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# SCIENCE

DPPS

CLASS-VI (ICSE)

INDEX

PHYSICS - 01-04
CHEMISTRY - 05-11
BIOLOGY - 12-28

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VI (ICSE)

DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : MECHANICAL FORCE

1. Which is not an example of lever of first order ?
(A) Scissor (B) Sea-saw (C) Bottle opener (D) Pliers

2. Velocity ratio for a particular machine is a :
(A) Constant quantity (B) Variable quantity
(C) Either (A) or (B) (D) None of these

3. In an ideal machine there is no :

4. A beam balanced is an example of :
(A) inclined plane (B) lever of first type
(C) lever of second type (D) lever of third type

5. A first order lever always has ............ in the middle.
(A) fulcrum (B) effort force
(C) resistance force (D) mechanical advantage

6. A simple machine is to do :
(A) less work (B) more work
(C) work more conveniently with less effort (D) work less conveniently

7. The number of times a machine multiplies the effort force is its :

8. The lever for which the mechanical advantage is less than 1 has :
(A) fulcrum at mid point between load and effort.
(B) load between effort and fulcrum.
(C) effort between fulcrum and load.
(D) load and effort acting at the same point.

9. Which is an example of lever of first order?
(A) Scissor (B) Sea-saw (C) Pliers (D) All of these

10. Which is an example of lever of third order?
(A) Scissor (B) Sea-saw (C) Claw hammer (D) Sugar tongs

11. A force applied to a machine to do mechanical work is called :
(A) load (B) effort (C) output (D) efficiency

12. Mechanical advantage is equal to :
(A) (B)
(C) Load arm + Effort arm (D) Effort arm × Load arm

13. Define lever and its types with examples.

14. What is mechanical advantage ?

15. Define the input and output of machine?

DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : PRESSURE

1. The SI unit of pressure is :
(A) atmosphere (B) pascal
(C) cm of mercury (D) mm of mercury

2. Pressure is defined as :
(A) force (B) force × distance
(C) Normal force per unit area (D) force × area

3. Pressure cannot be measured in :
(A) Nm–2 (B) bar (C) Pa (D) Kg wt

4. Pascal is the unit of :
(A) force (B) pressure (C) distance (D) area

5. Sharper knives cut fruits easily because :
(A) the area of contact is more (B) the area of contact is less
(C) they shine more (D) none of these

6. Women's sandals hurt more than the men's sport shoes because :
(A) women are stronger in health
(B) sport shoes have small heel
(C) area of contact of sandal's heel is more
(D) area of contact of sandal's heel is lesser

7. A camel can walk/run in deserts very easily as compared to horse, donkey etc, because its :
(A) feet are smaller (B) weight is lesser
(C) feet are broader (D) body is heavier

8. The atmosphere exerts a pressure P on the surface of earth. Here P is equal to
(A) 1.01 × 105 Nm–2 (B) 1.01 × 10–5 Nm–2
7 –2
(C) 1.01 × 10 Nm (D) 1.01 × 10–7 Nm–2

9. If you increase the number of books in your school bag :
(A) pressure increases (B) pressure decreases
(C) pressure remains same (D) none of these

10. Explain why we prefer to use a sharper knife to cut vegetables and fruits.

11. Tractors have large tyres, bull dozers have caterpillar tracks and heavy buses and trucks have eight
rear wheels. Give one reason common to all these.

12. Define pressure. What is the SI unit of pressure ?

13. Explain why a school bag with a broader strip causes less pain than the bag with a narrow strip on the
shoulder

14. There is no atmosphere around many planets, then why there is atmosphere around earth?

15. How does the human body withstand atmospheric pressure?

DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : MAGNETISM

1. An example of magnetic material is
(A) wooden scale (B) plastic spoon (C) iron nail (D) a leather belt

2. A compass which is used to determine direction, uses
(A) directive property of magnetism (B) attractive property of magnetism
(C) attractive property of electrostatics (D) repulsive property of electrostatics

3. Repulsion test using a magnet helps to
(A) detect the presence of a magnet (B) identify magnetic materials
(C) to detect an iron needle (D) to detect a cobalt needle

4. To find the north pole of a bar magnet, we should
(A) bring an iron nail towards it (B) suspend it freely with the help of a thread
(C) rub it with the silk cloth (D) rub it with the woolen cloth

5. A magnet remains unaffected in the presence of
(A) an iron ball (B) a cobalt bar (C) a nickel jar (D) a glass strip

6. To convert an iron bar into a magnet, we need
(A) to hammer the iron bar a large number of times
(B) red colour to denote north pole
(C) a magnet
(D) to heat it to high temperature

7. The attractive power of a magnet is most pronounced
(A) at north pole of the magnet (B) at south pole of the magnet
(C) at the poles of the magnet (D) at the center of the magnet

8. An example of a natural magnet is
(A) a wooden piece (B) a horseshoe magnet
(C) a bar magnet (D) a piece of lodestone

9. A magnet may lose its properties, if it is
(A) immersed in liquid (B) heated to a high temperature
(C) broken into two pieces (D) hanged freely

10. The magnetic property of a magnet is retained, if it is
(A) hammered (B) thrown from some height
(C) kept in the magnetic keepers (D) heated to high temperature

11. Where in a magnet, the strength is maximum?

12. What happens when the north pole of a magnet is brought near to the north pole of a freely suspended
magnet?

13. What are the important uses of magnets?

14. In which direction does a freely suspended bar magnet come to rest?

15. Why are artificial magnets preferred to natural magnet?

DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : ENERGY

1. If the total work done on an object by a force is zero along a closed path then the force is :
(A) Conservative force (B) Non-conservative force
(C) Zero (D) Negative force

2. Kinetic energy of an object which does positive work always :
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) Can’t say

3. If positive work is done on an object, its kinetic energy :
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) Can’t say

4. If negative work is done on an object, its kinetic energy :
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) Can’t say

5. Which of the following forces are conservative :
(A) Gravitational force (B) Friction force (C) Viscous force (D) All of these

6. Work energy theorem is applicable for :
(A) Conservative forces (B) Non-conservative forces
(C) All forces (D) None of these

7. Work energy theorem states that change in K.E. of an object is equal to :
(A) Work done by all forces acting on it
(B) Work done by conservative forces acting on it
(C) Work done by non-conservative forces acting on it
(D) None of these

8. The work done by a force on a body will be positive if the :
(A) Body does not move
(B) Body moves perpendicular to the direction of motion
(C) Body moves along the direction of the applied force
(D) Body moves opposite to the direction of the applied force

9. Which among the following can be unit of work :
(A) dyne-cm (B) N – m (C) N – cm (D) All of these

10. A coolie with a suitcase on his head is climbing up on a ladder with uniform speed. The work done by
the coolie on the suitcase is :
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Undefined

11. Define work and give its S.I. and c.g.s unit

12. On what factors does the kinetic energy of a body depend ?

13. What is the difference between potential energy and kinetic energy ?

14. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, its velocity goes on decreasing. What happens to its potential
energy as its velocity becomes zero ?

15. What do you understand by the term "transformation of energy" ? Explain with an example.

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VI ICSE

DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : FUNDAMENTAL OF CHEMISTRY

1. An atom is represented by -
(A) formula (B) chemical equation (C) symbol (D) chemical reaction

2. Who laid the foundation of language of chemistry -
(A) Mendal (B) Lavoiser (C) Asphalt (D) J.J. Berzelius

3. The latin name of tin is -
(A) Plumbum (B) Stannum (C) Cuprum (D) Argentum

4. The formula of sodium sulphate -
(A) Na2CO3 (B) Na2SO4 (C) Na2O (D) NaNO3

5. Ozone is -
(A) Diatomic (B) Monoatomic (C) Triatomic (D) none of these

6. The valency of nitrogen in ammonia is -
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 2

7. The correct chemical formula of aluminum sulphate is -
(A) AlSO4 (B) Al(SO3)4 (C) Al3(SO4)4 (D) Al2(SO4)3

8. Identify the unbalanced chemical equation -
(A) 2Mg + O  MgO (B) 2H2 + O2  2H2O
(C) H2 + Cl2  2HCl (D) 2Mg + O2  2MgO

9. An element (A) is tetravalent electropositive and another element (B) is divalent electronegative. The
formula of the compound formed from these elements will be -
(A) A2B (B) AB (C) AB2 (D) A2B3

10. The symbols of gold is -
(A) Pb (B) Au (C) Al (D) Ag

11. What is a balanced chemical equation ? Explain with example.

12. Why is the valency of inert gases zero ?

13. What does a symbol represent ?

14. What is meant by compound radicals ? Give examples.

15. What do you mean by the valency of an element ?

DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : MATTER

1. Ice floats on the surface of water because -
(A) it is heavier than water. (B) the density of both water and ice is the same.
(C) ice is lighter than water (D) none of the above

2. Which of the following is not a matter?
(A) Water (B) Heat (C) Steel (D) Kerosene

3. The slowest process is -
(A) evaporation (B) vaporization (C) boiling (D) melting

4. The inter conversion involved in usage of "odonil" in wash room is ……………. .
(A) Sublimation (B) deposition (C) melting (D) freezing

5. The conclusion which can be drawn from the given figures is

(A) Liquids have one free surface
(B) Liquids take the shape of vessel
(C) Same amount of liquid have same level in different container
(D) both A and B

6. The magnitude of intermolecular forces of attraction are maximum in
(A) chalk powder (B) water (C) carbon dioxide (D) hydrogen

7. By increasing pressure, the ______ of gas decreases.
(A) weight (B) temperature (C) mass (D) volume

8. When molecules gain enough energy they
(A) move away from each other (B) come close to each other
(C) remain at the same position (D) none of these

9. Which of the following statement goes well with the liquid state ?
(A) particles are loosely packed in the liquid state.
(B) fluidity is maximum in the liquid state.
(C) liquids can be compressed easily.
(D) liquids take up the shape of any container in which these are placed.

10. Which state has lower density ?
(A) solid (B) liquid (C) gas (D) Either of these

11. Ravi wants to buy shirts for summer. Should he buy cotton shirts or shirts made from synthetic
material? Give suggestion to Ravi by giving proper logical explanation.

12. A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept. Give reason.

13. Why are liquids and gases called as fluids?

14. Differentiate between solid, liquid and gas.

15. Define interconversion of states of matter.

DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS & MIXTURES

1. ................. is a process to obtain a very pure form of a solid dissolved in a liquid.
(A) Centrifugation (B) threshing (C) distillation (D) Crystallization

2. Air is a
(A) Mixture (B) Element (C) Compound (D) Molecule

3. Separating cream from milk is done by
(A) Centrifugation (B) threshing (C) distillation (D) diffusion

4. iron and sulphur can be separated by
(A) Magnetic separation (B) threshing
(C) separating funnel (D) diffusion

5. Mixture is a :
(A) Pure substance (B) Impure substance (C) Both(A) & (B) (D) None

6. Coffee is a
(A) Mixture (B) Element (C) Compound (D) Molecule

7. Smallest particle of an element that take part in a chemical reaction is -
(A) Molecule (B) Matter (C) Atom (D) Symbol

8. ................. are made up of same kind of atoms.
(A) Element (B) Matter (C) Atom (D) Symbol

9. Sand from water is separated by
(A) Sieving (B) evaporation
(C) distillation (D) sedimentation & decantation

10. Which of the following is not a noble gas?
(A) Helium (B) Neon (C) Argon (D) Nitrogen

11. What do you mean by Pure substance? Give two examples.

12. Classify elements

13. Differentiate between:
(A) compound and mixture. (B) homogeneous & heterogeneous mixture

14. Classify elements

15. What do you mean by impure substance? Give two examples.

DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL CHANGES

1. A constant temperature at which solid start melting is called its -
(A) boiling point (B) freezing point (C) melting point (D) dew point

2. Which of the following is irreversible change? -
(A) Stretching of rubber (B) Blowing of balloon (C) Dough making (D) Burning of paper

3. The process in which an object becomes smaller is -
(A) expansion (B) contraction (C) freezing (D) all of the above

4. Rusting is a -
(A) slow process (B) fast process (C) very fast process (D) none of these

5. Deforestation is a -
(A) reversible change (B) irreversible change
(C) chemical change (D) none of these

6. Melting of wax is a -
(A) reversible change (B) physical change
(C) irreversible change (D) both A and B

7. Which of the following changes can be reversed ?
(A) Raw egg to boiled egg (B) Wet clothes to dry clothes
(C) Bud to flower (D) Cow dung to biogas

8. Which of the following changes cannot be reversed ?
(A) Milk to paneer (B) Cold milk to hot milk
(C) Yarn to knitted sweater (D) Wet clothes to dry clothes

9. Metal rim is fixed to the wooden cart wheel by -
(A) heating metal rim (B) heating wooden wheel
(C) cooling metal rim (D) cooling wooden wheel

10. Which one of the step while burning a candle is not reversible?
(A) Melting of solid wax (B) Liquid wax changes into vapours
(C) Wax vapour burn into flame (D) All of these

11. Give some examples from daily life where expansion of metal by heating is used and also explain it.

12. Most physical changes are reversible give reasons with two examples?

13. Write the various characteristics of
(a) physical change (b) chemical change

14. Explain why:
(i) Printing is an irreversible change.
(ii) Ironing of cloth is reversible change.
(iii) Melting of wax is a reversible change.

15. Differentiate between reversible and irreversible change?

DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : AIR AROUND US

1. Air is a / an -
(A) mixture (B) element (C) pure substance (D) none of these

2. The ratio of nitrogen to oxygen in the air is -
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 3 : 1

3. The main constituent of air is -
(A) CO2 (B) nitrogen (C) oxygen (D) hydrogen

4. ............................. released in respiration.
(A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur (C) CO2 (D) Oxygen

5. Which is not a property of air ?
(A) It is a compound (B) It is a mixture
(C) It is transparent (D) It occupies space

6. Air is present in -
(A) atmosphere (B) soil
(C) water of ponds, lakes and sees (D) everywhere

7. Which gas helps in burning ?
(A) O2 (B) CO2 (C) N2 (D) CO

8. Which gas we use in breathing ?
(A) CO2 (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) None of these

9. What is wind ?
(A) Air around us (B) Rising hot air (C) Air in motion (D) None of these

10. ................................does not supports combustion -
(A) CO2 (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) CO

11. State uses of oxygen.

12. How can we see dust particles present in the air ?

13. Can you rotate a firki in a closed room without ceiling fan ? Give reason.

14. Show that air constitutes about 20 % oxygen.

15. What do you mean by atmosphere ? Explain.

DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : WATER

1. The process of changing water vapour into water on cooling is known as
(A) Melting (B) Condensation (C) Evaporation (D) Freezing

2. The process of changing water into water vapour on cooling is known as
(A) Melting (B) Condensation (C) Evaporation (D) Freezing

3. If water contains sand as impurity, which of the following is the best method to purify the water?
(A) Chlorination (B) filtration (C) Boiling (D) None of these

4. Clouds are formed by the process of ________________
(A) Evaporation (B) Melting (C) Freezing (D) Condensation

5. The process in which water is poured out gently after sedimentation is known as ____________
(A) Chlorination (B) Decantation (C) Freezing (D) Condensation

6. ________________is the process of adding chlorine to kill harmful germs present in water
(A) Freezing (B) Decantation (C) Chlorination (D) Condensation

7. Water is added to the atmosphere by –
(A) Evaporation from ocean, seas, etc (B) Respiration by all living organisms
(C)Transpiration by plants (D) All of the above

8. The source of purest form of water on the earth is
(A) oceans and seas (B) spring and wells (C) rivers and lakes (D) rain

9. In a filtration plant water is filtered using layers of -
(A) sand and clay (B) clay and fine gravel
(C) sand and fine gravel (D) sand, fine gravel and medium gravel

10. Which of the following is not a source of waste water?
(A) Sewers (B) Homes (C) Industries (D) Hospitals

11. Explain the terms :
(a) Soft water (b) Hard water

12. Define solution.

13. Define 'water of crystallisation'. Give two examples with formulae.

14. Give reason : Table salt becomes moist during rainy season.

15. What are the main causes of water pollution? How can it be controlled?

DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : ROCK & SOIL

1. Molten magma that flows out onto the surface of the Earth is called
(A) lava (B) mineral (C) Limestone (D) magma

2. Rocks formed by the repeated deposition of rock particles that are worn away from mountains by wind
and water are called
(A) metamorphic rock (B) igneous rock
(C) sedimentary rock (D) magma

3. Each kind of rock is made of
(A) same minerals (B) different minerals (C) lava (D) magma

4. The molten lava cools and solidifies to form
(A) sedimentary rock (B) igneous rock (C) metamorphic rock (D) magma

5. Which among the following is not a cause of soil erossion ?
(A) Deforestation (B) Overgrazing (C) Ploughing (D) Afforestation

6. Soil erosion is _______________
(A) removal of topsoil by natural forces (B) soil formation
(C) weathering (D) soil pollution

7. _____________ does not hold water.
(A) Sand (B) Clay (C) Loam (D) None of these

8. Which among the following do not conserve soil ?
(A) Cover crops (B) Embankments (C) Terrace farming (D) Deforestation

9. Select the correct statement –
(A) Sand, silt and clay are soil particles of same soil
(B) Wind and running water can cause erosion of soil
(C) Soil is formed very quickly
(D) Soil do not contain any minerals

10. Type of soil in which cactus can grow is ____________
(A) sandy soil (B) clayey soil (C) loamy soil (D) red soil

11. What are minerals? Describe the various uses of minerals.

12. Name the different types of igneous rocks. Describe any two.

13. How are sedimentary rocks formed? Name the different types of sedimentary rocks. Describe anyone.

15. How does water cause soil erosion.

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VI (ICSE)

DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : NUTRITION IN ANIMALS

1. The process of breaking down of food into small pieces is
(A) respiration (B) digestion (C) circulation (D) reproduction

2. The steps of nutrition by which the organism generates energy during digestion
(A) absorption (B) excretion (C) assimilation (D) ingestion

3. Mode of nutrition in Amoeba is
(A) saprotrophic (B) holozoic (C) parasitic (D) symbiotic

4. Amoeba intake food by the structure called
(A) parapodia (B) legs (C) pseudopodia (D) suckers

5. Mouth is connected with oesophagous by a structure called
(A) food pipe (B) small intestine (C) stomach (D) pharynx

6. The major digesting substance of plant eater is
(A) chitin (B) glycogen (C) cellulose (D) glucose

7. The site of food absorption is
(A) stomach (B) small intestine (C) large Intestine (D) pharynx

8. The largest gland in our body is the
(A) liver (B) pancreas (C) thyroid (D) adrenal

9. The smallest blood vessel is
(A) capillary (B) arterioles (C) venules (D) portal vein

10. Four chambered heart is found in
(A) birds (B) crocodile (C) lizards (D) both (A) and (B)

11. How many chambers are present in a ruminant stomach?

12. Name the enzymes active in acidic medium.

13. How is the nutrition in amoeba different from human beings?

14. Describe the functions of the following:
(i) saliva (ii) oesophagus (iii) liver

15. Define the following terms :
(i) assimilation (ii) intracellular digestion
(iii) villi (iv) digestive system

DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : ANIMALS

1. Animals have moist and slimy skin, which helps in breathing are the adaptations of
(A) aquatic animals (B) aerial animals (C) amphibians animals (D) arboreal

2. Desert animals excrete
(A) dilute urine (B) concentrated urine
(C) urine with excreta (D) ammonia gas

3. Organisms that live on trees are called
(A) arial (B) arboreal (C) terrestrial (D) aquatic

4. Wool yielding animals bear thick coat of hair because
(A) the animals carry a lot of hair follicles on body only
(B) it protects them from the predators
(C) hair trap a lot of air, which is a poor conductor of heat
(D) the animals can sleep happily on the rough surfaces

5. How do desert animals adjust to very high temperature and lack of water in the area ?
(A) They shed their skin (B) They become active during day time
(C) They lose much water from their bodies (D) They use the stored water in their bodies

6. Which of the following adaptations enable a penguin to swim ?
(A) Flippers (B) Webbed feet
(C) Streamlined body shape (D) All of these

7. Elephants keep cool with the help of their
(A) tail (B) ears (C) teeth (D) trunk

8. Respiratory organs of amphibians are
(A) lungs (B) gills (C) skin (D) both (A) and (C)

9. What is the climate of a tropical rainforest region.
(A) warm and humid (B) hot and dry (C) cold and humid (D) extremely cold

10. The climatic condition is concerned with low temperature is the indication of
(A) summer (B) spring (C) winter (D) autumn

11. Name the elements that determine the weather of a place.

12. When are the maximum and minimum temperatures likely to occur during the day?

13. The tropical rainforest has a large population of animals. Explain why it is so?

14. Write a short note on migration.

15. Write characteristics of hydrophytes.

DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS

1. Bi-parental reproduction is
(A) asexual (B) binary fission (C) sexual (D) amitosis

2. Gametes are produce in
(A) asexual reproduction (B) regeneration
(C) sexual reproduction (D) fragmentation

3. Sexual reproduction includes
(A) meiosis (B) gamete formation
(C) mitosis (D) both (A) and (B)

4. Asexual reproduction is
(A) fragmentation (B) spore formation
(C) budding (D) all of these

5. Division type occur in asexual reproduction
(A) meiosis (B) direct division
(C) indirect division (D) mitosis

6. Binary fission shows by
(A) hydra (B) planaria
(C) amoeba (D) none of these

7. Variation occur in
(A) asexual Reproduction (B) sexual Reproduction
(C) amitosis (D) fragmentation

8. Planaria shows ..................... reproduction
(A) sexual (B) asexual
(C) parasexual (D) both (A) and (C)

9. Fusion of gametes out side the female body shows
(A) external fertilization (B) induced fertilization
(C) internal Fertilization (D) syngamy

10. In man, progeny produced by
(A) internal fertilization (B) external fertilization
(C) induced fertilization (D) syngamy

11. Define parthenogenesis.

12. What is internal fertilization ?

13. What function does vasa deferens perform in the body of an adult male?

14. What is an embryo ? Where does the development of a human embryo take place ?

15. Classify the following animals as Viviparous (VP) or Oviparous (OP) animals .
Force Viviparous (VP) or Oviparous (OP)
1. Human being ____________________
2. Crow ____________________
3. Fish ____________________
4. Elephant ____________________
5. Zebra ____________________

DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : ANIMALS

1. Haemophilia is a
(A) chronic disease (B) congenital disease (C) acute disease (D) deficiency disease

2. Goitre is caused due to deficiency of
(A) Vit. A (B) fluorine (C) iodine (D) vitamin

3. Sleeping sickness disease is caused by
(A) housefly (B) mosquito (C) sandfly (D) tsetse fly

4. Microbes that generally enter the body through nose are likely to affect
(A) gut (B) lungs (C) liver (D) lymph node

5. An animal that transmits a disease from infected person or its stools etc to other potential host is called
(A) primary host (B) secondary (C) parasite (D) vector

6. Cretinism in infants occurs due to
(A) hypersecretion of thyroid hormones (B) hyposecretion of thyroid hormones
(C) hyposecretion of insulin hormones (D) hyposecretion of aldosterone hormones

7. Which of the following disease require use of antibiotics ?
(A) Diptheria (B) Haemophilia (C) Goiter (D) Red-green blindness

8. Which of the following is not true about preventive measures of tuberculosis ?
(A) Good nourishment & sanitary surrounding (B) Isolation of T.B. patients
(C) Use of insect repellants (D) Immunization of BCG vaccine

9. Rabies is caused by
(A) rabies virus (B) clostridium (C) giardia (D) HIV

10. Which one of the following is not a viral disease?
(A) Dengue (B) AIDS (C) Typhoid (D) Influenza

11. Name the disease that occurs due to imbalance of insulin hormone.

12. Give symptoms, mode of transmission & control/preventive measures of one of the following diseases.
(i) Diarrhoea (ii) Hepatitis (iii) Malaria

13. Write an account about acute & chronic disease.

14. How is a cancerous cell different from a normal cell ?

15. How does an antigen binds to a specific antibody ?

DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : ANIMAL FORMS AND FUNCTIONS

1. An example of an animal with streamlined body is
(A) earthworm (B) snail
(C) fish (D) snake

2. The longest, largest and strongest bone in our body is the
(A) thigh bone (B) skull bone
(C) shoulder bone (D) arm bone

3. The incorrect statement with respect to skeletal system is
(A) it forms the framework of body (B) it helps to protect the delicate organs
(C) it helps in the movement of the body (D) it helps in digestion of food

4. An exception amongst the given is
(A) jointed legs (B) tail and fins
(C) muscular foot (D) skull

5. The number of pair of jointed legs present in the cockroach is
(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) four

6. The correct statement amongst the given is that
(A) the foot has three long bones and each toe has four small bones
(B) the animals with backbone are called invertebrates
(C) in correct position, we should not sit straight and erect
(D) shoulder joint is a ball and socket joint

7. Joint that allows movement only in one direction is
(A) pivotal joint (B) ball and socket joint
(C) gliding joint (D) hinge joint

8. Heart is protected because of
(A) rib cage (B) shoulder bone
(C) lungs and skull (D) backbone

9. Movement of arm at the elbow is due to
(A) ball and socket joint (B) pivotal joint
(C) fixed joint (D) hinge joint

10. The incorrect statement amongst the given is that the
(A) hinge joint is present in elbow
(B) movement of a body as a whole is called locomotion
(C) cartilage is harder than bones
(D) cockroaches have an external skeleton

11. What is a ball and socket joint ?

12. Give the function of skeleton.

13. What is a joint? Describe the two type of joint.

14. What is a muscle? How do muscles help in movement?

15. "All birds cannot fly even though they have wings". Do you agree with the statement?

DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : REACHING THE AGE OF ADOLESCENCE

(A) starts at 11 years of age & ends at the age of 18-19 years
(B) starts at 13 years of age & ends at the age of 16 years
(C) starts at 9 years of age & ends at the age of 18-19 years
(D) varies

2. Female produce
(A) two types of ova (B) only one ova
(C) one types of ova (D) none of these

3. Widening of voice during Adolescence is a feature of
(A) boys (B) old people
(C) girls (D) new ones

4. Endocrine glands release hormones in
(A) duct (B) bone marrow
(C) blood (D) organ's cavity

5. Fertilization is the fusion product of
(A) male gametes (B) female gametes
(C) male & female gametes (D) male and pollen cell

6. XX gametes are formed by
(A) female (B) zygote
(C) male (D) foetus

7. Gametes contain __________ number of chromosome
(A) double (B) half
(C) single (D) multiple

8. Balance diet include
(A) proteins in high amount (B) fats in lower amount
(C) carbohydrates in high amount (D) all the nutrients in adequate amount

9. Macro elements of our meal is
(A) carbohydrates (B) lipids
(C) proteins (D) vitamins

10. 'Master gland' of our body is
(C) thyroid gland (D) pituitary gland

11. Name the different steps involved in sexual reproduction & define them.

12. What causes boys and girls to develop different kinds of voices during adolescence?

13. What is the cause of dwarfism?

14. When do body changes occur in a boy and in a girl?

15. "Sweat and oil glands are ductless". Do you agree with this statement? Give reason for your answer.

DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : INTRODUCTION OF BIOLOGY

1. The micro-organism which always harm the living creature is
(A) Bacteria (B) Virus (C) Protozoa (D) Algae

2. The connecting link between plant and animal cell is
(A) mycoplasma (B) viruses (C) euglena (D) amoeba

3. The curdling of milk is induced by
(A) algae (B) plasmodium (C) bacteria (D) fungi

4. Malaria is caused by
(A) bacteria (B) algae (C) protozoa (D) fungi

5. Fermentation is the major function of
(A) yeast (B) lichen (C) mushroom (D) plasmodium

6. Which of the following is cause of Polio?
(A) Virus (B) Algae (C) Bacteria (D) Protozoa

7. Cake and bread are produced by
(A) algae (B) yeast (C) fungi (D) lichen

8. Lichen is the association of
(A) Algae - Bacteria (B) Yeast-Protozoa (C) Bacteria-Yeast (D) Algae-fungi

9. Viral disease is
(A) small Pox (B) mumps (C) chicken Pox (D) all of these

10. Kala Azar is a ……………..disease.
(A) viral (B) bacterial (C) protozoan (D) fungal

11. Define bacteriophage.

12. Name the structure present in bacteria which is analogous to mitochondria and write its function also.

13. Name the causal organism of
(i) tetanus (ii) cholera (iii) syphilis (iv) food poisoning

14. Differentiate in between communicable and non communicable disease.

15. Name the five groups into which microorganisms are divided. Which of these are only unicellular
organisms?

DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : INDRODUCTION OF BIOLOGY

1. Plant’s with hidden reproductive organs are included in
(A) gymnosperms (B) angiosperms (C) phanerogams (D) cryptogams

2. The basic unit of classification is
(A) family (B) genus (C) species (D) order

3. The 5 kingdom classification is based on
(A) complexity of cell structure (B) complexity of organisms body
(C) mode of nutrition (D) all of the above

4. Which of the following kingdom includes many kinds of unicellular eukaryotic organism?
(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Animalia

5. Which group of animals are called ‘flat worms’?
(A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Nematoda

6. Whale belong to the class
(A) pisces (B) amphibia (C) reptilia (D) mammalia

7. Which of the following is a true fish ?
(A) Jelly fish (B) Flying fish (C) Cuttle fish (D) Silver fish

8. Sweat & oil glands are present in the skin of
(A) amphibians (B) reptiles (C) aves (D) mammals

9. Which of the following have true body cavity ?
(A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Annelida (D) Platyhelminthes

10. Phylum Echinodermata includes
(A) butterfly, housefly, wasps & honeybees
(C) sand dollar, brittle star, feather star, sea cucumber
(D) sea house, rahu, climbing perch, lion fish

11. What is a taxonomic category ?

12. Write the two characters of "Kingdom Monera" with two examples.

13. What is meant by Haplo-diplontic condition ?

14. Explain why, the pisces and amphibians are poikilotherms ?

15. Make the chart of classification for plant kingdom into their divisions & for animal kingdom into their
phylum.

DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : OUR ENVIRONMENT

1. Which pollutant exhibits biomagnifications in food-chain ?
(A) DDT (B) SO2 (C) CO (D) PAN

2. Which of the following is main factor of water-pollution?
(A) Smoke (B) Industrial waste
(C) Detergent (D) Ammonia

3. Main air pollutant among the following is
(A) O2 (B) CO2 (C) N2 (D) Sulphur

4. Domestic wastes will lead to
(C) thermal pollution of soil (D) air pollution

5. The most harmful pollutants produced by automobiles is
(A) HNO2 (B) NO (C) SO2 (D) CO

6. Which is greatest air pollutant these days?
(A) Factories (B) Motor vehicles
(C) Domestic appliances (D) Animals

7. Non-ionising radiations damaging to DNA are
(A) X-rays (B) U.V. rays (C) Gamma rays (D) Beta rays

8. Acidic rains are due to
(A) O3 (B) SO2 + NO2 (C) CO (D) CO2

9. Percentage of land-mass in India under forest cover is
(A) 33 % (B) 23 % (C) 17 % (D) 19 %

10. Radiation is health hazard because it cause
(A) pneumonia (B) leukaemia (C) hemophilia (D) anaemia

11. What do you mean by fly ash ?

12. Write two main sources of water pollution.

13. What is ozone? How does it protect our environment?

14. What is the Greenhouse effect? How does it affect the atmosphere?

15. Explain different steps of purification of drinking water for city supply.

DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : OUR ENVIRONMENT

1. Soil consists of
(A) organic waste (B) decomposed material
(C) ions (D) all of these

2. C-horizon present at
(A) top position-profile (B) in each layer of soil-profile
(C) bottom position of soil profile (D) none of these

3. The removal of fertile layer from the earth crust is termed as
(A) soil transformation (B) soil implantation (C) soil erosion (D) soil culture

4. The possible reasons of soil-pollution are
(A) deforestation (B) industralisation
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) afforestation

5. The soil having good water holding capacity is
(A) loamy soil (B) clayley soil (C) sandy soil (D) all of these

6. The soil present in plateau area are
(A) red soil (B) yellow soil (C) black soil (D) brown soil
7. Bed-rock and pebbles are the characteristics of
(A) C-horizon and A-horizon (B) C-horizon and B-horizon
(C) D-horizon and C-horizon (D) A-horizon and B-horizon

8. The hot-spots of a land considers the following
(A) rainfall (B) temperature and pressure of that area
(C) biodiversity (D) both (A) and (B)

9. Soil pollution can be controlled by
(A) deforestation (B) over-grazing (C) industrialization (D) afforestation

10. The elements which are required for the fertility of soil
(A) P,K,Ca (B) N,P,K (C) Ca,Mg,K (D) H,P,K

11. What is Humus?

12. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of soil profile.

13. Why is the uppermost layer of soil dark in colour ?

14. Explain how soil pollution and soil erosion could be prevented.

15. List the differences between clayey soil and sandy soil.

DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : OUR ENVIRONMENT

1. A huge area covered with trees and surrounded by biodiversity is
(A) agriculture land (B) both (A) and (C)
(C) forest (D) none of these

2. The benefits of forest are
(A) O2 and CO2 balance (B) balance the ecosystem
(C) habitat of biodiversity (D) all of these

3. A linear arrangement of producers and consumers of eaten and being eaten is
(A) food-web (B) food-triangle (C) food-chain (D) none of these

4. The major cause of soil erosion is
(A) deforestation (B) floods (C) afforestation (D) plantation

5. The hot spots of India are
(A) eastern ghats (B) eastern himalayas (C) western ghats (D) both (B) and (C)

6. Rabbit, polar-bear, yaks gives commercialize product
(A) tusk (B) fur (C) bones (D) oil

7. The major cause of melting of glaciers is
(A) deforestation (B) extinction
(C) global warming (D) abundance of flora and fauna

8. The peculiar feature of plants of Artic region is
(A) needle shaped leaves (B) pointed branches
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these

9. The group of inter linked food chain
(A) ecosystem (B) food web (C) food circle (D) food pyramid

10. Commercial products obtained from the from the forest are
(A) paper (B) honey (C) medicine (D) all of these

11. Why is energy flow considered as unidirectional?

12. What happens when in a food-chain tertiary consumers are destroyed?

13. Write any four significances of forest.

14. List any three measures for the protection of wildlife.

15. "Nothing is waste in forests". Can you explain this statement?

DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : OUR ENVIRONMENT

1. Biodiversity of a region, means
(A) group of same species (B) group of mountains
(C) group of different species (D) group of different religion

2. Members of same species
(A) do not reproduce (B) do not reside together
(C) do reproduce (D) do not form colonies

3. 'Fauna' is
(A) group of microbes (B) group of animals
(C) group of flowers (D) group of animals & microbes

4. Abiotic components of ecosystem are
(A) animals (B) microbes (C) plants (D) mountains

5. Cutting down of forest an a large scale is
(A) reforestation (B) afforestation (C) deforestation (D) none of these

6. Species of animals and plants which are no more now, comes in the category of
(A) endangered (B) extinct (C) vulnerable (D) rare

7. Movement of animals and birds periodically is known as
(A) conversion (B) extinction
(C) migration (D) none of these

8. A Book which provide essential information about animals and plants which are endangered is?
(A) Green Data Book (B) Black Data Book
(C) IUCN (D) Red Data Book

9. Jim Corbett National park is situated in which state?
(C) Jharkhand (D) Uttarakhand

10. Flora includes
(A) only plants (B) both plants and animals
(C) only animals (D) plants, animals and microorganism

11. Name one extinct bird.

12. Which wild life sanctuary preserves Siberian crane?

13. Define Biodiversity.

14. What is the difference between endangered and extinct species ?

15. Explain various threat categories of animals.

DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : NUTRITION IN PLANTS

1. Photosynthesis utilize
(A) carbon dioxide and water (B) solar energy and water
(C) solar energy and chlorophyll (D) both (A) and (C)

2. Autotrophs produce their food by the activation of
(A) solar energy (B) water (C) chlorophyll (D) air

3. Major nutrients require for the growth of plants
(A) nitrogen (B) potassium (C) phosphorus (D) all of these

4. Photosynthesis can't be proceed in
(A) leaf (B) stem (C) root (D) node

5. Algae's mode of nutrition is
(A) heterotrophic (B) autotrophic (C) parasitic (D) holozoic

6. Fungi is considered as.............. in nature
(A) producer (B) holozoic (C) autotrophic (D) decomposer

7. The final production of product of photosynthesis occur in
(A) grana (B) stroma (C) thylakoid (D) cytoplasm

8. The inducer of photosynthesis is
(A) CO2 (B) H2O (C) sunlight (D) O2

9. Excess light
(A) increases photosynthesis (B) equilibrates photosynthesis
(C) decreases photosynthesis (D) no effect on photosynthesis

10. Products of photosynthesis are
(A) H2O (B) Glucose and sunlight
(C) Glucose (D) Glucose and O2

11. Name the components of food.

12. What is the mode of nutrition of plants?

13. Name the process by which plants prepare their own food.

14. What are stomata?

15. To destarch any plant, what should be done?

DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : REPRODUCTION IN PLANT

1. The ability to generate new ones of same kind is
(A) digestion (B) reproduction (C) respiration (D) excretion

2. Gametes are formed in
(A) binary fission (B) budding (C) grafting (D) sexual reproduction

3. Single parents reproduction is termed as
(A) sexual reproduction (B) both (A) and (C)
(C) asexual reproduction (D) none of these

4. Hydra reproduce through
(A) budding (B) fragmentation (C) regeneration (D) both (A) and (C)

5. Variation are generated in
(A) budding (B) sexual reproduction (C) fragmentation (D) grafting

6. Fungi's mode of reproduction is
(A) budding (B) grafting (C) spore formation (D) cutting

7. Vegetative Reproduction includes
(A) generation of new somatic cells (B) no variation generated
(C) simple reproducing process (D) all of these

8. Amoeba reproduces through
(A) budding (B) binary fission (C) spore formation (D) fragmentation

9. Bryophyllum reproduces through
(A) vegetative reproduction (B) spore formation
(C) budding (D) fragmentation

10. 'Stock' is associated with
(A) layering (B) cutting (C) grafting (D) vegetative propagation

11. What is budding ?

12. Explain the term grafting.

13. Give one example of each of the following
(i) plant which reproduces naturally by vegetative propagation of leaf.
(ii) plant which reproduces naturally by vegetative propagation of stem.

14. Write a note on germination of seed.

15. How is zygote formed in plants?

DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : FOOD (SOURCE AND COMPONENTS)

1. A malnourished child needs
(A) medicines (B) only milk
(C) balanced diet (D) rest

2. Condition of a fat person is called
(A) kwashiorkar (B) obesity
(C) anemia (D) scurvy

3. The plant whose fruit is used as a spice is
(A) turmeric (B) chilly
(C) cinnamon (D) ginger

4. Rat is
(A) carnivorous (B) herbivorous
(C) omnivorous (D) insectivorous

5. An animal that eats fruits of trees is
(A) cat (B) monkey
(C) eagle (D) snake

6. All of the given are milk product except
(A) cream (B) cheese
(C) chapatti (D) ghee

7. All of the given can feed on insects except
(A) crocodile (B) frog
(C) lizard (D) snake

8. Deficiency of which of the following may lead to scurvy?
(A) vitamin A (B) vitamin B
(C) vitamin C (D) vitamin D

9. Formation of haemoglobin requires which mineral?
(A) phosphorus (B) calcium
(C) iron (D) iodine

10. Which of the following is vitamin C?
(A) Follic acid (B) Nicotinic acid
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Citric acid

11. Why chapatti or rice should always be included in our diet?

12. Why plants are called as producers?

13. What is the function of proteins in our body? Name the protein present in blood.

14. Why food should not be overcooked?

15. Why vegetables should not be washed after cutting?

DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : PLANT FORMS AND FUNCTIONS

1. Plants having leaves with reticulate venation have
(A) fibrous roots (B) supporting roots
(C) tap root (D) adventitious roots

2. On a hot summer day, the leaves of a plant droop down because
(A) the plant becomes weak (B) excessive transpiration takes place
(C) excessive photosynthesis takes place (D) no transpiration occurs

3. Tomato plant has a green and tender stem, it is a
(A) herb (B) shrub (C) climber (D) tree

4. Plants with weak stems that climb on neighbour objects are
(A) herb (B) creeper (C) climber (D) shrub

5. Function of a root is
(A) preparing food (B) bearing leaves
(C) absorption of water and minerals (D) conduction of water

6. Conduction of water is the function of
(A) leaf (B) stem (C) root (D) flower

7. The thick vein in the middle of the leaf is
(A) midrib (B) middle rib (C) mid vein (D) veinlet

8. When the venation appears as a net-like design on both sides of the midrib it is called
(A) parallel venation (B) simple venation
(C) reticulate venation (D) random venation

9. When a polythene bag is tied around the leaf of a plant, the water droplets appear on it due to
(A) perspiration (B) transpiration
(C) evaporation (D) condensation

10. Transpiration occurs mainly through the
(A) roots (B) stem (C) bud (D) leaves

11. Define the following terms
(i) Nodes (ii) Internodes

12. Explain the structure of a leaf.

13. Explain the structure of a flower.

14. Do stem manufacture food for the plant? If yes, give examples.

15. How is dodder plant specialized for parasitism?

DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT

1. Kharif season crops are grown in
(A) Oct-Nov (B) Sept-Oct (C) June-July (D) Nov-Dec

2. Unwanted plants grow along with crops are termed as
(A) weeds (B) shrubs (C) herbs (D) none of these

3. Cultivation of fruits, vegetables and ornamental plants, is studied under
(A) agronomy (B) plant Tissue Culture (C) horticulture (D) seed culture

4. The sowing process includes
(A) sprinkle of water droplets (B) dispersion of fertilizer
(C) dispersion of seeds (D) all of these

5. Threshing means
(A) cutting of crops (B) separation of grain from crop
(C) separation of chaff (D) storage of crops

6. Components required for fertility of soil
(A) Na, Ca, K (B) K, Mg, Mn (C) N, P, K (D) N, Mg, Ca

7. Irrigation is done after
(A) manuring (B) threshing (C) weeding (D) storage

8. Wheat, Barley are the
(A) rabi crops (B) zaid crops (C) kharif crops (D) Both (A) & (B)

9. Which of the following implement used for digging soil?
(A)Sickle (B) Spade (C) Khurpa (D) Harrow

10. Which sowing method is used for paddy field
(A) seed-drills (B) broad Casting (C) transplantation (D) all of these

11. What do you mean by ploughing ?

12. What are kharif and rabi crops?

13. What is sowing?

14. Write the points that should be considered for selection of crops for rotation.

15. What are the modern methods of Irrigation? Explain.

MATHEMATICS
&
MENTAL ABILITY

DPPS

CLASS-VI (ICSE)

INDEX

MATHEMATICS - 01-10
MENTAL ABILITY - 11-27

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VI (ICSE)

DPP : 01
TOPIC : NUMBER SYSTEM
B 2
1. In the product shown, B is a digit. The value of B is 7 B
×
6396
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
2. 33 + 33 + 33 =
(A) 34 (B) 39 (C) 93 (D) 273

3. How much – 8 is less than - 3 ?
(A) 5 (B) – 5 (C) 11 (D) – 11
4. (– 27 ) × (–16) + (– 27) (–14) = ?
(A) – 810 (B) 810 (C) 1110 (D) –1110
5. Which one of the following represents the statement "3 times the sum of 2 and 4" ?
(A) 3 x 2 + 4 (B) 3 + (2 x 4) (C) 3 x 4 + 2 (D) 3 x (2 + 4)

6. The value of (–1 )27 × (–1)53 × (–1)4 is
(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) –1 or 1 (D) 2
7. The value of X in –19 × (4 + (–2)) = –19 × 4 +(–19) × X, is
(A) 2 (B) –19 (C) 4 (D) – 2

8. The value of 12 – [7 – {16 – (18 – 6  3 – 12 )}] is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
9. What will be the sign of the product if we together multiply 199 negative integer an 10 positive integers?
(A) Negative (B) Positive (C) Can't say (D) Data is insufficient
10. Which one is correct?
(A) All natural numbers are whole numbers, all whole numbers are integers
(B) All whole numbers are integers, all integers are natural numbers
(C) All integers are whole numbers, all natural numbers are integers
(D) All integers are whole numbers, all integers are natural numbers

11. The town newspaper is published every day. One copy has 12 pages. Everyday 12,000 copies are printed.
How many total pages are printed every day?

12. Find the difference between the greatest and the smallest number that can be written using the digits 6, 2, 8,
5, 4 each only once.

13. A taxi driver filled his car petrol tank with 40 litres of petrol on Monday. The next day, he filled the tank with 50
litres of petrol. If the petrol costs Rs. 45 per litre, how much did he spend in all on petrol?

14. Ali cycle for 16 days, riding 20 km each day. Sam cycles 20 days, riding 16 km each day. Who cycles a
further distance ?

15. Find the greatest length of a rod which can measure exactly 42 m , 49m and 84 m . Find also the number of
times the rod is contained in each length.

DPP : 02
TOPIC : ARITHMETIC
1. Find the value of x if
7 : 5 :: x : 25
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35

2. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 6: 5: 4, then the measure of each angle of a triangle will be
(A) 70°, 60° and 50° (B) 72°, 60° and 48° (C) 72°, 62° and 46° (D) 75°, 65° and 40°

3. If the second, third and fourth terms of a proportion are 6, 10 and 15 respectively, then its first term is
(A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5.
4. If 3 : 21 :: X : 35, then X equals to
(A) 8. (B) 7. (C) 5. (D) 4.
5. Fill in the blank: 15: 18 :: ... : 6
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 12
6. Find the ratio of 30 minutes to 45 minutes.
(A) 45:30 (B) 3:4 (C) 2:3 (D) 1:2

7. The simplest form of 2525 : 6500 is
(A) 260:101 (B) 13:5 (C) 5:13 (D) 101:260

8. If 7:30 :: a:150. Then the value of a is
(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 35 (D) 50
9. On Monday 55 mm of rainfall was recorded while on Tuesday 10 cm of rainfall was recorded. Find the ratio of both.
(A) 11:20 (B) 10: 11 (C) 55: 1 (D) 1: 55

10. Cost of a dozen rakhi is Rs. 36. What amount will Shikha have to pay if she wants to buy 7 rakhis?
(A) 21 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) none of above

11. Which ratio is greater, 5 : 13 or 15 : 42 ?

12. The total strength of a school is 1,120. The ratio of boys and girls in the school is 4 :3. Find the number of
boys and number of girls in the school.

13. Mr. Paramjeet gets Rs. 24,000 per month. He spends Rs. 20,000 and saves the rest. Find the following
ratio in the simplest form :
(a) His income to expenditure (b) His expenditure to savings
(c) His savings to income (d) His earnings to savings

14. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1 . Find the angles .

15. In an election between two candidates A and B, 30,000 votes polled . A won the election with the margin of
400 votes . Find the ratio of votes polled in favour of each candidates.

DPP : 03
TOPIC : ALGEBRA
 1 1
1. If  x – x  = 5, then the value x2 + is
  x2
(A) 23 (B) 27 (C) 25 (D) 29
4 7
2. The zero of the polynomial y– is
7 15

49 105 28 60
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60 28 105 49
3. The product of (a – b) (a + b) (a2+b2) is
(A) a2–b2 (B) a5–b3 (C) a4–b4 (D) a2 + b4

4. Which of the following is equivalent to the expression (4) (–x) (–y) ?
(A) 4xy (B) –4xy (C) (–4) (x) (y) (D) (–4) (–x) (–y)

5. On simplificaiton the value of (3x2+5x–7) (x–1) –(x2–2x+3) (x+4) is
(A) 2x3–7x–5 (B) x3–7x–5 (C) 2x3+7x+5 (D) x3+7x–5
6. Statements : p : x2–y3–3x3 is trinomial.
q : An algebraic expression containing three unlike terms is called a trinomial.
(A) Both p and q are true (B) p is true and q is false
(C) Both p and q are false (D) p is false and q is true
7. What is the missing term in the following product ?
(2a3 – 3) (5a3–2) = 10a6 + ........+ 6
(A) 19a3 (B) –19a3 (C) 16a3 (D) –16a3
8. The experession 4 (x –2) + 3 (x –1) is equal to
(A) 7x – 11 (B) 7x + 11 (C) 6x – 10 (D) 6x +10

9. The value of n3 + 5n2 + 5n – 2 when n = –2 is
(A) 16 (B) 0 (C) –40 (D) 10

10. Which expression is equal to 5 (2x + 1 – x – 4) ?
(A) 9x – 3 (B) 5x – 15 (C) 5x – 3 (D) 5x + 25

11. If cost of one pen is Rs. 10 and a pencil costs Rs. 2, find the total cost of x pens and y pencils.

12. A class with p students has planned a picnic. Rs. 50 per student is collected, out of which Rs. 1800 is paid
in advance for transport. How much money is left with them to spend on other items?

13. lf 2x = 8, find x.

14. Complete the following table. By inspection method, find the solution of the equation 2x – 9 = 5.
x 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
2x – 9

15. (i) John covers x centimetres in one step. How many centimetres does he cover in 9 steps?
(ii) Binny spends Rs. a daily and saves Rs. b per week. What is her income for two weeks?
(iii) One apple weighs 75 grams and one orange weighs 40 grams. Determine the weight of x apples and y
oranges.

DPP : 04
TOPIC : GEOMETRY

1. In the given figure, if AOB is a straight line, then the value of x is :

D
C
45°
x + 15° x + 30°
A O B
1
(A) 90° (B) 45° (C) 22 (D) 150°
2

2. How many degrees are there in an angle which equals one fifth of its supplement ?
(A) 15° (B) 30° (C) 75° (D) 150°

3. For what value of x will line l be parallel to line m ?

(A) 50º (B) 53º (C) 52º (D) 51º

4. In the given figure, AB || CD, ABO = 40°
and CDO = 30°.
If DOB = x°, then the value of x is :

A B
40°
O
x

30°
C D
(A) 35° (B) 110° (C) 70° (D) 140°

5. In the given figure, if EC || AB, ECD = 70° and BDO = 20°, then OBD is :

(A) 20° (B) 50° (C) 60° (D) 70°

6. In the given figure, AB || CD. The value of x is :

(A) 20º (B) 30º (C) 45º (D) 60º

7. As shown in figure, line AB || line PQ, mONQ = 110º, mMYO = 80º. Find mMOX :

M Y
A 80º B

P O 110º Q
X N

(A) 190º (B) 30º (C) 150º (D) 70º

8. In the figure AB || CD and line t1 || t2, find the measure of Z.

t1 t2
20º Z
A F
B
H
90º
C D
G

(A) 90º (B) 70º (C) 110º (D) 130º

9. The perimeter of rectangle whose length is 40 cm and a diagonal 41 cm -
(A) 96 cm (B) 98 cm (C) 92 cm (D) 90 cm

10. A tree is broken at a height of 5 m from the ground and its top touches the ground at a distance of 12 m from
the base of the tree. Find original height of the tree
(A) 13 m (B) 18 m (C) 17 m (D) 19 m

11. In the figure, m || n and p and q are transversal. Find the values of x and y.
p q

1 2 y
m 116°

x 87°
n

12. In figure, EF is a line through A and parallel to the side BC of triangle ABC. Find the value of x and use
that to find EAB and FAC.

E A F

2x

x x + 20º
B C

13. In figure,  || m and n is the transversal cutting  and m at P and Q respectively. If 1 = 3x and 2 = x,
find the value of x. n
1
P

2 m
Q

14. In figure, if  || m, find x.

450
1250
m
x

15. The supplement of an angle is one third of itself. Determine the angle and its supplement.

DPP : 05
TOPIC : MENSURATION

1. The perimeter of a regular hexagon with each side measuring 8 m is
(A) 48 m (B) 40 m. (C) 32 m. (D) 24 m.
2. The total cost of flooring a room at Rs 8.50 per square metre is Rs 510. If the length of the room is 8
50 60 70 25
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 8 5 4
3. 2
The area of rectangle is 225 cm . If its breadth is 25 cm, then its length will be
(A) 7 cm. (B) 9 cm. (C) 12 cm. (D) 13 cm.
4. The area of a rectangle is 650 cm2 and its breadth is 13cm. Its perimeter will be
(A) 50 cm. (B) 126 cm. (C) 540 cm. (D) 724 cm.
5. The perimeter of a rectangle whose length and breadth are 25 cm and 15 cm respectively is
(A) 120 cm. (B) 100 cm. (C) 80 cm. (D) 40 cm.
6. Find the perimeter of an isosceles triangle with equal sides 8 cm each and third side is 6cm.
(A) 25 cm (B) 18 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 22 cm
7. If the length of a rectangle is doubled and its breadth is tripled, then the area will increase by
(A) 8 times. (B) 6 times. (C) 4 times. (D) 2 times.

8. Pinky runs around a square field of side 75m, Bobby runs around a rectangular field with length 160m and
breadth 105m. How much more distance covered by Bobby?
(A) 150m (B) 225m (C) 230m (D) 270m

9. Find the area of square whose side is 5 cm.
(A) 25 cm2 (B) 10 cm2 (C) 15 cm2  (D) 20 cm2

10. The area of a rectangle with length 4 cm and breadth 2 cm is
(A) 6 square cm. (B) 8 square cm.
(C) 10 square cm. (D) 12 square cm.

11. Perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 50cm. If one of the two equal sides is 18cm, find the third side.

12. A rectangular piece of plot measures 0.5 km by 0.4 km. Each side is to be fenced with 4 rows of wires.
What is the length of wire needed? If the wire costs Rs. 11 per metre, what will be the cost of wire re-
quired for fencing?

13. Three squares are joined together as shown in Fig. Their sides are 4cm, 10cm and 3cm. Find the perim-
eter of the figure.

14. Find the perimeter of a rectangle whose length and breadth are 15.4cm and 11.6cm respectively.

15. Anand's garden is 70 m long and 50 m wide and is in the form of a rectangle. If he uses three layers of barbed
wire to fence the garden, what is the total length of the wire used ?

DPP : 06
TOPIC : DATA HANDLING

1. The following bar graph shows the number of tickets sold by five students A, B, C, D and E during a fair.
The average number of tickets sold by A, C, D and E is

(A) 30.2. (B) 31 . (C) 35.0. (D) 46.67.

2. The weight of 25 student of class X in kg given as below:
35 , 38 , 40 , 45 , 43 39 , 45.5 , 37, 46, 45, 36, 37, 46, 39, 38, 40, 41, 42, 42, 43, 38, 37, 36, 49, 50.
How many students have 50 or more than 50 weight?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

3. In the following bar graph, the number of people opting for French toast as their favourite breakfast food is

(A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 6. (D) 7.

4. The arithmetic mean of x and y is 40. If z = 30, then the sum of x, y and z is
(A) 70. (B) 100. (C) 110. (D) 120.

5. The arithmetic mean of the data 10, 20, 30, 40 is
(A) 20. (B) 25. (C) 100. (D) 125.

6. Pictograph represents the data in the form of
(A) numerical figures. (B) alphabets.
(C) symbols or pictures. (D) graphs.
7. Tally marks represent the number
(A) 2. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D) 10.

8. The following pictograph shows the number of varieties of apples stored in a supermarket. The variety having
minimum number of apples is

(A) Red Delicious. (B) Golden Delicious. (C) McIntosh. (D) Jonathan

9. The marks obtained by the students of class VI in a test are 88, 74, 86, 87 and 70, then the average of
marks is
(A) 81. (B) 83. (C) 84. (D) 85.
10. On the basis of given information answer the following question :
Final marks of 20 students are as follows:
53, 61, 48, 60, 78, 68, 55, 100, 67, 90, 75, 88, 77, 37, 84, 58, 60, 48, 62, 56
What is the lowest score?
(A) 37 (B) 100 (C) 62 (D) 48
11. The number of two wheelers owned individually by each of 50 families are listed below. Make a table using
tally marks.
1,1,2,1,1,1,2,1,2,1,0,1,1,2,3,1,2,1,1,2,1,2,3,1,0,2,1,0,2,1,2, 1,2,1,1,4.1,3,1, 1,2,1,1,1,1,2,3,2,1,1
Find the number of families having two or more, two wheelers.
12. The lengths in centimetres (to the nearest centimetre) of 30 carrots are given as follows:
15,22,21,20,22,15,15,20,20,15,20,18,20,22,21, 20,21, 18,21,18,20,18,21,18,22,20,15,21,18,20
Arrange the data given above in a table using tally marks and answer the following questions.
(a) What is the number of carrots which have length more than 20 cm?
(b) Which length of the carrots occur maximum number of times? Minimum number of times?

13. The following pictograph represents the number of cycles produced in a factory during 2004 – 2008. Read the
pictograph to answer the questions given below.

Number of Cycles :
Scale: 1 = 2000 cycles

2004–

2005–

2006–

2007–

2008–

(a) How many cycles were produced in 2007?

(b) How many cycles were produced in 2005?

(c) In which year was the production of cycles the largest ?

14. Draw the bar graph of the following data.
Pupils Weight(inkg)
Anil 35
Arun 29
Sudhir 38
Naresh 32
Pr em 22
Bobby 25

15. Draw the bar graph of the following data.

Players Runs Scored
Sachin Tendulkar 120
Saurav Ganguly 85
Rahul Dravid 60
Verender Sehwag 82
Yuvraj 47
Mohd. Kaif 58

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VI (ICSE)

DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES
Direction (1 to 15) find the missing term.
1. 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, ?
(A) 24 (B) 17 (C) 28 (D) 32

2. 11, 15, 21, 29, ?
(A) 38 (B) 35 (C) 37 (D) 39

3. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ?
(A) 25 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 17

4. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, ?
(A) 13 (B) 11 (C) 8 (D) 12

5. 16, 19, 22, 25, ?
(A) 27 (B) 28 (C) 29 (D) 25

6. 67, 62, 57, ? , 47
(A) 52 (B) 53 (C) 54 (D) 50

7. 4, 8, 16, ? , 64
(A) 30 (B) 33 (C) 32 (D) 35

8. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
(A) 35 (B) 49 (C) 36 (D) 64

9. 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, ?
(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 20

10. 1, 8, 27, 64, ?
(A) 125 (B) 127 (C) 130 (D) 132
Direction (16 to 20) find the missing term.

11. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96
(A) 4 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 96

12. 2, 5, 7, 11, 14
(A) 7 (B) 11 (C) 5 (D) 14

13. 3, 6, 10, 16, 21, 28
(A) 16 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 28

14. 2, 6, 11, 17, 23, 32, 41
(A) 6 (B) 17 (C) 23 (D) 32

15. 1, 9, 25, 50, 81
(A) 1 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 81

DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES

Direction (1 to 5) find the missing term.
1. V, T, R, ?, N, ?
(A) P, M (B) O, L (C) P, L (D) O, M

2. CG, DI, ?, IP, MU
(A) FM (B) EL (C) EM (D) FL

3. AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?
(A) SRQP (B) SRPQ (C) SQRP (D) RSQP

4. A, C, ?, G, I
(A) D (B) E (C) F (D) H

5. Q, N, K, ?, E
(A) H (B) I (C) J (D) G

Directions (6 to 10) Find the wrong term (s) :

6. DVG, FSI, HPK, JNM, LJO
(A) DVG (B) JNM (C) HPK (D) LJO

7. CDF, DEG, EFH, FHI
(A) CDF (B) DEG (C) FHI (D) EFH

8. ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS
(A) ZLA (B) BMY (C) FOU (D) CNW

9. ECA, JHF, OMK, TQP, YWU
(A) ECA (B) JHF (C) TQP (D) YWU

10. DKY, FJW, HIT, JHS, LGQ
(A) FJW (B) LGQ (C) JHJ (D) HIT

Directions (11 to 15) Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will complete the given
letter series ?
11. – bca – ca – c – b –
(A) aabbc (B) abbbc (C) aabcc (D) abbac

12. a – abb – aa – ba – a – b
(A) ababa (B) aabba (C) aabab (D) aaabb

13. abc – d – bc – d – b – cda
(A) bacdc (B) cdabc (C) dacab (D) dccbd

14. –aabb–abba–b
(A) b a b (B) a b a (C) b b a (D) b a a

15. a–baa–baa –ba
(A) a a b (B) b a b (C) b b a (D) b b b

DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES

Direction (1 to 15) find the missing term.

1.

(A) 64 (B) 36 (C) 34 (D) 60

5 26 4 6 ? 3 8 29 3
2.
6 4 5
(A) 32 (B) 22 (C) 18 (D) 27

5 6 4
3. 12 6 21 7 ? 8
4 5 10
(A) 14 (B) 22 (C) 32 (D) 320

4.

(A) 38 (B) 64 (C) 4 (D) 16
4 8 5

5. 6 14 6 14 6 ?
8 8 4
10 18 14 22 11 15
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 14

6.

(A) 33 (B) 145 (C) 135 (D) 18

7.

(A) 125 (B) 25 (C) 625 (D) 156

5 4 3 8 9 4
8. 20 9 24 11 ? 13
(A) 117 (B) 36 (C) 32 (D) 26

25 49
9. 121 ?

(A) 64 (B) 81 (C) 100 (D) 125

6 2 3
1 5 2 0 5 3
131 248 ?
10.
2 4 4 8 7 1
3 6 9
(A) 262 (B) 274 (C) 320 (D) 132

3 5 5

11. 6 10 2 9 30 3 6 ? 5
4 5 2

(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 40

12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 34

12.
30 44 ?

(A) 48 (B) 9 (C) 44 (D) 64

11 9 15 7 25 21
13.
40 176 ?
(A) 184 (B) 210 (C) 241 (D) 425

4 7 3 2
14.
416 749 309 ?
(A) 304 (B) 104 (C) 204 (D) 404

15.

(A) 120 (B) 100 (C) 125 (D) 64

DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST

1. How many independent words can 'Stainless' be divided into without changing the order of the letters and
using each letter only once ?
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

2. In a telephone directory, which of the following names will appear in the middle ?
(A) Sajewat (B) Segvan (C) Sajevar (D) Sajewet

3. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct
sequence.
1. Select 2. Seldom 3. Send 4. Selfish 5. Seller
(A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 (B) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 (C) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 (D) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

4. If the following words are arranged as found in the dictionary, then what will be the fourth letter from the left in
the last word ?
INTIMATION, INFORMATION, INTEREST, INTERROGATION, INSTIGATION
(A) R (B) O (C) T (D) I

5. Arrange the given words in the order they occur in dictionary.
1. SIGN 2. SOLID
3. SCENE 4. SIMPLE
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2 (C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

6. Which letter is midway between 22nd letter from the left and 21st letter from the right ?
(A) L (B) M (C) O (D) None of these

7. If the positions of the first and sixth letters of the word ‘BENEFICIAL’ are interchanged; similarly the positions
of the second and seventh letters are interchanged and so on, which letter will be third from the right end after
rearrangement ?
(A) C (B) E (C) F (D) N

8. If the first and the fifth letters in the word ‘ORDINARY’ are interchanged, the second and the sixth, the third
and the seventh and so on what will be the fifth letter from the right end after rearrangement ?
(A) R (B)  (C) Y (D) N

9. If the first and second letters of the word ‘INORDINATE’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letter,
the fifth and sixth and so on, which letter would be eighth counting from right to left ?
(A) A (B) D (C) N (D) R

10. Which letter will be the midway between the fourteenth letter from the left end and nineteenth letter from the
right end of the following alphabet?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(A) I (B) K (C) M (D) G

11. Arrange the following group such that when arranged in a specific order, meaningful word is formed.
V A H Y E
1 2 3 4 5
(A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (B) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 (C) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 (D) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

12. Find which one word can not be made from the letters of the given word.
CORRESPONDING
(A) DROPERS (B) SUPERIOR (C) GRINDER (D) DISCERN

13. Choose the one word which can be formed from the letters of the given word.
RATIONALISATION
(A) NATIONALISTIC (B) NATIONALIST (C) SITUATION (D) REALISATION

14. If the following scrambled letters are rearranged to form the name of a city, the city so formed is famous for
its :
WILGARO
(A) Locks (B) Steel Plant (C) Temples (D) Pottery

15. If the following scrambled letters are rearranged to form the name of a city, which letter will appear in the
middle?
AIDMURA
(A) M (B) R (C) U (D) D

DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : CODING-DECODING

1. In a code BOY is written as \$ and HOUR is written as @£O than RUBY is written in the indicating
language as –
(A) O£\$ (B) O\$£ (C) \$£O (D) £\$O

2. In a code BOXER word is written as AQWGQ then VISIT is written as –
(A) UKRKU (B) UKRKS (C) WKRKU (D) WKRKS

3. In a certain code DELHI is written as 29874 CULCUTTA is written as 35835661 then the word CALICUT will
be coded as :
(A) 3185463 (B) 3184635 (C) 3184563 (D) 3184356

4. If watch is called room, room is called bag, bag is called rain, rain is called air and air is called water,
Which is used to carry the books.?
(A) room (B) bag (C) rain (D) air

5. If in any code language, KUMAR is coded on LVNBS, How is EMOTIONAL coded in that language
(A) FNQUJQBM (B) FNPUJPOBM (C) GNPUJPOBM (D) GNQUJQOBM

6. In a code A is denoted by B, B by C, C by D, and so on till V then FRACTIONS is denoted in the same code
by–
(A) GSBDUJPOT (B) GSBDVJPOT (C) GSBDUJPQT (D) GSBDUJOPT

7. In a certain code CONSTITUTION is written as SNOCUTITNOIT. How is DISTRIBUTION written in that
code?
(A) DISTRTUBTINO (B) TSIDUBIRNOIT (C) TSIDUIBRNOIT (D) DTTSRIBTINO

8. If MERCHANT is NDSBIZOS, then CANCER is
(A) BZMBDQ (B) BBMBDQ (C) DBODFS (D) DZOBFQ

9. If RADIO is written PYBGM then how would OQDKNG be written in that code ?
(A) MOBIEL (B) MOBLIE (C) MOIBLE (D) MOBILE

10. In a certain code language TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN written in that code ?
(A) EJKNFGTO (B) EJKNEGTP (C) EJKNFHTP (D) EJKNFTGP

11. If the code for ALLOWANCE is ZMKPVBMDD the word DEARNESS would be coded as
(A) CFBAODTR (B) EDZQMFRT (C) CDZTMFTR (D) CFZSMFRT

12. If BOOK is coded as 43, what will be the code number for PEN ?
(A) 53 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 43

13. In a certain code, RIPPLE is written as 613382 and LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that
code ?
(A) 318826 (B) 318816 (C) 618826 (D) 338816

14. If for Cloud is said Rain for Rain is said Tree; for Tree is said Axe for Axe is said House and for House is
said Mason then from which of the following wood can be obtained ?
(A) Tree (B) Rain (C) Axe (D) House

15. If air is called green, green is called blue, blue is called sky, sky is called yellow, yellow is called water
and water is called pink then what is the colour of clean sky ?
(A) pink (B) sky (C) blue (D) yellow

DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST

1. Mohan travels 7 km Eastwards, then he turns right and travels 3 km and further turns right again and travels
11 km. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 5 (B) 14 (C) 21 (D) 23

2. Amar travels one km due East ; then 5 km due south, then 2 km due East and finally 9 km due North. How
far is from the starting point ?
(A) 16 kms. (B) 8 kms. (C) 6 kms. (D) 5 kms.

3. Kishen walks 10 km towards North. Form there, he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards
East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point ?
(A) 5 km, North (B) 5 km, North-East (C) 7 km, East (D) 7 km, West

4. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then I turn left and walk
10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 60 m. In which direction am I from the
starting point?
(A) North (B) North-west (C) East (D) North-east

5. Anil left home and cycled 10 km Southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km & turned right and cycled 10 km
and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres will he have to cycle to reach his home straight ?
(A) 10 km (B) 15 km (C) 20 km (D) 25 km

6. Amit faces towards North.Turning to his right he walks 25 metres. He then turns to his left and walks 30
metres. Next, he moves 25 metres to his right. He then turns to his right again and walks 55 metres. Finally,
he turns to the right and moves 40 metres. In which direction is he now from his starting point ?
(A) South-West (B) South (C) North-West (D) South-East

7. From his house, Rajan went 25 kms to the North. Then he turned West and covered 20 kms.Then he turned
South and covered 15 Kms. Finally, turning to East, he covered 20 kms. In which direction was he from his
house ?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

8. A man walks 9 km due East and then 12 km due South. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 15 kms. (B) 6 kms. (C) 7 kms. (D) none of these

9. Amit walks 2 km South, turned right and walked 1 km, again turned north and walked 5 km; turned East and
walked 5 km. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 3 kms. (B) 7 kms. (C) 5 kms. (D) 6 kms.

10. A man was facing East. He took Three paces forward, turned right, walked another two paces and then
turned right again, took three paces and turned about. Which direction was he last facing ?
(A) East (B) North (C) South (D) None of these

11. If I stand on my head with my face pointing Northwards, in what direction will my right-hand point ?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

12. Kumar stands with his face pointing to the South-East direction. He walked 15 metres and then turned
Northwards and walked another 12 metres. How far was he then from the starting point ?
(A) 12 metres (B) 10 metres (C) 9 metres (D) 5 metres

13. A man walked 3 metres towards North, turned West and walked 2 metres then turned North and walked 1
metre and finally turned East and walked 5 metres. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 5 m (B) 8 m (C) 10 m (D) 12 m

14.  went 15 m to the North, then turned West and covered 10 m, then turned South, and covered 5 m then
turned East and covered 10 m. In which direction am  now from my house ?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West

15. 'A' travelled Westwards 5 km, turned left and travelled 3 km, turned right and travelled 9 km. He then travelled
North 3 km. How far was 'A' from the starting point now ?
(A) 3 kms (B) 5 kms (C) 10 kms (D) 14 kms

DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT & RANKING AND ORDERING TEST

1. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is in the exactly middle while standing in a line ?
(i) Q is to the immediate right of T. (ii) S is exactly between P and T.
(iii) Q is exactly between T and R.
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) T

Directions : (2 to 4) Study the given information and answer the question that following.
Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a Professor and the
other is a Businessman. An Advocate is standing to the right of a student. A Author is to the immediate left
of the Businessman. The Student is between the Professor and the Advocate.

2. If Advocate and the Businessman exchange their positions, also the Author and the Student, then who will be
standing to the left of the student ?

3. Counting from the left the Author is at whichplace ?
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth

4. Which of the following is in the exactly middle of the queue ?

5. Five persons were playing cards game sitting in a circle all facing the centre. Mukund was to the immediate
left of Rajesh, Vijay was to the right of Anil and between Anil and Nagesh. Who was to the immediate right
of Nagesh ?
(A) Vijay (B) Rajesh (C) Anil (D) Mukund

(i) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre.
(ii) E is to the immediate left of D.
(iii) C is exactly between A and B.
(iv) F is between E and A.

6. Which of the above given statements is superfluous ?
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) All are required.

7. Who is to the immediate left of B ?
(A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E

8. Who is to the immediate right of C ?
(A) A (B) B (C) D (D) E

9. In the following number series how many 8’s are there which are exactly divisible by the numbers which are
preceded and followed by it ?
824517284842282698454832843183
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

10. How many 5's are there in the following sequence which are immediately followed by 3 but not immediately
preceded by 7 ?
89 53253855687 33 57753653357 38
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four

11. How many W's are there in the following series which are immediately followed by W but not immediately
preceded by K ?
DW W DHKVDW ZDW W W DDW KW W DK KDHC
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) None
12. How many L’s are there which do not have R preceding them and have T following them ?
Z Q S T LR M N Q N R T U V X R LTA S LT Q R S LT
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5

Directions : (13 to 15) Study the following arrangement of symbols, letters and numbers to answer the questions
given below it : = F 2  K S 7 5 # \$ P L V 8 @ M U E 6 Q G  9 3 & T Y 

13. How many such letters are there in the arrangement each of which is either immediately preceded by a
symbol or immediately followed by a number, but not both ?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) None of these

14. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a
consonant but not immediately preceded by a symbol ?
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

15. A is shorter than B but much taller than E. C is the tallest and D is shorter than A and taller than E. Which
one is the shortest ?
(A) A (B) E (C) B (D) D

DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS

1. f 'A' means '+', 'B' means '–' , 'C' means 'x', then what will be the value of ( 10C 4) A (4C4) B6=?
(A) 60 (B) 56 (C) 50 (D) 46

2. f 'x' means '÷' , '–' means 'x', '÷' means ' +' and '+' means '–' then what will be the value of
(3 – 15 ÷ 19 ) × 8 + 6 = ?
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) –1

Directions : (3 to 4) Solve the questions if the symbols are as given below :
x=–
+= 
 =×
–=+
= 
3. 8  2+2–7=?
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 19

4. 9 + 33 – 8 2 = ?
(A) 27 (B) 17 (C) 13 (D) 26

5. If ‘+’ means ‘  ’ ; ‘–’ means ‘x’ ; ‘x’ means ‘–’, ‘  ’means ‘+’ then –
16  8 – 4 + 2 × 4 = ?
(A) 16 (B) 44 (C) 28 (D) 32

6. If  means +, – means  ,× means – and + means ×, then
 32  8  8  2
=?
4  18  8  9  1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 12 (D) None of these

7. If ‘P’ means ‘+’ ; ‘R’ means ‘x’ ; ‘S’ means ‘–’ ; T‘ means ‘  ’ then what is the value of
5 R 9 P 7 S 9 T 3 P 6=?
(A) 54 (B) 128 (C) 59 (D) 55

8. If a means ‘plus’, b means ‘minus’, c means ‘multiplied by’ and d means ‘divided by’ then
16c 12 b 6d 2a 17 = ?
(A) 65 (B) 55 (C) 216 (D) 206

9. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘ ×’ means ‘—’, ‘  ’ means ‘+’ and ‘—’ means ‘  ’, then
175 – 25  5 + 20 × 3 + 10 = ?
(A) 160 (B) 77 (C) 2370 (D) 240

10. If + is x,– is +, x is  and  is –, then what is the value of given equation
21 ÷ 8 + 2 – 12 × 3 = ?
(A) 14 (B) 9 (C) 13.5 (D) 11

11. If – means + means ×, ÷ means –,× means +, then which of the following equations is correct?
(A) 52  4 + 5 × 8 – 2 = 36 (B) 43 × 7  5 + 4 – 8 = 25
(C) 36 × 4 – 12 + 5  3= 420 (D) 36 – 12 × 6  3 + 3= 60

12. If + means ×, × means –, – means ÷ and ÷ means + then 18 ÷ 4 + 3 × 2 – 2 = ?
(A) 45 (B) 48 (C) 29 (D) 39

Directions : (13 to 15) Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. If ‘\$’ represents ‘+’,
‘,’ represents ‘–’, ‘#’ represents ‘×’ and ‘@’ represents ‘/’ then answer the following questions based
on the above given representation.
13. What is the value of 4 # 3 \$ 10 @ 5 \$ 8 # 2 , 18 ?
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 6.8 (D) 11.2

14. Which of the following has the value equivalent of 5 \$ 6 # 2 \$ 8 @ 4 ?
(A) 4 # 7 , 12 \$ 2 # 1 (B) 8 # 2 , 3 \$ 6 @ 3 (C) 8 @ 2 , 3 \$ 6 # 3 (D) 4 \$ 7 , 12 \$ 2 # 1

15. Which of the given values is greater than 7 \$ 3 , 2 \$ 12 @ 4 ?
(A) 4 # 3 \$ 6 @ 3 , 4 (B) 5 # 2 , 8 @ 4 \$ 3 # 3 , 7
(C) 6 # 3 , 18 @ 2 \$ 1 # 2 (D) 9 @ 3 \$ 6 # 2 , 2 # 1

DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION
Direction : (1 to 4) In the following questions, choose the words that show the same relationship as given
in the each questions.
1. Captain is related to Soldier in the same way as Leader is related to
(A) Follower (B) Party (C) Vote (D) Chair

2. ‘Dog’ is related to ‘Puppy’ in the same way as ‘Donkey’ is related to
(A) Foal (B) Colt (C) Calf (D) Filly
3. Bank is related to 'Money' in the same way as 'Transport' is related
(A) Goods (B) Road (C) Terrace (D) Floor
4. 'Good' is related to 'Bad' in the same way as 'Roof' is related to:
(A) Wall (B) Pillar (C) Terrace (D) Floor
5. India Gate : Delhi : : _______ : _______
(A) Chicago : USA (B) Albany : New York (C) Agra : Taj Mahal (D) Chandigarh : Rock Garden
6. PUNJAB : AMRITSAR : : _____ : ______
(A) Golden Temple : Amritsar (B) Moscow : Russia
(C) India : Asia (D) Agra : Taj Mahal

7. 7584 : 4251 : : 4673 : ?
(A)1367 (B) 1340 (C)1531 (D) None of these

8. 1236 : 6321 : : 8251 : ?
(A) 1358 (B) 1628 (C) 1528 (D) 8152

Directions : (9 to 15) In the following questions, three out of the four alternatives are same in a certain
way and so form a group. Find the odd one that does not belong to the group.
9. (A) Huge (B) Tiny (C) Heavy (D) Small

10. (A) Silk (B) Cotton (C) Nylon (D) Wool

11. (A) Triangle (B) Tangent (C) Square (D) Rhombus

12. (A) Wool (B) Nylon (C) Jute (D) Cotton

13. (A) July (B) May (C) June (D) March

14. (A) Gold (B) Silver (C) Bronze (D) Zinc

15. (A) Society (B) Family (C) Church (D) Club

DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : FIGURE PARTITION, MIRROR AND WATER IMAGES & MISCELLANEOUS

1. How many squares are there in the following figure ?

(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 15

2. Count the number of triangles and squares in the following figure ?

(A) 28 triangles, 10 squares (B) 28 triangles, 8 squares
(C) 32 triangles, 10 squares (D) 32 triangles, 8 squares

3. What is the number of straight lines in the following figure ?

(A) 11 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 17

4. What is the number of rectangles in the following figure ?

(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

5. Count the number of squares in the following figure ?

(A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 30 (D) 55

Directions : (6 to 7) In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image from alternatives A,
B, C, and D of the figure (X).

6.
(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7.
(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (8 to 10) In each of the following question, a figure marked (X) is followed by four figures (A), (B),
(C) and (D) which show the possible water images of figure (X). Choose one out of these four figures
which shows the correct water image of the figure (X).

8.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

9.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (11 to 12) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative figure in which the
question figure (X) is embedded.

11.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

12.
(A) (C) (D)
(X) (B)

Directions : Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would
complete the pattern.

13. ?
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

14.
?
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

?
15.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VI (ICSE)

DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A D B A C C C D D
Que. 11 12
Ans. B B

DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans. B C D B B D C A A

DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A A B D C C D B C

DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A A B A A B C B C

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VI (ICSE)

DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D B B C A D A D B

DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B A A A A D A D C

DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D A A A B A C A D D

DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D B A B D B A A C

DPP 5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B C A D A B A C

DPP 6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C B A B C D D D A

DPP 7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C B B D A A D B A

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VI (ICSE)

DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C B C D C B A A D

DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D D C D D B D A C

DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C C D D D C B B A A

DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C D B D B A C A C

DPP 5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A D D C D D A D C

DPP 6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C A C C A B D A D

DPP 7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C C C A A B D D C

DPP 8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C D B C B C D C C

DPP 9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B A C B B B B B

DPP 10
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C C C C C C C D B

DPP 11
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D C A D B C C B D

DPP 12
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C C B D C B C D D A

DPP 13
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C D C B D B C C D

DPP 14
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D C D B C D B A C

DPP 15
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B C C B C A C C C

DPP 16
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B A C C D A C B D

DPP 17
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A C D B C A A C C

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VI (ICSE)

DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D A A B D B D D A A

DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D B C C C C D C A A

DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A C A A A B A B B

DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D A C B B C C B B

DPP 5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B B C D B C A B

DPP 6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D B C B C C C A A

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VI (ICSE)

DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES

1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. C 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. C
15. C
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C
8. D 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. C 13. C 14. D
15. D

DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. C
8. B 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. C
15. C

DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST

1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. C
15. C

DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : CODING-DECODING

1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B
8. D 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. C
15. B
DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A
15. D

DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT & RANKING AND ORDERING TEST

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. C
8. A 9. D 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. B
15. B
DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS

1. C 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D
8. D 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C
15. D

DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. B
8. C 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. C
15. C
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : FIGURE PARTITION, MIRROR AND WATER IMAGES & MISCELLANEOUS

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C
8. C 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C
15. D