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# SCIENCE

DPPS

CLASS-VII (ICSE)

INDEX

PHYSICS - 01-06
CHEMISTRY - 07-21
BIOLOGY - 22-30

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VII (ICSE)

DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : MOTION

Q.1 Basic standard unit of time is a
(A) second (B) hour (C) minute (D) milli-second

Q.2 One centimeter is equal to
(A) 10 km. (B) 0.00001km. (C) 0.01 km. (D) 0.001km.

Q.3 Simple pendulum exhibits
(A) periodic motion (B) circular motion
(C) non-uniform motion (D) Rotatory motion

Q.4 The to and fro motion of an object, which moves along the same path is called
(A) rotatory motion (B) vibratory motion (C) circular motion (D) oscillatory motion

Q.5 The blades of a moving fan exhibit
(A) vibratory motion (B) rotatory motion (C) oscillatory motion (D) rectilinear motion

Q.6 The volume of cube of side 25 cm will be:
(A) 15625cm3 (B) 625cm3 (C) 225cm3 (D) 25cm3

Q.7 Foot, stride, fathom are the units of :
(A) Time (B) Length (C) Mass (D) Weight

Q.8 1dam is equal to
(A) 10m (B)1000 cm (C) Both (A)and (B) (D) None of these

Q.9 Length of curved line is measured by using:
(A) Scale (B) String (C) Ruler (D) Can`t be measured

3 3
Q.10 How many cm are equal to ------------- m
(A) 1/1000000 (B) 1/10000 (C) 1/1000 (D) 1/100

Q.11 Give two examples of periodic motion.

Q.12 While measuring the length of a pencil, the reading of the scale at one end is 3.0 cm and at the other
end is 50.1 cm. What is the length of the pencil?

Q.13 What is unit?

Q.14 The height of a person is 1.69 m. Express it into cm and mm.

Q.15 Classify the following into different types of motion:
(a) The motion of a man on a straight land road.
(b) The motion of wheel of a car.
(c) The motion of a falling stone.

DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : ELECTRICITY

1 Electroplating is an application of :
(A) Heating effect of current (B) Chemical effect of current
(C) Magnetic effect of current (D) None of these

2 An electromagnet
(A) is a kind of a fuse
(B) is a compass needle
(C) is a miniature circuit breaker
(D) behaves like a magnet on passing an electric current

3 The wires used for making electric fuses
(A) melt quickly (B) are very thick
(C) are made up of plastic (D) are responsible for short circuiting

4 The filament of an electric bulb glows on passage of current
(A) due to the heating effect of an electric current
(B) because filament is very thin
(C) because a chemical reaction takes place inside the bulb
(D) due to the magnetic effect of an electric current

5 Certain cranes can lift heavy iron loads easily as they have
(A) an electromagnet. (B) an electric cell. (C) electric bulbs. (D) electrical switches.

6 Length of the heater coil is increased. When current passes, the amount of heat
(A) will decrease. (B) will increase. (C) remains same. (D) converts into fire.

7 When an electric current passes through a wire, it becomes
(A) weak. (B) a switch. (C) hot. (D) cold.

8 Miniature circuit breakers (MCBs)
(A) behaves like a magnet.
(B) automatically switch off when an electric current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit.
(C) do not help in maintaining safety.
(D) have wire of very low melting point .

9 Mention one important use of insulators

10 Mention two uses of electromagnets

11 Can a copper wire be used as a fuse wire ?

12 Which material is commonly used to make elements of heating appliances ? Why ?

13 What is the role of the following in an electrical circuit :
electric fuse, key, cell, conducting wire

DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : HEAT

1 A difference of temperature of 25ºC is equivalent to a difference of :
(A) 72º F (B) 45ºF (C) 25º F (D) 32ºF

2 When steam condenses into water its :
(A) temperature remains the same (B) heat dissipates
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) temperature decreases

3 Boiling point of water is :
(A) 100 ºC (B) 273 K (C) 373 K (D) Both (A) & (C)

4 Range of clinical thermometer is
(A) –10ºC to 110ºC. (B) 42ºC to 110ºC. (C) 35ºC to 42ºC (D) 0ºC to 35ºC

5 One joule is equal to
(A) 103 ergs. (B) 105 ergs. (C) 109 ergs. (D) 107 ergs.

6 Copper tubing is used in automobile radiators as copper is a

7 In vacuum, heat can be transferred through
(A) conduction & convection only. (B) conduction only.
(C) radiation only. (D) convection only.

8 1 Joule is equal to
(A) 9.8 m/ s2. (B) 100,000 erg. (C) 1,000,000 erg. (D) 10,000,000 erg.

9 Energy produced by burning one gram of fuel is called its
(A) calorific value. (B) maximum energy. (C) activation energy. (D) threshold energy.

10 We wear light coloured clothes in summers because they are
(A) good absorber of heat. (B) good reflector of heat.
(C) poor reflector of heat. (D) poor radiator of heat.

11 Define temperature ?

12 Define conduction

13 Define good conductor and bad conductor

14 Name the three temperature scales Write the relationship between them
C F – 32 K – 273
The relationship between them is 100  180  100

15 Which two conditions must be satisfied for heat transfer by conduction

DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : LIGHT

1 A thin plane mirror :
(A) refracts light (B) reflects light (C) transmits light (D) none of these

2 The angle of reflection is the angle between :
(A) the reflected ray and surface of mirror
(B) the incident ray and the surface of mirror
(C) the normal to the surface of a mirror and incident ray
(D) the normal to the surface of mirror and reflected ray

3 Middle point of plane mirror is :
(A) point of incidence (B) pole (C) centre of curvature (D) none

4 If angle of incidence is 30o, then glance angle of reflection is :
o o o o
(A) 60 (B) 90 (C) 30 (D) 120

5 Light travels faster in :
(A) vacuum (B) air (C) glass (D) diamond

6 The mirror used by a dental surgeon is :
(A) Plane (B) Convex (C) concave (D) none

7 Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained by a
convex lens ?
(A) At the focus (B) At infinity
(C) At twice the focal length (D) Between optical centre and focus

8 If image formed is always diminished and between F and O, then lens is :
(A) Concave (B) Convex (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

9 Which of the following diagrams correctly represent the path of a ray of light through a concave lens ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10 In the side mirror of a car, the size of the images of all the objects appear to be
(A) same as that of the size of the objects. (B) smaller than the objects.
(C) larger than the objects. (D) of point size.

11 Define dispersion of light

12 Gives the use of :
(i) Concave mirror (ii) Convex mirror (iii) Plane mirror

13 Define lateral inversion

14 What is meant by a ray of light ?

15 What are the characteristics of the image formed by a concave lens?

DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : SOUND

1 Distance of crest from mean position is called :
(A) Amplitude (B) Frequency (C) Displacement (D) Wavelength

2 Which of the following properties of wave, the one that is independent of the others is its :
(A) Velocity (B) Amplitude (C) Wavelength (D) Frequency

3 When a sound wave goes from air into water, the quantity that remains unchanged is its :
(A) Velocity (B) Amplitude (C) Frequency (D) Wavelength

4 The frequency of sound waves in water is :
(A) Same as that of frequency of source
(B) Less than frequency of source
(C) More than frequency of source
(D) Can’t say

5 What is the velocity of sound in water at room temperature :
(A) 1500 m/s (B) 330 m/s (C) 1500 km/s (D) 330 km/s

6 The unit of quantity on which pitch of the sound depends is :
(A) Hertz (B) metre (C) metre/second (D) second

7 The unit of quantity on which loudness of sound depends is :
(A) metre (B) Hertz (C) metre/second (D) second

8 A periodic wave is characterized by :
(A) Phase only (B) Wavelength only (C) Frequency only (D) All the above

9 The speed of sound is maximum in :
(A) Air (B) Hydrogen (C) Water (D) Iron

10 When sound waves travelling in air enter into the medium of water, the quantity which remains
unchanged is :
(A) Wavelength (B) Velocity (C) Frequency (D) None

11 Define amplitude of a wave.

12 Define frequency of a wave.

13 Define wavelength of a wave.

14 Define time period of a wave.

15 What is the effect of temperature on speed of sound? Discuss.

DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : FLOATATION & RELATIVE DENSITY

1 Pressure is a :
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Normal force (D) None of these

2 The S.I. unit of pressure is :
–2 2
(A) N-m (B) Pascal (C) dyne-cm (D) Both (A) and (B)

3 Pressure exerted by a liquid column :
(A) Is independs of its density (B) Is independent of the acceleration due to gravity
(C) Decreases with depth (D) None of these

4 Thrust is a :
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Tangential force (D) None of these

5 Which among the following is a unit of pressure?
(A) Atmosphere (B) Torr (C) cm of hg (D) All of these

6 The S.I. unit of thrust is :
(A) N (B) dyne (C) Pa (D) kg-wt

7 Pressure can be calculated as :
Force Tangential Force Normal Force
(A) (B) (C) (D) All of these
Area Area Area

8 Nitu immerses a solid into a liquid. She finds that the weight of a body is exactly equal to the weight of
the liquid displaced by it. The body will
(A) sink in the liquid.
(B) float on the surface of the liquid.
(C) go to the bottom and come back to the surface again.
(D) remain suspended in middle of the liquid.

9 Rohit puts two identical blocks in two different containers. There is pure water in one container and
salty water in the other. He observes that in salty water, the block sinks
(A) more than in pure water. (B) less than in pure water.
(C) same as in pure water. (D) first very quickly, then slowly.

10 Among the given liquids, the liquid having highest density is
(A) alcohol (B) mercury (C) water (D) kerosene

11 Do the liquids exert pressure?

12 Why does a sharp knife cuts objects more easily than a blunt knife ?

13 Explain, why a ship sinks to a great depth in river water than in sea water ?

14 Explain briefly why a balloon filled with helium gas rises in air ?

15 What are the laws of floatation in a liquid ? Give some illustrations

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VII ICSE

DPP : 01
TOPIC : MATTER AND ITS COMPOSITION

1. The conclusion which can be drawn from the given figures is

(A) Liquids have one free surface
(B) Liquids take the shape of vessel
(C) Same amount of liquid have same level in different container
(D) both A and B
2. The magnitude of intermolecular forces of attraction are maximum in
(A) chalk powder (B) water (C) carbon dioxide (D) hydrogen
3. By increasing pressure, the ______ of gas decreases.
(A) weight (B) temperature (C) mass (D) volume
4. When molecules gain enough energy they
(A) move away from each other (B) come close to each other
(C) remain at the same position (D) none of these
5. Which of the following statement goes well with the liquid state ?
(A) particles are loosely packed in the liquid state.
(B) fluidity is maximum in the liquid state.
(C) liquids can be compressed easily.
(D) liquids take up the shape of any container in which these are placed.
6. Which state has lower density ?
(A) solid (B) liquid (C) gas (D) Either of these
7. Which condition out of the following will increase the vapor pressure of ether ?
(A) Increase in temperature of ether (B) Decrease in temperature of ether
(C) Decrease in exposed surface area of ether (D) None of these
8. Which of the following are rigid forms of matter ?
(A) only solids (B) only liquids (C) solids and liquids (D) liquids and gases
9. The decreasing order of kinetic energy of particles is
(A) solid > liquid > gas (B) gas > liquid > solid (C) liquid > solid > gas (D) gas > solid > liquid
10. In which of the following conditions, the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas would
increase ?
(i) Increasing pressure on hydrogen contained in a closed container.
(ii) Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container.
(iii) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas.
(iv) Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing the volume of the container.
(A) i and iii (B) i and iv (C) ii and iii (D) ii and iv
11. Ravi wants to buy shirts for summer. Should he buy cotton shirts or shirts made from synthetic
material? Give suggestion to Ravi by giving proper logical explanation.
12. A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept. Give reason.
13. Why are liquids and gases called as fluids?
14. Differentiate between solid, liquid and gas.
15. Define interconversion of states of matter.

Extra Question
1. Ice floats on the surface of water because -
(A) it is heavier than water. (B) the density of both water and ice is the same.
(C) ice is lighter than water (D) none of the above

2. Which of the following is not a matter?
(A) Water (B) Heat (C) Steel (D) Kerosene

3. The slowest process is -
(A) evaporation (B) vaporization (C) boiling (D) melting

4. The inter conversion involved in usage of "odonil" in wash room is ……………. .
(A) Sublimation (B) deposition (C) melting (D) freezing

5. Which of these choices will not change the state of matter?
(A) Temperature (B) Crushing a crystal (C) Pressure (D) Electricity

DPP : 02
TOPIC : PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES
1. Which of the following changes can be reversed?
(A) Raw egg to boiled egg (B) Wet clothes to dry clothes
(C) Bud to flower (D) Cow dung to biogas

2. Which one of the following is undesirable change?
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Floods (C) Digestion of food (D) All of the above

3. Which one of the step while burning a candle is not reversible?
(A) Melting of solid wax (B) Liquid wax changes into vapours
(C) Wax vapour burn into flame (D) All of these

4. A constant temperature at which solid start melting is called its -
(A) boiling point (B) freezing point (C) melting point (D) dew point

5. Which of the following changes cannot be reversed?
(A) Milk to paneer (B) Cold milk to hot milk
(C) Yarn to knitted sweater (D) Wet clothes to dry clothes

6. During all changes physical or chemical changes, mass is
(A) gained (B) conserved (C) loss (D) none of these

7. Melting of wax is a................. change while burning of candle is .................. change.
(A) irreversible, reversible (B) reversible, irreversible
(C) physical, reversible (D) chemical, irreversible

8. Bursting of cracker is a –
(A) Slow change (B) Fast change (C) Periodic change (D) none of these

9. Which of the following changes include formation of new substances?
(A) Melting (B) Sublimation (C) Evaporation (D) Rusting

10. A change in which one or new substances are formed is called -
(A) chemical change (B) physical change (C) melting (D) all of the above

11. What are the main characteristics of chemical change?

12. Define
(i) Condensation (ii) Humidity (iii) Dissolving (iv) Melting point

13. Differentiate between reversible and irreversible change.

14. What are the conditions that affect evaporation?

15. What are the main characteristics of physical change?

Extra Questions
1. Earthquakes is an example of –
(A) periodic change (B) non-periodic change
(C) both periodic & non-periodic change (D) none of these

2. Favorable conditions for a chemical reaction may be-
(i) When the reactants come in close contact.
(ii) When the reactants are heated.
(iii) When the reactants are exposed to light.
(iv) When the reactants are subjected to pressure.
(v) When a catalyst is used the same chemical reaction takes place at a faster rate
(A) i, ii and iii (B) ii, iii and iv (C) ii, iv and v (D) all five options

3. Change of day and night is an example of –
(A) periodic change (B) non-periodic change
(C) both periodic & non-periodic change (D) none of these

4. Slice of apple are kept for sometime acquire a brown color.
This change is mainly due to -
(A) physical change (B) chemical change (C) crystallization (D) none of these

5. Glowing of a bulb is a
(A) physical change (B) chemical change (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these

DPP : 03
TOPIC : ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS & MIXTURES

1. The process of separation of grain from husk and hay with help of wind is called
(A) Hand-picking (B) Winnowing (C) Threshing (D) None of these

2 Smallest particle of an element that take part in a chemical reaction is -
(A) Molecule (B) Matter (C) Atom (D) Symbol

3. ................. are made up of same kind of atoms.
(A) Element (B) Matter (C) Atom (D) Symbol

4. Mixture is a :
(A) Pure substance (B) Impure substance (C) Both(A) & (B) (D) None

5. Coffee is a
(A) Mixture (B) Element (C) Compound (D) Molecule

6. Sugar from water is separated by
(A) Sieving (B) evaporation
(C) distillation (D) sedimentation & decantation

7. Separating cream from milk is done by
(A) Centrifugation (B) threshing (C) distillation (D) diffusion

8. iron and sulphur can be separated by
(A) Magnetic separation (B) threshing
(C) separating funnel (D) diffusion

9. Separating the mixture of milk and cooking oil is done through-
(A) centrifugation (B) separating funnel (C) distillation (D) chromatography

10. Drugs from blood is tested by
(A) centrifugation (B) separating funnel (C) distillation (D) chromatography

11. What do you mean by pure and impure substance? Give two examples.

12. Define
(i) Miscible liquids (ii) Sedimentation (iii) Centrifugation (iv) Chromatography

13. Differentiate between:
(A) compound and mixture.
(B) homogeneous & heterogeneous mixture

14. What do you mean by Fractional distillation?

15. Classify elements

Extra Question
1. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and water can be separated by
(A) Fractional distillation (B) evaporation
(C) separating funnel (D) solvent extraction method

2. ..................................... is a technique used to separate the components of a mixture on the basis of
differences between two phases, one of which is stationary is-
(A) solvent extraction method (B) evaporation
(C) chromatography (D) none of these

3. What is correct for noble gases?
(A) It reacts with all elements (B) It reacts only with Metals
(C) It reacts only with non-metals (D) It does not react chemically with other elements.

4. ................. is a process to obtain a very pure form of a solid dissolved in a liquid.
(A) Centrifugation (B) threshing (C) distillation (D) Crystallization

5. Air is a
(A) Mixture (B) Element (C) Compound (D) Molecule

DPP : 04
TOPIC : ATOMS, MOLECULES AND RADICALS

1. Nucleons consists of -
(A) Proton and neutron (B) Proton and electron
(C) Neutron and electron (D) Proton, neutron and electron

2. An atom is represented by -
(A) formula (B) chemical equation (C) symbol (D) chemical reaction

3. Protons, neutrons and electrons are collectively called as –
(A) Nucleons (B) Sub-atomic particles (C)molecules (D) none

4. Sodium is -
(A) Diatomic (B) Monoatomic (C) Triatomic (D) none of these

5. Atomic No. is equal to –
(A) no. of nucleons (B) no. of protons (C) no. of neutrons (D) none

6. Bromine is a -
(A)Gas (B) Liquid (C) Solid (D)can't determine

7. Which of the following has valency 3?
(A) sodium (B) hydrogen (C) aluminium (D) magnesium

8. .............. is a triatomic molecule.
(A) oxygen (B) hydrogen (C) ozone (D) none of these

9. What is the number of valence electrons of an element having atomic number 12?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 9

10. Mass of proton is approximately equal to-
(A) electron (B) neutron (C) both (D) none of these

11. Write a short note on periodic table.

12. Write the names of the elements present in the following compounds:
(a) Sugar (b) Common salt
(c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Ammonia

13. Write the molecular formula of the following compounds-
(a) Sodium sulphide. (b) Iron(II) chloride
(c) Copper sulphate (d) Ammonium carbonate

14. Name one ion for each of the valencies:
(a) -1 (b) +2 (c)+3 (d) +1

15. Define the following terms:
(a) Atomicity (b) Valence electrons
(c) Molecule (d) Valency

Extra Question
1. Read the given statement and mark the correct option.
Statement-1 : Atomic weight is a non-zero positive whole number.
Statement-2 : Protons are positively charged particles.
(A) Both statement 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statement 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

2. Chemical name of caustic soda is-
(A) Calcium hydroxide (B) Sodium hydroxide (C) Copper sulphate (D) Sodium bicarbonate

3. The valency of Fe in Fe2O3 is-
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4

4. An ion with negative charge is called as-
(A) Atom (B) Cation (C) Anion (D) none of these

5. Which of the following exhibit variable valency?
(A) Ca (B) Cu (C) C (D) Cl

DPP : 05
TOPIC : LANGUAGE OF CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) A chemical equation tells us about the substances involved in a reaction.
(B) A chemical equation informs us about the symbols and formulae of the substances involved in a
reaction.
(C) A chemical equation tells us about the atoms or molecules of the reactants and products involved in
a reaction.
(D) All the above

2. The substances which undergo chemical change are called ...................
(A) product (B) reactant
(C) element (D) None of these

3. In some chemical reactions, an insoluble substance is formed called as.
(A) residue (B) gas
(C) precipitate (D) None of these

4. Chemical changes are …………
(A) temporary, reversible and a new substance is produced
(B) always accompanied with exchange of light
(C) permanent, irreversible and a new substance is produced
(D) never accompanied with exchange of light and heat energy

5. Which of the following is a physical change?
(A) solubility in water (B) combustibility
(C) aerial oxidation (D) reaction with water

6. The balanced chemical equation for the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen to produce Ammonia gas is -
(A) N2(g) + H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(B) 2N2(g) + H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(D) 2N2(g) + H2(g)  2NH3(g)

7. Which of the following is/are an endothermic process(es) ?
(i) Dilution of sulphuric acid
(ii) Sublimation of dry ice
(iii) Condensation of water vapours
(iv) Evaporation of water
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (ii) and (iv)

8. Which of the following are exothermic process -
(i) reaction of water with quick lime
(ii) dilution of an acid
(iii) evaporation of water (iv) sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)

9. Which of the following changes represents a physical change ?
(A) Conversion of sulphur to sulphur dioxide
(B) Heating of a metal knife
(C) Combustion of methane
(D) Hydrolysis of an ester

10. Which of the following chemical equations is an unbalanced one ?

(A) 2NaHCO3 
 Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

(B) 2C4H10 + 12O2 
 8CO2 + 10H2O

(C) 2Al + 6H2O 
 2Al(OH)3 + 3H2

(D) 4NH3 + 5O2 
 4NO + 6H2O

11. Write balanced chemical equations for the following word equations –
(A) Reaction between hydrogen and chlorine to form hydrogen chloride.
(B) Magnesium burns in oxygen to give magnesium oxide.
(C) Reaction between iron and sulphur to produce iron (II) sulphide on heating.
(D) Burning of coal in air to produce carbon-di-oxide.

12. Balance the following equations-
(A) N2 + H2  NH3 (B) Zn + HCl  ZnCl2 + H2
(C) Na2O + H2O  NaOH (D) Fe + Cl2  FeCl3

13. Define:
(A) product (B) Catalyst (C) precipitate (D) reactant

14. What is a chemical equation? Why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation?

15. What are the conditions necessary for chemical reaction.

Extra Question
1. A balanced chemical equation is in accordance with -
(B) Dalton's atomic theory
(C) the law of conservation of mass
(D) the law of constant proportion

2. The rate of reaction remains same when -
(A) temperature of reaction changes (B) catalyst is added to reaction mixture
(C) both A and B (D) None of these

3. Symbol  used while representing some chemical changes stands for -
(A) light (B) heat (C) catalyst (D) pressure

4. In the balanced equation Na2CO3 + xHCl  2NaCl + CO2 + H2O. The value of x is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

5. Who laid the foundation of language of chemistry -
(A) Mendal (B) Lavoisier (C) Asphalt (D) J.J. Berzelius

DPP : 06
TOPIC : METALS AND NON-METALS

1. Which gas is produced when metals react with acids?
(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen (C) Hydrogen (D) CO2

2. Which metal is soft -
(A) Na (B) Cu (C) Al (D) Pb

3. Which metal is present in Haemoglobin?
(A) C (B) O (C) Fe (D) H

4. Which one of the following metals reacts vigorously with oxygen and water ?
(A) Sodium (B) Aluminium (C) Calcium (D) Magnesium

5. The solution of ash of magnesium ribbon is -
(A) Acid (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) All of these

6. Which metal is found in liquid state at room temperature ?
(A) Fe (B) Zn (C) Hg (D) Al

7. Which among the following is the poorest conductor of heat ?
(A) Silver (B) Gold (C) Copper (D) Lead

8. Iron is galvanized by coating it with –
(A) Nickel (B) Chromium (C) Manganese (D) Zinc

9. Most metals can be drawn into thin wires. This property is known as
(A) allotropy (B) conductivity (C) ductility (D) malleability

10. The metal oxides are –
(A) basic in nature (B) acidic in nature
(C) neutral in nature (D) efflorescent in nature

11. Write a reaction of action of acids on metals.

12. Why gold is preferred in making jewellery ?

13. Explain the following terms (i) malleability (ii) Ductility (iii) Sonorous (iv) Lustrous (v) Metalloids.

14. Metals are good conductor of electricity but the Non-metals are not why? Explain with reason.

15. Give reason :
(a) Why iron does not react with cold water while sodium react with cold water?
(b) Why gold and silver are used for making jewellery?

Extra Question
1. Oxides of Non metals are ……………….. in nature –
(A) Basic (B) acidic (C) neutral (D) All of these

2. Which non-metals catches fire if exposed to air?
(A) Sodium (B) Phosphorus (C) Calcium (D) Uranium

3. Which of these elements is used as an antiseptic in medicine?
(A) Carbon (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) Iodine

4. Which of the following is a non-metal?
(A) Tungsten (B) Mercury (C) Graphite (D) Platinum

5. Read the given statement and mark the correct option.
Statement-1 : Non-metals do not react with water.
Statement-2 : Non-metals are malleable and ductile.
(A) Both statement 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statement 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

DPP : 07
TOPIC : AIR AND ATMOSPHERE

1. Air is a / an -
(A) mixture (B) element (C) pure substance (D) none of these

2. The ratio of nitrogen to oxygen in the air is -
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 3 : 1

3. The main constituent of air is -
(A) CO2 (B) nitrogen (C) oxygen (D) hydrogen

4. ............................. released in respiration.
(A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur (C) CO2 (D) Oxygen

5. Which is not a property of air ?
(A) It is a compound (B) It is a solution
(C) It is transparent (D) It occupies space

6. Air is present in -
(A) atmosphere (B) soil
(C) water of ponds, lakes and sees (D) everywhere

7. Which gas helps in burning ?
(A) Oxygen (B) CO2 (C) Nitrogen (D) CO

8. Which gas we use in breathing ?
(A) CO2 (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) None of these

9. What is wind ?
(A) Air around us (B) Rising hot air (C) Air in motion (D) None of these

10. ................................. supports combustion -
(A) CO2 (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) CO

11. State uses & physical properties of oxygen.

12. What is the importance of nitrogen for plants, animals & human beings.

13. How can we prevent air pollution?

14. Write a short note on laboratory preparation of oxygen.(any 2 method)

15. What do you mean by atmosphere ? Explain.

Extra Question
1. Process of preparation of food by green plants -
(A) combustion (B) chlorophyll (C) respiration (D) photosynthesis

2. Envelope of air that surrounds the earth is known as -
(A) Atmosphere (B) Environment (C) Biosphere (D) Ecosystem

3. Thin layer of air surrounding our earth -
(A) oxygen (B) nitrogen (C) atmosphere (D) CO2

4. ............................ air is used in tyres of vehicles.
(A) Compressed (B) Polluted (C) Non-compressed (D) None of these

5. Nitrogen of the air is used on a large scale to manufacture -
(A) oxygen (B) fertilizers (C) soft drinks (D) none of these

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VII (ICSE)

DPP : 01
TOPIC : THE CELL

1. Striking difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is due to the presence of
(A) centrosome (B) plasma membrane (C) cell wall (D) chloroplast

2. The main function of a plasma membrane is to
(A) prevent water from entering or leaving (B) control what goes into and out of the cell
(C) act as a sieve, allowing only lipids to pass (D) move the cell from place to place

3. Organisms lacking a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are called
(A) diploid (B) haploid (C) prokaryotes (D) eukaryotes

4. The centriole is associated with
(A) DNA synthesis (B) cell division (C) circulation (D) respiration

5. Genes are located on the
(A) nuclear membrane (B) chromosomes (C) lysosomes (D) cell membrane

6. Animal cell does not have
(A) mitochondria (B) chloroplast (C) nucleus (D) cytoplasm

7. Which of the following is considered as ‘Kitchen’ of the plant cell ?
(A) Chloroplast (B) Chromoplast (C) Leucoplast (D) None

8. Controller of cell is a
(A) nucleus (B) mitochondria (C) vacuoles (D) chloroplast

9. Which is not the part of nucleus?
(A) Chromosomes (B) Nucleolus (C) Nucleoplasm (D) Ribosomes

10. Cell was first observed by
(A) Robert Brown (B) Robert Hooke
(C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek (D) None of these

11. Name the largest and smallest cell known to you.

12. What is the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell ?

13. Define the nucleus of a cell and its function in the cell.

14. List four differences between a plant cell and an animal cell.

15. What is the size of PPLO ?

DPP : 02
TOPIC : ORGANISATION IN LIVING BEINGS

1. Some parts of the plants are flexible due to the presence of -
(A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma
(C) Meristematic tissue (D) Sclerenchyma

2. Which of the following does not loose their nucleus at maturity ?
(A) Companion cells (B) R.B.Cs
(C) Vessels (D) Sieve tube cells

3. Intercalated disc is present in -
(A) Cardiac muscle (B) Striated muscle
(C) Smooth muscle (D) Both (A) and (C)

4. Bone and cartilage belong to which tissue ?
(A) Nervous tissue (B) Epithelial tissue
(C) Muscular tissue (D) Connective tissue

5. Husk of coconut is made of -
(A) Sclerenchyma (B) Parenchyma
(C) Collenchyma (D) Prosenchyma

6. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of hand were dislocated. Which among the following
may be the possible reason ?
(A) Tendon break (B) Break of skeletal muscle
(C) Ligament break (D) Areolar tissue break

7. Find out incorrect sentence -
(A) Parenchymatous tissue have intercellular spaces.
(B) Collenchymatous tissue are irregularly thickened at corners
(C) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues
(D) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack vacuoles

8. Select the incorrect sentence -
(A) Blood has matrix containing proteins, salts and hormones
(B) Two bones are connected with ligament
(C) Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile
(D) Cartilage is a form of connective tissue

9. Four slides were observed under the microscope for spot test as shown below.
The correct identification of the four spots is -

(A) A. Blood B. Striated muscle C. Smooth muscle D. Columnar epithelium
(B) A. Blood B. Smooth muscle C. Striated muscle D. Columnar epithelium
(C) A. Blood B. Cardiac muscle C. Striated muscle D. Columnar epithelium
(D) A. Blood B. Smooth muscle C. Striated muscle D. Adipose tissue

10. Which one of the given figures is correctly labelled ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

11. What do you mean by division of labour ?

12. Mention the role of parenchyma, collenchyma & sclerenchyma.

13. Give summarized classification of animal-tissue.

14. Which tissue is responsible for transport of water in plants ?

15. Define ligament.

DPP : 03
TOPIC : MOVEMENT IN ANIMALS AND PLANTS

1. Snakes have these special structures that help them to crawl
(A) Leg (B) Fins (C) Bellies (D) Feather
2. Birds can fly because they have
(A) a streamlined body (B) hollow bones
(C) wings with feathers (D) all of these
3. Paramecium moves with the help of
(A) cilia (B) scale (C) pseudopodia (D) tentacles
4. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
(A) Bone is where most blood cells are made
(B) Bone serves as a storehouse for various minerals
(C) Bone is a dry and non-living supporting structure
(D) Bone protects and supports the body and its organs
5. What is the difference between cartilage and bone ?
(A) Bone is rubbery, and cartilage is firm
(B) Cartilage is rubbery, and bone is firm
(C) Bone is a more primitive tissue than cartilage
(D) Bone is inside the body, and cartilage is outside
6. What is the difference between compact bone and spongy bone?
(A) They have different bone marrow
(B) They are made of different materials
(C) They have different sizes of bone cells
(D) They have different arrangement of bone cells
7. Which can do skeletal and muscular movement both?
(A) Earthworm (B) Snail (C) Fish (D) Cockroach
8. Fish can swim in the water because of -
(A) streamlined body (B) fins (C) swim bladder (D) all of these
9. What is secreted by a snail’s foot?
(A) Water (B) Oil (C) Mucous (D) Fat
10. Snails move with a help of a
(A) fin (B) feel (C) muscular foot (D) wings
11. Name various parts of axial skeleton
12. Name the different types of the joints present in the human body.
13. How can fish swim in water?
14. Describe the movement in birds and how it is differ from insect flight.
15. How do the muscles in our arms help in movement?

DPP : 04
TOPIC : NUTRITION IN PLANTS AND OTHER ORGANISMS

1. Organisms who work together for mutual benefit for food and habitat
(A) mutualism (B) parasitic (C) saprophyte (D) autotrophic

2. Identify the odd one out
(A) neem (B) amaranthus (C) rose (D) cuscuta

3. Insectivorous plant is
(A) mustard (B) cuscuta (C) nepenthese (D) neem

4. Rhizobium is a good example of
(A) insectivorous (B) symbiosis (C) parasitic (D) none of these

5. The mode of nutrition in cascutta (amarbel) is known as
(A) autotrophic (B) saprophytic (C) parasitic (D) all

6. Plants are green in colour because
(A) they absorb green light only
(B) they reflect green light
(C) they absorb green light but reflect all other lights
(D) none of the above are correct

7. The raw materials for photosynthesis are –
(A) CO2 & O2 (B) Sunlight and CO2
(C) Water and chlorophyll (D) CO2 and water

8. CO2 & O2 balance in atmosphere is due to –
(A) Photorespiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) Reproduction (D) Leaf anatomy

9. Out of total solar energy reaching earth, the amount utilized by the green plants is –
(A) 0.5% (B) 1.0% (C) 2.5 % (D) 5.0%

10. During photosynthesis –
(A) Solar energy is converted into chemical energy
(B) Solar energy is converted into mechanical energy
(C) Chemical energy is converted into mechanical energy
(D) Bio energy is converted into chemical energy

11. Which type of nutrition is found in Dodder?

12. Write down the equation of photosynthesis.

13. Name the type of nutrition in amoeba.

14. What are the factors affecting the process of photosynthesis?

15. Describe the symbiotic relationship in lichens.

DPP : 05
TOPIC : PROCESS OF DIGESTION IN HUMAN

1. The cells of the epithelial lining in the vertebrate stomach are not damaged by HCl because of
(A) mucus secretion covering the epithelium (B) neutrilizatioin of HCl by alkaline gastric juice.
(C) HCl being too dilute (D) epithelium being resistant to HCl

2. Ptyalin is secreted by
(A) stomach (B) salivary gland (C) pancreas (D) bile

3. Bilirubin and bilivirdin are found in
(A) blood (B) bile (C) saliva (D) none of these.

4. Which one of the following is not a part of the large intestine?
(A) Rectum (B) Colon (C) Caecum (D) Duodenum

5. Dental formula of an adult man is

2,1,2,3 2,1,2,3 2,1,2,3 2,1,3,2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2,1,2,3 2,1,2,2 2,1,2,4 2,1,3,2
6. Thorough mastication of food is essential because
(A) mastication of food makes the teeth stronger
(B) it makes the process of swallowing of food easier
(C) by this process bigger pieces of food are broken down into smaller pieces
(D) bigger pieces of food are broken down into smaller pieces and saliva is properly mixed with them

7. Which one does not produce any digestive enzyme ?
(A) Pancreas (B) Liver (C) Stomach (D) Duodenum

8. The most important function of villi in the small intestine is -
(A) to provide strength to the intestine
(B) to provide space for capillaries
(C) to provide increased surface area for absorption of digested food
(D) to provide habitat for bacteria

9. The digestion of food is completed in the
(A) ileum (B) duodenum (C) stomach (D) large intestine

10. Human body cannot digest carbohydrate in the form of
(A) sugars (B) starch (C) cellulose (D) glycogen
11. Describe the digestion process of carbohydrate in humans.

12. What is the role of hydrochloric acid in the stomach ?

13. What happens to digested food after absorption ?

14. Which digestive juice is secreted in the mouth ? What enzyme does it contain and what is its function ?

15. Draw a labelled digram of the alimentary canal of humans.

DPP : 06
TOPIC : RESPIRATION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS

1. Anaerobic respiration in animals, produces
(A) Glucose and oxygen (B) Water and carbon dioxide
(C) Lactic acid and energy (D) Carbon and carbon dioxide

2. Glucose is oxidised to ethyl alcohol in –
(A) Aerobic respiration (B) Anaerobic respiration
(C) Fermentation (D) None of these

3. The rate of breathing in mammals is controlled by a part of the brain called
(A) Thalamus (B) Cerebellum (C) Hypothalamus (D) Medulla oblongata

4. Normal range of breathing rate in an average adult person at rest is –
(A) 9 to 12 (B) 15 to 18 (C) 12 to 20 (D) 30 to 33

5. Glycolysis occurs in
(A) Cytoplasm (B) Mitochondria (C) Nucleus (D) Lysosomes

6. Step / steps of Respiration is / are –
(A) Breathing (B) Transportation of gases
(C) Cellular respiration (D) All

7. Net gain of ATP molecules, during aerobic respiration, is –
(A) 30 molecules (B) 38 molecules (C) 40 molecules (D) 48 molecules

8. During expiration, the diaphragm becomes
(A) Oblique (B) Abnormal (C) Flattened (D) Dome-shaped

9. Plants get their oxygen requirement for respiration through –
(A) Stomata (B) Lenticels (C) Both (a) and (b) (D) None of these

10. Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man ?
(A) Nasal cavity  larynx  pharynx  trachea  bronchi  bronchioles  alveoli
(B) Nasal cavity  pharynx  trachea  larynx  bronchi  bronchioles  alveoli
(C) Nasal cavity  larynx  bronchi  pharynx  trachea  bronchioles  alveoli
(D) Nasal cavity  pharynx  larynx  trachea  bronchi  bronchioles  alveoli

11. Show the process of respiration through a word equation.

12. Write one difference between breathing and respiration.

13. Draw a neat labelled diagram of respiratory system of man

14. Give four differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration

15. Why does an athlete breathe faster and deeper than usual after finishing the race?

DPP : 07
TOPIC : SEED STRUCTURE AND GERMINATION
1. The seed coat develops from the ______ part of the ovule.
(A) integuments (B) nucellus (C) polar nuclei (D) Antipodals

2. The part of the embryonic axis below the point of attachement of cotyledons is
(A) Hypocotyl (B) Epicotyl (C) tigellum (D) All of these

3. Which part of seed germinates to give rise to shoot?
(A) Plumule (B) Radicle (C) Hypocotyl (D) Both (A) and (B)

4. The endospermic seed among the following is
(A) Gram (B) Pea (C) Bean (D) Maize

5. The outermost protein-rich layer of the endosperm is
(A) Seed coat (B) Aleurone layer (C) Coleoptile (D) Coleorrhiza

6. The inner layer of the seed coat is called.
(A) Testa (B) Tegmen (C) integument (D) Plumule

7. The scar on the seed coat where the seed is attached to its stalk (funicle) is
(A) Hilum (B) Miropyle (C) Testa (D) Tegmen

8. The conditions essential for seed germination are :
(A) Water (B) Availability of oxygen
(C) Favourable Temperature (D) All of these

9. Which part of seed after germination gives rise to root ?
(A) Radicle (B) Plumule (C) Epicotyl (D) Coleoptile

10. The non-endospermic seeds are also called as
(A) albuminous (B) exalbuminous (C) castor seeds (D) None of these

11. Draw a labelled diagram of a bean seed.

12. Describe the structure of a seed.

13. Differentiate between epicotyl and hypocotyl.

14. Mention the functions of the following:
(a) Micropyle (b) Endosperm (c) Aleurone layer

15. Define the following:
(a) Seed dormancy (b) vivipary (c) embryo

DPP : 08
TOPIC : MICROORGANISMS - FRIEND OR FOE

1. The microorganism which has the ability to fix nitrogen is
(A) virus (B) Euglena (C) Rhizobium (D) Amoeba

2. Formation of curd by milk is done by
(A) Lactobacillus (B) moulds (C) yeasts (D) algae

3. Yeast is used in the production of
(A) sugar (B) alcohol (C) oxygen (D) none

4. A bacteria helpful in digestion of food is
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Clostridium (C) Botulinum (D) none of these

5. We get CO2 from sugar by the action of
(A) bacterial (B) algae (C) fungi (D) (A) and (C) both

6. A disease caused by viruses in animal is
(A) anthrax (B) aspergillosis (C) foot and mouth (D) none

7. Mushroom is
(A) a plant consisting of fine green threads (B) an edible fungus
(C) a bryophyte devoid of roots, stem and leaves (D) a flowering plant

8. The smallest organisms which cause disease among plants are
(A) viruses (B) fungi (C) bacteria (D) mycoplasma

9. Black rust of wheat is caused by
(A) bacteria (B) virus (C) fungi (D) none of these

10. Small pox is caused by
(A) virus (B) bacteria (C) housefly (D) mosquito

11. Name one example of each of the following :
(a) bacteria (b) virus (c) fungi (d) algae
(e) protozoa.

12. Name the two principles in which food preservation methods are based.

13. Where do Rhizobium bacteria live ?

14. What are antibiotics ? Give two examples.

15. What are protozoa ?

MATHEMATICS
&
MENTAL ABILITY

DPPS

CLASS-VII (ICSE)

INDEX

MATHEMATICS - 01-14
MENTAL ABILITY - 15-31

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VII (ICSE)

DDP : 01
TOPIC : NUMBER SYSTEM
27 53 4
1. The value of (–1 ) × (–1) × (–1) is
(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) –1 or 1 (D) 2

2. The product of two integers is 12, if one integer is – 3 then the other one is :
(A) + 4 (B) – 4 (C) 3 (D) – 3

3. Identify the property used in the following : 2 × 13 + 8 × 13 = ( 2+8 ) × 13
(A) Commutative (B) Closure (C) Associative (D) Distributive
4. 
( 9)  4 6  8  4 . 
(A) –15 (B) –33 (C) 10 (D) 33
5. The place value of 3 in 9.453 is:
(A) tenth (B) hundredth (C) thousandth (D) thousand
1  4 1
6. The expression     is equivalent to
15  15 3 
1 1
(A) (B) 9 (C) (D) 5
9 5
7. Which one is correct?
(A) 0· 658 < 0.732 < 0 . 514 < 0 . 813 (B) 0· 514 < 0· 658 < 0 . 732 < 0 . 813
(C) 0·813 < 0 ·732 < 0·658 < 0 . 514 (D) 0· 514 < 0· 732 < 0 . 658 < 0 . 813
1
8. Solve :
1
1
1
2
3
1 3 7 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 10 10 6
1 2
9. By what number should 1 be divided to get ?
2 3
2 2 4 1
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) (D) 2
3 3 9 4
301 302 303 400
10. (–1) + (–1) + (–1) + … + (–1) =
(A) 1 (B) 101 (C) 100 (D) 0

 27   x
11. If 1   = 1   , then find x ?
 169   13 

12. If 12  12  12  .......  = x, then the value of x ?
 
 

81  256  39
13. The value of =?
169 – 49 – 2
1 3 1
14. Three pieces of cakes of weights 4 Ibs, 6 Ibs and 7 Ibs respectively are to be divided into parts of
2 4 5
equal weights. Further, each must be as heavy as possible. If one such part is served to each guest,
then what is the maximum number of guests that could be entertained ?
15. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 9. If the difference between the two numbers is 18,
find the two numbers :

DDP : 02
TOPIC : ALGEBRA

1. Ram’s father age is 2 times as old as Ram. If sum of there ages is 48. Find Ram’s age.
(A) 16 years (B) 17 years (D) 18 years (D) 19 years

2. Sum of three consecutive number is 45. Find the larger number.
(A) 12 (B) 16 (D) 15 (D) 14

3. Solve for x : 2(x + 1) + 3(x + 5) = 7(x + 2) + 4(x + 3)
3 –3 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3 3
x2 2
4. Solve for x : =
x–3 3
(A) – 11 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) – 12

2x – ( 2x – 3)
5. Solve : = –1
3x – (4 x  3)
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) 2

x x 3
6. If   1 , then x is equal to -
4 6
(A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 4

7. If twice a certain number is diminished by five, the result is equal to twelve added to the number. Find
the number-
(A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 15 (D) 17
xb xb
8. Solve :  .
a b a b
(A) a (B) 2a (C) –a (D) –2a
x
9. Solve for x : 0.5x   0.25 x  7 .
3
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 21 (D) 82

10. The denominator of a fraction is greater than numerator by 6. If 3 is added to numerator and 2 is
6
subtracted from denominator, the fraction becomes , then the equation so formed is -
7
x4 6 x 3 6
(A)  (B) 
x 3 7 x4 7
x 3 6 x 2 6
(C)   (D)  
x6 2 7 x6 3 7

11. Write a statement for each of the equations given below :
(i) 3x – 5 = 16 (ii) x – 12 = 24
x
(iii) 19 – 2x = 11 (iv) 7 (v) 6x = x + 5
8

12. Solve the given equations :
1
(i) 1 = y – 7 (ii) 7x – 6 = 1 (iii) a + 2 =5 (iv) y + 10 = 20
2
(v) x + 0.4 = 2.4 (vi) p + 0.6 = 1

13. Solve the following equations by the trial and error method :
x
(i) z – 2 = – 6 (ii) =9 (iii) 19 = 17 + x
8
1
(iv) x – 8 = 11 (v) 3x + 4 = 5x – 4
3

14. Write each of the following statements as an equation:
(i) A number increased by 10 equals 26
(ii) The sum of three consecutive integers is 34.
(iii) After 16 years Manoj will be five times as old as he is now.
(iv) 40 decreased by a number is 15.
(v) A number is divided by 7. The quotient is added to 5 and the result is 15.

15. Give expressions for the following cases.
(a) Five times b added to 3 times c.
(b) The quotient of x and y, if x is divided by y, added to the product of x and y.
(c) The perimeter of a rectangle is twice the sum of its length and breadth.
(d) The distance covered is product of speed and time.

DDP : 03
TOPIC : ARITHMATICS

1. The average age of the three boys is 15 years. Their ages are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. The age of the
oldest is
(A) 7 years (B) 14 years (C) 20 years (D) 21 years

2. If x : y = 5 : 2, then (8x + 9y) : (8x + 2y) is:-
(A) 22 : 29 (B) 26 : 61 (C) 29 : 22 (D) 61 : 26

3. Which ratio is greater : (3 : 7) or (4 : 9)
(A) 3:7 (B) 4:9 (C) Both are equal (D) None of these

4. Reema types 540 word during half an hour. How many words would she type in 6 minutes?
(A) 1800 (B) 216 (C) 108 (D) 540

5. In a library 136 copies of certain book require a shelf – length of 13.6m. How many copies of the same
book would occupy a shelf – length of 5.1 m?
(A) 36 (B) 51 (C) 136 (D) 510

6. In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there are Rs. 30 in all, how
many 5 p coins are there ?
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 200

7. j 300 amounts to j 360 in 4 years at simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 1%, it would
amount to
(A) j 364 (B) j 368 (C) j 372 (D) j 384

9
8. The simple interest on a sum of money is of the principal and the rate percent is equal to number of
25
years. The rate percent is
(A) 3% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 6%

9. The simple interest on a certain sum for 8 months at 4% simple interest is j 129 less than the simple
interest on the same sum for 15 months at 5% per annum. Then the sum is
(A) j 3,400 (B) j 3,500 (C) j 3,600 (D) j 3, 700

10. If Meena gives an interest of j 45 for one year at 9% rate p.a., what is the sum she has borrowed ?
(A) j 550 (B) j 500 (C) j 450 (D) j 400

11. The speed 48 m/sec convert into km/hr ?

12. A, B and C can complete a work, working alone in 10, 15 and 20 days respectively. If all of them work
together to complete the work, what fraction of the work would have done by B?

13. If 20 men complete one-third of a piece of work in 20 days, how many more men should be employed
to finish the rest of the work in 25 days ?

14. Pradeep allows a cash discount of 20%. If he earns 40% profit on his own goods then by how much %
he should increase the price from his cost price ?

15. A dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price and uses an 880 gm weight instead of a kg. What is
his percentage of gain ?

DPP : 04
TOPIC : SET THEORY

1. The number of subsets of an empty set is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

2. Which of the following sets are disjoint ?
(A) The set of natural numbers and set of integers.
(B) The set of natural numbers divisible by 3 and set of natural numbers divisible by 7.
(C) The set of all multiples of 3 and set of all multiples of 5.
(D) The set of odd natural numbers and set of even natural numbers.

3. How many subsets can be formed from the set {p, q, r} is ?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

4. A = {1, 2, {3, 4}, {5}}. Which of the following is true?
(A) {3, 4}  A (B) 3  A (C) n(A) = 5 (D) {5}  A

5. If A = {, { }, 1, {1,  }, 2 } then which of the following is true ?
(A) { 1 }  A (B) 2  A
(C) { {2}, {1} }  A (D) {, { }, {1, } }  A

Directions : (6 to 7)
In a survey of 25 students, it was found that 15 had taken mathematics, 12 had taken physics and 11
had taken physics and chemistry and 3 had taken all the three subjects.

6. Find the number of students that had taken only mathematics.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

7. Find the number of students that had taken physics and chemistry but not mathematics.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 10

8. The shaded region in the venn’s diagram given below represents :

(A) (A  B)  C (B) (A  B)  C (C) (A  B)  C (D) (A  B)  C

9. The shaded region in venn’s diagram given below represents :

(A) A – B (B) B – A (C) A’ – B (D) A – B’

10. The shaded region in venn’s diagram given below represents :

(A) A  B  C (B) A  B  C (C) A  B  C (D) None of these

11. If A be a finite set having n elements and P(A) is its power set, then total number of elements of P
(P(A)) is:

12. If A is a void set then n[P(P(P(A)))] ?

13. Given K = { B, A, N, T, I }. Then the number of subsets of K, that contain both A,N ?

14. In a group of 500 people, 200 can speak Hindi alone while only 125 can speak English alone. The
number of people who can speak both Hindi and English ?

15. If n(A) = 115, n(B) = 326, n(A – B) = 47 then n (A  B) ?

DPP : 05
TOPIC : GEOMETRY

1. In the given figure, if AOB is a straight line, then the value of x is :
D
C
45°
x + 15° x + 30°
A O B
1
(A) 90° (B) 45° (C) 22 (D) 150°
2

2. For what value of x will line l be parallel to line m ?

(A) 50º (B) 53º (C) 52º (D) 51º

3. In the given figure, AB || CD, ABO = 40° and CDO = 30°. If DOB = x°, then the value of x is :
A B
40°
O
x

30°
C D
(A) 35° (B) 110° (C) 70° (D) 140°

4. In the adjoining figure AB || CD and PQ, QR intersects AB and CD both at E, F and G, H respectively.
Given that m PEB = 80º, m QHD = 120º and m PQR = xº, find the value of x :

(A) 40º (B) 20º (C) 100º (D) 30º

5. A tree is broken at a height of 5 m from the ground and its top touches the ground at a distance of 12 m
from the base of the tree. Find original height of the tree
(A) 13 m (B) 18 m (C) 17 m (D) 19 m

6. In Fig., PQ = PR, RS = RQ and ST QR. If the exterior angle RPU is 140°, then the measure of angle
TSR is
U
P
140º

S T

Q R
(A) 55° (B) 40° (C) 50° (D) 45°

7. In Fig. 6.11, the value of A + B + C + D + E + F is
A

F E

B C

D
(A) 190° (B) 540° (C) 360° (D) 180°

8. One angle of a quadrilateral is 150° and the other three angles are equal. Find the measure of other
three angles :
(A) 70° (B) 75° (C) 85° (D) 90°

9. Two adjacent sides AB and BC of a parallelogram ABCD are in the ratio of 5:3. If the perimeter is 200
cm, then the lengths of AB and BC are :
(A) 25 cm, 50 cm. (B) 40 cm, 37.50 cm.
(C) 62.50 cm, 37.50 cm. (D) 60 cm, 62.50 cm.

10. A car jack is shaped like rhombus. The sides of car jack are 17 cm long. When the horizontal distance
between the vertices is 30 cm, the vertical distance between the other two vertices is :

(A) 8cm (B)16cm (C) 23cm (D) 30 cm

11. The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4, the angles are :

12. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD. If ADC = 2ABC, AD = a cm and CD = b cm, then the length
(in cm) of AB is :

13. Find the measure of an angle which is complement of itself.

14. Two supplementary angles differ by 34º. Find the angles.

15. In fig. AOC and BOC form a linear pair. Determine the value of x.

DPP : 06
TOPIC : MENSURATION

1. Find the volume of a cylinder of height 40 cm and having radius of the base 3.5 cm :
(A) 1540 cm3 (B) 1545 cm3 (C) 1550 cm3 (D) 1560 cm3

2. Find the volume of a cube whose total surface area is 486 cm2 :
(A) 700 cm3 (B) 729 cm3 (C) 297 cm3 (D) 800 cm3
3. The figure shows a cuboid with a volume of 180 cm3.
4 cm

9 cm

(p + 3) cm
What is the value of “p” ?
(A) 2 (B) 18 (C) 36 (D) 72

4. In the figure shown, two tangent semicircles with a radius equal to ‘x’ are inscribed in a square. What is
the area of the shaded region ?

(A) 4x 2 (B) x 2 (C) (2 – )x 2 (D) (4 – )x 2
5. The corners of an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm each are cut to form a regular hexagon. What is the
area of the hexagon?
C

12 12

A B
12
(A) 24 3 sq. cm (B) 12 5 sq. cm (C) 15 3 sq. cm (D) 9 5 sq. cm
6. ABCD is a rectangle. E, F, G, H are the mid-points of the concerned sides. Area of rectangle ABCD :
area of rhombus EFGH is :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 4 : 3
7. The length of a square is increased by 25% and its breadth is decreased by 25%. The ratio of the area
of the square to that of the resulting rectangle is :
(A) 15 : 16 (B) 16 : 15 (C) 5 : 4 (D) 4 : 5
8. The length of a rectangular plot is 20 m more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot at the rate
of j 26.50 per m is j 5300, then what is the length of the plot?
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 60 cm (D) 80 cm
9. In the given figure, the area of triangle LMN is :

L
6 cm

O M 6 cm N
(A) 18 cm2 (B) 12 cm2 (C) 36 cm2 (D) 40 cm2

10. A rectangle lawn 80 m × 60 m has two roads each with 10 m wide running in the middle of it, one
parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. The cost of gravelling them at 30 paise sq. m
is –
10

60

80
(A) Rs. 280 (B) Rs. 320 (C) Rs. 390 (D) Rs. 480

11. The area of a triangle is equal to that of a square whose each side measures 60 metres. Find the side
of triangle whose corresponding altitude is 90 metres.

12. The base of an isosceles triangle is 12 cm and its perimeter is 32 cm. Find its area.

13. In figure ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AB || DC, DC = 7cm, AB = 13 cm, CB = 10 cm and DA  AB.
Find the area of the quadrilateral.
D 7 cm C

10
cm
B
A M

14. A field ABCD is in the form of a trapezium in which AB II CD, AB = 83 m and CD = 40 m. A triangular
flower bed EBC is cut in such a way that the shape of the remaining field becomes a parallelogram. If
the area of the entire field 2337 m2, find the area of (a) flower bed (b) remaining field.

15. Find the area of the quadrilateral PQRS, whose diagonal QS = 19.5 cm and the offsets on it are 5.4 cm
and 10.6 cm.

DPP : 07
TOPIC : STATISTICS

1. If the arithmetic mean of 7, 5, 13, x and 9 be 10, then the value of x is :
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C)14 (D) 16

2. If the mean of five observation x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8 is 11, then the mean of first three
observations is :
(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) none

3. The mean of 100 observations is 50. If one of the observations which was 50 is replaced by 40, the
resulting mean will be :
(A) 50 (B) 49.90 (C) 70 (D) 40

4. Find the median of the following values :
37, 31, 42, 43, 46, 25, 39, 45, 32
(A) 39 (B) 43 (C) 42 (D) 32

5. Find the median of 18, 35, 10, 42, 21.
(A) 21 (B) 42 (C) 10 (D) 35

6. The ages of 10 persons ( in years ) are
34,24,28,31,30,26,27,25,29,30. The median age is
(A) 28 years (B) 29 years (C) 28.5 years (D) 32.5 years

7. The mode of the data 23, 26, 22, 29, 23, 29, 26, 29, 22, 23 is
(A) 23 and 29 (B) 23 only (C) 29 only (D) 26 only

8. The mode of the following data 6,5,6,7,8,5,6,7,7,6,7,5,8,8,7,7,6,9 is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

9. Out of 5 brands of chocolates in a shop, a boy has to purchase the brand which is most liked by
children. What measure of central tendency would be most appropriate if the data is provided to him?
(A) Mean (B) Mode (C) Median (D) Any of the three

10. The range of 3.5, 2, 4.5, 8.7, 1.9, 3.2, 1.9 is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 6.8 (D) 1.6

11. In a survey of 20 families, each family is found to have the following number of children :
1, 2, 2, 3, 2, 3, 3, 4, 1, 1, 4, 4, 2, 2, 3, 1, 5, 1, 1, 2
Make a frequency distribution table.

12. The marks obtained by 40 students of class VIII in an examination are given below :
18, 8, 12, 6, 8, 16, 12, 5, 23, 2, 16, 23, 2, 10, 12, 9, 7, 6, 5, 3, 5, 13, 21, 13, 15, 20, 24, 1, 7, 21, 16, 13,
18, 23, 7, 3, 18, 17, 16, 4.
Present the data in the form of a frequency distribution using the same class size, one such class being
15 –20 (where 20 is not included).

13. Given below are the marks (out of 100) obtained by 20 students of a class in mathematics in an annual
examination : 23, 75, 56, 42, 70, 84, 92, 51, 40, 63, 87, 58, 35, 80, 14, 63, 49, 72, 66, 61
Arrange the above data in an ascending order and find
(i) The lowest marks obtained
(ii) The highest marks obtained
(iii) The range of the given data

14. A family with monthly income of Rs. 40,000 had planned the following expenditure per month under
Grocery 8
Rent 8
Education of children 12
Medicine 4
Fuel 4
Entertainment 2
Miscellaneous 2

Draw bar graph for the data above.

15. The following table shows the colours preferred by a group of people :
Colours Blue Green Red Yellow
No. of
18 9 6 3
people

Represent the above data by a pie chart.

DPP : 08
TOPIC : CO-ORDINATE GEOMETRY

1. The perpendicular distance of the point P(4, 5) from the y-axis is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

2. Image of point (–2, 5) is :
(A) (2, 5) under y-axis (B) (–2, –5) under x-axis
(C) (2, 5) under x-axis (D) both (A) & (B)

3. Abscissa of a point is positive in

4. Point (5, –3) lies in the

5. Signs of the abscissa and ordinates of a point in the third quadrant are respectively :
(A) +, + (B) –, – (C) –, + (D) +, –

6. If (x, y) = (y, x), then :
x
(A) x – y = 0 (B) x + y = 0 (C) xy = 0 (D) 0
y
7. If y co-ordinate of a point is zero, then this point always lies :
(A) in I quadrant (B) in II quadrant (C) on x-axis (D) on y-axis

8. In the figure, O is the origin and OABC is a square of side 2 units. The co-ordinates of A, B and C
respectively are :

(A) (2, 0); (2, 2); (–2, 0) (B) (2, 0); (–2, 2); (0, 2)
(C) (2, 0); (0, 2); (–2, –2) (D) (2, 0); (2, 2); (0, 2)

9. If the perpendicular distance of a point P from the x-axis is 5 units and the foot of the perpendicular lies
on the negative direction of x-axis, then the point P has :
(A) x coordinate = – 5 (B) y coordinate = 5 only
(C) y coordinate = – 5 only (D) y coordinate = 5 or – 5

10. In the figure, the area of the ΔOAB is :

(A) 4 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 2 sq. units (D) none of these
11. Plot the point (3, 4) on a graph paper.

12. Write the quadrants for the following points.
(i) A(3,4) (ii) B(–2, 3) (iii) C(–5, –2) (iv) D(4, –3) (v) E(–5, –5)

13. Plot the following points on the graph paper and also specify the quadrants or co-ordinate axes in which
they lies:
(i) A(2, 5) (ii) B(–5, –7) (iii) C(3, –2) (iv) D(0, 5) (v) E(5, 0)

14. Find the images of the following points with respect to X-axis,
3 4  2 
(1, 2),  ,  ,   , 3  , (2, 5), (5, 0), (0, 7), (– 3, – 4)
8 3  3 

15. Find the images, of points (0, 0), (3, 0), (0, 2), (5, 1), (–2, 3), (–3, –3), (6, –7) with respect to Y-axis.

(India) Private Limited CLASS VII - (ICSE)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET
DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES
Direction (1 to 10) find the missing term.
1. 16, 19, 22, 25, ?
(A) 27 (B) 28 (C) 29 (D) 25

2. 67, 62, 57, ? , 47
(A) 52 (B) 53 (C) 54 (D) 50

3. 4, 8, 16, ? , 64
(A) 30 (B) 33 (C) 32 (D) 35

4. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
(A) 35 (B) 49 (C) 36 (D) 64

5. 11, 15, 21, 29, ?
(A) 38 (B) 35 (C) 37 (D) 39
6. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ?
(A) 25 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 17

7. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, ?
(A) 13 (B) 11 (C) 8 (D) 12

8. 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, ?
(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 20

9. 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, ?
(A) 24 (B) 17 (C) 28 (D) 32

10. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
(A) 81 (B) 49 (C) 36 (D) 28

Direction (11 to 15) find the wrong term.
11. 2, 5, 7, 11, 14
(A) 7 (B) 11 (C) 5 (D) 14

12. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96
(A) 4 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 96

13. 2, 6, 11, 17, 23, 32, 41
(A) 6 (B) 17 (C) 23 (D) 32

14. 3, 6, 10, 16, 21, 28
(A) 16 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 28

15. 1, 9, 25, 50, 81
(A) 1 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 81

DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES
Direction (1 to 5) find the missing term.
1. A, C, ?, G, I
(A) D (B) E (C) F (D) H

2. Q, N, K, ?, E
(A) H (B) I (C) J (D) G

3. V, T, R, ?, N, ?
(A) P, M (B) O, L (C) P, L (D) O, M

4. CG, DI, ?, IP, MU
(A) FM (B) EL (C) EM (D) FL

5. AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?
(A) SRQP (B) SRPQ (C) SQRP (D) RSQP

Directions (6 to 10) Find the wrong term :
6. ECA, JHF, OMK, TQP, YWU
(A) ECA (B) JHF (C) TQP (D) YWU

7. DKY, FJW, HIT, JHS, LGQ
(A) FJW (B) LGQ (C) JHJ (D) HIT

8. DVG, FSI, HPK, JNM, LJO
(A) DVG (B) JNM (C) HPK (D) LJO

9. CDF, DEG, EFH, FHI
(A) CDF (B) DEG (C) FHI (D) EFH

10. ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS
(A) ZLA (B) BMY (C) FOU (D) CNW

Directions (11 to 15) Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will complete the given
letter series ?
11. – bca – ca – c – b –
(A) aabbc (B) abbbc (C) aabcc (D) abbac

12. a – abb – aa – ba – a – b
(A) ababa (B) aabba (C) aabab (D) aaabb

13. abc – d – bc – d – b – cda
(A) bacdc (B) cdabc (C) dacab (D) dccbd

14. –aabb–abba–b
(A) b a b (B) a b a (C) b b a (D) b a a

15. a–baa–baa –ba
(A) a a b (B) b a b (C) b b a (D) b b b

DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES

Direction (1 to 15) find the missing term.

1.

(A) 38 (B) 64 (C) 4 (D) 16

4 8 5

2. 6 14 6 14 6 ?
8 8 4
10 18 14 22 11 15
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 14

5 26 4 6 ? 3 8 29 3
3.
6 4 5
(A) 32 (B) 22 (C) 18 (D) 27

5 6 4
4. 12 6 21 7 ? 8
4 5 10
(A) 14 (B) 22 (C) 32 (D) 320

5.

(A) 33 (B) 145 (C) 135 (D) 18

6.

(A) 125 (B) 25 (C) 625 (D) 156

5 4 3 8 9 4
7. 20 9 24 11 ? 13
(A) 117 (B) 36 (C) 32 (D) 26

8.

(A) 64 (B) 36 (C) 34 (D) 60

25 49
9. 121 ?

(A) 64 (B) 81 (C) 100 (D) 125
6 2 3
1 5 2 0 5 3
131 248 ?
10.
2 4 4 8 7 1
3 6 9
(A) 262 (B) 274 (C) 320 (D) 132

3 5 5

11. 6 10 2 9 30 3 6 ? 5
4 5 2

(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 40

12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 34

12.
30 44 ?

(A) 48 (B) 9 (C) 44 (D) 64

11 9 15 7 25 21
13.
40 176 ?
(A) 184 (B) 210 (C) 241 (D) 425

4 7 3 2
14.
416 749 309 ?
(A) 304 (B) 104 (C) 204 (D) 404

15.

(A) 120 (B) 100 (C) 125 (D) 64

DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST

1. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct
sequence.
1. Select 2. Seldom 3. Send 4. Selfish 5. Seller
(A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 (B) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 (C) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 (D) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

2. In a telephone directory, which of the following names will appear in the middle ?
(A) Sajewat (B) Segvan (C) Sajevar (D) Sajewet

3. How many independent words can 'Stainless' be divided into without changing the order of the letters and
using each letter only once ?
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

4. If the following words are arranged as found in the dictionary, then what will be the fourth letter from the left in
the last word ?
INTIMATION, INFORMATION, INTEREST, INTERROGATION, INSTIGATION
(A) R (B) O (C) T (D) I

5. Arrange the given words in the order they occur in dictionary.
1. SIGN 2. SOLID
3. SCENE 4. SIMPLE
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2 (C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

6. Which letter is midway between 22nd letter from the left and 21st letter from the right ?
(A) L (B) M (C) O (D) None of these

7. If the positions of the first and sixth letters of the word ‘BENEFICIAL’ are interchanged; similarly the positions
of the second and seventh letters are interchanged and so on, which letter will be third from the right end after
rearrangement ?
(A) C (B) E (C) F (D) N

8. If the first and the fifth letters in the word ‘ORDINARY’ are interchanged, the second and the sixth, the third
and the seventh and so on what will be the fifth letter from the right end after rearrangement ?
(A) R (B)  (C) Y (D) N

9. If the first and second letters of the word ‘INORDINATE’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letter,
the fifth and sixth and so on, which letter would be eighth counting from right to left ?
(A) A (B) D (C) N (D) R

10. Which letter will be the midway between the fourteenth letter from the left end and nineteenth letter from the
right end of the following alphabet?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(A) I (B) K (C) M (D) G

11. Arrange the following group such that when arranged in a specific order, meaningful word is formed.
V A H Y E
1 2 3 4 5
(A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (B) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 (C) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 (D) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

12. Find which one word can not be made from the letters of the given word.
CORRESPONDING
(A) DROPERS (B) SUPERIOR (C) GRINDER (D) DISCERN

13. Choose the one word which can be formed from the letters of the given word.
RATIONALISATION
(A) NATIONALISTIC (B) NATIONALIST (C) SITUATION (D) REALISATION

14. If the following scrambled letters are rearranged to form the name of a city, the city so formed is famous for
its :
WILGARO
(A) Locks (B) Steel Plant (C) Temples (D) Pottery

15. If the following scrambled letters are rearranged to form the name of a city, which letter will appear in the
middle?
AIDMURA
(A) M (B) R (C) U (D) D

DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : CODING-DECODING

1. If in any code language, KUMAR is coded on LVNBS, How is EMOTIONAL coded in that language
(A) FNQUJQBM (B) FNPUJPOBM (C) GNPUJPOBM (D) GNQUJQOBM

2. In a code A is denoted by B, B by C, C by D, and so on till V then FRACTIONS is denoted in the same code
by–
(A) GSBDUJPOT (B) GSBDVJPOT (C) GSBDUJPQT (D) GSBDUJOPT

3. In a code BOY is written as \$ and HOUR is written as @£O than RUBY is written in the indicating
language as –
(A) O£\$ (B) O\$£ (C) \$£O (D) £\$O

4. In a code BOXER word is written as AQWGQ then VISIT is written as –
(A) UKRKU (B) UKRKS (C) WKRKU (D) WKRKS

5. In a certain code CONSTITUTION is written as SNOCUTITNOIT. How is DISTRIBUTION written in that
code?
(A) DISTRTUBTINO (B) TSIDUBIRNOIT (C) TSIDUIBRNOIT (D) DTTSRIBTINO

6. In a certain code language TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN written in that code ?
(A) EJKNFGTO (B) EJKNEGTP (C) EJKNFHTP (D) EJKNFTGP

7. If the code for ALLOWANCE is ZMKPVBMDD the word DEARNESS would be coded as
(A) CFBAODTR (B) EDZQMFRT (C) CDZTMFTR (D) CFZSMFRT

8. If MERCHANT is NDSBIZOS, then CANCER is
(A) BZMBDQ (B) BBMBDQ (C) DBODFS (D) DZOBFQ

9. If RADIO is written PYBGM then how would OQDKNG be written in that code ?
(A) MOBIEL (B) MOBLIE (C) MOIBLE (D) MOBILE

10. If BOOK is coded as 43, what will be the code number for PEN ?
(A) 53 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 43

11. In a certain code, RIPPLE is written as 613382 and LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that
code ?
(A) 318826 (B) 318816 (C) 618826 (D) 338816

12. In a certain code DELHI is written as 29874 CULCUTTA is written as 35835661 then the word CALICUT will
be coded as :
(A) 3185463 (B) 3184635 (C) 3184563 (D) 3184356

13. If watch is called room, room is called bag, bag is called rain, rain is called air and air is called water,
Which is used to carry the books.?
(A) room (B) bag (C) rain (D) air

14. If for Cloud is said Rain for Rain is said Tree; for Tree is said Axe for Axe is said House and for House is
said Mason then from which of the following wood can be obtained ?
(A) Tree (B) Rain (C) Axe (D) House

15. If air is called green, green is called blue, blue is called sky, sky is called yellow, yellow is called water
and water is called pink then what is the colour of clean sky ?
(A) pink (B) sky (C) blue (D) yellow

DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST

1. Anil left home and cycled 10 km Southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km & turned right and cycled 10 km
and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres will he have to cycle to reach his home straight ?
(A) 10 km (B) 15 km (C) 20 km (D) 25 km

2. Amit faces towards North.Turning to his right he walks 25 metres. He then turns to his left and walks 30
metres. Next, he moves 25 metres to his right. He then turns to his right again and walks 55 metres. Finally,
he turns to the right and moves 40 metres. In which direction is he now from his starting point ?
(A) South-West (B) South (C) North-West (D) South-East

3. Kishen walks 10 km towards North. Form there, he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards
East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point ?
(A) 5 km, North (B) 5 km, North-East (C) 7 km, East (D) 7 km, West

4. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then I turn left and walk
10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 60 m. In which direction am I from the
starting point?
(A) North (B) North-west (C) East (D) North-east

5. From his house, Rajan went 25 kms to the North. Then he turned West and covered 20 kms.Then he turned
South and covered 15 Kms. Finally, turning to East, he covered 20 kms. In which direction was he from his
house ?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

6. Mohan travels 7 km Eastwards, then he turns right and travels 3 km and further turns right again and travels
11 km. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 5 (B) 14 (C) 21 (D) 23

7. Amar travels one km due East ; then 5 km due south, then 2 km due East and finally 9 km due North. How
far is from the starting point ?
(A) 16 kms. (B) 8 kms. (C) 6 kms. (D) 5 kms.

8. A man walks 9 km due East and then 12 km due South. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 15 kms. (B) 6 kms. (C) 7 kms. (D) none of these

9. Amit walks 2 km South, turned right and walked 1 km, again turned north and walked 5 km; turned East and
walked 5 km. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 3 kms. (B) 7 kms. (C) 5 kms. (D) 6 kms.

10. A man was facing East. He took Three paces forward, turned right, walked another two paces and then
turned right again, took three paces and turned about. Which direction was he last facing ?
(A) East (B) North (C) South (D) None of these

11. If I stand on my head with my face pointing Northwards, in what direction will my right-hand point ?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

12. Kumar stands with his face pointing to the South-East direction. He walked 15 metres and then turned
Northwards and walked another 12 metres. How far was he then from the starting point ?
(A) 12 metres (B) 10 metres (C) 9 metres (D) 5 metres

13. A man walked 3 metres towards North, turned West and walked 2 metres then turned North and walked 1
metre and finally turned East and walked 5 metres. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 5 m (B) 8 m (C) 10 m (D) 12 m

14.  went 15 m to the North, then turned West and covered 10 m, then turned South, and covered 5 m then
turned East and covered 10 m. In which direction am  now from my house ?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West

15. 'A' travelled Westwards 5 km, turned left and travelled 3 km, turned right and travelled 9 km. He then travelled
North 3 km. How far was 'A' from the starting point now ?
(A) 3 kms (B) 5 kms (C) 10 kms (D) 14 kms

DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT & RANKING AND ORDERING TEST

1. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is in the exactly middle while standing in a line ?
(i) Q is to the immediate right of T. (ii) S is exactly between P and T.
(iii) Q is exactly between T and R.
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) T

Directions : (2 to 4) Study the given information and answer the question that following.
Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a Professor and the
other is a Businessman. An Advocate is standing to the right of a student. A Author is to the immediate left
of the Businessman. The Student is between the Professor and the Advocate.
2. Counting from the left the Author is at whichplace ?
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth

3. Which of the following is in the exactly middle of the queue ?

4. If Advocate and the Businessman exchange their positions, also the Author and the Student, then who will be
standing to the left of the student ?

5. Five persons were playing cards game sitting in a circle all facing the centre. Mukund was to the immediate
left of Rajesh, Vijay was to the right of Anil and between Anil and Nagesh. Who was to the immediate right
of Nagesh ?
(A) Vijay (B) Rajesh (C) Anil (D) Mukund

(i) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre.
(ii) E is to the immediate left of D.
(iii) C is exactly between A and B.
(iv) F is between E and A.
6. Who is to the immediate left of B ?
(A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E

7. Who is to the immediate right of C ?
(A) A (B) B (C) D (D) E

8. Which of the above given statements is superfluous ?
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) All are required.

9. How many 5's are there in the following sequence which are immediately followed by 3 but not immediately
preceded by 7 ?
89 53253855687 33 57753653357 38
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four

10. In the following number series how many 8’s are there which are exactly divisible by the numbers which are
preceded and followed by it ?
824517284842282698454832843183
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

11. How many W's are there in the following series which are immediately followed by W but not immediately
preceded by K ?
DW W DHKVDW ZDW W W DDW KW W DK KDHC
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) None

12. How many L’s are there which do not have R preceding them and have T following them ?
Z Q S T LR M N Q N R T U V X R LTA S LT Q R S LT
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5

Directions : (13 to 15) Study the following arrangement of symbols, letters and numbers to answer the questions
given below it : = F 2  K S 7 5 # \$ P L V 8 @ M U E 6 Q G  9 3 & T Y 

13. How many such letters are there in the arrangement each of which is either immediately preceded by a
symbol or immediately followed by a number, but not both ?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) None of these

14. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a
consonant but not immediately preceded by a symbol ?
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

15. A is shorter than B but much taller than E. C is the tallest and D is shorter than A and taller than E. Which
one is the shortest ?
(A) A (B) E (C) B (D) D

DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS

1. f 'x' means '÷' , '–' means 'x', '÷' means ' +' and '+' means '–' then what will be the value of
(3 – 15 ÷ 19 ) × 8 + 6 = ?
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) –1

2. f 'A' means '+', 'B' means '–' , 'C' means 'x', then what will be the value of ( 10C 4) A (4C4) B6=?
(A) 60 (B) 56 (C) 50 (D) 46

Directions : (3 to 4) Solve the questions if the symbols are as given below :
x=–
+= 
 =×
–=+
*= 
3. 8  2+2–7=?
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 19

4. 9 + 33 – 8 * 2 = ?
(A) 27 (B) 17 (C) 13 (D) 26

5. If ‘+’ means ‘  ’ ; ‘–’ means ‘x’ ; ‘x’ means ‘–’, ‘  ’means ‘+’ then –
16  8 – 4 + 2 × 4 = ?
(A) 16 (B) 44 (C) 28 (D) 32

6. If  means +, – means  ,× means – and + means ×, then
 32  8  8  2
=?
4  18  8  9  1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 12 (D) None of these

7. If ‘P’ means ‘+’ ; ‘R’ means ‘x’ ; ‘S’ means ‘–’ ; T‘ means ‘  ’ then what is the value of
5 R 9 P 7 S 9 T 3 P 6=?
(A) 54 (B) 128 (C) 59 (D) 55

8. If a means ‘plus’, b means ‘minus’, c means ‘multiplied by’ and d means ‘divided by’ then
16c 12 b 6d 2a 17 = ?
(A) 65 (B) 55 (C) 216 (D) 206

9. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘ ×’ means ‘—’, ‘  ’ means ‘+’ and ‘—’ means ‘  ’, then
175 – 25  5 + 20 × 3 + 10 = ?
(A) 160 (B) 77 (C) 2370 (D) 240

10. If + is x,– is +, x is  and  is –, then what is the value of given equation
21 ÷ 8 + 2 – 12 × 3 = ?
(A) 14 (B) 9 (C) 13.5 (D) 11

11. If – means + means ×, ÷ means –,× means +, then which of the following equations is correct?
(A) 52  4 + 5 × 8 – 2 = 36 (B) 43 × 7  5 + 4 – 8 = 25
(C) 36 × 4 – 12 + 5  3= 420 (D) 36 – 12 × 6  3 + 3= 60

12. If + means ×, × means –, – means ÷ and ÷ means + then 18 ÷ 4 + 3 × 2 – 2 = ?
(A) 45 (B) 48 (C) 29 (D) 39

Directions : (13 to 15) Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. If ‘\$’ represents ‘+’,
‘,’ represents ‘–’, ‘#’ represents ‘×’ and ‘@’ represents ‘/’ then answer the following questions
based on the above given representation.
13. What is the value of 4 # 3 \$ 10 @ 5 \$ 8 # 2 , 18 ?
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 6.8 (D) 11.2

14. Which of the following has the value equivalent of 5 \$ 6 # 2 \$ 8 @ 4 ?
(A) 4 # 7 , 12 \$ 2 # 1 (B) 8 # 2 , 3 \$ 6 @ 3 (C) 8 @ 2 , 3 \$ 6 # 3 (D) 4 \$ 7 , 12 \$ 2 # 1

15. Which of the given values is greater than 7 \$ 3 , 2 \$ 12 @ 4 ?
(A) 4 # 3 \$ 6 @ 3 , 4 (B) 5 # 2 , 8 @ 4 \$ 3 # 3 , 7
(C) 6 # 3 , 18 @ 2 \$ 1 # 2 (D) 9 @ 3 \$ 6 # 2 , 2 # 1

DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION
Direction : (1 to 4) In the following questions, choose the words that show the same relationship as given
in the each questions.
1. Captain is related to Soldier in the same way as Leader is related to
(A) Follower (B) Party (C) Vote (D) Chair
2. ‘Dog’ is related to ‘Puppy’ in the same way as ‘Donkey’ is related to
(A) Foal (B) Colt
(C) Calf (D) Filly
3. Bank is related to 'Money' in the same way as 'Transport' is related
(A) Goods (B) Road (C) Terrace (D) Floor
4. 'Good' is related to 'Bad' in the same way as 'Roof' is related to:
(A) Wall (B) Pillar (C) Terrace (D) Floor
5. India Gate : Delhi : : _______ : _______
(A) Chicago : USA (B) Albany : New York (C) Agra : Taj Mahal (D) Chandigarh : Rock Garden
6. PUNJAB : AMRITSAR : : _____ : ______
(A) Golden Temple : Amritsar (B) Moscow : Russia
(C) India : Asia (D) Agra : Taj Mahal

7. 7584 : 4251 : : 4673 : ?
(A)1367 (B) 1340 (C)1531 (D) None of these

8. 1236 : 6321 : : 8251 : ?
(A) 1358 (B) 1628 (C) 1528 (D) 8152

Directions : (9 to 15) In the following questions, three out of the four alternatives are same in a certain
way and so form a group. Find the odd one that does not belong to the group.
9. (A) Huge (B) Tiny (C) Heavy (D) Small

10. (A) Silk (B) Cotton (C) Nylon (D) Wool

11. (A) Triangle (B) Tangent (C) Square (D) Rhombus

12. (A) Wool (B) Nylon (C) Jute (D) Cotton

13. (A) July (B) May (C) June (D) March

14. (A) Gold (B) Silver (C) Bronze (D) Zinc

15. (A) Society (B) Family (C) Church (D) Club

DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : FIGURE PARTITION, MIRROR AND WATER IMAGES & MISCELLANEOUS

1. What is the number of straight lines in the following figure ?

(A) 11 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 17

2. What is the number of rectangles in the following figure ?

(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

3. How many squares are there in the following figure ?

(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 15

4. Count the number of triangles and squares in the following figure ?

(A) 28 triangles, 10 squares (B) 28 triangles, 8 squares
(C) 32 triangles, 10 squares (D) 32 triangles, 8 squares

5. Count the number of squares in the following figure ?

(A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 30 (D) 55

Directions : (6 to 7) In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image from alternatives A,
B, C, and D of the figure (X).

6.
(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7.
(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (8 to 10) In each of the following question, a figure marked (X) is followed by four figures (A),
(B), (C) and (D) which show the possible water images of figure (X). Choose one out of these four
figures which shows the correct water image of the figure (X).

8.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

9.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (11 to 12) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative figure in which the
question figure (X) is embedded.

11.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

12.
(A) (C) (D)
(X) (B)

Directions : (13 to 15) Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X)
would complete the pattern.

13. ?
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

14.
?
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

?
15.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VII (ICSE)

AN SW ER K EY
DPP 1
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B A D B A B A B A

DPP 2
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. B D A A A B C B

DPP 3
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A A A D C C D A B

DPP 4
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D D A A C C A B B

DPP 5
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D C A A A A D D C

DPP 6
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A D B D A A D A B

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VII (ICSE)

DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A D A D C A A B C

DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B C C A B B B D A

DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C A B A B A A B D

DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C B B B B C C A B

DPP 5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D B C C A C D A B D

DPP 6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A C A B C D D C A

DPP 7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B C A D A B C B

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VII (ICSE)

DPP 1
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B C B B B A A D B

DPP 2
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A A D A C C C B A

DPP 3
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D A C B D C D C C

DPP 4
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D C B C B D B B A

DPP 5
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B D A D B C B C

DPP 6
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C C D C A D B D C D

DPP 7
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A A D B B A D A B

DPP 8
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A B A D C B D C A

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VII (ICSE)

DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B D B C A B C D D

DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B D B B D C A B

DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C B C B C C D C B

DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D C D D C A B B A

DPP 5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A C B B B C A C B

DPP 6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B A D A C B C A C

DPP 7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D A B A A C A C B C

DPP 8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D B D B A C D D C

(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VII (ICSE)

DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (A)
8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (C)
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D)
15. (D)
DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (C)
DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST

1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (D)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C)
15. (C)
DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : CODING-DECODING

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (D)
8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (B)
DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST

1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (D)
8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A)
15. (D)
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT & RANKING AND ORDERING TEST

1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 3. (C) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B)
15. (B)

DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C)
15. (D)
DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B)
8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (C)
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : FIGURE PARTITION, MIRROR AND WATER IMAGES & MISCELLANEOUS

1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (C)
8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C)
15. (D)