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VIBRANT ACADEMY PHYSICS

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: X (ICSE)
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : FORCE

1. Fill in the blanks
(a) Force is an agent whose action either produces __________ in a body or changes the shape of a body.
(b) Non-contact forces are __________, central forces. They are always action-reaction forces.
(c) Non-contact forces arise due to the _____________ of some particle between the two interacting bodies.
(d) A push or a pull is always a _________ ; the _________ is the change produced in the body.
(e) Application of brakes _________ the speed of a car.

2. Multiple choice Questions
(a) A force can be completely described by
(A) its magnitude (B) its direction
(C) its magnitude and direction (D) neither magnitude nor direction

(b) The Sl unit of force is
(A) newton (B) newton per second
(C) newton-metre (D) newton per square metre.

(c) Friction between two flat surface can be reduced by
(A) greasing (B) painting
(C) using ball bearing (D) decreasing the area.

(d) The one which has the least magnitude is
(A) static friction (B) rolling friction
(C) sliding friction (D) limiting friction

3. Why is it difficult to balance our body, when we accidentally step on a peel of banana ?

4. Explain why the sole of our shoe wears out.

5. Quick sand consists of very smooth and tiny grains of sand. What would happen, if a man or a heavy animal
steps over a patch of such sand in a desert ?

6. Wet surface are more slippery. Give reason.

7. Explain the following :
(i) Why is the surface of automobile tyres made rough ?
(ii) Why does a badminton player shuffle his shoes in resin ?
(iii) Why does a hovercraft travel faster than the speed boat in sea water ?
(iv) Why is the surface of conveyor belt made rough ?

8. Why is it easier to tie a jute knot than silk knot ?

9. What is the weight of a body of mass 12 kg? What is the force acting on it ? (g = 10 ms–2)

10. If ‘m’ is the mass of the body, ‘v’ its velocity and ‘p’ the momentum then write a relationship between change
in momentum, mass and velocity of the body then
(i) v is almost equal to c, the velocity of light.
(ii) v is very - very less as compared to c, the velocity of light.
DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : FORCE

1. Fill in the blanks :
(a) Applying a deforming force changes the ____________ of a non-rigid object.
(b) Force = mass × _____________
(c) Newton is the unit of ____________ .
(d) 1 newton = ____________ dyne.
(e) In Sl force is measured in ____________

2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) Force of friction does not depend upon
(A) nature of surface (B) weight of the body
(C) are of contact (D) nature of bodies

(b) Which is not a non-contact force
(A) Gravitational (B) Electrostatic (C) Magnetic (D) Frictional.

(c) 1 N is equal to
(A) 1000 dyne (B) 105 dyne (C) 10 dyne (D) 104dyne

(d) 1 Newton is a force which produces
(A) an acceleration of 1 ms–2 in a body of mass 1 g.
(B) an acceleration of 1 ms–2 in a body of mass 1 kg.
(C) an acceleration of 1 cms–2 in a body of mass 1 kg.
(D) an acceleration of 1 ms–2 in a body of mass 10 g.

3. A horse has to pull the cart harder during first few steps of motion. Explain why.

4. Carts with rubber tyres are easier to ply than those with iron tyre. Explain.

5. What is meant by non-contact forces ? Give three examples.

6. One what factor does the maximum or limiting value of contact forces depend ? What happens if this limit is
exceeded ?

7. What is meant by :
(i) a rigid body and
(ii) a non-rigid body.

8. (i) Define the term momentum
(ii) How is force related to the momentum of a body ?
(iii) State the condition when the change in momentum of body depends only on the change in its velocity.

9. A body of mass 50 kg has a momentum of 3000 kg ms–1 Calculate :
(i) the kinetic energy of the body
(ii) the velocity of the body

10. (i) Define one newton.
(ii) Write the relation between Sl and cgs unit of force.
DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : SOUND

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The audible range of frequencies for a normal human being is______to________.
(b) ________have frequencies less than 20hertz
(c) ________have frequencies more than 20,000hertz.
(d) Speed of sound is________in solid, liquids and gases.
(e) Echo is produced if the distance between the source of sound and the listener is more than________
(f) SONAR uses________waves.

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) The minimum distance between the source of sound and reflector, so that an echo is heard for simple sound is
(A) 10m (B) 17m (C) 34m (D) 50m

(b) The minimum distance between the source of sound and reflector, so that an echo is heard for particulate
sound is
(A) 10m (B) 17m (C) 34m (D) 50m

(c) The audible range for a normal human being is
(A) 10Hz to 20,000 Hz (B) 20Hz to 20 kHz
(C) 10Hz to 50 kHz (D) 20Hz to 1000 Hz

3. Explain why echoes can’t be heard in a small room.

4. Why can we hear echoes in long galleries and big halls?

5. Briefly explain the working of SONAR

6. Differentiate between forced vibration and resonance.

7. A vibrating turning fork is placed on a sonometer box and the distance between the bridges is adjusted until
the paper rider in the middle of the wire (between the bridges) files off. Identify the forced vibration and
resonance. Explain briefly.

8. Calculate the minimum distance between a source and a large obstacle, for a distinct echo to be heard.
(Take velocity of sound to be 340ms–1)

9. A boy stands at a distance of 30m in front of a large cave and shouts. Is he likely to hear an echo? Why do
you think so?

10. A laser is a source of very intense, monochromatic and unidirectional beam of light. Calculate the time taken
by a laser beam from the earth to return to the earth after reflection from the moon’s surface. Take the
distance of the moon from the earth to be 3.84 × 108m and the speed of light 3.00 x 108 ms–1
DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : SOUND

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The phenomenon of________is utilised by bats and dolphins
(b) When a stretched string is plucked, it executes________
(c) The vibrations which takes place under the influence of external periodic forces are called________.
(d) The phenomenon of setting a body into oscillations with its natural frequency by another body vibrating
with the same frequency is called________
(e) Loudness is the________of sensation of sound produced.

2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) Ultrasonic’s are not used in
(A) SONAR (B) sonography (C) CUSA (D) radio waves

(b) Bats detect their prey by receiving the reflected
(A) radio wave (B) ultrasonic (C) infrasonic (D) sound waves

(c) The frequency of vibrating string depends upon
(A) length of string (B) tension in string
(C) mass per unit length of string (D) all of these

(d) Intensity of sound does not depend upon
(A) amplitude (B) frequency (C) density (D) mass of body

3. Bats have no eyes, still they can ascertain distances, directions, nature and size of the objects. Explain why?

4. Sound in produced due to a vibratory motion, then why does a vibrating pendulum not produce sound?

5. Distinguish between
(a) intensity and loudness,
(b) frequency and pitch,
(c) timbre and wave form of sound.

6. What is noise? What are its bad effects?

7. A sonar signal (high frequency sound wave) sent down from a ship, is reflected from the ocean floor and
detected by a microphone on the keel (of the ship) after transmission in 0.6s. The speed of sound in sea
water is 1500ms–1. Calculate the depth of the ocean.

8. A loudspeaker is directed a large building 105m from it. What is the interval between a sharp sound from the
speaker and its echo if any? (v = 350ms–1).

9. A man standing in a gorge between two large cliffs gives a short sharp shout. He hears two echoes, the first
after 1 second and the next after 1.5 seconds (after his shout). The speed of sound is 340ms–1. Calculate
(a) the distance of the man from each cliff and
(b) the distance between the cliffs.

10. A man standing between two cliffs fires a gun and hears an echo every second. The distance of the man from
the nearer cliff is 175m. Calculate
(a) the speed of sound and
(b) the distance between the cliffs.
DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : WORK POWER ENERGY

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The main constituent of petroleum gas is__________
(b) The dams constructed to store water, help in controlling__________and in__________
(c) Biogas is primarily a mixture of__________and__________
(d) During fission or fusion mass of the product nucleus and particle is__________than the mass of the
reactants.
(e) The amount of energy produced by burning a unit mass of fuel completely is known as its__________value.

2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) The nuclear fuel in the sun in
(A) helium (B) uranium (C) hydrogen (D) radium

(b) Minimum velocity of wind required for a windmill is about
(A) 15 kmh–1 (B) 25 kmh–1 (C) 30 kmh–1 (D) any velocity will do

(c) Which of the following is not a fossil fuel
(A) coal (B) petroleum (C) biogas (C) wood

(d) The average amount of energy released during the fission of uranium atom is
(A) 100 MeV (B) 150 MeV (C) 20 MeV (D) 200 MeV

(e) Fission of U-235 is caused by
(A) fast neutrons (B) slow neutrons (C) both (A) & (B) (D) niether (A) nor (B)

3. Why is it no possible to make use of solar cells to meet all our energy needs? State at least two reasons to
support your answer.

4. Mention any four areas where solar cells are being used as a source of energy.

5. Why wind energy farms can be established only at specific locations. Give reasons to support your answer.

6. Why are fossil classified as non-renewable sources of energy? What steps should be taken to conserve
these sources?

7. What is a wind energy power station? How does it work?

8. What is energy degradation? Give some examples form daily life.

9. What is the composition of liquefied petroleum gas?

10. What is the fuel used in a nuclear reactor?
DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : WORK POWER ENERGY

1. Fill in the blanks
(a) The kinetic energy of a body is by virtue of its ____________.
(b) The potential energy of a body is by virtue of its _________
(c) Work is said to be done if a force_______a body through a certain distance in the direction of displacement.
(d) Work done is said to be positive if the applied force has a_______in the direction of displacement.
(e) Work done is said to be negative it the applied force has a_____in the direction opposite to displacement.

2. Multiple Choice Questions:
(a) When a coil spring is compressed, the work is done on the spring. The elastic potential energy
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) disappears (D) remains unchanged

(b) Potential energy of a person is minimum when
(A) person is standing (B) person is sitting in a chair
(C) person is sitting on the ground (D) person is lying on the ground

(c) No work is done when
(A) nail is hammered into a wooden box
(B) a box is pushed along horizontal floor.
(C) there is no component of force, parallel to the direction of motion
(D) none of these

(d) When the speed of a moving object is double, its
(A) acceleration is doubled (B) weight is doubled
(C) kinetic energy is doubled (D) kinetic energy increases 4 times

(e) A weight-lifter lifts 240 kg from the ground to a height of 2.5 m in 3 seconds. His average power is
(A) 1960 W (B) 19.6 KW (C) 1.96 KW (D) 196 W

3. Justify giving proper reasoning whether the work done in the following cases is positive or negative:
(a) working done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.
(b) work done by gravitational force in the above case.
(c) work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane.
(d) work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity.
(e) work done by resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.

4. What is the work done by a coolie walking on a horizontal platform with a load on his hand?

5. The work done in lifting a box on to a platform does not depend upon how fast it is lifted up. Explain your
answer giving proper reasoning.

6. A body moves along a circular path. How much work is done in doing so? Explain.

7. A force F while acting on a body displaces it by a distance d in a direction different from the direction of force.
Write the expression for the work done by the force.

8. State the work energy theorem.

9. A light and a heavy mass have equal momentum. Which will have more kinetic energy and why?

10. In how much time can a water pump of 500W, lift 1000kg of water to an overhead tank situated at a height of
7m?
DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : WORK POWER ENERGY
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Work done is said to be zero if the applied force is______to the direction of displacement.
(b) Work done is said to be one joule if a force of one______displaces a body through a distance of one______in
the direction of force.
(c) The______of a body to do work is called energy.
(d) The rate of doing work is called______.
(e) Instantaneous power is the product of force and______.
2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) An object of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 5 m above the ground. The loss of potential energy of the mass is
(A) 250 J (B) 25 J (C) 2.5 J (D) 50 J
(b) A boy throws a ball vertically upwards. As the ball rises its total energy (neglect friction)
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remains same (D) none of these
(c) When a force retards the motion of a body the work done is
(A) positive (B) zero (C) negative (D) uncertain
(d) A body at rest may have
(A) potential energy (B) kinetic energy (C) velocity (D) momentum
(e) The work done by a force on a body will be positive if the
(A) body does not moves
(B) body moves perpendicular to the direction of motion
(C) body moves along the direction of the applied force
(D) body moves opposite to the direction of the applied force.
3. A spring which has been kept compressed by tying its ends together is allowed to be dissolved in an acid.
What happens to the potential energy of the spring?

4. A light body and a heavy body have the same kinetic energy. Which one will have the greater momentum?
5. (a) Can a body have energy without having momentum? Explain.
(b) Can a body have momentum without having energy? Explain.
6. What happens to the kinetic energy when
(i) the mass of the body is doubled at constant velocity?
(ii) the velocity of the body is doubled at constant mass
(iii) the mass of the body is doubled but the velocity is reduced to half?
7. What kinetic of energy is possessed by the following
(i) A man climbing a hill (ii) Water stored in a dam (iii) A compressed spring
(iv) Running water (v) A stretched rubber band (vi) A stretched blow
8. A dog of mass 25kg running after a cat of mass 4kg possesses the same kinetic energy as that of the cat.
Calculate the ratio of the velocities of the two.
9. A pump is used to lift 500kg of water from a depth of 80m in 10s. Calculate the work done by the pump.
(g = 10ms–2)
10. A machines raises a load of 750N through a height of 16m in 5second. Calculate the power at which the
machine works.
DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : SIMPLE MACHINES
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The mechanical advantage of block and tackle combination is equal to the number of_____________presents
in the combination.
(b) A combination of a single fixed and single movable pulleys has_____________pulleys in the combination.
(c) If the pulley is not frictionless then the effort is_____________than the load.
(d) Gears are a set of toothed wheels working together to transfer________motion from one gear to the other.
(e) The ratio NA/NB, i.e., the ratio of the number of teeth on the driving wheel to that on the driven wheel, is
called_____________ratio.
2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) In an ideal following levers in order of the class to which they belong A knife, a nut a see saw
(A) I, II, III (B) III, I, II (C) III, II, I (D) I, III, II
(b) In a single fixed pulley, if the effort is applied through a distance x, the load will be lifted through a distance
(A) 2x (B) x/2 (C) x (D) none of these
(c) If a system of pulley is not frictionless and the pulleys are not weightless, then
(A) MA > VR (B) MA = VR (C)VR > MA (D) none of these
(d) In an actual machine, if w1 and w2 denote the input and the output of the machine, then
(A) w2 = w1 (B) w2 < w1 (C) w1 < w2 (D) none of these
(e) The speed of rotation of a gear is
(A) proportional of the number of teeth
(B) inversely proportional to the number of teeth
(C) proportional to the square of the number of teeth
(D) inversely proportional to the square of the number of teeth
3. Derive expressions for MA and efficiency  of a single movable system of pulley, without neglecting frictional
forces (f) and the weight of the movable pulley w.
4. What is the principle of an inclined plant? Draw a labelled force diagram. Give one good reason why it can be
considered as a machine.
5. What are gears? mention two functions.
6. A singe fixed pulley is used to raise a load of 27 N from the ground to the first floor of a building. The efficiency
of the system is found to be 90%.
(a) Calculate the mechanical advantage
(b) the effort applied, and
(c) the frictional force experienced.
7. A lock and tackle with a VR of 5 is used to raise a mass of 20 kg through a vertical distance of 50 cm at a
steady rate. If the effort used is equal to 50 N determine
(a) the distance moved by the effort,
(b) the work done by the effort in lifting the load,
(c) the loss in energy involved in operating the machine.
8. Draw a labelled diagram of a block and tackle pulley system which has three pulleys in all. The efficiency of
this machine is 75%
(a) Calculate the load raised by an effort of 16 N (b) How far is the load raised, if the effort moves by 81 cm?
9. The length of ramp of walking on to a state is 1.5 m.The velocity ratio, treating the ramp as in inclined plane,
is 105
(a) if the frictional force can be neglected, what is its MA?
(b) what is the minimum effort required to roll a drum of mass 150 kg upto the stage?
(c) Calculate the height of the stage.
10. A block and tackle with 5 pulleys is found to have a MA of 4 when a load of 5N is raised by it. Calculate:
(a) The effort applied (b) VR
(c) efficiency (d) The total resistance (R) due to friction.
DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : REFRACTION AT PLANE SURFACES

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Light refracts because it has__________speeds in different media
(b) The principles of reversibility of light states that, when the final path of a ray of light after any number of
reflections and refractions is reversed, the ray__________its path.
(c) The__________image formed by a thick glass plate or mirror is the biggest.
(d) Wavelength of green light is__________than that of violet light but is__________than that of yellow
colour.
(e) In a prism placed in the minimum deviation position Dm = 38° and angle of prism is 60°, the angle of
incidence is__________

2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) When a ray of light moves from an optically rarer to an optically denser medium it bends
(A) towards the normal (B) away from the normal
(C) passes un-deviated (D) none of these

(b) The deviation produced by a prism when light is incident on it does not depend upon
(A) size of prism (B) material of prism
(C) angle of incidence (D) wavelength of light used

(c) The wavelength of light decreases n times in a medium of refractive index n. A driver from inside water looks
at the object whose natural colour is green. He sees the object as
(A) green (B) red (C) blue (D) yellow

(d) The minimum value of refractive index is
(A) zero (B) less than one but not zero
(C) one (D) more than one

(e) The velocity of lights is minimum in
(A) water (B) glass (C) diamond (D) air

3. For the same angles of incidence, the angles of refraction in three different media A, B, C are 25°, 35°, 150°,
in which of these media is the velocity of light minimum?

4. Refractive index of water w.r.t air is 4/3 while that of glass is 3/2. Find the refractive index of glass w.r.t water?

5. Watching the sunset on a beach, one can see the sun for several minutes after it has actually set. Explain.

6. Paraffin oil has greater refractive index than water. What does it mean? Answer briefly in two different ways.

7. Describe briefly how can verify Snell’s first law of refraction.

8. A ray of light passes form air to glass (n = 1.5) at an angle of 30°. Calculate the angle of refraction. What is
the speed of light in glass?

9. Refractive indices of water and glass with respect to air are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. A ray of light travelling
from water in incident.

10. The refractive index of diamond is 2.47 and that of glass is 1.51. How much faster does light travel in glass
than in diamond.
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : REFRACTION THROUGH LENSES
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) When a concave lens is combined with a convex lens the focal length of the resulting convex lens
___________.
(b) Power of lens in dioptre is___________of the focal length of the lens in meters.
(c) A convex lens is___________whereas a concave is___________at the centre.
(d) Both the focal lengths of a lens are equal if medium is___________on both sides of the lens.
(e) A ray of light passes through a lens un-deviated when it passes through the___________.
2. Multiple choice Question:
(a) A concave lens always forms an image which is
(A) virtual, erect and magnified (B) virtual, erect and diminished
(C) real, erect and diminished (D) real, inverted and diminished
(b) A convex lens forms an image which is real, inverted and equal to the size of the object if the object is placed
(A) at infinity (B) between F and 2F
(C) between optical centre and focus (D) at focus
(c) The magnification produced by a convex lens.
(A) is always greater than 1 and positive (B) is always greater than 1 and -ve
(C) May have any value +ve or -ve (D) is always equal to +1
(d) The magnification of a concave lens is
(A) always +1 (B) always –1 (C) always < + 1 (D) none of these
(e) For a combinations of a convex lens of focal length f1 and concave lens of focal length f2 to be converging.
(A) f1 > f2 (B) f1 < f2
(C) f1 and f2 may have any values (D) convergent combination is not possible
3. Is it possible for a lens to act as a convergent lens in one medium and a divergent lens in another?
4. How will you decide whether a given piece of glass is a convex lens, concave lens or a plane glass plate?
5. What is the difference between a double convex and a bi-convex lens?
6. What will be the nature of the image if it is inverted?
7. Diagram below shows an object AB placed on the principal axis of a convex lens placed in air. F1 and F2 are
the two foci of the lens. Copy the diagram
(a) Draw a ray of light starting from B and passing through O. show the same ray after refraction by the lens.
(b) Draw another ray from B which passes through F2 after refraction by the lens.

8. What is a magnifying glass? Mention three uses. What are the characteristics of the image formed? What
type of lens is used? Why cannot we use the other type of lens?
9. Prepare a Table of the positions of the image, nature of image and size of the image for various typical
positions (may be 6) of the object in front of a converging lens.
10. State two difference between using a magnifying glass adjusted to view the image at the least distnace of
distinct vision and at very large distance.
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : DISPERSION OF LIGHT
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) When white light is passed through the prism red colour bends the____________.
(b) Recombination of seven colours of dispersed white light into white light again is also called____________
(c) When white light passes through the prism____________.
(d) ____________are produced by changes in the nucleus.
(e) Energy of the order of a few MeV is possessed by____________.

2. Multiple choice Question
(a) The colour of light which is deviated the least by a prism in the spectrum of white light is:
(A) Red (B) Green (C) Violet (D) Yellow

(b) Which of the following is a source of ultraviolet light?
(A) Electric bulb (B) Carbon arc (C) Red hot iron bulb (D) Sodium vapour lamp

(c) Which of the following is correct?
(A) blue > yellow > green (B) yellow > green > blue
(C) yellow > blue > green (D) green > blue > yellow

(d) Which of the following radiations are not absorbed by quartz
(A) Infrared (B) Microwaves (C) Ultraviolet (D) X-rays

3. A prism causes dispersion of white light while a rectangular glass block does not. Explain.

4. How will you investigate the existence of the radiation beyond the red and violet extremes of the spectrum?

5. What is cause of dispersion?

6. Write approximate wavelengths for
(i) blue and (ii) a red light.
Which colour has the higher speed in vacuum? Which colour has the higher speed in glass?

7. Write the range of wavelength of
(i) the visible spectrum,
(ii) the ultraviolet spectrum, and
(iii) the infrared spectrum.

8. Will any spectrum of light be observed when incident light is monochromatic?

9. What is meant by:
(a) dispersion in a prism (b) spectrum? Draw a ray diagram to illustrate these.

10. Write down the colours of the spectrum produced when white light is passed through a prism. Which of these
colours is deviated most?
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : DISPERSION OF LIGHT
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) X-ray can pass through flesh but not through_____________.
(b) _____________are used for taking photograph in the dark.
(c) _____________prism is required for obtaining spectrum of the ultraviolet light.
(d) A rock-salt prism is used instead of glass prism for obtaining the spectrum of_____________.
(e) A convex lens focuses the_____________radiations from sun a paper due to which paper burns.

2. Multiple Choice Questions:
(a) The two colours of light which have wavelength greater than that of green are:
(A) Yellow and blue (B) X-rays and red (C) Yellow and yellow (D) Red and orange

(b) Name two electromagnetic waves of frequency greater than that of violet light.
(A) X-rays and Ultraviolet (B) X-rays and red
(C) Ultraviolet and yellow (D) Red and orange

(c) The colour which travels fastest in any medium other than vacuum is
(A) Red (B) Violet (C) Green (D) Yellow

(d) The relation between velocity c, wavelength , and frequency n of an electromagnetic wave is
(A) c = /n (B) n = c (C) c = n (D) none of these

3. Show the different colours when white light is incident on a prism. Also how they can be combined to get
back white light.

4. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of velocity of light in the medium.

5. Which of the following radiation is most energetic.

6. Give two uses of each of the following radiations.

7. Why are electromagnetic waves not affected by electric and magnetic fields?

8. A wave has a wavelength of 0.01Å (or 0.001nm = 1 pm). Name the wave.

9. State two important properties and two uses of :
(a) gamma rays (b) x-rays (c) UV rays (d) IR radiations
(e) microwaves and (f) radio waves

10. State three properties which are common to all types of electromagnetic radiation.
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The work done by an external force in bringing the charges from infinity to form the system is called________.
(b) The unit of potential difference is________.
(c) The unit of Joule/Coulomb is the same as________.
(d) Battery converts________energy into________energy.
(e) The charge passing per unit time through a given area of cross section is called________

2. Multiple choice Question:
(a) The resistance of a 40cm long wire is 8ohm. The wire is stretched to a uniform wire of 60cm length. The
resistance will now he
(A) 18 ohm (B) 16ohm (C) 8 ohm (D) 2 ohm

(b) The example of a non-ohmic resistance is
(A) tungsten wire (B) carbon resistance (C) diode (D) copper wire

(c) Resistors of values 1, 2 and 3 ohm are connected in the form of a triangle. If a 1.5V cell of negligible internal
resistance is connected across the 3 ohm resistor, the current flowing through it (3 Ohm resistor) is
(A) 1.5 ampere (B)1.0 ampere (C) 0.5 ampere (D) 0.25 ampere

(d) A current of 4.8 ampere is flowing in a conductor. The number of electrons flowing per second through the
conductor is
(A) 76.8 × 1020 (B) 7.68 × 1020 (C) 3 × 1020 (D) 3 × 1019

(e) A uniform wire of resistance R ohm is divided into ten equal parts and all of them are connected in parallel.The
net conductor is
(A) 0.01 R (B) 0.1 R (C) 10R (D)100R

3. Electric current is due to the flow of electrons in a particular direction, but the direction of current in a circuit
is taken to be opposite to that of the flow of electrons. Why?

4. Currents of the order of 0.1 A, through the human body are fatal. What causes the death: heating of the body
due to electric current or something else?

5. There is an impression among many people that a person touching a high power line gets stuck with the line.
Is this true? Explain.

6. What is the cause of resistance?

7. Define one ampere.

8. 1020 electrons each having a charge of 1.6 – 10–19 coulomb, pass a point A towards a point B in 0.1s. What
is the current in ampere?

9. A uniform wire is cut into 10segments increasing in length in equal steps, the resistance of the shortest
segment is R and the resistance of other segments increases in steps of 8ohm. If the resistance of the
longest segment is 2R, find the value of R and the resistance of the original wire.

10. A parallel combination of three resistors takes a current of 7.5 ampere from a 30V battery. If two of the
resistors have resistance of 10 ohm and 12 ohm, find the resistance of the third resistor.
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Resistance of a conductor is measured in__________
(b) Materials having a very low value of resistance are called__________
(c) Resistivity of a conductor__________with increase in the temperature of the conductor.
(d) If we want to increase the resistance, we can connect the resistors in__________.
(e) If we want to decrease the resistance, we can convert the resistors in__________.
2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) A certain piece of copper is to be shaped into a conductor of minimum resistance. Its length and diametershould
be
(A) L, d (B) 2L, d (C) L/2,2d (D) 2L,d/2
(b) The resultant resistance value of n resistance each of resistance r ohm when connected in parallel' x When
these are connected in series, the resultant values is
(A) nX (B) n2X (C) rnX (D) r2x/n
(c) A wire is stretched to thrice its original length, its new resistance is
(A) one-third (B) three-times (C) one-ninth (D) nine-times
(d) A wire is stretched to thrice its original length, its new resistance is
(A) one-third (B) three-times (C) one-ninth (D) nine times
(e) The example of an an ohmic resistance is
(A) diode (B) silicon (C) diamond (D) nichrome
3. (i) Why there is an increase in the resistance, when two resistors are connected in series?
(ii) Why there is a decrease in the resistance, when two resistors are connected in parallel?
4. Bends in a rubber pipe reduce the flow of water through it. How would the bends in a wire affect its electric
resistance?
5. Explain what causes resistance?
6. Derive an expression for equivalent resistance when two resistors are connected in parallel.
7. What is meant by series combination of resistors? Deduce an expression for the equivalent resistance when
two resistors are connected in series.
8. Find the equivalent resistance in the following circuits.

9. Find the equivalent resistance if the value of R in the circuit figure is 11 ohm

10. Find the equivalent resistance for the combination of resistors shown in figure.
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : ELECTRICAL POWER & HOUSEHOLD CIRCUITS
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The effect of electric current due to which heat is produced in a wire when current is passed through it is
called ____________ heating.
(b) Electric power is defined as the rate at which____________is consumed in a circuit.
(c) In SI unit power is measured in____________
(d) Electrical energy is defined as the total amount of____________to maintain current n a circuit in a given
time.
(e) If bulbs of different wattages are joined in parallel, then____________wattage bulb glows with maximum
brightness.
(f) If bulbs of different wattages are joined in series, then ____________ wattage bulb glows with maximum
brightness.
2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter than the other. Which of the two has a larger resistance?
(A) the dim bulb (B) the brighter bulb
(C) both have the same resistance (D) none of these
(b) If R1 and R2 are the filament resistance of a 200W and a 100W bulb respectively both designed to run at the
same voltage then,
(A) R2 is four times R1 (B) R1 is four times R2 (C) R2 is two times R1 (D) R1 is four times R2
(c) An electric fan and an heater are marked as 100W, 220V and 1000W, 220V respectively. The resistance of
the heater is
(A) equal to that of the fan (B) less than that of the fan
(C) greater than that of the fan (D) zero
(d) You are given three bulbs of 25W, 40w and 60W. Which one of them has lowest resistance?
(A) 60W bulb (B) 40W bulb
(C) 25W bulb (D) no conclusion can be drawn
(e) The largest number of 100W bulbs connected in parallel which can safety be run from a 230V supply with a
5A fuse is
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 11 (D) 12
3. Most of the applications of electrical energy utilise its heating effect and electromagnetic effect. Give three
examples of each.
4. Starting from the definition of electrical pd, (V), obtain the relation for the work done (W) or energy produced(H)
in terms of V, current I, resistance R and time t.
5. What are SI units of electrical energy? Define the former.
6. What is the commercial unit of electrical energy? Define it. Obtain its relation with SI unit.
7. Describe briefly with a diagram the first part of a house wiring system - including main fuse, meter, main
switch and three outlet points?

8. What are the essential requirements of a fuse wire? Why are these required?

9. A night lamp of 5W is used for 10hour daily on an average, a table lamp of 60W for 5 hours daily an a geyser
of 1.5kW for 1hour daily. Calculate the energy consumed by each in the month of April (in commercial units).

10. Three 250W heaters are connected in parallel to a 100V supply. Calculate :
(i) total current drawn from the supply
(ii) resistance of each heater and
(iii) energy consumed by the three heater in five hours.
DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : ELECTRICAL POWER & HOUSEHOLD CIRCUITS

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The power rating of an electrical device is the value of ___________ consumed by the device under standard
conditions.
(b) In the ring circuit all appliances are connected in___________.
(c) The switches and fuses are all on the ___________ side of the appliance.
(d) The plug pins are split at the end to provide ___________ so that they can fit tightly into the socket and
hence avoid.
(e) In writing a three pin plug, the brown sleeved wire is connected to ___________ pin and the ___________
sleeved wire is connected to the metal body of the appliance.

2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) The electric energy consumed when a current of I ampere flows through a resistance R for time t is
(A) I R2t (B) l t2 R (C) I R t (D) I2 R t

(b) When the double pole main switch in the house is put off, t disconnects
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire (C) both live and neutral (D) earth wire

(c) A fuse is always connected in the circuit containing the
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire (C) both live and neutral (D) earth wire

(d) In accordance with the new and old conventions the colours of the insulation of the live wire.
(A) brown, black (B) blue, red (C) green, red (D) brown, red

(e) When a fuse is rated 15A it means
(A) it works only at 15A current (B) it burns above 15A
(C) it consume a power of 15W (D) it will not work at 15A current

3. State two reasons as two why fuses blow.

4. Describe briefly, with diagram, two types of fuses and state one advantage of each type.

5. What steps should be taken before replacing a blown fuse?

6. What is an electric switch? What are its type?

7. What is meant by earthing of an electric appliance? How does earthing offer protection?

8. Which part of an electric appliance is earthed?

9. An electric heater is marked 500kVA, 220V. If the heater is operated for 1hour, calculate the energy consumed
in kWh and in J.

10. For what length of time (t) can we use a (i) 100W bulb, (ii) 1000W immersion rod, (iii) 2kW electric iron and
(iv) a 5kW electric stove so as to consume just one commercial unit of energy costing Rs.2? Calculate for
each item separately.
DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : ELECTROMAGNETISM
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The phenomenon of production of a magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is called__________.
(b) Magnetic field produced around a current carrying conductor is in the form of__________
(c) Magnetic field at a point due to a straight conductor is __________ proportional to the distance from the
conductor.
(d) The direction of magnetic field due to straight conductor is given by __________
(e) At the centre of a current carrying coil (loop) the magnetic field lines are __________
(f) A current carrying solenoid behaves as a __________ magnet.
2. Multiple choice Question :
(a) A current carrying wire produces
(A) an electric field (B) a magnetic field
(C) both electric and magnetic fields (D) neither electric nor magnetic field
(b) By increasing the number of turns 3 times in a solenoid, the magnetic field
(A) will become three times (B) will remain unchanged
(C) will reduce to one-third (D) none of these
(c) The induced emf produced in a coil when a magnet is inserted in it doesn’t depend upon
(A) number of turns of the coil (B) the resistance of the coil
(C) the magnetic moment of the magnet (D) the speed of approach of the magnet
(d) In a step-up-transformer, the turn ratio is 1 : 2. A leclanche cell (dc source) of emf 1.2V is connected across
the primary. The voltage across the secondary is
(A) zero (B) 2.4V (C) 0.60V (D)1.2V
(e) A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid.
(A) shows no change (B) will decrease (C) will increase (D) uncertain
(f) Inside a current carrying solenoid the magnetic lines of forces are
(A) circular and do not intersect (B) along the axis of the solenoid and parallel to each other
(C) perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid (D) none of these
3. What is the greatest disadvantage with a suspended-type moving coil galvanometer?
4. If the length of the suspension wire is increased does the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer increase
or decrease?
5. If a mirror of greater radius of curvature replaces the mirror of a moving coil galvanometer, does the sensitivity
of the galvanometer increase or decrease?
6. Why are the pole pieces of galvanometer made concave?
7. Why it is more economical to transmit electrical energy at high voltage and low current?
8. A coil carrying current is shown in figure. Copy the figure and draw the field lines around the coil. Show the
polarity of the field lines.

9. Give two uses of an electromagnet.
10. Figure shows a magnet being moved into a coil such that the deflection in the galvanometer is as shown.
Show the direction of deflection in the following cases (i) the magnet is at rest inside the coil figure (ii) the
magnet is moved out of coil figure.

(i) (ii)
DPP NO. 18
TOPIC : ELECTROMAGNETISM
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Magnetic field is _______________ between the two limbs of a horse-shoe electromagnet
(b) The number of turns in the primary is _______________ than the number of turns in the secondary of a
step-down transformer.
(c) An electric motor converts _______________ into mechanical energy.
(d) A transformer can be used only in an _______________ circuit.
(e) An electric generator converts _______________ into electrical energy.
2. Multiple Choice Questions:
(a) The material of the core of a strong electromagnet is
(A) steel (B) soft iron (C) wrought iron (D) brass
(b) In an electric motor
(A) electrical energy is transformed into mechanical energy
(B) chemical energy is transformed into mechanical energy
(C) mechanical energy is transformed into electrical energy
(D) mechanical energy is transformed into chemical energy
(c) The direction of induced emf is given by
(A) Cork screw rule (B) Right hand thumb rule
(C) Fleming’s left hand rule (D) Fleming’s right hand rule
(d) The principle of which of these devices is electromagnetism
(A) Galvanometer (B) motor (C) transformer (D) all
(e) The magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is
(A) directly proportional to r (B) inversely proportional to r
(C) directly proportional to r 2 (D) inversely proportional to r2
(f) The speed of the motor does not depend upon
(A) the strength of the magnetic field (B) the current in the coil
(C) the number of turns in the armature coil (D) none of these
3. In a transformer there is no transfer of charge from the primary to the secondary. How then is the power
transfered?
4. Why can't we use the ordinary moving coil galvanometer for measuring ac current and voltage?
5. Why should the core of a transformer be laminated?
6. What should be the characteristic of the material, which forms the core of a transformer?
7. Can a transformer work when it is connected to a dc source?
8. Two coils of wire A and B are placed near one another as shown in figure. Coil A is connected to a switch and
a battery. Coil B is connected to a centre reading moving coil galvanometer.
(a) If the switch connected to coil A were closed for a few seconds and then opened, the galvanometer
connected to coil B will be affected. Explain and describe what happens.
(b) What changes would you expect if a soft iron rod is inserted through the centres of the coil?
(c) What would happen if more turns were wound on coil B?

9. What is a transformer? What are its types?
10. What type of energy conversion takes place in a (i) dc motor and (ii) ac generator?
DPP NO. 19
TOPIC : CALORIMETRY

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Both heat flow and temperature are associated with the concept of______________
(b) Heat is a form of energy in ______________ which excites in us the sensation of warmth.
(c) The calorie (cal) is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one ______________
of water from 14.5°C to 15.5°C.
(d) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body by unity is called ______________ body.
(e) The ______________ of the substance does not change when it undergoes a phase change.

2. Multiple choice Question:
(a) With the increase of pressure, the melting point of ice
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) may increase or decrease (D) depends upon the temperature on that day

(b) The specific heat of a substance depends upon
(A) mass of the body (B) nature of the substance
(C) rise to temperature of the substance (D) all of these

(c) The thermal capacity of a body depends only
(A) the mass of the body (B) rise in temperature of the body
(C) both mass and specific heat of the body (D) on the shape of the body

(d) The specific heat of water is
(A) 4200 J kg–1 k–1 (B) 420 J kg–1 k–1 (C) 42 J kg-1 k–1 (D) it has no units

(e) When ice melts into water, its density
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains constant (D) density is same for all substances

3. Why steam causes more severe burns than boiling water?

4. Explain the following :
(i) Bottled drinks are cooled more effectively when surrounded by lumps of ice than iced water.
(ii) Why does atmospheric temperature fall after a hail storm?
(iii) Why does the weather become pleasant when it starts freezing in cold countries?
(iv) Why is water used as a coolant in motor car radiations?
(v) Why is water sprayed on roads in the evening in hot summer?
(vi) Why does the temperature in hot summer, fall sharply after a sharp shower?
(vii) Why do sandy soils get heated up quickly as compared to wet soils?
(viii) Why is water considered as the best liquid for quenching thirst?
(ix) Why is it advisable to pour cold water over burns, caused on human body by hot solids?
(x) Why does a wise farmer water his fields, if the weather forecast is frost?
(xi) Why are big tubs of water kept in underground cellars for storing fresh fruit and vegetables, in cold
countries?

5. 1kg of ice is heated at a constant rate and its temperature is recorded after every 30 second till steam is
formed at 100°C. Draw the temperature time graph to represent the change.
6. Explain briefly why :
(a) when a bucket of water is left outside during a winter night, the bucket cools faster than the water even
though both are exposed to the same low temperature of the air.
(b) The low specific heat of mercury is helpful in its use a thermometric liquid, compared to alcohol which has
much higher specific heat.
(c) On a bright summer day the land gets much hotter than the water in a lake and during the cool night the
lake water is warmer than the land.

7. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of a copper vessel of mass 0.05kg through 40°C? take
specific heat of copper 0.09 kcal kg–1 °C–1.

8. In North India, during winter months when nights are cold, a hot water bag is placed under the quilt to warm
up the bed before one uses it.
(a) If 1kg hot water at 70°C is used, how much heat energy is released when it cools to 30°C?
(b) If one uses alcohol (instead of water) at 70°C and cools it to 30°C how much energy is released?

9. Equal volume of hot water at 30°C and cold water at 20°C are mixed in plastic bucket.
(a) if the heat absorbed by the bucket is negligible, what is the temperature of the mixture?
(b) if it is not negligible, will the temperature of the mixture be greater than, equal to or less than the value
obtained in (a)?

10. A blacksmith cools a piece of iron of mass 1.4kg heated to a temperature of 430°C, by putting it into a bucket
containing 15kg water at 26°C. Find the final temperature of the water. Ignore the heat gained by the bucket
itself and any steam which may be emitted. Specific heat of water and iron are 4200 and 450 Jkg–1 K–1.
DPP NO. 20
TOPIC : CALORIMETRY
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The energy required by a substance to change phase is called energy of_____________
(b) All night, the earth radiates energy mainly in the form of _____________ radiation.
(c) The earth is being heated continuously by the sun, therefore the temperature of earth is_____________than
that of the sun.
(d) Global warming is due to the reckless use of _____________ fuels.
(e) The most important cause of the global warming is the excess presence of _____________ gas in the
atmosphere.
2. Multiple choice Question:
(a) The specific heat is maximum for
(A) ice (B) steam (C) water (D) alcohol
(b) Greenhouse effect is used in a
(A) solar cell (B) solar cooker (C) solar water heater (D) gobar gas plant
(c) The earth is heated by the sun during the day. During night the radiation prominently emitted by earth are
(A) ultraviolet rays (B) X-rays (C) infrared rays (D) y-rays
(d) In the absence of the greenhouse effect, the temperature of the earth considerably at night will
(A) increase (B) remain the same (C) fall considerably (D) none of these
(e) Global warming can be reduced by
(A) choosing energy efficient (B) reduction of waste gas emissions
(C) planting trees (D) all of these
3. During the change of state of a substance, the temperature remains unchanged, although the heat is supplied
or withdrawn. Explain it on the basis of kinetic theory. Or explain the physical difference between solids,
liquids and gases on the basis of molecular force
4. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of temperature versus time, when a substance like naphthalene is heated
from 0°C to 100°C. Also draw another curve when the molten substance cools to room temperature. How will
you determine the melting point and freezing point from the graphs drawn?
5. Why should we dry the ice in above experiment? If some of the ice is not dry how will it affect the final result,
value of L obtained?
6. Explain why, with reference to high latent heat of fusion of ice:
(i) rivers fed by water from snow covered mountains are not likely to dry up in summer.
(ii) weather may become chilly when snow in the mountains starts melting at the end of the winter season.
(iii) a barrel of water is kept in cellars (where vegetable is stored) when a farmer suspects severse cold
weather approaching.
(iv) ice cubes are more effective than ice cold water in cooling a glass of lemonade. Illustrate with some
numerical values.
7. A 200g mass of copper is heated in an oven for some time and transferred to a copper calorimeter (mass 75g)
containing 125g of water at 25°C. The steady temperature reached is 50°C. Calculate the temperature of the
copper piece before transfer and hence estimate the temperature of the oven. (Assume C, for water = 4000
Jkg–1 K–1 and C2 for copper = 400 Jkg–1K–1).
8. A copper calorimeter of mass 100g contains 150g of water and 10g of ice in thermal equilibrium at atmospheric
pressure. A piece of lead of mass 100g at 200°C is dropped into the calorimeter. Find the final temperature
(assume no heat is lost to the surroundings) and the amount of ice left. (Take L = 336 kJkg–1), if required.
9. A molten metal weighing 150g is kept at its melting point 800°C. When it is allowed to solidify at the same
temperature, it gives out 75000J of heat. What is the specific latent heat of the metal? If its specific heat
capacity is 200Jkg–1 K–1, how much additional heat will it give out in cooling to –50°C?
10. A block of lead mass 250g at 27°C was heated in a furnace till it completely melted. Find the quantity of heat
required (i) to bring the block to melting point, (ii) to completely melt the block at its melting point, (melting
point of lead = 327°C, specific heat capacity = 0.13Jg–1K–1 specific latent heat of fusion = 26 Jg–1)
DPP NO. 21
TOPIC : MODREN PHYSICS
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The minimum energy required to eject an electron from a metal surface is called____________
(b) A nucleus consists of____________and____________.
(c) The beta rays and gamma rays emitted during radioactivity have energies of the order of and____________
respectively.
(d) When an alpha particle is emitted, the atomic number decreases by____________
(e) When a beta particle is emitted, the atomic number increases by____________

2. Multiple choice questions:
(a) The factor which does not effect the rate of thermionic emission is :
(A) Material of the surface (B) the temperature of the surface
(C) Surface area of surface (D) none of these

(b) Which one of the following is not an essential part of a cathode ray tube :
(A) the electron gun (B) the deflecting assembly
(C) the fluorescent screen (D) none of these

(c) The phenomenon of radioactivity is associated with :
(A) decay of the nucleus (B) decay of the atom
(C) nuclear reactions caused by cosmic radiation (D) fusion of the nucleus

(d) A magnetic field may be used to deflect :
(A)  and  rays (B)  and rays (C)  and  rays (D)  and  rays

(e) The radioactive decay of an element X to element Y and K is represented by the equation
XZA  YZA1  K Z–1
A –4 A–4
 K Z–1 . The sequence of emitted radiation is :
(A) , ,  (B) , ,  (C) , ,  (D) , , 

3. Why are gamma rays emitted only in nuclear processes and not in orbital electron transition?

4. How is the radioactivity of an element affected when it form chemical compounds?

5. In heavy nuclei number of neutrons is greater than the number of protons. Why?

6. A mass of lead is embedded in a block of wood. Radiations from a radioactive source incident on the side of
the block produce a shadow on a fluorescent screen placed beyond the block. The shadow of the wood is
faint but the shadow of lead is dark. Give reason for this difference.

7. Why is the energy distribution of beta decay continuous?

8. Why do we use oxide coated metals for the cathode of a thermionic tube? Give an example of one such pair
of metals used? Why does it lower the operating temperature?

9. State briefly three uses of cathode ray tube.

10. What are , and  radiations composed?
DPP NO. 22
TOPIC : MODREN PHYSICS
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The penetrating power of a -particle is ___________ that of  -particle.
(b) Nuclei of heavy atom contain more ___________ than___________
(c) When  -rays are emitted, there is neither a change in mass number nor a change in ___________
(d) When -particle is emitted a ___________ inside the nucleus changes to___________
(e) A magnetic field can be used to deflect ___________ but not ___________ rays.
2. Multiple Choice Questions:
(a) Isobar are the atoms of different elements whose nuclei have the
(A) same A but different Z (B) same Z but different A
(C) both A and Z are the same (D) all the above
(b) The minimum amount of energy required to eject an electron from a metal surface is called:
(A) Cohesive energy (B) ionisation energy (C) Work function (D) Excitation energy

238
(c) The number of protons and neutrons in X92
(A) 238,92 (B) 92, 238 (C) 92, 146 (D) 146, 92
(d) X-rays are:
(A) Ultrasonic (B) X-rays (C) De-Broglie waves (D) Electromagnetic waves
(e) Which one of the following has maximum energy:
(A) visible light (B) X-rays (C) infrared waves (D) microwaves
3. A radioactive substance emits either an alpha or a beta particle only. Then why is radioactive radiations
divided into three parts by applying electric or magnetic fields?
4. An isotopes of uranium has a mass number 235 and atomic number 92.
(i) What is the number of electrons in the neutral atom of this isotope?
(ii) What is the number of protons and number of neutrons in its nucleus?
(iii) Do all isotopes have the same number of neutrons?
5. A mixture of radioactive substances gives off three types of radiations.
(i) Name the three types of radiations
(ii) Name the radiations which are charged
(iii) Nam the radiation similar in nature to cathode rays.
(iv) Name the radiation similar in nature to X-rays.
(v) Name the radiation which is deviated most in a magnetic field.
(vi) Name the radiation which is not affected by an electric field.
(vii) Name the radiation which has the maximum penetrating power.
(viii) Name the radiation which has the highest ionising power.
(ix) Name the radiation which has the highest speed.
(x) Name the radiation which when becomes neutral, becomes the atom of a rare gas.
6. A radioactive sample is kept at the centre of a large evacuated sphere. How safe will it be?

202
7. A nucleus of an element P which has a symbol 84 P emits an alpha particle and then a beta particle. The

final nucleus is ba D . Find the value of a and b.

8. What is meant by background radiation? Mention four possible sources. How do we correct for these in the
experiments involving measurements of radioactivity?
9. What are X-rays?
10. What is nuclear waste? How can it be disposed off ?
VIBRANT ACADEMY CHEMISTRY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – X (ICSE)

DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : PERIODIC TABLE

1. The law of octaves was proposed by -
(A) Newlands (B) Dobereiner (C) Lavoisier (D) Mendeleev

2. The early attempt to classify elements as metals and non-metals was made by -
(A) Mendeleev (B) Newlands (C) Lavoisier (D) Henry Moseley

3. The early attempts to classify elements were based on -
(A) atomic number (B) atomic mass
(C) electronic configuration (D) None of these

4. Cl, Br, , if this is a Dobereiner’s triad and the atomic masses of Cl and  are 35.5 and 127 respectively,
then the atomic mass of Br is -
(A) 162.5 (B) 91.5 (C) 81.25 (D) 45.625

5. According to Newlands’ law of octaves 3rd element will resemble in its properties to -
(A) ninth element (B) eighth element (C) tenth element (D) eleventh element

6. Newland could classify elements only upto -
(A) copper (B) chlorine (C) calcium (D) chromium

7. According to Mendeleev’s periodic law which properties of the elements are the periodic function of
their atomic masses ?
(A) Physical properties only (B) Chemical properties only
(C) Physical and chemical properties both (D) None of these

8. Mendeleev classified elements in -
(A) increasing order of atomic number. (B) increasing order of atomic masses.
(C) decreasing order of atomic masses. (D) decreasing order of atomic number.

9. Mendeleev’s periodic table was divided into -
(A) seven periods and seven groups. (B) eight periods and eight groups.
(C) seven periods and nine groups. (D) eight periods and seven groups.

10. Noble gases were included in Mendeleev’s periodic table in the -
(A) 1st group (B) 7th group (C) 8th group (D) None of these

11. Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in the periodic table ?

12. What were the major defects of Mendeleev’s classification ?

13. Why is the law proposed by Newlands called the Law of Octaves ?

14. Among the halogens F, Cl, Br, and  which does not fit in the Dobereiner’s triad ?

15. What is common in the musical notes and the elements arranged by Newlands ?
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PART-II
1. Modern periodic law was proposed by-
(A) Mendeleev (B) Henry Moseley (C) Werner (D) Bohr and Bury
2. All the members in a group of long form of periodic table have the same -
(A) valency (B) number of valence electrons
(C) chemical properties (D) All of these
3. Which of the following pairs of elements belong to the same period of the periodic table ?
(A) C, Mg (B) N, Ar (C) Ca, Cl (D) K, Cu
4. One important merit of modern periodic table is -
(A) it explains why elements in the same group have the same chemical properties.
(B) hydrogen has been placed accurately.
(C) isobars have not been placed separately.
(D) it is based on classifying elements according to their atomic masses.
5. The difference between ions and atoms is of -
(A) relative size (B) electronic configuration
(C) presence of charge (D) All of these
6. Which of the following has the largest size ?
(A) Na (B) Na+ (C) Mg (D) Mg+2
7. An element M has an atomic number 9 and atomic mass 19. Its ion will be represented by-
(A) M (B) M+2 (C) M– (D) M–2
8. In the third period of the periodic table, the element having smallest size is -
(A) Na (B) Ar (C) Cl (D) Si
9. Which of the following elements has maximum metallic character ?
(A) Li (B) N (C) Na (D) P
10. On moving left to right in a period, in the periodic table, metallic character -
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains same (D) first increases, then decreases
11. Boron, Aluminium, Gallium, Indium, Thallium are elements in the periodic table. [Boron is the first
member of the group & Thallium is the last.] Answer the following in relation to the above group of
elements:-
(i) Which element has the most metallic character
(ii) Which element would be expected to have the highest electro-negativity
(iii) If Aluminium is 2, 8, 3 [elec. conf.], how many electrons are there in the outer shell of Thallium
(iv) The at. no. of Boron is 5. Write the formula of the compound formed when boron reacts with
chlorine
(v) Will the elements in the group to the right of this Boron group be more metallic or less metallic in
character? Justify you answer.
12. In the activity series of metals-M is metal above hydrogen the activity series & its oxide has the formula
M2O. M2O when dissolved in water forms the corresponding hydroxide which is a good conductor of
electricity.
(i) What kind of combination exists between M & O.
(ii) State the no. of electrons in the outermost shell of M.
(iii) Name the group to which M belongs.
13. Give a reason why
(a) completion of each period is logical (b) period-2 elements are 'called bridge elements'
14. Explain the meaning of the following periodic properties :-
(a) non-metallic and metallic (b) Ionisation potential
(c) electron affinity (d) electronegativity
(e) non-metallic and metallic character.

15. State the factors which affect the atomic size of elements in a periodic table. In period 2 from left to
right, state which element has the largest atomic size and which has the smallest, giving reasons.
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DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which of the following contains both ionic and covalent bond ?
(A) CCl4 (B) NH4Cl (C) CaCl2 (D) H2O

2. How many electrons are shared between two atoms showing a triple bond ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

3. Expansion of octet rule is observed in .
(A) BF3 (B) PCl5 (C) AlCl3 (D) H2O

4. Which one of the following has a coordinate bond ?
(A) NaCl (B) Cl2 (C) NH4Cl (D) AlCl3

5. The bonds present in N2O5 are :
(A) only ionic (B) covalent and coordinate
(C) only covalent (D) covalent and ionic

6. Which one is an electron deficient compound ?
(A) ICl (B) BeCl2 (C) NH3 (D) PCl3

7. The bond that exists between NH3 and BF3 is called –
(A) electrovalent (B) covalent (C) coordinate (D) hydrogen

8. In which of the following the central atom has maximum number of lone pairs of electrons ?
(A) IF7 (B) PCl3 (C) AlCl3 (D) H2O

9. The formula of a compound is A2B5. The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of A and B
respectively are -
(A) 6 and 3 (B) 5 and 6 (C) 5 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

10. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) HF is less polar than HBr.
(B) Chemical bond formation takes place when forces of attraction overcome the forces of repulsion.
(C) In a covalent bond, transfer of electron takes place.
(D) All of the above.

11. There are three elements E, F, G with atomic numbers 19, 8 & 17 respectively. Give the molecular
formula of the compound formed between E & G state the type of chemical bond in this compound.

12. State the reasons for chemical bonding between two atoms and the methods involved for achieving the
same. State how 'duplet and octet' rules are involved for an atom to achieve stable electronic
configuration.

13. Give two differences between the covalent compounds – methane [non-polar] and HCl [polar].

14. Explain the terms (a) Lone pair of electrons (b) Coordinate bond. Explain diagrammatically the lone pair
effect of :
+
(a) The nitrogen atom of the ammonia molecule leading to the formation of ammonium ions [NH4]
+
(b) The oxygen atom of the H2O molecule leading to formation of hydronium [H3O] & hydroxyl ions

[OH]

15. Give reasons for the following :
Electrovalent compounds are soluble in water, insoluble in organic solvents, good conductors of
electricity in molten or aq. solution state, have high melting points and undergo electrolytic dissociation
on passage of electric current, while covalent compounds are soluble in organic solvents, insoluble in
water, non-conductors of electricity, have low melting points & undergo ionisation on passage of
electric current.

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DPP NO. 3-A
TOPIC : ACID, BASES AND SALTS

1. The acid used in making of vinegar is -
(A) Formic acid (B) Acetic acid (C) Sulphuric acid (D) Nitric acid

2. Common name of H2SO4 is -
(A) Oil of vitriol (B) Muriatic acid (C) Blue vitriol (D) Green vitriol

3. CuO + (X)  CuSO4 + H2O. Here (X) is -
(A) CuSO4 (B) HCl (C) H2SO4 (D) HNO3

4. Which of the following is the weakest base ?
(A) NaOH (B) NH4OH (C) KOH (D) Ca(OH)2

5. Reaction of an acid with a base is known as -
(A) decomposition (B) combinatio
(C) redox reaction (D) neutralization

6. When CO2 is passed through lime water, it turns milky. The milkiness is due to the formation of -
(A) CaCO3 (B) Ca(OH)2
(C) H2O (D) CO2

7. Caustic soda is the common name for -
(A) Mg(OH)2 (B) KOH
(C) Ca(OH)2 (D) NaOH

8. Antacids contain -
(A) Weak base (B) Weak acid
(C) Strong base (D) Strong acid

9. Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) is used in -
(A) Plastics and dyes (B) Fertilizers
(C) Antacids (D) White washing

10. Acids gives -
+ –
(A) H in water (B) OH in water
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

11. Equal amounts of calcium are taken in test tubes (A) and (B). Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test
tube (A) while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube (B). In which case, fizzing occurs more
vigorously and why ?

12. Give the name of two mineral acids and their uses.

13. What effect does concentration of H+ (aq) have on acidic nature of the solution ?

14. What do you understand by organic acids. Give the name of two organic acids and their sources.

15. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with metal ? llustrate with an example. How will you
test the presence of the gas ?

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PART-II
1. H2CO3 is a -
(A) strong acid (B) weak acid (C) strong base (D) weak base

2. A salt derived from strong acid and weak base will dissolve in water to give a solution which is -
(A) acidic (B) basic (C) neutral (D) none of these

3. Bleaching powder gives smell of chlorine because it -
(A) is unstable (B) gives chlorine on exposure to atmosphere
(C) is a mixture of chlorine and slaked lime (D) contains excess of chlorine

4. Chemical formula of baking soda is -
(A) MgSO4 (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaHCO3 (D) MgCO3

5. The chemical name of marble is -
(A) calcium carbonate (B) magnesium carbonate
(C) calcium chloride (D) calcium sulphate

6. Washing soda has the formula -
(A) Na2CO3. 7H2O (B) Na2CO3. 10H2O
(C) Na2CO3. H2O (D) Na2CO3

7. The difference in number of water molecules in gypsum and plaster of paris is -
(A) 5/2 (B) 2 (C) 1/2 (D) 3/2

8. Which is a base and not an alkali ?
(A) NaOH (B) KOH (C) Fe(OH)3 (D) none is true

9. A solution has pH 9. On dilution the pH value
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remain same (D) none of these

10. Energy released in neutralisation reaction which occurs between strong acid and strong base is –
(A) 57.8 kJ (B) 57.1 kJ (C) 57.9 kJ (D) 56.1 kJ

11. Solution A is a strong acid, Solution B is a weak acid, solution C is a strong alkali
(i) Which solution contains solute molecules in addition to water molecules
(ii) Which solution will give a gelatinous white precipitate with zinc sulphate solution
The precipitate disappears when an excess of the solution in added.
(iii) Which solution could be glacial acetic acid solution
(iv) Give example of a solution of a weak alkali

12. State how acids and bases are defined as per Arrhenius's and Lowery – Bronsted's theory.

13. State how you would obtain
(i) Sulphuric acid from and acidic oxide (ii) KOH from a basic oxide.

14. State
(i) the formation (ii) the components of – a basic salt.

State which of following salts is an – acid, normal or basic salt.
(i) bleaching powder (ii) potassium mercuric iodide
(iii) sodium sulphite (iv) sodium hydrogen sulphite
(v) sodium silver cyanide (vi) basic lead nitrate
(vii) potassium zincate (viii) alum
(ix) calcium bicarbonate (x) basic copper chloride
(xi) trisodium phosphate

15. What is difference between dissociation and ionisation ?

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DPP NO. 3-B
TOPIC : ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following is not soluble in NaOH?
(A) Fe(OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2 (C) Al(OH)3 (D) Sn(OH)2

2. Which of the following is soluble in NaOH?
(A) Fe(OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2 (C) Ca(OH)2 (D) Pb(OH)2

3. Which of the following forms solution with excess of NH4OH solution ?
(A) CuSO4 (B) Fe(OH)3 (C) Cu(NO3)2 (D) (A) & (C) both

4. Elements of which block generally impart colour ?
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block

5. Colour of permanganate ion is
(A) pink (B) yellow (C) red (D) black

6. Reaction of lead nitrate with sodium hydroxide will give
(A) dull white precipitate (B) gelatinous white solution
(C) white precipitate (D) chalky white solution

7. Copper sulphate on reacting with ammonium hydroxide gives
(A) dirty green colour (B) reddish brown colour
(C) pale blue colour (D) dull white colour

8. What is formed when Ca(NO3)2 reacts with NH4OH
(A) HNO3 (B) Ca(OH)2
(C) NH4NO3 (D) no reaction

9. Correct formula for potassium plumbite is
(A) K2PbO2 (B) KPb2O4 (C) K2Pb2O2 (D) KPb2O4

10. Reaction between ferric chloride and sodium hydroxide results in
(A) Fe(OH)2 dirty green precipitate (B) Fe(OH)3 reddish brown precipitate
(C) FeOH dirty green precipitate (D) Fe(OH)2 dirty green precipitate

11. Give one test to distinguish between the following :- Iron (III) chloride solution and copper chloride
solution

12. Find the odd one with reasons [valency is not a criterion]: Al(OH)3, Pb(OH)2, Mg(OH)2, Zn(OH)2

13. Identify the substance P based on the information given : The deliquescent salt P, turns yellow on
dissolving in water, and gives a reddish brown precipitate with sodium hydroxide solution.

14. State two relevant observations for the reaction : Ammonium hydroxide solution is added to – copper
(II) nitrate solution in small quantities and then in excess.

15. To a salt solution 'Y' a small quantity of NH4OH solution is added slowly & then in excess. A pale blue
precipitate is formed which dissolves in excess to form a clear inky blue solution. Identify the positive
ion in the salt 'Y'.

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DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : MOLE CONCEPT AND STOICHIOMETRY

1. The solubility of K2SO4 in water is 16 g at 50ºC. The minimum amount of water required to dissolve 4 g
K2SO4 is -
(A) 10 g (B) 25 g (C) 50 g (D) 75 g

2. Molarity of H2SO4 (density 1.8g/mL) is 18M. The molality of this solution is -
(A) 36 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 18

3. 8g of sulphur are burnt to form SO2, which is oxidised by Cl2 water. The solution is treated with BaCl2
solution. The amount of BaSO4 precipitated is –
(A) 1.0 mole (B) 0.5 mole (C) 0.75 mole (D) 0.25 mole

4. The percentage of sodium in a breakfast cereal labelled as 110 mg of sodium per 100 g of cereal is -
(A) 11% (B) 1.10% (C) 0.110% (D) 110%

5. The hydrated salt, Na2SO4. nH2O undergoes 55.9% loss in weight on heating and becomes
anhydrous. The value of n will be -
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 10

6. An oxide of metal have 20% oxygen, the eq. wt. of metal oxide is -
(A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 48 (D) 52

7. If 250 mL of a solution contains 24.5 g H2SO4 the molarity and normality respectively are -
(A) 1 M, 2 N (B) 1M,0.5 N (C) 0.5 M, 1N (D) 2M, 1N

8. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is -
(A) 2.9732 (B) 3.05 (C) 3.64 (D) 3.0504

9. Total mass of neutrons in 7mg of 14C is -
(A) 3 × 1020 kg (B) 4 × 10–6 kg (C) 5 × 10–7 kg (D) 4 × 10–7 kg

10. Vapour density of a metal chloride is 66. Its oxide contains 53% metal. The atomic weight of metal is -
(A) 21 (B) 54 (C) 26.74 (D) 2.086

11. 200 ml. of C2H4 is burnt in just sufficient air [containing 20% oxygen] as per the equation C2H4 + 3O2 
2CO2 + 2H2O[g]. Calculate the resultant mixture composition [at 100°C & constant press.]

12. Calculate the weight of a substance X which in gaseous form occupies 10 litres at 27ºC and 700 mm
pressure. The molecular weight of X is 60.

13. A gas occupies 700 ml at a pressure of 700 mm of Hg and a temperature of 57ºC. If at s.t.p. the mass
of the gas is 1.5 g find the vapour density and the molecular weight of the gas. (Given 1 litre of
hydrogen weighs 0.09 g at s.t.p.)

14. A compound has the following percentage composition : Na = 18.60%, S = 25.80%, H = 4.03% and O =
51.58%. Calculate the molecular formula of the crystalline salt assuming that all the hydrogen in the
compound is in combination with the oxygen as water of crystallisation. Molecular weight of the
compound is 248. [Na = 23, S = 32, H = 1, O = 16]

15. Copper on reacting with conc. H2SO4 produces copper [II] sulphate. If 1.28 g. of copper is to be
converted to copper sulphate. Find (i) the weight o the copper sulphate formed and (ii) the weight of the
acid required. [Cu = 64, S = 32, O = 16].

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DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : ELECTROLYSIS

1. A covalent compound which in aqueous state conducts electricity is
(A) CCl4 (B) CS2 (C) NH3 (D) C2H4

2. The anion discharged at the anode with most difficulty is
2– – – –
(A) SO4 (B) Br (C) NO3 (D) OH

3. Electrolysis is
(A) oxidation reaction (B) reduction reaction
(C) redox reaction (D) precipitation reaction

4. Iron can be electroplated by -
(A) Potassium (B) Silver
(C) Mercury (D) Tin

5. Which of the following solutions contains both molecules & ions ?
(A) HNO3 (B) NaOH
(C) CH3COOH (D) None of these

6. Which of the following are weak electrolyte ?
(A) H2CO3 (B) dil. H2SO4
(C) NH4OH (D) Both (A) & (C)

7. Which of the following is a non-electrolyte ?
(A) KOH solution (B) glucose
(C) CuSO4 (aq.) (D) dil. HNO3

8. A compound which during electrolysis in its molten state, liberates a reddish brown gas at anode.
(A) sodium chloride (B) lead (II) bromide
(C) cupric oxide (D) cupric sulphate

9. Which of the following condition is correct for operation of electrolytic cell
(A) G = 0, E = 0 (B) G < 0, E > 0
(C) G > 0, E < 0 (D) G > 0, E > 0

10. The ratio of hydrogen & oxygen liberated at cathode & anode is
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 : 2 (D) 3 : 4

11. Name three organic compounds and one neutral liquid which are non-electrolytes.

12. State giving reasons, in what state or medium does (i) NaCl (ii) HCl gas (iii) NH3 gas conduct electricity.

13. Give the electrode reactions for formation of (i) Lead metal and bromine vapours from molten PbBr2
using inert electrodes (ii) H2 and O2 gas [2:1] from acidified water using inert Pt electrodes.

14. 'Iron is electroplated with silver' – (i) define the term in italics (ii) state two reasons for electroplating (ii)
state why the iron is not placed at the anode and silver at the cathode during electroplating.

15. Give a reason why the metals – copper silver and lead are electrorefined but K, Na and Ca are not.

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DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : METALLURGY

1. Which of the following properties is not a characteristic of metals ?
(A) Metallic lusture (B) High density
(C) Hardness (D) Low melting and boiling point

2. Which of the following metals generally occur in liquid state ?
(A)Mercury (B) Bromine
(C) Gallium (D) A & C both

3. Reactivity of zinc is _________ than that of hydrogen.
(A) less (B) more
(C) equal (D) sometimes more sometimes less

4. Zn + xHCl  ZnCl2 + A,
In above equation A & x are
(A) H2, 2 (B) Cl2, 1
(C) H2, 3 (D) H2, 4

5. When sodium reacts with cold water, then the product formed will be -
(A) Na2O (B) NaOH
(C) Na2CO3 (D) All of these

6. What is the decreasing order of reactivity of following metals ?
Na, Al, K, Cu, Ag, Fe
(A) Na > K > Al > Cu > Ag > Fe (B) K > Na > Al > Cu > Fe > Ag
(C) K > Na > Al > Fe > Cu > Ag (D) K > Na > Al > Fe > Ag > Cu

7. When a metal is added to dilute HCl solution, there is no evolution of gas. Metal is -
(A) K (B) Na (C)Ag (D) Zn

8. On addition of which metal, copper sulphate solution (blue colour) will be changed to colourless
solution?
(A) Fe (B)Ag (C) Zn (D) Hg

9. Zn + H2O (Steam)  A + B
In the above equation (A) and (B) are
(A) Zn & H2 (B) ZnH2& O2 (C) ZnO2 & O2 (D) ZnO & H2

10. Which of the following metals reacts vigorously with oxygen ?
(A) Zinc (B) Magnesium (C) Sodium (D) Copper

11. Describe the physical properties of metals ?

12. Write the chemical equation of chemical reaction of zinc metal with the following -
(a) H2SO4 (b) H2O (c) O2

13. What is an activity series of metals ? Arrange the metals Zn, Mg, Al , Cu and Fe in the decreasing order
of reactivity.

14. What would you observe when you put :
(i) some zinc pieces in blue copper sulphate solution?
(ii) some copper pieces in green ferrous sulphate solution ?

15. Identify the most reactive and least reactive metal from the following -
Hg, Na, Fe, Ag

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PART-II
1. Horn silver is a/an -
(A) sulphate ore (B) halide ore (C) sulphide ore (D) oxide ore
2. Carnallite is -
(A) KCl. MgCl2 (B) KCl. MgCl2. 3H2O (C) KCl. MgCl2.6H2O (D) KCl. MgCl2. H2O

3. Match column A with column B and select the correct option -
Column A Column B
(Ore) (Nature of ore)
(a) Copper glance (i) Sulphate ore
(b) Calamine (ii) Halide ore
(c) Rock salt (iii) Sulphide ore
(d) Epsom salt (iv) Carbonate ore
(A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (B) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(C) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (D) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
4. Which of the following methods is used in the concentration of haematite ore ?
(A) Hydraulic washing (B) Magnetic separation
(C) Froth flotation process (D) None of these
5. Heating of concentrated ore in absence of air for conversion in oxide ore is known as -
(A) roasting (B) calcination (C) reduction (D) none of these
6. Anode mud is obtained in which process ?
(A) Roasting (B) Zone refining (C) Electrolytic refining (D) Calcination
7. In thermite process reducing agent is -
(A) C (B) CO (C) Al (D) none of these
8. Alloys are a homogeneous mixture of -
(A) metals only (B) non -metals only
(C) metals or a metal and non-metal (D) None of these
9. German silver is an alloy of -
(A) Cu and Ni (B) Cu, Sn and Ag (C) Cu, Zn and Ni (D) Cu, Ni, Fe and Mn
10. An alloy which does not contain copper is -
(A) magnalium (B) bronze (C) brass (D) german silver
11. Differentiate between _ (i) mineral & one (ii) matrix & flux.
12. Give the
(i) common (ii) chemical name
(iii) formula of two common ores each of aluminium, zinc & iron.
13. In the stages involved in the extraction of metals in general – give reasons for the following.
(i) Dressing of the ore is an essential process in the extraction of metal from its ore.
(ii) An electromagnetic wheel is used in the magnetic separation process of ore from gangue.
(iii) In the froth flotation process, the ore floats on the top & the gangue settles down.
(iv) Roasting the ore generally results in evolution of sulphur dioxide gas, while calcinations of the ore
evolves carbon dioxide gas.
(v) Oxides or halides of highly electropositive metals e.g. K, Na, Ca, Al are reduced to metals by
electrolysis and not by reduction with coke.
14. State the function of
(i) Sodium hydroxide (ii) Cryolite
(iii) Fluorspar – in the metallurgy of aluminium in Hall Herault's process.
15. Define – (a) alloy, (b) amalgam
16. State
(i) composition (ii) reason for alloying (iii) one use of each of the following alloys.
(i) Brass (ii) Bronze (iii) Duralumin (iv) Solder [fuse metal]
(v) Stainless steel

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DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : STUDY OF COMPOUNDS

1. Which of the following acid is known as muriatic acid. ?
(A) HNO3 (B) HCl (C) H2SO4 (D) None of these

2. Formation of HCl by the reaction of H2 and Cl2 is an example of -
(A) Synthesis reaction (B) Combination reaction
(C) Photochemical reaction (D) All of the above

3. ___________ is obtained when ammonium dichromate is heated.
(A) nitrogen (B) oxygen (C) ammonia (D) none of these

4. By mixing ammonium chloride with potassium nitrite, we get :
(A) ammonium nitrate (B) KNH4(NO3)2 (C) nitrogen (D) nitrogen dioxide

5. Inorganic compounds react with dil. HNO3 & produce
(A) NO (B) N2O (C) NO2 (D) All of these

6. Tri-nitrotoluene is used as
(A) explosive (B) Rocket fuel (C) Drug (D) Fertilizer

7. Thermal decomposition of NH4NO3 yields
(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) N2O (D) None of these

8. Sulphuric acid initially was prepared by
(A) FeSO4.5H2O (B) FeSO4 (C) FeSO4.7H2O (D) CuSO4.5H2O

9. Catalyst or oxidising agent which can be used to convert SO2 to SO3 is -
(A) V2O5 (B) O3 (C) (A) and (B) both (D) None of these

10. Formula of pyrosulphuric acid :
(A) H2SO4 (B) H2S2O6 (C) H2S2O7 (D) SO3

11. (i) Give a balanced equation with all conditions to obtain NH3 from N2 and H2.
(ii) Name an industrial process which involves ammonia, oxygen and a catalyst as its starting reactants.

12. (i) State why the blue ppt. formed on addition of NH4OH to CuSO4 solution dissolves to give a deep
blue solution with excess of NH4OH. Give an equation for the reaction. State why Zn(OH)2 is soluble in
excess of NH4OH.
(ii) State why nitric acid (a) stains the skin (b) cannot be concentrated beyond 68% by boiling.

13. State why nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent and yields varying products such as NO, NO2 on
reaction with metals, non-metals etc.

14. (i)State how addition of nitric acid to acidified FeSO4 serves as a test for the former.
(ii) Name three chemical products manufactured from nitric acid. Give two general uses of HNO3.

15. (i) State why sulphuric acid was called – 'oil of vitriol'.
(ii) Give a reason why concentrated sulphuric acid is kept in air tight bottles.
(iii) State the observation seen when conc. H2SO4 is added to
(a) sucrose (b) hydrated copper (II) sulphate.

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DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following is an allotropic form of carbon ?
(A) Diamond (B) Graphite
(C) Fullerene (D) All of these

2. Diamond is not a good conductor of electricity because -
(A) it is very hard.
(B) its structure is very compact.
(C) it is not water soluble.
(D) it has no free electrons to conduct electric current.

3. Which of the following allotropes of carbon is used in making crucibles ?
(A) Diamond (B) Graphite
(C) Fullerene (D) Coke

4. Arrangement of carbon atoms in diamond is -
(A) linear (B) tetrahedral
(C) octahedral (D) hexagonal

5. Which of the following is a crystalline allotrope of carbon
(A) Charcoal (B) Coal
(C) Fullerene (D) Lamp black

6. Diamond means :
(A) Transparent (B) Hardness
(C) Both A and B (D) Conductor

7. Bond length between carbon-carbon atoms in diamond is :
(A) 1.34A° (B) 1.40 A°
(C) 1.54 A° (D) 1.7 A°

8. Diamond crystals formed in the nature are :
(A) Octahedral (B) Tetrahedral
(C) Planar (D) Trigonal

9. Density of graphite is :
3 3
(A) 3.5 g/cm (B) 2.26 g/cm
3
(C) 2.08 g/cm (D) None

10. Graphite is used in making electrodes because :
(A) It has high melting point (B) It is soft and slippery
(C) It is a good conductor of electricity (D) None of these

11. Define allotropy.

12. Why graphite is used as lubricant ?

13. Give names of two amorphous allotropes of carbon.

14. Which crystalline allotrope of carbon is used in making high precision thermometers ?

15. Why does diamond shine so bright ?

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PART-II

1. The general formula for acyclic saturated hydrocarbons is -
(A) CnH2n+2 (B) CnH2n
(C) CnH2n–2 (D) CnH2n–n

2. Select the alkyne from the following -
(A) C4H8 (B) C5H8
(C) C7H19 (D) None of these

3. The first organic compound to be prepared in the laboratory was -
(A) methane (B) ethyl alcohol
(C) acetic acid (D) urea

4. In order to form branching, an organic compound must have a minimum of -
(A) four carbon atoms (B) three carbon atoms
(C) five carbon atoms (D) any number of carbon atoms

5. The number of C – H bonds in ethane (C2H6) molecule is -
(A) four (B) six
(C) eight (D) ten

6. The main reasons for the huge number of organic compounds are -
(A) catenation (B) tetravalency of carbon
(C) tendency to form multiple bonds (D) all of these

7. Which of the following is/are saturated hydrocarbon ?
(A) C2H6 (B) C2H4
(C) C2H5 (D) All of these

8. Which of the following is not an open chain compound ?
(A) methane (B) ethene
(C) Toluene (D) Butyne

9. Which of the following is an aromatic compound ?
(A) Cyclohexane (B) Ethyne
(C) Phenol (D) All of these

10. Which of the following does not belong to alkane ?
(A) C2H4 (B) CH4
(C) C2H6 (D) C4H10

11. What is the common difference in two consecutive members in a homologous series ?

12. What is catenation ? Why does carbon show maximum tendency to catenate ?

13. What are saturated hydrocarbons ? Give one example.

14. Give reason why the maximum number of bonds that can formed between two carbon atoms is three.

15. Predict the state of alkanes having carbon atoms above ten. Can you think of a reason why is that so ?

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PART-III
1. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula (CH3)3 CCH = CH2 is -
(A) 3,3,3-Trimethyl -1-propane (B) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-1-butene
(C) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butene (D) 1,1–Dimethyl -1,3-butene
2. The IUPAC name of (CH3)2CHCH3 is -
(A) 2-Methylpropane (B) 2,2-Dimethylethane (C) Trimethylmethane (D) none of these
3. The IUPAC name of the following compound is -
CH2 = CH – CH (CH3)2
(A) 1,1-Dimethyl -2-propene (B) 3-Methyl -1-butene
(C) 2-Vinyl propane (D) 1-Isopropyl ethylene
4. IUPAC name of second member of homologous series of carboxylic acids is -
(A) Methanoic acid (B) Ethanoic acid (C) Propanoic acid (D) Butanoic acid
5. The IUPAC name of
CH3 – C(CH3) (OH) CH2 – CH(CH3) CH3 is -
(A) 2,4-Dimethyl pentan -2-ol (B) 2,4- Dimethyl pentan -4-ol
(C) 2,2-Dimethyl butane (D) Butanol-2-one
6. Which of the following will give a pleasant smell when heated with ethyl alcohol, in presence of
sulphuric acid -
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CH2OH (C) CH3OH (D) CH3CHO

7. Ethanol on oxidation gives -
(A) CO2 and water (B) ethene (C) acetic acid (D) acetone

8. When ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H2SO4 the product formed is -
(A) C4H8 (B) C2H4 (C) C3H4 (D) C2H2

9. Power alcohol contains -
(A) 50% petrol and 50% ethanol (B) 80 % petrol and 20% ethanol
(C) 25 % petrol and 75% ethanol (D) 70 % petrol and 30% ethanol
10. Which of the following does not give a positive test with alkaline solution of potassium permanganate ?
(A) C10H22 (B) C6H12 (C) C10H18 (D) C10H20

11. Write a balanced equation for
(a) Reaction of ethane & oxygen in presence of molybdenum oxide.
(b) Preparation of CH4 from anhydrous sodium ethanoate [sodium acetate].
(c) Reaction of heating ethanol at 170ºC in the presence of conc. H2SO4.
(d) Preparation of carbon tetrachloride from methane.
12. Compound 'X' is bubbled through bromine dissolved in CCl4 & the product formed is CH2Br – CH2Br.
(a) Draw the structural formula of 'X' and state what type of reaction 'X' has undergone.
(b) State your observation for the above reaction.
(c) Name the compound formed when steam reacts with 'X' in the presence of an acid, eg. Phosphoric
acid.
(d) What is the procedure for converting the product formed in (iii) above, back to 'X'
13. Give reasons for the following
(a) almost 90% of all known compounds are organic in nature.
(b) it is dangerous to burn methane in an insufficient supply of air.
14. Give reasons for
(a) alkanes are said to be saturated organic compound
(b) alkenes are known as olefins
(c) alkenes are more reactive than alkanes
(d) ethanoic acid is known as an aliphatic monocarboxylic acid.
15. Explain the terms
(a) Denaturated alcohol (b) Glacial acetic acid (c) Esterification

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DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : PRACTICAL CHEMISTRY

1. Brown ring in the test of NO3 is formed due to the formation of :
(A) FeSO4.NO (B) [Fe(SO4)2. NO].H2O
(C) Fe2(SO4)3NO (D) None of these

2. Which of the following is not soluble in NaOH?
(A) Fe(OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2
(C) Al(OH)3 (D) Sn(OH)2

3. Nessler's reagent is:
(A) NaHgCl4 (B) K2HgI4
(C) Hg(NH3)2Cl (D)K2HgI4 + KOH

4. The brown ring test for nitrates depends on :
(A) the reduction of nitrate to nitric oxide (B) oxidation of nitric oxide to nitrogen dioxide
(C) reduction of ferrous sulphate to iron (D) oxidising action of sulphuric acid

5. MgSO4 on reaction with NH4OH and Na2HPO4 forms a white crystalline precipitate. What is its formula?
(A) Mg(NH4)PO4 (B) Mg3(PO4)2
(C) MgCl2.MgSO4 (D) MgSO4

6. Which of the following forms solution in dil. HCl ?
(A) AgNO3 (B) Pb(NO3)2
(C) Hg2(NO3)2 (D) Cu(NO3)2

7. Mercurous chloride turns black on treatment with ammonium hydroxide. This is due to the formation of :
(A) Hg(NH2)Cl (B) Hg2Cl2. NH4OH
(C) Hg and HgNH2Cl (D) HgCl2.NH4OH

8. A light yellow precipitate is formed in the second group of the qualitative analysis on passing H2S even
when no radical of second group is present. This is due to the presence of --------------- in the mixture.
(A) phosphate (B) acetate (C) oxalate (D) nitrate

9. Aprecipitate of which of the following would be obtained when HCl is added to a solution of stannous
sulphide (SnS) is yellow ammonium sulphide ?
(A) SnS (B) SnS2 (C) (NH4)2SnS2 (D) Sn2S3

10. On heating a mixture of NaCl, K2Cr2O7 and conc. H2SO4 which of the following is formed ?
(A) CrCl3 (B) CrO2Cl2 (C) Cl2 (D) NaClO2

11. State the colour of the residue obtained on cooling when the following carbonates are heated :
(i) zinc carbonate (ii) lead carbonate (iii) copper carbonate

12. From the list of substances given – Ammonium sulphate, Lead carbonate, Chlorine, Copper nitrate,
Ferrous sulphate – State : A substance that turns moist starch iodine paper blue.

13. State what is observed when excess of ammonia passed through an aqueous solution of lead nitrate.

14. Give one test each to distinguish between the following pairs of chemical solutions :
(i) Zn(NO3)2 & Ca(NO3)2 (ii) NaNO3 & NaCl (iii) Iron [III] chloride & copper chloride.

15. Give a reason why carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide cannot be distinguished by using line water.

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VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – X (ICSE) DPP-1

TOPIC: BASIC BIOLOGY
1. The correct sequence of different phases of mitosis is
(A) Anaphase 
 Metaphase 
 Prophase 
 Telophase 
 Interphase
(B) Interphase 
 Telophase 
 Metaphase 
 Anaphase 
 Prophase
(C) Metaphase 
 Anaphase 
 Telophase 
 Interphase 
 Telophase
(D) Interphase 
 Prophase 
 Metaphase 
 Anaphase 
 Telophase

2. In acrocentric chromosomes, position of centromere
(A) terminal (B) middle (C) subterminal (D) none of these

3. Chromosomes having equal or almost equal arms are called
(A) metacentric (C) polycentric (B) acrocentric (D) acentric

4. Chromosomes other than sex chromosomes are called as
(A) allosomes (B) autosomes (C) microsomes (D) none of the above

5. In humans, the number of chromosomes in a diploid cell is
(A) 23 (B) 46 (C) 44 (D) 30

6. Chromosome ends are called:
(A) Satellites (B) Telomeres (C) Centromeres (D) Kinetochores

7. Chromatid is :
(A) One half of chromosome (B) Haploid chromosome
(C) Complete chromosome (D) Duplicate chromosome

8. Centromere is the part of chromosome where:
(A) Nucleoli are formed (B) Crossing over takes place
(C) Chromatids are attached (D) Nicking occurs

9. Mendel’s laws of heredity can be explained with the help of :
(A) Mutation (B) Meiosis (C) Cloning (D) Both A and B

10. A recessive trait in Garden Pea is :
(A) Wrinkled seeds (B) Tall stem (C) Round seeds (D) Coloured seed coat

11. What is the difference between chromatin fibre and chromosome?

12. What are nucleosomes?

13. What are genes & where are these located?

14. What is mutation?

15. What do you mean by sex determination? In human beings, which type of sex determination is present?
VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – X (ICSE) DPP-2

TOPIC : PLANT PHYSIOLOGY

1. Root pressure on a tree is typically about 2-6 atm. This is sufficient to raise the water level upto a few
feet. Tall trees get water at the top due to :
(A) Capillary rise and suction pressure (B) A pump operating in the growing tree
(C) Fed by rain water (D) Water content in the atmosphere

2. Bast fibre in a woody stem belongs to
(A) cork (B) cortex (C) xylem (D) phloem

3. Companion cells are usually seen to be associated with
(A) fibres tissue (B) parenchyma tissue (C) xylem tissue (D) sieve tissue

4. Which of the following process is responsible for guttation ?
(A) Root pressure (B) Transpiration (C) Photosynthesis (D) Imbibition

5. Loss of water from the tips of leaves is called
(A) guttation (B) transpiration (C) respiration (D) bleeding

6. Transpiration pull will be maximum in
(A) Open stomata, dry atmosphere, moist soil (B) Open stomata, humid atmosphere, moist soil
(C) Open stomata, dry atmosphere, dry soil (D) Close stomata, dry atmosphere, dry soil

7. The ultimate cause for the movement of water against the gravity in a tree is
(A) osmosis (B) transpiration (C) imbibition (D) photosynthesis

8. The raw materials for photosynthesis are
(A) CO2 & O2 (B) sunlight,O2 & CO2 (C) water and chlorophyll (D) CO2 and water

9. Most of the photosynthesis (80%) which takes place on this earth is carried out by
(A) green plants on land (B) algae present in fresh water
(C) algae found in ocean (D) algae present in ocean and fresh water sources

10. Which of the following requires no enzyme?
(A) Light reaction (B) Combustion (C) Dark reaction (D) Carboxylation

11. Explain the following terms
(i) Turgidity (ii) Plasmolysis

12. What is osmosis ? Differentiate it from diffusion with the help of a suitable diagram.

13. Explain the types of solution on the basis of movement of molecules / water in the cell.

14. Distinguish between transpiration and translocation.

15. What is the product formed during C3 cycle of dark reaction of photosynthesis?
VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – X (ICSE) DPP-3

TOPIC : HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
1. Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood will
(A) result in clotting (B) prevent clotting
(C) prevent oxidation of haemoglobin (D) cause hemolysis

2. White blood cells engulf bacteria in a process called
(A) Diapedesis (B) Phagocytosis (C) Active transport (D) Passive transport

3. One of the difference between blood and lymph is that
(A) blood has RBCs and WBCs while lymph has lymphocytes
(B) blood has RBCs while lymph has no WBCs
(C) blood has WBCs while lymph has RBCs
(D) blood has dissolved organic salts while lymph has no such inorganic salt

4. Blood vessel carrying blood from lung to heart through
(A) Pulmonary artery (B) Pulmonary vein (C) Coronary artery (D) None of these

5. The process of tubular secretion in nephron takes place in
(A) Glomerulus (B) Proximal convoluted tubule
(C) Loop of Henle (D) Distal convoluted tubule

6. Ammonia is converted into urea in
(A) kidney (B) spleen (C) liver (D) nephron

7. Function of loop of Henle is
(A) conservation of water (B) formation of urine
(C) filtration of blood (D) passage of urine

8. The largest part of brain is
(A) Corpora quadrigemia (B) Medulla oblongata
(C) Cerebellum (D) Cerebrum

9. The centre for the sense of smell in brain is
(A) cerebellum (B) cerebrum (C) midbrain (D) olfactory lobes

10. The pineal body is considered as
(A) an endocrine gland (B) an organ concerned with voluntary actions
(C) an organ concerned with vision (D) a vestige of third eye and endocrine gland

11. What is double circulation?

12. Distinguish between arteries and veins.

13. Flame cells are excretory organs of which group of animals?

14. Name the major excretory product of human beings.

15. What is the difference between sensory and motor neurons? Which parts of human brain are
responsible for auditory reception and sensation of smell?
VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – X (ICSE) DPP-4

TOPIC : HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

1. Glucagon is secreted from which cells of Islet of Langerhans
(A) -Cells (B) -Cells (C) -Cells (D) Both  &  cells

2. The gland which is both exocrine as well as endocrine is
(A) adrenal (B) pituitary (C) pancreas (D) liver

3. What is the effect of thyroxine on BMR
(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Uncertain (D) No effect

4. Hormone that stimulates heart beat is
(A) Thyroxine (B) Adrenaline (C) Glucagon (D) Gastrin

5. Endocrine glands are those which put their secretions directly into
(A) ducts (B) blood (C) both (D) none of the above

6. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 spermatozoa?
(A) 40 (B)100 (C) 200 (D) 400

7. Onset of menstruation is due to :
(A) Decrease in level of progesterone (B) Increase in oestrogen level
(C) Increase in FSH level (D) Decrease in oxytocin level

8. Which one of the following is haploid ?
(A) Oogonia (B) Primary spermatocyte
(C) Primary oocyte (D) Secondary oocyte

9. The population explosion in India is mainly due to
(A) political instability (B) limited education
(C) decreased mortality (D) climate

10. July 11 is observed as
(A) World Population Day (B) No Tobacco Day
(C) World Environment Day (D) World Health Day

11. Write a short note on chemical co-ordination in plants.

12. Differentiate between endocrine and exocrine glands. Write the characteristics of hormones.

13. Describe the stages in the development of human embryo.

14. What do you mean by cloning?

15. What do you mean by population explosion?
VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – X (ICSE) DPP-5

TOPIC : PHYSICAL HEALTH AND HYGIENE
1. Deficiency diseases are
(A) communicable diseases (B) non communicable diseases
(C) allergies (D) none of these

2. If a person lives exclusively on a diet of milk, egg and bread, he is likely to suffer from
(A) scurvy (B) night blindness (C) rickets (D) beri beri

3. Immunization is induced in a body by
(A) Antibiotics (B) Vaccination (C) Sterlization (D) Blood transfusion

4. Diseases like dysentry and loose motions are due to
(A) Protozoans (B) Bacteria (C) Internal disturbance (D) All of above

5. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?
(A) Chicken pox and Polio (B) Polio and Malaria
(C) Tuberculosis and Chicken pox (D) Sleeping sickness and Tetanus

6. Sleeping sickness disease is caused by
(A) housefly (B) mosquito (C) sandfly (D) tsetse fly

7. Microbes that generally enter the body through nose are likely to affect
(A) gut (B) lungs (C) liver (D) lymph node

8. Which of the following disease require use of antibiotics ?
(A) Diptheria (B) Haemophilia (C) Goiter (D) Red-green blindness

9. Which of the following is not true about preventive measures of tuberculosis?
(A) Good nourishment & sanitary surrounding (B) Isolation of T.B. patients
(C) Use of insect repellants (D) Immunization of BCG vaccine

10. Rabies is caused by
(A) rabies virus (B) clostridium (C) giardia (D) HIV

11. Explain the artificial breathing. Write the difference between active and personal immunity.

12. Define Antibiotics ? Against what type of organisms they are used and how do they work ?

13. Explain immunity.

14. How is a cancerous cell different from a normal cell?

15. Write an account about acute and chronic disease.
VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – X (ICSE) DPP-6

TOPIC : POLLUTION
1. Which gas plays a major role in global warming?
(A) CO (B) Nitrous oxide (C) CO2 (D) Sulphur dioxide

2. Which of the following is also called ‘Marsh gas’?
(A) Methane (B) CO2 (C) Chlorofluro carbons (D) Sulphur dioxide

3. The ozone blanket blocks
(A) sunlight (B) U.V. radiations
(C) dust particles (D) visible light

4. If there were no atmosphere around the earth, the temperature of the earth will
(A) increase (B) go on decreasing
(C) increase during day & decrease during night (D) be unaffected

5. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
(A) CH4 (B) CO2 (C) CFC (D) NH3

6. Thermal pollution is more prevalent near
(A) hot water springs (B) coal based power plants
(C) temperate zones (D) tropical zones

7. The major drawback of D.D.T as a pesticide is that
(A) it is significantly less effective than other pesticides
(B) it's cost of production is high
(C) it is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature
(D) organism at once develop resistant to it

8. Noise pollution is measured in
(A) hertz (B) fathoms (C) nanometers (D) decibels

9. World climate is threatened by increase in concentration of
(A) oxygen (B) carbon dioxide (C) nitrogen (D) water vapors

10. If the concentration of dissolved oxygen is reduced, than it would
(A) adversely affect the aquatic flora & fauna (B) not show any effect
(C) both of them are possible (D) none of these is correct

11. Explain ozone layer, its depletion and effects of ozone depletion.

12. Describe sources and harmful effects of air pollution.

13. Which radiation is absorbed by ozone?

14. Give few examples of atmospheric gases responsible for causing acid rain.

15. Why inhalation of carbon monoxide is dangerous?
VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: X (ICSE) DPP-1
TOPIC : COMMERCIAL MATHEMATICS
1. If 25% of A’s income exceeds 20% of B’s income by Rs. 100 their combined income is Rs. 1750, what is A’s
income ?
(A) Rs. 750 (B) Rs. 950 (C) Rs. 1,000 (D) Rs. 1,250
2. The ages of A and B are in the ratio 9 : 4. After 7 years the ratio will be 5 : 3. The present ages of A and B
respectively are
(A) 9 and 4 years (B) 18 and 8 years (C) 27 and 12 years (D) Cannot be determined
x 2 4 yx
3. If y  3 , then the value of 5  y  x is
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 5
4. In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there are Rs. 30 in all, how many 5
p coins are there ?
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 200
5. If the compound interest of a certain sum for 3 years at 10% per annum be Rs. 331, what would be the simple
interest ?
(A) Rs. 320 (B) Rs. 310 (C) Rs. 321 (D) Rs. 300
6. The length, breadth & height of a room in the shape of cuboid are increased by 10% , 20% & 50% respec-
tively. Find the % change in the volume of cuboid ?
(A) 77% (B) 87% (C) 98% (D) 55%
7. Two alloys containing copper and iron in the ratios 5 : 8 and 5 : 3 are melted in equal quantities. Find the
ratio of iron and copper in the resulting alloy.
(A) 103 : 105 (B) 15 : 24 (C) 3 : 8 (D) 105 : 103
8. A sum of Rs. 53 is divided among A, B,C in such a way that A gets Rs. 7 more than what B gets and B gets
Rs. 8 more than what C gets. The ratio of their shares is :
(A) 16 : 9 : 18 (B) 25 : 18 : 10 (C) 18 : 25 : 10 (D) 15 : 8 : 30
9. In an examination, A gets 10% marks less than B and B gets 10% marks less than C. If A gets 810 marks,
what marks does C get ?
(A) 900 (B) 945 (C) 973 (D) 1,000
10. A began business with Rs. 4200 and is joined by B afterwards with Rs. 7200. ? For what period did B join if
the profits at the end of the year are divided equally.
(A) 4 months (B) 6 months (C) 7 months (D) 5 months
11. A is thrice as efficient as B, and B is twice as efficient as C. If A, B and C work together, how long will they
take to complete a job which B completes in 10 days ?
1
12. A businessman sells at a shirt a profit of 12 % and invests the proceeds to by a pant which he sells at a
2
profit of 20%. If he gets Rs. 700 for this, the cost of the shirt approximately is -

13. If a sum of money doubles at 12.5% p.a. interest. What is the time period in case of S..

14. A can do a piece of work in 10 days which B alone can do in 12 days. In how many days can both do it
working together?

15. In a mixture of 80 L, milk and water are in the ratio 5 : 3. If 16 L of this mixture is replaced by 16 L of milk,
the ratio of milk and water becomes?
VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: X (ICSE) DPP-2
TOPIC : ALGEBRA

1. A quadratic polynomial is exactly divisible by (x - 1) & (x - 2) and leaves the remainder 4 after division by
(x - 3) then that polynomial is :
(A) x2 + 6x + 4 (B) 2x2 + 6x + 4 (C) 2x2 + 6x – 4 (D) x2 + 6x – 4

2. If x = 2.361, y = 3.263, and z = 5.624, then the value of x3 + y3 – z3 +  3xyz is :
(A) 85.621 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 19.277

3. If one zero of 2x2 – 3x + k is reciprocal to the other, then the value of k is :
2 3
(A) 2 (B) – (C) – (D) – 3
3 2
4. 2 2 2
If x = 2015, y = 2014 and z = 2013 then the value of x  + y  + z  – xy – yz – zx is :
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 6

5. Find the remainder when x81 + x49 + x25 + x9 + x is divided by x3 – x :
(A) 0 (B) 5x (C) –1 (D) Can not be determined

a b c
 
6. AT A = ,  then the value of
If  A =   b c a   , where a, b, c are real positive numbers, a  b  c = 1 and  A
 c a b
 
a3 + b3 + c3 is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 0

2x  1
7. Solution of inequality   < 1 is :
x 1
(A) – 1 < x < 3 (B) – 1 < x < 2 (C) – 2 < x < 2 (D) – 3 < x < 2

8. The solution the equation | 3x – 10 |  5 is :
5 5 5 5
(A) x  5 or x   (B) x  5 or x   (C) x  – 5 or x  –  (D) x  – 5 or x  – 
3 3 3 3

1  5 4 0
   
9. If A =  2  and B =   0 2  1 , then
3  1  3 2 

 5 8 0
 
0 4  2
(1) AB =   (2) AB = [– 2   – 1    4]
 3  9 6 

 1
 
1
(3) AB =    (4) AB does not exist
 1 

10. A 3 × 2 matrix whose elements are given by aij = 2i – j is

1 2 1 2 1 0 
     
3 2 1 1 3 2
(1)   (2)   (3)    (4) none of these
 5 4   0 3   5 4 
( x  1)2 ( x  1)3
11.  Solve :   0.
x 4 ( x  2)

12. The polynomial p(x) = 2x4 – x3 - 7x2 + ax + b is divisible by x2 – 2x – 3 for certain values of a and b. The value
of (a + b), is :

13. If sum of n terms of a sequence is given by Sn = 2n2 + 3n, find its 50th term.

14. The first term of a G.P. is 7, the last term is 567 and sum of terms is 847. Find the common ratio of the
G.P.

15. If 9th term of an A.P. be zero then the ratio of its 29th and 19th term is.
VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: X (ICSE) DPP-3

TOPIC : GEOMETRY

1. In Figure, D and E are the mid-points of sides AB and AC respectively of ABC.Find EDB.

(A) 110º A
60°
(B) 120º
D E
(C) 70º 5cm

50°
(D) 80º B C

2. In the figure A = CED, CD = 8 cm CE = 10 cm, BE = 2cm, AB = 9cm, AD = b and DE = a. The value of
a + b is :
(A) 13 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 12 cm
(D) 9 cm

area( DFE)
3. In the given figure, DE || BC and AD : DB = 5 : 4, find .
area( CFB) A
(A) 5 : 9
(B) 25 : 16 D E

(C) 25 : 81 F
B C
(D) None of these

4. Locus of a point such that the sum of its distance from the points (0, 2) and (0, – 2) is 6 :
(A) 4x2 + 6y2 = 5 (B ) 5x2 + 9y2 = 50 (C) 9x2 + 5y2 = 45 (D) None

5. Equation to the locus of a point equidistant from the points A (1, 3) and B (– 2, 1) is :
(A) 4x + 6y = 5 (B ) 6x + 4y = 5 (C) – 4x + 6y = 8 (D) None
6. In figure, O is centre, then reflex  AOC =
(A) 190°
(B) 160º
(C) 200°
(D) 185°

7. In figure, O is centre, then  BXD =

(A) 65°

(B) 60°

(C) 70°

(D) 55°
8. In the adjoining figure, the chords XY and SR are produced to meet outside the circle at P. The chords XR and
YS meet inside the circle at T. If X = xº and XTS = yº, then P is equal to :
(A) (x + y)º
(B) (y – x)º
(C) 2(y – x)º
(D) (y – 2x)º

9. In the figure given above, A and B are the centers of the two congruent circles with radius 17 units.
If AB = 30 units, the length of the common chord DC is :

(A) 25 units
(B) 18 units
(C) 10 units
(D) 16 units
10. In the figure shown

O

140º

(A) + = 110º (B)  = = 55º (C) = 110º (D) Both A & C

11. In the figure C is a right angle, DE  AB, A E = 6, EB = 7 and BC = 5. The area of the quadrilateral EBCD is
C
D
5

A B
6 E 7

12. The height of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ is given by.

13. In a given figure in trapezium ABCD if AB || CD then value of x is.
A B
2 x–2
O
2x+5 5
D C

14. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD. If ADC = 2ABC, AD = a cm and CD = b cm, then the length (in
cm) of AB is.

15. The consecutive angles of a trapezium form an arithmetic sequence. If the smallest angle is 75º, then the
largest angle is.
VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: X (ICSE) DPP-4
TOPIC : MENSURATION
1. A sphere of radius 3 cms is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of radius 4 cms. If the sphere is submerged
completely, then the height (in cm) to which the water rises, is :
(A) 2.35 (B) 2.30 (C) 2.25 (D) 2.15
2. If a rectangular sheet of paper 44 cm × 22 cm is rolled along its length of form a cylinder, then the
volume of cylinder in cm 3 is :
(A) 1694 (B) 3080 (C) 3388 (D) none of these
3. Two cones have their heights in the ratio 1 : 3 and the radii of their bases are in the ratio 3 : 1, then the
ratio of their volumes is :
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 27 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 27
4. The total surface area of a cube is numerically equal to the surface area of a sphere then the ratio of
their volume is :
   6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 6 216 
5. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 264 m 2 and its volume is 924 m 3. The ratio of its diameter to its
height is :
(A) 7 : 6 (B) 6 : 7 (C) 3 : 7 (D) 7 : 3
6. A solid piece of iron of dimensions 66 cm  49 cm  12 cm is moulded into a sphere. The radius of the
sphere is :
(A) 7 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 21 cm (D) 14 cm
7. If the radii of the circular ends of a bucket of height 40 cm are 35 cm and 14 cm respectively, then the
volume of the bucket in cubic centimetres is :
(A) 60060 (B) 80080 (C) 70070 (D) 80160
8. Water in a canal, 30 dm wide and 12 dm deep, is flowing with a speed of 10 km/hour. How much area will it
irrigate in 30 minutes, if 8 cm of standing water is required for irrigation.
(A) 220500 m2 (B) 22500 m2 (C) 220000 m2 (D) 225000 m2
9. The ratio of the height of a circular cylinder is to the diameter of its base is 1 : 2. Then the ratio of the areas of
its curved surface to the sum of the areas of its two ends is :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
10. A cone is divided into two parts by drawing a plane through the mid point of its axis parallel to its base then
the ratio of the volume of two parts is :
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 7 (C) 1 : 8 (D) 1 : 9
11. Find the difference between total surface area &curved surface area of a hemisphere of radius 21 cm.

12. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm, each
bullet being 4 cm in diameter.

13. A piece of wire in the form of a rectangle 15 cm long and 7 cm broad is reshaped and bent into the form of a
circle. Find the radius of the circle.

14. The area of a circle is doubled when its radius r is increased by a. Therefore, radius r equals.

15. The perimeter of an isosceles right angled triangle is 2p. Its area is.
VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: X (ICSE) DPP-5
TOPIC : TRIGONOMETRY
1. The area of a triangle is 12 sq. cm. Two sides are 6 cm and 12 cm. The included angle is :
 1  1  1  1
(A) cos–1  3  (B) sin–1  3  (C) sin–1  6  (D) cos–1  6 
       

2. Given 3 sin   5 cos  = 5 then the value of ( 3 cos   5 sin  )2 is equal to
9 1 1
(A) 9 (B) (C) (D)
5 3 9
3. If cosec – sin= 5 , where  is an acute angle, then the value of sin + cosec is :
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 9

4. If sin A + sin2A = 1, then the value of cos2A + cos4A is :
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) –2 (D) 0
5. If sin – cos = 0, then the value of (sin4+ cos4) is –
3 1 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
4 2 4
6. The values of x and y which make the following are true : cos xº = sin 52º and cos yº = sin (yº + 10)
(A) x = 52º , y = 30º (B) x = 38º , y = 40º (C) x = 48º, y = 52º (D) x = 40º, y = 50º
7. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower, as seen from two points A & B situated in the same line and at
distances ‘p’ and ‘q’ respectively from the foot of the tower, are complementary, then the height of the tower is :
p
(A) pq (B) (C) pq (D) none of these
q
8. The Shadow of a tower, when the angle of elevation of the sun is 30º, is found to be 5 m longer than when it
was 45º, then the height of tower in metre is :
5 5 5
(A) (B) ( 3  1) (C) ( 3  1) (D) None of these
3 1 2 2

9. A ladder reaches a point on a wall which is 20 m above the ground and its foot is 20 3 m away from the
ground. The angle made by the ladder with the wall is :
(A) 90º (B) 60º (C) 45º (D) 30º
10. The value of tan 5º tan 10º tan 15º tan 20º...... tan 85º is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None

11. If  +  = 90º and  = 2, then cos2  + sin2  equals to.

12. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 200 metres above a lake is 30º and the angle of depression of
its reflection in the lake is 60º, then the height of the cloud (in metres) above the lake is.

13. If tan 15º = 2 – 3 , then the value of cot2 75º is.

4 3
14. If a = cot2 30º + 3 sin2 60º – 3 cosec2 60º – tan2 30º and b = 3 tan2 45º + cos 0º – cot 90º then logb(a) is.
3 4

15. The expression (1 – tan A + sec A) (1 – cot A + cosec A) has value.
VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: X (ICSE) DPP-6
TOPIC : STATISTICS
1. If the arithmetic mean of 5, 7, 9, x is 9 then the value of x is :
(A) 11 (B) 15 (C) 18 (D) 16
2. The mode of the distribution 3, 5, 7, 4, 2, 1, 4, 3, 4 is :
(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1
3. If the first five elements of the set x 1, x 2,.....x10 are replaced by xi + 5, i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and next five
elements are replaced by x j – 5, j = 6, 7, ..... 10, then the mean will change by :
n 1
(A) 0 (B) (C) 10 (D) 25
2
4. If the mean and median of a set of numbers are 8.9 and 9 respectively, then the mode will be :
(A) 7.2 (B) 8.2 (C) 9.2 (D) 10.2
5. The upper limit of the median class of the following distribution is :

Class 0-5 6 - 11 12 - 17 18 - 23 24 - 29
Frequency 13 10 15 8 11

(A) 17 (B) 17.5 (C) 18 (D) 18.5
6. For a symmetrical distribution, which is correct :
(A) Mean > Mode > Median (B) Mean < Mode < Median
Mean  Median
(C) Mode = (D) Mean = Median = Mode
2
7. The upper class limit of inclusive type class interval 10 – 20 is.
(A) 10.5 (B) 20 (C) 20.5 (D) 17.5
8. Range of 14, 12, 17, 18, 16 and x is 20. Find x (x > 0)
(A) 2 (B) 28 (C) 32 (D) Cannot be determined
1
9. The highest score of certain data exceeds its lowest score by 16 and coefficient of range is . Find the sum
3
of the highest score and the lowest score.
(A) 36 (B) 48 (C) 24 (D) 18
10. The range of 15, 14, x, 25, 30, 35 is 23. Find the least possible value of x.
(A) 14 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 11

11. If the observations 20, 22, 23, 25, (x + 1), (x + 3), 36,38, 39 and 41 have median 30, then the value of
x is.

12. If the mean and median of a set of numbers are 8.9 and 9 respectively, then the mode will be.

13. A cricketer has a certain average run for 10 innings. In the 11 th inning, he scores 100 runs, and now his
average run is increased by 9 runs. Then average of 11 inning is.

14. The mean of six numbers is 15. If 2 is taken away from every number, the new mean would be.

15. Out of 50 observations the mean of 25 observation is 30 and mean of rest 25 observation is 32, Then mean
of 50 observation is.
VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: X (ICSE) DPP-7

TOPIC : PROBABILITY
1. One card is drawn at random form a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a king
1 1 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 52 13 4

2. One card is drawn of random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is either a
red card or a king ?
6 1 7 27
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 2 13 52
3. What is the probability that an ordinary year has 53 Sundays ?
53 1 2 48
(A) (B) (C) (D)
365 7 7 53

4. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 7 ?
1 7 7 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 12 36 4
5. A bag contains 40 balls out of which some are red, some are blue and remaining are black. If the probability
11 1
of drawing a red ball is and that of blue ball is , then the number of black balls is :
20 5
(A) 5 (B) 25 (C) 10 (D) 30

6. If E and F are independent events such that P(E) = 0.7 and P(F) = 0.3 : then P(E  F)
(A) 0.4 (B) 1
(C) 0.21 (D) none
7. In a single throw of two dice what is the probability of not getting the same number on both the dice ?
1 2 5 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 6 3
8. A card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a spade or
a king ?
4 3 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 13 13 13
9. If E and F be mutually exclusive events such that P (E) = 0.4 and P(F) = 0.5, then P(E  F) is :
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.9 (D) none
10. A die is thrown twice. The probability that 5 will not come up either of the time is
35 25 1 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36 36 36 36
11. A die is thrown twice. The probability of the sum being odd, is.
12. A bag contains three green marbles, four blue marbles, and two orange marbles. If a marble is picked at
random, then the probability that it is not an orange marble is.
13. A number is selected from numbers 1 to 27. The probability that it is prime is.
14. If P(E) = 0.05, then P(not E) =
15. A school has five houses A, B, C, D and E. A class has 23 students, 4 from house A, 8 from house
B, 5 from house C, 2 from house D and rest from house E. A single student is selected at random to
be the class monitor. The probability that the selected student is not from A, B and C is.