SUBJECT : PHYSICS

COURSE: AJAY (ER & ERB)

Wishing you &

your family a very

Happy Diwali

DIWALI HOME ASSIGNMENT

TOPICS
• KINEMATICS • SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION
• NEWTON'S LAWS OF MOTION • GEOMETRICAL OPTICS
• WORK, POWER AND ENERGY • ELECTROSTATICS
• CIRCULAR MOTION

facebook.com/ResonanceEdu twitter.com/ResonanceEdu www.youtube.com/resowatch ResonanceEdu.blogspot.com linkedin.com/in/ResonanceEdu

 DIWALI HOME ASSIGNMENT

KINEMATICS

1. A particle moves in east with velocity of 15 m/s for 2 sec. then moves northward with 5 m/s for 8 sec, then
average velocity of the particle is-
(1) 1 m/s (2) 5 m/s (3) 7 m/s (4) 10 m/s
2. A train covers 50 metre distance and stops when applied the breaks. If the velocity of train is just doubled
and applied the same retarding force then the distance covered by the train is
(1) 50 m (2) 100 m (3) 150 m (4) 200 m

3. A body dropped from the top of a tower covers 7/16 of the total height in the last second of its fall.
The time of fall is

 50 
(1) 2 sec (2) 4 sec (3) 1 sec (4)   sec
 7 

4
4. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration ms–2, in the third
3
second is
10 19
(1) 6 m (2) 4 m (3) m (4) m
3 3

5. A ball is thrown upwards, it takes 4 s to reach back to the ground. Find its initial velocity :
(1) 30 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1 (3) 40 ms–1 (4) 20 ms–1

6. 50 m long trains are crossing each other in opposite direction with velocity of 10 m/s and 15 m/s respectively.
Then time-taken by trains to cross each other will be
(1) 2 sec (2) 4 sec (3) 6 sec (4) 8 sec

7. The correct statement in the following is-

(1) A body can have acceleration even if velocity is zero.
(2) If the velocity of the body be zero, it will necessarily have acceleration.
(3) If the speed of a body is constant its acceleration also will be constant.
(4) A body moving with a variable speed has zero acceleration.
8. A stone thrown vertically up from the ground. It reaches a maximum height of 50 m in 10 sec. After what time
it will reach the ground from the maximum height position-
(1) 1.2 sec (2) 5 sec (3) 10 sec (4) 25 sec
3
9. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m and rebounds with a velocity which is of the velocity with which
4
it hits the ground. W hat is the time interv al between the f irst and second bounces-
(g = 10 m/s²)
(1) 3 sec. (2) 4 sec. (3) 5 sec. (4) 6 sec.
10. A particle starting from rest moves along a straight line with constant acceleration for this velocity displacement
graph will have the form-

V V V V

(1) (2) (3) (4)

S S S S
O O O O
RESONANCE 1
 
11. A projectile is launched with an initial velocity v 0  (2 m / s) î  (3 m / s) ĵ . At the top of the trajectory, the
velocity of the particle is (x horizontal direction, y-vertical direction)-

(1) 22  3 2 m/s (2) 2 m/s (3) 3 m/s (4) 5 m/s

      
12. If angles of projection are   and     where   , then the ratio of horizontal ranges described
4  4  4
by the projectile is (speed is same)-
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 3

13. The time of flight of a projectile is 10s and range is 500m. Maximum height attained by it is-[g = 10 m/s²]
(1) 25 m (2) 50 m (3) 82 m (4) 125 m

3
14. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is times its initial speed. If the range of the projectile is
2
‘P’ times the maximum height attained by it, P =

4 3
(1) (2) 2 3 (3) 4 3 (4)
3 4

15. The range of projectile is 50 m when  is inclined with horizontal at 15°. What is the range when  becomes
45° -
(1) 400 m (2) 300 m (3) 200 m (4) 100 m

16. Three particles, A, B and C are projected from the same point with same initial speeds making angles 30°,
45° and 60° respectively with the horizontal. Which of the following statement is correct-
(1) A, B and C have unequal ranges
(2) Ranges of A and C are equal and less than that of B
(3) Ranges of A and C are equal and greater than that of B
(4) A, B and C have equal ranges

17. An aeroplane flying 490 m above the ground level at 100 m/s, releases a block. How far on the ground will it
2
strike-(g = 9.8 m/s )
(1) 0.1 km (2) 1 km
(3) 2 km (4) None of the above

18. The speed of a boat is 5 km/hr in still water. If it crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path
in 15 min., then velocity of the river is-
(1) 4 km/hr (2) 3 km/hr (3) 2 km/hr (4) 1 km/hr

19. A body A is going from South to North and body B is going from West to East. Then direction of relative
velocity of A with respect to B is-
(1) North-West (2) South-West (3) North-East (4) South-East

20. A train of length 100 m is crossing a bridge 200 m in length at the speed of 72 km per hour. The time taken
by the train to cross the bridge is-
(1) 24 sec (2) 15 sec (3) 10 min (4) 10 sec

21. A boat moves relative to water with a velocity which is n times the river flow velocity. At what angle to the
stream direction must be boat move to minimize drifting?

 –1  1  –1  1  –1  1
(1) (2) sin   (3) + sin   (4) – sin  
2  n 2  n 2  n

RESONANCE 2
22. During a rainstorm, raindrops are observed to be striking the ground at an angle  with the vertical. A wind
is blowing horizontaly at the speed of 5.0 m/s. The speed of raindrops is

5 5
(1) 5 sin  (2) (3) 5 cos  (4)
sin  cos 

23. A car with a vertical wind shield moves along in a rain strom at speed of 40 km/hr. The rain drops fall
vertically with a terminal speed of 20 m/sec. The angle at which the rain drops strike the wind shield is-

–1  5 –1  9 –1  3 –1  2
(1) tan   (2) tan   (3) tan   (4) tan  
 9  5  2  3

24. A car travels half distance with 40 km/hr and rest half distance with 60 km/hr., then the average speed of car
is
(1) 40 km/hr (2) 48 km/hr (3) 52 km/hr (4) 60 km/hr

25. A body falls from a height h = 200 m. The ratio of distance travelled in each 2 s, during t = 0 to t = 6 s of the
journey is :
(1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 1 : 2 : 4 (3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 2 : 3
26. A car moving with a speed of 40 km/hr can be stopped by applying breaks after atleast 2m. If the same car
is moving with a speed of 80 km/h. What is the minimum stopping distance
(1) 8 m (2) 2 m (3) 4 m (4) 6 m

27. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 10 kg are dropped simultaneously from the top of a tower. On the surface of
earth-
(1) Heavier will reach first (2) Lighter will reach first
(3) Both will reach simultenously (4) Any one can reach first.
1000
28. A rocket is fired vertically upwards such that its engine takes 10 seconds
V (m/sec)

in exploding fully. Its velocity time curve is shown in the figure. The height
500
reached by the rocket is-
(1) 20 kms. (2) 40 kms.
(3) 400 kms. (4) 1000 kms.
Time(sec.)
29. The displacement [s] of a body is directly proportional to the square of the time [t] than the acceleration
of the body is
(1) increases (2) constant (3) decreases (4) zero
2
30. If the relation between the range R and time of flight T of a projectile is given as R = 5T , the value of angle of
projection is-

(1) 45° (2) 15° (3) 60° (4) 90°

31. A ball is thrown from rear end of the compartment to the front end which is moving at constant horizontal
velocity. An observer A sitting in the compartment and another observer B standing on the ground draw the
trajectory. They will have-
(1) Equal horizontal and equal vertical ranges.
(2) Equal vertical ranges but different horizontal ranges.
(3) Different vertical ranges but equal horizontal ranges.
(4) Different vertical and different horizontal ranges.

32. A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor of the elevator in a time
t1 if the elevator is stationary and in time t2 if it is moving with constant velocity. Then-
(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 > t2 (4) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2

RESONANCE 3
 NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION & FRICTION
33. A rider on horse falls back when horse starts running, all of a sudden because-
(1) rider is taken back
(2) rider is suddenly afraid of falling
(3) inertia of rest keeps the upper part of body at rest while lower part of the body moves forward with the
horse
(4) none of the above
34. The average force necessary to stop a hammer having momentum 25 N-s in 0.05 second is-
(1) 25 N (2) 50 N (3) 1.25 N (4) 500 N
2
35. The engine of a car produces acceleration 4 m/s in the car. If this car pulls another car of same mass.
What will be the acceleration produced-
2 2 2 2
(1) 1 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s
36. Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are connected by massless strings as shown on a frictionless
table. They are pulled with a force T3 = 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4 kg, the tension T2 will be-

(1) 20 N (2) 40 N (3) 10 N (4) 32 N

37. Two masses of 5 kg and 10 kg are connected to a pulley as shown. What will be the
acceleration if the pulley is set free? [g = acceleration due to gravity]

g
(1) g (2) 5kg
2
10kg

g g
(3) (4)
3 4
T1
38. What is the tension T2 in the system in equilibrium shown in fig.- 1 kg
(1) 5 N T2
(2) 5 kg wt. 2 kg
(3) 1 N
T3
(4) 19.6 N
3 kg

39. As shown in figure, mass M = 10 gms is placed on an inclined plane. In

order to keep it at rest the value of m will be-

(1) 5 gm (2) 10 3 gm M m

(3) 0.10 gm (4) 1.0 3 gm 30°

40. A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform
acceleration of 5 m/s2. What would be the reading on the scale ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 800 N (2) 1200 N (3) Zero (4) 400 N

41. A man is standing on a weighing machine placed in a lift. When lift is stationary his weight is recorded as
2
40 kg. If the lift is accelerated upwards with an acceleration of 2 m/s , then the weight recorded in the
machine will be- (g = 10m/s²)
(1) 32 kg (2) 40 kg (3) 42 kg (4) 48 kg

RESONANCE 4
42. In a situation the contact force by a rough horizontal surface on a body placed on it has constant
magnitude if the angle between this force and the vertical is decreased the frictional force between
the surface and the body will-
(1) increase (2) decrease
(3) remain the same (4) may increase or decrease
43. A 20 kg block is initially at rest. A 75 N horizontal force is required to set the block in motion. After the
motion, a force of 60 N is applied to keep the block moving with constant speed. The coefficient of static
friction is-
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.52 (3) 0.44 (4) 0.35
44. A block is placed on a rough floor and a horizontal force F is applied on it. The force of friction f by the floor
on the block is measured for different values of F and a graph is plotted between them (k < s) -
[a] The graph is a straight line of slope 45°
[b] The graph is straight line parallel to the F axis
[c] The graph is a straight line of slope 45° for small F and a straight line parallel to the F-axis for large F.
[d] There is small kink on the graph
(1) c, d (2) a, d (3) a, b (4) a, c
45. A uniform rope of length  lies on a table. If the coefficient of friction is  then the maximum length I1 of the part
of this rope which can overhang from the edge of the table without sliding down is
   
(1) (2) (3) (4)
  1 1  1– 
46. A lift is moving downwards with an acceleration equal to the acceleration due to gravity. A body of mass M
kept on the floor of the lift is pulled horizontally, if the coefficient of friction is µ, then the frictional resistance
offered by the body is
(1) Mg (2) µMg (3) 2µMg (4) zero
47. Two block A and B placed on a plane surface as shown in the figure. The
mass of block A is 100 kg and that of block B is 200 kg. Block A is tied to
a stand and block B is pulled by a force F. If the coefficient of friction A
between the surfaces of A and B is 0.2 and the coefficient of friction between F
B and the plane is 0.3 then for the motion of B the minimum value of F will B
be-
(1) 700 N (2) 1050 N (3) 900 N (4) 1100 N

48. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an

initial velocity v. If  is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and
the surface, block B will come to rest after a time :
v g g v
(1) g (2) (3) (4) g
v v

49. A block B is placed on a table. The force of reaction will be- B

(1) downwards by the table
(2) upwards by the table
(3) downwards by the block
(4) upwards by the block

WORK, POWER AND ENERGY

50. An object of mass 5kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20 m and reaches a velocity of 10 m/s.
How much work is done by the push of the air on the object? (g = 10 m/s2) -
(1) 350 J (2) 750 J (3) 200 J (4) 300 J
51. A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does -
(1) negative work (2) positive but not maximum work
(3) no work at all (4) maximum work

RESONANCE 5
52. A body of mass m kg is lifted by a man to a height of one meter in 30 sec. Another man lifts the same mass
to the same height in 60 sec. The work done by them against gravity (slowly) are in the ratio -
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
53. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown here. The
force is in N and x is in m. The work done by the force in moving the object
from x = 0 to x = 6m is
(1) 18.0 J
(2) 13.5 J
(3) 4.5 J
(4) 9.0 J

54. The momentum of a body is increased by 50%. The K.E of the body will be increased by -
(1) 50% (2) 125% (3) 330% (4) 400%

55. Two bodies of mass 1kg and 4kg are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear momentum
is -
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

56. A man slides down a snow covered hill along a curved path and falls 20 m below his initial position. The
speed in m/sec with which he finally strikes the ground is (g = 10 m/sec2) -
(1) 20 (2) 400 (3) 200 (4) 40

57. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 ms–1. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining
a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 20 J (2) 30 J (3) 40 J (4) 10 J

58. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done by the force of
gravity during the time the particle goes up is :
(1) – 0.5 J (2) – 1.25 J (3) 1.25 J (4) 0.5 J

59. There will be an increase in potential energy of the system if work is done upon the system by -
(1) any conservative or non-conservative forces (2) a non-conservative force
(3) a conservative force (4) none of these

60. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2cm is U, If the spring is stretched by 8 cm the
potential energy stored in it is :
U
(1) 4 U (2) 8 U (3) 16 U (4)
4

CIRCULAR MOTION
61. Two particles having mass ‘M’ and ‘m’ are moving in a circular path having radius R & r. If their period are
same, then the ratio of angular velocity will be.

r R R
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4)
R r r
B
62. A body is tied up by a string of length  and rotated in vertical circle
VB
at minimum speed. When it reaches at heighest point string breaks and
body moves on a parabolic path in presence of gravity according to fig.
In the plane of point A, value of horizontal range AC will be - VA
(1) x =  (2) x = 2 A C

(3) x = 2 (4) x = 2 2 

RESONANCE 6
63. A hollow sphere has radius 6.4 m. Minimum velocity required by a motor cyclist at bottom to complete the
circle will be.
(1) 17.7 m/s (2) 10.2 m/s (3) 12.4 m/s (4) 16.0 m/s

64. A motorcycle is going on an overbridge of radius R. The driver maintains a constant speed. As the motor-
cycle is ascending on the overbridge, the normal force on it.
(1) Increases (2) Decreases (3) Remains the same (4) Fluctuates

SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

65. Equation of two S.H.M. x1 = 5 sin (2t + /4), x2 = 5. 2 (sin2t + cos2t) ratio of amplitude & phase difference
will be
(1) 2 : 1, 0 (2) 1 : 2, 0 (3) 1 : 2,  / 2 (4) 2 : 1, /2

66. A particle is executing S.H.M. from mean position at 5cm distance, acceleration is 20cm/sec2 then value
of angular velocity will be
(1) 2 rad/sec (2) 4 rad/sec (3) 10 rad/sec (4) 15 rad/sec

67. Amplitude of harmonic oscillator is a, when velocity of particle is half of maximum velocity, then position of
particle will be

3 3
(1) a (2) a (3) a/2 (4) a
2 2

68. In S.H.M., the graph between kinetic energy K and time 't' is.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

69. The graph in the figure shows how the displacement of a particle describing S.H.M. varies with time. Which
one of the following statements is not true ?

3T
(1) the force is zero at time (2) the velocity is maximum at time T/2
4
(3) the acceleration is maximum at time T (4) the P.E. = total energy at time T/2

RESONANCE 7
70. For a simple harmonic vibrator of frequency n, the frequency of kinetic energy changing completely to potential
energy is
(1) n/2 (2) n (3) 2n (4) 4n

d2 y
71. The equation of S.H.M. of a particle is  ky  0 , where k is a positive constant. The time period of motion
dt 2
is given by
2 2
(1) (2) (3) 2k (4) 2  k
k k
72. The total energy of the body executing S.H.M. is E. Then the kinetic energy when the displacement is half of
the amplitude, is
E E
(1) (2)
2 4

3E 3
(3) (4) E
4 4

73. A linear harmoic oscillation of force constant 2 × 106 N/m and amplitude 0.01 m has a total mechanical
energy of 160 joules. Its -
(1) Maximum potential energy is 100 J (2) Maximum K.E. is 100 J
(3) Maximum P.E. is 40 J (4) Minimum P.E is zero

74. A particle executing S.H.M of amplitude 4 cm and T = 4 sec. The time taken by it to move from positive
extreme position to half the amplitude is -
(1) 1 sec (2) 1/3 sec (3) 2/3 sec
(4) 3 / 2 sec

75. The potential energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 2.5 J, when its displacement is half of amplitude. The
total energy of the particle be -
(1) 18 J (2) 10 J
(3) 12 J (4) 2.5 J

76. One body of mass m is suspended from three springs as shown in figure
each spring has spring constant k. If mass m is displaced slightly then
time period of oscillation is

m 3m
(1) 2 (2) 2
3k 2k

2m 3k
(3) 2 3 k (4) 2
m

77. One mass m is suspended from a spring. Time period of oscillation is T. Now if spring is divided into n
pieces & these are joined in parallel order then time period of oscillation if same mass is suspended.

n 2m n 2k m k
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 2 2
k m n k n m

78. A spring has a certain mass suspended from it and its period for vertical oscillations is T1. The spring is
now cut into two equal halves and the same mass is suspended from one of the half. The period of vertical
oscillation is now T2. The ratio of T2/T1 is
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/ 2 (3) 2 (4) 2

RESONANCE 8
79. Two objects A and B of equal mass are suspended from two springs of spring constants kA and kB if the
objects oscillte vertically in such a manner that their maximum kinetic energies are equal, then the ratio of
their amplitudes is

KB KB KA KA
(1) K (2) KA (3) K (4) KB
A B

80. If the period of oscillation of mass M suspended from a spring is one second, then the period of
4M will be -
(1) 1/2 sec (2) 1/4 sec (3) 2 sec (4) 4 sec
81. A simple pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a stationary trolley has a length . Its period of oscillation

is 2  / g . What will be its period of oscillation if the trolley moves forward with an acceleration f ?

   
(1) 2 f  g (2) 2 f  g (3) 2 2 2 1/ 2 (4) 2
(f  g ) f  g2
2

82. A man measures the period of a simple pendulum inside a stationary lift and finds it to be T sec. If the lift
accelerates upwards with an acceleration g/4, then the period of the pendulum will be -

T 2T
(1) T (2) (3) (4) 2T 5
4 5
83. The amplitude of a damped harmonic oscillator become halved in 1 minute. After three minutes the amplitude
will become 1/x of initial amplitude where x is -
(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

84. A particle executing S.H.M. having amplitude 0.01m & frequency 60Hz. Maximum acceleration of particle is
(1) 14.4 2 m/s2 (2) 144 2 m/s2 (3) 1.44 2 m/s2 (4) .144 2 m/s2

85. The displacement, velocity amplitude of particular executing S.H.M. is related by the expression

 2 2 
(1) V   a 2  x 2 (2) V = (a2 – x2)  (3) v = (a2 + x2)  (4) v   a  x 
 

86. The displacement of the two particles executing SHM are represented by y1 = a sin (t + ) and y2 = a sin t.
The phase difference between the velocities of these particles is
(1) /2 +  (2)  – /2 (3)  (4) – 

87. The displacement of particle executing S.H.M. is given by y = 5 sin 20t. Its frequency is
(1) 10Hz (2) 20 Hz (3) 0.1 Hz (4) 20 Hz

88. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position the velocity
of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of the particle from the mean position when its speed becomes
5 cm/s is -
(1) 3 cm (2) 5 cm (3) 2 ( 3) cm (4) 2 ( 5) cm

89. The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator when the particle is half way of its end point is (where
E is the total energy) -
1 1 1 2
(1) E (2) E (3) E (4) E
8 4 2 3

90. A simple pendulum has some time period T. What will be the % change in its time-period if its amplitude
is decreased by 8% ?
(1) 8 % (2) 3 % (3) 1.5 % (4) it will remain unchanged

RESONANCE 9
91. Two simple pendulums of lengths 1 meter and 16 meteres respectively are both given small displacements
in the same direction at the same instant. They will again be in phase after the shorter pendulum has
completed n oscillations where n is

1 1
(1) (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 4
4 3

92. A simple pendulum of period T has a metal bob which is negatively charged. If its is allowed to oscillate above
a large positively charged metallic plate, its period
(1) remains the same (2) decreases (3) increases (4) nothing can be said definitely
GEOMETRICAL OPTICS
93. A person is standing in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror recedes with velocity v, the relative separation
of person and his image per second is
v
(1) 0 (2) v (3) 2 v (4)
2
94. Two plane mirrors are inclined to one another at an angle of 40°. A point object is symmetrically placed
in between them, The number of images formed due to reflection at both mirrors is-
(1) Infinite (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 6
95. Two plane mirrors parallel to each other and an object O placed between
O
them. Then the distance of the first three images from the mirror M2 will 5cm
be (in cm)-
(1) 5, 10, 15 (2) 5, 15, 30 M1 M2
(3) 5, 25, 35 (4) 5, 15, 25 15 cm

96. The mirrors are perpendicular to each other as shown in the fig. A light M1
ray AB is incident on the mirror M1. Then the reflected ray will also suffer A
a reflection from the mirror M2. Then the final ray after reflection from M2 i
B
will be parallel to the incident ray, if-
(1) i = 45° (2) i = 60° (3) i < 30°
(4) for any i between 0° and 90° M2

97. An object is placed at a distance u cm from a concave mirror of focal length f cm. The real image of
the object is received on a screen placed at a distance of v cm from the mirror. The values of u are changed
and the corresponding values of v are measured. Which one of the graphs shown in the figure represents

1 1
the variation of with ?
v u

1/v 1/v 1/v 1/v

(1) (2) (3) (4)

O 1/u O 1/u O 1/u O 1/u

98. The relation between magnification m, the object position u and focal length f of the mirror is

f u f f u f
(1) m  (2) m  (3) m  (4) m 
f f u f f u

99. In a concave mirror an object is placed at a distance x1 from the focus, and the image is formed at a
distance x2 from the focus. Then the focal length of the mirror is-

x1  x 2 x1
(1) x1x2 (2) x1x 2 (3) (4) x2
2

RESONANCE 10
100. The largest distance of the image from a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm can be-
(1) 20 cm (2) infinite
(3) 10 cm (4) depends on the position of object

101. All of the following statements are correct except

(1) The magnification produced by a convex mirror is always less than one
(2) A virtual, erect, same-sized image can be obtained using a plane mirror
(3) A virtual, erect, magnified image can be formed using a concave mirror
(4) A real, inverted, same-sized image can be formed using a convex mirror

102. A vessel of depth 2d cm is half filled with a liquid of refractive index 1 and the upper half with a liquid of
refracive index 2 . The apparent depth of the vessel seen perpendicularly is

 1 2   1 1   1 1  1 
(1) d      (2) d      (3) 2d    (4) 2d  
 1 2   1 2   1 2   1 2 

103. A fish is a little away below the surface of a lake. If the critical angle is 490,
then the fish could see things above the water surface within an angualr
range of 0 where
(1)   490 (2)   900
0
1
(3)   980 (4)   24
2

104. The angle of minimum deviation for a prism is 300 and the angle of prism is 600. The refractive index of the
material of the prism is

3 3
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) (4)
2 2
0
105. There is a prism with refractive index equal to 2 and the refracting angle equal to 30 . One of the refracting
surfaces of the prism is polished. A beam of monochromatic light will retrace its path if its angle of incidence
over the refracting surface of the prism is
(1) 00 (2) 300 (3) 450 (4) 600

106. For a prism, graph between angle of deviation    and angle of incidence will be

(1) (2) (3) (4)

107. The maximum value of index of refraction of a material of a prism which allows the passage of light through
it when the refracting angle of the prism is A is

A A 2 A 2 A
(1) 1  sin   (2) 1  cos   (3) 1  tan   (4) 1  cot  
2 2 2 2
108. Deviation  produced by a prism of refractive index  and small angle A is given by

(1)      1 A (2)      1 A (3)    A  1  (4)    A  1 

RESONANCE 11
109. If the refractive indices of crown glass for red, yellow and violet colours are 1.5140, 1.5170 and 1.5318
respectively and for flint glass these are 1.6434, 1.6499 and 1.6852 respectively, then the dispersive power
for crown and flint glass are respectively
(1) 0.034 and 0.064 (2) 0.064 and 0.034 (3) 1.3 and 0.064 (4) 0.034 and 1.0

110. The twinkling of stars is due to

(1) the fact that star do not emit light continuously
(2) Frequent absoroption of star light by their own atmosphere
(3) The fact that refractive index of the earth’s atmosphere fluctuates
(4) Intermittent absorption of star lgiht by earth atmosphere

111. Refractive index of a material is greatest

(1) For red light (2) For green light
(3) For violet light
(4) The question is irrelevant as refractive index of a material is same for all colours of light
112. A convex lens of focal length A and a concave lens of focal length B are placed in contact. The focal length
of the combiantion is

AB AB
(1) (A + B) (2) (A – B) (3) A  B (4) B  A
   
113. Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25 cm are placed in contact. The effective power of the
combination is
1
(1) diopter (2) 9 diopter (3) 6 diopter (4) 45 diopter
9

114. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The separation
between the objective and the eye-piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity. The focal
length f 0 of the objective and f e of the eye-piece are
(1) f 0 = 45 cm and f e = – 9 cm (2) f 0 = 50 cm and f e = 10 cm
(3) f 0 = 7.2 cm and f e = 5 cm (4) f 0 = 30 cm and f e = 6 cm
115. In order to increase the magnifying power of a telescope
(1) The focal powers of the objective and the eye-piece should be large
(2) Objective should have small focal length and the eye-piece large
(3) Both should have large focal length
(4) The objective shold have large focal llength and the eye-piece should have small

116. A Galilean telescope measures 9 cm from the objective to the eye-piece. The focal length of the objective
is 15 cm. Its magnifying power is
2 5
(1) 2.5 (2) (3) (4) 0.4
5 3

117. With a simple microscope, if the final image is located at infinity, then its magnifying power is
D D f
(1) (2) 1  (3) (4) D  f
f f D

ELECTROSTATICS
118. A negative charge is placed at some point on the line joining the two +Q charges at rest. The direction
of motion of negative charge will depend upon the :
(1) position of negative charge alone
(2) magnitude of negative charge alone
(3) both on the magnitude and position of negative charge
(4) magnitude of positive charge.

RESONANCE 12
119. Three point charges Q1 , Q2 and Q3 in that order are placed equally spaced along a straight line. Q2 and Q3 are
equal in magnitude but opposite in sign. If the net force on Q3 is zero, the value of Q1 is -
(1) Q1 = |Q3| (2) Q1 = 2 |Q3| (3) Q1 = 2 |Q3| (4) Q1 = 4 |Q3|

120. If Q = 2 coloumb and force on it is F = 100 newton, then the value of field intensity will be :
(1) 100 N/C (2) 50 N/C (3) 200 N/C (4) 10 N/C

121. The charge density of an insulating infinite surface is (e/) C/m2 then the field intensity at a nearby point
in volt/meter will be -
(1) 2.88 x 10–12 (2) 2.88 x 10–10 (3) 2.88 x 10–9 (4) 2.88 x 10–19

122. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released. The kinetic
energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y is -
(1) qEy2 (2) qE2y (3) qEy (4) q2Ey

123. Two equal negative charges -q are placed at point (0, ± a) on y-axis, one positive charge q is placed at x = 2a,
this charge will-
(1) Execute S.H.M. about the origin
(2) Oscillate but not execute S.H.M.
(3) Move towards origin and will become stationary
(4) S.H.M. along x axis

124. If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R has charge density . The electric field at a distance r from
the centre of sphere (r < R) will be
R r r 3 R
(1) 3 (2)  (3) 3 (4) 
0 0 0 0

125. An object is charged with positive charge. The potential at that object will be -
(1) positive only (2) negative only
(3) zero always (4) may be positive, negative or zero.
126. A hollow charged metal sphere has a radius r. If the potential difference between its surface and a point at a
distance 3r from the centre is V, then the electric intensity at a distance 3r from the centre is-
V V V V
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6r 4r 3r 2r
127. A semicircular ring of radius R is given a uniform charge Q. Then the electric field
and electric potential at its centre will be - Q
+ + + + ++
+ +
+
Q Q Q Q + R +
(1) , (2) ,
4 0 R 2 4 0 R 2 0  R 2 2 4 0 R O

Q Q
(3) 4   R , 2   R (4) zero, zero
0 0

128. Eight identical charges, each of magnitude q are placed at the eight corners of a cube of side L. Then the
electric potential at the center of the cube will be-

2q 4q 8q
(1) (2) (3) (4) Zero
3  0 L 3  0 L 3  0 L

129. When one electron is taken towards the other electron, then the electric potential energy of the system.
(1) Decreases (2) Increases
(3) Remains unchanged (4) Becomes zero

RESONANCE 13
130. Three charges are placed as shown in figure if the electric potential energy of system is zero, then Q : q-
-q Q -q

r r

Q 2 Q 2 Q 1 Q 1
(1) = (2) = (3) = (4) =
q 1 q 1 q 2 q 4

131. The electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole will be -

       
k( p . r ) k(p . r ) k p x r  k p x r 
(1) (2) (3) (4)
r3 r 2 r r2

132. An electric dipole is made up of two equal and opposite charges of 2 x 10–6 coulomb at a distance of
3 cm. This is kept in an electric field of 2 x 105 N/C, then the maximum torque acting on the dipole -
(1) 12 x 10–1 Nm (2) 12 x 10–3 Nm (3) 24 x 10–3 Nm (4) 24 x 10–1 Nm
133. Consider two point charges of equal magnitude and opposite sign separated by a certain distance. The
neutral point due to them.
(1) Does not exist
(2) Will be in mid way between them
(3) Lies on the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the two
(4) Will be closer to the negative charge
134. A charge particle is free to move in an electric field. It will travel
(1) Always along a line of force
(2) Along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero
(3) Along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in the direction of an acute angle with the line of force
(4) None of the above
135. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the
outward electric flux will :
(1) increase four times (2) be reduced to half (3) remain the same (4) be doubled

136. The electric field in a region surrounding the origin is uniform and along the
B
x-axis. A small circle is drawn with the centre at the origin cutting the axes
at points A, B, C, D having coordinates (a, 0); (0, a); (–a, 0); (0, –a)
E
respectively as shown in fig. Then the potential is minimum at - C A

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D D

137. The figure shows some of the electric field lines corresponding to an elec
tric field. The figure suggests-
B
(1) EA > EB > EC (2) EA = EB = EC A C

(3) EA = EC > EB (4) EA = EC < EB

138 Three charges q1 = 1 × 10–6 , q2 = 2 × 10–6 , q3 = –3 × 10–6 C have been

s3
placed, as shown in figure, in four surfaces S 1, S2, S3 and S4 electrical
q3
q1
flux emitted from the surface S2 in N–m 2/C will be - q2
s1 s2
(1) 36 × 103 (2) –36 × 103
s4
9
(3) 36 × 10 (4) –36 × 109
139. For an electrostatic system which of the statement is always true :
[a] electric lines are parallel to metallic surface.
[b] electric field inside a metallic surface is zero.
[c] electric lines of force are perpendicular to equi-potential surface.
(1) (1) and (2) only (2) (2) and (3) only (3) (1) and (3) only (4) (1), (2) and (3)

RESONANCE 14
140. Charge on an originally uncharged conductor is separated by holding a
positively charged rod very closely nearby, as in Fig. Assume that the
induced negative charge on the conductor is equal to the positive charge q0
on the rod then, flux through surface S1 is -
(1) zero (2) q0 /  0
(3) q0 /  0 (4) none of the above

141. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of the open end of a hollow q
cylindrical vessel of length  and radius r. Then the electric flux coming
out of the surface of the cylinder is-

q q 
(1) (2) ( r 2  2r )
0 0
r
q
(3) (4) Zero
2 0

142. W is a straight wire in which a uniform current is flowing in the direction shown and W
S is a closed cylindrical surface with wire passing through it along the axis. Then
the electric flux through the closed surface will be-
(1) Zero S

(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) Not zero but cannot be determined
143. The electric field in the region shown here is given by E  x i volt/m.
Y
Then the total electric flux through the cube of side ‘a’ is-
(1) Zero
(2) a²
5/2
(3) a X
3/2 O
(4) a a

144. Gauss’s law should be invalid if

(1) There were magnetic monoples
(2) The inverse square law were not exactly true
(3) The velocity of light were not a universal constant
(4) None of these

145. 
For a given surface the Gauss’s law is stated as E.ds  0 . From this we can conclude that

(1) E is necessarily zero on the surface

(2) E is perpendicular to the surface at every point
(3) The total flux through the surface is zero
(4) The flux is only going out of the surface

146. In the following figure an isolated charged conductor is shown. The correct +A
++ B
statement will be - + + + ++ + C+
+ + +
(1) EA > EB > EC > ED (2) EA < EB < EC < ED
E=0
(3) EA = EB = EC = ED (4) EB = EC and EA > ED + +D +

147. A family of equipotential surfaces are shown. The direction of the electric
field at point A is along -
(1) AB
(2) AC
(3) AD
(4) AF
RESONANCE 15
148. A and B are concentric conducting spherical shells. A is given a positive charge
B
while B is earthed. Then-
+ + +A
(1) A and B both will have the same charge densities + +
++
(2) the potential inside A and outside B will zero
(3) the electric field between A and B is non zero
(4) the electric field inside A and outside B is non zero.

149. A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an electric field produced by a

point charge placed at P as shown in figure. Let VA, VB, VC be the poten
tials at points A, B and C respectively. Then
(1)VC > VB
(2) VB > VC
(3) VA > VB
(4) VA = VC

150. A thin wire ring of radius r carries a charges q. The maximum magnitude of the electric field strength on the
axis of the ring from its centre would be at a distance of-

r r r r
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 2 3

151. The potential at 0.5 Å from a proton is -

(1) 0.5 volt (2) 8 volt (3) 28.8 volt (4) 2 volt

152. The potential on the conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 is same, the ratio of their charge densities will
be-
(1) r1/r2 (2) r2/r1 (3) r12/r22 (4) r22/r12

153. Charges of + (10/3) x 10-9 C are placed at each of the four corners of a square of side 8 cm. The potential at
the intersection of the diagonals is -
(1) 150 2 volt (2) 1500 2 volt (3) 900 2 volt (4) 900 volt

154. A charge (–q) and another charge (+Q) are kept at two points A and B respectively. Keeping the charge (+Q)
fixed at B, the charge (–q) at A is moved to another point C such that ABC forms an equilateral triangle of side
. The net work done in moving the charge (–q) is-
1 Qq 1 Qq 1
(1) (2) (3) Qq (4) Zero
4 0  4 0  2 4 0

155. If ' n ' identical water drops assumed spherical each charged to a potential energy U coalesce to a
single drop, the potential energy of the single drop is(Assume that drops are uniformly charged):
(1) n1/3 U (2) n2/3 U (3) n4/3 U (4) n5/3 U

156. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas of equal number of

moles of different volumes are plotted as shown in figure. Choose the correct
alternative :
(1) V1 = V2,V3 = V4 and V2 > V3
(2) V1 = V2,V3 = V4 and V2 < V3
(3) V1 = V2= V3 = V4
(4) V4 > V3 > V2 > V1

157. If two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas temperature T0 is mixed with 4 moles of another ideal monoatomic
gas at temperature 4T0, then the temperature of the mixture is :
5 3 5
(1) T0 (2) T0 (3) 3T0 (4) T0
3 2 4

RESONANCE 16
158. Pressure versus temperature graphs of an ideal gas are as shown in figure. Choose the wrong statement :

(1) Density of gas is increasing in graph (i)

(2) Density of gas is decreasing in graph (ii)
(3) Density of gas is constant in graph (iii)
(4) None of the above
159. A ideal gas is expanded to double its volume by two different process. One is isobaric and the other is
isothermal. Let W 1 and W 2 be the respective work done, then :
W1 W1 W2
(1) W 2 = W 1 In (2) (2) W2  (3) W2  (4) W1 
In (2) 2 2
160. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant pressure. The ratio of Q : U : W is :

(1) 5 : 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 2 : 3 (3) 7 : 5 : 2 (4) 7 : 2 : 5

161. The energy density U/V of an ideal monoatomic gas is related to its pressure P as :
U U 3 U P U 5
(1)  3P (2)  P (3)  (4)  P
V V 2 V 3 V 2

162. A mono–atomic ideal gas is compressed from volume V to V/2 through various process. For which of the
following processes final pressure will be maximum :
(1) isobaric (2) isothermal (3) adiabatic (4) PV2 = constant
163. Select the correct statement for isobaric expansion of monoatomic ideal gas. If W is work done by the gas,
U is change in internal energy of the gas, Q is heat supplied to the gas :
2 3 5 2
(1) W = U (2) U = Q (3) W = Q (4) U = Q
3 10 7 7

164. A diatomic gas is taken along following process then during this process :
(1) work done by the gas will be positive
(2) work done by the gas will be negative
(3) work done by the gas will be zero
(4) None of these

RESONANCE 17
 ANSWER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (3)

22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (1)

29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (3)

36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (2) 41. (4) 42. (2)
43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (2)

50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (1)

57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (1)

64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (3)

71. (1) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3)
78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (3) 81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (2)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (3) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (4)
92. (2) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (3) 96. (4) 97. (3) 98. (2)

99. (2) 100. (3) 101. (4) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (3)
106. (1) 107. (4) 108. (1) 109. (1) 110. (3) 111. (3) 112. (4)

113. (2) 114. (4) 115. (4) 116. (1) 117. (1) 118. (1) 119. (4)

120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (3) 123. (2) 124. (3) 125. (4) 126. (1)

127. (2) 128. (2) 129. (2) 130. (4) 131. (1) 132. (2) 133. (1)
134. (2) 135. (3) 136. (1) 137. (3) 138 (2) 139. (2) 140. (2)
141. (3) 142. (1) 143. (3) 144. (2) 145. (3) 146. (1) 147. (4)
148. (3) 149. (4) 150. (3) 151. (3) 152. (2) 153. (2) 154. (4)
155. (4) 156. (1) 157. (3) 158. (3) 159. (1) 160. (3) 161. (2)
162. (4) 163. (1) 164. (2)

RESONANCE 18
We Are Here For You...
Study Centres
KOTA
Corporate/Head Office
CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall,
Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005
Tel.: 0744-3012222, 3192222, 6635555
Fax: 022-39167222, 744-2427144
Website: www.resonance.ac.in
e-mail: contact@resonance.ac.in
Commerce Division Campus:
607/608-A, Talwandi, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Tel.: 0744-3192229, 9529980666
e-mail: commerce@resonance.ac.in
PCCP/PSPD/MEx Campus
J-2, Jawahar Nagar Main Road, Kota (Raj.)
Tel.: 0744-2434727, 8824078330
e-mail: pccp@resonance.ac.in
Station Campus (PCCP/Commerce only)
1st Floor, C/o 3-4, Vidya Vihar, Manoj Marg,
Station Road, Kota (Raj.)-324002
Tel.: 0744-3192223, 9829329593, 9828545223
JAIPUR
Central Campus
B L Tower Ist, Near Jaipur Hospital, Mahaveer
Nagar 1st, Tonk Road,
Jaipur (Raj.) - 302 015
Tel.: 0141- 6060661, 6060664, 3192222
e-mail: jaipurc@resonance.ac.in
West Campus
B-99, Near National Handloom, Vashali Nagar,
Jaipur (Raj.)
Tel.: 0141-3103666, 4042188
e-mail: jaipurw@resonance.ac.in
East Campus (PCCP only)
Plot No: 188, Gali No. -1, Panchwati Circle, Raja
Park, Jaipur (Raj.)
Tel.: 0141-3101166
e-mail: jaipure@resonance.ac.in
North Campus (PCCP only)
ARGHAM Tower, R-6 (B-1),
Sector 1 Near MGPS School,
Vidhyadhar Nagar, Jaipur (Rajasthan)
Tel.: 0141-3192224, 6060662, 6060663
e-mail: jaipurn@resonance.ac.in
BHOPAL
224, Smriti Complex, Zone-1, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal
(M.P.) - 462011
Tel.: 0755-3206353, 3192222
Fax: 0755 - 4044453
e-mail: bhopal@resonance.ac.in
NEW DELHI
South Campus
41 A, Ground Floor, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar,
New Delhi - 110016
Tel.: 011-31922222, 60606602
e-mail: delhi@resonance.ac.in
North West Campus
10, Ground Floor, Central Market, Punjabi Bagh
(West), New Delhi - 110026
Tel.: 011-31922224, 60606601
e-mail: delhinw@resonance.ac.in
East Campus
14, Pratap Nagar, Mayur Vihar Phase-1,
New Delhi - 110096
Tel.: 011-31922223 / 5, 60606603
e-mail: delhie@resonance.ac.in
LUCKNOW
Hazaratganj Campus
13/1, Moti Chamber, Rana Pratap Marg, YMCA
Complex, Ground Floor, In Front of Gauri
Apartment, R.F. Bahaduri Marg, Hazratganj,
Lucknow (U.P.) - 1
Tel.: 0522-3192222, 3205854, 6060660/1
Mob.: 9369225676
e-mail: lko@resonance.ac.in
Alambagh Campus
II Floor Basant Tower, Opp. One Up Motors, Near
Avadh Hospital, Alambagh, Lucknow
Tel.: 0522-3206974, 3192223, 6060662
e-mail: lko@resonance.ac.in
KOLKATA
1-A.J.C. Bose Road, 2nd Floor, Near Exide More
& Lord Sinha Road Crossing
(Entrance through Lord Sinha Road)
Kolkata (West Bengal) - 700 020
Tel.: 033-31922222, 60606600
email: kolkata@resonance.ac.in
NAGPUR
Main Campus
Pragati Building, 2nd Floor, Sanskrutik Sankul
Building,
Jhansi Rani Square, Sita Buldi, Nagpur - 440012
Tel: 0712 - 3017222, 3192222, 6060660.
Mob.: 9372137857, 9373507997 / 8
e-mail: nagpur@resonance.ac.in
Extension Campus
Vinamra Building, Above PNB Bank, Beralia
House. Plot No. 91, Chaprunagar Square, Central
Avenue Road, Nagpur - 440 008
Tel: 0712-6462622, 3922333, 6060661
MUMBAI
Andheri Campus (Regional Office)
Spenta Mansion, 2nd Floor, Above Moti Mahal
Hotel, Opp Station, Andheri (W), Mumbai - 400
058
Tel.: 022-3192 2222, 60606600
e-mail: andheri@resonance.ac.in
Borivali Campus
2nd Floor, Raghuvir Tower, Junction of SVP Road
& Ganjawala Lane, Chamunda Circle,
Borivali (W), Mumbai
Tel.: 022-31922226, 6060 6601
e-mail: kandivali@resonance.ac.in
Churchgate Campus
Jai Hind College, Admissions Office "A" Road,
Churchgate Mumbai-400020 (Maharashtra)
Tel.: 022-31922223, 60606602
e-mail: jaihind@resonance.ac.in
Dadar Campus
C 8 (A) Kasturchand Mill Compound, Ground
Floor,
Near Manish Market, Senapati Bapat Marg, Near
Dadar west Railway station,Dadar (W), Mumbai
Tel.: 022-31922224 / 9769210458
e-mail: dadar@resonance.ac.in
Govandi Campus
1st Floor, Runwal Complex, Opp ICICI Bank,
Govandi Station Road, Govandi (E), Mumbai
Tel.: 022-31922225, 9930269183
e-mail: govandi@resonance.ac.in
Nerul Campus
C-11, Amrita Sadan, Plot no. 13/14, Sector - 22,
Oppo. Nerul Rly. Station, Nerul (W), Navi Mumbai-
6 2nd Floor, Gayatri Commercial Complex, Opp.
Tel.: 022-31922227, 60606605
e-mail: nerul@resonance.ac.in
Panvel Campus
Deep Dhara, Plot No.08, Road No.18, Sector-1,
Opp Geetanjali Building, New Panvel - 410 206
Tel.: 022-31922232, 60606606
e-mail: panvel@resonance.ac.in
Thane Campus
Paranjpe Udyog Bhavan, 2nd floor, Above
Khandelwal Sweets, Opp. station Thane (W) -
400607
Tel.: 022-31922228, 32191498, 6060 6607
e-mail: thane@resonance.ac.in
Kharghar Campus
5/6/7/8, Swami Samarth Bldg., Sector-12,
Opp. Kendriya Vihar Colony, Behind Syndicate
Bank,
Behind Mercantile Bank, Kharghar
Tel.: 022-32191499, 60606608
e-mail: kharghar@resonance.ac.in
Boisar Campus
Dr. Homi Bhabha Vidyalaya, 1st Flr,
Anushree Colony, TAPS, Tarapur, Boisar - 401504
Tel.: 09321313417
e-mail: tarapur@resonance.ac.in
Lodhivali Campus
Resonance, A/4, Reliance Township,
Lodhivali Township, Lodhivali, Navi Mumbai -
400705
Tel.: 07709833704
e-mail: lodhivali@resonance.ac.in
UDAIPUR
Resonance, First Floor, B-Block, Anand Plaza,
University Road, Udaipur (Raj) -1
Tel.: 0294-6060660, 5107858
e-mail: udaipur@resonance.ac.in
University Road Campus
A-One School, University Road, Udaipur-1
Tel.: 0294-3192222, 2427858,
BHUBANESWAR
Plot No-21/5, Near Regional Science Centre,
Acharya Vihar, Bhubneshwar-751013
Tel.: 0674-3192222, 3274919, 6060660/1
e-mail: bbsr@resonance.ac.in
AHMEDABAD
2nd Floor, C-Block, Galaxy Bazaar,
Opp. Sunrise Park, Near Himalaya Mall,
Off Drive-In Road Vastrapur, Ahmedabad
Tel.: 079-31922222/3, 60606600/1/2
e-mail: abad@resonance.ac.in
BRANCHES: SHAHIBAUG I MANINAGAR I
GANDHINAGAR
PATNA
Kankarbagh Campus
NC/8, Gayatri Mandir Road, Kankar Bagh,
Patna (Bihar) - 800020
Tel.: 0612-3192222, 2350070
e-mail: patna@resonance.ac.in
Boring Road Campus
3rd Floor A G Palace, Besides St. John's High
School, Near Panchmukhi Hanuman Mandir,
East Boring Canal Road, Patna
Tel.: 0612-3192223, 2520109
e-mail: patna@resonance.ac.in
JODHPUR
Aanchal Complex (Basement), Near Manidhari
Hospital, Residency Road, Sardarpura, Jodhpur
Tel.: 0291-3192222, 6060660
e-mail: jodhpur@resonance.ac.in
AJMER
Plot No. 1408, Aryan College Building, Near Ram
Bhawan, Shastri Nagar, Ajmer-305001
Tel.: 0145-3192222, 2621614, 6060660
e-mail: ajmer@resonance.ac.in
INDORE
1st Floor, Gravity Tower, Opp. Agrawal Stores,
Indore - 452003 (MP)
Tel: 0731-3192222, 4274200
e-mail: indore@resonance.ac.in
SIKAR
Vishwakarma Apartment, Piprali Road, Sikar-
332001
Tel: 01572-319222, 606066 & 258222
e-mail: sikar@resonance.ac.in
AGRA
1, Kailash Vihar, Behind St. Conrad's college,
Khandari, By-Pass Road, Agra-282005
Tel: 0562-3192222
e-mail: agra@resonance.ac.in
NANDED
Beside Akola Urban Cooperative Bank, V.I.P
Road, Paras Square, Nanded.- 431602
Tel: 02462-250220, 606066
e-mail: nanded@resonance.ac.in
RANCHI
501, Le-Desire Building, Opp Hari Om Towers,
Circular Road, Ranchi - 834001
Tel.: 0651-6060660, 7677923007
e-mail: ranchi@resonance.ac.in
ALLAHABAD
4th Floor, Vinayak Tower, Above Axis Bank,
M.G.Road, Civil Lines, Allahabad-211001
Tel.: 0532-6060660, 9984255086
e-mail: allahabad@resonance.ac.in
GWALIOR
1st & 2nd Flr, Bansi Plaza, Near S.P. Office,
City Centre, Gwalior - 474012
Tel.: 0751-6060660, 9669688934
e-mail: gwalior@resonance.ac.in
JABALPUR
1st Floor, Nayan Tower, Near Madan Mahal Police
Station, Shivaji Chowk, Napier Town - 2
Tel.: 0761-6060660, 8120005717
e-mail: jabalpur@resonance.ac.in
AURANGABAD
2nd Floor, Alaknanda Building, Near Baba Petrol
Pump, Adalat Road Aurangabad - 431001
Tel.: 9910066021
e-mail: aurangabad@resonance.ac.in
RAIPUR
1st & 2nd Floor, Vandana Auto Building, Opp Raj
Kumar College, Raipur Pin code- 492001
Tel.: 0771-6060660, 7771007840
e-mail: raipur@resonance.ac.in
NASHIK
Mangal Plaza, Second Floor, Near Kalika Mandir,
Old Agra Road, Nashik-422002
Mob.: 09730877804
e-mail: nashik@resonance.ac.in
CHANDRAPUR
Resonance Study Centre, Zanzari Complex, Z.P.
Road, Near Hotel Rasraj, Chandrapur-442401
SURAT
21st Century Business Centre, Near World Trade
Centre, Udhna Darwaja, Ring Road, Surat
Tel.: 7874438681, 09725552181
e-mail: surat@resonance.ac.in
RAJKOT
Parimal School, Kalavaad Road, Rajkot-360005
Tel.: 09314805678, 09974802362
e-mail: rajkot@resonance.ac.in
VADODARA
Royal Hub, Next to Seven Seas Mall, Fatehgunj,
Vadodara - 390002
Tel.: 0265-6060660, 7567810117
e-mail: vadodara@resonance.ac.in
VISAKHAPATNAM (ICCP)
Vikas Vidyaniketan, Door No.: #1-1-1/1, Sheela
Nagar, NH-5, Visakhapatnam, (AP) - 530012