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Q: Bolt size: M33x 3 means 
A: 33 related to bolt diameter and 3 related to pitch to pitch distance

Q: Convert from CM to INCH 
A: Divide by 2.54

Q: The function of car bumper is:
A: Low speed impacts

Q: The weld defect resulted from quick weld cooling is: 
A: Deep penetrations

Q: If you are going to start with oil pipeline construction which is the following
engineer you are 
A: Mechanical

Q: Car dashboard is made by 
A: Fiberglass
Q: The unit of temperature in S.I. units is 
A: Kelvin

Q: The unit of mass in S.I. units is 

A: kilogram

Q: The unit of time in S.I. units is 
A: second

Q: The unit of length in S .I. Units is 
A: meter

Q: The unit of energy in S.l. units is 
A: joule

Q: The unit of pressure in S.l. units is 
A: pascal

Q: The unit of power in S.I. units is 

A: watt
Q: 0ne watt is equal to 
A: 1 Nm/s

Q: Barometric pressure is equal to 

A: 760 mm Hg

Q: One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to 

A: 1.033 kgf/cm2

Q: The unit of force in S.I. units is 

A: newton

Q: The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is 

A: Joule

Q: The unit of power in S.I. units is 

A: watt

Q: A force acting on a body may 

A: introduce internal stresses, balance the other forces acting on it, change its
motion (all of the above)
Q: Effect of a force on a body depends upon 
A: magnitude, direction, position or line of action (all of the above) 

Q: If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible

A: to replace them by a single force

Q: A force is completely defined when we specify 

A: magnitude, direction, point of application (all of the above)

Q: When trying to tum a key into a lock, following is applied 

A: moment

Q: Which of the following is a vector quantity 

A: momentum

Q: The units of moment of inertia of an area are 

A: m4

Q: The possible loading in various members of framed structures are 

A: compression or tension
Q: The coefficient of friction depends on 
A: nature of surface

Q: Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called 

A: dynamic friction.

Q: Coulomb friction is the friction between 

A: bodies having relative motion

Q: Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is 

A: less

Q: The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins
to slide over another surface is called
A: limiting friction

Q: The co-efficient of friction depends upon 

A: nature of surfaces

Q: The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be 
A: coplanar, meet at one point (both)

Q: A device for determining die value or magnitude of a quantity or variable: 
A: instrument

Q: The closeness with which the reading of an instrument approaches the true
value of the variable being measured is called :
A: accuracy

Q: Errors due to assignable causes are called  

A: systematic errors

Q: Pick up the appropriate word for A pointer moving over a scale: 

A: indicator

Q: Pick up the appropriate word for A reading obtained from the motion of a
pointer on a scale : 
A: analog

Q: Pick up the appropriate word for the reading displayed as a number, a series
of holes on a punched card, or a sequence of pulses on magnetic tape :
A: digital

Q: For studying detailed variations with time, one uses 

A: recorder
Q: The condition of how much successive readings differ from one another for a
fixed value of the variable is called:
A: precision.

Q: The ratio of output signal or response of the instrument to a change in input or

measured variable Is called:
A: sensitivity

Q: It responds directly to the measured quantity, producing a related motion or

A: sensing element

Q: Which of the following is used to count the number of brass items passing on
a conveyor line, when no contact is permitted with the object:
A: photoelectric cell

Q: Proving rings are used to measure: 

A: force

Q: Which type of device is suitable for dynamic force measurement: 

A: piezo-electric transducer

Q: Thermal expansion of a solid is employed in: 
A: bimetal element

Q: For measuring temperature in the range of 20 to 600°C, following liquid is

used in glass thermometer
A: mercury

Q: Protective coating by a suitable cover are applied over strain gauge in order to
protect it against: 
A: moisture

Q: The material used for resistance temperature sensor is: 

A: platinum

Q: In calibration of temperature sensors by fixed point method, the device is

calibrated at: 
A: ice point (0°C), steam point (100°C), Sulphur point (444.6°C) (all of the above)

Q: Laser droppler anemometer is used to measure: 

A: velocity

Q: Dynamometers are: 
A: power measuring devices
Q: The pH value is a measure of hydrogen ionic a solution. The letters pH is 
A: power of the hydrogen ion concentration

Q: The density can be measured using: 

A: weight, buoyancy, hydrostatic head, resonant elements (all of the above)

Q: Pure water has pH value of 7. This means that pure water has: 
A: 10 7 g of ionized hydrogen per liter

Q: Which measurement is a good guide to the quality of the water? 

A: conductivity

Q: The commonly used unit of conductivity is: 

A: mmho/cm

Q: Machine health monitoring is mainly based on measurement of: 

A: vibrations at strategic points

Q: Mass-spring seismic sensors measure directly the: 

A: acceleration
Q: The time required for the controlled variable to reach a specified value after
the application of a step input is called:
A: response time

Q: The range of values through which the variable must change to cause the
final control element to move from one extreme position to the other:
A: throttling range

Q: Following is the property of the system which opposes a change in the output
A: damping

Q: Material handling in automobile industry is done by 

A: overhead crane

Q: What is the unit of Strain? 

A: Dimensionless

Q: What does the ratio of stress over strain 

A: Young's Modulus

Q: Stress and strain?

A: Proportional
Q: What is the Car Dashboard made of 
A: Polymers

Q: Thermoplastic material
A: If heat and pressure will apply the chemical properties of material will not

Q: Corrosion is a result of: 

A: Chemical reaction

Q: During pyrolysis or combustion the resultant compound formed by solid

particles, vapours and gases is called
A: Smoke

Q: Car bumper is meant for 

A: Small low speed collision

Q: Car chassis is to be fabricated by: 
A: Hard material
Q: A system of turbine-generator. The turbine efficiency is 80% while the
generator efficiency is 90%, the overall efficiency is:

A: 72% (80% X 90%)

Q: In welding ,the molten metal is protected by: 

A: Flux

Q: Welding: Prevention of oxidizing of molten metal 

A: Flux 

Q: Strain Unit? 
A: Dimensionless

Q: Onset of plastic deformation will result due to 

A: Hardening

Q: Efficiency of a power plant if the efficiencies of the boiler, turbine and

generator are 88, 40 and 98%, respectively.
A: 35 % {E power plant= [E boiler] [E turbine] [E generator] = (0.88) (0.40) (0.98) = 0.35}

Q: Thermoplastics normally 
A: Due to pressure and temperature deforms
Q: Heat stress happen in the metal due to 
A: Temperature gradient

Q: In a body thermal stress is one which arises of existence of 

A: Total Heat

Q: ABET stated that Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology: 

A: True

Q: Signal Input is always two 
A: True

Q: Sustainability? 
A: Economic + Environment + Social

Q: If calorific value of fuel needs to be high
A: Water vapor is not formed while fuel burns 
Q: Differential gear. 
A: jerk-off free?
Q: unit of linear acceleration? 
A: m/s2 

Q: The Function of ABET 

A: Educational

Q: A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose

angle of inclination with the horizontal is α. The effort applied parallel to the

plane is given by (where μ = tan φ = Coefficient of friction between the plane

and the body.)

A: P = W (sinα + μ cosα)

Q: Thermoplastic materials are those materials which 

A: do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no chemical
change occurs

Q: eutectoid steel consists of 

A: wholly pearlite

Q: The deformation per unit length is called 
A: strain

Q: When a bar is cooled to - 5°C, it will develop 

A: Tensile stress

Q: In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration 

A: decreases exponentially with time

Q: The strength of material is defined as:

A: Ability of material to resist external forces.

Q: Stress means: 
A: Is the internal forces developed in material due to external forces.

Q: Corrosion is a result of:

A: Chemical reaction + Electro-chemical reaction

Q: Apply heat on the Metal material: 

A: Hardness will be decreased and ductility will be increased.
Q: If you were awarded a project, you will start work: 
A: After the approval of the authorities

Q: The delay time for a series of activities that would not affect if occurred the
project timing called:
A: Total Slack

Q: One of the following is not process of the project: 
A: Concept

Q: Scheduling gives information about 
A: when work should start and how much work should be completed during a
certain period

Q: An optimum project schedule implies 

A: lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project

Q: Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as 

A: function/cost.

Q: PERT and CPM are 
A: aids to the decision maker.

Q: Critical path can be found on the following schedule developments: 

Q: CPM has following time estimate 
A: one time estimate

Q: PERT has following time estimate 

A: three-time estimate

Q: CPM is the 
A: activity oriented technique

Q: PERT is the 
A: event oriented technique

Q: The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as 

A: activity
Q: Value engineering aims at finding out the 
A: major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost without
change in quality

Q: If your boss allocate a new assignment of which part of it you are not sure
A: Do the part that you know and learn about the part you do not know and do it.

Q: What will a changeover changes? 
A: The duration of a project, The Scope (A & B)

Q: General conditions and Home office overhead are costs? 
A: Indirect

Q: As built drawings are required to: 

A: For future expansion, renovation and development

Q: Project activities can be defined on the schedule by: 

A: Node
Q: In a schedule, one activity is linked with two other ones, the activity called: 
A: Merge

Q: Bob is a bidding manager. On the closing date of the bid he received a call
from one of the bidding firms asking him to extend the bidding period by one
day as they couldn't finish the documents. Bob is to:
A: Apologize and should not accept extending the period

Q: You have been awarded the project. You will start the work on: 
A: After the approval of the authorities

Q: You discover violation of specification at nearly end of the project, what you
will do ... 
A: Inform to Client and ask what to do

Q: Activity B has 4 days LAG compare to A what does it mean 

A: 4 day waiting time between Activities A & B

Q: If you are going to start with oil pipeline construction which is the following
engineer you are going to choose:
A: Mechanical
Q: Fast tracking to be performed in the project 
A: Compress the schedule without changing the scope of project

Q: Project is awarded, what you will do next 

A: Develop project charter

Q: First step of Scope planning starts with 

A: Objectives and requirements to satisfy customer

Q: Intersecting point for WBS and OBS 
A: Cost account

Q: Which of the following not as direct cost 

A: Safety and first aid expenses

Q: Safety and first aid expenses are considered as direct cost: 
A: False

Q: Activity (B) has 5 days lead compares to (A) what it means: 
A: Activity B start 5 days before A completion

Q: During a project phase, Change order (change request) means 
A: Change in any work 

Q: During which of the below process, status reports, change request, forecasts
A: Execution 

Q: Design/build means 
A: The Company is responsible for Design and construction 

Q: In project cycle, control phase is  

A: the entire project cycle

Q: Forward plan. 

A: early start early finish

Q: software development process 

A: Plan do check act

Q: Project Scope Management: 
A: Define scope and control scope + Executing scope and verify scope + Closing 
       process and Create work breakdown structure  
Q: Scope Management starts with is 
A: To identify the client requirements

Q: Final as built drawings for what purpose
A: To keep record for later maintenance

Q: 5. Control department work starts 
A: From the beginning of the project

Q: A critical path is the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐in the project management: 
A: longest

Q: What is QSAS 
A: Qatar Sustainability Assessment System

Q: Before starting work at site, the major factor has to be checked is? 
A: Approval from MMUP / Civil Defense etc.

Q: What is the least level of WBS? 
A: Work package 

Q: The most important of project initiation is: 
A: Management provides the budget required

Q: What is the meaning of crashing in project? 
A: to increase project resources in order to reduce project total duration.

Q: What I the meaning of resource leveling: 
A: technique used to examine unbalanced use of resources over time.

A: Program Evaluation and Review technique

A: Critical Path Method

A: Qatar Construction Specification
Q: Which of these is not a rule of interaction 
A: Law 
Q: The method of reducing the Impact of project risk is
A: Mitigation 

Q: Critical path means:
A: Longest sequence of activities path in a project. 

Q: Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of the 
      following except
A: Repeatability 

Q: The process of identifying and evaluating contractors for a bid list is called
A: Prequalification
Q: NFPA.......For Car parking structure system 
A: 88A

Q: Which is the authority/organization/person responsible to ensure that the
standards, codes, procedures are being applied.
A: Qatar Civil Defense

Q: Fire alarm system as per NFPA72 is classified as: 

A: Household, Supervisory station, Protected premises (All of the above)

Q: As per NFPA88A, the minimum opening in the walls of the car parking is: 
A: 40%

Q: Which test generally performs after installation of fire damper? 

A: Smoke test

Q: Which kind of wall keep between two building blocks to avoid spreading of fire
from one to another
A: Retainer wall

Q: NFPA trained person takes minimum time for investigation and reset fire
preventive system 
A: 3 min
Q: What is the rating of fire wall required for four story or more 
A: 2 hour

Q: NFPA ---- is for smoke management systems in malls, Atria, and large

Q: Egress corridor can have air ducts penetrating from neighboring room walls
and doors.
A: False

General role: What is not listed in the tables will be: 
Visual inspection 6 Months, Testing 12 months  
General role: What is not listed in the tables will be: 
Visual inspection 6 Months, Testing 12 months  


General role: What is not listed in the tables will be: 
  Visual inspection 6 Months, Testing 12 months  

Q: Condensate water generated from which part of split unit 
A: Evaporator

Q: What is the system used to extract the air from the basement
A: Ventilation system

Q: when heat is transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat
transfer by 
A: Convection

Q: Insert smoke inside HVAC Duct to check 
A: Leak

Q: Smoke test in the HVAC system use for: 

A: Leak test of the duct

Q: Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires 

A: Very little work input

Q: The boiling point of ammonia is 

A: - 33.3 °C
Q: Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant 
A: Ammonia.

Q: Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of system

A: Absorption

Q: An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is 

A: Quiet operation

Q: Which part stop spark & fire inside duct 

A: Fire dumper

Q: device installed between the air handler and the duct supply /Return is called
A: Splitter damper (or flex connection)

Q: The device to be installed in between fire rated walls is: 
A: Fir damper

Q: Which membrane can be fixed vertically or horizontally between fire rated
walls which control the spread of the smoke
A: Smoke and Fire dampers
Q: A device installed between the air handler and the duct supply/return is called 
A: Splitter Damper

Q: Prevent the spread of smoke inside the ducts and fire resistance rating from
room to room: 
A: Fire damper

Q: The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle 

A: Reversed Carnot.

Q: Air refrigeration operates on 

A: Brayton cycle.

Q: In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid 

A: after passing through the condenser

Q: In vapour compression refrigeration system refrigerant occurs as liquid

A: expansion valve and condenser
Q: In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by 
A: expansion valve

Q: In a vapour compression cycle the refrigerant immediately after expansion

valve is liquid and

A: wet vapour

Q: In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure

saturated liquid  
A: before entering the expansion valve

Q: In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated

A: before passing through the condenser

Q: In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated
A: before entering the compressor

Q: One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to

melting of 1000 kg of ice

A: in 24 hours
Q: What does a 1 ton refrigerant represent? 
A: The amount of heat required to melt 1 ton of ice at 0 degree in 24 hours

Q: One ton of the refrigeration is 

A: the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at o into ice at o in 24 hours

Q: One ton refrigeration corresponds to 
A: 50 kcal/min

Q: In S.I. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to 

A: 210 kJ/min

Q: The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by 

A: driers

Q: Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure 

A: above which liquid will remain liquid 

Q: Critical temperature is' the temperature above which 
A: a gas will never liquefy
Q: The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have 
A: high latent heat

Q: Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of 

A: 0.1 ton

Q: The COP of a domestic refrigerator 

A: is more than 1

Q: The relative coefficient of performance is 
A: actual COP/theoretical COP

Q: For better COP of refrigerator the pressure range corresponding to

temperature in evaporator and condenser must be

A: small

Q: The value of COP in vapour compression cycle is usually 

A: always more than unity

Q: Super heating in a refrigeration cycle 

A: decreases COP
Q: Under-cooling in a refrigeration cycle 
A: increases COP

Q: The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature

keeping the evaporator temperature constant will

A: increase

Q: COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant

A: more

Q: The COP of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air conditioner

A: less

Q: For obtaining high COP) the pressure range of compressor should be 
A: low

Q: The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the 

A: heat of compression + work done by compressor + enthalpy increase in

Q: COP (coefficient of performance) of refrigeration system defined as below

A: Cooling load output to compressor input 
Q: In a vapor compression refrigeration cycle, if super heating value increased
and condensate value decreased,
A: COP increase 
Q: The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature~
keeping condenser temperature constant~ will
A: increase

Q: The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle as compared

to change in condenser temperature influences the value of C.O.P

A: more

Q: The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor 

A: piston type reciprocating

Q: Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of 

A: expansion valve.

Q: Air refrigeration cycle is used in 

A: gas liquefaction
Q: Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following
type of expansion device
A: capillary tube

Q: The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be 

A: higher than atmospheric pressure

Q: The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator are 

A: condenser tubes

Q: The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at 

A: compressor discharge.

Q: One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to 
A: ensure that only liquid (no vapour) enters the expansion (throttling) valve

Q: In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is 

A: less

Q: Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature 

A: at which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
Q: Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator 
A: results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer

Q: In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating

refrigerant and the medium being cooled should be
A: as low as possible (3 to 11°C)

Q: In a flooded evaporator refrigerator an accumulator at suction of compressor

is used 
A: collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor

Q: Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant at least

A: 50%

Q: At lower temperatures and pressures the latent heat of vaporization of a

A: increases

Q: If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered~ keeping the condenser

temperature constant~ the HP of compressor required will be
A: more
Q: Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle? 
A: evaporator

Q: The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by 

A: halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting

Q: Freon group of refrigerants are 

A: non-toxic and non-inflammable.

Q: Ammonia is 
A: highly toxic and inflammable  

Q: Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show 

A: constant pressure lines

Q: On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and desuperheating is
represented by a horizontal line because the process

A: takes place at constant pressure.

Q: The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to
delivery side is

A: bigger
Q: Moisture in Freon refrigeration system causes 
A: freezing automatic regulating valve

Q: The advantage of dry compression is that 

A: it permits higher speeds to be used + permits complete evaporation in the
Evaporator + it results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiency

Q: Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant 

A: total heat lines

Q: Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system 

A: vapour compression

Q: general rule for h.p. per ton of refrigeration 

A: 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration

Q: The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded evaporator in

a similar plant is
A: less
Q: What is the function of cooling towers in a refrigeration system: 
A: Cool the condenser in a central A/C unit

Q: What is the main function of cooling tower?

A: Remove the heat from condenser by mean of water bath.

Q: R134a refrigerant, what is the molecular formula 

Q: If you leave an ON refrigerator with the doors open in a closed room for 2
days, what will happen: 
A: The temperature of the room will increase

Q: Once you Increase the pipe insulation, the heat transfer will be as following: 
A: Conduction will decrease

Q: Why is an expansion tank used in a water chiller 

A: Because it is a closed loop system + to compensate for the water temperature
changes in the system
Q: Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator that consumes 800 watts of power
to remove heat at a rate of 5 BTU per second.
A: 6.6 {(5 x 1055/800 = 6.6) (where 1BTU=1055 j) & (1 watt= 1j/s)}.

Q: Enclosed parking area ventilation need the capacity at normal time 

A: 30 L/min for the square meter area

Q: An expansion tank is a necessary in chilled water cooling. 

A: The network is closed + it allows for the variation in temp

Q: the kitchens and Toilets being considered related to Air distribution system
and designation as:
A: Negative Pressure

Q: In the conduction hat transfer when the thickness of barrier increased the heat
transfer will
A: Decreased

Q: Fans are provided on surface of heat transfer medium 
A: To increase more surface are exposed to heat transfer 

Q: heat transfer coefficient for forced convection
A: Is more as compared to natural convection?
Q: A material that makes deformation under sheer stress is: 
A: Fluid

Q: Zero velocity of a flow inside a vessel will be: 
A: At the periphery

Q: To select a pump you look at: 
A: Delivered flow and pressure

Q: Normally centrifugal pumps are primed, this is done to: 
A: Fill the impeller and the pipes in water to prevent air from cavitation

Q: What is the name of the upward force which is equal the downward force and
keep the object floating
A: Buoyancy force

Q: If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension,
then such a process is called
A: free expansion

Q: The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property 
A: surface tension

Q: Buoyant force is 
A: The resultant force on a' body due to the fluid surrounding it.

Q: At the Center line of pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient
zero, the shear will he
A: Could be any value 

Q: Which parameters affect the fluid speed? 
A: Viscosity

Q: Whenever the fluid flow prosperities don't change with time, the flow called as 
A: Steady

Q: The pressure forces on a curved submersed object will be: 
A: Normal

Q: Priming the pump means: 
A: moving air form the pump casing and impeller.
Q: What is the function of the barometer? 
A: measure the atmospheric pressure.

Q: Manometer devise is measure a: 
A: Pressure differences

Q: The sensitivity of reading of manometer can be increased by  
A: inclining the manometer rube

Q: Ring balance gauge is used for measurement of: 

A: differential pressure

Q: Dall tube is another variation of: 

A: venture tube

Q: Target meter is concerned with measurement of: 

A: flow

Q: Flow in open channels is measured by using: 

A: weir
Q: For measuring air flow, following meter is often used: 
A: vane-type or anemometer

Q: In which flow device the pressure loss is minimum: 

A: Dall tube.

Q: Zero velocity of a flow inside a pipe will be: 

A: At the wall

Q: The pressure forces on a curved submersed object will be: 

A: Normal

Q: An object that deforms continuously under applied shear stress is called: 

A: Fluid

Q: An incompressible, non-viscous fluid travelling horizontally, if velocity

A: Pressure increases

Q: Reynold’s no. for a flow is 1800, the flow is: 

A: Laminar
Q: What is the function of the barometer? 
A: Measure the atmospheric pressure

Q: When need high pressure with low discharge 

A: Reciprocating pump

Q: A substance which deforms under the action of shearing stress is called 

A: Fluid

Q: When the velocity of flow is the same at every point of the fluid the flow can
be considered as:
A: Uniform

Q: Maximum velocity of the flow inside the pipe will be: 
A: At the center of pipe

Q: Reynolds's Number is a relation between the velocity and the viscosity 
A: True

Q: Bernoulli’s principle 
A: Conservation of energy
Q: If water vapor leaves at the eye of centrifugal pump, it is called 
A: Cavitation

Q: When three phases of fluid co-exist at 

A: Triple point 

Q: Phenomenon name called if smoke and gases leaves due to buoyancy effect 
A: Stratification 

Q: Rate of deformation of fluid depends on 

A: Viscosity 

Q: Which one is very weak bond? 

A: Vander walls Bond

Q: The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine 

A: Mach number

Q: The kinematic viscosity is the 
A: ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the liquid

Q: The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption that 
A: there is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing + the velocity of flow is uniform 
     across any cross-section of the pipe + no force except gravity acts on the fluid 

Q: Water boiling in an open pan

A: Pressure constant + Temperature constant

Q: If we lay two pipes in a parallel system which statement is true  
A: The head loss across the entire pipes is the same.

Q: Bernoulli's equation applies under certain conditions 
A: Incompressible flow + Steady flow + Conservation of energy
Q: Isolated system is a system that: 
A: Neither mass nor the energy will enter or leaves the system

Q: A closed system is one in which 
A: mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

Q: Absolute zero pressure will occur 

A: when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero

Q: An open system is one in which 

A: both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system

Q: Work done in a free expansion process is 

A: zero

Q: Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system

A: heat

Q: According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure and temperature, each

molecule of a gas 
A: occupies same volume.
Q: Mixture of ice and water form a 
A: heterogeneous system

Q: Which of the following is the property of a system 

A: pressure and temperature + internal energy + volume and density + enthalpy
and entropy

Q: Heat and work are 

A: path functions

Q: Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases
at a given Temperature and pressure
A: volume

Q: Work done is zero for the following process 

A: constant volume + free expansion + throttling

Q: On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen 

A: 21 (V = 21, W = 23)

Q: In a free expansion process 

A: work done is zero + heat transfer is zero
Q: If a gas vapor is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such
a process is known as 
A: throttling.

Q: The specific heat of air increases with increase in 

A: temperature

Q: In an isothermal process, the internal energy 

A: remains constant

Q: Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the

reversible process takes place at constant
A: volume

Q: Total heat of a substance is also known as 

A: enthalpy

Q: Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in 

A: raising its temperature and doing external work
Q: The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the
following statements is correct?

A: The room will be gradually warmed up.

Q: Compressed air coming out from a punctured football 

A: becomes cooler

Q: During throttling process 

A: heat exchange does not take place + no work is done by expanding steam +
there is no change of internal energy of steam

Q: Temperature of a gas is produced due to 

A: kinetic energy of molecules

Q: According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained
A: kinetic energy of the molecules is zero

Q: Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are 
A: perfectly elastic

Q: Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is
proportional to 
A: T

Q: Superheated vapour behaves 
A: approximately as a gas

Q: An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies 
A: more volume

Q: The same volume of all gases would represent their 

A: molecular weights

Q: The energy of molecular motion appears as 

A: heat

Q: Calorie is a measure of 

A: quantity of heat

Q: A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of 

A: mixture of ice and water under equilibrium conditions.
Q: What will happen when a moist air passes through a silica gel path: 
A: Dry bulb temperature will increase

Q: In an insulated pipe, the heat transfer will be decreased due to: 

A: Conduction decrease and Convection increase

Q: On the psychometric chart the dry bulb temperature: 

A: Bottom line of the chart

Q: According to first law of thermodynamics 

A: total energy of a system remains constant

Q: According to first law of thermodynamics 

A: heat and work are mutually convertible 

Q: In context of Ideal Gases , following is true 

A: PV= nRT

Q: General gas equation is 
A: PV = nRT
Q: Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one
form to other is inferred from 
A: first law of thermodynamics

Q: When the pressure medium to be measured is air or gas, the pipe is made to
rise continuously to the gauge, so that:
A: any moisture can be drained

Q: Water start boiling at 
A: Saturated liquid

Q: the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
A: pressure + temperature + volume (all of the above)

Q: Gases have 
A: two values of specific heat

Q: If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the
final temperature of mixture will be
A: o c

Q: Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas 
A: Boyle's law + Charles 'law + Gay-Lussac law
Q: Boyle's law PV = constant is applicable to gases under 
A: only small range of pressures

Q: According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their
original volume at 0°C for every 1 °C change in temperature when pressure
remains constant
A: Charles' law.

Q: According to Gay Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given
mass varies directly as 
A: absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant

Q: According to Dalton's law, the total pressure of the mixture of gases is equal 
A: sum of the partial pressures of all

Q: The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by 
A: 4 laws

Q: Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of
A: Joule's law
Q: Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all
temperatures and pressures? 
A: Regnault's Law

Q: change matter from state to state?
A: Process

  Bernoulli equation 


Psychrometric chart 

Reynolds number
Hooke’s Law