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(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems

DPP NO. 01

Q.1 Basic standard unit of time is a
(A) second (B) hour (C) minute (D) milli-second

Q.2 One centimeter is equal to
(A) 10 km. (B) 0.00001km. (C) 0.01 km. (D) 0.001km.

Q.3 Simple pendulum exhibits
(A) periodic motion (B) circular motion
(C) non-uniform motion (D) Rotatory motion

Q.4 The to and fro motion of an object, which moves along the same path is called
(A) rotatory motion (B) vibratory motion (C) circular motion (D) oscillatory motion

Q.5 The blades of a moving fan exhibit
(A) vibratory motion (B) rotatory motion (C) oscillatory motion (D) rectilinear motion

Q.6 The volume of cube of side 25 cm will be:
3 3 3 3
(A) 15625cm (B) 625cm (C) 225cm (D) 25cm

Q.7 Foot, stride, fathom are the units of :
(A) Time (B) Length (C) Mass (D) Weight

Q.8 1dam is equal to
(A) 10m (B)1000 cm (C) Both (A)and (B) (D) None of these

Q.9 Length of curved line is measured by using:
(A) Scale (B) String (C) Ruler (D) Can`t be measured

3 3
Q.10 How many cm are equal to ------------- m
(A) 1/1000000 (B) 1/10000 (C) 1/1000 (D) 1/100

Q.11 Give two examples of periodic motion.

Q.12 While measuring the length of a pencil, the reading of the scale at one end is 3.0 cm and at the other
end is 50.1 cm. What is the length of the pencil?

Q.13 What is unit?

Q.14 The height of a person is 1.69 m. Express it into cm and mm.

Q.15 Classify the following into different types of motion:
(a) The motion of a man on a straight land road.
(b) The motion of wheel of a car.
(c) The motion of a falling stone.

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DPP NO. 02

Q.1 Electroplating is an application of :
(A) Heating effect of current (B) Chemical effect of current
(C) Magnetic effect of current (D) None of these

Q.2 An electromagnet
(A) is a kind of a fuse
(B) is a compass needle
(C) is a miniature circuit breaker
(D) behaves like a magnet on passing an electric current

Q.3 The wires used for making electric fuses
(A) melt quickly (B) are very thick
(C) are made up of plastic (D) are responsible for short circuiting

Q.4 The filament of an electric bulb glows on passage of current
(A) due to the heating effect of an electric current
(B) because filament is very thin
(C) because a chemical reaction takes place inside the bulb
(D) due to the magnetic effect of an electric current

Q.5 Certain cranes can lift heavy iron loads easily as they have
(A) an electromagnet. (B) an electric cell. (C) electric bulbs. (D) electrical switches.

Q.6 Length of the heater coil is increased. When current passes, the amount of heat
(A) will decrease. (B) will increase. (C) remains same. (D) converts into fire.

Q.7 When an electric current passes through a wire, it becomes
(A) weak. (B) a switch. (C) hot. (D) cold.

Q.8 Miniature circuit breakers (MCBs)
(A) behaves like a magnet.
(B) automatically switch off when an electric current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit.
(C) do not help in maintaining safety.
(D) have wire of very low melting point .

Q.9 The wires used for making electric fuses
(A) melt quickly. (B) are very thick.
(C) are made up of plastic. (D) are responsible for short circuiting.

Q.10 An electromagnet
(A) is a kind of a fuse.
(B) is a compass needle.
(C) is a miniature circuit breaker.
(D) behaves like a magnet on passing an electric current.

Q.11 Mention one important use of insulators

Q.12 Mention two uses of electromagnets

Q.13 Can a copper wire be used as a fuse wire ?

Q.14 Which material is commonly used to make elements of heating appliances ? Why ?

Q.15 What is the role of the following in an electrical circuit :
electric fuse, key, cell, conducting wire

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DPP NO. 03

Q.1 A difference of temperature of 25ºC is equivalent to a difference of :
(A) 72º F (B) 45ºF (C) 25º F (D) 32ºF

Q.2 When steam condenses into water its :
(A) temperature remains the same (B) heat dissipates
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) temperature decreases

Q.3 Boiling point of water is :
(A) 100 ºC (B) 273 K (C) 373 K (D) Both (A) & (C)

Q.4 Range of clinical thermometer is
(A) -100C to 1100C. (B) 420C to 1100C. (C) 350C to 420C (D) 00C to 350C

Q.5 One joule is equal to
3 5 9 7
(A) 10 ergs. (B) 10 ergs. (C) 10 ergs. (D) 10 ergs.

Q.6 Copper tubing is used in automobile radiators as copper is a
(A) bad conductor. (B) semiconductor. (C) good conductor. (D) radiator.

Q.7 In vacuum, heat can be transferred through
(A) conduction & convection only. (B) conduction only.
(C) radiation only. (D) convection only.

Q.8 1 Joule is equal to
(A) 9.8 m/ s2. (B) 100,000 erg. (C) 1,000,000 erg. (D) 10,000,000 erg.

Q.9 Energy produced by burning one gram of fuel is called its
(A) calorific value. (B) maximum energy. (C) activation energy. (D) threshold energy.

Q.10 We wear light coloured clothes in summers because they are
(A) good absorber of heat. (B) good reflector of heat.
(C) poor reflector of heat. (D) poor radiator of heat.

Q.11 Define temperature ?

Q.12 Define conduction

Q.13 Define good conductor and bad conductor

Q.14 Name the three temperature scales Write the relationship between them
C F – 32 K – 273
The relationship between them is 100  180  100

Q.15 Which two conditions must be satisfied for heat transfer by conduction

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DPP NO. 04

Q.1 A thin plane mirror :
(A) refracts light (B) reflects light (C) transmits light (D) none of these

Q.2 The angle of reflection is the angle between :
(A) the reflected ray and surface of mirror
(B) the incident ray and the surface of mirror
(C) the normal to the surface of a mirror and incident ray
(D) the normal to the surface of mirror and reflected ray

Q.3 Middle point of plane mirror is :
(A) point of incidence (B) pole (C) centre of curvature (D) none

Q.4 If angle of incidence is 30 , then glance angle of reflection is :
o o o o
(A) 60 (B) 90 (C) 30 (D) 120

Q.5 Light travels faster in :
(A) vacuum (B) air (C) glass (D) diamond

Q.6 The mirror used by a dental surgeon is :
(A) Plane (B) Convex (C) concave (D) none

Q.7 Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained by a
convex lens ?
(A) At the focus (B) At infinity
(C) At twice the focal length (D) Between optical centre and focus

Q.8 If image formed is always diminished and between F and O, then lens is :
(A) Concave (B) Convex (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

Q.9 Which of the following diagrams correctly represent the path of a ray of light through a concave lens ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.10 In the side mirror of a car, the size of the images of all the objects appear to be
(A) same as that of the size of the objects. (B) smaller than the objects.
(C) larger than the objects. (D) of point size.

Q.11 Define dispersion of light

Q.12 Gives the use of :
(i) Concave mirror (ii) Convex mirror (iii) Plane mirror

Q.13 Define lateral inversion

Q.14 What is meant by a ray of light ?

Q.15 What are the characteristics of the image formed by a concave lens?

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DPP NO. 05

Q.1 Distance of crest from mean position is called :
(A) Amplitude (B) Frequency (C) Displacement (D) Wavelength

Q.2 Which of the following properties of wave, the one that is independent of the others is its :
(A) Velocity (B) Amplitude (C) Wavelength (D) Frequency

Q.3 When a sound wave goes from air into water, the quantity that remains unchanged is its :
(A) Velocity (B) Amplitude (C) Frequency (D) Wavelength

Q.4 The frequency of sound waves in water is :
(A) Same as that of frequency of source
(B) Less than frequency of source
(C) More than frequency of source
(D) Can’t say

Q.5 What is the velocity of sound in water at room temperature :
(A) 1500 m/s (B) 330 m/s (C) 1500 km/s (D) 330 km/s

Q.6 The unit of quantity on which pitch of the sound depends is :
(A) Hertz (B) metre (C) metre/second (D) second

Q.7 The unit of quantity on which loudness of sound depends is :
(A) metre (B) Hertz (C) metre/second (D) second

Q.8 A periodic wave is characterized by :
(A) Phase only (B) Wavelength only (C) Frequency only (D) All the above

Q.9 The speed of sound is maximum in :
(A) Air (B) Hydrogen (C) Water (D) Iron

Q.10 When sound waves travelling in air enter into the medium of water, the quantity which remains
unchanged is :
(A) Wavelength (B) Velocity (C) Frequency (D) None

Q.11 Define amplitude of a wave.

Q.12 Define frequency of a wave.

Q.13 Define wavelength of a wave.

Q.14 Define time period of a wave.

Q.15 What is the effect of temperature on speed of sound? Discuss.

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DPP NO. 06

Q.1 Pressure is a :
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Normal force (D) None of these

Q.2 The S.I. unit of pressure is :
–2 2
(A) N-m (B) Pascal (C) dyne-cm (D) Both (A) and (B)

Q.3 Pressure exerted by a liquid column :
(A) Is independs of its density (B) Is independent of the acceleration due to gravity
(C) Decreases with depth (D) None of these

Q.4 Thrust is a :
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Tangential force (D) None of these

Q.5 Which among the following is a unit of pressure?
(A) Atmosphere (B) Torr (C) cm of hg (D) All of these

Q.6 The S.I. unit of thrust is :
(A) N (B) dyne (C) Pa (D) kg-wt

Q.7 Pressure can be calculated as :
Force Tangential Force Normal Force
(A) (B) (C) (D) All of these
Area Area Area

Q.8 Nitu immerses a solid into a liquid. She finds that the weight of a body is exactly equal to the weight of
the liquid displaced by it. The body will
(A) sink in the liquid.
(B) float on the surface of the liquid.
(C) go to the bottom and come back to the surface again.
(D) remain suspended in middle of the liquid.

Q.9 Rohit puts two identical blocks in two different containers. There is pure water in one container and
salty water in the other. He observes that in salty water, the block sinks
(A) more than in pure water. (B) less than in pure water.
(C) same as in pure water. (D) first very quickly, then slowly.

Q.10 Among the given liquids, the liquid having highest density is
(A) alcohol (B) mercury (C) water (D) kerosene

Q.11 Do the liquids exert pressure?

Q.12 Why does a sharp knife cuts objects more easily than a blunt knife ?

Q.13 Explain, why a ship sinks to a great depth in river water than in sea water ?

Q.14 Explain briefly why a balloon filled with helium gas rises in air ?

Q.15 What are the laws of floatation in a liquid ? Give some illustrations

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(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. The conclusion which can be drawn from the given figures is

(A) Liquids have one free surface
(B) Liquids take the shape of vessel
(C) Same amount of liquid have same level in different container
(D) both A and B
2. The magnitude of intermolecular forces of attraction are maximum in
(A) chalk powder (B) water (C) carbon dioxide (D) hydrogen
3. By increasing pressure, the ______ of gas decreases.
(A) weight (B) temperature (C) mass (D) volume
4. When molecules gain enough energy they
(A) move away from each other (B) come close to each other
(C) remain at the same position (D) none of these
5. Which of the following statement goes well with the liquid state ?
(A) particles are loosely packed in the liquid state.
(B) fluidity is maximum in the liquid state.
(C) liquids can be compressed easily.
(D) liquids take up the shape of any container in which these are placed.
6. Which state has lower density ?
(A) solid (B) liquid (C) gas (D) Either of these
7. Which condition out of the following will increase the vapor pressure of ether ?
(A) Increase in temperature of ether (B) Decrease in temperature of ether
(C) Increase in exposed surface area of ether (D) None of these
8. Which of the following are rigid forms of matter ?
(A) only solids (B) only liquids (C) solids and liquids (D) liquids and gases
9. The decreasing order of kinetic energy of particles is
(A) solid > liquid > gas (B) gas > liquid > solid (C) liquid > solid > gas (D) gas > solid > liquid
10. In which of the following conditions, the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas would
increase ?
(i) Increasing pressure on hydrogen contained in a closed container.
(ii) Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container.
(iii) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas.
(iv) Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing the volume of the container.
(A) i and iii (B) i and iv (C) ii and iii (D) ii and iv
11. Ravi wants to buy shirts for summer. Should he buy cotton shirts or shirts made from synthetic
material? Give suggestion to Ravi by giving proper logical explanation.
12. A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept. Give reason.
13. Why are liquids and gases called as fluids?
14. Differentiate between solid, liquid and gas.
15. Define interconversion of states of matter.
Extra Question
11. Ice floats on the surface of water because -
(A) it is heavier than water. (B) the density of both water and ice is the same.
(C) ice is lighter than water (D) none of the above

12. Which of the following is not a matter?
(A) Water (B) Heat (C) Steel (D) Kerosene

13. The slowest process is -
(A) evaporation (B) vaporization (C) boiling (D) melting

14. The inter conversion involved in usage of "odonil" in wash room is ……………. .
(A) Sublimation (B) deposition (C) melting (D) freezing

15. Which of these choices will not change the state of matter?
(A) Temperature (B) Crushing a crystal (C) Pressure (D) Electricity
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems

1. Which of the following changes can be reversed?
(A) Raw egg to boiled egg (B) Wet clothes to dry clothes
(C) Bud to flower (D) Cow dung to biogas

2. Which one of the following is undesirable change?
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Floods (C) Digestion of food (D) All of the above

3. Which one of the step while burning a candle is not reversible?
(A) Melting of solid wax (B) Liquid wax changes into vapours
(C) Wax vapour burn into flame (D) All of these

4. A constant temperature at which solid start melting is called its -
(A) boiling point (B) freezing point (C) melting point (D) dew point

5. Which of the following changes cannot be reversed?
(A) Milk to paneer (B) Cold milk to hot milk
(C) Yarn to knitted sweater (D) Wet clothes to dry clothes

6. During all changes physical or chemical changes, mass is
(A) gained (B) conserved (C) loss (D) none of these

7. Melting of wax is a................. change while burning of candle is .................. change.
(A) irreversible, reversible (B) reversible, irreversible
(C) physical, reversible (D) chemical, irreversible

8. Bursting of cracker is a –
(A) Slow change (B) Fast change (C) Periodic change (D) none of these

9. Which of the following changes include formation of new substances?
(A) Melting (B) Sublimation (C) Evaporation (D) Rusting

10. A change in which one or new substances are formed is called -
(A) chemical change (B) physical change (C) corrosion (D) all of the above

11. What are the main characteristics of chemical change?

12. Define
(i) Condensation (ii) Humidity (iii) Dissolving (iv) Melting point

13. Differentiate between reversible and irreversible change.

14. What are the conditions that affect evaporation?

15. What are the main characteristics of physical change?
Extra Questions
11. Earthquakes is an example of –
(A) periodic change (B) non-periodic change
(C) both periodic & non-periodic change (D) none of these

12. Favorable conditions for a chemical reaction may be-
(i) When the reactants come in close contact.
(ii) When the reactants are heated.
(iii) When the reactants are exposed to light.
(iv) When the reactants are subjected to pressure.
(v) When a catalyst is used the same chemical reaction takes place at a faster rate
(A) i, ii and iii (B) ii, iii and iv (C) ii, iv and v (D) all five options

13. Change of day and night is an example of –
(A) periodic change (B) non-periodic change
(C) both periodic & non-periodic change (D) none of these

14. Slice of apple are kept for sometime acquire a brown color.
This change is mainly due to -
(A) physical change (B) chemical change (C) crystallization (D) none of these

15. Glowing of a bulb is a
(A) physical change (B) chemical change (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. The process of separation of grain from husk and hay with help of wind is called
(A) Hand-picking (B) Winnowing (C) Threshing (D) None of these

2 Smallest particle of an element that take part in a chemical reaction is -
(A) Molecule (B) Matter (C) Atom (D) Symbol

3. ................. are made up of same kind of atoms.
(A) Element (B) Matter (C) Atom (D) Symbol

4. Mixture is a :
(A) Pure substance (B) Impure substance (C) Both(A) & (B) (D) None

5. Coffee is a
(A) Mixture (B) Element (C) Compound (D) Molecule

6. Sugar from water is separated by
(A) Sieving (B) evaporation
(C) distillation (D) sedimentation & decantation

7. Separating cream from milk is done by
(A) Centrifugation (B) threshing (C) distillation (D) diffusion

8. iron and sulphur can be separated by
(A) Magnetic separation (B) threshing
(C) separating funnel (D) diffusion

9. Separating the mixture of milk and cooking oil is done through-
(A) centrifugation (B) separating funnel (C) distillation (D) chromatography

10. Drugs from blood is tested by
(A) centrifugation (B) separating funnel (C) distillation (D) chromatography

11. What do you mean by pure and impure substance? Give two examples.

12. Define
(i) Miscible liquids (ii) Sedimentation (iii) Centrifugation (iv) Chromatography

13. Differentiate between:
(A) compound and mixture.
(B) homogeneous & heterogeneous mixture

14. What do you mean by Fractional distillation?

15. Classify elements
Extra Question
11. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and water can be separated by
(A) Fractional distillation (B) evaporation
(C) separating funnel (D) solvent extraction method

12. ..................................... is a technique used to separate the components of a mixture on the basis of
differences between two phases, one of which is stationary is-
(A) solvent extraction method (B) evaporation
(C) chromatography (D) none of these

13. What is correct for noble gases?
(A) It reacts with all elements (B) It reacts only with Metals
(C) It reacts only with non-metals (D) It does not react chemically with other elements.

14. ................. is a process to obtain a very pure form of a solid dissolved in a liquid.
(A) Centrifugation (B) threshing (C) distillation (D) Crystallization

15. Air is a
(A) Mixture (B) Element (C) Compound (D) Molecule
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. Nucleons consists of -
(A) Proton and neutron (B) Proton and electron
(C) Neutron and electron (D) Proton, neutron and electron

2. An atom is represented by -
(A) formula (B) chemical equation (C) symbol (D) chemical reaction

3. Protons, neutrons and electrons are collectively called as –
(A) Nucleons (B) Sub-atomic particles (C)molecules (D) none

4. Sodium is -
(A) Diatomic (B) Monoatomic (C) Triatomic (D) none of these

5. Atomic No. is equal to –
(A) no. of nucleons (B) no. of protons (C) no. of neutrons (D) none

6. Bromine is a -
(A)Gas (B) Liquid (C) Solid (D)can't determine

7. Which of the following has valency 3?
(A) sodium (B) hydrogen (C) aluminium (D) magnesium

8. .............. is a triatomic molecule.
(A) oxygen (B) hydrogen (C) ozone (D) none of these

9. What is the number of valence electrons of an element having atomic number 12?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 9

10. Mass of proton is approximately equal to-
(A) electron (B) neutron (C) both (D) none of these

11. Write a short note on periodic table.

12. Write the names of the elements present in the following compounds:
(A) Sugar (B) Common salt (C) Sodium hydroxide (D) Ammonia

13. Write the molecular formula of the following compounds-
(a) Sodium sulphide. (b) Iron(II) chloride
(c) Copper sulphate (d) Ammonium carbonate

14. Name one ion for each of the valencies:
(a) -1 (b) +2 (c)+3 (d) +1

15. Define the following terms:
(a) Atomicity (b) Valence electrons (c) Molecule (d) Valency
Extra Question
11. Read the given statement and mark the correct option.
Statement-1 : Atomic weight is a non-zero positive whole number.
Statement-2 : Protons are positively charged particles.
(A) Both statement 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statement 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

12. Chemical name of caustic soda is-
(A) Calcium hydroxide (B) Sodium hydroxide (C)Copper sulphate (D) Sodium bicarbonate

13. The valency of Fe in Fe2O3 is-
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4

14. An ion with negative charge is called as-
(A) Atom (B) Cation (C) Anion (D) none of these

15. Which of the following exhibit variable valency?
(A) Ca (B) Cu (C) C (D) Cl
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) A chemical equation tells us about the substances involved in a reaction.
(B) A chemical equation informs us about the symbols and formulae of the substances involved in a
(C) A chemical equation tells us about the atoms or molecules of the reactants and products involved in
a reaction.
(D) All the above

2. The substances which undergo chemical change are called ...................
(A) product (B) reactant (C) element (D) None of these

3. In some chemical reactions, an insoluble substance is formed called as.
(A) residue (B) gas (C) precipitate (D) None of these

4. Chemical changes are …………
(A) temporary, reversible and a new substance is produced
(B) always accompanied with exchange of light
(C) permanent, irreversible and a new substance is produced
(D) never accompanied with exchange of light and heat energy

5. Which of the following is a physical change?
(A) solubility in water (B) combustibility
(C) aerial oxidation (D) reaction with water

6. The balanced chemical equation for the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen to produce Ammonia gas is -
(A) N2(g) + H2(g)  2NH3(g) (B) 2N2(g) + H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) (D) 2N2(g) + H2(g)  2NH3(g)

7. Which of the following is/are an endothermic process(es) ?
(i) Dilution of sulphuric acid (ii) Sublimation of dry ice
(iii) Condensation of water vapours (iv) Evaporation of water
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (ii) and (iv)

8. Which of the following are exothermic process -
(i) reaction of water with quick lime
(ii) dilution of an acid
(iii) evaporation of water (iv) sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)

9. Which of the following changes represents a physical change ?
(A) Conversion of sulphur to sulphur dioxide
(B) Heating of a metal knife
(C) Combustion of methane
(D) Hydrolysis of an ester

10. Which of the following chemical equations is an unbalanced one ?
(A) 2NaHCO3 
 Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
(B) 2C4H10 + 12O2 
 8CO2 + 10H2O
(C) 2Al + 6H2O 
 2Al(OH)3 + 3H2
(D) 4NH3 + 5O2 
 4NO + 6H2O
11. Write balanced chemical equations for the following word equations –
(A) Reaction between hydrogen and chlorine to form hydrogen chloride.
(B) Magnesium burns in oxygen to give magnesium oxide.
(C) Reaction between iron and sulphur to produce iron (II) sulphide on heating.
(D) Burning of coal in air to produce carbon-di-oxide.

12. Balance the following equations-
(A) N2 + H2  NH3 (B) Zn + HCl  ZnCl2 + H2
(C) Na2O + H2O  NaOH (D) Fe + Cl2  FeCl3

13. Define:
(A) product (B) Catalyst (C) precipitate (D) reactant

14. What is a chemical equation? Why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation?

15. What are the conditions necessary for chemical reaction.
Extra Question
11. A balanced chemical equation is in accordance with -
(A) Avogadro's law (B) Dalton's atomic theory
(C) the law of conservation of mass (D) the law of constant proportion
12. The rate of reaction remains same when -
(A) temperature of reaction changes (B) catalyst is added to reaction mixture
(C) both A and B (D) None of these

13. Symbol  used while representing some chemical changes stands for -
(A) light (B) heat (C) catalyst (D) pressure

14. In the balanced equation Na2CO3 + xHCl  2NaCl + CO2 + H2O. The value of x is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

15. Who laid the foundation of language of chemistry -
(A) Mendal (B) Lavoisier (C) Asphalt (D) J.J. Berzelius
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. Which gas is produced when metals react with acids?
(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen (C) Hydrogen (D) CO2

2. Which metal is soft -
(A) Na (B) Cu (C) Al (D) Pb

3. Which metal is present in Haemoglobin?
(A) C (B) O (C) Fe (D) H

4. Which one of the following metals reacts vigorously with oxygen and water ?
(A) Sodium (B) Aluminium (C) Calcium (D) Magnesium

5. The solution of ash of magnesium ribbon is -
(A) Acid (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) All of these

6. Which metal is found in liquid state at room temperature ?
(A) Fe (B) Zn (C) Hg (D) Al

7. Which among the following is the poorest conductor of heat ?
(A) Silver (B) Gold (C) Copper (D) Lead

8. Iron is galvanized by coating it with –
(A) Nickel (B) Chromium (C) Manganese (D) Zinc

9. Most metals can be drawn into thin wires. This property is known as
(A) allotropy (B) conductivity (C) ductility (D) malleability

10. The metal oxides are –
(A) basic in nature (B) acidic in nature
(C) neutral in nature (D) efflorescent in nature

11. Write a reaction of action of acids on metals.

12. Why gold is preferred in making jewellery ?

13. Explain the following terms (i) malleability (ii) Ductility (iii) Sonorous (iv) Lustrous (v) Metalloids.

14. Metals are good conductor of electricity but the Non-metals are not why? Explain with reason.

15. Give reason :
(a) Why iron does not react with cold water while sodium react with cold water?
(b) Why gold and silver are used for making jewellery?
Extra Question
Q.11 Oxides of Non metals are ……………….. in nature –
(A) Basic (B) acidic (C) neutral (D) All of these

Q.12 Which non-metals catches fire if exposed to air?
(A) Sodium (B) Phosphorus (C) Calcium (D) Uranium

Q.13 Which of these elements is used as an antiseptic in medicine?
(A) Carbon (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) Iodine

Q.14 Which of the following is a non-metal?
(A) Tungsten (B) Mercury (C) Graphite (D) Platinum

Q.15 Read the given statement and mark the correct option.
Statement-1 : Non-metals do not react with water.
Statement-2 : Non-metals are malleable and ductile.
(A) Both statement 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statement 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. Air is a / an -
(A) mixture (B) element (C) pure substance (D) none of these

2. The ratio of nitrogen to oxygen in the air is -
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 3 : 1

3. The main constituent of air is -
(A) CO2 (B) nitrogen (C) oxygen (D) hydrogen

4. ............................. released in respiration.
(A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur (C) CO2 (D) Oxygen

5. Which is not a property of air ?
(A) It is a compound (B) It is a solution
(C) It is transparent (D) It occupies space

6. Air is present in -
(A) atmosphere (B) soil
(C) water of ponds, lakes and sees (D) everywhere

7. Which gas helps in burning ?
(A) Oxygen (B) CO2 (C) Nitrogen (D) CO

8. Which gas we use in breathing ?
(A) CO2 (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) None of these

9. What is wind ?
(A) Air around us (B) Rising hot air (C) Air in motion (D) None of these

10. ................................. supports combustion -
(A) CO2 (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) CO

11. State uses & physical properties of oxygen.

12. What is the importance of nitrogen for plants, animals & human beings.

13. How can we prevent air pollution?

14. Write a short note on laboratory preparation of oxygen.(any 2 method)

15. What do you mean by atmosphere ? Explain.
Extra Question
Q.11 Process of preparation of food by green plants -
(A) combustion (B) chlorophyll (C) respiration (D) photosynthesis

Q.12 Envelope of air that surrounds the earth is known as -
(A) Atmosphere (B) Environment (C) Biosphere (D) Ecosystem

Q.13 Thin layer of air surrounding our earth -
(A) oxygen (B) nitrogen (C) atmosphere (D) CO2

Q.14 ............................ air is used in tyres of vehicles.
(A) Compressed (B) Polluted (C) Non-compressed (D) None of these

Q.15 Nitrogen of the air is used on a large scale to manufacture -
(A) oxygen (B) fertilizers (C) soft drinks (D) none of these
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems

27 53 4
1. The value of (–1 ) × (–1) × (–1) is
(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) –1 or 1 (D) 2

2. The product of two integers is 12, if one integer is – 3 then the other one is :
(A) + 4 (B) – 4 (C) 3 (D) – 3

3. Identify the property used in the following : 2 × 13 + 8 × 13 = ( 2+8 ) × 13
(A) Commutative (B) Closure (C) Associative (D) Distributive
4. 
( 9)  4 6  8  4 . 
(A) –15 (B) –33 (C) 10 (D) 33
5. The place value of 3 in 9.453 is:
(A) tenth (B) hundredth (C) thousandth (D) thousand
1  4 1
6. The expression     is equivalent to
15  15 3 
1 1
(A) (B) 9 (C) (D) 5
9 5
7. Which one is correct?
(A) 0· 658 < 0.732 < 0 . 514 < 0 . 813 (B) 0· 514 < 0· 658 < 0 . 732 < 0 . 813
(C) 0·813 < 0 ·732 < 0·658 < 0 . 514 (D) 0· 514 < 0· 732 < 0 . 658 < 0 . 813
8. Solve :
1 3 7 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 10 10 6
1 2
9. By what number should 1 be divided to get ?
2 3
2 2 4 1
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) (D) 2
3 3 9 4
301 302 303 400
10. (–1) + (–1) + (–1) + … + (–1) =
(A) 1 (B) 101 (C) 100 (D) 0

 27   x
11. If 1   = 1   , then find x ?
 169   13 

12  12  12  .......  = x, then the value of x ?
12. If  
 

81  256  39
13. The value of =?
169 – 49 – 2
1 3 1
14. Three pieces of cakes of weights 4 Ibs, 6 Ibs and 7 Ibs respectively are to be divided into parts of
2 4 5
equal weights. Further, each must be as heavy as possible. If one such part is served to each guest,
then what is the maximum number of guests that could be entertained ?
15. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 9. If the difference between the two numbers is 18,
find the two numbers :
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. Ram’s father age is 2 times as old as Ram. If sum of there ages is 48. Find Ram’s age.
(A) 16 years (B) 17 years (D) 18 years (D) 19 years

2. Sum of three consecutive number is 45. Find the larger number.
(A) 12 (B) 16 (D) 15 (D) 14

3. Solve for x : 2(x + 1) + 3(x + 5) = 7(x + 2) + 4(x + 3)
3 –3 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3 3
x2 2
4. Solve for x : =
x–3 3
(A) – 11 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) – 12

2x – (2 x – 3)
5. Solve : = –1
3x – ( 4x  3)
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) 2

x x3
6. If   1 , then x is equal to -
4 6
(A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 4

7. If twice a certain number is diminished by five, the result is equal to twelve added to the number. Find
the number-
(A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 15 (D) 17
xb xb
8. Solve :  .
ab ab
(A) a (B) 2a (C) –a (D) –2a
9. Solve for x : 0.5x   0.25 x  7 .
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 21 (D) 82

10. The denominator of a fraction is greater than numerator by 6. If 3 is added to numerator and 2 is
subtracted from denominator, the fraction becomes , then the equation so formed is -
x4 6 x3 6
(A)  (B) 
x3 7 x4 7
x 3 6 x 2 6
(C)   (D)  
x6 2 7 x  6 3 7

11. Write a statement for each of the equations given below :
(i) 3x – 5 = 16 (ii) x – 12 = 24
(iii) 19 – 2x = 11 (iv)  7 (v) 6x = x + 5

12. Solve the given equations :
(i) 1 = y – 7 (ii) 7x – 6 = 1 (iii) a + 2 =5 (iv) y + 10 = 20
(v) x + 0.4 = 2.4 (vi) p + 0.6 = 1
13. Solve the following equations by the trial and error method :
x 1
(i) z – 2 = – 6 (ii) =9 (iii) 19 = 17 + x (iv) x – 8 = 11 (v) 3x + 4 = 5x – 4
8 3

14. Write each of the following statements as an equation:
(i) A number increased by 10 equals 26
(ii) The sum of three consecutive integers is 34.
(iii) After 16 years Manoj will be five times as old as he is now.
(iv) 40 decreased by a number is 15.
(v) A number is divided by 7. The quotient is added to 5 and the result is 15.

15. Give expressions for the following cases.
(a) Five times b added to 3 times c.
(b) The quotient of x and y, if x is divided by y, added to the product of x and y.
(c) The perimeter of a rectangle is twice the sum of its length and breadth.
(d) The distance covered is product of speed and time.
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. The average age of the three boys is 15 years. Their ages are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. The age of the
oldest is
(A) 7 years (B) 14 years (C) 20 years (D) 21 years

2. If x : y = 5 : 2, then (8x + 9y) : (8x + 2y) is:-
(A) 22 : 29 (B) 26 : 61 (C) 29 : 22 (D) 61 : 26

3. Which ratio is greater : (3 : 7) or (4 : 9)
(A) 3:7 (B) 4:9 (C) Both are equal (D) None of these

4. Reema types 540 word during half an hour. How many words would she type in 6 minutes?
(A) 1800 (B) 216 (C) 108 (D) 540

5. In a library 136 copies of certain book require a shelf – length of 13.6m. How many copies of the same
book would occupy a shelf – length of 5.1 m?
(A) 36 (B) 51 (C) 136 (D) 510

6. In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there are Rs. 30 in all, how
many 5 p coins are there ?
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 200

7. j 300 amounts to j 360 in 4 years at simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 1%, it would
amount to
(A) j 364 (B) j 368 (C) j 372 (D) j 384

8. The simple interest on a sum of money is of the principal and the rate percent is equal to number of
years. The rate percent is
(A) 3% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 6%

9. The simple interest on a certain sum for 8 months at 4% simple interest is j 129 less than the simple
interest on the same sum for 15 months at 5% per annum. Then the sum is
(A) j 3,400 (B) j 3,500 (C) j 3,600 (D) j 3, 700

10. If Meena gives an interest of j 45 for one year at 9% rate p.a., what is the sum she has borrowed ?
(A) j 550 (B) j 500 (C) j 450 (D) j 400

11. The speed 48 m/sec convert into km/hr ?

12. A, B and C can complete a work, working alone in 10, 15 and 20 days respectively. If all of them work
together to complete the work, what fraction of the work would have done by B?

13. If 20 men complete one-third of a piece of work in 20 days, how many more men should be employed
to finish the rest of the work in 25 days ?

14. Pradeep allows a cash discount of 20%. If he earns 40% profit on his own goods then by how much %
he should increase the price from his cost price ?

15. A dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price and uses an 880 gm weight instead of a kg. What is
his percentage of gain ?
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. The number of subsets of an empty set is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

2. Which of the following sets are disjoint ?
(A) The set of natural numbers and set of integers.
(B) The set of natural numbers divisible by 3 and set of natural numbers divisible by 7.
(C) The set of all multiples of 3 and set of all multiples of 5.
(D) The set of odd natural numbers and set of even natural numbers.

3. How many subsets can be formed from the set {p, q, r} is ?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

4. A = {1, 2, {3, 4}, {5}}. Which of the following is true?
(A) {3, 4}  A (B) 3  A (C) n(A) = 5 (D) {5}  A

5. If A = {, { }, 1, {1,  }, 2 } then which of the following is true ?
(A) { 1 }  A (B) 2  A
(C) { {2}, {1} }  A (D) {, { }, {1, } }  A

Directions : (6 to 7)
In a survey of 25 students, it was found that 15 had taken mathematics, 12 had taken physics and 11
had taken chemistry, 5 had taken mathematics and chemistry, 9 had taken mathematics and physics, 4
had taken physics and chemistry and 3 had taken all the three subjects.

6. Find the number of students that had taken only mathematics.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

7. Find the number of students that had taken physics and chemistry but not mathematics.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 10

8. The shaded region in the venn’s diagram given below represents :

(A) (A  B)  C (B) (A  B)  C (C) (A  B)  C (D) (A  B)  C

9. The shaded region in venn’s diagram given below represents :

(A) A – B (B) B – A (C) A’ – B (D) A – B’
10. The shaded region in venn’s diagram given below represents :

(A) A  B  C (B) A  B  C (C) A  B  C (D) None of these

11. If A be a finite set having n elements and P(A) is its power set, then total number of elements of P
(P(A)) is:

12. If A is a void set then n[P(P(P(A)))] ?

13. Given K = { B, A, N, T, I }. Then the number of subsets of K, that contain both A,N ?

14. In a group of 500 people, 200 can speak Hindi alone while only 125 can speak English alone. The
number of people who can speak both Hindi and English ?

15. If n(A) = 115, n(B) = 326, n(A – B) = 47 then n (A  B) ?
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. In the given figure, if AOB is a straight line, then the value of x is :
x + 15° x + 30°
(A) 90° (B) 45° (C) 22 (D) 150°

2. For what value of x will line l be parallel to line m ?

(A) 50º (B) 53º (C) 52º (D) 51º

3. In the given figure, AB || CD, ABO = 40° and CDO = 30°. If DOB = x°, then the value of x is :

(A) 35° (B) 110° (C) 70° (D) 140°

4. In the adjoining figure AB || CD and PQ, QR intersects AB and CD both at E, F and G, H respectively.
Given that m PEB = 80º, m QHD = 120º and m PQR = xº, find the value of x :

(A) 40º (B) 20º (C) 100º (D) 30º

5. A tree is broken at a height of 5 m from the ground and its top touches the ground at a distance of 12 m
from the base of the tree. Find original height of the tree
(A) 13 m (B) 18 m (C) 17 m (D) 19 m

6. In Fig., PQ = PR, RS = RQ and ST QR. If the exterior angle RPU is 140°, then the measure of angle
TSR is


(A) 55° (B) 40° (C) 50° (D) 45°
7. In Fig. 6.11, the value of A + B + C + D + E + F is



(A) 190° (B) 540° (C) 360° (D) 180°

8. One angle of a quadrilateral is 150° and the other three angles are equal. Find the measure of other
three angles :
(A) 70° (B) 75° (C) 85° (D) 90°

9. Two adjacent sides AB and BC of a parallelogram ABCD are in the ratio of 5:3. If the perimeter is 200
cm, then the lengths of AB and BC are :
(A) 25 cm, 50 cm. (B) 40 cm, 37.50 cm.
(C) 62.50 cm, 37.50 cm. (D) 60 cm, 62.50 cm.

10. A car jack is shaped like rhombus. The sides of car jack are 17 cm long. When the horizontal distance
between the vertices is 30 cm, the vertical distance between the other two vertices is :

(A) 8cm (B)16cm (C) 23cm (D) 30 cm

11. The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4, the angles are :

12. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD. If ADC = 2ABC, AD = a cm and CD = b cm, then the length
(in cm) of AB is :

13. Find the measure of an angle which is complement of itself.

14. Two supplementary angles differ by 34º. Find the angles.

15. In fig. AOC and BOC form a linear pair. Determine the value of x.
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. Find the volume of a cylinder of height 40 cm and having radius of the base 3.5 cm :
(A) 1540 cm 3 (B) 1545 cm 3 (C) 1550 cm3 (D) 1560 cm3

2. Find the volume of a cube whose total surface area is 486 cm 2 :
(A) 700 cm3 (B) 729 cm3 (C) 297 cm 3 (D) 800 cm 3

3. The figure shows a cuboid with a volume of 180 cm 3.
4 cm

9 cm

(p + 3) cm
What is the value of “p” ?
(A) 2 (B) 18 (C) 36 (D) 72

4. In the figure shown, two tangent semicircles with a radius equal to ‘x’ are inscribed in a square. What is
the area of the shaded region ?

(A) 4x 2 (B) x 2 (C) (2 – )x 2 (D) (4 – )x 2

5. The corners of an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm each are cut to form a regular hexagon. What is the
area of the hexagon?

12 12

(A) 24 3 sq. cm (B) 12 5 sq. cm (C) 15 3 sq. cm (D) 9 5 sq. cm

6. ABCD is a rectangle. E, F, G, H are the mid-points of the concerned sides. Area of rectangle ABCD :
area of rhombus EFGH is :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 4 : 3

7. The length of a square is increased by 25% and its breadth is decreased by 25%. The ratio of the area
of the square to that of the resulting rectangle is :
(A) 15 : 16 (B) 16 : 15 (C) 5 : 4 (D) 4 : 5

8. The length of a rectangular plot is 20 m more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot at the rate
of j 26.50 per m is j 5300, then what is the length of the plot?
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 60 cm (D) 80 cm

9. In the given figure, the area of triangle LMN is :

6 cm
O M 6 cm N
2 2 2 2
(A) 18 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 36 cm (D) 40 cm

10. A rectangle lawn 80 m × 60 m has two roads each with 10 m wide running in the middle of it, one
parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. The cost of gravelling them at 30 paise sq. m
is –


(A) Rs. 280 (B) Rs. 320 (C) Rs. 390 (D) Rs. 480

11. The area of a triangle is equal to that of a square whose each side measures 60 metres. Find the side
of triangle whose corresponding altitude is 90 metres.

12. The base of an isosceles triangle is 12 cm and its perimeter is 32 cm. Find its area.

13. In figure ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AB || DC, DC = 7cm, AB = 13 cm, CB = 10 cm and DA  AB.
Find the area of the quadrilateral.
D 7 cm C


14. A field ABCD is in the form of a trapezium in which AB II CD, AB = 83 m and CD = 40 m. A triangular
flower bed EBC is cut in such a way that the shape of the remaining field becomes a parallelogram. If
the area of the entire field 2337 m2, find the area of (a) flower bed (b) remaining field.

15. Find the area of the quadrilateral PQRS, whose diagonal QS = 19.5 cm and the offsets on it are 5.4 cm
and 10.6 cm.
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. If the arithmetic mean of 7, 5, 13, x and 9 be 10, then the value of x is :
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C)14 (D) 16

2. If the mean of five observation x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8 is 11, then the mean of first three
observations is :
(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) none

3. The mean of 100 observations is 50. If one of the observations which was 50 is replaced by 40, the
resulting mean will be :
(A) 50 (B) 49.90 (C) 70 (D) 40

4. Find the median of the following values :
37, 31, 42, 43, 46, 25, 39, 45, 32
(A) 39 (B) 43 (C) 42 (D) 32

5. Find the median of 18, 35, 10, 42, 21.
(A) 21 (B) 42 (C) 10 (D) 35

6. The ages of 10 persons ( in years ) are
34,24,28,31,30,26,27,25,29,30. The median age is
(A) 28 years (B) 29 years (C) 28.5 years (D) 32.5 years

7. The mode of the data 23, 26, 22, 29, 23, 29, 26, 29, 22, 23 is
(A) 23 and 29 (B) 23 only (C) 29 only (D) 26 only

8. The mode of the following data 6,5,6,7,8,5,6,7,7,6,7,5,8,8,7,7,6,9 is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

9. Out of 5 brands of chocolates in a shop, a boy has to purchase the brand which is most liked by
children. What measure of central tendency would be most appropriate if the data is provided to him?
(A) Mean (B) Mode (C) Median (D) Any of the three

10. The range of 3.5, 2, 4.5, 8.7, 1.9, 3.2, 1.9 is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 6.8 (D) 1.6

11. In a survey of 20 families, each family is found to have the following number of children :
1, 2, 2, 3, 2, 3, 3, 4, 1, 1, 4, 4, 2, 2, 3, 1, 5, 1, 1, 2
Make a frequency distribution table.

12. The marks obtained by 40 students of class VIII in an examination are given below :
18, 8, 12, 6, 8, 16, 12, 5, 23, 2, 16, 23, 2, 10, 12, 9, 7, 6, 5, 3, 5, 13, 21, 13, 15, 20, 24, 1, 7, 21, 16, 13,
18, 23, 7, 3, 18, 17, 16, 4.
Present the data in the form of a frequency distribution using the same class size, one such class being
15 –20 (where 20 is not included).

13. Given below are the marks (out of 100) obtained by 20 students of a class in mathematics in an annual
examination : 23, 75, 56, 42, 70, 84, 92, 51, 40, 63, 87, 58, 35, 80, 14, 63, 49, 72, 66, 61
Arrange the above data in an ascending order and find
(i) The lowest marks obtained
(ii) The highest marks obtained
(iii) The range of the given data
14. A family with monthly income of Rs. 40,000 had planned the following expenditure per month under
various heads :
Heads Expenditure (in Rs. 1000)
Grocery 8
Rent 8
Education of children 12
Medicine 4
Fuel 4
Entertainment 2
Miscellaneous 2

Draw bar graph for the data above.

15. The following table shows the colours preferred by a group of people :
Colours Blue Green Red Yellow
No. of
18 9 6 3

Represent the above data by a pie chart.
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems


1. The perpendicular distance of the point P(4, 5) from the y-axis is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

2. Image of point (–2, 5) is :
(A) (2, 5) under y-axis (B) (–2, –5) under x-axis
(C) (2, 5) under x-axis (D) both (A) & (B)

3. Abscissa of a point is positive in
(A) I and II quadrants (B) I and IV quadrants (C) I quadrant only (D) II quadrant only

4. Point (5, –3) lies in the
(A) first quadrant (B) second quadrant (C) third quadrant (D) fourth quadrant

5. Signs of the abscissa and ordinates of a point in the third quadrant are respectively :
(A) +, + (B) –, – (C) –, + (D) +, –

6. If (x, y) = (y, x), then :
(A) x – y = 0 (B) x + y = 0 (C) xy = 0 (D) 0
7. If y co-ordinate of a point is zero, then this point always lies :
(A) in I quadrant (B) in II quadrant (C) on x-axis (D) on y-axis

8. In the figure, O is the origin and OABC is a square of side 2 units. The co-ordinates of A, B and C
respectively are :

(A) (2, 0); (2, 2); (–2, 0) (B) (2, 0); (–2, 2); (0, 2)
(C) (2, 0); (0, 2); (–2, –2) (D) (2, 0); (2, 2); (0, 2)

9. If the perpendicular distance of a point P from the x-axis is 5 units and the foot of the perpendicular lies
on the negative direction of x-axis, then the point P has :
(A) x coordinate = – 5 (B) y coordinate = 5 only
(C) y coordinate = – 5 only (D) y coordinate = 5 or – 5

10. In the figure, the area of the ΔOAB is :

(A) 4 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 2 sq. units (D) none of these
11. Plot the point (3, 4) on a graph paper.

12. Write the quadrants for the following points.
(i) A(3,4) (ii) B(–2, 3) (iii) C(–5, –2) (iv) D(4, –3) (v) E(–5, –5)

13. Plot the following points on the graph paper and also specify the quadrants or co-ordinate axes in which
they lies:
(i) A(2, 5) (ii) B(–5, –7) (iii) C(3, –2) (iv) D(0, 5) (v) E(5, 0)

14. Find the images of the following points with respect to X-axis,
3 4  2 
(1, 2),  , ,   , 3  , (2, 5), (5, 0), (0, 7), (– 3, – 4)
8 3  3 

15. Find the images, of points (0, 0), (3, 0), (0, 2), (5, 1), (–2, 3), (–3, –3), (6, –7) with respect to Y-axis.