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SCIENCE

DPPS

CLASS-VIII (ICSE)

INDEX

PHYSICS - 01-18
CHEMISTRY - 19-36
BIOLOGY - 37-42

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
VIBRANT ACADEMY PHYSICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VIII (ICSE)
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : THE UNIVERSE

1. Write true or false. Rewrite the false statements correctly.
(a) Kilometer is a convenient unit for measuring distances in the universe.
(b) Mercury is seen in the sky just before the sunrise.
(c) The moon is not a luminous body.
(d) The sun is a glaring ball of gases, mostly hydrogen and helium.

2. Fill in the blanks:
(a) A group of stars forming a recognisable shape is known as___________
(b) ___________ is the only planet where life exists in our solar system
(c) ___________ are the building blocks of the universe.
(d) The temperature of the sun at the centre is ___________ °C.

3. Tick the correct answer:
(a) Pole star belongs to the constellation
(i) Ursa major (ii) Ursa minor (iii) Orion (iv) Scorpio

(b) The planet with rings around itself is
(i) Uranus (ii) Mercury (iii) Saturn (iv) Neptune

(c) India’s first satellite put in space was
(i) Bhaskara (ii) Aryabhatta (iii) Rohini (iv) INSAT-1A

(d) An instrument used to observe heavenly bodies is called
(i) Telescope (ii) Camera (iii) Microscope (iv) Periscope

4. Find the odd-one out. give reasons.
(a) Orion, Scorpio, Ursa Major, Pole Star
(b) Planet, Sun, Meteor, Comet
(c) Uranus, Moon, Mercury, Jupiter
(d) Uranus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn

5. What is the universe?

6. What is a solar system?

7. Who is the head of the family of the solar system?

8. What is photosphere?

9. Name the coldest planet.

10. Give the differences between a star and a planet.

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DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : THE UNIVERSE

1. Write true or false. Rewrite the false statements correctly.
(a) Ceres was the first asteroid discovered by an Italian scientist G. Piazzi.
(b) Meteros form craters on the surface of the earth
(c) Ursa Major is a constellation.
(d) A comet’s tail always points away from the sun.

2. Fill in the blanks:
(a ) __________ is the only planet which rotates on its axis from east to west.
(b ) __________ is a periodic comet.
(c) All stars except the __________ star appear to move from east to west.
(d) There are __________ constellations known so far.

3. Tick the correct answer:
(a) The streak of light caused by heavenly bodies burning completely while moving through the atmosphere is
called
(i) a comet (ii) a meteor (iii) an asteroid (iv) a meteorite

(b) Our solar system belongs to the
(i) Whirlpool galaxy (ii) Seyfert galaxy (iii) Milky way galaxy (iv) Radio galaxy

(c) The time taken by light to reach from the sun to the earth is
(i) 6 minutes 14 sec (ii) 8 minutes 20 sec (iii) 20 minutes 8 sec (iv) 14 minutes 6 sec

(d) The first satellite sent to space was
(i) Sputnik-I (ii) Aryabhatta (iii) Explorer (iv) INSAT-1A

4. Name five artificial satellites.

5. What is the relation between a light year and kilometers?

6. What is the true relationship between a light year and parsec?

7. How many stars are there in each galaxy?

8. How many galaxies are known?

9. Define the terms:
(a) Comet (b) Meteors (c) Meteorites (d) Asteroids

10. Difference between Classical & Dwarf planet.

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DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : LIGHT -1

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Sensation of sight is produced by___________.
(b) Light is a form of___________.
(c) Light travels in a straight line. This property of light is known as ___________ of light.

2. State whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) Light travels at a lower speed in water than in glass.
(b) Light travels in a straight line.
(c) Light travels in a straight line path while passing through different media.

3. Tick the correct answer:
(a) The speed of light in air or vacuum is
(i) 3 × 108m/s (ii) 2.25 × 108m/s (iii) 332m/s (iv) 2.8 × 108m/s

(b) The ray of light moving from an optically rare to denser medium
(i) Bends away from the normal (ii) Bends towards the normal
(iii) Remains un-deviated (iv) none of these

(c) The angle between the normal and refracted ray is called
(i) Angle of deviation (ii) Angle of incidence (iii) Angle of refraction (iv) none of these

4. Differentiate between:
(a) Reflection of light and refraction of light
(b) Angle of incidence and angle of refraction
(c) Incident ray and refracted ray
(d) Light travelling in air and light traveling in water.

5. A ray of light strikes the surface of mirror at an angle of 30º with the mirror. What is the angle of reflection?

6. Define refractive index, which medium will bend light more glass or water?

7. Draw a diagram to show a rod partly dipped in water appears to be bent at the surface of water.

8. A ray of light falls normally on the surface separating two media. Write the measure of the corresponding
angle of incidence.

9. In each case, given below. AB is the incident ray of light falling on the surface separating two media and MN
is the normal at point B. Draw for each diagram, the corresponding refracted ray.

10. The following diagram shows a ray OP falling on point P of a rectangular glass slab ABCD.

Complete the ray diagram till the ray emerges out of the glass slab. On the diagram, clearly label the incident
ray, the refracted ray and the emergent ray. Also, mark the angle of incidence, angle of refraction and angle
of emergence. Is there any relation between the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction? If so, write the
relation.
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DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : LIGHT -2

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Real image is obtained only in ___________ lens.
(b) Real and diminished image is formed in ___________ lens
(c) Convex lens is ___________ at the middle and ___________ at the edges.
(d) Concave lens is ___________ at the edges and ___________ at the middle.

2. State whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) A convex lens always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image when the object is placed in front of it.
(b) Concave lens is also called a converging lens.
(c) Divergent lens is a double concave lens.

3. Tick the correct answer:
Concave lens forms an image which is:
(i) always real and diminished (ii) real and of same size.
(iii) virtual and smaller in size (iv) virtual and enlarged image

4. Match the following:
Column-I Column-ll
(a) Position of image by a convex lens 1. Convex Lens
when object is placed at 2F
(b) Positions of image by a convex lens 2. At 2F
when object is beyond 2F
(c) Position of image by a concave lens 3. Between F and 2F on the other side
when object is beyond F
(d) A projector has 4. Between F and O on the same side

5. Refractive index of water with respect to air is 1.33. What will be the speed of light in water?

6. For each position of the object given below, draw a ray diagram showing the formation of image in a convex
lens when object is:
(a) beyond 2F (b) at 2F
(c) between 2F and F (d) between F and optical centre

7. What should be the position of an object placed before a convex lens, so that the image formed is erect and
enlarged? Draw a ray diagram in support of your answer. Is the image formed virtual or real?

8. Is there any method to find the approximate focal length of a convex lens? Describe the method.

9. State one use of a convex lens and one use of a concave lens.

10. State two differences between a convex lens and a concave lens.

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DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : LIGHT -3
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) ___________ lens is the lens which has one surface plane and the other concave.
(b) If the object is kept at the focal point of a convex lens, the image is formed at___________
(c) For a concave lens, the image formed is always ___________ irrespective of the position of object.
(d) ___________lens is a converging lens.
(e) Virtual and diminished image is formed in ___________ lens.
2. State whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) The lens which is thicker in the middle and thinner at the edges is called concave lens.
(b) A convex lens is used as a magnifying glass.
(c) The distance between focus and optical centre of a lenses is called its focal length.
3. Tick the correct answer:
(a) A transparent material bounded by two curved surfaces is called
(i) Mirror (ii) Lens (iii) Telescope (iv) Microscope

(b) A real, inverted and same size image is formed when object is placed at (for convex lens)
(i) 2F (ii) F (iii) Between F & 2F (iv) Infinity

(c) A Plano-concave lens has one face as concave and other face
(i) Convex (ii) Concave (iii) Plane (iv) None of these

4. What do you mean by refraction of light? In which direction will light bend when travelling from an optically
rarer to denser medium?

5. Why does a concave lens always form a virtual image of an object? Draw a diagram to illustrate this.

6. Why the part of the pencil immersed in water appears to be bent and thicker when viewed from sides?

7. What happens to the ray of light when it falls on the lens parallel to the principal axis?

8. Define in reference of a lens:
(a) centre of curvature (b) radius of curvature (c) principal axis (d) optical centre
(e) focus of a concave lens (f) focal length
9. In each case, given below, draw the refracted ray:

10. In each case given below, draw the corresponding incident ray:

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DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : LIGHT -4

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Between water and glass, ___________ is the denser medium.
(b) A band of seven colours formed by the dispersion of white light is called ___________.
(c) A rainbow is formed when tiny drops of water suspended in the air act as ___________.

2. State whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) The angle formed between the normal and the refracted ray is known as the angle of incidence.
(b) At the point of incidence, a line drawn at right angles to the surface, separating the two media, is called
the normal.
(c) Image are formed in a mirror due to refraction.

3. Tick the correct answer:
(a) The property of splitting of white light ray into its seven constituent colours is known as
(i) Spectrum (ii) Refractive index (iii) Reflection (iv) Dispersion

(b) For a white light ray, the colour which disperses the least is
(i) Violet (ii) Red (iii) Orange (iv) none of these

(c) Rainbow are formed due to
(i) Reflection of light (ii) Refraction of light
(iii) Dispersion of light (iv) Rectilinear propagation of light

4. (a) What do you mean by dispersion of light?
(b) What do you mean by spectrum?
(c) Draw a diagram to show the dispersion of white light through a water drop.

5. Define the following :
(a) Spectrum (b) Dispersion of white light

6. Draw a neat labelled diagram to show the path of a light ray through a prism. Show all the angles clearly in
the diagram.

7. Explain Newton’s colour disc. Which colour will be seen when Newton’s colour disc is rotated with a high
speed?

8. A band of seven colours are obtained when white light, after passing through a prism, falls on a screen. What
are these colours?

9. The following diagram shows a ray OP of white light falling on a prism ABC.

10. Complete the diagram till the ray, after passing through the prism, falls on the white screen. What is difference
between the displacement produced by a rectangular glass slab in a ray of light and the deviation produced
by a glass prism?
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DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : LIGHT -5

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The image formed by a magnifying glass is________________.
(b) The image formed by a camera is________________.
(c) The image formed by an eye is________________.
(d) In a simple microscope, object is placed between________and_________.
(e) The image formed in an eye is________________, whereas image formed in a camera is________________

2. State true or false. Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) A simple microscope is sometimes known as a reading glass also.
(b) The image formed by a magnifying glass is real and enlarged.
(c) While using a simple microscope, the object is kept between F and O.
(d) Compound microscope is used to see the objects at large distances.
(e) Image formed in a compound microscope is virtual and enlarged.

3. What is the power of accommodation of an eye?

4. What are the common defets of vision of a human eye? How these defects can be removed by spectales?

5. Write one similarity and one dissimilarity between an eye and a camera.

6. Name the parts marked A, B and C in the following diagram. What is the function of each part marked.

7. Write the function of (a) iris and (b) culinary muscles in the eye.

8. Compare the focusing in a camera with the focusing in a human eye.

9. Write short notes on the two defects of a human eye.

10. Distinguish between myopia and hypermetropia. Draw diagrams top show how these defects can be corrected
by using suitable lenses.

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DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : LIGHT -6

1. Fill in the blanks :
(a) Compound microscope is used to see __________
(b) A telescope is used to see __________
(c) __________ lens is used to correct myopia and __________ lens is used to correct hypermetropia.
(d) The lens used in a camera is __________
(e) Both the lenses used in a telescope are __________

2. State, true or false. Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) To observe celestial objects like moon, stars, etc., we use to telescope
(b) A telescope gives an inverted and diminished image of distant objects.
(c) To get the sharp images of the objects at different distances, the focal length of the eye-lens changes on
its own.
(d) To get the sharp images of the objects of different distances, the distance between the lens and the film
of a camera is adjusted.
(e) Short-sightedness means, the eye cannot see the near object clearly and long-sightedness means, the
eye cannot see the distant objects clearly.

3. What is meant by least distance of distinct vision? What is its value?

4. What controls the time of exposure?
(i) In eye (ii) In camera

5. In a camera, what is the function of each of the following?
(a) Focusing ring (b) Retina (c) Eye-lens

6. Write short notes on:
(a) Simple microscope (b) Compound microscope
(c) Telescope (d) Camera (e) Human-eye

7. Write the characteristics of the final image formed in a:
(a) Magnifying glass (b) Telescope (c) Compound microscope

8. What is the nature of the image formed by a microscope and a telescope?

9. By giving the different components involved in a microscope, explain how it forms enlarged image of very
small objects?

10. Write a short note on photographic camera.

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DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : HEAT

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Water is used in a hot water bottle for________
(b) Water is used as ________ in machines.
(c) ________ has highest specific heat capacity among liquids.
(d) The cold air moving from sea to land is called ________
(e) ________ is process just reverse of melting.

2. State, whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite correct statement if it is false.
(a) Boiling takes place at all temperatures.
(b) We feel refreshed under a tree during summers.
(c) Evaporation takes place over the entire mass of the liquid.
(d) Boiling water at 100°C produces more severe, burns than steam at 100°C.
(e) When heat energy is supplied to a substances its intermolecular space increases.

3. Tick the appropriate answer:
(a) The coolant used in machines is
(i) alcohol (ii) benzene (iii) water (iv) petrol

(b) The specific heat capacity of water is
(i) 4250J kg–1 °C–1 (ii) 4200J kg–1 °C–1 (iii) 5000J kg–1 °C–1 (iv) 4250J kg–1 °C–1

(c) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature through 1°C is called
(i) thermal energy (ii) calorie (iii) heat capacity (iv) specific heat capacity

(d) During land breeze, there is fall of pressure over the surface of
(i) land (ii) water (iii) air (iv) none of these

(e) The temperature at which a liquid gets converted into its vapour state is called its
(i) melting point (ii) boiling point (iii) dew point (iv) freezing point

4. What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 5kg of iron from 30°C to 130°C? Specific heat
capacity of iron = 483 J kg–1 °C–1.

5. A lead block of mass 2kg is supplied with a heat of 3600J. Calculate the rise ni temperature, if the specific
heat capacity of lead is 130 J kg–1 °C–1.

6. 400J of heat is required to raise the temperature of a certain mass of iron from 30°C to 35°C. Calculate the
mass of iron, if the specific heat of iron is 480 J kg–1 °C–1.

7. Define one kilocalorie. How is it related to Joules?

8. Express 336000 J in calories.

9. The specific heat capacity of water in 4200 J kg°C. What does this statement mean? Give specific heat
capacities of kerosene and mercury.
10. How does the high specific heat capacity of water help in the formation of land-breeze and sea-breeze?
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DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : HEAT

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) __________is process where a solid directly converts into gas.
(b) The amount of heat required by a unit mass of a substance to change its state without any rise in
temperature is called __________.
(c) The SI unit of specific heat capacity is __________
(d) The temperature at which a solid converts into a liquid is called its __________
(e) Evaporation occurs only from the __________ of the liquid.

2. State, whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite correct statement if it is false.
(a) According to principle of calorimetry, heat lost by the hot object is equal to the heat gained by the cold
object.
(b) In cold countries, juice bottles are kept in water to avoid their freezing.
(c) The climate on hill station remains moderate due to land breeze and mountain breeze.
(d) The unit of specific heat capacity is J kg–1 °C–1.
(e) The process of a gas converting into solid directly is called sublimation.

3. Tick the appropriate answer:
(a) Conversion of water into steam is an example of
(i) evaporation (ii) freezing (iii) melting (iv) vapourisation

(b) Evaporation takes place from
(i) Surface of liquid (ii) throughout the liquid
(iii) from the mid-portion of the liquid (iv) none of these

(c) Boiling takes place from
(i) surface of liquid (ii) throughout the liquid
(iii) from the mid-portion of the liquid (iv) none of these

(d) The unit of specific latent heat is
(i) J kg–1 °C–1 (ii) J/kg–1 °CCal (iii) J kg–1 (iv) none of these

4. Match the following:
Column-I Column-ll
(a) Specific latent heat of vapourisation of water 1. 483 J kg–1 –C–1
(b) Specific latent heat of fusion of ice 2. 100°C
(c) Boiling point of water 3. 0°C
(d) Melting point of ice 4. 2260000 J/kg–1
(e) Specific heat capacity of iron 5. 336000 J/kg–1

5. 2875 J of heat is required to melt 115g of lead at its melting point. Calculate the specific latent heat capacity
of fusion of lead.

6. Find the amount of heat energy liberated when 20g of steam at 100°C liquifies to form water at 100°C. Given,
specific latent heat of vapourisation of steam is 2260 J g–1.

7. How much mass of water at 100°C must be heated so as to form steam at 100°C when a burner supplies
67800 J of heat energy? Specific latent heat of vapourisation of water is 2260 Jg–1.

8. 2 litres of water at 80°C is found into a plastic bucket containing 10litres of water at 20°C. What is the final
temperature of water (Density of water 1 kg/litre), (neglect the heat gained by bucket and specific heat
capacity of water = 1 cal/gm°C).

9. Give three example from daily life to show that evaporation produces cooling effect.

10. What are conductors and insulators? Give examples. Why solids conduct heat better that liquids of gases?

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DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : MORE ABOUT ENERGY

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The work done by the moon in revolving around the earth is ____________
(b) A bent bow possesses ____________ energy.
(c) The total amount of energy possessed by a body always remains ____________

2. Write true or false for each statement. Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) A car and a truck travel with same velocity. Car has more kinetic energy.
(b) A position of climbing the stairs of a building is doing work.
(c) A man pushing a wall is doing work.
(d) A strong wind can turn the blades of a windmill.

3. Tick the appropriate answer:
(a) The S.I. unit of work is
(i) Newton (ii) erg (iii) Joule (iv) meter

(b) If you push a wall with a force of 50N, the work you do is
(i) 500 J (ii) 5000 J (iii) 50 J (iv) zero

(c) The capacity to do work by a body is called its
(i) power (ii) energy (iii) muscular energy

4. A body of mass ‘m’ is moving with a velocity ‘v’. What would be its change in kinetic energy if the velocity is
doubled?

5. Calculate the potential energy of a body of mass 15kg lifted to a height of 10metres (Take g = 10m/s2)

6. Calculate the height through which a body of mass 30kg can be lifted when 500 J of work is done on it (Take
g = 10ms/2)

7. What will happen to kinetic energy if the
(i) mass is doubled (ii) mass is made half (iii) velocity is doubled (iv) velocity is made half

8. What will happen to potential energy if the
(i) mass is doubled (ii) mass is made half (iii) height is doubled (iv) height is made half

9. Explain the energy charges that take place in:
(a) electric heater (b) electric bulb (c) electric fan (d) generator

10. What is the gain in potential energy in a body of mass 5kg lifting through a vertical height of 25 metres
(Take g = 10m/s2)

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DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : MORE ABOUT ENERGY

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) A microphone converts _____________ energy into _____________ energy
(b) If the mass of a moving object is doubled, its kinetic energy_____________
(c) The work done by the earth in moving round the sun is_____________
(d) _____________ is consumed whenever work is done.

2. Write true or false for each statement. Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) A stone thrown with a high speed has potential energy.
(b) A kerosene stove converts the chemical energy into light energy.
(c) The mechanical energy of a body is the difference of its K.E. and P.E.
(d) A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
(e) The amount of energy possessed by a body is equal to the amount of work it can do when that energy is
released.

3. Tick the appropriate answer:
(a) If the velocity of a body is decreased,
(i) kinetic energy remains same (ii) kinetic energy increases
(iii) kinetic energy decreases (iv) none of these

(b) In a compressed spring, energy is in the form of
(i) potential energy (ii) kinetic energy (iii) chemical energy (iv) sound energy

(c) The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called
(i) potential energy (ii) kinetic energy (iii) muscular energy (iv) none of these

4. Match the following:
Column-I Column-ll
(a) A cell (i) Electrical to sound
(b) An electric bulb (ii) Electrical to mechanical
(c) A mixer grinder (iii) Electrical to heat and light
(d) A loudspeaker (iv) Chemical to heat light and sound
(e) A fire cracker (v) Chemical to Electrical

5. What do you understand by:
(a) solar energy for cooking? (b) solar energy for heating?
(c) a solar cell? (d) wind energy?
(e) hydroelectricity? (f) biomass?
(g) biogas? (h) geothermal energy?
(i) nuclear fission?

6. (a) What is natural gas? Name two places where natural gas is found in India.
(b) Write the full form of : (i) LPG (ii) CNG

7. What is the vertical height through which a body is lifted to gain 80J of potential energy? The mass of the
body is 5kg. (Take g = 10m/s2)

8. Calculate the kinetic energy of a body of mass 30kg if it is moving with a velocity of 6m/s.

9. Calculate the potential energy of a body of mass 5kg placed at a height of 9metres. (Take g = 10m/s2)

10. A TV tower is 40m high. A mass of 5kg is dropped from its top. Calculate the potential energy at the top and
kinetic energy just before it hits the ground (Take g = 10m/s2)

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DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : STATIC ELECTRICITY

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) ___________ is a non-metal which is a good conductor of electricity.
(b) When a charged rod is touched with the brass cap of gold leaf electroscope, the leaves will ___________.
(c) We may charge an uncharged body by the method of ___________ or ___________
(d) ___________protects a building from damage caused by lightining.
(e) A gold leaf electroscope can be negatively charged by conduction by bringing ___________ rod in contact
with the brass cap.

2. State true or false for each statement and rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) The cap of gold leaf electroscope is made of copper.
(b) If a glass rod rubbed with silk is brought near the cap of a negatively charged electroscope, the divergence
of leaves will decrease.
(c) In induction, a positively charged body can make an uncharged body positively charged.
(d) A lighting conductor saves the building from lightning.
(e) A comb rubbed with hair and brought near pieces of paper attracts them, because both comb and paper
get similarly charged.

3. Tick the appropriate answer:
(a) Silver is a
(i) bad conductor of electricity (ii) good conductor of electricity
(iii) magnetic substance (iv) none of these

(b) Charging a conductor by bringing another charged conductor close to it is called
(i) Induction (ii) conduction (iii) convection (iv) radiation

(c) The factor responsible for charging a conductor is
(i) transfer of protons (ii) transfer of neutrons (iii) transfer of electrons (iv) none of these

(d) An atom with deficiency of electrons is
(i) positive ion (ii) negative ion (iii) neutral (iv) none of these

(e) If the charges are not allowed to flow, then it is called
(i) static electricity (ii) current electricity (iii) magnetism (iv) none of these

4. Match the column:
Column-I Column-ll
(a) Two dissimilar charges (i) negative charge
(b) Two similar charges (ii) repel
(c) Silver is a (iii) insulator
(d) Sulphur is an (iv) attract
(e) Ebonite rubbed with fur acquires (v) conductor

5. Describe a method of charging a conductor by conduction.

6. Draw a labelled diagram of a gold leaf electroscope and describe its construction.

7. What is a lightning conductor? How does it work?

8. What are free electrons?

9. What is the net charge in an atom?

10. A glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth and acquires a charge of +1.6 × 10–12C. What is the charge on the silk
cloth?

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DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : STATIC ELECTRICITY
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) One kilowatt hour is equal to ____________ Joules.
(b) A fuse wire should have low ____________.

2. Multiple Choice Question:
(a) Electrical work done per unit time is
(i) electrical energy (ii) electric current (iii) electrical circuit (iv) electrical power

(b) One kilowatt is equal to
(i) 100watts (ii) 1000 watts (iii) 10 watts (iv) none of these

(c) Fuse wire is an alloy of
(i) tin-lead (ii) copper-lead (iii) tin-copper (iv) lead-silver

(d) A fuse wire should have
(i) a low melting point (ii) high melting point
(iii) very high melting point (iv) none of these

(e) A bulb of 100 watt means, it will consume electrical energy at the rate of
(i) 100 joules per second (ii) 100 kJ per second
(iii) 1000 joules per second (iv) 100 joules per minute

3. State true or false for each statement and rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) SI unit and commercial unit of electrical energy has no connection between them.
(b) A fuse wire has a high melting point.
(c) Overloading of electric current circuits can lead to short circuiting.

4. 60J of work is done in flowing 12coulomb of positive charge between two points in an electric field. Find the
potential difference between these two points.

5. The following diagram shows two charged conductors A and B joined by a metallic wire.

If A is positively charged and B is negatively charged, state:
(a) the direction of flow of electrons. (b) the direction of flow of electric current.

6. An electric current of 12ampere flows through a conductorfor 15seconds. Find the amount of charge that
flows.

7. During how much time must a charge of 30 coulomb flow through a conductor to constitute a current of
1.5ampere?

8. How much work must be done in flowing 24 coulomb of positive charge between two points with potential
difference of 6 volt?

9. If 6 coulomb of charge flows through a conductor in 3seconds, find the strength of electric current.

10. A potential difference of 15 volt is applied across the terminals of a resistance of 6 ohm. Find the current
through the resistance.

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DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : STATIC ELECTRICITY
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) When a short-circuit takes place, the fuse wire ___________ and breaks the
(b) The electric meters in our house measure the electrical energy in ___________
2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) Electric current is the flow of
(i) Protons (ii) electrons (iii) neutrons (iv) none of these
(b) Current is measured in
(i) joules (ii) watts (iii) volts (iv) amperes
(c) Potential difference is measured in
(i) joules (ii) volts (iii) watts (iv) amperes
(d) The unit for resistance is
(i) amperes (ii) joules (iii) volts (iv) Ohms
(e) All wires used in electric circuits should be covered with
(i) a colouring material (ii) a conducting material
(iii) an insulating material (iv) none of these
3. State true or false for each statement and rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) Flow of protons constituents an electric current.
(b) Resistance is the obstruction to the flow of current.
4. Match the following:
Column - I Column - ll
(a) Electric power (i) Volt
(b) Resistance (ii) Joule
(c) Current (iii) coulomb
(d) Electrical charge (iv) watt
(e) Electric charge (v) ampere
(f) Potential difference (vi) ohm.
5. An electrical appliances is rated as 400W-200W.
(i) What do you understand by this statement?
(ii) How much current will flow through the appliance when is use?
(iii) Calculate the resistance of the appliance.
6. (a) What do you understand by the heating effect of current? Name three factors on which the heat produced
in a conductor depends.
(b) An electric iron of power 1.5kW is used for 30minutes. Calculate the electrical energy consumed
(i) kilowatt-hour (ii) joule
7. Find the equivalent resistance when three resistances of 4ohm, 6ohm and 12ohm are connected in:
(a) parallel (b) series
8. An electric current of 1.5ampere flows through a conductor of 16ohm for 5minutes. Calculate:
(a) the heat energy produced (b) the electrical energy consumed (c) the power developed
9. An electrical appliance is rated as 60W-150V.
(a) What do you understand by this statement?
(b) How much current will flow through the appliance when in use?
(c) Calculate the resistance of the appliance.
10. In each of the following cases, find the total resistance between A and B.

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DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : MAGNETISM

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) ____________ is the sure test of magnetism
(b) ____________ cannot be isolated from a magnet.
(c) Magnetic lines of forces due to a bar magnet are directed from __________ pole to the__________ pole.
(d) The south pole of the earth’s magnet is near the geographic ____________ .

2. State true or false for each statement and rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) Poles can be separated from a magnet.
(b) Two magnetic lines of forces in a magnetic field can intersect each other.
(c) The direction of magnetic field at all points near a bar magnet is the same.

3. Tick the appropriate answer:
(a) Earth’s magnet has its south pole situated near the
(i) geographic north (ii) geographic south (iii) geographic west (iv) geographic east

(b) An example of natural magnet is
(i) iron (ii) steel (iii) lodestone (iv) none of these

(c) The magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet are
(i) continuous and intersecting (ii) discontinuous and non-intersecting
(iii) continuous and non-intersecting (iv) continuous and crowded at the middle of the magnet.

4. Match the column:
Column-I Column-ll
(a) Earth behaves like a (i) never intersect
(b) Freely suspended magnet (ii) rests in N-S direction
(c) Magnetic lines of force (iii) magnet

5. One of the two rods, identical in shape, is a magnet and the other is of soft iron. How will you distinguish
them?

6. How can a bar magnet be used to know the north-south direction of a place?

7. Will a magnetic compass needle, placed near a bar magnet, rest in north-south direction? Explain. State two
properties of magnetic lines.

8. State two properties of magnetic lines.

9. How will you use a bar magnet and some iron filings to obtain the magnetic lines?

10. Describe:
(a) a magnetic compass (b) magnetic field (c) magnetic lines (d) earth’s magnet

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DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : MAGNETISM

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) On passing electric current through a wire, ________ field is developed around it.
(b) The direction of magnetic field developed around a current carrying conductor depends on ________
whereas its strength depends on ________
(c) A freely suspended current carrying coil behaves like a________, ________and always rests in________
direction.
(d) A transformer works on the principle of________

2. Write true or false for each statement, Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) To make an electromagnet, a coil of insulated copper wire is wound over a soft iron rod.
(b) In a U-shaped electromagnet, north pole and south pole cannot be obtained
(c) An electromagnet cannot be used to separate iron from the mixture of copper, iron and stainless steel.
(d) Electric bell is the most common example in which magnetic effect of current is used.

3. Tick the appropriate answer:
(a) Around a current carrying conductor, there is:
(i) a magnetic field (ii) an electric field (iii) both (i) and (ii) (iv) no magnetic field

(b) The end of a current carrying coil at which the current is in anticlockwise direction, behave as:
(i) north-pole (ii) south-pole (iii) neutral point (iv) none of these

(c) If one end of current carrying coil behaves as south pole, the current in the coil is in:
(i) anti-clockwsie direction (ii) clockwise direction
(iii) straight line (iv) direction cannot be known

(d) An electric motor converts:
(i) potential energy into kinetic energy (ii) kinetic energy into electrical energy
(iii) electrical energy into mechanical (iv) potential energy into mechanical energy

4. What energy change does take place in:
(a) an electric motor (b) a dynamo

5. How will you show that magnet produces directive property?

6. Explain an electromagnet. What are the materials used for making its core and its coil?

7. Draw a labelled diagram of a U-shaped electromagnet.

8. Name two factors on which the strength of magnetic field of an electromagnet depends.

9. By drawing a labelled diagram of an electric bell, explain its working.

10. How will you use the right hand thumb rule to find the direction of magnetic field developed around a current
carrying conductor?

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DPP NO. 18
TOPIC : MAGNETISM

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) the direction of magnetic field developed around, a straight current carrying conductor can be obtained by
____________ rule.
(b) The right hand screw rule is used to find ____________
(c) ____________ converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
(d) ____________ transformer is used to convert 230V into 180V.

2. Write true or false for each statement, Rewrite the false statement correctly.
(a) Charge at rest has a magnetic field developed around it.
(b) The end of a current carrying coil, which has current in the clockwise direction, acts as north pole.
(c) When a closed coil and a magnet move together in such a way that the distance between them does not
change, then no current will be induced in the coil.
(d) In an electric motor, a closed coil is rotated speedly in a magnetic field to get current.
(e) In a transformer, the primary coil converts electrical energy into magnetic energy and the secondary coil
converts magnetic energy into electrical energy.

3. Tick the appropriate answer:
(a) A dynamo works on the principle of:
(i) magnetic effect of current
(ii) electromagnetic induction
(iii) force on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
(iv) none of these

(b) The primary coil of a transformer:
(i) is connected to an A.C. source (ii) connected to a D.C. source
(iii) converts A.C. into D.C. (iv) none of these

(c) If the number of turns in the primary coil of a transformer is more than the number of turns in its secondary
coil, then the transformer gives out:
(i) higher voltage (ii) lower voltage (iii) same voltage (iv) none of these

(d) In order to convert 160volt into 220volt, we use:
(i) step-down transformer(ii) a dynamo (iii) an electric motor (iv) step-up transformer

4. Write short on:
(a) an electromagnet (c) a dynamo (b) an electric motor (d) a transformer
In each case, draw a labelled diagram also.

5. How will you test whether a given rod is a magnet or not?

6. A current carrying solenoid is freely suspended. In which direction will it rest? Give reason for your answer.

7. Why does a freely suspended magnet always rests in north-south direction?

8. What is the use of a transformer? Name two types of transformer.

9. How is alternating current different from direct current?

10. Why does a compass needle placed near a current carrying conductor show deflection?
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VIBRANT ACADEMY CHEMISTRY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VIII ICSE

DPP : 01
TOPIC : MATTER
1. The smell of perfume spreads out by a process known as -
(A) evaporation (B) diffusion (C) condensation (D) fusion

2. When a crystal of potassium permanganate is placed at the bottom of water in a beaker, the water in
the whole beaker turns purple on its own, even without stirring. This is an example of-
(A) Distribution (B) intrusion (C) diffusion (D) effusion

3. Ice floats on the surface of water because -
(A) it is heavier than water. (B) the density of both water and ice is the same.
(C) ice is lighter than water (D) none of the above

4. Which of the following is not a matter?
(A) Water (B) Heat (C) Steel (D) Kerosene

5. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Evaporation is a surface phenomenon.
(B) Evaporation takes place at all temperatures.
(C) The temperature of a boiling liquid remains constant.
(D) Boiling of a liquid involves formation of bubbles only at the surface of the liquid.

6. As the pressure of air decreases, the boiling point of liquid ............?
(A) increase (B) decreases (C) remains fixed (D) none of these

7. Motion of pollen grains in water is an example of –
(A) Evaporation (B) Diffusion (C) Brownian Motion (D) Fusion

8. The slowest process is -
(A) evaporation (B) vaporization (C) boiling (D) melting

9. Melting points of solids A,B,C and D are 300ºC, 800ºC, 500ºC and 600ºC respectively. The solid which
is expected to have strongest forces of attraction between its constituent particles is-
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

10. The inter conversion involved in usage of "odonil" in wash room is ……………. .
(A) Sublimation (B) deposition (C) melting (D) freezing

11. What do you understand by the term ‘latent heat’? What are the two types of latent heat?

12. A sample of water under study was found to boil at 102ºC at normal temperature and pressure. Is the
water pure or not?

13. Doctors advice to put strips of wet cloth on the forehead of a person having high fever. Why?

14. What do you mean by Kinetic Theory of Matter? State the main Postulates.

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15. Explain Gaseous state on the basis of Kinetic Theory.
Extra Question
1. Which of the following substance in the gaseous state may be called a vapor?
(A) Sulphur (B) CO2 (C) Helium (D) Nitrogen
2. Which of these choices will not change the state of matter?
(A) Temperature (B) Crushing a crystal (C) Pressure (D) Electricity
3. At a temperature less than critical temperature, to liquefy a gas -
(A) lower is the temperature required (B) higher is the pressure required
(C) lower is the pressure required (D) higher is the temperature required
4. In an experiment of conversion of ice into water and water into vapor, observations were recorded and
a graph plotted for temperature against time as shown below. From the graph it cannot be concluded
that -
Temp.

Vaporisation
100ºC
Boiling
0ºC Melting
Time
(A) ice takes time to heat up to 0ºC
(B) during melting and boiling temperature does not rise
(C) process of boiling takes lesser time than the process of melting
(D) process of boiling takes longer time than the process of melting

5. Read the given statement and mark the correct option.
Statement-1 : In polar regions aquatic life is safe in water under frozen ice.
Statement-2 : Water has a high latent heat of fusion and the upper portion of ice does not allow the
heat of the water to escape to the surroundings.
(A) Both statement 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statement 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

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DPP : 02
TOPIC : PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES
1. Which one of the step while burning a candle is not reversible?
(A) Melting of solid wax (B) Liquid wax changes into vapours
(C) Wax vapour burn into flame (D) All of these

2. Which of the following changes cannot be reversed?
(A) Milk to paneer (B) Cold milk to hot milk
(C) Yarn to knitted sweater (D) Wet clothes to dry clothes

3. Rusting is a -
(A) slow process (B) fast process (C) very fast process (D) none of these

4. During all changes physical or chemical changes mass is
(A) gained (B) conserved (C) loss (D) none of these

5. Melting of wax is a................. change while burning of candle is .................. change.
(A) irreversible, reversible (B) reversible, irreversible
(C) physical, reversible (D) chemical, irreversible

6. Bursting of cracker is a –
(A) Slow change (B) Fast change (C) Periodic change (D) none of these

7. Which of the following changes include formation of new substances?
(A) Melting (B) Sublimation (C) Evaporation (D) Rusting

8. A change in which one or new substances are formed is called -
(A) chemical change (B) physical change (C) corrosion (D) all of the above

9. Earthquakes is an example of –
(A) periodic change (B) non-periodic change
(C) both periodic & non-periodic change (D) none of these

10. Favorable conditions for a chemical reaction may be-
(i) When the reactants come in close contact.
(ii) When the reactants are heated.
(iii) When the reactants are exposed to light.
(iv) When the reactants are subjected to pressure.
(v) When a catalyst is used the same chemical reaction takes place at a faster rate
(A) i, ii and iii (B) ii, iii and iv (C) ii, iv and v (D) all five options

11. What are the main characteristics of chemical change?

12. Explain why:
(i) Printing is an irreversible change.
(ii) Ironing of cloth is reversible change.
(iii) Melting of wax is a reversible change.

13. Differentiate between reversible and irreversible change.

14. Give two examples of natural change and man-made change ?

15. What are the main characteristics of physical change?

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Extra Question
1. For rusting the essential component is -
(A) oxygen (B) water (C) carbon (D) both oxygen and water
2. Change of day and night is an example of –
(A) periodic change (B) non-periodic change
(C) both periodic & non-periodic change (D) none of these
3. A ..................................... speeds up a chemical reaction.
(A) reactant (B) product (C) catalyst (D) none of these
4. Slice of apple are kept for sometime acquire a brown color.
This change is mainly due to -
(A) physical change (B) chemical change (C) crystallization (D) none of these
5. Why rusting is faster in coastal areas than in deserts?
(A) Because air has more moisture in coastal areas than in desert areas.
(B) Because air has less moisture in coastal areas than in desert areas.
(C) None of these
(D) Both (A) and (B)

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DPP : 03
TOPIC : ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS & MIXTURES

1. Smallest particle of an element that take part in a chemical reaction is -
(A) Molecule (B) Matter (C) Atom (D) Symbol

2. Mixture is a :
(A) Pure substance (B) Impure substance (C) Both(A) & (B) (D) None

3. Tea is a
(A) Mixture (B) Element (C) Compound (D) Molecule

4. Sand from water is separated by
(A) Sieving (B) evaporation
(C) distillation (D) sedimentation & decantation

5. Separating cream from milk is done by
(A) Centrifugation (B) threshing (C) distillation (D) diffusion

6. Separating the mixture of milk and cooking oil is done through-
(A) centrifugation (B) separating funnel (C) distillation (D) chromatography

7. Which non-metals have semi-conductor property?
(A) Boron (B) Carbon (C) Silicon (D) Magnesium

8. Which of the following is not a noble gas?
(A) Helium (B) Neon (C) Argon (D) Nitrogen

9. Which element exists in diatomic state?
(A) Oxygen (B) Sulphur (C) Helium (D) Ozone

10. A mixture of sodium chloride and calcium carbonate is separated by
(A) Sieving (B) sublimation
(C) separating funnel (D) solvent extraction method

11. What do you mean by Pure substance? Give two examples.

12. Classify elements

13. Differentiate between:
(A) compound and mixture.
(B) homogeneous & heterogeneous mixture

14. What do you mean by chromatography? Describe paper chromatography.

15. What are the various ways to separate a gas- gas mixture? Discuss in detail.

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Extra Question
1. We can obtain sugar from sugar solution by
(A) filtration (B) evaporation (C) sedimentation (D) decantation
2. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and water can be separated by
(A) Fractional distillation (B) evaporation
(C) separating funnel (D) solvent extraction method
3. ..................................... is a technique used to separate the components of a mixture on the basis of
differences between two phases, one of which is stationary is-
(A) solvent extraction method (B) evaporation
(C) chromatography (D) none of these
4. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?
(A) N (B) C (C) As (D) P
5. What is correct for noble gases?
(A) It reacts with all elements (B) It reacts only with Metals
(C) It reacts only with non-metals (D) It does not react chemically with other elements.

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DPP : 04
TOPIC : ATOMIC STRUCTURE

1. The nucleus of the atom consists of -
(A) Proton and neutron (B) Proton and electron
(C) Neutron and electron (D) Proton, neutron and electron

2. Who discovered neutron?
(A) James Chadwick (B) William Crooks (C) J.J. Thomson (D) Rutherford

3. Plum Pudding Model is given by –
(A) Rutherford (B) William Crooks (C) J.J. Thomson (D) Berzelius

4. Protons, neutrons and electrons are collectively called as –
(A) Nucleons (B) Sub-atomic particles (C)molecules (D) none

5. Atomic No. is equal to –
(A) no. of nucleons (B) no. of protons (C) no. of neutrons (D) none

6. Electronic configuration of Si is -
(A) 2, 8, 2 (B) 2, 8, 4 (C) 2, 8, 3 (D) 2, 8, 5

7. Mass number of three elements A, B and C are 35, 37 and 39 respectively. The number of neutrons in
A, B and C are 18, 20 and 20 respectively. Which two elements will show similar chemical properties?
(A) A and B (B) B and C (C) C and A (D) None of these

8. Which of the following is -particle?
(A) H+ (B) He2+ (C) He+ (D) He2+

9. What is the number of valence electrons of an element having atomic number 11?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 9

10. Cathode rays are deflected towards
(A) positive electrode (B) negative electrode (C) both electrodes (D)none of the electrodes

11. Explain the reason for chemical reactivity of an atom with reference to its electronic configuration.

12. Four elements A, B, C and D are given
A shows the presence of 20 neutrons, 17 protons and 17 electrons.
B shows the presence of 18 neutrons, 17 protons and 17 electrons.
C shows the presence of 10 neutrons, 9 protons and 10 electrons.
D shows the presence of 4 neutrons, 3 protons and 2 electrons.
State which of the above is
(a) an anion (b) a cation (c) a pair of isotopes
Also write the formula of the compound formed between D and C.

13. What was Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment? What were his observations and
conclusions?

14. Define the following terms:
(a) isotopes. (b) Atomic No. (c) Mass No. (d) Valency

15. Explain the rule with example according to which electrons are filled in various energy levels.

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Extra question
1. Read the given statement and mark the correct option.
Statement-1 : Atomic weight is a non-zero positive whole number.
Statement-2 : Protons are positively charged particles.
(A) Both statement 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statement 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

2. In the Thomson's model of atom, which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) the mass of the atom is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the atom
(ii) the positive charge is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the atom
(iii) the electrons are uniformly distributed in the positively charged sphere
(iv) the electrons attract each other to stabilise the atom
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

3. The atomic number of an ion is equal to the number of -
(A) Electrons or protons (B) Electrons or neutrons
(C) Only protons (D) Protons or neutrons

4. Atomic models have been improved over the years. Arrange the following atomic models in the order of
their chronological order -
(i) Rutherford's atomic model
(ii) Thomson's atomic model
(iii) Bohr's atomic model
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (i) (C) (ii), (i) and (iii) (D) (iii), (ii) and (i)

5. Complete the following statements:
(i) The sum of number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is known as ------- of the atom.
(ii) Isotopes have same ………….number but different …………. number.
(iii) Isobars have same …………. number but different …………. number.
(iv) …………. contain same number of neutrons in their atoms.
(v) An atom of an element having 11 protons, 11 electrons and 12 neutrons, the atomic mass of the
atom would be ………….

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DPP : 05
TOPIC : LANGUAGE OF CHEMISTRY
1. The mass of neutron is–
(A) negligible as compared to that of proton and electron
(B) Approximately equal to the mass of a proton
(C) Approximately equal to the mass of an electron
(D) None of the above

2. According to Dalton’s atomic theory atoms of different elements are –
(A) Different (B) Identical (C) Similar (D) None of these

3. Latin name of mercury element is–
(A) Argentum (B) Ferrum (C) Stannum (D) Hydragyrum

4. Protons, neutrons and electrons are collectively called as –
(A) Nucleons (B) Sub-atomic particles (C) molecules (D) none

5. An atom consists of an equal number of ........................................ and........................................
(A) Electrons and protons (B) Electrons and neutrons
(C) Neutrons and protons (D) None of these

6. Maximum electrons that can be accommodated in N Shell –
(A) 8 (B) 2 (C) 16 (D) 32

7. The molecular formula of baking soda is-
(A) NaHCO3 (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaOH (D) CaCO3

8. Who laid the foundation of language of chemistry -
(A) Mendal (B) Lavoisier (C) Asphalt (D) J.J. Berzelius

9. Symbol for Chromium is –
(A) Ch (B) Cl (C) Cr (D) None of these

10. The molecular formula of magnesium chloride is-
(A) MgCl (B) Mg2Cl (C) MgCl2 (D) MgCO3

11. Give symbols and valencies of the following radicals –
(A) Ammonium (B) sulphate (C) bisulphate (D) acetate

12. Define:
(A) Valency (B) Radical (C) Valence shell (D) Symbol of an element

13. What is a chemical equation? Why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation?

14. Differentiate between a balanced & an unbalanced equation.

15. The number of electrons, protons and neutrons in a species are equal to 18, 16 and 16 respectively.
Assign the proper symbol to the species.

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Extra Question
1. Write balanced chemical equations for the following word equations –
(A) Reaction between hydrogen and chlorine to form hydrogen chloride.
(B) Magnesium burns in oxygen to give magnesium oxide.
(C) Reaction between iron and sulphur to produce iron (II) sulphide on heating.
(D) Burning of coal in air to produce carbon-di-oxide.
2. Symbol for Potassium is –
(A) P (B) K (C) Po (D) Ka
3. The molecular formula of marble is-
(A) NaHCO3 (B) Na2CO3 (C) Ca(OH)2 (D) CaCO3
4. The symbol of gold is -
(A) G (B) Au (C) Go (D) Ag
5. Balance the following equations-
(A) N2 + H2  NH3 (B) Zn + HCl  ZnCl2 + H2
(C) Na2O + H2O  NaOH (D) Fe + Cl2  FeCl3

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DPP : 06
TOPIC : CHEMICAL REACTIONS

1. In the equation, a Al + bH2SO4 cAl2(SO4)3 + dH2
a, b, c, d are respectively -
(A) 2, 3, 1, 1 (B) 2, 3, 1, 3 (C) 2, 3, 2, 3 (D) 2, 2, 3, 3
2. Which of the following is a decomposition reaction?
(A) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O (B) NH4CNO H2NCOONH2
(C) 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2 (D) H2 + I2 2HI
3. Which of the following chemical equations is an unbalanced one?
(A) 2NaHCO3  Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2 (B) 2C4H10 + 12O2  8CO2 + 10H2O
(C) 2Al + 6H2O  2Al(OH)3 + 3H2 (D) 4NH3 + 5O2  4NO + 6H2O
4. Symbol  used while representing some chemical changes stands for -
(A) light (B) heat (C) catalyst (D) pressure
5. Which of the following reactions involves the combination of two elements?
(A) CaO + CO2  CaCO3 (B) 4Na + O2  2Na2O
1
(C) SO2 + O2  SO3 (D) NH3 + HCl  NH4Cl
2
6. Reaction of phosphorus and oxygen is an example of
(A) oxidation (B) reduction (C) rancidity (D) none of these
7. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to zinc pieces taken in a test tube
(A) no change takes place
(B) the color of the solution becomes yellow
(C) a pungent smelling gas gets liberated
(D) small bubbles of hydrogen gas appear on the surface of zinc pieces
8. Plastic bags containing potato chips are filled with an antioxidant, known as
(A) oxygen (B) nitrogen (C) hydrogen (D) carbon monoxide
9. In the balanced equation Na2CO3 + xHCl  2NaCl + CO2 + H2O. The value of x is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
10. AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq)  AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq). Above reaction is
(A) Precipitation reaction (B) Double Displacement reaction
(C) Combination reaction (D) A and B both
11. How do the following help in bringing about a chemical change ? Explain each with a suitable
example
(A) pressure (B) light (C) catalyst (D) heat
12. (a) Define catalyst.
(b) What are (i) positive catalysts and (ii) negative catalysts? Support your answer with one
example for each of them.
(c) Name three biochemical catalysts found in the human body.
13. Explain the following types of chemical reactions given two examples for each of them:
(a) combination reaction (b) decomposition reaction
(c) displacement reaction (d) double displacement reaction
(e) endothermic reaction
14. What do you observe when
(a) Iron nail is kept in copper sulphate solution for sometime.
(b) Phenolphthalein is added to sodium hydroxide solution
(c) Blue litmus paper is dipped in dilute hydrochloric acid.
(d) Lead nitrate is heated.
(e) Magnesium ribbon is burnt in oxygen.
(f) Ammonia is brought in contact of hydrogen chloride gas.
15. What is meant by metal reactivity series? State its importance.

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Extra Question
1. Neutralization reaction is an example of
(A) Exothermic reaction (B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Oxidation (D) None of these

2. Which of the following are exothermic processes?
(i) Reaction of water with quick lime (ii) Dilution of an acid
(iii) Evaporation of water (iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals).
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)

3. Which one of the following reaction will not take place ?
(A) Zn + FeSO4   ZnSO4 + Fe (B) 2 Al + 3 MgSO4 
 Al2(SO4)3 + 3 Mg
(C) Fe + NiSO4 
 FeSO4 + Ni (D) Cu + 2 AgNO3 
 Cu(NO3)2 + 2 Ag

4. Soluble bases are called as …………………
(A) Base (B) Acid (C) Salt (D) Alkali

5. When a bee stings, it injects which liquid in the skin?
(A) Acetic acid (B) Formic Acid (C) Baking soda (D) Milk of magnesia

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DPP : 07
TOPIC : HYDROGEN

1. Hydrogen is a ……………………. gas.
(A) colourless (B) odourless (C) tasteless (D) All of these

2. A metal which reacts with cold water to produce hydrogen –
(A) Copper (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) Sodium

3. Reduction is-
(A) The removal of hydrogen (B) The removal of oxygen
(C) The addition of hydrogen (D) Both (B) & (C)

4. Hydrogen turns
(A) blue litmus to red (B) red litmus to blue (C) both (D) None of these

5. The process in which vanaspati ghee is prepared from vegetable oils is-
(A) Dehydrogenation (B) Hydrogenation (C) Decomposition (D) Double displacement

6. Hydrogen is
(A) combustible (B) non- combustible
(C) supporter of combustion (D) None of these

7. The only non-metal placed in the metal reactivity series is-
(A) Carbon (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen

8. Hydrogen burns in air to produce-
(A) Hydrogen chloride (B) Water (C) H2O2 (D) Does not react

9. The process in which hydrogen is removed is called as –
(A) Redox (B) Hydrogenation (C) Reduction (D) Oxidation

10. The chief sources of hydrogen are –
(A) Acid (B) Water (C) Alkalis (D) All of the above

11. Define :
(a) catalytic hydrogenation (b) oxidation
(c) reduction (d) redox reaction

12. Give reasons for the following:
(a) Hydrogen can be used as a fuel.
(b)Though hydrogen is lighter than air it cannot be collected by down ward displacement of air.
(c) A pop sound is produced when hydrogen gas is burnt.
(d) Helium has replaced hydrogen in weather observation balloons.
(e) Nitric acid is not used for the preparation of hydrogen gas.

13. (a) Name the chemicals required to prepare hydrogen gas in the laboratory.
(b) Give a balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
(c) Draw a neat and well-labelled diagram for the laboratory preparation of hydrogen.
(d) How is hydrogen gas collected? Why?

14. How would you show that hydrogen:
(a) is non-supporter of combustion? (b) is lighter than air?

15. (a) Name a process by which hydrogen gas is manufactured.
(b) Give equation for the reactions
(c) How is hydrogen separated from carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide?

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Extra Question
1. Commercially hydrogen is produced by –
(a) Born Haber cycle (b) Decomposition of Water
(c) Bosch process (d) All of the above

2. Water gas is a mixture of –
(a) CO+ H2 (b) CO+ O2 (c) H2 + O2 (d) None of the above

3. Oxy-hydrogen flame is used for –
(a) Cutting & welding metals (b) Melting metals
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above

4. CuO + H2 is an example of
(a) Redox reaction (b) Hydrogenation reaction
(c) Reduction reaction (d) Oxidation reaction

5. Complete and balance the following equations –
(a) H2 + .........  2HI (b) Zn + ……..  ZnCl2 + H2
(c) K + H2O  ……..+ …….. (d) CuO + …….  Cu + ……..

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DPP : 08
TOPIC : WATER

1. Two gases found dissolved in natural water are
(A) oxygen and carbon dioxide (B) hydrogen and oxygen
(C) sulphur dioxide and hydrogen (D) chlorine and ammonia

2. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by
(A) filtering (B) boiling (C) loading (D) none of the above

3. The source of purest form of water on the earth is
(A) oceans and seas (B) spring and wells (C) rivers and lakes (D) rain

4. Colloids have the particle size range between
(A) 10–7 to 10–10 m (B) 10–10 to 10–12 m (C) 10–7 to 10–5 (D) 10–12 to 10–15m

5. Water is added to the atmosphere by –
(A) Evaporation from ocean, seas, etc
(B) Respiration by all living organisms
(C)Transpiration by plants
(D) All of the above

6. ………………….proved that water is a compound.
(A) Dalton (B) Cavendish (C) Berzelius (D) none of the above

7. The chemical name of water is –
(A) dihydrogen monoxide
(B) hydrogen dioxide
(C) dihydrogen dioxide
(D) none of the above

8. Pick from the following one chemical used to disinfect water.
(A) Chlorine (B) Washing soda (C) Silica (D) Coal

9. In a filtration plant water is filtered using layers of -
(A) sand and clay (B) clay and fine gravel
(C) sand and fine gravel (D) sand, fine gravel and medium gravel

10. Which of the following is not a source of waste water?
(A) Sewers (B) Homes (C) Industries (D) Hospitals

11. Explain the terms :
(c) Solution (b) Solute (c) Solvent (d) Soft water
(e) Hard water

12. Differentiate between :
(a) Solution and suspension (b) Suspension and colloid

13. Define 'water of crystallisation'. Give two examples with formulae.

14. Give reason:
(a) Silica gel pouches are kept in unused water bottles.
(b) Table salt becomes moist during rainy season.

15. What are the main causes of water pollution? How cant it be controlled?

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Extra Question
1. Sewage is mainly a -
(A) liquid waste (B) solid waste (C) gaseous waste (D) mixture of solid and gas

2. ................ is called as triple point
(A) 25ºC (B) 100ºC (C) 0ºC (D) 50

3. The solubility of a gas in water ........... with rise in temperature and ........... with rise in pressure.
(A) increase, increase (B) increase, decrease (C) decrease, decrease (D) decrease, increase

4. Water turns the colour of anhydrous copper sulphate ................
(A) Blue (B) White (C) Green (D) Brown

5. Open drain system is a breeding place for which of the following -
(A) Flies (B) Mosquitoes
(C) Organisms which cause diseases (D) All of these

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DPP : 09
TOPIC : CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

1. In combined state, carbon occurs as
(A) coal (B) diamond (C) graphite (D) petroleum

2. A crystalline form of carbon is
(A) lamp black (B) gas carbon (C) sugar (D) fullerene

3. Graphite is not found in
(A) Bihar (B) Maharashtra (C) Orissa (D) Rajasthan

4. Diamond is used for
(A) making the electrodes of electric furnaces.
(B) making crucible for melting metals.
(C) cutting and drilling rocks and glass.
(D) making carbon brushes for electric motors.

5. The process by which decayed plants slowly convert into coal is called
(A) petrification (B) carbonisation
(C) carbonification (D) fermentation

6. The hardest naturally occurring substance is-
(A) coal (B) graphite (C) diamond (D) none of these

7. A greyish black non-metal that is a good conductor of electricity.
(A) coal (B) graphite (C) diamond (D) none of these

8. The third crystalline form of carbon
(A) coal (B) coke
(C) charcoal (D) buckminster-fullerene

9. All organic compound essentially contain ..................... as a substituent
(A) Carbon (B) Oxygen (C) Hydrogen (D) none of these

10. Example of organic compound is –
(A) CO2 (B) CO (C) C4H10 (D) CaCO3

11. Answer the following questions:
(a) Why is graphite a good conductor of electricity but not diamond?
(b) Why is diamond very hard?
(c) What are fullerenes? Name the most common fullerene.
(d) What impurity is present in black diamond?

12. What is destructive distillation? What are the products formed due to the destructive distillation of coal?

13. Why is wood charcoal used in water filters and gas masks?

14. What is a fire extinguisher? What is the substance used in the modern type of fire extinguisher? How is
it an improvement over the soda acid-type and the foam-type fire extinguishers?

15. Explain the term 'green house effect'. What are its benefits? How is it harmful?

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Extra Question
1. The product of incomplete combustion of carbon and fuels is :
(a) CO2 (b) CO (c) Carbon particles (d) None
2. A mixture of 95% oxygen and 5% carbon dioxide is called-
(a) Carbogen (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Hopcolite (d) Oxygen mixture
3. Complete the reaction : 2HCl + Na2CO3  .................... + ................ + ..................
(a) NaCl, H2O, CO2 (b) NaCl, CO , H2O (c) NaCl, CO , H2 (b) NaCl, CO2, H2
4. Density of graphite is
(a) 2.69 g/cm3 (b) 2.39 g/cm3 (c) 1.5 g/cm3 (d) 3.39 g/cm3
5. The tendency of element to exist in two or more forms but in the same physical state is called ........
(a) Catenation (b) Allotropy (c) Amorphous (d) None of these

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VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VIII (ICSE)

DPP : 01
TOPIC : TRANSPORT OF NUTRIENTS IN LIVING THINGS

1. Oxygenated blood from lungs is carried to the heart by -
(A) pulmonary artery (B) pulmonary vein (C) coronary vein (D) pre-cavals
2. Oxygen is transported in vertebrates as -
(A) dissolved in plasma (B) complex with haemoglobin
(C) dissolved in cytoplasm of erythrocytes (D) absorbed over the RBC
3. Pacemaker is -
(A) instrument for measuring heart beat
(B) instrument for measuring pulse rate
(C) auriculo-ventricular node that provides impulse for heart beat
(D) sinu-auricular node that provides impulse for heart beat
4. Stomatal opening is under the control of -
(A) epidermal cells (B) palisade cells
(C) spongy parenchyma cells (D) guard cells
5. Transpiration is helpful in -
(A) Cooling (B) Loss of Water (C) Ascent of sap (D) Loss of nutrients
6. Force causing the entry of water into root hairs is
(A) Osmotic pressure (B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Turgor pressure (D) Suction pressure

7. A component of xylem is
(A) Sieve tube (B) Medullary ray (C) Sclereid (D) Tracheid

8. Osmosis is defined as the process in which :
(A) water diffuses from lower concentration to higher of the solution
(B) solutes diffuse from lower concentration to higher concentration
(C) active transport of ions takes place
(D) passive transport of ions takes place

9. Transpiration is helpful in :
(A) Heating (B) Loss of Water (C) Ascent of sap (D) Loss of nutrients

10. Walls of left ventricle are thicker than walls of right ventricle because
(A) it has to pump blood to the whole body (B) it has to pump the blood to lungs
(C) blood reaches this ventricle in huge amount (D) blood reaches this ventricle with extra pressure

11. Name the two tissues of plants which transport materials.

12. Why is transpiration important for plants ?

13. State four differences between arteries and veins.

14. Describe the transportation process of water, minerals and food in plants with the help of a diagram.

15. Sometime doctors inject medicines directly in our bloodstream. Where do they inject in artery or in vein?

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DPP : 02
TOPIC : GROWTH, DEVELOPMENT AND REPRODUCTION IN LIVING THINGS

1. Part of flower that protects flower in bud form is
(A) Sepals (B) Petals (C) Carpels (D) Stamens
2. Fertilization occurs
(A) after pollination (B) before pollination (C) with pollination (D) before reproduction
3. Male reproductive part of a flower contains two round shaped structures at their tip, these structures are
known as
(A) Anthers (B) Filaments (C) Stamens (D) Carpels
4. The functional unit of testis of man is
(A) uriniferous tubule (B) malpighian tubule (C) seminiferous tubule (D) acini or lobules
5. Puberty occurs in females at the age of
(A) 8 – 10 years (B) 11 – 14 years (C) 15 – 17 years (D) 18 – 20 years
6. Vagina of the female reproductive system is
(A) primary sex organ (B) accessory sex organ
(C) secondary sex organ (D) none of these
7. Fertilisation of an ovum with a sperm takes place in -
(A) fallopian tube (B) uterus (C) cervix (D) vagina
8. Placenta is the region where
(A) foetus is supplied by Lymph (B) embryo is attached to mother by Yolk
(C) foetus receives nutrition (D) embryo enclosed by membranes
9. In the process of budding, when bud forms outside it is called as
(A) exogenous budding (B) endogenous budding
(C) uncertain budding (D) none of these
10. Binary fission is the most common mode of reproduction in
(A) Protozoa (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) Both A and B are correct
11. Name four forms of stems which can propagate vegetatively.
12. Make a labelled diagram of the flower showing reproductive parts in it.
13. Draw a well labelled diagram to show the reproductive system of human female.
14. Describe the term implantation .
15. Explain the following terms :
(a) Fertilization (b) Pollination (c) Zygote (d) Budding

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DPP : 03
TOPIC : CONTROL AND COORDINATION IN HUMAN BEINGS

1. Positive geotropism is exhibited by –
(A) Leaves (B) Stem (C) Root (D) None of these

2. The flower of sunflower plants turns in the direction of sunlight due to -
(A) Phototropism (B) Heliotropism (C) Photonasty (D) Thermonasty

3. On touching, the folding and dropping of leaves of sensitive plant are –
(A) tropic movement (B) nastic movement (C) turgor movement (D) Both (B) and (C)

4. A high concentration of synthetic auxin is generally used for –
(A) Preventing the growth of lateral buds (B) elongation of internodes
(C) weed control (D) inhibiting of cell enlargement

5. The gland that secretes growth hormone is –
(A) Bone (B) Thyroid (C) Pituitary (D) Hypothalamus

6. Blood sugar level is regulated by –
(A) Insulin (B) Thyroxine (C) Growth hormone (D) Estrogen

7. A special feature of neurons is that it –
(A) Stops dividing after birth (B) Continuously divides
(C) is capable of regeneration (D) Shows both mitosis and meiosis

8. The structural and functional unit of the nervous system is –
(A) Neuron (B) Neuroglia (C) Myocyte (D) Nephron

9. The protective membrane, meninges are present surrounding the –
(A) Brain (B) Spinal cord (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Vertebral column

10. Which is the correct sequence of the components at a reflex arc?
(A) receptors  spinal cord  sensory neurons  motor neurons  muscles
(B) receptors  muscles  sensory neurons  motor neurons  spinal cord
(C) receptors  sensory neurons  spinal cord  motor neurons  muscles
(D) receptors  motor neurons  spinal cord  sensory neurons  muscles

11. Describe the structure of neuron.

12. What is reflex action ? Describe the types of reflex action with a suitable diagram.

13. Write a note on ABA.

14. Which type of glands in human body secrete hormones ?

15. Define :
(a) Phototropism (b) Geotropism (c) Plant growth Regulators

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DPP : 04
TOPIC : HEALTH AND HYGIENE

1. Immuno–deficiency syndrome could develop due to -
(A) Defective liver (B) Defective thymus (C) AIDS Virus (D) Weak immune system.

2. Lack of Iodine causes -
(A) Goitre (B) Fluorosis (C) Anaemia (D) Osteomalacia

3. AIDS virus cannot be transmitted to another person by -
(A) Blood transfusion (B) Shaking hands (C) Sexual contact (D) Infected needles

4. Among the following a communicable disease is -
(A) Diabetes (B) Diphtheria (C) Hypertension (D) Kwashiorkor.

5. Female Anopheles mosquito is carrier of a pathogen that causes -
(A) malaria (B) dengue (C) yellow fever (D) filariasis

6. Which of the following is a mismatch ?
(A) AIDS – Bacterial infection (B) Polio – Viral infection
(C) Malaria – Protozoan infection (D) Elephantiasis – Helminth infection

7. The type of disease which begins abruptly, affects patient’s normal functioning but lasts for a short duration
is termed as -
(A) chronic disease (B) acute disease (C) hormonal disease (D) deficiency disease

8. Haemophilia is a -
(A) chronic disease (B) genetic disease (C) acute disease (D) deficiency disease

9. Oral vaccine prevents the attack of -
(A) Typhoid (B) Polio (C) Tetanus (D) Cholera

10. Which of the following is a bacterial diseases -
(A) Sickle-cell anaemia (B) Cholera (C) Cancer (D) Goitre

11. Name any one general way of prevention of infectious diseases.

12. Name the most common insect that carries causative organisms of cholera, typhoid, dysentery and
tuberculosis.

13. Write an account about acute and chronic disease .

14. Write notes on -
(a) Vaccination (b) Causes of diseases
(c) Signs and symptoms (d) Means of spread of infectious diseases

15. (a) Name one disease caused by Anopheles, Culex and Aedes spp. of mosquitoes.
(b) Name the organism that transmits the following diseases :
(i) Diarrhoea (ii) Rabies

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DPP : 05
TOPIC : POLLUTION AND CONSERVATION

1. Which of the following is correct about effects of acid rain ?
(i) Acid rain increases the acidity of soil and water
(ii) Acid rain affect painted surfaces and metals
(iii) Acid rain is due to the presence of H2SO4 and HNO3 in rain water with a pH of less than 5
(iv) Taj Mahal at Agra is facing threat due to corrosive action of acid rain
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) all of these (D) (iii) and (iv)

2. Which of the following are not harmful effects of air pollution ?
(i) Respiratory problems such as allergy, sneezing, bronchitis etc
(ii) Algal bloom
(iii) Biomagnification of heavy metals in food chains
(iv) Green house effect
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)

3. ‘Ozone-hole’ means -
(A) a large sized hole in the ozone layer (B) thinning of the ozone layer
(C) small holes scattered in the ozone layer (D) thickening of ozone in the ozone layer

4. Which of the following is a recently originated problem of environment ?
(A) Ozone layer depletion (B) Green house effect
(C) Global warming (D) All of the above

5. Soil erosion can be prevented by -
(A) raising forests (B) deforestation (C) excessive use of manure (D) precipitation

6. Which pollutant exhibits biomagnification in food-chain ?
(A) DDT (B) SO2 (C) CO (D) PAN

7. Which of the following is main factor of water-pollution ?
(A) smoke (B) industrial waste (C) detergent (D) Ammonia

8. Domestic wastes will lead to -
(A) Biodegradable pollution (B) Non-degradable pollution
(C) Thermal pollution of soil (D) Air pollution

9. The three R’s that will help us to conserve natural resources for long term use are
(A) recycle, regenerate, reuse (B) reduce, regenerate, reuse
(C) reduce, reuse, redistribute (D) reduce, recycle, reuse

10. Ground water will not be depleted due to
(A) afforestation (B) thermal power plants
(C) loss of forest, and decreased rainfall (D) cropping of high water demanding crops

11. Describe forest and wild life conservation.

12. List any four practices which help in protecting our environment.

13. Write two main sources of water pollution.

14. List any three human activities which could lead to an increase in carbon dioxide content of air.

15. What is the Greenhouse effect ? How does it affect the atmosphere?

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DPP : 06
TOPIC : FOOD PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT

1. Kharif season crops are grown in
(A) Oct-Nov (B) Sept-Oct (C) June-July (D) Nov-Dec

2. Unwanted plants grow along with crops are termed as -
(A) Weeds (B) Shrubs (C) Herbs (D) None of these

3. Cultivation of fruits, vegetables and ornamental plants, is studied under
(A) Agronomy (B) Plant Tissue Culture (C) Horticulture (D) Seed culture

4. Components required for fertility of soil
(A) Na, Ca, K (B) K, Mg, Mn (C) N, P, K (D) N, Mg, Ca

5. Compost is a
(A) Manure (B) Fertilizer (C) Pesticide (D) Weedicide

6. The process of separation of grain from the chaff after harvesting is known as
(A) Tilling (B) Winnowing (C) Spraying (D) Weeding

7. Irrigation is done after -
(A) Manuring (B) Threshing (C) Weeding (D) Storage

8. Wheat, Barley are the
(A) Rabi crops (B) Zaid crops (C) Kharif crops (D) Both (A) & (B)

9. The desired varieties of economically useful crops are raised by
(A) vernalisation (B) mutation (C) natural selection (D) hybridization

10. The high yielding dwarf variety of wheat developed by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan was
(A) Hira – moti (B) C 306 (C) Sharbati sonara (D) Arjun
11. What are Kharif and Rabi crops ?
12. Write the points that should be considered for selection of crops for rotation.
13. What are the modern methods of Irrigation? Explain.
14. Why storage of food is done?
15. What are the two common forms by which we add nutrients in soil?

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MATHEMATICS
&
MENTAL ABILITY

DPPS

CLASS-VIII (ICSE)

INDEX

MATHEMATICS - 01-20
MENTAL ABILITY - 21-46

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VIII (ICSE)

DPP : 01
TOPIC : RATIO AND PROPORTION

1. The average age of the three boys is 15 years. Their ages are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. The age of the
oldest is
(A) 7 years (B) 14 years (C) 20 years (D) 21 years

2. If x : y = 5 : 2, then (8x + 9y) : (8x + 2y) is:-
(A) 22 : 29 (B) 26 : 61 (C) 29 : 22 (D) 61 : 26

3. Which ratio is greater : (3 : 7) or (4 : 9)
(A) 3:7 (B) 4:9 (C) Both are equal (D) None of these

4. Are 36, 49, 6, 7 in proportion.
(A) Yes (B) No
(C) Can not be determined (D) None of these

5. The mean proportional between 0.08 and 0.18 is :
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.39 (C) 0.48 (D) 0.60

6. If 4, a , 9 are in continued proportion, then a has the value –
(A) 6 (B) –6 (C) 36 (D) –36

7. Reema types 540 word during half an hour. How many words would she type in 6 minutes?
(A) 1800 (B) 216 (C) 108 (D) 540

8. In a library 136 copies of certain book require a shelf – length of 13.6m. How many copies of the same
book would occupy a shelf – length of 5.1 m?
(A) 36 (B) 51 (C) 136 (D) 510

9. In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there are Rs. 30 in all, how
many 5 p coins are there ?
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 200

10. The cost of 20 kg of milk is j 500. Find the cost of 59 kg of milk.
(A) Rs.1475 (B) Rs. 1059 (C) Rs. 500 (D) None of these

11. Ratio of 1.5 ft to 6 inches is

12. Sohan earns Rs 7500 and spends Rs 5500 per month. The ratio of his saving to the expenditure is

13. Ratio form of 4 decametres to 4 kms is

14. The ratio of 2 ml to 2l is

15. In a company of 150 people, 25 people work in technical department, 55 people work in HR department
and the rest work in maintenance department. Find the ratio of people working in HR department to
people working in maintenance department.

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DPP : 02
TOPIC : LINEAR EQUATIONS IN ONE VARIABLES

1. The solution of (x + 4)2 – (x – 5)2 = 9 is ______.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
2. Two angles in a triangle are in the ratio 4 : 5. If the sum of these angles is equal to the third angle, then
the third angle is __ .
(A) 180° (B) 40° (C) 50° (D) 90°
x  6 x  3 5x  4
3. The value of x for which   is________.
4 5 8
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
rd
 2 3
4.   of a number when multiplied by of the same number make 338. The number is____.
 3 4
(A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 26
5. If a + 2a + 3a + ..... + 1000a = 2b + 4b + 6b + .....+ 2000b = 3c + 6c + 9c + .....+ 3000c then a : b : c is
as
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 3 : 6 (D) 6 : 3 : 2
6. There were only two candidates in an election. One got 62% votes and was elected by a margin of 144
votes. The total number of voters were _.
(A) 500 (B) 600 (C) 700 (D) 800
7. You join a job. Your pay for the first day is Rs. 5 Each day after that your pay will be twice as much as it
was the day before. Your pay on the tenth will be
(A) Rs. 100 (B) Rs. 250 (C) Rs. 5120 (D) Rs. 2560
1 3 1
8. If 3 3 12 , then the value of 'x' is
x 4 2
1
(A) 1 (B) (C) 2 (D) 3
3
9. In a school, there are 5 times as many boys as girls, and 6 times as many girls as teachers. If b,g,t
represent the boys, girls and teachers respectively the total number of boys, girls and teachers in the
school is
37
(A) 37 b (B) b (C) 30 g (D) 37g
30
10. When 75% of a number is added to 75, the result is the number again. The number is
(A) 150 (B) 300 (C) 100 (D) 450

2x 7 2x 6
11. If , then x = ?
5x 8 5x 4

12. The denominator of a rational number is 4 more than the numerator. If 2 is added to the numerator and
3
3 is added to denominator then the new number becomes . Find the original number.
4
13. The age of father is 3 times the age of the son. If sum of their ages is 48 years, then the age of father
and son are (in years) :

x 5 x 3 1
14. The solution of is
2 5 2
2x 2 3
15. The solution of is
3x 1 2

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DPP : 03
TOPIC : SIMULTANEOUS EQUATIONS

24
1. The pair of equations 5x – 15y = 8 and 3x − 9y = has :
5
(A) one solution (B) two solutions (C) infinitely many solutions (D) no solution

2. Graphically, the pair of equations 6x – 3y + 10 = 0 and 2x – y + 9 = 0 represents two lines which are:
(A) intersecting at exactly one point (B) intersecting at exactly two points
(C) coincident (D) parallel

3. For what value of k, do the equations 3x – y + 8 = 0 and 6x – ky = –16, represent coincident lines ?
1 1
(A) (B) − (C) 2 (D) –2
2 2

4. Solution of the system : 11x + 9y = 31, 9x + 11y = 29 is :
(A) x = –2, y = –1 (B) x = –2, y = 1 (C) x = 2, y = 1 (D) x = 2, y = –1

5. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father will be four times his
son’s age. The present ages, in years, of the son and the father respectively are :
(A) 4 and 24 (B) 6 and 36 (C) 5 and 30 (D) 7 and 42

6. The value of k for which the system : 4x + 2y = 3, (k – 1)x – 6y = 9 has no unique solution is :
(A) –13 (B) 9 (C) –11 (D) 13

7. The number of solutions of the pair of linear equations x + 2y – 8 = 0 and 2x + 4y = 16 is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) infinitely many (D) none of these

8. The pair of linear equations 8x – 5y = 7 and 5x – 8y = –7 have :
(A) one solution (B) two solutions (C) no solution (D) many solutions

9. Which of the following pairs of equations represent inconsistent system ?
(A) 3x – 2y = 8, 2x + 3y = 1 (B) 3x – y = –8, 3x – y = 24
(C) 5x – y = 3, x + 3y = 4 (D) 5x – y = 10, 10x – 2y = 20

10. The pair of linear equations 2x + 5y = 3 and 6x + 15y = 12 represent :
(A) intersecting lines (B) parallel lines (C) coincident lines (D) none of these

11. If points (t, 2t) (–2, 6) and (3, 1) are collinear, then t is

12. Area of quadrilateral formed by the vertices (–1, 6), (–3, –9), (5, – 8) and (3, 9) is

13. If three points (0,0), (3, 3 ) and (3, ) from an equilateral triangle, then  is

14. The two opposite vertices of a square are (–1, 2) and (3,2), so the coordinates of the other two vertices
are

15. The vertices of ABC are A(2,1), B(6, –2), C(8,9). If AD is angle bisector, where D meets on BC, then
coordinates of D are.

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DPP : 04
TOPIC : CONGRUENCY OF TRIANGLES

1. Read the two statements and choose among the correct options:
Statement P: All equilateral triangles are isosceles triangles.
Statement Q: All scalene triangles are isosceles triangles.
(A) P is true but Q is false (B) P is false but Q is true
(C) Both P and Q are true (D) Both P and Q are false
2. Which one of the following is not a criterion for congruence of two triangles ?
(A) ASA (B) SSA (C) SAS (D) SSS

3. If for ABC and DEF, the correspondence CAB EDF gives a congruence, then which of the
following is not true?
(A) AC = DE (B) AB = EF (C) A = D (D) C = E

4. Which of the following is not a criterion for congruence of triangles?
(A) SAS (B) ASA (C) SSA (D) SSS
5. In Fig. 6.18, M is the mid-point of both AC and BD. Then -
A D

1 M 2
2
4
3
B C

(A) 1 = 2 (B) 1 = 4 (C) 2 = 4 (D) 1 = 3
6. If ABC and DBC are on the same base BC, AB = DC and AC = DB (Fig. 6.21), then which of the
following gives a congruence relationship?
A D

B C

(A) ABC DBC (B) ABC CBD (C) ABC DCB (D) ABC BCD
7. By which of the following criterion two triangles cannot be proved congruent?
(A) AAA (B) SSS (C) SAS (D) ASA
8. In ΔABC and ΔPQR, if AB = QR, BC = PR and CA = PQ, then:
(A) ΔABC  ΔPQR (B) ΔCBA  ΔPRQ (C) ΔBAC  ΔRPQ (D) ΔPQR  ΔBCA
9. In Fig., ARO 
Q

A 55º

O
55º P

R
(A) POQ (B) QPO (C) PQO (D) None of these

10. If ABC PQR and ABC = 60°, then find the magnitude of PQR.
(A) 60° (B) 120° (C) 40° (D) 90°

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11. In ABC, BC = AB and B = 80º. Then A is equal to:

12. By which congruency criterion, the two triangles in Fig. are congruent?
P
a cm a cm

R S

b cm b cm

Q

13. Two triangles are congruent, if two angles and the side included between them in one of the triangles
are equal to the two angles and the side included between them of the other triangle. This is known as
which condition?

14. If PQR is congruent to STU Fig., then what is the length of TU?
P U

5 cm 7 cm

Q R S T
6 cm
15. The value of x in the given figure is –

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DPP : 05
TOPIC : PERCENTAGE

1. Rs. 25 as percentage of RS.75 is -
(A) 3% (B) 30% (C) 33.3% (D) 37%

2. 40% of ? + 180 = 564, then the missing value is
(A) 960 (B) 860 (C) 950 (D) 850

3. A person sells 36 oranges per rupee and incurs a loss of 4%. How many oranges per rupees to be sold
to have a gain of 8% ?
(A) 32 (B) 30 (C) 28 (D) 34

4. Difference between a rupee and 1%of a rupee is
(A) 99 paise (B) 1.01 paise (C) 11 paise (D) None of these

5. A man purchased a bag of rice containing 70 kg for Rs. 175. He sold it at the rate of Rs. 2.75 per kg.
Then the profit or loss in % is
(A) 12% loss (B) 10%gain (C) 12%gain (D) 10% loss

6. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the
value of x is:
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 25

7. On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball
is:
(A) Rs. 45 (B) Rs. 50 (C) Rs. 55 (D) Rs. 60

8. A shopkeeper expects a gain of 22.5% on his cost price. If in a week, his sale was of Rs. 392, what was
his profit?
(A) Rs. 18.20 (B) Rs. 70 (C) Rs. 72 (D) Rs. 88.25

9. There would be 10% loss if a toy is sold at Rs 10.80 per piece. At what price should it be sold to earn a
profit of 20% .
(A) 12 (B) 14.40 (C) 12.96 (D) None

10. A man buys oranges at Rs 5 a dozen and an equal number at Rs 4 a dozen. He sells them at Rs 5.50 a
dozen and makes a profit of Rs 50. How many oranges does he buy?
(A) 30 dozens (B) 50 dozens (C) 40 dozens (D)60 dozens

11. The salary of Ram is 30% more than that of Madan’s salary. By what percentage is Madan’s salary less
then that of Ram’s ?

12. Ram’s salary was reduced by 50%. Again the reduced salary was increased by 50%. Then, what will be
the % loss in salary ?

4 5
13. Total percentage by which of 70 less then of 112 :
5 7

14. Mohan purchased 50 dozens of toys at the rate of Rs.384 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the
rate of Rs.36. What was his percentage profit ?

15. I sold two watches for Rs. 300 each, one at 10% loss, and another at 10% profit. What is the loss
percentage or the profit percentage that resulted from the transaction ?

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DPP : 06
TOPIC : STATISTICS

1. The range of 3.5, 2, 4.5, 8.7, 1.9, 3.2, 1.9 is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 6.8 (D)1.6

2. The rainfall in (mm) in a city in a particular week recorded as follows:
4.9, 5.5, 25.6, 21.3, 0, 2.2, 0. The range is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 25.6 (C) 21.3 (D) none of these

3. The mean of first 10 natural numbers is
(A) 5.5 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 4

4. The mean of 6,7,10,x,9,12,11 is 8, then x is equal to
(A) 7 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 12

5. The arithmetic mean is also called as
(A) mode (B) median (C) average (D) none of these

6. The median of 48, 45, 30, 35, 44, 47, 49, 33, 46 is
(A) 44 (B) 44.5 (C) 46 (D) 45

7. The ages of 10 persons ( in years ) are
34,24,28,31,30,26,27,25,29,30. The median age is
(A) 28 years (B) 29 years (C) 28.5 years (D) 32.5 years

8. The mode of the data 23, 26, 22, 29, 23, 29, 26, 29, 22, 23 is
(A) 23 and 29 (B) 23 only (C) 29 only (D) 26 only

9. The mode of the following data 6,5,6,7,8,5,6,7,7,6,7,5,8,8,7,7,6,9 is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

10. Out of 5 brands of chocolates in a shop, a boy has to purchase the brand which is most liked by
children. What measure of central tendency would be most appropriate if the data is provided to him?
(A) Mean (B) Mode (C) Median (D) Any of the three

Directions : 11 to 13 : Given below is a bar diagram showing the percentage of Hindus, Sikhs and Muslims in
a state during the year from 1992 to 1994 :

Study the graph and answer the following Questions

11. During which year was the Hindus percentage maximum:

12. What percentage was the increase in Muslim population from 1992 to 1994 :

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13. If the total population in 1994 is 2 millions, then the sikh population is :

14. A cricketer has a certain average run for 10 innings. In the 11 th inning, he scores 100 runs, and now
his average run is ,increased by 9 runs. Then average of 11 inning is :

Directions : 15 : The circle graph given below shows the spending of a family on various items and its saving
during a year :

Food
23% rs
Othe
20%
Savings
15% C
E d hild
u c ren

% g
12 a tio

10 thin

Ho 15%
% n

o

us
Cl

ing
Study the graph and answer the following Questions

15. Out of a total income of Rs. 75000, the difference of the expenses on Housing and Transport was :

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DPP : 07
TOPIC : QUADRILATERALS

1. One angle of a quadrilateral is 150° and the other three angles are equal. Find the measure of other
three angles :
(A) 70° (B) 75° (C) 85° (D) 90°

2. Two adjacent sides AB and BC of a parallelogram ABCD are in the ratio of 5:3. If the perimeter is 200
cm, then the lengths of AB and BC are :
(A) 25 cm, 50 cm. (B) 40 cm, 37.50 cm.
(C) 62.50 cm, 37.50 cm. (D) 60 cm, 62.50 cm.

3. In a quadrilateral ABCD, if AO and BO be the bisectors of A and B respectively, C = 70º and D
=30º, then AOB is :
(A) 40º (B) 80º (C) 50º (D) 100º

4. The value of the variable x and y in the given kite are respectively :

(A) 5 and 9 (B) 9 and 5 (C) 5 and 7 (D) 7 and 5

5. A car jack is shaped like rhombus. The sides of car jack are 17 cm long. When the horizontal distance
between the vertices is 30 cm, the vertical distance between the other two vertices is :

(A) 8cm (B)16cm (C) 23cm (D) 30 cm

6. The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4, the angles are :
(A) 36°, 72°, 108°, 144° (B) 15°, 130°, 45°, 150°
(C) 45°, 110°, 55°, 150° (D) None of these

7. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD. If ADC = 2ABC, AD = a cm and CD = b cm, then the length
(in cm) of AB is :
a 2 2
(A) + 2b (B) a + b (C) a+b (D) a + b
2 3 3

8. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other at right angles, then it is a
(A) Trapezium (B) Parallelogram (C) Rectangle (D) Rhombus

9. Out of the following which is a 3-D figure?
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(A) Square (B) Sphere (C) Triangle (D) Circle

10. Which of the following letters of English alphabets have more than 2 lines of symmetry?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. The number of lines of symmetry in Square is/are:

12. A solid that has only one vertex is

13. In a solid if F = V = 5, then the number of edges in this shape is

14. The length of the diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm. The side of the rhombus is

15. If ABCD is a parallelogram with two adjacent angles A and B equal to each other, then the
parallelogram is a

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DPP : 08
TOPIC : CONSTRUCTION OF QUADRILATERALS

1. A quadrilateral can be constructed if its three angles and _____ included sides are given.
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

2. Data about five parts of a quadrilateral in order to be sufficient must also satisfy triangle inequality and
_____ of a triangle, wherever applicable.
(A) Angle sum property (B) Exterior angle property
(C) Corresponding angle (D) alternate angle

3. In quadrilateral ABCD, if BC = 4 cm, AC = 12 cm, CD = 5 cm, AD = 8 cm. Then the quadrilateral can be
constructed if AB =
(A) 10 cm (B) 17 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 5 cm

4. To construct a quadrilateral, if 2 diagonals are given, then how many sides are required.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

5. A quadrilateral has :
(A) 4 sides, 4 angles and 2 diagonals (B) 3 sides, 2 angles and 1 diagonals
(C) 2 sides, 2 angles and 2 diagonals (D) 5 sides, 5 angle and 3 diagonals

6. A quadrilateral can be drawn if at least _____ parts are given.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

7. Which of the following is true for constructing a quadrilateral.
(A) 5 sides and 3 diagonals (B) 3 sides only
(C) 3 angles and their 2 included sides (D) 2 diagonals only

8. To construct a quadrilateral, which is the necessary condition.
(A) Square inequality (B) Triangle inequality
(C) Angles sum property of a triangle (D) Both (B) and (C)

9. Given AB = 3 cm, BC = 5 cm, AC = 9 cm, AD = 6, CD = 2 cm which of the following is true about the
construction of a quadrilateral ?
(A) It is possible to draw the quadrilateral
(B) It is not possible to draw the quadrilateral since AD + DC < AC.
(C) It is possible to draw the quadrilateral since AD + CD < AC
(D) None of these

10. If AB = 5 cm, BC = 4 cm, B = 60° and opposite sides are equal is given, then which of the following
figure can be constructed ?
(A) Rectangle (B) Rhombus (C) Parallelogram (D) Square

11. The construction of a triangle ABC, given that BC = 6 cm, ∠B = 45° is not possible when difference of
AB and AC is equal to.

12. The construction of a triangle ABC, given that BC = 3 cm, ∠C = 60° is possible when difference of AB
and AC is equal to.

13. The construction of a triangle ABC in which AB = 4 cm, ∠A = 60° is not possible when difference of BC
and AC is equal to.

14. With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is possible to construct an angle of.

15. Angle of 90° can be constructed with the help of compass in the combination of which two angles?

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DPP : 09
TOPIC : PERIMETER AND AREA
1. Find the volume of a cylinder of height 40 cm and having radius of the base 3.5 cm :

(A) 1540 cm3 (B) 1545 cm3 (C) 1550 cm3 (D) 1560 cm3

2. The figure shows a cuboid with a volume of 180 cm3.
4 cm

9 cm

(p + 3) cm

What is the value of “p” ?
(A) 2 (B) 18 (C) 36 (D) 72

3. Find the volume of a cube whose total surface area is 486 cm2 :

(A) 700 cm3 (B) 729 cm3 (C) 297 cm3 (D) 800 cm3

4. In the figure shown, two tangent semicircles with a radius equal to ‘x’ are inscribed in a square. What is
the area of the shaded region ?

(A) 4x 2 (B) x 2 (C) (2 – )x 2 (D) (4 – )x 2

5. The sides of a triangle are 16 cm, 30 cm and 34 cm. Its area is :
(A) 140 cm2 (B) 160 cm2 (C) 240 cm2 (D) 172 cm2

6. The corners of an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm each are cut to form a regular hexagon. What is the
area of the hexagon?
C

12 12

A B
12

(A) 24 3 sq. cm (B) 12 5 sq. cm (C) 15 3 sq. cm (D) 9 5 sq. cm

7. If the radii of two concentric circle are 15 cm and 13 cm respectively, then the area of the circulating
ring in sq. cm will be :
(A) 176 (B) 178 (C) 200 (D) 180

8. ABCD is a rectangle. E, F, G, H are the mid-points of the concerned sides. Area of rectangle ABCD :
area of rhombus EFGH is :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 4 : 3

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9. Find the perimeter of a half circle
1 r 1
(A) ( 2r ) (B) r (2 + ) (C) (D) r 2 
2 2 2

10. If ABCD is a parallelogram with two adjacent angles A and B equal to each other, then the
parallelogram is a
(A) Rhombus (B) Trapezium (C) Rectangle (D) None of these

11. The length of the diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm. The side of the rhombus is

12. The length of a rectangular plot is 20 m more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot at the rate
of j 26.50 per m is j 5300, then what is the length of the plot?

13. If the circumference of a circle is 44 cm, then the area of a circle is

14. The area of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a rectangle with sides 7 m × 3.5 m is.

15. The length of a square is increased by 25% and its breadth is decreased by 25%. The ratio of the area
of the square to that of the resulting rectangle is.

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DPP : 10
TOPIC : SOLIDS-VOLUME AND AREA
1. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated by the side of 3 cm to form a cone. The
volume of the cone so formed is :
(A) 12 cm3 (B) 15 cm3 (C) 16 cm3 (D) 20 cm3

2. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of ground is –
(A) 75 cu. m (B) 750 cu. m (C) 7500 cu. m (D) 75000 cu. m
3. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the celling is equal to the
sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is –
(A) 720 (B) 900 (C) 1200 (D) 1800
4. 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of the wire in metres
will be :
(A) 84 (B) 90 (C) 168 (D) 336
5. A hollow iron pipe is 12 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm
and iron weights 8 g/cm3, then the weight of the pipe is :
(A) 2112 kg (B) 2.112 kg (C) 211.2 kg (D) 21.12 kg
6. A boat having a length 3m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man
3
gets on it. The mass of the man is (density of water is 1000kg/m )-
(A) 12 kg (B) 60 kg (C) 72 kg (D) 96 kg
7. 50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long and 20 m broad on a religious day if the average
displacement of water by a man is 4 m3, then the rise in the water level in the tank will be :
(A) 20 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 35 cm (D) 50 cm
8. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find the area of its curved surface
(A) 30m2 (B) 40 m2 (C) 60 m2 (D) 80 m2

9. A cistern 6m long and 4 m wide contains water up to a depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total area of the wet
surface is :
(A) 49 m2 (B) 50 m2 (C) 53.5 m2 (D) 55 m2
10. A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m × 36 m. From each of its corners, a
square is cut off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box
(in m3) is :
(A) 4830 (B) 5120 (C) 6420 (D) 8960
11. If the radii of the circular ends of a conical bucket of height 45cm, are 28 cm and 7 cm, then the
capacity of the bucket is.
12. A cuboidal metal of dimensions 44 cm × 30 cm × 15 cm was melted and cast into a cylinder of height
28 cm. Its radius is.
13. The surface areas of a sphere and a cube are equal and if their volumes are V1 and V2 respectively,
V
then 1 .
V2

14. A solid consists of a circular cylinder with an exact fitting right circular cone placed at the top. The
height of the cone is h. If the total volume of the solid is 3 times the volume of the cone, the height of
the circular cylinder is.
15. A metal cube of an edge 12cm, is melted and recasted into three small cubes. If the edges of two small
cubes is 6cm and 8cm respectively, then the edge of the third small cube is.

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DPP : 11
TOPIC : PROFIT, LOSS AND DISCOUNT

1. Shyam purchased 20 dozens of toys at the rate of Rs.375 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the
rate of Rs. 33. What was his percentage profit ?
(A) 3.5 (B) 4.5 (C) 5.6 (D) None of these
1
2. A shopkeeper expects a gain of 22 % on his cost price. If in a week, his sale was of Rs. 392, what
2
was his profit ?
(A) Rs.28 (B) Rs.70 (C) Rs.72 (D) Rs.88.25

3. Two horses were sold for Rs. 12,000 each, one at a loss of 20% and the other at a gain of 20%. The
entire transaction resulted in
(A) no loss , no gain (B) a loss of Rs. 1,000
(C) a gain of Rs. 1,000 (D) None of these

4. An article is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for j 30 more, the profit would have been 25%,
find the C.P.
(A) Rs. 300 (B) Rs. 200 (C) Rs. 400 (D) Rs. 500

5. By selling a chair for j 160, a carpenter loses 20%. How much percent would he gain or loss by selling
it for j 170 ?
(A) loss 15% (B) Profit 25% (C) loss 25% (D) Profit 15%

6. Bela purchased a second hand car for j 89,000. She spent j 21,000 on its repair and sold it to Aman
for j 1,10,000. Find her profit or loss in this transaction.
(A) Profit (B) Loss (C) No profit no loss (D) Can not be determined

7. A shopkeeper sold apples for j 30 per kg. If the shopkeeper made a loss of j 5.50 per kg what was the
cost price of 1 kg of apples ?
(A) j 36.50 (B) j 35.50 (C) j 33.50 (D) j 25.50

8. A machine was purchased for Rs. 445 and Rs. 25 were paid for transportation. If it be sold for Rs. 517,
find the gain per cent.
(A) 8% (B) 10% (C) 12% (D) 15%

9. Mr. Virmanic purchased a house for Rs. 365000 and spent Rs. 135000 on its repairs. If he sold it for
Rs. 550000, find his gain percent.
(A) 6% (B) 8% (C) 10% (D) 12%

10. When S.P. is greater than C.P., then there is always :
(A) a loss (B) a gain (C) No loss no gain (D) None of these

11. Shikha purchased a wrist watch for Rs. 840 and sold it to her friend Vidhi for Rs. 910. Find her gain
percent.

12. Peter purchased a machine for Rs. 80000 and spent Rs. 5000 on repair & Rs. 1000 on transport and
sold it with 25% profit. At what price did he sell the machine?

13. The C.P of 21 articles is equal to S.P. of 18 articles. Find the gain or loss percent.

14. The C.P. of an article is 40% of the S.P. The percent that the S.P. is of C.P.?

15. A sold a commodity to B with 10% profit. If B resold the same commodity to A with a loss of 10%, then
A will have?

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DPP : 12
TOPIC : SIMPLE INTEREST

1. At what percent per annum, simple interest will double a sum of money in 12 years ?
1 25
(A) 8 % (B) 24 % (C) % (D) 8.25 %
3 4

2. Mr. Y gave some money at simple interest and at the end of 10 years, got back twice the sum. The rate
percent per annum is :
(A) 2% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 10%

3. The rate at which a sum becomes four times of itself in 15 years at S.I., will be :
1
(A) 15% (B) 17 % (C) 20% (D) 25%
2

4
4. If part of a sum can be earned from the sum in 2 years at simple interest, then, find the rate of
25
interest.
(A) 8% (B) 4% (C) 6% (D) 3%

5. A man earn Rs. 450 as an interest in 2 yrs on a certain sum invested with company at the rate of 12%
per annum. Find sum invested by the man in the company.
(A) Rs. 1875 (B) Rs.1830 (C) Rs. 1825 (D) Rs.1810

6. A sum invested for 2 years at the rate of 15% pa compounded annually fetches Rs.3225 as compound
interest, the sum is :
(A) Rs. 20000 (B) Rs.10000 (C) Rs. 4410 (D) None of the above

7. In a certain time a sum of Rs.125000 amounts to Rs.148877 at the rate of 6% pa compounded
annually. The time period is :
(A) 2 years1 (B) 3 years (C) 4 years1 (D) None of the above

8. Abhay lent Rs 8000 to his friend for 3 years at the rate of 5% per annum compound interest. What
amount does Abhay get after 3 years ?
(A) Rs. 8500 (B) Rs. 9200 (C) Rs 9261 (D) Rs 9561

9. Find the compound interest on Rs 1000 at the rate of 10% per annum for 18 months when interest is
compounded half-yearly.
(A) Rs 157.625 (B) Rs 167.625 (C) Rs 187.625 (D) Rs 197.625

10. Compound interest is :
(A) Always greater than the simple interest (B) Always less then the simple interest
(C) Always equal to the simple interest (D) Always greater or equal to the simple interest

11. In what time will Rs 2000 amount to Rs 2420 at 20% per annum, interest being compounded half
yearly?
2
12. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 10240 in 2 years at 6 % per annum, compound annually then the
3
sum is?
1
13. The difference between C.I. and S.I. on a certain sum of money is Rs. 10 for 2 years at 12 % p.a.
2
The sum is?
14. Simple interest of Rs. 4 on Rs. 50 per quarterly, is same as?
15. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money at 10%
per annum for 2 years is Rs 500.Find the sum when the interest is compounded annually?

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DPP : 13
TOPIC : SIMPLIFICATIONS ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSIONS
2 2 2 3
1. Find the value of the expression (81x + 16y – 72xy), when x = and y =
3 4
1
(A) 1 (B) 9 (C) (D) 3
9
2. (2a + 5b) × (a – 3b) = ?
(A) 2a2 + ab + 15b2 (B) 2a2 + ab – 15b2 (C) 2a2 – ab – 15b2 (D) 2a2 – ab + 15b2
3. Divide (– x6 + 2x4 + 4x3 + 2x2) by 2 x2
1
(A) – x4 + 2x2 + 4x + 2 (B)  x 4  2x 2  4 2x  2
2
1 1
(C)  x 4  2x 2  2 2x  2  (D)  x 4  2x 2  2 2x  2
2 2

4. The value of (3x3 +9x2+ 27x) ÷ 3x is -
2 3 2 3 2 2
(A) x +9 + 27x (B) 3x +3x + 27x (C) 3x +9x + 9 (D) x + 3x + 9
2 2
5. Common factor of 17abc, 34ab , 51a b is
(A) 17abc (B) 17ab (C) 17ac (D) 17a2b2c
1 1
6. If x – = 6 then x2 + =
x x2
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

 1  2 1 
7. If  x  = 3, then  x  2  is equal to :
 x  x 
10 82
(A) (B) (C) 7 (D) 11
3 9
 2 1   1
8. If  x   = 102, the value of  x   is :
 x2   x
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 13

 1   17   1
9. If x is an integer such that  x   =   , then the value of  x   is :
 x  4   x
13 15 1
(A) 4 (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4
10. Which of the following is an identity?
2 2 2 2 2 2
(A) (p + q) = p + q (B) p – q = (p – q)
(C) p – q = p + 2pq – q2
2 2 2
(D) (p + q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2
2
11. The area of a square is (49x + 28x + 4). Its side is?

12. If x = 10, then find the value of x 2  4x  4 ?

13. Find the factors of a4 – b4 ?

14. On dividing 29x – 6x2 – 28 by 3x – 4, we get quotient?
2
15. Factorised form of p – 17p – 38 is?

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DPP : 14
TOPIC : HCF & LCM

1. How many three-digit numbers would you find, which when divided by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 leave the remainders
1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 respectively ?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

2. Six strings of violin start vibrating simultaneously and they vibrate at 3, 4, 5, 6,10 and 12 times in a
minute,
find :
i. After how much time will all six of them vibrate together ?
ii. How many times will they vibrate together in 30 min ?
(A) 60 min, 31 times (B) 60 sec, 31 times (C) 120 sec, 15 times (D) None of these

3. The HCF of 2 numbers is 11 and their LCM is 693. If their sum is 176, find the numbers.
(A) 99,77 (B) 110, 66 (C) 88,77 (D) 121, 44

1 3 1
4. Three pieces of cakes of weights 4 Ibs, 6 Ibs and 7 Ibs respectively are to be divided into parts of
2 4 5
equal weights. Further, each must be as heavy as possible. If one such part is served to each guest,
then what is the maximum number of guests that could be entertained ?
(A) 54 (B) 72 (C) 20 (D) 41

5. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 9. If the difference between the two numbers is 18,
find the two numbers :
(A) 36 and 18 (B) 78 and 60 (C) 63 and 81 (D) 52 and 34

6. Find the smallest number greater than 3 which when divided by 4, 5, and 6 always leaves the same
remainder 3.
(A) 61 (B*) 63 (C) 57 (D) 60

7. In a school 437 boys and 342 girls have been divided into classes, so that each class has the same
number of students and no class has boys and girls mixed. What is the least number of classes
needed?
(A*) 41 (B) 23 (C) 18 (D) 39

8 16 2 10
8. Find the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of , , and .
9 81 3 27
(A) 3/80 (B*) 80/3 (C) 60/3 (D) 3/60

9. Find the least number which when divided by 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 leaves remainder 1.
(A) 2519 (B) 2520 (C*) 2521 (D) 541

10. Six bells start tolling together and they toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 sec. respectively, find
(i) after how much time will all six of them toll together ?
(ii) how many times will they toll together in 30 min ?
(A) 120, 15 (B) 60, 16 (C) 120, 16 (D) 60, 15

11. LCM of two distinct natural numbers is 211. What is their HCF ?

12. Select any three distinct digits. Form a three digit number. Form the another number by reversing the
digits. Find the difference of these two numbers. What is the G.C.D of all such differences?

13. Find the greatest number that will exactly divide 65, 52 and 78?

14. Find the least number that is exactly divisible by 6, 5 and 7?

15. Find the least number which when divided by 6, 7 and 9 leaves the remainders 1, 2 and 4 respectively?

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DPP : 15
TOPIC : VENN DIAGRAM

1. In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak French, 15 can speak Spanish and 6 can
speak English. In that group, none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak
two language and one person can speak all the three language, then how many persons are there in
the group ?
(A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 24
2. In a town, 65% people watched the news on television, 40% read a newspaper and 25% read a
newspaper and watched the news on television also. What percent of the people neither watched the
news on television nor read a newspaper ?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20
3. Consider the Venn diagram given below :
The number in the Venn diagram indicates the number of persons reading the newspaper. The diagram
is drawn after surveying 50 persons. In a population of 10,000, how many can be expected to read at
least two newspapers?

(A) 5000 (B) 5400 (C) 6000 (D) 6250
4. The shaded region in venn’s diagram given below represents :

(A) A – B (B) B – A (C) A’ – B (D) A – B’
Directions : (5 to 7) The diagram given below shows the number of students who got distinction in three
subjects out of 500 students. Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow :

5. What is the percentage of students who got distinction in two subjects ?
(A) 8% (B) 9% (C) 10% (C) 12%
6. What is the percentage of students who got distinction ?
(A) 28% (B) 35% (C) 38% (D) 40%
7. The percentage of students distinction marks in Mathematics is
(A) 17.8% (B) 18.6% (C) 19.2% (D) 20.6%

Directions : (8 to 10) Study the following information given below and answer the questions that follow :
A publishing firm publishes newspapers A, B and C. In an effort to persuade advertisers to insert
advertisements in these newspapers, the firm sends out the following statement to possible advertisers:
A survey of representative sample of the whole population shows that –
Newspaper A is read by 26%
Newspaper B is read by 25%
Newspaper C is read by 14%
Newspaper A and B is read by 11%
Newspaper B and C is read by 10%
Newspaper C and A is read by 9%
Newspaper C only is read by 0%.

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8. The percentage of readers who read all the three newspapers is –
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

9. The percentage of readers who read A and B but not C, is –
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

10. The percentage of readers who read at least one of the three newspapers is –
(A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 60 (D) 65

Directions : (11 to 15) In the following diagram, the circle represent graduates, the triangle stands for rural
population ,square by hard working people and rectangle by honest people Find

Rural

5
Graduates
3
2
4 1 6 13
Hard 9 7
working 8 Honest
12
10

11. Graduates, hard- working and honest rural people is indicated by?

12. Rural, graduate people who are neither honest nor hard-working are indicated by?

13. Honest, graduate and hard working in urban population is indicated by?

14. Which number indicates urban people who are neither hardworking nor honest?

15. Hard working urban people who are neither graduate nor honest are represented by?

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VIBRANT ACADEMY MENTAL ABILITY
(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - (ICSE)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET
DPP. NO. - 1
Topic : Number series
Find the missing term :
Q.1 3, 8, 15, 24, ?
(A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 35 (D) 36
Q.2 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, ? ,16, 64
(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 25 (D) 28
Q.3 2, 20, ?, 110, 182
(A) 56 (B) 72 (C) 90 (D) 96
Q.4 11, 13, 17, 25, 32 , ? , 47
(A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 37 (D) 39
Q.5 512, 64, 16, 8, 8, 16, ?
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 40 (D) 64
Q.6 13, 16, 22, 26, 38, 62, ?, 102
(A) 66 (B) 68 (C) 72 (D) 74

Q.7 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, ? , 123, 199
(A) 76 (B) 70 (C) 84 (D) 95
Q.8 8, 4, 12, 6, 18, ? , 27
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) None of these

Q.9 5, 14, 41, 122, 365, ?
(A) 1194 (B) 1094 (C) 1095 (D) 1093
Q.10 12, 30, 56, 90, ?
(A) 130 (B) 125 (C) 147 (D) 132

Q.11 4, 8, 12, 24, 36, 72, ?
(A) 108 (B) 98 (C) 92 (D) 96
Q.12 128, 110, 90, ?, 44
(A) 37 (B) 55 (C) 68 (D) 44
Q.13 61, 52, 63, 94, 46, ?
(A) 18 (B) 19 (C) 40 (D) 25
Q.14 80, 62, 46, ?, 20
(A) 36 (B) 40 (C) 38 (D) 32
Q.15 7, 21, 11, 33, 17, ?
(A) 32 (B) 50 (C) 54 (D) 51
Find the wrong term :
Q.16 297, 272, 245, 216, 185, 153, 117
(A) 117 (B) 153 (C) 185 (D) 216
Q.17 444, 300, 200, 136, 87, 84, 80
(A) 200 (B) 136 (C) 87 (D) 80
Q.18 376, 188, 88, 40, 16, 4, –2
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 40 (D) 188
Q.19 572, 284, 140, 72, 32, 14, 5
(A) 14 (B) 32 (C) 72 (D) 5
Q.20 2, 5, 11, 23, 48, 95, 191, 383
(A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 23 (D) 48
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DPP. NO. - 2
Topic : Alphabet and Letter Repeating Series
Find the missing term :
Q.1 A Z, BY, CX, DW, ?, FU
(A) EV (B) DU (C) FV (D) None of theseS
Q.2 AN, OB, CP, QD, ?
(A) ER (B) ES (C) FR (D) EQ
Q.3 1BR, 2EO, 6HL, 15KI, ?
(A) 22NF (B) 31NF (C) 31NE (D) 28NF
Q.4 (ABC)-6, (DEF)-15, (GHI)-24, ?
(A) (IJK)-33 (B) (JKM)-33 (C) (IJK)-32 (D) (JKL)-33
Q.5 AD9, BF16, CH25, ?, EL49
(A) DJ36 (B) DJ49 (C) JD36 (D)DM49
Q.6 FLP, INS, LPV, ?
(A) ORX (B) PRY (C) ORY (D) OSY
Q.7 CAT, FDW, IGZ, ?
(A) KJA (B) KTC (C) LHD (D) LJC
Q.8 B3M, E7J, H15G, K31D, ?
(A) N65A (B) O63A (C) N63A (D) N63Z
Find the wrong term :
Q.9 G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L
(A) G4T (B) J10R (C) M20P (D) P43N
Q.10 P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, X18O, Z23R
(A) V12L (B) X18O (C) Z23R (D) R5F
Q.11 ABD, DGK, HMS, NTB, SBL, ZKW
(A) NTB (B) DGK (C) SBL (D) ZKW
Q.12 PON, RQP, TSR, VVT, XWV, ZYX
(A) VVT (B) TSR (C) XWV (D) RQP
Q.13 Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, Y88F
(A) Y66B (B) Y44B (C) Y88F (D) Z88B
Q.14 EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
(A) FQW (B) GRX (C) HTY (D) ITZ
Q.15 DOU, EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
(A) HTY (B) EPV (C) FQW (D) ITZ
Fill in the blanks :
Q.16 abca _ bcaab _ ca _ bbc _ a
(A) ccaa (B) bbaa (C) abac (D) abba
Q.17 aba _ baca _ ba _ bacaabac _ aca
(A) cacb (B) ccab (C) cabc (D) abcc
Q.18 m _ l _ ml _ m _ llm
(A) lmmm (B) lmlm (C) lmml (D) mllm
Q.19 a_ _b_a_ab_aa
(A) a b a a b (B) b b a b a (C) b b a b b (D) b a a b a
Q.20 k _ mk _ lmkkl _ kk _ mk
(A) lklm (B) lkmk (C) lkmm (D) lkml

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DPP. NO. - 3
Topic : Missing Term in Figures
Find the missing term :

Q.1

(A) 28 (B) 40 (C) 39 (D) 42

Q.2

(A) 39 (B) 45 (C) 35 (D) 48

Q.3

(A) 35 (B) 37 (C) 45 (D) 26

Q.4

(A) 26 (B) 25 (C) 34 (D) 38

Q.5

(A) 94 (B) 86 (C) 82 (D) 78

Q.6

(A) 125 (B) 216 (C) 121 (D) 225

Q.7

(A) 25 (B) 129 (C) 7 (D) 49

Q.8

(A) I (B) L (C) O (D) U

Q.9

(A) 304 (B) 104 (C) 204 (D) 404

Q.10

(A) D (B) W (C) Y (D) U

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Q.11

(A) 262 (B) 274 (C) 320 (D) 132

Q.12

(A) 112 (B) 92 (C) 82 (D) 102
5 3 6
2 4 2 3 4 7
584 694 ?
Q.13
2 2 3 2 1 2
1 2 1
(A) 937 (B) 824 (C) 769 (D) 678
3 ?
2 15 54 6
Q.14 4 67 75 3
7 8
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

Q.15

(A) 16 (B) 9 (C) 85 (D) 112
5 1 126
Q.16 4 4 68
7 5 ?
(A) 348 (B) 340 (C) 400 (D) 70

Q.17

(A) 65, 36, 63 (B) 53, 24, 63 (C) 49, 32, 53 (D) 51, 25, 61
1 2 3 2 10 12

Q.18 2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24

(A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) 8
15 4
33 2
27 2
36 8
32 ?
Q.19 18 9
22 11
12 3

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12
6 1 9

Q.20 2 12 4 4 12 2 2 ? 3

3 3 15
(A) 27 (B) 45 (C) 120 (D) 180

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DPP. NO. - 4
Topic : Mathematical Operations
Q.1 What is the value of (48 – 12)  4 + 6  2 × 3 = ?
(A) 10 (B) 0.6 (C) 2 (D) 18
Q.2 What is the value of 1260  15  7 = ?
(A) 12 (B) 58 (C) 122 (D) 588
Q.3 It being given that : > denotes +, < denotes – , + denotes , – denotes =, = denotes ‘less than’ and × denotes
‘greater than’, find which of the following is a correct statement.
(A) 3 + 2 > 4 = 9 + 3 < 1 (B) 3 > 2 > 4 = 18 + 3 < 2
(C) 3 > 2 < 4 × 8 + 4 < 2 (D) 3 + 2 < 4 × 9 + 3 < 3
Q.4 Find out the to sign to be interchanged for making the given equation correct.
10 + 10  10 – 10 × 10 = 10
(A) + and – (B) + and × (C)  and × (D) + and 
Q.5 If > = ÷, V = ×, < = +, = –, + = =, × = <, – = >
(A) 6 < 2 > 3 8 V 4 + 13 (B) 6 2 < 3 > 8 < 4 – 13
(C) 6 V 2 < 3 8 > 4 × 13 (D) 6 > 2 V 3 < 8 4 + 13

Q.6 If + = 7, = 27, = 81 then + =?
(A) 690 (B) 689 (C) 780 (D) 789
Q.7 Which of the following conclusions is correct according to the given expressions and symbols?
A : > , B : >, C :  , D : = , E : < , F : <
Expression (pEq) and (qEr)
(A) pEr (B) pFr (C) rBp (D) rBq
Q.8 If A + D > C + E, C + D = 2B and B + E > C + D, it necessarily follows that
(A) A + B > 2D (B) B + D > C + E (C) A + D > B + E (D) A + D > B + C
Direction : (Q.9)
In answering the question below, use the following information
X  Y means divide X by Y X  Y means multiply X by Y
X # Y means subtract Y from X X  Y means add Y to X
Q.9 One-fifth of one-tenth of two-third of a number X is given by
(A) X  (1  5)  (1  10)  (2  3) (B) X (1  5) (1  10) (2 3)
(C) X (1  5) ( 1  10) (2  3) (D) can’t be determined
Q.10 Which one of the four interchanges in signs and numbers would make the given equation correct?
3+5–2=4
(A) + and –, 2 and 3 (B) + and –, 2 and 5 (C) + and –, 3 and 5 (D) None of these
Directions : (Q. 11 to Q. 14)
In the following questions, the symbols, ©, ©, =, * and * are used with the following meanings
‘A © B’ means ‘A is greater than B’ ; ‘A © B’ means ‘A is greater than or equal to B’;
‘A = B’ means ‘A is equal to B’; ‘A * B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’;
‘A * B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’;
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Give answer (A) if only conclusion I is true; (B) if only conclusion II is true; (C) if either I or II is true; (D) if
neither I nor II is true.
Q.11 Statements : S©T, M * K, T = K
Conclusions : I. T © M II. T = M

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Q.12 Statements : S * M, M © L, L© P
Conclusions : I. S = P II. S * L

Q.13 Statements : U = V, V * N, R * U
Conclusions : I. R * N II. U © N

Q.14 Statements : E © U, C * E, C © B
Conclusions : I.U = C II. E © B

Q.15 What is the value of A if each letter represents a different digit?

A 3 B
 B
2 1 7 B

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

Direction : (Q.16 & Q.17) For the following questions
means “bigger than”
 means “smaller than”
O means “equal to”
× means “addition”
= means “subtraction”
Q.16 If a c and b × d O c, then :
(A) d a (B) a O d (C) b c (D) d  a
Q.17 If a = b  d = c and a O c, then :
(A) d b (B) d  b (C) b O d (D) None of these

Q.18 If A stands for +, B stands for –,C stands for ×, then what is the value of : 10 C 4 A 4 C 4 B 6 ?
(A) 60 (B) 56 (C) 50 (D) 46

Q.19 If 4 # 2 @ 3 = 6, 18 # 6 @ 4 = 12, then what will be the value to 24 # 3 @ 7 ?
(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 72 (D) 56

Q.20 In the following question some numbers are given in the shape of figures

 = 2,  =5

+ = 7, × = 18

What is the value of = ?

(A) 9 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 2

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DPP. - 05
Topic : Alphabet Test

Q.1 Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes first :
(A) Cloud (B) Middle (C) Grunt (D) Chain

Q.2 Arrange the given world in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes last :
(A) Abandon (B) Actuate (C) Accumulate (D) Acquit

Q.3 Find which one word can be made from the letters of the given word.
IMMEDIATELY
(A) DIALECT (B) LIMITED (C) DIAMETER (D) DICTATE

Q.4 How many pairs of letters in the word ‘BRIGHTER’ have as many letters between them in the word as in the
alphabet ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D)more than 4

Q.5 Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series increases by one. Which of the following
series observes this rule ?
(A) DBPUY (B) DBUYP (C) DBYPU (D) DBYUP

Directions (Q.6- Q.13) : Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series.
AB C D E F G H IJ K LM N O PQ R STUVW XYZ

Q.6 Which letter is the seventh to the right of the thirteenth letter from your left ?
(A) S (B) T (C) U (D) V

Q.7 Which letter will be the sixth to the right of the eleventh letter from the right end of the alphabet :
(A) K (B) V (C) J (D) U

Q.8 Which letter is midway between 22nd letter from the left and 21st letter from the right :
(A) N (B) M (C) O (D) P

Q.9 If the above alphabet is written in the reverse order, which will be the eighth letter to the right of O :
(A) F (B) G (C) V (D)W

Q.10 If every alternate letter starting from B is deleted from the given alphabet, which of the following will be the
tenth letter from the right end :
(A) G (B) D (C) Q (D) H

Q.11 If the second half of the given alphabet is written in reverse order, which letter will be seventh to the right of
the twelfth letter from the left end :
(A) R (B) S (C) U (D) V
Q.12 If the first and the second letters interchange their positions and similarly the third and the fourth letters, the
fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which letter will be the seventeenth from your right :
(A) F (B) H (C) I (D) J

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Q.13 Four of the following are alike in regard to their position in the alphabet and hence form a group which is the
one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) FE (B) ML (C) JK (D) VX

Q.14 Arrange the following group of numbers such that when arranged in a specific order, meaningful word is
formed.
RMNBUE
1 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 1,5,4,2,6,3 (B) 2,6,3,4,1,5 (C) 3,5,2,4,6,1 (D) 4,6,3,2,1,5

Q.15 A meaningful word starting with A is made from the first, the second, the fourth, the fifth and sixth letters of
the word ‘CONTRACT’, which of the following is the middle letter of the word ?
(A) C (B) T (C) O (D) R

Q.16 How many independent words can ‘STAINLESS’ be divided into without changing the order of the letters and
using each letter only once ?
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

Q.17 Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series decreases by one. Which of the following
series is observing the rule ?
(A) BGKNPR (B) CINRTU (C) EJNQST (D) LQUXAP

Q.18 If the last four letters for the word ‘CONCENTRATION’ are written in the reverse order followed by next two
letters in the reverse order and next three in the reverse order and then followed by the first four in the reverse
order, counting from the end, which letter would be eighth in the new arrangement ?
(A) T (B) N (C) E (D) R

Q.19 If in the alphabet series the first and the second letters interchanges their positions and similarly the third and the
fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which letter will be the seventeenth from your right ?
(A) F (B) H (C) J (D) None of these

Q.20 If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the fifth, the seventh and the eleventh
letters of the word ‘DISTRIBUTION’ which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such
word can be formed give ‘X’ as answer. If more than one such words can be formed, give ‘M’ as answer.
(A) O (B)  (C) B (D) X

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DPP. - 06
Topic : CODING DECODING
Directions (1-9) : In each of the questions below, find out the correct answer from the given alternatives.

1. If in a certain language PENSION is coded as NEISNOP, how is TEMPERS coded in that code ?
(A) RMETPES (B) RESETPM (C) SEEPMRT (D) SEPEMRT

2. If in a certain language CASUAL is coded as GEWYEP, how is PEOPLE coded in that code ?
(A) SHRSOH (B) TISTPI (C) SIRTOI (D) THSTOI

3. If in a certain language SALE is coded as SCLG, how is CASUAL coded in that code ?
(A) BARUZK (B) FAVUDL (C) CBSVAM (D) CCSWAN

4. If in a certain language KNIFE is coded as HNFFB, how is DOCTOR coded in that language ?
(A) ROTCOD (B) AOZTLR (C) CTORDO (D) CODTOR

5. I f BAT C H is c o de d as ABSD G, h ow is FORSAKE coded in that code ?
(A) ABDGS (B) EPQTZLD (C) EQPZLTD (D) GDSBA

6. In a certain code, CALANDER is written as CLANAEDR. How is CIRCULAR written in that code ?
(A) ICCRLURA (B) CRIUCALR (C) CRIUCLRA (D) ICRCLUAR

7. In a certain code, REFRIGERATOR, is coded as ROTAREGIRFER. Which word would be coded as
NOITINUMMA ?
(A) ANMOMIUTNI (B) AMNTOMUIIN (C) AMMUNITION (D) NMMUNITIOA

8. If FULFNHW is the coded for CRICKET, then EULGH is the code for which word ?
(A) PRIDE (B) BRIDE (C) BLADE (D) BLIND

9. If in a certain language, SHIFT is coded as RFFBO,which word would be coded as LKUMB ?
(A) MMXQG (B) MLVNC (C) KJVLA (D) MJVLC
10. If :(i) Mum Sum Dum means Water is pure ; (ii) Lao Chin Mum means Water has taste; (iii) Dum Phu
Phin means He is honest; (iv) Khu Sing Chin means Never taste it; then which letter code stands for has:
(A) Sum (B) Chin (C) Lao (D) Mum

11. If in a certain language, Rum Pum Po means Boy Is Mad; Main Po She means Girl Is Beautiful and Dum
Pum To means They Are Mad, which word in the language means Boy ?
(A) Rum (B) Dum (C) Pum (D) Po

12. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and
pink is called fish in a certain language, what is the colour of the sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue (B) Fish (C) Rain (D) Pink

13. If room is called bed, bed is called window, window is called flower and flower is called cooler on what
would a man sleep ?
(A) Window (B) Bed (C) Flower (D) Cooler

Directions (14-15): In each of the following questions find the correct answer from the given alternatives.
14. If 6 is coded as T, 8 is coded as I, 3 is coded as N, 9 is coded as Q, 2 is coded as Y, 5 is coded as D and 7
is coded as R, then what is the coded form of DRINTQ:
(A) 573869 (B) 578396 (C) 576839 (D) None of these

15. In a certain code 975 means Throw away garbage, 528 means Give away smoking and 213 means Smoking
is harmful. Which digit in that code means Smoking :
(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 3

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DPP. - 07
Topic : DIR ECTION SENSE TEST

1. Amit faces towards North.Turning to his right he walks 25 metres. He then turns to his left and walks 30
metres. Next, he moves 25 metres to his right. He then turns to his right again and walks 55 metres. Finally,
he turns to the right and moves 40 metres. In which direction is he now from his starting point ?
(A) South-West (B) South (C) North-West (D) South-East

2. A rabbit runs 30' towards East and turns to right, runs 20' and turns to right, runs 19' and again turns to left, runs
15' and then turns to left, runs 22' and finally turns to left and runs 16'. Now, which direction is the rabbit facing?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

3. Raj walked 20 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He then turned to his
left and walked 20 metres. He again turned to his right and walked 10 metres. At what distance is he from the
starting point and in which direction ?
(A) 35 metres, East (B) 35 metres, North (C) 40 metres, East (D) 60 metres, East

4. While facing East you turn to your left and walk 10 m; then turn to your left and walk 10 m, and now you turn
45º towards your right and go straight to cover 25 m. Now, in which direction are you from your starting point?
(A) North-East (B) South-West (C) South-East (D) North-West

5. Ram is to the South-East of Mukesh, Shyam is to the East of Mukesh and North-East of Ram. If Suresh is
to the North of Ram and North-West of Shyam, in which direction of Mukesh is Suresh located ?
(A) North-West (B) South-West (C) North-East (D) South-East

6. A watch reads 10:30, if the minute hand points to East in which direction does the hour hand point ?
(A) North-East (B) South-East (C) South-West (D) West

7. Aadi stand on his head and his face pointing North words, in what direction will his left hand point-
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

8. There are four towns P, Q, R and T. Q is to the South-west of P, R is to the east of Q and south-east of P, and
T is to the north of R in line with QP. In which direction of P is T located ?
(A) South-east (B) North (C) North-east (D) East

9. Ramesh started from his house, walked 2 km North then 3 km West then 6 km south. How for away from his
house was he then ?
(A) 2 kms (B) 3 kms (C) 4 kms (D) 5 kms

10. One evening before sunset two friends Amit and Sunil were talking to each other face to face. If Sunil’s
shadow was exactly to his left side, which direction was Amit facing ?
(A) North (B) South (C) West (D) Data inadequate

11. If East become North-West, North-West become South and so on then what will South become ?
(A) North-West (B) South-West (C) West (D) North-East

12. A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the North. When the post office was
100 metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50 metres to deliver the last letter at shantivilla.
He then moved in the same direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100 metres. How many
metres was he away from the post office ?
(A) 0 (B) 90 (C) 150 (D) 100

13. Ram left for his home in his car. He drove 15 km towards North and then 10 km towards West. He then turned
to the South and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the East and moved 8 km. Finally, he turned right and
drove 10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point ?
(A) 2 km West (B) 5 km West (C) 6 km West (D) None of these

14. A and B start from a fixed point. A moves towards East and after walking 3 km. turns to his right and covers
4 km. B moves towards West and walks 4 km.and then turns to his right and walks 3 km. Now how far are A
and B from each other ?
(A) 10 km (B) 5 km (C) 8 km (D) 7 2 km

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DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT
Directions : (1 to 3) Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow. In a swimming race,
five participants - A , B, C, D and E take part. Lane 1 is extreme left and lane 5 is extreme right. The following
conditions exist .
I. B and E are not swimming adjacent to each other.
II. D is not in any one of the extreme (outermost) lanes.
III. A is to the left of C.

1. If B is in lane 3, A in lane 1, then C could be in
(A) lane 4 (B) lane 2
(C) lane 2 or 4 (D) Situation violates the conditions

2. If B is in lane 4 and C is in lane 3, then E could be in
(A) lane 1 (B) lane 2
(C) lane 1 or 2 (D) Situation violates the conditions

3. If D is to the left of A, then D can be in
(A) lane 2 (B) lane 3 only (C) lane 2 or 3 (D) None of these

4. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing you such that D is on the left of C and B is on the right
of E. A is on the right of C and B is on the left of D. If E occupies a corner position, then who is sitting in the
centre ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

Directions : (5 to 9)
(i) Nine students P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting on a bench facing towards the sea.
(ii) R is next to the right of P and second to the left of W.
(iii) Q is on any one end and second to the left of T.
(iv) U is the neighbour of Q and X is third to the right of S. (v) V is the neighbour of S and T.

5. Which of the two students are on the two ends?
(A) R and V (B) P and V (C) P and T (D) None of these

6. Which of the following is true ?
(A) R and W are neighbours of Q (B) U is just in the middle of all students
(C) Group of 8 friends is just left to W (D) W and U are neighbours of X.

7. Which of the given five statements is unnecessary ?
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iv) (D) None of these

8. Who is just in the middle ?
(A) P (B) U (C) S (D) V

9. Which of the following group is just right to U ?
(A) XWS (B) WSR (C) XWQ (D) SVT

Direction: (10 to 14): Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below :
(i) Six persons A,B,C, D, E and F are sitting in two rows, three in each
(ii) E is not at the end of any row.
(iii) D is second to the left of F
(iv) C who is the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally opposite to D (v) B is the neighbour of F.
10. Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other ?
(A) F and C (B) D and A (C) A and C (D) A and F

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11. Who is facing B ?
(A) A (B) C (C) E (D) D
12. Which of the following are in one row ?
(A) FBC (B) CEB (C) DBF (D) CEF

13. Which of the following are in the same row ?
(A) A and E (B) E and D (C) C and B (D) A and B

14. After interchanging the seat D with E. Who will be the neighbour of D in the new position ?
(A) C and A (B) F and B (C) Only B (D) Only C

Directions : (15 to 16) Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Six people are to be
seated around a circular table keeping equal distance among each other. Naveen cannot sit adjacent
to Laxman, Madhvi or Puneet. However, Kamini insists on sitting adjacent to Madhvi and in the
anticlockwise direction with respect to Madhvi. Omprakash should also be seated.

15. In how many possible arrangements can these six people seat themselves around the circular table ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6

16. Who sits opposite to Madhvi ?
(A) Naveen (B) Laxman (C) Omprakash (D) Cannot be determined

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DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : RANKING & ORDERING TEST & LOGICAL SEQUENCE OF WORDS

1. If the first and second digits in the sequence 5 9 8 1 3 2 7 4 3 8 are interchanged, also the third and fourth
digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on, which digit would be the seventh counting to your left ?
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 8

2. In the following number series how many 8's are there which are exactly divisible by the numbers which are
preceded and followed by it ?
824517284842282698454832843183
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

3. How many such 6’s are there in the following number series which are followed by an even number and
preceded by any odd number ?
364576354364564163963456
(A) zero (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

4. If the digits of the following numbers are reversed and then the number are arranged in ascending order then
what will be the middle digit of the middle term ?
375, 682, 315, 792, 865, 129, 875
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

5. How many 9’s are there which come after 6 or multiple of 3 ?
699969796979592989696999979896978
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 6

6. How many A's are in the given letter series which does not has B just before it but has C just after it ?
DACBACDAC BCACBACBADC
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

7. Thirty six vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car, there is one scooter. After the
second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the
number of scooters in the second half of the row.
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 17

8. If the numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in ascending order, minimum number
being on the top, which would come at the ninth place from the top ?
(A) 18 (B) 21 (C) 24 (D) 27

9. Three persons P, Q and R are standing in a queue. There are five persons between P and Q and eight persons
between Q and R. If there be three persons ahead of R and 18 persons behind P, what could be the minimum
number of persons in the queue ?
(A) 38 (B) 37 (C) 25 (D) 28

10. Rohan ranked eleventh from the top and twenty-seventh from the bottom among the students who passed
the annual examinations is a class. If the number of students who failed in the exams. was 12, how many
students did appear for the examinations ?
(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) Can't be determined

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11. 1. Silver 2. Sand 3. Platinum 4. Iron
5. Gold 6. Diamond
(A) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (B) 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2 (C) 3, 6, 5, 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 4, 2

12. 1. Yellow 2. Red 3. Green 4. Orange
5. Violet 6. Blue
(A) 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2 (B) 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2 (C) 5, 6, 3, 1, 4, 2 (D) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2

13. 1. Milky way 2. Sun 3. Moon 4. Earth
5. Stars
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 (B) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (C) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 (D) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1

14. 1. Shirt 2. Shoes 3. Cap 4. Trouser
5. Spects
(A) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 (B) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 (C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (D) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

15. 1. Multiplication 2. Addition 3. Bracket 4. Division
5. Subtraction
(A) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 (C) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 (D) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

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DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : BLOOD RELATION TEST

1. Pointing towards a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said the only daughter of her grandfather(Paternal) is
my wife. How is Rajesh related to that woman
(A) Uncle (Fufa) (B) Father (C) Maternal uncle (D) Brother

2. Pointing to a person, Rohit said to Neha, His mother is the only daughter of your father. How is Neha related
to that person ?
(A) Aunt (B) Mother (C) Daughter (D) Wife

3. Neelam, who is Rohit's daughter, says to Indu, Your mother Reeta is the younger sister of my father, who is
the third child of Sohanji. How is Sohanji ralated to Indu ?
(A) Maternal-uncle (B) Grandfather (C) Father (D) Father-in-law

4. Pointing to a photograph, a person says to his friend, She is the grand-daughter of the elder brother of my
father, How is the girl in the photograph related to the man ?
(A) Niece (B) Sister (C) Aunt (D) Sister-in-law

5. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Mukesh said, She is the only daughter of the mother of my
brotherís sister. How is that person related to Mukesh ?
(A) Mother (B) Cousin (C) Sister (D) Aunt

6. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sisters or daughters but her mother is the only
daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister-in-law (B) Grand daughter (C) Daughter-in-law (D) Cannot be determind

Directions : (7 to 9) P,Q,R,S,T,U,V & W are the family members.Q is the sister of V and V is the brother of R.T is the
wife of P,whose father is W. S is the husband of Q and U is the son of V. P is the father of Q.

7. How U is related with T ?
(A) Son (B) Mother (C) Grandson (D) Nephew

8. How S is related with R ?
(A) Son (B) uncle (C) Brother-in-law (D) Brother

9. How W is related with R ?
(A) Grand father (B) uncle (C) Son (D) Brother

10. In a family of 8 persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, there are 3 couples and 4 females. All couples
excepting one particular, have 1 child each. G and F are cousins. B is the grandmother of G and C is the son
of A. If couple C - H has a daughter F then how is G related to E ?
(A) Grandson (B) Granddaughter (C) Son (D) Daughter-in-law

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DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : PUZZLE TEST

Directions : (1 to 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
I. There are six students ( A, B, C, D, E and F) in a group. Each student can opt for only three
choices out of the six which are music, reading, painting, badminton, cricket and tennis.
II. A, C and F like reading.
III. D does not like badminton, but likes music.
IV. Both B and E like painting and music.
V. A and D do not like painting, but they like cricket.
VI. All student except one like badminton.
VII. Two students like tennis.
VIII. F does not like cricket, music and tennis.

1. Which pair of students has the same combination of choices ?
(A) A and C (B) C and D (C) B and E (D) D and F

2. Who among the following students likes both tennis and cricket ?
(A) A and B (B) C (C) B and D (D) D

3. How many students like painting and badminton ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

4. Who among the following do not like music ?
(A) A , C and D (B) A, B and C (C) A, C and F (D) B, D and F

5. Which of the following is the most popular choice ?
(A) Tennis (B) Badminton (C) Reading (D) Painting

Directions : (6 to 7) Read the information carefully given below and answer the questions that follow.
A total of nine cards consisting of four kings, four queens and one Joker were there with Sujith, Ajay are
Sanjay.
I. Ajay had two cards, Sujith had three cards, and Sanjay had four cards.
II. The man with the most cards did not have the joker.
III. Everyone has at least one king.

6. Who had the Joker ?
(A) Ajay (B) Sanjay (C) Sujith (D) Ajay or Sujith

7. Who can have three queens ?
(A) Ajay (B) Sanjay (C) Sujith (D) Sanjay of Sujith

Directions : (8 to 12) Read the following information and answer the questions based on it :
In a school, there were five teachers. A and B were teaching Hindi and English C and B were teaching English and
Geography. D and A were teaching Mathematics and Hindi. E and B were teaching History and French.

8. Who among the teachers was teaching maximum number of subjects ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

9. Which of the following pairs was teaching both Geography and Hindi ?
(A) A and B (B) B and C (C) C and A (D) None of these

10. More than two teachers were teaching which subject ?
(A) History (B) Hindi (C) French (D) Geography

11. D, B and A were teaching which of the following subjects ?
(A) English only (B) Hindi and English
(C) Hindi only (D) English and Geography

12. Who among the teachers was teaching less than two subjects ?
(A) A (B) B (C) D (D) There is no such teacher

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DPP. NO. 12
Topic- Logical Venn Diagram

Directions (1 to 2) : Select the Venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in each question.
1. Elected house, M.P., M.L.A. :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. Animals, Men, Plants.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (3 to 5 ) : Select the Venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in each question.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3. Science, Physics, Chemistry
4. Atmosphere, Hydrogen, Oxygen
5. Biology, Botany, Zoology

Directions (6 to 10) : In the following figure, the circle stands
for employed, the square stands for hard working, the
triangle stands for rural and the rectangle stands for
intelligent. Study the figure carefully and answer the
questions that follow :

6. Non-rural, employed, hard working and intelligent people are indicated by region :
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11
7. Non-rural, employed people who are neither intelligent nor hard working are represented by region :
(A) 12 (B) 11 (C) 10 (D) 7

8. Intelligent, employed and hard working non-rural people are indicated by region :
(A) 11 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 7
9. Hard working non-rural people who are neither employed nor intelligent are shown by region :
(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 6 (D) 10

10. Employed, hard working and intelligent rural people are indicated by region :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : ANALOGY & PYRAMID TEST

Direction : (1 to 5) In the following questions, choose the words that show the same relationship as given
in the each questions.
1. Bank is related to ‘Money’ in the same way as ‘Transport’ is related:
(A) Goods (B) Road (C) Terrace (D) Floor

2. Which pair is related to each other in the same way as State and District ?
(A) Cockpit : Aeroplane (B) Judge : Court (C) Market : Shop (D) Europe : Euro

3. Flower is to a Bouquet as Minister is to:
(A) Voter (B) Cabinet (C) Constituency (D) Department

4. What is related to ‘Taka’ in the same way as ‘Lira’ is related to ‘Italy’ ?
(A) Pakistan (B) Jordan (C) Mexico (D) Bangladesh

5. Disease is related to pathology in the same way as Planet is related to:
(A) Sun (B) Satellite (C) Astrology (D) Astronomy

Directions : (6 to 15) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given
words/numbers/letters on one side of :: and one word is given on another side of :: while another
word/number/letter is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this
word/number/letter as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternatives.

6. Fruit : Banana : : Mamm al : ?
(A) Snake (B) Whale (C) Sparrow (D) Shark

7. Light : Ray : : Sound : ?
(A) Hear (B) Wave (C) Audio (D) Pitch

8. Rayon : Synthetic Fibre : : Polythene : ?
(A) Rubber (B) Polymer (C) Rexine (D) Artificial leather

9. 3 : 24 :: 5 : ?
(A) 120 (B) 45 (C) 124 (D) 27

10. 225 : 257 : : 289 : ?
(A) 301 (B) 316 (C) 320 (D) 325

11. 12 : 35 : : 16 : ?
(A) 32 (B) 48 (C) 47 (D) 63

12. AEZ : EIY :: IOX : ?
(A) UYZ (B) AEX (C) EIX (D) OUW

13. BID : CHE : : LEG : ?
(A) MFH (B) MDH (C) KFF (D) KDF

14. BDG : YVT : : DFI : ?
(A) XVS (B) WUR (C) WTR (D) TQN

15. MANTEL : NAMLET :: VANITY : ?
(A) NAVYIT (B) NAVYTI (C) NAVIYI (D) AVNTIY

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Directions : (16 to 20) Fill the blanks in the following questions from the choice given below. Which are based
on pyramids.

1
2 3 4
9 8 7 6 5
10 11 12 13 14 15 16
25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37
50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64
81 80 79 78 77 76 75 74 73 72 71 70 69 68 67 66 65
82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

16. 234 : 4614 : : 2812 : ?
(A) 3713 (B) 34614 (C) 121314 (D) 131415

17. 192021 : 213241 : : 414243 : ?
(A) 433023 (B) 435871 (C) 414039 (D) 435773

18. 151933 : 425774 : : 132131 : ?
(A) 435675 (B) 445576 (C) 455477 (D) 304554

19. 151835 : 193439 : : 274655 : ?
(A) 274654 (B) 465674 (C) 475475 (D) 455673

20. 474849 : 495277 : : 777879 : ?
(A) 795149 (B) 795247 (C) 527978 (D) 525377

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DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : CLASSIFICATIO N

Directions : (1 to 16) In each of the following questions, four words are given, out of which three are same in
one way and the fourth one is different from others. Select the odd one.

1. (A) Green (B) Violet (C) Brown (D) Yellow

2. (A) Monkey (B) Rabbits (C) Whale (D) Shark

3. (A) Hour (B) House (C) Honour (D) Know

4. (A) July (B) May (C) June (D) March

5. (A) listen (B) walk (C) run (D) swim

6. (A) Lion-Deer (B) Cat-Mouse (C) Hawk-Pigeon (D) Pig-Piglet

7. (A) Cooperate (B) Coordinate (C) Correlate (D) Combat

8. (A) Mumbai (B) Cochin (C) Kandla (D) Mysore

9. (A) 21 : 24 (B) 28 : 32 (C) 14 : 16 (D) 54 : 62

10. (A) 22 : 0 (B) 24 : 12 (C) 23 : 5 (D) 24 : 18

11. (A) 4 : 7 (B) 7 : 16 (C) 17 : 36 (D) 16 : 34

12. (A) 26 (B) 124 (C) 728 (D) 64

13. (A) KQ14 (B) AY13 (C) MR11 (D) GW15

14. (A) OUT (B) CAP (C) FAN (D) LIT

15. (A) Y X V T (B) G E C A (C) V T R P (D) H F D B

16. (A) ETGV (B) QHSJ (C) ISHR (D) CVEX

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DPP. NO. - 15
TOPIC- DICES

1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Which number is on the face opposite 6 :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
2. If the total of dots on opposite faces of a cubical block is always 7, find the figure which is correct :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3. (i) (ii) (iii)

Find the number of dots on the face opposite the face bearing 3 dots :
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) Cannot be determined

4. (i) (ii) (iii)

What numbers occur at the bottom face in the three positions of the same die :
(A) 6, 6, 2 (B) 5, 6, 1 (C) 5, 5, 5 (D) 6, 5, 2

5. (i) (ii)

What is the number of dots at the bottom face of the left hand side dice ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

6. (i) (ii)

What is the number of dots on the face opposite 2 dots :
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
Directions : (7 to 8) The figure (X) given below is the unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of the
following questions this unfolded figure is followed by four different figures of dice. You have to
select the figure which is identical to the figure (X).

7. (X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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A
C
8. (X) D B
E
F

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (9 to 10) In each of the following questions how does the figure look like when folded into a
cube along the marked lines ?

9.

(x) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) A and D (B) C and D (C) Only A (D) B and C

10.

(x) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) A and B (B) B and D (C) B and C (D) A and D

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DPP. NO. - 16
TOPIC : Non-Verbal Series, Analogy & Classification

Directions : (1 to 5) In the following questions, series of figures are given. Find the correct alternative to continue the
series.

1.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

2.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3.

4.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (6 to 10) In the following questions, there is a relationship between the two figures on the left of the sign
(: :). The same relationship exists between the figures to the right of the sign (: :), of which one is missing.
Find the missing one from the alternatives.

6.

7. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

8.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

9.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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10.

Directions : (11 to 15) In each of the following questions four figures are given. One of these figures does not correlate
with the rest of the figures. Find the different figure.

11.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

12.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

13.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

14.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

15.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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DPP. NO. - 17
TOPIC- MISCELLANEOUS

Directions : (1 to 4) Find the Mirror image of given words/figures ñ
1. JUDGEMENT
(A) TNEMEGDUJ (B) TJUDGEMEN (C) (D) DJUGEMNET

2. REASONING
(A) (B) (C) (D)

3.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

4.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions : (5 to 8) Find the Water image of given words/figures ñ
5. VAYU8436
(A) (B) (C) (D)

6. U4P15B7
(A) (B) (C) (D)

7.

8.

Directions : (9 to 10) A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given in figure X. Find out from amongst the
alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

9.

10.

Directions : (11 to 12) A sheet has been folded in the manner as shown in X, Y and Z respectively and
punched. You have to choose from the alternatives how it will look when unfolded.

11.

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12.

13. How many triangles are there in the given figure

(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 18

14. How many cubes are there in the following figure?

(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 8

15. How many squares does the following figure have ?

(A) 17 (B) 18 (C) 13 (D) 16
Directions :(16 to 17) Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X)
would complete the pattern.

16.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

17.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

18. There are four figures, three of which would form a complete square. Choose the three from among the
alternatives.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) bcd (B) abc (C) acd (D) abd
Directions : (19 to 20) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative figure in which the
question figure (X) is embedded.

19.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

20.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

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VIBRANT ACADEMY PHYSICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VIII (ICSE)

ANSWER KEY
DPP 1
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)
Ans. F T T T Constellation Earth Atom 15000000ºC
Que. 3-(a) 3-(b) 3-(c) 3-(d) 4-(a) 4-(b) 4-(c) 4-(d)
Ans. ii iii ii i Pole Star Meteor Moon Mars

DPP 2
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)
Ans. F T T T Venus Halley's cometPole about 88
Que. 3-(a) 3-(b) 3-(c) 3-(d)
Ans. iv iii ii i

DPP 3
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c)
Ans. Light Energy Ractilinear propagation F T F
Que. 3-(a) 3-(b) 3-(c)
Ans. i ii iii

DPP 4
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 3
Ans. Convex Convex Thin, Thick Thick, thin F F T iii
Que. 4-(a) 4-(b) 4-(c) 4-(d)
Ans. a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1

DPP 5
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c)
Ans. Planoconcave Infinity Virtual Convex Concave F T T
Que. 3-(a) 3-(b) 3-(c)
Ans. ii i iii

DPP 6
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 3-(a) 3-(b) 3-(c)
Ans. Glass Spectrum Prism F T F iv ii iii

DPP 7
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Real &
Ans. Real Real 0 Real, Real F T T F T
Enlarged

DPP 8
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Nearby small Concave,
Ans. Distant object Convex Convex T T T T F
objects Convex

DPP 9
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Ans. fomentation Coolent Water Sea Breeze Freezing F F F T
Que. 3-(a) 3-(b) 3-(c) 3-(d) 3-(e)
Ans. iii ii iv i ii

DPP 10
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
–1 –1
Ans. Sublimation Latent heat J Kg ºC Melting point Surface T T T T
Que. 3-(a) 3-(b) 3-(c) 3-(d)
Ans. iv i ii i

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DPP 11
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 3-(a) 3-(b) 3-(c)
Ans. Zero Potential Constant F T F T iii iv ii

DPP 12
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e) 3-(a)
Ans. Sound, Electric doubled Zero Energy F F F T T iii
Que. 3-(b) 3-(c)
Ans. i ii

DPP 13
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e) 3-(a)
Get charge Lightning
Ans. Graphite Charged F F F T F ii
and diverge conducting
Que. 3-(b) 3-(c) 3-(d) 3-(e)
Ans. i iii i i

DPP 14
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e) 3-(a) 3-(b) 3-(c)
Ans. 13.6×106 Melting Point iv ii i i i F F T

DPP 15
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e) 3-(a) 3-(b)
Ans. Melts kwh ii iv ii iv iii F T

DPP 16
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c)
North,
Ans. Repulsion Poles North i iii iii
South

DPP 17
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 3-(a) 3-(b)
Direction of Bar
current, Magent, Mutual
Ans. Magnetic T F T T iii i
Magnetude of North & Induction
current South
Que. 3-(c) 3-(d)
Ans. ii iii

DPP 18
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e) 3-(a)
Right hand Direction of Electric
Ans. Step down F T T F T ii
thumb magnetic field Motor
Que. 3-(b) 3-(c) 3-(d)
Ans. i ii iv

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VIBRANT ACADEMY CHEMISTRY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VIII (ICSE)

ANSWER KEY
DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C C B D B C A B A

DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A A B B B D A B D

DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B A D A B C D A D

DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A C B B B A D C A

DPP 5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A D B A D A D C C

DPP 6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C B B B A D B B B

DPP 7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D D C D B A D B D A

DPP 8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B D A D B A A D A

DPP 9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D D B C B C B D A C

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VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VIII (ICSE)

AN SWER K EY
DPP 1
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B D D C D D D C A

DPP 2
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A A C B C A C A D

DPP 3
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A D A C A A A C C

DPP 4
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A B B A A B B B B

DPP 5
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B B D A A B A D A

DPP 6
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A C C A B A A D C

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VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – VIII (ICSE)

ANSWER KEY
DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C B A B C C B C A
DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D D D A B D D B B
DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D C C B C C A B B
DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B C A C A B C A
DPP 5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A A A B B D C B B
DPP 6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B A B C D C A C B
DPP 7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C C A B A B D B B
DPP 8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A A C A C C D B C
DPP 9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A B D C A A A B C
DPP 10
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B D A B B B C A B
DPP 11
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C C B C A C B B C B
DPP 12
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D C A A B C A
DPP 13
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C C D B B C B C D
DPP 14
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B A D C B A B C C
DPP 15
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D B B C C A C D A

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VIBRANT ACADEMY MENTAL ABILITY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: VIII (ICSE)
DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D)
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A)
15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (B)
8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C)
DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : CODING DECODING
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (C)
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : DIR ECTION SENSE TEST
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D)
DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A)
15. (B) 16. (C)

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DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : RANKING & ORDERING TEST & LOGICAL SEQUENCE OF WORDS
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (C)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C)
15. (B)
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : BLOOD RELATION TEST
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : PUZZLE TEST
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (D)
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : ANALOGY
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : CLASSIFICATION
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (D)
8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (A) 16. (C)
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : DICES
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (C)
DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : NON-VERBAL SERIES, ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (D)
8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (A)
15. (A)
DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : MISCELLANEOUS
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (A)

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