) 50° (2) 55°
and height 12 cm, and the axes of both the
(3) 60° (4) 70°
cylinder and the cone coincide. Then, the volume
(in cm3) of the cylinder is approximately. 57. (5, –10), (–15, 15) and (5,5) are the coordinates
(1) 107.5 (2) 118.6 of vertices A, B and C respectively of DABC and
(3) 127.5 (4) 128.7 P is a point on median AD such that AP : PD =
2 : 3 Ratio of the areas of the triangle PBC and
53. In the figure, ABCD is a square of side 1 dm and ABC
ÐPAQ = 45°. The perimeter (in dm) of the triangle (1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 4
PQC is (3) 3 : 5 (4) 4 : 5

58. P is a point on the graph of y = 5x + 3 The
coordinates of a point Q are (3, –2). If M is the
mid point of PQ, then M must lie on the line
represented by :
(1) y = 5x + 1 (2) y = 5x – 7
5 7 5 1
(3) y = x– (4) y = x +
(1) 2 (2) 1 + 2 2 2 2 2
59. Three - digit number formed by using digits 0,
(3) 2 2 – 1 (4) 1 + 3
1,2 and 5 (without repetition) are written on
different slip with distinct number on each slip,
54. In the figure, ABC is a triangle in which AD bisects and put in a bowl. One slip is drawn at random
ÐA, AC = BC, ÐB = 72° and CD = 1 cm, Length from the bowl. The probability that the slip bears
of BD (in cm) is a number divisible by 5 is :
(1) 1
5 4
(1) (2)
1 9 9
(2)
2 2 1
(3) (4)
3 3
5 -1 60. The mean of fifteen different natural numbers is
(3)
2 13 The maximum value for the second largest of
these numbers is :
3 +1
(4) (1) 46 (2) 51
2 (3) 52 (4) 53

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61. Assertion (A) : During eighteenth century France 66. The main tenets of April Theses during the
witnessed the emergence of a middle class. Bolshevik Revolution were:
Reason (R): The emergence of the middle class (1) Closing the war, shifting of banks, land pooling
happened on account of royal patronage. by government.
(1) A is true, R is false. (2) Formation of labour government, bank
(2) A is false, R is true. nationalisation and land distribution.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (3) Communist government, land fragmentation
explanation of A. and merger of banks.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) Ending the war, bank nationalisation and land
explanation of A. transfer.
67. Mahatma Gandhi changed his dressing style
62. Assertion (A) : The lives of pastoralists in , India
from Western to Indian over a period of time.
underwent dramatic changes under colonial rule.
Match those changes as given in Column-I and
Reason (R): In most areas the lands regularly
Column-II and choose the correct response from
used by pastoralists for grazing were taken over
the options given thereafter.
by the colonial state and given to select
Column-I Column-II
individuals for cultivation.
A. Suit I. 1915
(1) A is true, R is false.
B. Lungi-Kurta II. 1890
(2) A is false, R is true.
C. Peasant Dress III. 1921
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
D. Short Dhoti IV. 1913
explanation of A.
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
explanation of A.

63. Assertion (A) : By the early twentieth century, 68. In late 19th and early 20th centuries, nationalism
America became the biggest supplier of wheat captured the imagination of the Indian people
to Europe. through a variety of cultural processes. Which of
Reason (R): The expansion of the railways during the following was not a part of those processes?
the period greatly facilitated the transport of grain. (1) Rewriting history to show India's continuous
(1) A is true, R is false. progress from the ancient to the modern times.
(2) A is false, R is true. (2) Creation of different images of Bharat Mata.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (3) Recording, collection and publication of folk
explanation of A. tales and folk songs.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) Designing flags as inspiring symbols of
explanation of A. nationalism.
69. Choose the correct response from the given options.
64) Match the following table and choose the correct
Nomadic people move over long distances because
response from the options given thereafter.
(1) They do not like to settle down in anyone
Column-I Column-II
place.
A. 1910 I. Establishment of Tonkin Free
(2) They constantly look for good pasture land
School.
for their cattle.
B. 1930 II. Formation of French
(3) They follow a life style which is very different
Indo-China.
from the settled communities.
C. 1907 III. Completion of the
(4) Economically they are very poor to own land.
Trans-China rail network.
D. 1887 IV. Formation of the Vietnamese 70. Choose the correct response from the given
Communist Party. options.
In 19th century England grain production grew
65. Arrange the following Indian novels in accordance as quickly as the population because
with their year of writing/publication (1) Farmers used simple agricultural technology
a. Indulekha to greater effect.
b. Rajasekhara Caritramu (2) Radical innovations were made in agricultural
c. Yamuna Paryatan technology.
d. Pariksha-Guru (3) Larger and larger areas were brought under
(1) c, b. d, a (2) a, d. b, c cultivation.
(3) c, d. b, a (4) a, b. d, c (4) Increasing number of poor people found work
as agricultural labourers.

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71. Choose the correct response from the given options. 76. Assertion (A) : The EI Nino, a cold ocean current
By the late 19th century Indians began searching flows along the coast of Peru during Christmas.
for a national dress because they wanted to Reason (R) : The presence of the EI Nino leads
(1) Show that in terms of dress they were not to an increase in sea - surface temperatures and
inferior to the British . weakening of the trade winds in the regions.
(2) Get rid of the blame of blindly aping the west (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
(3) Define the cultural identity of the nation. (2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(4) Culturally synthesize the traditions of the East (3) A is true and R is false.
and the West. (4) A is false and R is true.

72. Choose the correct response from the given 77. Assertion (A): Air temperature decreases from
options. the equator toward the poles.
The unification of Germany in 1871, for a change, Reason (R) : As one move from the sea level to
demonstrated higher altitude, the atmosphere become less
(1) The triumph of the democratic aspirations of dense and temperature decreases.
the German middle-class. (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
(2) The fulfillment of the liberal initiative to nation- (2) Both A and R are true but R doe not explain A.
building. (3) A is true and R is false.
(3) The power of the common people, das volk. (4) A is false and R is true.
(4) The dominance of the state power and 78. Match List-I (local name of shifting cultivation)
conservatives' success in mobilising with List-II (States/Region) and elect the correct
nationalist sentiments. answer using the code given below :
List-I (local name of List-II (States/Region)
73. Choose the correct response from the given options.
shifting cultivation)
The formation of the 'United Kingdom of Great
A. Dahiya I. Jharkhand
Britain' in 1707 meant, in effect,
B. Kumari II. Madhya Pradesh
(1) Equal representation of all the British Isles in
C. Bringa III. Odisha
the British Parliament.
D. Kuruwa IV. Western Ghats
(2) Recognition to the ethnic identities of the
(1) A-III. B-IV, C-lI, D-I (2) A-II. B-IV, C-III, D-I
Welsh, the Scot and the lrish.
(3) A-I. B-III, C-IV, D-1I (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III. D-II
(3) The cessation of conflicts between the
Catholics and the Protestants. 79. Assertion (A): Most nuclear power stations in
(4) The dominance of England on Scotland India have been constructed near sources of
through the English supremacy in Parliament. water.
Reason (R): Nuclear power stations require a
74. Choose the correct response from the given options.
great quantity of water for cooling purposes.
Many within the Congress were initially opposed
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
to the idea of non-cooperation because
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(1) They did not think that British rule in India
(3) A is true and R is false.
would collapse if Indians refused to cooperate.
(4) A is false and R is true.
(2) They were not yet sure of Gandhiji's ability to
successfully lead a nationwide movement 80. Assertion(A) : Peninsula rocks contain many
(3) They were reluctant to boycott the council reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and
election scheduled for November 1920. many other non-metallic minerals.
(4) They did not agree with Gandhiji's proposal to Reason (R) : Sedimentary rocks on the western
carry the movement forward in stages. and eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat
and Assam have most of the famous minerals.
75. Choose the correct response from the given options.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
The main reason why the Society of Revolutionary
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
and Republican Women was set up during the
(3) A is true and R is false
French Revolution was because
(4) A is false and R is true
(1) Women wanted laws that would help improve
their lives. 81. Which one of the following states has common
(2) Women wanted the same political rights as men. bounders with the least number of countries.
(3) Women wanted their interests to be properly (1) Uttarakhand (2) West Bengal
represented in the new government. (3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Sikkim
(4) Women wanted access to education, training
for jobs, and wages on par with men.

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82. Match List - 1(Rivers) with List -II (National 87. Arrange these hills from west to east direction.
Waterways) and select the correct answer using A. Khasi hills B. Garo hills
the code given below : C. Naga hills D. Jaintia Range
(1) C,A,B,D (2) D, B, A, C
List-I (Rivers) List-II (National
(3) A, B, C, D (4) B, A, D, C
Waterways)
88. Assertion (A): The Earth does not receive an
National equal amount of solar energy at all latitudes.
A. Ganga I. Waterway No.4 Reason (R): As one goes from low altitude to
National high altitude temperature decreases because
B. Brahmaputra II. Waterway No.1 atmosphere becomes less dense.
Godavari and National (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
C. Krishna III. Waterway No.5 (2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
Mahandi and National (4) A is false and R is true.
D. Brahmani IV. Waterway No.2
89. Match the vegetation zones in Column-I with the
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I associated mean annual average temperature (in
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III degree Celsius) in Column-II
Column - I Column–II
83. Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II B A. Tropical I. 17°C to 24°C,
(Tributaries) and select the correct answer using B. Sub-tropical II. above 24°C
the codes given below C. Temperate III. 7°C to 17°C
List-I (Rivers) List-II (Tributaries ) D. Alpine IV. Below 7°C
A. Godavari I. Lohit (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
B. Ganga II. Koyana (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
C. Krishna III. Wainganga
D. Brahamputra IV. Son 90. Match the given crops with their major producing
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV areas shown on the map of India.
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

84. Arrange these hill ranges from north to south
direction
I. Zaskar Range II. Shiwalik Range
III. Karakoram Range IV. Ladakh Range
l. III. IV. I. II (2) Ill. I. IV. II
(3) I. II. Ill. IV (4) IV. III. I. II A. Wheat B. Coffee
C. Rice D. Tea
85. Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II Origin and select (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
the correct answer using the codes given below (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
List-l (Rivers) List-II (Origin) 91. Which of the following statement is/are true about
A. Godavari I. Cardamom hills federal system?
B. Krishna II. Amarkantak Hills a. All federations have a similar scheme of
C. Narmada III. Nasik Hills distribution of powers.
D. Vaigai IV. Mahabaleshwar b. The origins of different federations are
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I dissimilar.
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV c. Federalism promotes unity at the cost of
diversity.
86. Assertion (A): In India, most migrations have d. Federalism promotes unity in diversity.
been from rural to urban areas (1) Only b (2) a and c
Reason (R): The urban areas offer greater (3) b and d (4) a. b and c
employment opportunities and better living
condition. 92. I do not contest elections. but 1 try to influence
(1) Both and R are true and R explains A. the political process. I have a specific policy
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. agenda. I have no interest in seeking political
(3) A is true and R is false. power. Who am I ?
(4) A is false and.R is true. (1) Bureaucracy (2) Court
(3) Pressure group (4) Media

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93. Which of the following statement’s is/are true ? 97. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
a. India is among the bottom group of nations in Guarantee Act aims at providing
the world when it comes to the representation of (1) employment to rural people in government
women in legislatures. offices.
b. Women in the Arab countries are most active (2) 200 days of work/year in rural areas.
in public life. (3) 100 days of wage employment in a year to
c. India has lesser representation of women in rural households
legislatures as compared to Sub-Saharan Africa. (4) 365 days work in rural areas.
d. The share of women in legislative assemblies
98. A landless worker in a village takes a kind loan of
in India is lower than that of their representation
two bags of rice form the village landlord. The
in Parliament.
condition is that she will repay the loan in two
(1) a and b (2) b and c
and half bags of rice at the end of one year. The
(3) a, b and d (4) a, c and d
interest paid equals _________
94. Which of the following issues has been most (1) the difference between the money value of
successfully addressed by the Indian democracy? rice between now and at the end of the year.
(1) Social inequality (2) Economic inequality (2) 3125 percent of the original amount of loan.
(3) Political inequality (4) Natural inequality (3) 25 percent of the original amount of loan
(4) the difference between the rates of interest
95. Match List 1 (Leaders) with List II (Political
charged by banks between beginning and at
parties) and select the answer using the codes
the end of the year.
given below.
99. Non-marker activity is ___________.
List - I List-II
(1) a state of unemployment.
I. E.M.S. Namboodiripad a. Bahujan Samaj Party
(2) producing for self consumption.
II. Sheikh Abdullah b. Telugu Desam
(3) selling the products nearby temples.
III. N.T. Rama Rao c. Communist Party of
(4) selling the products through the Regulated
India (Marxist)
Market.
IV. Kanshi Ram d. Jammu & Kashmir
National conference
100. A typical farmer’s capital includes tractor,
(1) I-c , II-d, III-a, IV-b (2) I-b , II-d, III-c, IV-a
turbines, plough, seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and
(3) I-b , II-c, III-a, IV-d (4) I-c , II-d, III-b, IV-a
cash in hand. Which of these combinations can
96. Economic growth is growth in ___________. be classified as working capital ?
(1) value of total output (1) Tractor, turbines and plough
(2) value of total investment (2) Seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in hand
(3) value of industrial output (3) Plough, seeds, fertilisers and pesticides
(4) value added of all sectors. (4) Plough, seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash
in hand

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Roll No. NTSE 16_MAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2016
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates

1. Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude Test shall be
administered. Answer to Part-I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental
Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude
answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected
after the time is over.

2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

3. Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.

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NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2016
Q.1 Complete the series : Statements : All teachers are professors
D3Y104, G9U91, J27Q78, M81M65 No professor is male
(1) P243139 (2) Q243152 Some males are designers
(3) P243152 (4) Q162J39 Conclusion : I No designer is professor
Q.2 Which of the following can replace the question II Some designers are professors
mark?’ III No male is teacher
(1) Only III follows
0.8 0.512 (2) Both I and II follows
(3) Either I or II follows
0.04 ?
(4) Either I and III follows; or II and III follows
(1) 0.0064 (2) 0.0016 Q.8 In the following questions, there are four figures
(3) 0.000064 (4) 0.000016 A, B, C and D called problem figures. A and b are
Direction : (Q.3 to Q.5) There are eight people related in the same way as C and D are related.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting around a circular Which figure out of four given options will come
table facing centre. B is sitting second to the left in place of figure C?
of G who is sitting third to the right of F. Only E is
sitting between A and C. C is sitting third to the
left of B. Only one person is sitting between E ?
and H.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.3 Which of the following is correct?
(1) D is sitting third to the left of H
(2) F is sitting third to the left of G
(3) C is sitting to the left of D
(4) H is sitting second to the right of C (1) (2)
Q.4 Based on the given information, which of the
following is the correct position?
(1) A and C are sitting next to each other
(2) F and G are sitting next to each other
(3) H and F are sitting third next to each other (3) (4)
(4) D is sitting next to H
Q.5 Which of the following is the correct order of sitting Q.9 In the following figure, square represents
of persons right of A? professors, circle represents males, triangle
(1) E C H D G B F (2) E C H F B D G represents cricketers and rectangle represents
(3) E B H D C F G (4) C H B E D G F trainers.
Q.6 Amita is standing at Point A facing north direction.
She walks for 5 kilometers In the north-east A
direction. Then she turns at an angle of 90° at B
her right and once again travels the same K D C
distance. She reaches at Point B. Now she takes H
a turn at 90° to her left and walks for 3 kilometres G J I E
F
and once again takes right turn at 90° and travels
3 kilometres and reaches at Point C. What is
On the basis of information given in the above
the direction of Point B and C respectively with
diagram, which of the following is correct?
respect to point A?
(1) C represent male professors who are
(1) East, East
cricketers
(2) East, North-East
(2) I represents male trainers who play cricket
(3) North-East, East
(3) B represent males professors who are trainers
(4) North-East, North-East
(4) F represents male trainers who are not cricketers
Q.7 In the question given below, there are three
Direction : (Q.10 to Q.12) Five periods of Hindi.
statements followed by three conclusions
English, Science. Mathematics and Sanskrit are
numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given
to be taken by five different teachers A, B, C, D
statements to be true even if they seem to be at
and E in five different periods. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
variance from commonly known facts. Read all
Each teacher will teach only one subject and
the conclusions, and then decide which of the
takes only one period.
given conclusion(s) logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known
facts.

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Science is not the 3rd period 5th period is taken Q.16 Read the information carefully and answer the
by D who doest not teach Hindi or Sanskrit A following question:
takes 3rd period. The one who teaches Sanskrit A family has husband, wife and three children A,
takes 4th period. There are two periods after and B and C. The present age of husband is 5 years
two periods before Mathematics period. Hindi more than the wife’s present age. Wife’s present
period is between Science and Mathematics age is twice the present age of A. The present
period. B teachers Science. E takes period just age of A is 12 years more than the present age of
before D’s period. 1
After reading the above information, answer the B. B’s present age is 1 time the present age
2
following questions. of C. If C is 12 years old at present, what is the
present age of husband’s friend Ram who is 15
Q.10 Who teaches Hindi and in which period? years younger than husband (him)?
(1) C teaches Hind in 2nd period (1) 30 years (2) 50 years
(2) E teaches Hindi in 1st period (3) 60 years (4) 80 years
(3) C teaches Hindi in 4th period Direction : (Q.17 to Q.18) Pritam, Zeba, Joy and
(4) Data is inadequate Anu were assigned duties in the English language
alphabetical order of their names. Only one of
Q.11 Which of the following is the correct sequence of them is assigned a duty on a day. This assignment
subject-period-teacher ? is repeated in the same sequence. Working week
(1) Mathematics-3-D (2) Sanskrit-4-E starts from Monday and ends of Friday. Answer
(3) Mathematics-2-A (4) Hindi-2-E the following:
Q.17 Who worked for least number of days and for
Q.12 The subject taught by teachers A, B, C, D and E how many days if the duties are assigned for 3
respectively are weeks?
(1) Mathematics, Science, Hindi, Sanskrit, (1) Anu, 3 days (2) Anu, 4 days
English (3) Zeba, 3 days (4) Zeba, 4 days
(2) Mathematics, Science, English, Hindi,
Q.18 Who were assigned duties on Wednesday in 1st,
Sanskrit
2nd and 3rd weeks respectively?
(3) Mathematics, Hindi, English, Sanskrit, (1) Pritam,. Zeba, Anu (2) Pritam, Anu, Zeba
Science (3) Pritam, Joy, Anu (4) Joy, Zeba, Anu
(4) Mathematics, Science, Hindi, English,
Sanskrit Q.19 In a showroom, 60 per cent discount is given to
everybody on all the articles. The successive
Q.13 A cuboid is painted in 6 colours, i.e. red, green, discount of 40 per cent is offered to female
blue, yellow, orange and black, one colour on students. If printed price of an article of Rs 1000/
each side. Three position are shown below : - is bought by a female student, how much she
will have to pay for that article?
(1) Inconclusive (2) Zero
(3) Rs 160/- (4) Rs 240/-
Q.20 From among the four alternatives given below,
which number replaces the question mark?
What is the colour of the side having question
mark?
4 5 6 4
2 5 = 13 7 2 = 15
(1) Red (2) Yellow
(3) Green (4) Blue
9 3 8 3
4 5 = 18 4 6 =?
Q.14 If × stands for +, ¸ stands for –, + stands for ¸
and – stands for ×, then what is the value of the (1) 11 (2) 14
following expression? (3) 16 (4)17
¸ 33 × 11 ¸ 9 × 28 + 4 – 5
Q.21 Which of the following diagrams indicates the
(1) 16 (2) 8
best relation among men, father and teachers?
(3) 4 (4) 2

Q.15 If REASON is coded as PGYUMP, then DIRECT (1) (2)
will be coded as?
(1) BKPGAV (2) FKTGEV
(3) FGTCER (4) BGPCAR
(3) (4)

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Q.22 Guitar : Music : : Book : ? Q.29 A person need to find the fastest two horses from
(1) Pages (2) Writer 16 horses. Only a race of 4 horses can be
(3) Publisher (4) Knowledge conducted at a time. What is the minimum
number of races to be conducted to determine
Q.23 Reena, Rita and Zoha are three friends. Reena is
the fastest two? Assume that horses will not get
the eldest followed by Rita and Zoha. Reena is 2
tired at all, and time cannot be measured.
years elder to Rita and 5 years elder to Zoha.
The sum of the present age of Reena and Zoha (1) 6 (2) 7
is 3 times the age of Rita 5 years ago. What is (3) 8 (4) 15
the current age of Rita? Q.30 Which letter replaces the question mark?
(1) 12 years (2) 14 years bcegk?qs
(3) 16 years (4) 18 yeras (1) 1 (2) m
Direction (Q.24 to Q.26) : Lata was cutting a (3) n (4) o
cuboid –shaped cake at her birthday party which
has 12 inches length, 8 inches breadth and 2 Q.31 From among the four alternative given below,
inches height. which figure replaces the question mark?
Two faces measuring 8 inches length × 2 inches
are coated with chocolate cream.
Two faces measuring 12 inches × 2 inches are
coated with vanilla cream.
Two faces measuring 12 inches × 8 inches are
coated with butter scotch cream. (1) (2)
The cake is cut into 24 cubes of size, 2 inches
each side.
Q.24 How many cake pieces are there which have only
two types of coatings of cream (any two out of (3) (4)
chocolate, vanilla and butter scotch)?
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 16 Q.32 How many points will be on the face opposite
to the face which contains 2 points.
Q.25 How many cake pieces will have only one type
of coating of cream?
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 20
Q.26 Kasim, Rajni, Pema and Gurpreet loved the (1) 1 (2) 5
chocolate cream and they decided to take all (3) 4 (4) 6
pieces with chocolate coating for them. How many
cake pieces will be available for others? Q.33 Identify the missing number in the following
(1) 8 (2) 12 sequence
(3) 16 (4) 20 2, 10, 30, 68, _______,
(1) 120 (2) 130
Q.27 During her morning walk in the park, Tanya saw (3) 134 (4) 150
Monica coming from the opposite direction. They
greeted each other and had a face-to-face Q.34 A + B means A is the daughter of B, A × B
chatting. If Monica’s shadow was to the right of means A is the son of B and A – B means A is
Tanya, then which direction was Monica facing? the wife of B. If T–S × B – M, which of the following
(1) North (2) East is NOT true?
(3) West (4) South
(1) M is the husband of B
Q.28 Given below is a question and two statements I (2) B is the mother of S
and II. You have to decide whether the data (3) S is the daughter of B
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer (4) T is the wife of S
the question. Read both statements carefully and
give the answer. Q.35 In the question below, there are three statements
Question : A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III
not in that order. A is sitting next to E. Is E and IV. You have to consider every given
sitting between A and C? statements as true, even if it does not conform
Statements : to the well-known facts. Read all the conclusions
I. B and D are sitting at the two ends of the row. and then decide which of the conclusions can be
II. C is not sitting next to A. logically derived from the given statement.
(1) I along is sufficient (2) II alone is sufficient
(3) Both I and II together are sufficient
(4) Both I and II together are not sufficient

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Statements : Q.41 A wall clock is placed in a room. It chimes 8
All frogs are snakes times at 8 o’clock. A person “X” present outside
Some snakes are birds the room listens the 8 beats of chimes in 8
All birds are apples seconds. Assume that each chime of the wall
Conclusions : clock takes equal time. To listen 11 chimes at 11
I. Some apples are frog o’ clock how much time will be required by
II. No apple is a frog person “X”
III. Some snakes are apples (1) 11 seconds (2) 11.43 seconds
IV. All birds are snakes (3) 12 seconds (4) 12.43 seconds
(1) Either I or II ; and III follows
(2) III and IV follows
(3) Either I or II follows Q.42 A geometrical design has been drawn below. Find
(4) Either I or II; and either III or IV follows out the total number of quadrilaterals.

Q.36 In the following sequence, one number is wrong.
Find the wrong number. 9, 23, 51, 106, 219, 643
(1) 23 (2) 51
(3) 106 (4) 219
Q.37 Which option shows the correct water image of
(1) 8 (2) 10
the characters given below.
SUPE2547DLR (3) 11 (4) 12
(1)
(2) Direction (Questions 43-45) Study the following
(3) information and answer the questions given
(4) below it :
Q.38 Ronald is elder to Veena while Amilia and Shree Six boy Prem, Kamal, Ramesh, Shyam, Tarun
are elder to Parul who lies between Ronald and and Umesh go to University Sports Centre and
Amilia. If Amilia is elder to Veena, then which one play a different game of football, cricket, tennis,
of the following statements is necessarily true? kabaddi, squash and volleyball.
(1) Ronald is elder to Amilia A. Tarun is taller than Prem and Shyam
(2) Amilia is elder to Shree B. The tallest among them plays kabaddi
(3) Parul is elder to Shree C. The shortest one plays volleyball
(4) Parul is elder to Veena
D. Kamal and Shyam neither play volleyball nor
Q.39 In the following question, a matrix of certain kabaddi
numbers is given. These numbers follow a certain E. Ramesh plays volleyball
trend, either row-wise or column-wise. Find this F. If all six boys stand in order of their height
trend and choose the missing number from the then Tarun is in between Kamal and Prem ;
given alternatives and Tarun plays football

Q.43 Who among them play kabaddi?
(1) Kamal (2) Ramesh
(3) Shyam (4) Umesh
(1) 20 (2) 43
(3) 89 (4) 96 Q.44 Who will be at fourth place if they are arranged in
Q.40 The figure given below is the unfolded position of the descending order of their heights?
a cubical dice. Select the option figure which is (1) Prem (2) Kamal
same as the figure, when it is folded. (3) Tarun (4) Shyam

Q.45 Who plays tennis?
(1) Kamal (2) Prem
(3) Tarun (4) Information insufficient

Q.46 What comes next in the following sequence of
codes?
(1) (2)
1218199, 1006480, 814963, 643648 ________
(1) 366478 (2) 1442560
(3) (4) (3) 492535 (4) 253634

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Q.47 What value replaces the question mark? Q.49 A work is expected to be completed by 20 workers
in 25 days. The work is started by 10 workers.
Then, after every 5 days, 5 more workers join the
work. In how many days the work will be
completed?
(1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 30 (4) 35
(1) 18 (2) 24
(3) 36 (4) 45 Q.50 Find the maximum length of a rod with negligible
thickness which can be fitted into a cubical box
of 1 meter length of each side.
Q. 48 A coding language writes English words in the
coded form as : (1) 2 (2) 2.25

(3) 3 (4) 2
S TAT qdqg RAT dqb
S A Y egd
The code does not appear in the same order of
the letters in the English words. On this basis,
which of the following will be the code of the word
T R A Y?
(1) e b q g (2) b g d e
(3) b q d e (4) q d g e

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Roll No. NTSE 16_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2016
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.

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NTSE STAGE_II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)-2016
Q.1 Suppose a mutant of a photosynthetic alga has Q.9 In the symbiotic relationship between a bacterium
dysfunctional mitochondria. It would affect its and a root of legume the –
ability to perform – (1) Bacteria provide N2 and the plant roots provide
(1) Glycolysis Carbon
(2) Anascrobic respiration (2) Roots provide NH4 and bacterial provide
(3) Aerobic respiration Carbon
(4) Photosynthesis (3) Bacteria provide NH4 and the roots provide
Carbon
Q.2 Cow has a special stomach as compared to that (4) Bacteria provide N2 and the roots provide NH4
of lion in order to –
(1) Absorb food in better manner Q.10 Which of the following is a result of biological
(2) Digest cellulose present in the food magnification ?
(3) Assimilate food in a better way (1) Top level predators may be most harmed by
(4) Absorb large amount of water toxic chemicals in environment
(2) Increase in carbon dioxide
Q.3 When touched, the leaflets of Touch-me-not plant
(3) The green-house effect will be most significant
are closed. Closing of leaflets starts form the point
at the poles
of contact to the leaflets away. The leaflets are
(4) Energy is lost at each tropic level of a food
closed due to –
chain
(1) Changer in turgor pressure
(2) Speciliazed proteins
Q.11 Which one of the following signifies ex-situ
(3) Growth hormone retardation conservation ?
(4) Capillary action (1) National parks and Biosphere reserves
Q.4 Pancreas is composed of - (2) Wild animals in their natural habitats
(1) Only exocrine cells (3) Inhabitants of natural ecosystems
(2) Only endocrine cells (4) Conservation methods practiced in Zoo and
(3) Both Botanical garden
(4) Nephron Q.12 What is the main reason for increase in temperature
in a glass house ?
Q.5 The human embryo gets nutrition form the mother
(1) Sunlight is completely absorbed by plants in
blood with the help of a special organ called –
the glass house
(1) Zygote (2) Ovary (2) Radiation fails to escape from the glass house
(3) Oviduct (4) Placenta completely
Q.6 Hormones produced in one part of the organism (3) Plants do not utilize sunlight in a glass house
reach the distantly located target via – (4) Plants produce heat inside the glass house
(1) Muscles (2) Bone Q.13 Match the items in column I with those in column
(3) Cartilage (4) Blood II, and select the correct choice.
Column-I Column-II
Q.7 Which of the following are characteristic features
A. Smalls pox I. Bacteria
of cells of meristematic tissue ?
B. Cholera II. Virus
(1) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm,
C. Malaria III. Deficiency of minerals
thick cell all and prominent nuclei
D. Anaemia IV. Female mosquito
(2) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm, (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
thin cell wall and no vacuoles (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) Actively dividing cells with little cytoplasm, (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
thin cell wall and prominent nuclei (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) Actively dividing cells with thin cytoplasm, then Q.14 In the experiment conducted by Mendel, RRyy
cell wall and no vacuoles (round, green) and rrYY (wrinkled, yellow) seeds
Q.8 Which one of the following animals is different of pea plant were used. In the F2 generation 240
from others is not having the parried gill pouches? progeny were produced, out of which 15 progeny
had specific characteristics. What were the
(1) Whale (2) Water snake
characteristics ?
(3) Star fish (4) Sea horse
(1) Round and green (2) Round and yellow
(3) Wrinkle and yellow (4) Wrinkle and green

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Q.15 Total number of neutrons in five moles of water Q.21 An element X reacts with dilute. H2SO4as well as
molecule is – with NaOH to produce salt and H2(g)./ Hence, it
(1) 3.011 × 1021 (2) 2.409 × 1025 may be concluded that –
(3) 3.111 × 1025
(4) 2.711 × 1025 I. X is an electropositive element
II. oxide of X is basic in nature
Q.16 The metal used to recover copper from an
III. oxide of X is acidic in nature
aqueous solution of copper sulphate is -
IV. X is an electronegative element
(1) Na (2) Ag (1) I, II, III (2) IV, I, II
(3) Hg (4) Fe
(3) III, IV, I (4) II, III, IV
Q.17 Four substances were thoroughly mixed with
water separately to obtain mixtures A, B, C and Q.22 An element X has electronic configuration 2, 8, 1
D. Some of their properties are given below : and another element Y has electronic
I. Path of a beam of light passing through it was configuration 2, 8, 7. They form a compound Z.
visible in A, B and D but invisible in C. The property that is not exhibited by Z is –
II. On leaving undisturbed, the particles of the (1) It has high melting point
substance settle down in A but not in B, C (2) It is a good conductor of electricity in its pure
and D. solid state
III. The solute particles are visible to naked eye (3) It breaks into pieces when beaten with hammer
in A but invisible in B, C and D (4) It is soluble in water
Which of the following is correct about A, B, C
and D ? Q.23 The compound containing both ionic and covalent
bond is –
(1) A, B and D are colloids. C is a solution
(1) AlBr3 (2) CaO
(2) A is a suspension. B and D are colloids. C is
(3) MgCl2 (4) NH4Cl
a solution
(3) A is a colloid. B, C and D are solutions
Q.24 The element that cannot be used as a reducing
(4) A is a suspension. B, C and D are colloids
agent is –
Q.18 Assertion (A) : Aluminum foil cannot be used in (1) carbon (2) aluminum
a-particle scattering experiment. (3) sulphur (4) sodium
Reason (R) : Aluminum highly malleable metal.
(1) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct Q.25 Somebody wanted to calculate the number of moles
reason for A of oxygen atoms comprising of 9.033 × 1023 number
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the of its atoms. The person further thought to calculate
correct reason for A. its mass and to find the number of moles of hydrogen
(3) A is correct and R is incorrect atoms required to combined completely with this
(4) A is incorrect and R is correct. amount of oxygen to form water.
The number of moles of oxygen atoms, their mass
Q.19 Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper (in grams) and the number of moles of hydrogen
before making to burn. The reason of rubbing the atoms are -
ribbon is to (1) 1.5, 3 and 24 respectively
(1) Remove moisture condensed over the surface (2) 15, 18 and 3 respectively
of ribbon (3) 0.15, 27, 3 respectively
(2) Generate heat due to exothermic reaction (4) 1.5,2 5 and 3 respectively
(3) Remove magnesium oxide formed over the Q.26 The molecular formula of carboxylic acid that
surface of magnesium differs from the rest is -
(4) Mix silicon from sand paper (silicon dioxide) (1) C13H20O2 (2) C2H2O2
with magnesium for lowering ignition (3) C9H18O2 (4) C7H12O2
temperature of the ribbon
Q.27 Foam of soap always appears white as –
Q.20 The reaction that differs from the rest of the reactions (1) it contains large hydrocarbon chains
given is – (2) it absorbs red portion of the visible light
(1) formation of calcium oxide form limestone (3) it reflects light of all wavelengths
(2) Formation of aluminum from aluminum oxide (4) it has one hydrophobic end, which is insoluble
(3) Formation of sodium carbonate forum sodium in water
hydrogen carbonate
(4) Formation of mercury from mercuric oxide

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Q.28 In a neon gas discharge tube, every second 4.8 Q.33 A ray of light in air is incident on an equilateral
× 1018 Ne+ ions move towards the right through a glass prism at an angle qi to the normal. After
cross-section of the tube, while ‘n’ electrons move refraction, the light travelled parallel to the base
to the left in the same time. If the current in the of prism and emerged in air at an angle qe to the
tube is 1.12. Amperes towards the right, n is equal normal. If the angle between the incident and the
to (given e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb) emergent ray is 60º, then the refractive index of
(1) 1.8 × 1018 (2) 2.2 × 1018 glass with respect to air is –
19
(3) 2.4 × 10 (4) 2.8 × 1919 (1) 1.33 (2) 1.5
(3) 1.73 (4) 1.66
Q.29 Four situations are given below :
I. An infinitely long wire carrying current Q.34 You are standing on the shore of a lake. You
II. A rectangular loop carrying current spot a fish swimming below the lake surface. You
III. A solenoid of finite length carrying current want to kill the fish first by throwing a spear and
IV. A circular loop carrying current next, by pointing a high-power laser torch. How
In which of the above cases will the magnetic should you aim the spear and torch, respectively,
field produced be like that of a bar magnet ? from the options given below :
(1) I (2) I and III I. above the apparent position of the fish
(3) Only III (4) Only IV II. below the apparent position of the fish
III. directly at the apparent position of the fish
Q.30 In the circuit diagram shown below. VA and VB are (1) SPEAR : II ; LASER : III
the potentials at points A and B respectively. (2) SPEAR : I ; LASER : II
Then, VA – VB is – (3) SPEAR : II ; LASER : II
(4) SPEAR : III ; LASER : III

Q.35 A beam of light coming from a rarer medium is
partially reflected form the surface of a denser
medium and partially refracted into the denser
medium. If the reflected and the refracted rays
are perpendicular to each other and the ratio of
the refractive indices of denser and rarer medium
(1) –10V (2) –20V is 3 . The angle of refraction will be -
(3) 0V (4) 10 V (1) 60º (2) 30º
(3) 45º (4) 41.5º
Q.31 Assertion (A) : Motion of a charged particle under Q.36 A person can see clearly on the objects situated
the action of a magnetic field alone is always in the range 50 cm to 300 cm. He went to an
with constant speed. Optometrist who prescribed him a lens of certain
Reason (R) : The magnetic force does not have power to increase the maximum distance of his
any component either along or opposite to the vision to infinity. i.e., it corrected the near-
direction of motion of the charged particles. sightedness. However, upon using the prescribed
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the lens the person discovered that the near point of
reason is the correct explanation of the his vision has shifted from 50 cm to a distance
assertion. “d”. What is the value of d ?
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the (1) 60 cm (2) 100 cm
reason is not the correct explanation of the (3) 40 cm (4) 500 cm
assertion.
(3) Assertion is a true statement, but reason is false. Q.37 A ball of mass m is thrown from a height h with a
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements speed v. For what initial direction of the ball will
its speed on hitting the ground be maximum ?
Q.32 When a charged particle passes through an (1) horizontally
electric field, which among the following properties (2) vertically downwards
change ? (3) at an angle of 45º from the vertical in the
I. mass II. charge downward direction
III. velocity IV. momentum (4) speed does not depend on the direction in
(1) II & III (2) Only III which the ball is thrown
(3) III & IV (4) I, III & IV

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Q.38 A beaker is filled with two non-mixing liquids. The Q.44 The graphs of the equations x –y = 2 and
lower liquid has density twice that of the upper kx + y = 3, where k is a constant, intersect at
one. A cylinder of height h floats with one-fourth the point (x, y) in the first quadrant, if and only if
of its height submerged in the lower liquid and k is
half of its height submerged in the upper liquid. (1) equal to –1
Another beaker is filled with the denser of the
(2) greater than –1
two liquids alone. If the same cylinder is kept in
3
the second beaker, the height of the submerged (3) less than
position would be – 2
3
3h (4) lying between –1 and
(1) h (2) 2
4
h h Q.45 If a and b are the roots of the quadratic equation
(3) (4)
2 4 x2 – 6x –2 = 0 and if an = an – bn, then the value
a 10 - 2a 8
Q.39 A spring-loaded toy sits at rest on horizontal of
2a 9
frictionless surface. When the spring releases,
the toy breaks into three equal-mass pieces A, (1) 6.0 (2) 5.2
B and C, which slide along the surface. Piece A (3) 5.0 (4) 3.0
moves off in the negative x-direction, while piece
B moves off in the negative y-direction. Which of Q.46 If S1, S2, S3 …. Sr, are the sums of first n terms of
the three pieces is moving the fastest ? r arithmetic progressions whose first terms are
(1) A 1, 2, 3, …. and whose common differences are
(2) B 1, 3, 5, …….. respectively, then the value of
(3) C S1 + S2 + S3 + …… + Sr, is
(4) They move with identical speeds nr + 1 nr
nr - 1 nr + 1
(1) (2)
2 2
Q.40 A truck and a car of masses m1 and m2 respectively
are moving with equal kinetic energy. Equal nr - 1 nr n nr + 1
stopping forces are applied and they come to a (3) (4)
2 2
halt after traveling further distances x1 and x2
respectively. Then – Q.47 A person walks towards a tower. Initially when
he starts, angle of elevation of the top of the tower
x1 m1 is 30º. On traveling 20 metres towards the tower,
(1) x1 = x2 (2) =
x2 m2 the angle changes to 60º. How much more has
he to travel to reach the tower?
x1 m1 x1 m2
(3) = (4) = (1) 10 3 metres (2) 10 metres
x2 m2 x2 m1
10
Q.41 On dividing a natural number by 13, the remainder (3) 20 metres (4) metres
3
is 3 and on dividing the same number by 21, the
remainder is 11. If the number lies between 500 Q.48 If cosec x – sin x = a and secx – cosx = b, then
and 600, then the remainder on dividing the 2 2
number by 19 is (1) a 2 b 3 + ab 2 3 =1
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 13 2 2
(2) ab 2 3 + a 2b2 3 =1
Q.42 Expressing 0.34 + 0.34 as a single decimal, we (3) a2 + b2 = 1 (4) b2 – a2 = 1
get
Q.49 A calf is tied with a rope of length 12m at a corner
(1) 0.6788 (2) 0.689
of a rectangular field of dimensions 35m × 25m.
(3) 0.6878 (4) 0.687 If the length of the rope is increased to 23m, then
the additional grassy area in which the calf can
Q.43 If the value of quadratic polynomial p(x) is 0 only 22
graze is : (Take p = )
at x = –1 and p(–2) = 2 then the value of p(2) is 7
(1) 18 (2) 9 (1) 280.0 m2 (2) 300.0 m2
(3) 6 (4) 3 (3) 302.5 m2 (4) 312.5 m2

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Q.50 If Anish is moving along the boundary of a Q.56 ABC is a triangle in which AB = 4cm, BC = 5cm
triangular field of sides 35m, 53m and 66m and and AC = 6cm. A circle is drawn to touch side
you are moving along the boundary of a circular BC at P, side AB extended at Q and side AC
field whose area is double the area of the triangular extended at R. Then AQ equals.
field, then the radius of the circular field is : (Take (1)7.0 cm (2)7.5 cm
22 (3) 6.5 cm (4) 15.0 cm
p= )
7
Q.57 The centre of the circle passing through the points
(1) 14 3m (2) 3 14 m (6, –6), (3, 3) and (3, –7) is
(3) 28 3m (4) 7 3m (1) (3, 2) (2) (–3, –2)
(3) (3, –2) (4) (–3, 2)
Q.51 A circular metallic sheet is divided into two parts
in such a way that each part can be folded into a Q.58 If the line segment joining (2, 3) and (–1, 2) is
cone. If the ratio of their curved surface areas is divided internally in the ratio 3 : 4 by the graph of
1 : 2, then the ratio of their volumes is the equation x + 2y = k , the value of k is
(1) 1: 8 (2) 1 : 6 5 31
(1) (2)
(3) 1: 10 (4) 2 : 3 7 7
36 41
Q.52 A solid metallic block of volume one cubic metre (3) (4)
7 7
is melted and recast into the form of a rectangular
bar of length 9 metres having a square base. If Q.59 The mean of three positive numbers is 10 more
the weight of the block is 90 kg and a biggest than the smallest of the numbers and 15 less
cube is cut off from the bar, then the weight of than the largest of the three. If the median of the
the cube is three numbers is 5, then the mean of squares of
1 2 the numbers is
(1) 6 kg (2) 5 kg
3 3 2 2
2 (1) 108 (2) 116
1 3 3
(3) 4 kg (4) 3 kg
3 3 2 2
Q.53 Two circles with centres P and R touch each other (3) 208 (4) 216
3 3
exernally at O. A line passing through O cuts the Q.60 Three dice are thrown simultaneously. The
circles at T and S respectively. Then, probability of getting a total of at least 5 of the
(1) PT and RS are of equal length numbers appearing on their tops is
(2) PT and RS are perpendicular to each other 5 7
(3) PT and RS are intersecting (1) (2)
54 54
(4) PT and RS are parallel 49 53
(3) (4)
Q.54 If in triangle ABC, D is the mid-point of side BC, 54 54
ÐADB = 45º and ÐACD = 30º, then ÐBAD and
ÐABC are respectively equal to Q.61 Match the following
(1) 15º, 105º (2) 30º, 105º A. Livre I. A tax levied by the Church
(3) 30º, 100º (4) 60º, 100º
B. Manor II. An estate of Lord' s lands and his mansions
Q.55 Three circles with radii R1, R2 and r tough each C. Tithe III. Tax to be paid directly to the State
other externally as shown in the adjoining figure. D. Taille IV. Unit of currency
If PQ is their common tangent and R1 > R2, then
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
which of the following relations is correct?
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Q.62 Assertion (A) : After the 1905 revolution in Russia,
Duma or the first elected consultative Parliament
came into existence.
Reason (R) : The power of Tsar was curbed by it
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(1) R1 – R2 = r (2) R1 + R2 = 2r
1 1 1 (3) A is true and R is false
1 1 1 + =
(3) + = (4) (4) A is false and R is true
R1 R 2 r R1 R2 r
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Q.63 Arrange in correct chronological order Q.69 Find out the correct statements with regards to
I. Dawes Plan Rowlatt Act.
II. Crashing of the Wall Street Exchange I. The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919
III. Birth of Weimar Republic II. The Act was passed by Imperial Legislative
IV. Creation of Gestapo (Secret State Police) Council
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) III, II, I, IV III. The Act allowed detention of Political prisoners
(3) IV, II, III, I (4) III, I, II, IV without trial of three years.
Q.64 Assertion (A) : Cricket as a game has a long IV. Protests against the Act led to Jallianwalla
and strong rural connection. Bagh massacre in April 1920.
Reason (R) : The time limit of a match and (1) Only II and III are correct
vagueness about the size of Cricket ground is a (2) Only I and III are correct
result of the rhythms of village life. (3) Only III and IV are correct
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) Only I and II are correct
explanation of A Q.70 Assertion (A) : Population growth from the late
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct eighteenth century increased the demand for food
explanation of A grains in Britain.
(3) A is true and R is false
Reason (R) : ‘Corn Laws’ introduced by the
(4) A is false and R is true
government helped in reducing the food prices.
Q.65 Assertion (A) : In the 17th and 18th Century merchants (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation
from the towns in Europe started financing of A
peasants and artisans in the country side for (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct
production for them. explanation of A
Reason (R) : In the urban centres powerful crafts
(3) A is True and R is False
and trade guilds with monopoly rights restricted
(4) A is False and R is True
the entry of new people into the trade.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation
of A Q.71 Match the following
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct A Gallery I. Old Name of Tokyo
explanation of A Contained six sheets of text and
(3) A is True and R is False B. Edo II.
wood cut illustrations
(4) A is False and R is True
Metal Frame in which types are
C. Vellum III.
Q.66 Assertion (A) : Colonial Forest Act changed the laid and the text composed
lives of villagers across the country. Diamond A parchment made from skin of
D. IV.
Reason (R) : Now the villagers could comfortably Sutra animals
make use of the forest resources for everyday (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
needs.
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation
of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct Q.72 Given below are statements regarding the course
explanation of A of development of Socialism in Europe. Arrange
(3) A is True and R is False them in chronological sequence.
(4) A is False and R is True I. Socialists took over the government in Russia
Q.67 Arrange the following events of nineteenth century through the October Revolution.
Europe in ascending order. II. Socialists and trade unionists formed a labour
I. Unification of Germany party in Britain and Socialist party in France.
II. Beginning of Greek struggle for independence
III. The Russian Social Democratic Worker’s
III. Unification of Italy
IV. Vienna Peace Settlement Party was founded by Socialists who
(1) III, I, II, IV (2) IV, II, III, I respected Marx’s ideas.
(3) I, III, IV, II (4) IV, III, I, II IV. Socialists could not succeed in forming a
Q.68 Arrange the following events descending order government in Europe and governments
with regard Nationalist Movement in Indo-China. continued to be run by conservatives, liberals
I. Creation of Indo-China union and radicals.
II. Formation of Communist Party in Vietnam V. Second International was formed to coordinate
III. Paris Peace Treaty the efforts of socialists throughout Europe.
IV. Declaration of independence by Ho Chi Minh
(1) V, III, II, IV, I (2) I, II, III, IV, V
(1) III, IV, II, I (2) III, IV, I, II
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, II, IV, III (3) V, II, III, I, IV (4) IV, V, III, I, II

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Q.73 Hitler’s ideology related to the geopolitical Q.78 Arrange the shaded states shown on the map of
concept of Lebensraum, or living space implied: India in descending order of population density
(1) There was no equality between people, but and select the right code.
only a racial hierarchy (1) II, I, IV, III
(2) Only those species survived on earth that could
adapt themselves to changing climatic
conditions (2) I, II, III, IV
(3) New territories had to be acquired for
settlement to increase the area of the mother (3) I, II, IV, III
country
(4) An exclusive racial community of pure Germans
(4) I, IV, II, III
to be created by physically elimination all those
who were seen as undesirable.
Q.79 Which of the following figure is showing the
Q.74 During the mid-eighteenth century
Assertion (A) : Indian spinners and weaves were correct direction of movement of the South
left without work and important centres of textile American Plate?
declined
Reason (R) : Large number of people began
boycotting British cloth and started adopting
khadi.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation (1) (2)
of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct
explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True
Q.75 Assertion (A) : Mahatma Gandhi called off the
Civil Disobedience Movement and entered into a (3) (4)
Pact with Irwin in 1931.
Reason (R) : Industrial workers in Sholapur
attacked structures that symbolized British rule.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation Q.80 Based on the data (elevation and latitude)
of A provided below which of the following tourist
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct
centers is most probably indicated?
explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False Elevation : 3500 meters
(4) A is False and R is True Latitude : 34°N
Q.76 Assertion (A) : The latitudinal extent influences (1) Shillong (2) Mussoorie
the duration of day and night, as one moves from (3) Kodaikanal (4) Leh
south to north of India
Reason (R) : From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh Q.81 Keeping in mind the location of the following
there is a time lag of two hours. sanctuaries/national park of India, arrange them
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation from south to north:
of A I. Periyar, II. Dachigam, III. Sariska, IV. Kanha
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct (1) I, IV, II, III (2) III, I, IV, II
explanation of A (3) IV, I, III, II (4) I, IV, III, II
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True Q.82 Match list I (Revolution) with list II (Area) and
select the correct answer using the codes given
Q.77 Assertion (A) : Kharif crops are grown with the
onset of monsoon in different parts of India and below :
harvested in September October. List I (Re volution) List II (Area)
Reason (R): Availability of precipitation due to A. Blue I. Dairy development
the western temperate cylcones helps in growing B. Green II. Fisheries development
of these crops. C. White III. Food produc tion
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation D. Yellow IV. Silk produc tion
of A
(1) A-II, B-III, C-VI, D-I
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct
explanation of A (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A is True and R is False (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A is False and R is True (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
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Q.83 Assertion (A) : The availability of water resources Q.88 Which one of the following facts about the shaded
varies over space and time in India. state shown below is incorrect?
Reason (R) : Water availability is governed by
variations in seasonal and annual precipitation
although water scarcity is aggravated by over –
exploitation and unequal access to water among
different social groups.
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation
of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct
explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True
Q.84 Match list I (Type of Resource) with list II (Basis (1) Terrace cultivation is widespread in the hill
of Classification) and select the codes given areas
below: (2) The state is a major producer of uranium
(3) Population density is well below the national
average
(4) More than 80 per cent of the area has forest
as the land cover
Q.89 The topic of Cancer passes through which of the
following plateau?
(1) Only Malwa
(2) Only Chotanagpur
(3) Only Maghalaya
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) Both malwa and Chotanagar
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Q.90 Assertion (A) : The Coriolis force is responsible
Q.85 Which one of the following is the correct order of
for deflecting winds towards the right in the
rivers from north to south ?
northern hemisphere and towards the left in the
(1) Ravi, Chenab, Jhelum, Indus
(2) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi southern hemisphere.
(3) Jhelum, Indus, Ravi, Chenab Reason (R) : The pressure and wind system of
(4) Chenab, Ravi, Indus, Jhelum any area depend on the latitude and altitude of
the place.
Q.86 Match list I (National Highways of India) with list II
(1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation
(Description) and select the codes given below :
of A
(2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct
explanation of A
(3) A is True and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True
Q.91 W hich of the following arguments against
prescribing educational qualification for elected
representatives are true ?
I. Educational qualification will deprive illiterate
citizens of the right to contest elections.
II. Relevant qualification for being elected
representatives is not education but ability
to address people’s problems.
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
III. Educated elected representatives keep
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
distance from the common people.
Q.87 Which of the following statement is NOT true to IV. It is easier for the educated elected
the context of Mawsynram? representatives to use power for personal gains.
(1) It is considered as the wettest lace on the V. It should be left to the voters to decide how
earth much importance is to be given to educational
(2) It ........ with stalagmites and ......
qualification of a candidate.
(3) It is located very close to Cherrapunji
(1) I, II and IV only (2) I, III and V only
(4) It is located very close to the Myanmar border
(3) I, IV and V only (4) I, II and V only

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Q.92 Which of the following terms were inserted in the Q.97 Which of these activities contributes to India’s
Preamble to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd national income?
Amendment Act, I. Cooking at home
I. Integrity II. A teacher teaching his children at home
II. Secular III. A doctor prescribing medicines in a clinic
III. Socialist IV. Cooking in a restaurant
IV. Unity (1) I and II (2) II and III
(1) I, III and IV (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) I and IV
(3) I, II and III (4) I, II and IV
Q.98 In an imaginary economy the monetary value of
Q.93 Which of the following international institutions contributions of primary sector, public sector,
has a more democratic way of decision-making secondary sector and service sector are Rs 100,
on matters of global importance? Rs 25, Rs 28 and Rs 77 respectively. The gross
(1) General Assembly of the United Nations domestic product of the economy is :
(2) International Monetary Fund (1) Rs 100 (2) Rs 205
(3) Security Council of the United Nations (3) Rs 153 (4) Rs 230
(4) World Bank
Q.99 Four families in a village, which has only a ration
Q.94 Which of the following factors have contributed shop, have access to foodgrains as shown in the
to changes in the caste system? table. Identify the families that lack food security
I. Economic development
Food Food Mone y available to Posse ssin
II. Language Family require me grain e ach family for g Ration
III. Education nt in k g price/k g bying food grains card
IV. Elections A 50 10 600 YES
V. Region B 30 10 330 NO
(1) I, III and IV (2) II, IV and V C 20 10 180 YES
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, III and V D 40 10 400 YES
(1) A and B (2) B and C
Q.95 Match list I with List II and select the answer
(3) C and D (4) D and A
using the codes given below.
Q.100 Robinson Crusoe goes to sea with a net for
fishing. Classify the factors of production and
choose the appropriate option given below.

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Q.96 Calculate the female literacy rate from the given
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
data
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Gender Total persons Lite rate Pe rsons
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Males 1200 1050
Females 580 340
Total 1780 1390
(1) 32.5 (2) 19.1
(3) 58.6 (4) 28.3

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Roll No. NTSE 17_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2017
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.

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NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)-2017
1. Some translated words in an artificial Language
(in which the word order is not necessarily same)
are given below
mie pie sie good person sing
pie sie rie sing good lyrics
tie rie sie love good lyrics
What is the translation for “person love lyrics” ?
(1) pie tie rie (2) tie rie sie
Which of the following figures represents the
(3) rie mie tie (4) sie mie pie
correct balance ?
2. In the given sequence, some letters are missing.
Which of the given options can fill the blanks in (1)
the correct order from left to right ?
ab_ab_aaa_bbaaa_bbbb (2)
(1) abab (2) abba (3) aabb
(4) baba
(3)
3. Identify the number in the position of‘?’
(4)

7. Choose appropriate option from given alternatives
such that the relationship defined by ':' is
(1) 24 (2) 28 preserved.
(3) 32 (4) 36 PNIJ : LIFC and VTRP : __________
(1) ROLI (2) SOLH
4. Find the missing number. (3) RPOM (4) DMEN

8. A coin is in a fixed position. Another identical
coin is rolled around the edge of the first one.
How many complete revolutions will be made by
the revolving coin before it reaches its starting
(1) 184 (2) 210 position ?
(3) 421 (4) 425

5. If A, B, C, D are distinct decimal digits, then
which of the following options is correct ?

(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) A = 3 B=7 C =5 D = 9 (3) 3 (4) 4
(2) A = 2 B=3 C =6 D = 5
(3) A = 3 B=8 C =6 D = 5 9. If South-East becomes North; and North-East
(4) A = 2 B=3 C =5 D = 7 becomes West; then West becomes
(1) North - East (2) South - East
6. Observe the following figures representing a (3) North - West (4) South - West
balance.

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10. A cube is 6 cm in length, breadth and height. It 17. If ‘S’ means ‘x, ‘d’ means ‘¸’, 's' means ‘+’ and
is painted red on two opposite faces, black on ‘ µ ’ means ‘–’ then evaluate the following
the other two opposite faces and green on the expression using standard operator precedence.
left over faces. It is then cut into 216 cubes of 56d(6 s 8)S 4 µ 1
side 1 cm. How many small cubes have no face (1) 52 (2) 24
painted ? (3) 15 (4) 43
(1) 16 (2) 8
18. With what operators, should the symbols @ and <
(3) 64 (4) 24
be replaced so that the following expression is valid.
11. Find the odd-one out of the following terms : 100 – 81 ¸ 27 @ 3< 6 = 115
EF22, JK42. GH24. VW90, IJ38 (1) + and – (2) x and ¸
(3) + and x (4) ¸ and –
12. Choose the conclusions which logically follow
from the given statements. 19. x is an integer such that it leaves a remainder of
Statement : 2 when divided by 3, leaves a remainder of 3
All the pens are papers when divided by 5, and leaves a remainder of 5
All the papers are boats when divided by 7. What could be a possible
Some birds are boats. value of x from among the following options ?
Conclusions : (1) 53 (2) 68
(A) Some boats are pens (3) 74 (4) 83
(B) Some birds are papers 20. In how many ways can you distribute 10 identical
(C) None of the pens are birds balls into two non-identical boxes so that none
(1) Only A and B (2) Only A are empty?
(3) Only C (4) Only A and C (1) 2 (2) 8
13. How many quadrilaterals are there in the given (3) 9 (4) 10
figure ? 21. One line forms two regions in a plane. Similarity,
two lines in a plane can form a maximum of four
regions. These are shown in the figures below :

(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 12 (4) 13

14. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place
of ‘M’ ?
255, 3610, 4915, M, 8125
(1) 5100 (2) 5420
(3) 6420 (4) 6422

15. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place
of ‘M’ ?
L6, 08, R11, M, X25, A42, D75
(1) U15 (2) U16
(3) W14 (4) U14
What is the maximum number of regions that
16. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place can be formed by 4 lines in a plane ? Lines need
of ‘M’ ? not be concurrent.
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 10 (4) 11
22. You need to take n arbitrary points on or inside
a square of side 2 cm such that there will always
be a pair of points at a distance of not more than
2 cm. What is the minimum value of n ?
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 5 (4) 8
(3) 4 (4) 3

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23. The following facts are known about an unknown 28. Choose the option which shows the correct mirror
number X : image of the characters given below.
I : The sum of digits of X is 15. DIVERT6475ALE
II: The unit’s digit of X is 6.
(1)
Then which of the following statement is certainly
true about X ? (2)
(1) X is divisible by 3 but not by 6 (3)
(2) X is divisible by 6 but not by 9 (4)
(3) X is not divisible by 6 but divisible by 9
(4) X is divisible by both 6 and 9 Direction (Questions 29-30)

24. The average age of A, B and C is 43 years. Which There are 150 students in a class. 20 students
of the following statements are required to find play both hockey and kabaddi. The same
the eldest among them ? numbers of students play only football. 35
Statements: students play both hockey and football but not
I : Age of C is 65 years. II: Age of A is 25 years. kabaddi. 25 play both football and kabaddi but
(1) I is sufficient not hockey. The number of students who play
(2) Both I and II are required only hockey is the same as the number of
(3) I and II together are not sufficient students who do not play any of three mentioned
(4) II is sufficient games and the number of students who play only
hockey is half of the number of students who
Direction (Questions 25-26) play only football.
A class is to be taught five subjects - Hindi,
29. How many students play only kabaddi ?
Physics, Chemistry, Biology and Mathematics
(1) 10 (2) 20
by five different teachers-A, B, C, D and E in five
(3) 30 (4) 40
periods (1 to 5). A teacher can teach in only one
of the periods. The following details are available 30. How many students play only hockey?
about the teaching. (1) 10 (2) 15
• A teaches mathematics which is not taught (3) 20 (4) 25
in the first period. 31. What will be the number in the blank box?
• Physics is taught by D in an even numbered period.
• Chemistry is taught in an odd period, and it
precedes mathematics period.
• E teaches in the first period. (1) 98 (2) 128
• C teaches Chemistry but not in the first or (3) 189 (4) 194
the last periods. 32. What is the total number of circles in the figure
• Hindi is taught in the last period. given below?

25. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?
(1) Third period is of Hindi taught by B
(2) Second period is of Physics taught by C
(3) Fourth period is of Mathematics taught by A (1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 16
(4) Fifth period of Biology taught by D 33. A bucket contains milk mixed with water, of which
3 parts are water and 5 parts are milk. A part of
26. Which subject is taught by B ?
the mixture is removed from the bucket and is
(1) Physics (2) Chemistry replaced by water. What portion of the mixture
(3) Biology (4) Hindi should have been removed so that the new mix
contains milk and water in equal proportion?
27. A solid metallic cylinder of radius 12 cm and
1 1
height 175 cm is melted and moulded into another (1) (2)
3 4
solid cylinder of height 63 cm. What is the radius
1 1
of the new cylinder? (3) (4)
5 6
(1)14 (2) 4p (3) 20 (4) 5p

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34. You need to colour the circles in such a way that no 39. In the question given below, there are two
two circles connected by a line get the same colour. statements followed by two conclusions. You
What is the minimum number of distinct colours have to take the given statements to be true even
needed to colour all the circles in the figure? if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions, and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements?
Statements:
Some kings are queens
All the queens are beautiful.
(1) 4 (2) 5 Conclusions:
(3) 6 (4) 7 I. All the kings are beautiful
II. All the queens are kings.
35. From each box you can move only to the (1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows
immediate right box or the immediate top box. (3) Neither I nor II follows (4) Both I and II follow
You cannot move into or through a shaded box.
40. If prime numbers are assigned to English alphabets
How many ways are there to move from the box
from A to Z in order MAT will be :
marked S to the box marked D ?
(1) 31 1 67 (2) 41 1 67
(3) 37 2 71 (4)41 2 71

41. What number comes inside the square in place
of ‘X’

(1) 11 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4)14

36. Which number will come in the place of ‘M’ ?

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8

42. Find the alphabet that will replace ‘?’

(1) 21 (2) 32 (1) A (2) D (3) O (4) N
(3) 40 (4) 63
43. In a certain language IMPHAL is coded as
JLRFDI. How will MYSURU be coded in the same
37. The square of the length of a rod AB is 72 cm2. If
language?
we place the rod in the corner of a room, so that
(1) NXUSUR (2) RUSUXN
the end A is always on the edge between the
(3) NXSUUR (4) NXTTUR
two walls of the corner and the end B is always
on the floor, what is the maximum possible area 44. What time should the IV clock show?
of the triangle formed by the rod, the edge
between the walls and the floor?
(1) 6 cm 2 (2) 12 cm 2
2
(3) 18 cm (4) 24 cm 2

38. What is the missing term “?” in the following series?
2 , 6 , 6 , 5 , 10 , 4 , 14 , 3 , 18 , ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 19 (4) 22
(1) 1:00 (2) 1:20
(3) 1:40 (4) 2:00
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45. How many crosses should be there in the box 49. Mrs. Kirandeep, a driving instructor, has to
marked with '?'? arrange training schedule for some of her pupils.
She has 8 new pupil who wish to book either a
morning or evening of a particular day. The
appointment can be given for Tuesday,
(1) 1 (2) 2 Wednesday, Friday and Saturday. The instructor
(3) 3 (4) 4 instructs only one pupil in morning and one in
the evening session.
46. Find the missing term. • Mrs. Sabita is only available Tuesday morning
a, b, d, _,p but Mr. Aaditya can make any time on a
(1) h (2) i Wednesday.
(3) j (4) k • Mrs. Firdaus is free on Tuesday all day but
Mr. Naved is only free Wednesday evening.
47. A is East of B and West of C, D is South-West • Mrs. Seema is only available Friday morning
of C, and B is South-East of E. whereas Mrs. Ritu can only make Saturday
When seen from West to East, which of the evening.
following sequences are possible? • Mrs. Shalu is available all day Fridays whereas
I: EBDAC Mr. Ronald can make any time on a Saturday.
II: DEBAC Which of the following two should have morning
III: EBADC appointments ?
IV: EDBAC (1) Mr. Ronald and Mrs. Shalu
(1) I and III (2) I, III and IV (2) Mr. Ronald and Mrs. Firdaus
(3) I, II and III (4) all, I, II, III and IV (3) Mr. Aaditya and Mrs. Firdaus
(4) Mr. Aaditya and Mr. Ronald
48. A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row. C and D
cannot be on adjacent seat. Also, B cannot be
50. Just before sunset Veena and Zeba were talking
at the third place. Which of the following must
to each other standing face-to-face. If Veena
be false?
sees Zeba’s shadow to be exactly towards the
(1) A is at the fourth place
right of Zeba, which direction was Veena facing?
(2) A is at the third place
(1) South (2) North
(3) A is at the second place
(3) East (4) North-East
(4) A is at the first place

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Roll No. NTSE 17_SAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2017
(For student Studying in Class-10)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates

Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions

1. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the
appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.

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NTSE STAGE_II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)-2017
1. Small cut pieces of soft stems are placed in 7. Varieties of vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli
growth medium with following plant hormones. and cauliflower have been produced from a wild
Which combination of plant hormones will show cabbage species. Such process of producing
slowest growth? new varieties of living organisms in called
(1) Auxin + Cytokinin (1) Natural selection (2) Artificial selection
(2) Gibberellins + Auxin (3) Speciation (4) Genetic drift
(3) Gibberellins + Cytokinin
8. Which of the following are pairs of analogous
(4) Abscisic Acid + Auxin
organs?
2. Which one of the following demonstrates the I. Forelimbs of horse - Wings of bat
characteristics of cardiac muscle cells? II. Wings of bat - Wings of butterfly
(1) Involuntary and multinucleated III. Forelimbs of horse - Wings of butterfly
(2) Unbranched and uninucleated IV. Wings of bird - Wings of bat
(3) Cylindrical and uninucleated (1) I & II (2) II & IV
(4) Unbranched and involuntary (3) III & IV (4) II & III
3. From the given figure identify the part of human 9. Which of the following organisms is used as a
brain controlling most of the involuntary actions: biopesticide?
(1) Azolla (2) Anabaena
(3) Rhizobium (4) Trichoderma
10. A tall plant(TT) is crossed with a dwarf plant(tt).
All F1 plants showed tall phenotype. Which of
the following correctly defines a test cross?
(1) TT(F1) x Tt(P) (2) Tt(F1) x Tt(P)
(3) tt(F1) x Tt(P) (4) Tt(F1) x tt(P)

(1) A & B (2) B & C 11. Which one of the following pairs of causative
(3) C & D (4) D & A agent and type of disease are correct?
I. Leishmania - Sleeping sickness
4. An animal kept in a jar has the following features. II. Nematode - Elephantiasis
I. It is bilaterally symmetrical III. Trypanosoma - Kala azar
II. It has coelomic cavity
IV. Staphylococcus - Acne
III. The body is segmented (1) I & II (2) I & III
IV. It has jointed appendages (3) II & IV (4) III & IV
To which phylum does the animal belong to?
(1) Arthropoda (2) Annelida 12. Pancreatic juice contains more than one enzyme.
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Mollusca W hich among the following combination is
correct?
5. Read the following statements and select the
(1) Pepsin and lipase (2) Amylase and pepsin
correct option. (3) Pepsin and trypsin (4) Trypsin and lipase
Statement I: Nostoc and Bacteria are prokaryotes
Statement II. Penicillium and Spirogyra are fungi 13. You discover a new species of a plant. You also
(1) Only statement I is true discover that it produces motile sperms and
(2) Only statement II is true dominant generation has diploid cells. It belongs
(3) Both statements I & II are true to
(4) Both statements I & II are false (1) Bryophyte (2) Angiosperm
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Pteridophyte
6. You find a herbaceous flowering plant growing in
your school garden having leaves with parallel 14. At every 20 minutes, one bacterium divide into
venation. Choose the correct additional features two. How many bacteria will be produced after
the given plant would be possessing. two hours, if one starts with 10 bacteria?
I. It has no secondary vascular tissues (1) 25 × 10 (2) 25 × 105
II. Its flower possesses three sepals (3) 26 × 10 (4) 26 × 106
III. It possesses tap root 15. The metal(M) forms an oxide, M2O3. The formula
IV. Its embryo has 2 cotyledons of its nitride will be
(1) I & II (2) I & III (1) M2N3 (2) MN
(3) II & IV (4) III & IV (3) M2N (4) M3N2

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16. A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or 23. A part of the modern periodic table is presented
more substances. Which of the following is a below in which the alphabets represent the
solution? symbols of elements.
(1) Milk (2) Smoke
(3) Brass (4) Face cream
17. 1.80 g of glucose is dissolved in 36.00 g of water
in a beaker. The total number of oxygen atoms in
the solution is
(1) 12.405 × 1023 (2) 12.405 × 1022
23
(3) 6.022 × 10 (4) 6.022 × 1022
18. 35Cl and 37Cl are the two isotopes of chlorine, in Consult the above part of the periodic table to
the ratio 3 : 1 respectively. If the isotope ratio is predict which of the following is a covalent
reversed, the average atomic mass of chlorine compound.
will be : (1) RQ2 (2) AT
(1) 35.0 u (2) 35.5 u (3) JQ (4) JX2
(3) 36.0 u (4) 36.5 u
24. A compound ‘X’ reacts with a compound ‘Y’, to
19. The turmeric solution will turn red by an aqueous produce a colourless and odourless gas. The gas
solution of turns lime water milky. When ‘X’ reacts with
(1) potassium acetate (2) copper sulphate methanol in the presences of concentrated
(3) sodium sulphate (4) ferric chloride H2SO4, a sweet smelling substance is produced.
The molecular formula of the compound ‘X’ is
20. A metal ‘M’ of moderate reactivity is present as
(1) C2H4O (3) C2H6O
its sulphide ‘X’. On heating in air, ‘X’ converts
(2) C2H4O2 (4) C2H6O2
into its oxide, ‘Y’ and a gas evolves. On heating
‘Y’ and ‘X’ together, the metal. ‘M’ is produced. 25. The schematic diagram is given below :
‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are
(1) ‘X’ = cuprous sulphide, ‘Y’ = cuprous oxide
(2) ‘X’ = cupric sulphide, ‘Y’ = cupric oxide
(3) ‘X’ = sodium sulphide, ‘Y’ = sodium oxide
(4) ‘X’ = calcium sulphide, ‘Y’ = calcium oxide

21. Which one of the following statement is incorrect
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
about graphite and diamond?
(1) A and E are chemically same
(1) Graphite is smooth and slippery
(2) A and D are chemically same
(2) Diamond is good conductor of heat
(3) D and E are chemically same
(3) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
(4) C and E are chemically same
(4) Physical and chemical properties of graphite
and diamond are different 26. Which of the following is a feasible reaction?
(1) Ba (s) + K2SO4 (aq)¾® BaSO4 (aq) + 2K (s)
22. The functional groups present in the following
(2) Zn (s) + 2 AgNO3 (aq) ¾® Zn(NO3 )2 (aq) +
compound are
2Ag (s)
(3) Mg (s) + Na2SO4 (aq) ¾®MgSO4 (aq) + 2Na (s)
(4) Cu (s) + MgSO4 (aq) ¾® CuSO4 (aq) + Mg (s)

27. Some ice pieces kept at a temperature -5°C are
heated gradually to 100°C in a beaker. The
temperatures of the contents are plotted against
time. The correct plot is :
(1) alcohol, ketone and ester
(2) ester and carboxylic acid
(3) carboxylic acid and ketone
(4) ester and alcohol
(1)

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29. To read a poster on a wall, a person with defective
vision needs to stand at a distance of 0.4 m from
the poster. A person with normal vision can read
the poster from a distance of 2.0 m. Which one
(2)
of the following lens may be used to correct the
defective vision?
(1) A concave lens of 0.5 D
(2) A concave lens of 1.0 D
(3) A concave lens of 2.0 D
(4) A convex lens of 2.0 D
(3)
30. A ball released from rest at time t = 0 hits the
ground. It rebounds inelastically with a velocity 5
ms-1 and reaches the top at t = 1.5 s, what is
the net displacement of the ball from its initial
position after 1.5 s?
(g = 10 ms–2)
(4)

28. The velocity-time graph of an object moving along
a straight line is shown below :

(1) 1.25 m (3) 5.00 m
(2) 3.75 m (4) 6.25 m
31. A horizontal jet of water is made to hit a vertical
wall with a negligible rebound. If the speed of water
from the jet is u, the diameter of the jet is ‘d’ and
Which one of the following graphs represents the
the density of water is ‘r’ then the force exerted
acceleration(a)–time(t) graph for the above
on the wall by the jet of water is
motion?
p 2 p 2 2
(1) d ru (2) d ru
4 4

p 2 2 p 2 2
(1) (3) d ru (4) d ru
8 2

32. Two blocks A and B of masses 8 kg and 2 kg
respectively, lie on a horizontal frictionless surface
as shown in the figure. They are pushed by a
horizontally applied force of 15 N. The force
(2) exerted by B on A is

(3)
(1) 1.5 N (2) 3.0 N
(3) 4.5 N (4) 6.0 N

(4)

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33. A beaker half-filled with water is put on a platform 38. A vessels is filled with oil as shown in the diagram.
balance which is then set to zero. A 800 g mass A ray of light from point O at the bottom of vessels
is immersed partially in water using a spring is incident on the oil - air interface at point P and
balance as shown in the figure. If the spring grazes the surface along PQ. The refractive index
balance reads 300 g, what will be the reading on of the oil is closed to -
the platform balance?

(1) 1.41 (3) 1.63
(2) 1.50 (4) 1.73
39. A charged particle placed in an electric fields falls
from rest through a distance d in time t. If the
charge on the particle is doubled, the time of fall
(1) 200 g (2) 300 g (3) 500 g (4) 800 g through the same distance will be
34. An object falls a distance H in 50 s when dropped (1) 2t (2) t
on the surface of the earth. How long would it t t
take for the same object to fall through the same (3) (4)
2 2
distance on the surface of a planet whose mass
and radius are twice that of the earth? (Neglect 40. AB is a long wire carrying a current l1, and PQRS
air resistance) is a rectangular loop carrying current I2 (as shown
(1) 35.4 s (2) 50.0 s (3) 70.7 s (4) 100.0 s in the figure)
35. A source produces sound waves under water.
Waves travel through water and then into air.
Which of the following statements about the
frequency(f) and the wavelength(l) is correct as
sound passed from water to air?
(1) f remains unchanged but l decreases
(2) f remains unchanged but l increases
(3) l remains unchanged but f decreases
(4) l remains unchanged but f increases
36. The diameter of a wire is reduced to one-fifth of
its original value by stretching it. If its initial Which among the following statements are
resistance is R, what would be its resistance after correct?
reduction of the diameter? (1) Arm PQ will get attracted to wire AB, and the
arm RS will get repelled from wire AB
R R
(1) (2) (3) 25 R (4) 625 R (2) Arm PQ will get repelled from wire AB and
625 25 arm RS attracted to wire AB.
37. An object of mass ‘m’ moving along a straight (3) Forces on the arm PQ and RS will be unequal
line with a velocity ‘u’ collides with a heavier mass the opposite.
‘M’ and gets embedded into it. If the compound (4) Forces on the arms QR and SP will be zero
system of mass (M + m) keeps moving in the same (1) Only A (2) B and C
direction then which of the given options is true? (3) A and C (4) B and D
(1) The kinetic energies before and after collision
41. The sum of all the possible remainders which
are same
can be obtained when the cube of a natural
1
(2) The kinetic energy after collision is (M + m)u2 number is divided by 9, is
2 (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9
(3) There will be a loss of kinetic energy to
1 m2 u2 42. When a polynomial p(x) is divided by x –1, the
2 (M + m) remainder is 3. When p(x) is divided by x –3, the
(4) There will be a loss of kinetic energy to remainder is 5. If r(x) is the remainder when p(x) is
divided by (x –1) (x–3), then the value of r(–2) is
1 M2
u2 (1) –2 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) 4
2 (M + m)

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43. For what value of p, the following pair of linear 51. Three circular wires are attached in series such
equations in two variables will have infinitely many that, if one wire is rotated, other two also get
solutions? px + 3y - (p -3) = 0 4
12x +py - p = 0 rotated. If the diameter of a wire is times that
5
(1) 6 (2) –6 of immediate left wire and the left most wire
(3) 0 (4) 2 rotates at the speed of 32 revolutions per minute,
then the number of revolutions made by right most
44. Two quadratic equations x2 - bx + 6 = 0 and wire per minute will be
x2 – 6x + c = 0 have a common root. If the (1) 40 (2) 49
remaining roots of the first and second equations (3) 50 (4) 60
are positive integers and are in the ratio 3:4
52. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. If the co -
respectively, then the common root is
ordinates of A are (1, 2) and co–ordinates of B
(1) 1 (2) 2
are (2,–1) then
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) C cannot lie in the first quadrant
45. First term of an arithmetic progression is 2. If the (2) C cannot lie in the second quadrant
sum of its first five terms is equal to one-fourth of (3) C is the origin
the sum of the next five terms, then the sum of (4) C cannot lie in the third quadrant
its first 30 terms is
53. Shyam wants to make a solid brick shape
(1) 2670 (2) 2610
structure from 400 wooden cubes of unit volume
(3) –2520 (4) –2550
each. If the sides of the solid brick have the ratio
46. A circle C is drawn inside a square S so that the 1 : 2 : 3, then the maximum number of cubes,
four sides of S are tangents to C. An equilateral which can be used, will be
triangle T is drawn inside C with its vertices on (1) 400 (2) 288
C. If the area of S is k times the are of T, then the (3) 300 (4) 384
value of k is
54. Positive integers from 1 to 21 are arranged in 3
16 16 groups of 7 integers each, in some particular
(1) (2)
3 3 3 order. Then the highest possible mean of the
32 32 median of these 3 groups is
(3) (4)
3 3 3 (1) 16 (2) 12.5
47. Let AP be a diameter of a circle of radius r and (3) 11 (4) 14
PT be the tangents to the circle at the point P 55. On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by a 3-digit
such that the line AT intersects the circle at B. If number N, we get the same remainder in each
PT = 8 units and BT = 4 units, then r is equal to case. The sum of the digits of N is
(1) 4 3 units (2) 4 units (1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 12 (4) 13
4
(3) units (4) 2 3 units 56. A line l passing through the origin makes an angle q
3
with positive direction of x–axis such that
48. If the quadratic equation x2 + bx + 72 = 0 has
3
two distinct integer roots, then the number of all sinq = . The co–ordinates of the point, which
possible values for b is 5
lies in the fourth quadrant at a unit distance from
(1) 12 (2) 9
the origin and perpendicular to l are
(3) 15 (4) 18
49. If the area of a square inscribed in a semicircle is æ3 4ö æ4 3ö
(1) ç , – ÷ (2) ç , – ÷
2 cm2, then the area of the square inscribed in a è 5 5 ø è 5 5 ø
full circle of the same radius is (3) (3, –4) (4) (4, –3)
(1) 5 cm2 (2) 10 cm2
57. The values(s) of k for which x2 + 5kx + k2 + 5 is
(3) 5 2 cm2 (4) 25 cm2 exactly divisible by x + 2 but not by x + 3 is (are)
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 1, 9 (4) 9
50. If the discriminants of two quadratic equations
are equal and the equations have a common root 58. If cos4 q + sin2 q = m, then
1, then the other roots 1
(1) are either equal or their sum is 2 (1) 1 £ m £ 2 (2) £m £1
2
(2) have to be always equal
3 3 13
(3) are either equal or their sum is 1 (3) £m£1 (4) £m£
4 4 16
(4) have their sum equal to 1
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59. Cost of 2 apples, 3 bananas and one coconut is Direction (Questions 65 - 72): Read the statements and
` 26. Also the cost of 3 apples, 2 bananas and select the correct answer from the options given
two coconuts is ` 35. Then the cost of 12 apples, below.
13 bananas and 7 coconuts is 1. Statement 1 is true, Statement II is false.
(1) ` 172 (2) ` 148 2. Statement 1 is false, Statement II is true
3. Both Statement are true, and Statement II
(3) ` 143 (4) ` 126
provides explanation to Statement I
60. ABC is a field in the form of an equilateral triangle. 4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II
Two vertical poles of heights 45 m and 20 m are does not provide explanation of Statement I
erected at A and B respectively. The angles of 65. Statement I : During the years of the Great
elevation of the tops of the two poles from C are Depression the economic crisis was worse in
complementary to each other. There is a point D Germany
on AB such that from it, the angles of elevation of Statement II : The President of the Weimar
the tops of the two poles are equal. Then AD is Republic had the power of impose emergency
equal to 66. Statement I : The Forest Act of 1878 categorized
5 10 some forests as ‘reserved forests’.
(1) 17 m (2) 20 m Statement II : They were considered the best
12 13
forests for people’s use.
5 10
(3) 20 m (4) 17 m 67. Statement I : Shifting cultivation was widely
13 12
prevalent in different parts of India in the 19th
61. Arrange the developments related to European century.
history in a chronological sequence. Statement II : More and more people took to
I. Napoleon invaded Italy. shifting cultivation when forest laws were enacted.
II. Unification of Italy.
68. Statement I : Cricket emerged as a colonial game.
III. Unification of Germany Statement II : Cricket was started in England.
IV. Vienna Settlement
(1) I, III, II and IV (2) I, II, IV and III 69. Statement I : Mahatma Gandhi wished everyone
had clothes to wear.
(3) I, IV, II and III (4) I, II, III and IV
Statement II : He wanted everyone to wear the
62. Which of the following statements about Liberals single loin cloth as he did.
in 19th century Europe are correct? 70. Statement I : The Spanish conquest of America
I. They favoured the Catholic Church. was not a conventional military conquest.
II. They opposed dynastic rule with unlimited Statement II : One of the most powerful weapon
power. was the spread of smallpox.
III. They were democrats. 71. Statement I : The silk routes led to trade and
IV. They did not want any voting rights for women cultural links between distant parts of the world.
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV Statement II: Early Christian missionaries
(3) II and IV (4) III and IV travelled to Asia through this route.
63. Which of the following statements are correct? 72. Statement I : The French used forced labour in
I. In the beginning Bombay was under the Indo - China for building canals.
Portuguese control. Statement II : Vietnam became a major exporter
II. Control of Bombay passed onto the French in of rice in the world.
the 17th century. 73. Match List I (Layers of Atmosphere) and List II
III. The Marathas replaced the French in Bombay (Characteristics) and select the correct answer
using the code given below
IV. Bombay became the capital of the Presidency
List I (Layers of Atmosphere)
in early 19th century
List II (Characteristics)
(1) I, II and IV (2) I and IV A. Ionosphere
(3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV I. Contains Ozone
64. Which of the following statements are correct? B. Stratosphere
I. The Chinese introduced printing II. Reflects radio Waves
II. The Buddhist missionaries introduced printing C. Exosphere
in Japan III. Fall in Temperature
III. The Chinese developed printing to facilitate D. T roposphere
their expanding trade. IV. Extremely low air density
IV. Printing reached Europe through Italy. (1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV (2) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D– III
(3) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) I and IV
(4) A– III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

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74. Which of the following statements are correct? 78. Observe the given map.
I. Rann of Kachchh is formed by the recession
of the sea
II. Kuchaman, Sambhar and Didwana are salt
water lakes
III. The land to the east of Aravallis is known as
Bagar
IV. The fertile flood plains formed by small streams
in Rajasthan are known as Rohi
(1) I, II and IV (2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV

75. Observe the graph given below :

Which one of the following statement is NOT true
about the shaded state indicated on the map?
(1) Society predominantly follows right of female
ultimogeniture
(2) The state is an example of areas with karst
topography
(3) The state is a major producer of potatoes in
India
(4) Some parts of the state receive extremely
high rainfall.
79. Match List I (Mineral Oil Refineries with List II
Identify the state with population growth rate (States) and select the correct answer using the
marked by ‘X’ codes given below:
(1) Goa (2) Kerala List I List II
(3) Sikkim (4) Nagaland (Mineral Oil Refineries) (States)
A. Numaligarh I. Punjab
76. River Alaknanda forms confluences (Prayags) in
Uttarkhand. Match the codes given in Figure with B. Bathinda II. Andhra Pradesh
Table (Prayags) and select the correct answer C. Tatipaka III. Madhya Pradesh
using the code given below. D. Bina IV. Assam
Figure Table (Prayags) (1) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
(2) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
I. Karn Prayag (3) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
II. Rudra Prayag (4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

III. Nand Prayag 80. ‘Slash and Burn Agriculture’ is known by specific
name in different states of India. Match the
IV. Vishnu Prayag shaded states marked in the given map with
(1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV codes given in the Table (Different name of Slash
(2) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV and Burn Agriculture) and select the correct
(3) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV answer using the code given below.
(4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
77. Match List I (Original Rocks) with List II
(Metramorphic Rock) and select the correct
answer
List I List II
(Original Rock) (Metamorphic Rock)
A. Granite I. Diamond
B. Coal II. Marble
C. Limestone III. Slate
D. Shale IV. Gneiss
(1) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
(4) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

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81. Match List I (Industries) with List II (Important 86. Which of the following statements about the
Centers) and select the correct answer using the Panchayati Raj Institutions after the
codes given below. Constitutional Amendment in 1992 are false?
List I List II I. Seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes,
(Industries) (Important Centers) Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward
A. Cotton textile I. Ludhiana
Classes in the elected bodies of the
B. Hosiery II. Rishra
Panchayati Raj Institutions .
C. Jute III. Coimbatore
D Silk textile IV. Mysuru II. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions
(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III are supervised by the Election Commission
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV of India
III. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions
82. Which one of the following island is closest to
are held regularly after every five years.
the equator?
IV. Half of the seats in all the States are reserved
(1) Minicoy (2) Car Nicobar
(3) Little Nicobar (4) Great Nicobar for women.
(1) I and III (2) I and II
83. Which of the following characteristics are true (3) III and IV (4) II and IV
about plantation agriculture?
I. Generally plantation agriculture is considered 87. Match List I (Political Systems) with List II
as an example of subsistence farming. (Nations) and select the answer using the codes
II. Generally single crop is grown on a large area given below.
in plantation agriculture. List I (Political Systems)
III. It has an interface of agriculture and industry. A. Federal, Presidential, Republic
IV. It uses capital intensive inputs. B. Federal, Parliamentary, Republic
(I) I and IV (2) III and IV C. Unitary, Parliamentary, Monarchy
(3) I. II and III (4) II, III, and IV D Presidential cum Parliamentary Republic
84. Match List-I (Vegetation zones) with List-II (Mean List II (Nations)
Annual Temperature Range) and select the correct I. India
answer using the code given below II. United Kingdom
List I III Germany
(Vegetation Zones) IV. United States of America
V. France
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-V, B-II, C-III, D-IV
88. Which of the following statements about the
federal system in India are true?
List II
I. The Constitution of India provides for a three-
(Mean Annual Temperature Range)
fold distribution of legislative powers between
the Union and the State Governments.
II. Both the Union and the State Governments
can legislate on residuary subjects.
III. The Parliament cannot on its own change the
(1) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV (2) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV power-sharing arrangement between the Union
(3) A–V, B–IV, C–II, D–III (4) A–V, B–II, C–III, D–IV and the State Governments.
IV. The High Courts have no role in resolving
85. ‘In a democracy, the will of the people is supreme.’ disputes about the division of powers between
Which of the following statement concerning the Union and the State Governments.
democracy in India best reflects this? (I) I and III (2) II, III and IV
(1) The President appoints the Prime Minister
(3) I. III and IV (4) I, II and IV
who is the leader of the political party
possessing a majority in the Lok Sabha 89. Which of the following group of States/Union
(2) An assembly of elected representatives Territories have only one Lok Sabha constituency?
exercises political authority on behalf of the (1) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Lakshadweep
people. (2) Goa, Meghalaya, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(3) In case of a difference between the two Houses (3) Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram
of Parliament, the final decision is taken in a (4) Manipur, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry
joint session of the two Houses.
(4) The permanent executive has more powers
than the political executive.

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90. Which of the following statements best reflects List II
the ‘socialist’ feature of the Preamble to the (Characteristics)
Constitution of India? I. Occurs during boom or recession in the
(1) There are no unreasonable restrictions on how economy
the citizens express their thoughts. II. An absence of demand for a certain type of
(2) The traditional social inequalities have to be workers
abolished. III Occurs when moving from one job to another
(3) Government should regulate the ownership of IV. Actual contribution by the additional labour
land and industry to reduce socioeconomic is nil
inequalities. V. Job opportunities during certain months in the
(4) No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior. year
91. Which of the following statements about the Indian (1) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-I
judiciary is true? (2) A-IV, B-V, C-III, D-I, E-II
(1) India has an integrated judiciary. (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
(2) The judiciary in India is subordinate to the (4) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
Executive. 97. Suppose Indian Farmers sell wheat at 50 per
(3) The Supreme Court is more powerful than kg and the international price of wheat is 40
parliament. per kg. What is the minimum rate of import duty
(4) The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the Government of India must impose on imported
Prime Minister. wheat so that it does not adversely affect Indian
92. Which of the following Fundamental Rights farmers in the domestic market?
includes the right to Education? (1) 10% (2) 20%
(1) Right to Equality (2) Right to Freedom (3) 25% (4) 30%
(3) Cultural and Educational Rights 98. The wage rate of a worker in a country is 300
(4) Right to Constitutional Remedies per day. Which of these person(s) would you
93. Which of the Following is NOT an indicator of consider unemployed?
economic development? A. Ramu is willing to work at 300 a day, but
(1) Increased per capita income cannot find work.
(2) Decreased infant mortality B. Suresh is willing to work only at 400 a day
(3) Increased life expectancy at birth or more, and cannot find work.
(4) Decreased women participation in job market. C. Shanti stays at home because she has young
94. The poverty line in Dinanagar is set at 100 per children to look after.
capita per day. Five Hundred people live in (1) Ramu (2) Suresh
Dinanagar of whom 50 earn 30 per capita per (3) Ramu and Suresh (4) Ramu and Shanti
day and another 25 earn 80 per capita per day 99. Which of the following can be used as collateral
each. Everybody else earn more than 100 per in Indian banks to borrow money?
day per capita. What is the minimum amount (1) Bank Passbook (2) Credit Card
that the government of Dinanagar will have to (3) Own House (4) Passport
spend to completely eradicate poverty? 100. The total agricultural land in a village is 1200
(1) 3000 (2) 3500 (3) 4000 (4) 4500 hectares. This is distributed among 320 families
95. The local telephone company sells me a landline who form four groups in the following pattern. It is
connection only if I purchase a handset from them assumed that the land is distributed equally
as well. Which of the following rights does this within each group. Identify the group of small
practice violate under the Consumer Protection farmers.
Act 1986? Group Number of Families
(1) Right to represent (2) Right to information A 100
(3) Right to choose (4) Right to seek redressal B 180
C 30
96. Match List-I (Type of Unemployment) with List-II D 10
(Characteristics) and select the correct answer Total amount of land owned and operated
using the codes given below: by each group (in hectares)
List I 300
(Type of Unemployment) 300
A. Seasonal B. Frictional 300
C. Disguised 300
D. Structural (1) A (3) C (2) B (4) D
E. Cyclical

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NTSE STAGE-II (2013)
CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 1 3 4 2 3 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 2 1 3
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 1 4 1 2 1 4 1 3
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 1 3 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 2 1 1 3 3 3
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans 2 4 2 4 1

26. long candle length ® l
short candle length ® s
l
in 1 hr long Candle burn =
5
2.

so in 2 hr long candle burn = 2l
5

4. a | bb | aaa | bbbb | aaaaa | bbb ... long candle left = l – 2l = 3l
5 5

5. The no. in third column = No. in first column – s
In 1 hr short candle burn =
No. in second column 3.5
C3 Þ C1– C2 2´s
same in the rows So in 2 hr short candle burn =
3 .5
R3 = R1 – R2
2s 1.5s
short candle left = s– =
8. Pythagorean Triplet 3.5 3.5
x2 + y2 = z2 3 ´ 3. 5
s= l
5 ´ 1.5
9. (79 + 65) 1/2 – (37 + 12)1/2
7 l 5
=5 s= l , so =
5 s 7
10. nn – n
27. Total toys = x
11. 3
n –n No. of dolls = x – 6
No. of car = x – 6
15. 3n + (–1)n No. of books = x – 6
ATQ
23. (625 + 104)1/3 – (115 + 101)1/3 = 3 x–6+x–6+x–6=x
3x – 18 = x
x=9

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30. No. of buffalos =x 37. In every one match are person in eliminated so
No of cows = 2x when 118 match is completed than 118 person
x + 2x = 60 eliminated. So only two peron left and finally
3x = 60 119 match in which one person is eliminate and
x= 20 one wins.
No of cows = 40
No of buffalos = 20 38. Sadhana < Ravi < Alka < Lata < Asha.
As buffalo X is 17th
So 16 Animal ahead of x 39. First group Þ 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 Þ 15
out of which 9 are cows Total match = 15 × 4 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 64
so 16 – 9 = 7 are buffalos
So no. of buffalos below
X = [20 – (7 + 1)] = 12 46.

32.–36.

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NTSE STAGE-II (2013)
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 4 2 4 3 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 4 2 1 3
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 4 1 4 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 3 4 3 1 2
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 4 3 3 4 1 3 1 2 3 4 4 1 3 1 3
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 2 2 4 4 2 2 3 2 2 4 2 4 3 4 3
Que s. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 3 3 3 4 1 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 4 3 4
Que s. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 3 2 4 4 2 4 1 4 1 1 1 3 4 1 2
Que s. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 2 4 1 2 2 4 3 2 2

Ca( OH)2
20. CaCO3 + mineral acid¾®CO2­ ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾® CaCO3
15. Liquid A gives a more cooling sensation than liquid (Y)

B means liquid A is early vaporised than liquid B. (X) (X)
Thus, liquid A has less B P and lower latent heat of
vaporisation than that of liquid B.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ¾¾® CaOCl2
(Y) (Z)Bleaching powder
16.
21. [A]CH3 –COOH + NH4OH ® CH3 – COONH4 + H2O
weak acid weak base salt
[B] Na2O + H2O ¾® NaOH + H2 ­
First of all ‘C’ can be separated from the mixture by metal oxide base
sublimation. Thereafter, the mixture of ‘A’ and ‘B’ [C] Mg + 2HCl ¾® MgCl2 + H2 ­
can be put in water, filtered to separate B and recover
metal salt
A by crystallisation.
[D] Na2 O + 2HCl ¾® 2NaCl + H2O
17. 2H2 + O2 ® 2H2O Metal oxide Mineral acid Salt
4gm 32gm 36gm
2gm 16gm 18gm
22. 2Al + 6HNO3 ¾® Al2O3 + 6 NO2 + 3H2O
2 + 16 = 18 gm
|
18. No. of electrons in L shell = 7 Protective layer
No. of protons = 9
Electronic configuration = 2,7 23. Na + H2O ¾® NaOH + H2 + Energy
By acquiring one e– in L shell ( X) ( Y) ( Z)
gets 8e– in the last shell.
NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) ¾® NaCl(aq) + H2O( l )
X = Na, Y = NaOH, Z = H2
19. This reaction takes place in presence of oxygen.
Hence, it is a combustion reaction and in this
reaction there is a addition of two elements so it
is combination reaction.

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Alkaline KMnO4
24. Y ¾¾¾¾ ¾¾¾ ® X
( Alcohol ) Acidification (Carboxylic acid) 32.

+ X
Conc .
¾¾¾ ¾® Z Resistance of each bulb is R.
Y
( Alcohol ) (Carboxylic acid) H2SO 4 Sweet smelling
2V
subs tan ce I=
3R
Hence X = Ethanoic acid, Y = Ethanol,
2
Z = Ethylethanoate æ V ö V2
PA = PB = ç ÷ R = .... (i)
Alkaline
C2H5OH ¾¾ ¾¾® CH3COOH è 3R ø 9R
KMnO4
( Y) ( X)
4V 2
Conc . PC = .... (ii)
C2H5OH CH3COOH ¾¾ ¾¾® CH3COOC2H5 9R
( Y) + ( X) H2SO 4
( Z) When bulb A is fused, then
V
25. C2H2 is Ethyne and C3H6 is propene. Both of them Now, current, I =
are hydrocarbon. Hence they would undergo 2R
combustion to form CO2 & H2O. V2
Both C2H2 & C3H6 are unsaturated compounds. So. PB = PC = .... (iii)
4R
Hence they would undergo addition reaction.
So, B will be brighter and C will be dimmer
26. 2X + 3H2 ¾® 2 XH3
Element ‘X’ is placed on R.H.S. of periodic table. It 33. Since VAB & resistance (2R) is same so ‘i’
is non-metal. will also be same
Element ‘X’ is combining with three monovalent H- p2
atoms. Hence its valency is three. It has 5 valence 34. KE =
2m
electrons. It is a gas.
1
P is same so KE µ
27. Element ‘X’ (Z = 12) is Mg and, Element ‘Y’ (Z = 17) m
is Cl.
Mg + Cl2 ¾® MgCl2 35. x is decreasing with decresing speed
(X) (Y) (Z)
Molucular formula of Z is XY2. 20
Compound ‘Z’ is ionic compound, hence it would 37. Average speed = = 1 m/s
20
conduct electricity in molten state.
maximum speed from graph is between time t
= 10 sec. and t = 18 sec.
20 - 4 16
Vmax = = = 2 m/s
28. If air bubble is in the path then sound wave will 18 - 10 8
take more time to travel this distance. 4
GM G pR 3r
38. g= = 3
30. In optical lens (for eye defects) concave lens
R2 R2
is used. focal length must be much larger
then 2.5 cm if it is equal or less than 2.5 cm 4
then it mean that the power point is at = p grR
3
approximetly 2.5 cm, which is not possible.
g µR
31. Since Fg is perpendicular to displacement at
each instant so 39. Plastic is non magnetic substance and open
Work done = 0 ring does not form magnetic poles so due to
induction only ring Q will experience retarding
force

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47. tan1° tan2° tan3° .........tan89°
= (tan1° tan89°) (tan2° tan88) ......... tan45°
= (tan1° tan1°) (tan2° cot2°) ...........(1)
= (1) (1) .............. (1)
41. =1

48. ax2 + bx + c = 0 will have real roots when c = 0.

V = x(12 – 2x)2
This box has maximum volme when x = 2 cm which
is 128 c.c.
So, volume130 cc is not possible. 49.

42. For similarity of triangles we have SSS criteria. So If we cut square S from a piece of tin at that time
S1 in true. the volume of open box is 0.
But for polygon : two polygon to be similar if the
But the open box made from S is always be greater
corresponding sides are in same ratio then
than 0.
corresponding angle must be same. So S2 is not
correct. So according to this 4th option is not possible.

50. Every parallelogram is a trapezium

43. 51. Triangle (By SSS criteria).

52. Let there are x human being and y dogs
a = 2 3 cm
\ Total legs = 2x + 4y
1 3 2 one tenth of x human beings lost a leg.
a(x + y + z) = a x
2 4 \ (2x + 4y) – = 77
10
3 3 19 x
x+y+z= a= ´2 3 = 3 cm + 4y = 77
2 2 10
4
when x = 10
44. 6765201 = 51 4y = 77 – 19 = 58 (Which is not possible).
45. All odd square can be written in the form 8n+1 when x = 30
12 = 1 = 8 ´ 0 + 1 57 + 4y = 77
32 = 9 = 8 ´ 1 + 1 4y = 20
52 = 25 = 8 ´ 3 + 1 y=5
72 = 49 = 8 ´ 6 + 1 \ Number of dogs = 5

53. Let if we take n small simicircle of radii r
If we take n small simicircle of radii 2R = 2nr
If we take n small simicircle of radii R = nr

46.
Part I = pR = npr
Part II = n (pr)
so Part I & II always be equal.
2
æaö 54. From 1 to 100 number.
Area of interior region = a – p ç ÷
2
è2ø No. which are divisible by 4 = 25
a2 No. which are divisible by 6 = 16
= a2 – p No. which are divisible by 12 = 8
4
No. which are divisible by 4 or 6 = 25 + 16 – 8
æ4-pö = 33
= a2 ç 4 ÷
è ø So, number which are not divisible by 4 or 6
= 100 – 33 = 67
67
So, required probability = = 0.67
100

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57. 23.10 1 00 1 000 1 0000 ........ is an irrational number
55. (a - b ) 2 + (b - a )2 as it is Non-terminating & non-repeating.

= |a – b| + |b – a| 58. Out of the options, 14 cannot be made as it required
2, Rs. 5 coins & 4, Rs. 1 coin i.e. 5, 5, 1, 1, 1, 1.
Let a > b Let a < b
then then 59. Ascending order
|a – b| + |b – a| |a – b| + |b – a| 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 8, 9, 12, 15
=a–b+a–b =b–a+b–a 7+8
Median = = 7.5.
2
= 2a – 2b = 2b – 2a
i.e. +ve i.e. +ve 60. Average speed = 6 km/hr.
So answer is always +ve if a ¹ b
2´4´ x
6=
4 4 4+x
56. pR3 = p (r 3 +r 3 +r 3 +..........r 3) ... (i)
3 3 1 2 3 n
24 + 6x = 8x
2
S1 = 4pR 2x = 24
S2 = 4p(r12 + r22 + r32 + ...........+ rn2 )
From (i) , we get x = 12 km/hr.
R3 = r13 + r23 + r33 +...... + rn3
If all smaller sphere are of equal radius i.e. r
4 3 4
then, pR = p ´ nr 3
3 3
R3 = nr3
S1 R2 (nr 3 )2 / 3 n2 / 3 ´ r 2
S2 = n ´ r 2 = nr 2 =
nr 2
nS1 = n2/3 S2 Þ n1/3S1 = S2 \ S2 > S1.

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NTSE STAGE-II (2014)
CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 1 4 4 1 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 4 3
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 1 1 4 3 4
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 4 3 3 3 4 1
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 3 4 4 2 4

1. +51, +102, +153, +204,..... 17. FAST (62+12+192+202) = 798
Ans 520 LAST (122+12+192+202) = 906
BUSY (22+212+192+252) = 1431
2. NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, RPA30, YAM31
JANUARY 31 DAYS
FEBRUARY 28 DAYS 30.
MARCH 31 DAYS
APRIL 30 DAYS.... Than MANIPUR = 14M13V11J9

7. (8+3)×(9–3) = 44 31. By Difference’s difference
(4+2)×(12–3) = 54
(10+6)×(13–8) = 80 32. (22+32+42) – (12+52) = 3
(72+82+92) – (62+102) = 58
8. (7×5×12)÷10 = 42
(5×6×8)÷10 = 24 41. (72+22)–(32+52) = 19
(9×6×15)÷10 = 81 (82+52)–(72+42) = 24
(62+42)–(32+52) = 18
14. 11+1 = 2
22+2 = 6 44. 953 (RVXYS) 28
33+3 = 30 All letter’s position from back side
44+4 = 260 R - 9, V - 5, X - 3, Y - 2, S - 8
55+5 = 3130 So, 714 (TZWUV) 65.

15. 2×1+4=6
6×2+6=18
18×4+8=80
80×8+10=650

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NTSE STAGE-II (2014)
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 4 4 1 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 3 4 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 2 2 4 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 1 3 1 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 4 3 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 4 3 1 3 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 3 1 4 1 4 2 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 4
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 3 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 4 3 2 1 3 4
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 1 2 2 4 3 3 3 1 3 4

15. Noise, vaccume and light flash not 20. X ® K, L, M Q M shell is the valency
example of matter. shell
16. X Y 2,8,7 therefore valency = 7
100 ML ® water 100 ml ® water X = Cl
20ºC
0ºC ® 100 g ¬ water 100 g ice ¬ 0ºC 21. O2 + H2 ® H2O (g)
¯ more cooling y is colder than x O.S. of O2 become ¾®zero to – 2
17. At 313 k it from saturated solution. therefore Qit will be reduced
all 50 gm. will be dissolve. and Oxidation state of H2 becomes zero to + 1
when temperature down to 283 K (62 – 21 = it will be oxidised
41 gm.) Q therefore reaction will be redox
will be crystall cut.
18. A = Al B 22. NH4 OH + CH3COOH ® CH3COONH4 + H2O
z = 13 z=8 base acid salt
valency = 3 valency = 2 (neutralisation reaction)
= Al2O3 2AgCl hn 2Ag + Br2 (Photo chemical decom-
position)
formula mass = 27 × 2 + 16 × 3
= 102 ZnCO3 D ZNO + CO2 (thermla decompostion)
2Al + Fe2O3 ®Al2O3 + 2Fe (Thermite reaction)
19. C(g) + O2 ¾® CO2 (g)
23. Order of acidic strength
3 32 H2SO4 > HCl > NH4OH > NaOH
mole of = mole of O2 =
12 32 Strongest acid strong acid Weak base strong bas
24. Na, K, Ca, Mg
1
= =1 (i) Qthese matals can lose e– easily as
4
compared to C therefore these are better
® LR reducing agent as compare to C.
Q 12 gm C give CO2 = 44 gm (ii) due to strong electropositive behaviour of
44 3 these metals having strong tendency to react
\ 3 gm C give CO2 = × with oxygen.
12 1
= 11 gm

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25. Molecular formula ® C6H12 32. Given :F = 10 N, m = 1 kg, t = 2s, u = 0
W =?
s = 0 + 1/2 (10/1) (2)2 = 20 m
cyclohexane W = 10×20 = 200 J
33. Stethoscope is based on multiple reflection of
26. M.F. C4H8O
sound.

sin i v1
34. = v = n21
sin r 2
1
35. f1 = 0.5 m, P1 = =2D
0.5
P1 + P2 = 1.5
2 + P2 = 1.5
P2 = –0.5 D
27. (a) Atomic no 18 1
\ f2 = =–2m
it will be Ar ® inert gas - 0.5
valency = zero
36. Myopia, means person can see nearby objects.
(c) 9, 17, 35, all are belong same group that 37.
is
17 and have same valency.

(d) atomic no. 17 is Cl
atomic no. 16 is S
atomic no. 35 is Br
Q Cl is more electronegative
28. Body moving with constant speed can have
acceleration only if it moves along a curved
path. W = DKE
29. m = 20 Kg, u = 2 m/s, v = 0, S = 5 m 5(q) = 1/2 mv2
v2 = u2 – 2 aS 10 q
0 = 4 - 2a x 5 v2 =
m
a = 0.4 m/s2
mp > me
F = ma = 20 x 0.4 = 8 N
\ ve > vp
G(m)( 4m) 38. Magnetic field line are continuous lines passing
30. F=
(100 ´ 10 3 )2 inside and outside the magnet, only one field
for smaller mass line passes through a point
G(m)( 4m) 39. DC generator has split ring (commutator),
m(1) =
(1010 ) whereas AC generator does not.
40. Energy of star is due to Nuclear Fusion.
1010
Gm =
4
for bigger mass
G(m)( 4m)
(4 m) (a) =
(25 ´ 10 3 )2
41.
Gm 1010 104
a= = =
625 ´ 1010 4 ´ 625 ´ 10 6 2500
2
a = 4 m/s
31. Buoyant force æ 2 ö æ 3 ö
ç 1+ ÷ ç 1- ÷
B = 0.02 ç 3 ÷ ç 2 ÷
ç 2 3 ÷ ç ÷
rl g v¢ = 0.02 çç + ÷÷ çç 13 13 ÷÷
+
è 13 13 ø è 3 2 ø
100 × 10 ×V¢ = 0.02
V¢ = 0.02 × 10–4 m3
= 2 cm3

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æ 5 ö æ -1 ö 3
ç ÷ ç ÷ AE = (3x)
ç 3 ÷ ç 2 ÷ 2
= ç 5 ÷ ç ÷ DE = AE – AD
çç ÷÷ çç 5 13 ÷÷
è 13 ø è 6 ø 3x
= –x
2
13 æ - 1ö 6 1
= ´ ç ÷ ´ =– x
3 è 2 ø 5 13 5 =
2
AD = AE 2 + DE 2
1 3 4
42. – –
6- 5 5- 2 6+ 2 27 2 x 2
= x +
4 4
Þ 6 + 5 – 5– 2– 6 + 2
Þ0 28 x 2
= = 7x 2 = 7x=4 7
4
5 2
43. p(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 2 = 3(x2 – x+ )
3 3 2
æ BX ö 1
2 2 46. ç ÷ =
2 5 æ5ö æ5ö 2 è AB ø 2
= 3[ x - x + ç ÷ - ç ÷ + ]
3 è6ø è 6ø 3
BX 1
éæ 2 =
5ö 25 2 ù AB 2
= 3 êç x - 6 ÷ - 36 + 3 ú
êëè ø úû BX 1
1– =1–
éæ 2 AB 2
5ö - 25 + 24 ù
=3 ê ç x - ÷ + ú
êëè 6ø 36 úû AB - BX 2 -1
=
éæ 2 AB 2
5ö 1ù
=3 ê ç x - ÷ - ú
êëè 6ø 36 ú AX 2- 2
û =
AB 2
2
æ 5ö 1
= 3çx - ÷ -
è 6ø 12

1
so minimum value is –
12
44. Let |x| = y
y2 + y – 6 = 0
(y + 3) (y – 2) = 0
47.
y = – 3 or y = 2
|x| = – 3 which is not possible
|x| = 2
\x= ± 2
The product of the roots is –4
3 2 1
area equilateral D = a = a (P1 + P2 +
45. 3x =12 , x = 4 4 2
P3)
3 2 2
a ´ = P1 + P2 + P3
4 a

3a
= P1 + P2 + P3
2

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48.
52.

infinite tripazium can be made

49. 1+1+1+1+ 1+1 1 way
Let radius = r
2 +1 + 1 + 1 + 1 5 way
area of sector APO
3+1+1+1 4 way
4+1+1 3 way 120 1
= ´ ppr2 = pr2
5 +1 2 way 360 3
2 +3+1 6 way
2 +4 2 way 60
area of sector PBO = ´ pr2
3 +3 1 way 360
2 +2+2 1 way
1 2
2 +2 +1+1 6 way = pr
6
50. n2 – 3n +3 = m2 ....(1)
1 3r r
n2 – 3n + 3 – m2 = 0 Now area of DAOP = ´ ´
this eq. have integer roots. if a = 1, b,c Î I 2 2 2
D is perfect sq. 3r 2
\ 9 – 4.1 . (3–m2 ) = k2 =
4m 2 – k2 = 3 4
(2m + k) (2m – k) = 3 × 1 3 2
2m + k = 3 Now area of DBOP = r
4
2m – k = 1
on solving we get m = 1 area of major shaded area : Area of minor
Put m = 1 in equ.(1) shaded area
n2 – 3n + 3 =1 æ1 2 3 2 ö÷ æç 1 2 3 2 ö÷
ç
(n – 2) × (n – 1) = 0 = ç 3 pr - 4 r ÷ : ç 6 pr - 4 r ÷
n = 2,1 è ø è ø
so two values of n are possible
4p - 3 3
=
51. N1 = 15x 2p - 3 3
N2 = 15 y x and y are coprime
LCM ´ HCF = N1 ´ N2 54. x2 + y2 = 250
225 ´ 15 = 15x 15y a2 + b2 + c2 = 250
xy = 15 \ x = 13
3.5 = 15 y=9
1.15 = 15 a=5
So, N1 = 3 ´ 15 = 45 or N1 = 1 ´ 15 = 15 b = 12
N2 = 5 ´ 15 = 75 N2 = 15 ´ c=9
15 = 225
(45, 75) , (15, 225)
two such pair exist

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420
A1 + A2 + A3 = 21 + 20 +
29
420
57. (1) = 41 +
29
1189 + 420 1609
= =
29 29

59. Let 4th term = x + 3d = a ..(1)
7th term = x + 6d = b ..(2)
10th term = x + 9d = c
(2) on solving (1) & (2) we get
x = 2a – b
a - (2a - b)
&d=
3
10th term = x + 9d = C
æ a - (2a - b ) ö
2a – b + 9 ç ÷ =C
è 3 ø
= 2a – b + 3a – 6a + 3b = C
– a + 2b = C
(3) 2b = a + c
sum of roots of equation ax2 – 2bx + c = 0
2b a+c
sum of roots = =
a a

(4)

60.

a2
20 + 21 + 29 area of square PQRS 1
2
58. s=
2
= 35 area of square PABCD = 2 = 2
a
D= 35 ´ 15 ´ 14 ´ 6
= 5´7´3´5´7´2´2´3
=5´7´3´2
= 210
1 1
210 = A 20 210 = A 29
2 1 2 2
420
A1 = 21 A2 =
29
1
210 = A ´ 21
2 3
A3 = 20

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2015)
CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 4 1 3 4 3 3 3 1
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 3 3 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 2 4 3 2
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 3 4 4 3 3 2 3
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 4 3 2 1

19.

1.
112 – 92 152 – 72 252 – 212
121 – 81 225 – 49 625 – 441
= 40 = 176 = 184
20. two series
first series 3,24,63,?,195
pattern 22–1,52–1,82–1,112–1,142–1
so first ?=120
second series: 6,30,72,?,210
pattern 22+2,52+5,82+8,112+11,142+14
so second ?=132
22. [62 – (4 × 4)] –1 = 19 =S
[42 – (7 × 1)] –1 = 8 = H
17. option (3) is correct. [82 – (5 ×10)] –1 = 13 = N
Logic:Some women are teachers, so circle
representing women and teacher are 2.5
intersected and some women are docors, so
24. Avg. Speed = 1 + + 0.5 =
1
circle representing women and doctors are also 2 4
intersected. But there is no intersection
between two profession so circle representing 2.5 2.5
=
docotr and teacher are not intersected. 1 + 0.5 + .125 1.625
26. A B C
x y 100 – x – y
100 - x - y
500 = 2x = 250
18. 2
x = 250 1000 – x – y = 500
x + y = 500
y = 250
B = y = 250 Ans. (2)

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27. 5e + 7s + 9p = 100 × a 35.
2e + 6s + 10p = 80 × b Man × days =1600 = 400 + 350 + 300 + 250 + 200 + 100
Man = 40 40 35 30 25 20 15

5a – 25 = 7a 65 = 9a – 105
2a = 4b 100 = M × D
100 = 15 × D
10e + 14s + 18p = 200
a = 25 2e + 6s + 10p = 80 100 20
= D= = = 6.66.
2 8e + 8s + 8p = 120 15 3
Total day = 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 6.66
120 = 56.66
e+s+p= = 15
8 45 to 47
N =$
28. 7:x E =#
1 ö T =@
æ
90 = ç 7 ´ 30 + x ÷ – 6x I =%
è 2 ø S =&
P =?
x R =*
90 = 210 + – 6x
2 U =+
M ==
x
6x – = 120
2 45. MINT
= % $ @
11x Ans. (3)
= 120
2 46. RINSE
* % $ &#
240 9 9
x= = 21 = 21 min + ´ 60 Ans. (2)
11 11 11
47. INTEREST
540 % $ @ # * # & @
= 21 min + sec.
11
= 21 min 49 sce

æ 1 ö
90 = 6x – ç 7 ´ 30 + x÷
è 2 ø

x
90 = 6x – 210 –
2
11x
300 =
2
600 6 6
x= = 54 = 54 min + ´ 60 sec
11 11 11
360
=54 min + sec.
11
= 54 min 32 sec.

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2015)
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 3 1 2 4 2 2 1 4 3 1 3 1 4 2 4
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 4 4 1 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 3 4
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 1 1 4 2
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 4 4 4 2 3 3 1 3 4 4 3 2 1 2
Que s. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 1 4 4 1 1 4 1 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 2
Que s. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 2
Que s. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 3 3 4 1, 3 4 4 3 3 2 2

44
15. On compressing the gas, no. of collision of Q 1g of C gives the amount gm of CO2 = g
12
molecules at per unit area of the wall of the
cylinder increases. Average Kinetic energy of Q 6g of C gives the amount gm of CO2
the molecules remains constant as the 44
temperature is constant. = × 6 = 22g CO2
12

16. Solubility of S = 28.6% at 50° C
18. Law of conservation of mass is only valid for
Amount of solute in 50 ml of saturated solution
chemical reactions and not for nuclear reactions.
= 14.3g at 50° C
at 40°C amount of S separates out = 2.4g in 50
ml 19. a-particle is doubly positive helium ion 24 He+ +
remaining solute = 11.9gin 50 ml No. of proton = Z = 2
11.9 No. of neutrons = A – Z = 4 –2 = 2
solubility of S at 40° C = × 100 = 23.8% No. of electron = zero
50
m/v 20. m 1 =69 for isotope 69Z
m 2 = 71 for isotope71Z
17. Given, x1 = abundance of 69Z= 60%
amount of C = 6g X2 =abundance of 71Z= 40%
amount of oxygen = 32g
C + O2 ® CO2 m1x 1 + m2 x 2
Relative atomis mass =
12g 32g 44g 100
Q 12g of C gives the amount of CO2 = 44g

69 ´ 60 + 40 ´ 71
= = 69.8
100

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27. In periodic table
21. Electropositive nature increases from top to
bottom in a group
Electronegative nature decreases from top to
bottom is a group
Atomic size decreases from left to right in a
period

28. Let them meet at time t. At that time velocity
of man must be greater or equal to as that of
bus.
22. u ³ at
t £ u /a
1 2
at + d = ut
2
1 2
23. Cu2S+ O2 ¾¾®
D Cu2O + SO2 d = ut – at
2
X Y
copper glance 1 u2
d £ u (u/a) – a
2 a2
2Cu2O + Cu2S ¾¾® 6Cu + SO2
Y u2
d £
2a
24. (i) Nitrate ores are rarely available as all nitrates
are soluble in water. 29. v = u + at
(ii) Bond dissociation energy of N2 is very high 0 = u – gt
as the 3 covalent bonds are present between t = u/g = n(total time of ascent)
two nitrogen atoms.
Both the statement are correct but the reason 1
Snth = u + a(2n - 1)
is not correct explanation of assertion. 2
1 æ 2u ö
25. 4 Structural isomers are possible for C4H9Br = u- gç - 1÷÷
2 çè g ø
H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br
= g/2
CH3–CH2– –CH3

4
30. g= prRg
3
g A rA R A
= g = r ´R
B B B

=3×2=6

31. In all case displacement is perpendicular to
force.
W1 = W2 = W3 = 0

26. 360 rev
33. fdisc = =6
60 sec
Total no. of electrons of C atoms = 3 × 6 = 18
fsound = 60 × fdisc
electrons = 360 Hz
Total no. of electrons of O atoms = 1 × 8 = 8
electrons
Total no. of electrons of H atoms = 6 × 1 = 6 R R R 4R
35. Req = + + =
electrons 2 3 2 3
Total no. of electrons in one molecule = 32 V 3V
electrons I= R =
No. of electrons involved in bonding = 2 × total eq 4R
no. of bonds = 2 × 10 = 20 electrons
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36. Bulbs are connected in parallel 44. 2x + y = 10
so V is same (x + y) + x = 10
Heat produced by first bulb H1 = 12 × 10 x + y is max when x = 0
= 120 J \ (x +y)max = 10
Similarily, H2 = 2× 10 = 20J 2x + y = 10
H3 = 6 × 10 = 60J 2(x + y) – y = 10
\ x + y is min y = 0
37. Magnetic field is produced by moving charge 10
(x + y)min = =5
2
\ (x + y)max + (x + y)min = 10 + 5 = 15
41. As the LCM of 12x and 5y is 720
so, 720 should be divisible by 5y
or 144 is divisible by y. 1
45. y+ =x
so, y should be the factor of 144 y
so, according the option to i.e. 144 is correct
1
42. x = 5n + 2 y2 + = x2 – 2
y2
y = 5m + 4
x + y = 5(m + n) + 6 7x – 2 (x2 – 2) = 9
7x – 2x2 + 4 = 9
x+y 2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0
Remainder =1
5 2x (x – 1)– 5 (x – 1)
\z=1 (2x – 5) (x – 1) = 0
2z - 5 5
=–1 x= x=1
3 2
43. a=a–d
b= a 1
y+ = 1 (Not possible)
g=a+d y
144 1 5
3a = y+ =
64 y 2
144 6 3 on solving we get
a= = =
64 8 4 1
y = 2,
15 2
(a – d) 1. (a + d) = so only one integral solution possible.
64
15 46. .A, B, A + B are in AP
(a2 – d2) 1. =
64 \ 2B = A + A + B
2B = 2A + B
æ 9 ö
ç - d2 ÷ = 15 ´ 4 = 5 B = 2A
è 16 ø 64 3 16 \ Area of bigger circle = A + B = 3A
3A = pR2
9 5
d2 = – pR 2
16 16 A=
3
4 1
= =
16 4 pR2
pr2 =
1 3
d= ±
2 42
(a + d) – (a – d) r2 =
3
=a+d–a=d
16
æ 1ö r2 =
= 2ç ÷ 3
è2ø
=1 16 4 4 3
r= = =
3 3 3

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47. c=a+b–8 Þa+b–c=8 x=6 2
a=b+c–8 Þb+c–a=8
b=a+b–8 135p 1
(a + b + c) = 2 (a + b + c) – 24 Then area = ´ 122 – ´ 3x ´ x
360 2
a + b + c = 24
a+b–c=8 54 ´ 22
= – 108
2c = 16 7
c=8
1188 - 756 432
c=a=b=8 Þ =
7 7
3 2
area = 8 = 16 3 5
4 = 61
7
1- cos x 1
48. = 6pr 2
sin x 3 51. % Change = ´ 100 = 150 %
3(1 – cosx) = sinx 4pr 2
9(1 + cos2x – 2cosx) = 1 – cos2x
9 + 9cos2x – 18 cosx = 7 – cos\2x
8 + 10cos2x – 18 cosx = 0
5cos2x – 9 cosx + 4 = 0
5cos2\x – 5cosx – 4cosx + 4 = 0
5cosx (cosx – 1) – 4(cosx – 1) = 0
cosx = 1
cosx = 4/5 52.
3
sinx =
5
16 9 7
\ cos2x – sin2x = – =
25 25 25 DABC ~ DADE
abc 12 - 2r 12
49. D= =
4R r 5
abc 30
R= r=
4D 11
Vol. of cylinder = pr2h
æqö = pr2(2r)
2.7.7.14 sinç ÷
= è2ø = 2pr3
4.49 sinq = 127.39

æqö
7 sinç ÷
è2ø 7 æqö
= æqö æ q ö = 2 secç 2 ÷
2 sinç ÷ cosç ÷ è ø
è 2ø è2ø

22 49 æqö
pR2 = ´ sec2 ç 2 ÷ 54.
7 4 è ø

77 æqö
= sec2 ç 2 ÷
2 è ø
x 1
=
y x -1
x2 – x = y
x2 + y2 - x2
50. cos72 =
2 xy
x2 – x = 2x cos72°
x – 1 = 2 cos72°
x = 1 +2 cos72°
2 x = 12

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æ 5 - 1ö
ç ÷
=1+2 ç 2 ÷
è ø

5 -1 5 +1
=1+ =
2 2 58.
\ BD = x – 1

5 +1 5 -1
= –1=
2 2
3 + a 5a + 1
M( , )
2 2
these coordinats of M satisfy only 2. option.
59. Three digit = 3 ´ 3 ´ 2 = 18
Div. by 5 = 2 ´ 2 ´ 1 + 3 ´ 2 = 10
55. 10 5
Req. Probability = =
18 9
60. 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 +9 + 10 + 11 +
ÐBAC – ÐOBC 12 + 13 + a + b = 13 ´ 15
= 90 + q – q 91 + a + b = 195
= 90 a + b = 195 – 91
= 104
Now according to option
51 + 53 = 104
\ 2nd larger value is 51

57.

areaDPBC 6 x 3
= =
areaDABC 10 x 5

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2016)
CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
3 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 3 3 1
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 2 1 4 2 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
3 4 2 3 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 3 4 1 4
46 47 48 49 50
3 3 3 2 3

Professors
Q.1 D 3 Y 104
2 M ale Designer
+3 3 –4 –13
Q.7 Case I : Teachers
G 9 U 91
3
+3 3 –4 –13

J 27 Q 78 Professors
Designer
4 Male
+3 3 –4 –13 Case II :
Teachers
M 81 M 65
5
+3 3 –4 –13
Clearly in both case Conclusion III is follow
P 243 I 52 and either I follows or II follows.

Q.10 B® 1 (Science)
3
Q.2 0.8 (.8) = .512 C® 2 (Hindi)
0.04 (.04) 3 = .000064 A® 3 (Mathematics)
E® 4 (Sanskrit)
H
D® 5 (English)
|–® (Hindi or Sanskrit)
F C

Q.13 From 1st and 3rd diagram :
E
B
Q.3 B
A G Y R
D
G
Bl

G O

Q.14 – 33 + 11 – 9 + (28 ¸ 4) × 5
= – 33 + 11 – 9 + 7 × 5
Q.6
= – 33 + 11 – 9 + 35 = – 42 + 46
Þ = 4

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Q.15 REASON ® PGYUMP
6 4
18 5 1 19 15 14 ––––® 16 7 25 21 13 16 7 2 = 15 Þ (6 × 4) – (7 + 2) = 15
–2
+2 9 3
–2 4 5 = 18 Þ (9 × 3) – (4 + 5) Þ 27 – 9 = 18
+2

–2 8 3
+2
4 6 = ? Þ (8 × 3) – (4 + 6) Þ 24 –

Þ D I R E C T 10 = 14

4 9 18 5 3 20 Q.21 Cleary, all fathers are men and some of them
-2 +2 -2 +2 -2 +2 can be teacher’s also, Therefore, it will be like
this :
2 11 16 7 1 22
ß ß ß ß ß ß M
F T
B K P G A V

Q.16 Given C’s age = 12 yrs Q.23 Reena > Rita > Zoha
3 and Reena = Reeta + 2 = Zoha + 5 ... (i)
Þ B’s age = × 12 = 18 yrs. Also Reena + Zoha = 3(Rita – 5)
2
We know, A is 12 years older than B by equation (i)
Þ A’s age = 18 + 12 = 30 yrs (Rita + 2 ) + (Rita – 3) = 3(Rita – 5)
Þ Mother’s age = 2(30) = 60 yrs. 2Rita – 1 = 3Rita – 15 Þ Rita = 14 years
Þ Husband’s age = 60 + 5 = 65 yrs
Þ Ram’s age who is 15 yrs younger than him 12 inch
= (65 – 15) yrs = 50 yrs

Q.17 Alphabetical order :
C c
Anu (A), Joy(J), Pritam (P), Zeba (Z) Q.24
b
Working days are : M T W Th F
For 3 weeks : A J P Z A 2 inch

J P Z A J Pieces which have only two types of coatings
are at edges, so
P Z A J P no. of pieces = 2[(4 – 2) + (6 – 2)]
Only Zeba work for 3 days. = 2[2 + 4] = 12
Q.18 Clearly, its Pritam who workded on 1st Q.25 Pieces which have only one type of coating are
Wednesday then its Zeba and after her Anu. at top surface of cake, so no. of pieces
Q.19 Printed Price = Rs 1000/- = [(6 – 2) × (4 – 2)] = 4 × 2 = 8
After discount of 60% , price will be :
Q.26 As there are only 8 pieces of cake having
æ 60 ö chocolate cream and total pieces are 24
Rs ç1000 - 1000 ´ ÷ = Rs 400/-
è 100 ø \ Remaining pieces = 24 – 8 = 16
Now, after this their is discount of 40% also :
\ the price will be: Q.27 In morning Su is in the East so Monika’s face
æ 40 ö will be in North,
Rs ç 400 - 400 ´ ÷ = Rs 240/-
è 100 ø

4 5
Q.20 2 3 = 13 Þ (4 × 5) – (2 + 5)
= 20 – 7 = 13
Þ Multiplying above two and subtracting sum
of 2 number lying in lower row.

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Q.28 Clearly – Both the statements are sufficien. Q.39 Logic
So answer is 3 12 + 52 + 72 = 75
92 + 72 + 82 = 194
Q.29 We have four horses in one race
divide 16 horses in for groups 82 + 32 + 42 = 64 + 9 +16
= 64 + 25 = 89

Q.40 Using Net

Q.30 b,c,e, g, k, ? , q , s
2 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 11 , 13 , 17 , 19
All consecutive prime numbers so alphabet
correspond to 13 is m.

Q.32
6

4 5 3

2 Q.41 First bell will ring at exact 8 O’clock, in next 8
seconds 7 bells will ring.
1
8
\ time taken for 1 ring = sec.
Points opposite to 2 is 6. 7
2, 10, 30, 68, _____, 222 8
Q.33 \ time taken for 10 ring = × 10 = 11.43 sec.
7
2' = 13 + 1
(Q 1 bell will ring at exact 11 O’clock)
10 = 23 + 2
30 = 33 + 3
64 = 43 + 4
130 = 53 + 5 Q.42 1. ADEF
222 = 63 + 6 2. AGHD
Q.34 T–S×B–M 3. ABCD
B is wife of M 4. ABDH
T is wife of S
5. ACDH
S is son of B
6. AFDG
From these not true statement is S is the
daughter of B 7. AGDE
8. ACDF
Q.35 (1) Either I or II ; and III follows 9. ABED
S A
10. AFBD
B 11. ACDE
F
Sol. 43-45
According to given information
9, 23, 51, 106, 219, 643
Q.36
14 28 55 113 424
9 + 14 = 23
23 + (2 × 14 =28) = 51 43. (4) Umesh
51 + (2 × 28 = 56) = 107
Q.38 Age order 44. (1) Prem
Ronald > Veena
45. (4) Information inssufficient
Amilia
Shree >
Parul > Ronal > Veena
From this Parul is elder to Veena
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46. Given codes Q. 48 (3)
1218199 Þ 121 81 99 S T A R Y
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
(11)2 (9)2 11×9 g q d b e
So tray Þ q b d e or b q d e
1006480 Þ 100 64 80 Q.49 Work = Man × days
\ 20 × 25 = 10 × 5 + (10 + 5) × 5 +
(10) 2 (8)2 10×8 (10 + 5 × 2) × 5 + ……..
20 × 25 = 5[10 + (10 +5) + (10 + 5) ×
814963 Þ 81 49 63 2 + ….. (10 + 5 + n)]

æ 5(n - 1)n ö
500 = 5 × ç10n + ÷
(9)2 (7) 2 9×7 è 2 ø
200 = 20n + 5n (n – 1)
643648 Þ 64 36 48 200 = n(15 + 5n)
40 × 5 = n(15 + 5n)
\ n=5
(8)2 (6)2 8×6
Days = 5 × 5 = 25
492535 Þ 49 25 35
Q.50 Cubical box each side length = 1 meter
Means side of cube a = 1 meter
(7)2 (5)2 7×5 Rod is fixed in the each side so length or
Rod = 3a= 3×1= 3 metre
Q.47 (3)
(6 – 5)3 + (1)2 Þ (1)3 + (1)2 = 1
(12 – 10)3 + (2)2 Þ (2)3 + (2)2 = 8 + 4 =12
(18 – 15)3 + (3)2 Þ (3)3 + (2)2 = 27 + 9 =36
(24 – 20)3 + (4)2 Þ (4)3 + (4)2 = 64 + 16 =80

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2016)
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
3 2 1 3 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 2 2 4 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 4 4 3 2 3 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
1 3 3 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 1 4 1 4 4
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 2 1 3 1 3 4 4 2 4 2 3 4 4 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
1 3 4 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 4 1 3 2 1
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 3 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 3 4 2 4 2
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
4 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 2,3 3

Q.15 One molecule of H2O, contain 8 number of Q.20 2Al2O3 ¾Electricit
¾ ¾¾y ® 4Al + 3O2
neutrons of oxygen atom only. D
CaCO3 ¾¾® CaO + CO2
So total no. of neutrons in 5 mole of H 2O
D
2NaHCO3 ¾¾® Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
molecules will be = 5 × 8 × 6.022 × 1023 =
2.409 × 1025 D
2HgO ¾¾® 2Hg + O2

Q.16 Being more reactive Fe can displace copper
Q.21 Amphoteric oxide can react with both acid and
from its salt solution.
Fe + CuSO4 (aq.) ® FeSO4 + Cu¯ base to from salt and water.
Ex. : Al2O3 & ZnO
Q.17 In colloidal (B, D) and suspension (A) path of
light is visible. Q.22 X = Na
Where as in solution (C) particles do not settle Y = Cl
down in suspension (A) solute particles are
visible to naked eye.
9.033 ´ 10 23
Q.25 No. of moles of O atoms = = 1.5
6.022 ´ 10 23
Q.18 Al is malleable but being more reactive it forms
layer of oxide on its surface on exposing to air. mole
So it cannot be used for a- particle scattering Mass of O-atom = 1.5 × 16 = 24 g
experiment. Moles of H-atom = 1.5 × 2 = 3 moles.

Q.19 2 Mg + O2 ® 2MgO Q.26 General formula of carboxylic acid is CnH2nO2

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q
Q.28 I=
t h
Q = nte 2

I × 1 = (n + 4.8 × 1018) × 1.6 × 10–19 h

N = 2.2 × 1018 r1 2

s=r
sv’g = 2r × v’g
Q.29 s × A × h × g = 2r × A × x × g
h
x=
2

Q.39 C
(–x)
A
`

R = mv 2
B (–y)
Q.30 VA – 20 + 10 = vB (from KVL)
VA – VB = 10 Should be mv 2 from low of momentum
conservation.
Q.31 Magnetic force act perpendicular to velocity of
charged particle magnetic field. So there is no
Q.40 Because kinetic energy is equal
component in direction of motion.
So x1= x2
Q.32 Electric field can change only the velocity of
charged particle. So velocity & momentum (mv) Q.41 Desired No = LCM (13 & 21) k –10
will be changed. Where k is a natural no. = 273 k –10
Given
æ dm + A ö æ 60 + 60 ö
sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ 500 < 273 k – 10 < 600
è 2 ø è 2 ø sin 60
Q.33 m= = = = 510 < 273 k < 610
A 60 sin 30
sin sin
2 2 510 610
<k<
273 273
3
Therefore k will be 2
2 Hence no. is 273 × 2 – 10
1 = 1.73 = 546 – 10 = 536
2 Remainder = 4
Q.37 Speed of a body doesn’t depend on the direction. .34343434343.....
Q.42
h .34343434343.....
Q.38 4
.68787878787...... = 0.687
h
r2 ‘OR’
2
34 31
h
0.34 = 99 & 3.4 = 90
r1 4
34 31 681
So .34 + 3.4 = + = = 0.687
99 90 990

Given r1 = 2 r2
Q.43 P(x) = k (x + 1)2
Mg = rv’g + (2rv’g)
P(–2)= k (–1)2 = 2
h A´h Þ k = 2 Þ P(x) = 2 (x + 1)2
s ×A×h ×g =r×A× × g + 2r + × g.
2 4 P(2) = 2 (2 + 1)2 = 18

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Q.44 x– y = 2 n
+ kx + y = 3 n + 3n + 5n + ..... + ( 2r - 1)n + 1 + 1 + ...... + 1
2
5
(1 + k)x = 5 Þ x = n
1+ k = n{1 + 3 + 5 + .... + (2r - 1)} + r
Q , (x, y) lies in first quadrant therefore, 2

5 n 2 rn
must be (+) ve, = r n+r = nr + 1
1+ k 2 2

5 A
\ > 0 Þ 1 + k > 0 Þ k > -1 ....(1)
1+ k
From 1st equation x = 2 + y
Substituting in 2nd equation kx + y = 3
h
Þ k(2 + y) + y = 3
Q.47 60º 30º
3 - 2k
y= B x D 20 C
1+ k
We know, y > 0
h 1
3 - 2k In DABC tan 30º = = …(1)
Þ >0 20 + x 3
1+ k
h
æ 3ö DABD tan 60º = = 3
Þ kÎ ç - 1, ÷ ….(2) BD
è 2ø
æ 3ö h= 3x ….. (2)
From (1) & (2) kÎ ç - 1, ÷ from (2) in (1)
è 2ø
3x 1
Q.45 x2 – 6x – 2 = 0 =
20 + x 3
a2 – 6a– 2 =0
a2 – 2 = 6a ....(1) 3x = 20 + x Þ 2x =20
x = 10 metre.
Similarly b2 – 2 = 6b .... (2)
Q.48 cosec x – sin x = a
a10 - 2a 8 a10 - b10 - 2 a 8 - b8
1 - sin 2 x cos 2 x
2a 9 = 2 a9 - b9 Þ =a Þ =a ..
sin x sin x
a 8 a 2 - 2 - b8 b 2 - 2 (1)
= ….(3) Similarly secx – cos x = b
2 a 9 - b9
From eq.(1), (2)& (3) 1 - cos 2 x
Þ =b
cos x
6 a 9 - b9 6
9 9 = =3 sin 2 x
2 a -b 2 Þ =b … (2)
cos x
n
Q.46 S1 = n +1 cos 4 x
2 From (1) = a2 ….(3)
sin 2 x
n n
S2 = 2 2 + n - 1 3 = 3n + 1
2 2 sin 4 x
& from (2) = b2 …. (4)
n n cos 2 x
S3 = 2 3 + n - 1 5 = 5n + 1
2 2 Now, multiplying eq. (2) with eq. (3) & eq. (1) with
M eq.(4), we get
a2b = cos3x
n
Sr = 2r - 1 n + 1 Þ (cos3x)2/3 = cos2x = (a2b)2/3 …. (5)
2 2 3
Þ S1 + S2 + …. + Sr = & b a = sin x
Þ (sin3x)2/3 = sin2x = (b2 a)2/3 …. (6)
n
n + 3n + 5n + ..... + (2r - 1)n + Now, adding (5) & (6), we get
2 (a2b)2/3 + (b2a)2/3 = 1
n
1 + 1 + ..... + 1 r times
2
Þ S1 + S2 + …. + Sr =

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Q.49 35m 2pr2 = 4p Þ r2 = 2
A B
3 h2 = 32 - 2 2 = 5

h2 h2 = 5
25m
60º 12m 1 2
p1 8
v1 1
D 12m C r2 = 3 =
v2 1 2 10
p2 5
23m 3

Where r = 12 m
Q.52 V = 1m3
pr 2 22 12 ´ 12 792 2
Then area = = ´ = m side of square = a
4 7 4 7
22 23 ´ 23 1 = a2 ×l l = 90 cm
When r = 23m, then area = ´
7 4 100
a= c,
54819 2 3
= m 90
14
Density = = 90 kg/m3 = .09 g/cm3
1
54819 792
\ Increase in area = – = 302.5 m2 3
14 7 æ 100 ö
Weight of the cube = ç ÷ ´ 0.09
è 3 ø
A
100 ´ 100 ´ 100 9
Þ ×
53m 27 100
35m
10000 10 1
Q.50 Þ gm = kg Þ 3 kg
3 3 3
B 66m C
T
154 q
S= = 77 m
2 q
P O q R
2
\ are of DABC = 77 ´ 11 ´ 24 ´ 42 = 924 m Q.53
So area of circle = 1848 m 2 q
2
2
´ r 2 = 1848 S
7
R = 14 3 m DPOT ~ DROS By AAA similarity
Ð P = ÐR
2p
Since Alternate interior angles are equal
therefore PT || RS

Q.51
Q.54 Draw BL perpendicular to AC and join L to D.
4p Since ÐBCL = 30º, we get ÐCBL = 60º. Since
BLC is a right triangle with ÐBCL = 30º, we
Let radius of circle be 3 units have BL = BC /2 = BD. Thus in ÐBCD, we
2pr1 = 2p Þ r1 = 1 observes that BL = BD and ÐDBL = 60º. This
implies that BLD is an equilateral triangle and
3 h1 = 32 - 12 = 8
hence LB = LD. Using ÐLDB = 60º and ÐADB
h1
h1 = 8 = 45º, we get ÐADL = 15º. But ÐDAL = 15º.
Thus LD = LA. We hence have LD = LA = LB.
This implies that L is the circumcentre of the
r1

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1 1 – 14y – 6y = 49 – 9
D. Thus, ÐBAD = ÐBLD = ´ 60º = 30 º – 20y = 40
2 2
y=–2
(x – 6)2 + (y + 6)2 = (x – 3)2 + (y – 3)2
(x – 6)2 + 16 = (x – 3)2 + 25
x2 + 36 – 12x + 16 = x2 + 9 – 6x + 25
6x = 18
x=3
Center = (3, –2)

Since ÐADC = 135º. Which is equal to ÐBAD
+ ÐABC. Therefore ÐABC = 105º. x + 2y = k

2 2 A 3 4
Q.55 Length of PS = R1 + r - R1 - r = B
Q.58 (2, 3) C (–1, –2)
2 R 1r ….(1)

Length of QS = R2 + r 2 - R2 - r 2
=
æ - 3 + 8 6 + 12 ö æ 5 18 ö
Coordinate of C = ç 7 , 7 ÷ = ç 7 , 7 ÷
2 R 2r ….(2) è ø è ø
Point C lies on line x + 2y = k
2 2
Length of PQ = R1 + R 2 - R1 - R 2 =
5 18
So +2× =k
2 R 1R 2 ….(3) 7 7
PQ = PS + QS ….(4) 41
k=
By (1), (2), (3) & (4) 7
2 R 1r + 2 R 2 r = 2 R 1 R 2
Q.59 Let x is mean
1 1 1
+ = Then smallest no. = x – 10
R1 R2 r largest no. = x + 15
Q.56 A So series x –10, 5, x + 15 [Q median = 5]
4 6 x - 10 + 5 + x + 15
B 5 C Given =x
3
Q R
Þ 2x + 10 = 3x Þ x = 10
Therefore numbers are 0, 5 and 25
0 2 + 5 2 + 25 2 0 + 25 + 625 650 2
Þ = = = 216
3 3 3 3

1 Q.60 P(getting atleast 5) = 1 – P(getting less than 5)
AQ = (Perimeter DABC)
2 4 cases = 1 + 1 + 1
1 1 1+1+2
AQ = (4 + 6 + 5) = × 15
2 2 1+2+1
AQ = 7.5 cm 2+1+1
4 1
P(getting less than 5) = =
(6, –6) 216 54
(3, –7)
1 53
(x, y) P (getting atleast 5) = 1 – =
54 54
Q.57

(3, 3)

Points (6, –6), (3, –7) & (3, 3)
(x – 3)2 + (y – 3)2 = (x – 3)2 + (y + 7)2
y2 + 9 – 6y = y2 + 49 + 14y

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2017)
CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
3 2 2 1 4 3 1 1 2 3 2 2 3 3 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 3 3 1
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
4 3 3 Bonus 3 1 3 2 3 4 2 1 1 2 4
46 47 48 49 50
1 4 4 4 1

1. On looking (i) & (ii)
Good sing represent pie sie therefore pason
4.
represent mie.
On looking (ii) & (iii)
Good lyrics represents rie sie.
122 – 082 162 – (07)2
\ love represent tie good can be either rie or
= 144 – 64 = 256 – 49
sie and accordingly (3) option follow that is rie
= 80 = 207
mie tie
Option 1

2. ab_ab_aaa_bbaaa_bbbb
® ab/aabb/aaabbb/aaaabbbb
\ (2) option abba

252 – 212
= 625 – 441
3. = 184

24 + 25 = =7 36 + 45 =
40 + 41 = =9 50 + 71 = = 11
1 5.
7 + 9 = 16 9 + 11 = 20
C can be 1 or 5 or 6. But C cannot be equal to
1 because we get 5 digits in Answer.
C is 5 or 6
By looking into the solution
70 + 99 = = 13 (4) A = 2 B=3
100 + 125 = = 15 C= 5 D=7
13 + 15 = 25

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12. Case – I
6.

Case – II

8+1=3+6
9=9

7. and Case – III

Conclusion A. Some boats are pens {follow in all}
8. Option (1) is correct. B. Some birds are paper {Not followed by 1}
Because it complete one rotation to reach its C. None of the pens are birds {Not followed by 3}
starting point. \ Only A follows.

13.
9.

(1) ABCIA (2) CDHIC
On comparison W becomes SE. (3) DEGHD (4) BDHIB
(5) CEGIC (6) DEFHD
(7) ABDHA (8) BEGIB
(9) CEFIC (10) ABEGA
(11) BEFIB (12) ABEFA
10. 14. 255, 3610, 4915, M , 8125
52(5), 62(10), 72(15), 82(20), 92(25)
\ M = 6420 Ans.
Cube with number face painted = (n – 2)3
Þ (6 – 2)3 Þ (4)3 = 64 (Option 3).

15.

11.
\ M = U 16 Option 2

16. Sum of Column = 14
7 + 2 + 1 + 4 = 14
3 + 8 + 1 + 2 = 14
6 + 5 + 2 + 1 = 14
\ GH 24 is the odd among all.
2 + 4 + 4 + M = 14 Þ M = 4 Option 3
Option 2.
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17. (3) The expression is 56 (6 + 8) × 4 – 1 = 15. 27. Radius of cylinder = 12 cm
Height = 175 cm
18. (3) 100 – 81 27 + 3 × 6 = 115. Height of new cylinder = 63 cm
Let the radius of New cylinder r
19. (2) 68 satisfies all the given conditions. So, volume of both cylinder should be equal
(12)2 175 = r2 (63)
20. (3) (1, 9), (2, 8), (3, 7), (4, 6), (5, 5), (6, 4), (7, 3), on solving r = 20 cm.
(8, 2), (9, 1). Option (3).
28. Option (3)
21. Number of regions formed by lines follows the 29 and 30
pattern
Hence 11 is the answer.

22.
Number of students who do not play any game
If square is divided in 4 region equally then any is h.
region with 2 points will be having a property such a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h = 150.
that distance between them is less than 2 . b + g = 20
This means, we need minimum of 5 points such e = 20
that atleast one of the region has two points and f = 35
thus there will always be a pair of points such d = 25
that distance between them is less than 2. a=h
e
a= = 10
23. Given 2
h = a = 10.
Sum of digits of x is 15.
10 + 20 + c + 25 + 20 + 10 + 35 = 150.
So, x is divisible by 3 but not by 9.
So, c = 30.
and unit’s digit is 6.
so x is even number. 29. Number of students who play only kabadi is 30.
Option (2) x is divisible by 6 but not by 9. Option (3).

30. Number of students play only hockey is 10.
24. Average age of A, B and C is 43 years. Option (1).
A BC
So, = 43. 31. Number in the blank box
3
= 72 + 92 + 82 = 49 + 81 + 64 = 194.
A + B + C = 129
Statement-I Age of C is 65 years. 32. Number of circles 15.
I is sufficient as 129 - 65 = 64 sum of (B + C). 33. M = 5x
Option (1) is answer. W = 3x
Let y part is removed and replaced by water.
5
M = 5x – y
8
25 -26. 3
W = 3x – y+y
8
M=W
5 3
25. Option (3) 5x – y  3x – y + y
8 8
26. Option (4)

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5 8 40. M A T
x= y y = y..
8 5 13 1 20
8 so 13th prime is 41.
x 1
Required answer = 5 = . 1st prime is 2.
8x 5
20th prime is 71.
34. The minimum number of distinct colours needed to
41. The digit in square is half of the sum of the
colour all the circles in the figure = 3
number written in circle on either side of square.

35.
1
 x = (8 + 3) = 6.
2

42. = ()
H = 23 = 8
(1)4 = 1 + A.

43.

36. C4 = (C2 . C3) C 1 = (10 – 7) 49
= 3 × 7 = 21.

37.

44. The time gap between adjacent clock is 20,
ar ABC is max.
40, R , 80, 100
when AB = BC
So the time in (V) clock.
AB2 + BC2 = AC2
is 12 : 20 + 60 min. = 1 : 20.
2AB2 = 72
45. No of cross increased by 2
AB = 6 = BC
4, 6, 8, 10, 12
ar ABC =
So in the square there should be 4 cross.
1 1
ar ABC = × AB × BC = × 6 × 6 = 18 cm2.
2 2 46. a, b, d, h, p
1 2 4 8 16

38.

47.

By seen from west to east. E is a head of B
39.
and B is a head of A and A is ahead of C and D
is ahead of C. By this conclusion any of the IV
We can’t say () All king are beautiful nor . All
option are possible.
Queen are King.
So neither nor follows.

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48. 4 option is correct because if A is at the first
place then.
A __ __ __
Then C & D are always together. Which
contradict the given condition that C & D can
not be on adjacent seat.

49.

50.

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-II (2017)
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
4 3 3 1 1 1 2 2 4 4 3 4 4 3 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 1 4 1 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 3 1 3 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
2 2 3 3 1 4 4 4 3 3 4 3 1 2 4
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 1 1 1 1 3 2 4 4 1 1 4 3 2 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
3 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 2
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
1 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 3 2 4 1 3 3 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
1 2 4 3 3 1 3 1 3 2

1. Slowest growth will be observed in abscisic acid 10. Tt(F1) × tt (P) - A test cross is that in the plant
and auscin as Abscisic Acid is a plant growth with unknown genotype is creysed with the
inhibior hormone. recessive plant. so Tt is the F1 generation and
tt homogggous recessive.
2. They are cylindrical in appearance and has one
nucleus per cell.
11. Elphantiasis is caused by Wuchereria worm
3. C-Cerebellum and D-Mid brain controlls most (Nematoda) and Acne is caused by bacteria
of the involumtary actions staphylococcus

4. Arthropoda phylum- All the given features are 12. Pancreatic juice contains trypsin and lipase
the characteristic features of the phylum along with anylase
arthropoda. 14. Each bacteria doubles in 20 minutes so, after
20 minutes total bacteria = 2 × 10
5. Nostoc and Bacteria both are prokaryotic on
Similarly, after 40 minutes total bacteria are
the other hand in statement II- Penicillium in
2 × 2 × 10
fungi but spirogyra is an algae.
Therefore, in 120 minutes, total bacteria = 26 × 10
6. I and II- The other two features i.e. tap root
15. Metal oxide ® M2O3 ® M+3 O–2
system and two cotyledons are the
Metal Nitride ® M+3 N–3 ® MN
characteristic features of dicots and the plant
with parallel vanation is a monocat plant. 16. Brass ® is Homogenous mixture (Cu + Zn)
8. II and IV 17. glucose (C6H12O6 ) ® 1.80gm
The groups of organs are performing similar mass =180

functions but have different origin. 1.80
mol = = .01 mol
180
9. Trichoderma - It is used as fungicides
1 ® 6 mol
.01 mol ® .01 × 6

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oxygen molecules ® .01 × 6 × NA = .01 × 6 ×
6.23× 1023 = .06 × 6.023 × 1023 = 6 × 6.023 ×
25.
1021 = 36.132 × 1021 = 0.36 × 1023
36
water (H2O) 36 gm, mol = 18 = 2 mol
= 2 mol × NA = 2 × 6.022 × 1023 = 12.044 × 1023
Total ‘O’ atoms = 12.044 × 1023 + 0.36 × 1023 =
Hence, C & E are not chemically same so
12.404 × 1023
answer is (4)

18. 35
Cl & 37
Cl 26. Zn(s) + 2 Ag NO3 (aq) ® Zn (NO3)2 (aq) + 2 Ag(s)
1 : 3 Hence, Zn is more reachive then Ag SoI +
25 : 75 displace
the Ag, from aqous solution.
25 ´ 35 75 ´ 37
= +
100 100
27. Temperature ® –5ºC– 0ºC ® T ­
875 + 2775 3650 at 0ºC ® Phase change
= = = 36.5 µ
100 100 (T = constant)
at 0ºC to 100ºC ® Temperature is increased
19. Turmeric solution will turn red by an aqueuous
solution of
(i) Potassium acetate (CH3COOK), because
potassium acetate is basic salt 28. From t = 0 ® 1
v ® increasing
dv
slop = a = constant
dt
From t = 1 ® 2
20.
D
2Cu2S + 3O2 ¾¾® 2Cu2O + 2SO2 v ® constant
D
Cu2S + 2Cu2O ¾¾® 6Cu(s) + SO2(g) dv
slop =a=0
dt

21. Both graphite and diamond are allotrops of From t = 2 ® 3
carbon all their chemical properties are same. v ® decreasing
although they show different physical properties. dv
slop = negative = –1
dt
22. Ester and Carboxylic acid
R–COOR , – COOH
1 1 1
29. = =
f v u

23. RQ2 1 -10 1
Þ + = –2
f 4 2
is covalent compound
-1
Þf= Þ concave lens
2
24.
1
power (p) = = 2.0 D
f

30. suppose ball will reach the ground after t1
second and leight is h1 , then -
1
X is CH3COOH, C2H4O2 h1 = 0 ×t1 + × 10 × t12
2
h1 = 5 t12 ........(i)

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Now, ball rebounds with velocity 5 m/s and we know that –
reaches to height h2 and time taken is t2 second H = ut + ½ gt2
then -
1
v = u – gt H=0×t+ × ge t2
0 = 5 – 10 × t2 2
t2 = 1/2 second 1
H = × ge t2 ......(i)
1 2
and h2 = 5t2 – × 10 t 22 similarly for planet –
2
1 1 1 1
h2 = 5 × – × 10 × H= g (t’)2 ......(ii)
2 2 4 2 p
from equ. (i) & (ii) –
5
h2 = m 1 1
4 ge t2 = gp (t’)2
2 2
Given t1 + t2 = 1.5 second
Þ t1 = 1 second 1 1 ge
Þ g t2 = · (t’)2
2 e 2 2
\ h1 = 5 × 1 = 5 m
Þ t’ = 2 ×t
5
So, net displacemet = h1 – h2 = 5 – = 3.75 m Þ t’ =
4 2 × 50 = 70.7

31. Fore = rate of change in momentum 35. frequency remains unchanged.
p 2 2| &
F = rAv2 = rA d v V = fl
4
32. F = ma we know that velocity of sound in air is less as
compare to in water. So accourding to relation
Þ 15 = (8 + 2)a
from equation wavelength is also less in air as
15 3 compare in water.
Þ a= = m/s2
10 2
l sl
F.B.D for block A 36. R=r× ÞR = p ...(1)
A D2
4
volume remains unchanged
vi = vf
A1l1 = A2l2
\ 15 – FAB = 8 × a 2
p 2 p æDö
3 Dl= ç ÷ l
15 – FAB = 8 × 4 4 è5ø 2
2
Þ l2 = 25 l
FAB = 3N
rl 2 r ´ 25l
\ R2 = A =
33. W aparent = W actual – FB 2 p D2
´
4 25
where FB = force of buyonce
æ ö
ç rl ÷
300 = 800 – FB R2 = 625 ç ÷
FB = 500 çç p ´ D2 ÷÷
è4 ø

GM e from equ. (i).
34. ge =
R 2e R2 = 625R
37. according to momentum conservation–
GM p pi = pf
gp =
Rp2 mu + 0 = (m + M)v

G ´ 2M e ge æ m ö
gp = Þ gp = V= ç ÷u ......(i)
(2Re )2 2 èm + Mø

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initial kinetic energy –
1 æ qE ö 2
\ d=0×t+ ç ÷t
1 2 èmø
Ki = mu2 ....(ii)
2
Final kinetic energy – 2md
Þ t=
qE
1
Kf = (m + M)v2
2 1
from equ. (i) – So, t µ
q
2
1 m
Kf = (m + M) u2 t1 q2
2 (m + M)2 \ t2 = q1
2 2
1 mu t 2q
Kf = .....(iii)
2 (m + M) Þ t = q
2
So, loss in kinetic energy –
DK = Ki – Kf t
Þ t2 =
2
2 2
1 1 mu
= mu2 –
2 2 (m + M) 40. If current flowing in same direction then wires
attract each other and if current is flowing in
1 é m ù
= mu2 ê1 - ú opposite direction then wires repel each other.
2 ë m + Mû
force µ0 I1I 2
=
1 æ mM ö 2 length 2pd
DK = ç ÷u
2 èm +Mø
1
38. From fig. – Þ F µ
d
OP = (17)2 + (12)2 = 433 PQ is near so d ¯ and F ­
if angle of incidence is i then from fig. – RS is far so d ­ and F ¯

12
sin i = 41. Possible remainders =
433
Þ 13 = 1 ® r1 = 1
given – 23 = 8 ® r2 = 8
angle of refraction (r) = 90º
Þ 33 = 27 ® r3 = 0
according to snell’s law –
43 = 64 ® r4 = 1
µoil sin i = µair sin r
Possible sum = 1 + 8 = 9
12
µoil × = 1 × sin 90º
433 42. p(x) = q(x)(x – 1) + 3(given)
p(x) = q(x) (x – 3) + 5(given)
433 Also, p(x) = (x – 1)(x – 3) + r(x)
µoil = = 1.734
12 for x = 1,
p(1) = r(3)
39. If electri field is E then force of charge q – for x = 3,
F = qE ....(i) p(3) = r(3)
according to newton’s law of motion – Suppose r(x) = Ax + B
F = ma ....(ii) r(1) = A + B = 3
From eq.(i) and (ii) – r(3) = 3A + B = 5
qE = ma \ A = 1 and B = 2
æ qE ö r(x) = Ax + B
a= ç ÷ r(–2) = – 2A+ B
èmø
r(–2) = –2(1) + 2
Now,
r(–2) = – 2 + 2
1 2 r(–2) = 0
S = ut + at
2

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43. Condition for infinite many solutions. 46. Let the side of square be x units.
p 3 p-3 Then, Diameter of a circle = x untis
= =
12 p p
p=±6 [from (1) and (2)]
p=+6 [from (2) and (3)]
p=6
44. Let a, b be the roots of x2 – bx + 6 = 0 and
a, g be the roots of x2 – 6x+ c = 0
x2 – bx + 6 = 0 a + b = b, a + g = 6
2
x – 6x + c = 0 ab = 6, ag = c
b 3 ab 6
Given, = =
g 4 ag c
b 6 3 6
= Þ = \c=8 x
g c 4 c So, radius of O circle =
x2 – 6x + c = 0 2
x x
Þ x2 – 6x + 8 = 0 Þ OA = OB = OC = \ OD =
2 4
x2 + – 4x – 2x + 8 = 0
Let the side of equilateral D be y units
x(x – 4) – 2(x – 4) = 0
Then,
(x – 4)(x – 2) = 0
Þ AD2 + DC2 = AC2
x = 4 or 2
Now, x2 – bx + 6 = 0 æ 3x ö
2
æyö
2

x2 – bx + 6 = 0 Þ ç 4 ÷ + ç 2 ÷ = y2
è ø è ø
42 – b(4) + 6 = 0 or 22 – b(2) + 6 = 0
16 + 6 – 4b = 0 or 4 + 6 = 2b 9x2 3y 2
Þ =
22 = 4b 10 = 2b 16 4
11 4
=b 5=b Þ x2 = y2
2 3
For b = 5 satisfies, a+b=5 4 4 æ 3 2ö
Þ x2 = . çç y ÷
a.b = 6 ÷
3 3 è 4 ø
(possible values a = 2, b = 3)
16
so the common root will be 2. Þ ar.(Square) = ar.(Triangle)
3 3
45. a=2
Þ ar.(Square) = k.ar.(Triangle)
1 16
S5 = (S10 – S5) Þ k=
4 3 3
4S5 = S10 – S5
5S5 = S10 47. Here, PT = 8 units
é5 ù and BT = 4 units
5 ê 2 ´ 2 + (5 - 1)d ú = 10 2 ´ 2 + (10 - 1)d Then,
ë 2 û 2
TB × TA = TP2
5 10 Þ 4 × TA = (8)2
Þ 5× (4 + 4d) = 4 + 9d
2 2 Þ TA = 16
Þ 20 + 20d = 8 + 18d \ BA = 12
Þ d=–6
30
S30 = [2 × 2 + (30 – 1)(– 6)]
2
30 30
= [4 + 29 × (–6)] = ´ -170
2 2
-5100
= = – 2550
2

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Also, in DBTP,
TP2 = TB2 + BP2
Þ 82 = 42 + BP2
Þ BP2 = 64 + 16 = 48

Þ BP = 4 3
Also in DABP
AB2 + BP2 = AP2 2
x2 = 2 +
2 4
Þ (12)2 + 4 3 = 2(x)2
5 5
x2 = Þx= cm.
Þ r = 4 3 units 2 2

5
48. x2 + bx + 72 = 0 (given) AC = 2 cm (AC = Diameter)
2
Possible roots for a, b Î + ive 2
æ 5ö
a b b a + a = çç 2
2 2 ÷÷
1 72 -73 è 2ø
2 36 -38 5
2a2 = 4 ×
2
3 24 -27
a2 = 5 cm2
4 18 -22
6 12 -18 Area of square = 5 cm2
8 9 -17
Possible roots for a, b Î – ive 50. Let a1x2 + b1x + c1 = 0 and a2x2 + b2x + c2 = 0
a b b bet the two quadratic equation
-1 -72 73 since 1 is a common root.
-2 -36 38 Then,
-3 -24 27 Þ a1 + b1 + c1 = a2 + b2 + c2 = 0
-4 -18 22 Þ b1 = –(a1 + c1) and b2 = –(a2 + c2)
Also, the discriminants of two qudratic equation
-6 -12 18
are equal
-8 -9 17
Then,
So Total possible values of b will be 12. Þ b12 –4a1c1 = b22 – 4a2c2
Þ (a1 + c1)2 – 4a1c1 = (a2 + c2)2 – 4a2c2
49. Area of square = 2 cm2 Þ (a1 – c1)2 = (a2 – c2)2
Þ (a1 – c1)2 = ± (a2 – c2)2
Þ a1 – a2 = c1 – c2 or a1 + a2 = c1 + c2
b1 ± D1
Now, the roots of equation, x = – = a1
2
and c1

-b2 ± D2
Side of square = 2 cm and the roots of equation 2, x = =
2
2 a1 and c2
OP = cm, OQ = x cm
2 If a1 = a2 = 1 be the common roots
2 Then, other roots are c1 and c2
2 æ 2ö
2
x = 2 + çç ÷÷ Þ c1 – c2 = a1 – a2 = 0 or c1 + c2 = a1 + a2
è 2 ø Þ c1 = c 2 c1 + c2 = 2
Hence, roots are either equal or their sum is 2.

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51. 53. Let sides of the solid brick be x, 2x and 3x
Volume = Number of bricks = 6x3
Let
x = 1, 6 × 1 = 6
x = 2, 6 × 8 = 48
x = 3, 6 × 27 = 222
D1N1 = D2N2 x = 4, 6 × 64 = 384
x = 5, 6 × 125 = 750
4 16
x × 32 = x × N2 At x = 5, no. of cubes are going above 400.
5 25
N2 = 40 54. Pattern to be followed.
Now, N2D2 = N3D3

16x 16x
40 × = × N3
25 125
N3 = 50
Medians are 18, 14, 10
52. Let the third point be C(x, y)
18 + 14 + 10 42
Then, Mean = = = 14
3 3
Þ CA = CB = AB
55. Clearly 2272 – 875 = 1397, is exactly divisible
Þ CA2 = CB2 = AB2
by N.
Þ (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = (x – 2)2 + (y + 1)2 Now, 1397 = 11 × 127
= (1 – 2)2 + (2 + 1)2 \ The required 3 – digit number is 127, the
Þ x2 + 1 – 2x + y2 + 4 – 4y = x2 + 4 – 4x + y2 sum of whose digit is 10.
+ 1 + 2y
56. Given
Þ 2x – 6y = 0
Þ x = 3y ... (1) 3
sin q =
5
4
cos q =
5
y
Now, sin(90 – q) =
1
Þ y = cosq
4
Þy=
5
x
cos(90 – q) =
\ (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 10 1
Þ (3y – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 10 (Q x = 3y) 3
Þ x = sinq x =
2
Þ 2y – 2y – 1 = 0 5
On solving we get, 57. Here, P(x) = x2 + 5Kx + K2 + 5
and P(–2) = 0
Þy=1± 3 P(–3) ¹ 0
\ x = 3 1± 3 \ 4 – 10K + K2 + 5 = 0
Þ K2 – 10K + 9 = 0 Þ (K – 9) (K – 1) = 0
Hence C(x, y) lies in either 1st quarant or 3rd Þ K = 1, 9 ... (i)
quadrant.
Also P(– 3) ¹ 0
So, C cannot lie in the second quadrant Þ 9 – 15K + K2 + 5 ¹ 0
Þ K2 – 15K + 14 ¹ 0 Þ (K – 14)(K – 1) ¹ 0
Þ K ¹ 14, 1 ... (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
K=9
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58. cos4q+ sin2q = m, Þ cos4q + 1 – cos2q = m
let cos2q = x
2
æ 1ö 3
Then, Þ m = x –x + 1 = ç x - ÷ +
2 60.
è 2ø 4
2
æ 1ö 1
Now, 0 £ ç x - ÷ £
è 2 ø 4

2
3 æ 1ö 3 1 3
Þ £ çx - ÷ + £ +
4 è 2ø 4 4 4

3
Þ £m£1
4
45 20
= (tangent in both triangles)
59. Let number of apples, bannas and coconuts b AD BD
ex, y and z respectively.
AD 9
=
2x + 3y + z = 26 ... (i) BD 4
3x + 2y + 2z = 35 ... (ii)
(i) × 3, (ii) × 2
6x + 6y + 3z = 78
6x + 4y + 4z = 78
12x + 13y + 7z = 148 tan(90 – q) = cotq
Cost of 12 apples, 13 bananas and 7 coconut 20 AC
is Rs. 148 = (let AC = BC = x)
BC 45
x2 = 900
Let AD = 9y, BD = 4y
\ 9y + 4y = 30
30
y=
13
9 ´ 30 270
\ AD = =
13 13
æ 10 ö
Þ AD = 20 ç 13 ÷ m
è ø

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