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SCIENCE

DPPS

CLASS-IX (ICSE)

INDEX

PHYSICS - 01-23
CHEMISTRY - 24-43
BIOLOGY - 44-50

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
VIBRANT ACADEMY PHYSICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: IX (ICSE)
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : MEASUREMENT & EXPERIMENTATION
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Zero error is positive when the zero of Vernier scale lies to the___________of the zero of the main scale,
when the two jaws of the Vernier are in contact.
(b) The linear distance moved by the screw, when it is given one complete rotation is equal to the distance
between two consecutive threads, as measured along the axis of the screw. This is called the___________of
the screw.
(c) An ideal simple pendulum consists of a___________(called bob) tied to one end of a perfectly inextensible,
flexible and weightless string.
2. Multiple Choice :
(a) Which is not a fundamental unit?
(A) metre (B) litre (C) kilogram (D)second
(b) Which is not a unit of distance?
(A) Light year (B)Parsec (C) Leap year (D) Angstrom
(c) Which of the following is the unit of length?
(A) light year (B)gram (C) litre (D) century
(d) Amongst the following units, which is the unit of time?
(A) Light year (B) Leap year (C)Parsec (D) Angstrom

(e) A girl sitting on a swing stands up. The time period of the swing
(A) Increases (B) remains same (C) Decreases (D) none of these
(f) Which of the following measurement is most accurate?
(A) 2kg. (B) 2.0kg (C) 2.00kg (D)2000g
(g) Which of the following is a derived unit
(A) mass (B) volume (C) length (D)time
3. The bob of a simple pendulum is made of wood. What will be the effect on the time period if an identical bob
of aluminium replaces the wooden bob?
4. What are fundamental and derived physical quantities?
5. Give the SI definition of a kilogram.
6. What is the principle of a Vernier?
7. Give some examples of repetitive phenomenon occurring in nature which could be used for defining the
standard of time. Which phenomenon will be most appropriate for measuring the time?
8. How is the time period of a simple pendulum affected in the following situations?
(i) Amplitude of the pendulum is increased.
(ii) The length of the pendulum is doubled.
(iii) The brass bob is replaced with an identical aluminium bob.
(iv) The value of g is made one-fourth.
9. What is a (i) Burette (ii) Measuring cylinder (iii) Measuring flask
10. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5mm. The number of divisions on the circular scale is 100. What is the least
constant?
11. A girl is swinging in a swing in the slitting position. How will the period of the swing be affected if she stands up?
12. The least count of a Vernier caliper is 0.01cm and its zero error is -0.03cm, while measuring the length of a
rod, the main scale reading is 4.6cm and the sixth division on the Vernier is in line with a marking on the main
scale. Calculate the length of the rod.

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DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : MOTION IN ONE DIMENSION

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) A graph is a_____representation of the variation of one quantity with the variation of another quantity.
(b) When a number of different measurements have to be made we represent the data in the form of_____.
(c) The slope of a graph is the_____of the variation of the quantity on the Y axis with the variation of the
quantity on the X-axis.
(d) Dynamics is a sub branch of mechanics which deals with bodies in_____
(e) The reference point from which the distance of a body is measured is called_____
(f) A quantity which can be completely represented by magnitude alone is called_____

2. Multiple choice Question:
(a) The branch of physics which deals with the motion of objects while taking into consideration the nature of motion is
(A) dynamics (B) kinematics (C) statics (D) none of these

(b) There is an argument about uniform acceleration between Mr. X and Mr. Y. Mr. X says “acceleration means
that farther you go faster you go”. Mr.Y says “acceleration means that longer you go the faster you go”.
Whose statement is correct?
(A) Mr. X (B) Mr.Y (C)both (D) none of these

(c) Starting from rest at the top of an inclined plane a body reaches the bottom of the inclined plane in 4second.
In what time does the body cover one-fourth the distance starting from rest at the top?
(A)1second (B) 2second (C) 3second (D) 4second

(d) A car travels 100km east and then 100km south. Finally it comes back to the starting point by the south-east
route. Throughout the journey the speed is constant at 60kmh-1. The average velocity for the whole journey
if time taken is 3.3hours is
(A) 60 km h–1 (B) 90 kmh–1 (C) 0 kmh–1 (D) 180 kmh–1

(e) The displacement of a body is proportional to the cube of the time lapsed. The magnitude of the acceleration is
(A) Increasing with time (B) Decreasing with time
(C) Constant (D) Zero

3. What are the two main ways for presentation of data?

4. Give an example each for two types of tabular forms.

5. What is the special advantage in presenting data in graphical format?

6. When do we use the numbered row format for representation of data?

7. What is a graph?

8. Mention briefly the six steps in plotting a graph.

9. What is meant by ‘best fit’ in drawing a graph?

10. What does a straight line graph signify?

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11. What does the slope of straight line graph, give? How is slope calculated?

12. Give an example of non-uniform motion

13. Under what condition does the average velocity become equal to the instantaneous velocity?

14. A honey bee leaves the hive and travels 2km before returning. Is the displacement for the trip same as the
distance travelled? If not, why?

15. A body is moving with uniform velocity. What is the relation between the instantaneous and average velocity
of the body?

16. What is meant by retardation?

17. A cheetah, the fastest of all land animals over a distance, accelerates from rest to 26ms’1. Assuming that
the acceleration is constant, find the average speed of the cheetah.

18. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius 42,250km. Calculate its linear velocity, if it takes
24hours to revolve round the earth.

19. A person who walks for exercise produces the position time graph as shown in figure.
(a) Without calculations, decide which segment of the graph (A, B, C and D) indicate positive, negative and
zero average velocity
(b) Calculate the average velocity for each segment to verify your answer to part a.

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DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : NEWTONS LAWS OF MOTION

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) A force is an___________ whose action can produce acceleration
(b) Inertia is of___________ types.
(c) The total___________ contained in a body is called momentum.
(d) Newton’s first law gives the___________ definition of force.
(e) The rate of change of momentum is___________ to the applied force.

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) An athlete runs some distance before taking a long jump, because
(A) he gains energy to take him through the long distance
(B) it helps to apply larger force
(C) by running action and reaction forces increase.
(D) by running he gives himself large inertia of motion.

(b) While dusting a carpet we suddenly jerk or beat it with a stick because
(A) inertia of rest keeps the dust in its position and the dirt is removed by movement of the carpet away
(B) inertia of motion removes the dirt.
(C) no inertia is involved it is due to practical experience
(D) none of these

(c) A man is at rest in the middle of pond of perfectly smooth ice. He can get himself to the shore by making use
of Newton’s.
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) All the laws

(d) Inertia is that property of a body by virtue of which the body is
(A) unable to change by itself its state of rest
(B) unable to change by itself its state of uniform motion
(C) unable to change by itself its direction of motion
(D) all of these
(e) A force can be completely described by
(A) its magnitude (B) its direction
(C) its magnitude and direction (D) neither magnitude nor direction

3. Two similar vehicles are moving with same velocity on the road, such that one of them is loaded and the other
one is empty. Which of the two vehicles will require larger force to stop it?

4. Explain why some of the leaves may fall from a tree, if we vigorously shake its branch.
5. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out. Explain.

6. What happens when you shake a wet piece of cloth? Explain your observation.

7. If a coin is placed on a piece of cardboard resting on top of a jar. It is possible to flick the card away sharply
so that the coin falls into the jar. Explain why this is so.

8. A Porsche 911 accelerates from rest to 27ms–1 due north in 5.8s. The mass of the car is 1400kg. What is the
magnitude and direction of the average net force that acts on the Porsche?

9. A catapult on a aircraft carrier is capable of accelerating a plane form 0 to 56.0 m/s in a distance of 80.0m.
Find the average net force that the catapult exerts on a 13,300kg jet.

10. A runner in a sprint race reaches 9ms–1 in 3s from the start of the race. If her mass is 50kg, what force must
she exert in order to do this?

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DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : NEWTONS LAWS OF MOTION

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Force = Mass x __________
(b) Action and reaction are equal and __________
(c) Rocket works on the principle of __________

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) The SI Unit of force is
(A) Newton (B) Newton per second (C) Newton-metre (D) Newton per square metre

(b) Which of tthe following has the largest inertia?
(A) a pin (B) a pen (C) your physics book (D) your school bag

(c) The rate of change of momentum is,
(A) velocity (B) acceleration (C) force (D) impulse

(d) A jet engine works on the principle of Newton’s
(A) first law of motion (B) second law of motion
(C) third law of motion (D) none of these

(e) Action - reaction forces act
(A) on the same body (B) on different bodies (C) along different lines (D) in the same direction

3. A javelin throw is marked foul if an athlete crosses over the line marked for throw. Explain why the athletes
often fall to stop themselves before the line.

4. Why is it advised to tie the luggage with a rope on the roof of buses?

5. If someone jumps to the shore from a boat, moves in the opposite direction. Explain.

6. A large truck and a car, both moving with speed v, have a head on collision and both of them come to halt after
that. If the collision lasts for 10s.
(i) Which vehicles experiences the greater force of impact?
(ii) Which vehicles experiences the greater momentum change?
(iii) Which vehicles experiences the greater acceleration?
(iv) Why is the car likely to suffer more damage than the truck?

7. What is the law of inertia? Name the scientist who first stated this law. Describe a simple experiment to
demonstrate the inertia of rest.

8. A cricket ball of mass 0.1 kg moving at a speed of 30ms–1 is brought to rest by a player in 0.03second. Find
the average force applied by the player.

9. A car of mass 1000kg travelling at 20ms–1 crashes into a brick wall and comes to rest in 0.5s. calculate the
average force exerted by the wall on the car.

10. A car of mass 1200kg is brought to rest form a speed of 60ms–1 by a constant breaking force of 6000N.
Calculate the retardation and the time in which the car comes to rest.

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DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : GRAVITATION

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) ______________ is the force of attraction between any two bodies in the universe.
(b) ______________ is the force of attraction between a body and a planet.
(c) Acceleration due to gravity ______________ with height from the surface of the earth.

2. Multiple choice Question:
(a) Force of gravitation between two bodies varies as
1 1
(A) r (B) 1 r (C) (D)
r r2

(b) At which of the locations the value of ‘g’ is a maximum
(A) on the top of Mount Everest (B) on the top of Qutub Minar
(C) At any place on the equator (D) A camp site in Antarctica

(c) A stone is dropped from the top of the tower. Its speed after it has fallen 20m is (Take g = 10ms–2)
(A) –10 ms–1 (B) 10ms–1 (C) –20ms–1 (D) 20ms–1

(d) A ball is thrown vertically upward, acceleration due to gravity is
(A) In the direction opposite to the direction of motion
(B) In the direction same as the direction motion
(C) Towards downword
(D) Becomes zero at the highest point.

(e) At the top of its path a projectile
(A) has no acceleration (B) has acceleration in the upward direction
(C) has acceleration in the down direction (D) has acceleration in the horizontal direction

3. What is centre of gravity?

4. In what sense does the moon fall towards the earth? Why does it not actually fall on the surface of Earth?

5. If the Earth attracts an apple. Does the apple also attracts the Earth? If so, why does the Earth not move
towards the apple?

6. If the force of gravity some how vanished away, why would we be sent flying in space?

7. There are two kinds of balances, that is, a beam balance and a spring balance, if both the balances give
same measure of a given body on the surface of the Earth, will they give same measures on the surface of
Moon? Explain your answer.

8. A man weighs 600 N at the earth’s surface. At what height above the surface of earth will he weigh 300N?
Take Radius of earth to be 6400km.

9. If the radius of the earth were to decrease by 1%, its mass remaining same, by what percentage will the
acceleration due to gravity increase?

10. Two planets of radii R1 and R2 respectively are made of the same material. Find the ratio of acceleration due
to gravity on their surfaces.
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DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : GRAVITATION

1. Fill in the blanks :
(a) Acceleration due to gravity _______________ with depth from the surface of the earth.
(b) Acceleration due to gravity is a maximum at the_______________
(c) _______________ of a body changes from place to place but its _______________ remains constant.

2. Multiple choice Question :
(a) If a planet existed whose mass and radius were both half that of the earth, its gravitational acceleratio due to
gravity at its surface would be
(A) 19.6ms–2 (B) 9.8ms–2 (C) 4.9ms–2 (D) 2.45ms–2

(b) A stone is dropped from a cliff, Its speed after it has fallen 100m is
(A) 9.8ms–1 (B) 44.2ms–1 (C) 19.69ms–1 (D) 98ms–1

(c) A ball is thrown up and attains a maximum height of 100m. It is thrown upwards with a speed of
(A) 9.8ms–1 (B) 44.2ms–1 (C) 19.69ms–1 (D) 98ms–1

(d) A stone dropped form a certain height takes 4 second to reach the ground. The height is
(A) 19.6m (B) 39.2m (C) 156.8m (D) 78.4m

(e) The weight of an object
(A) is the quantity of matter it contains
(B) refers to its inertia
(C) is the force as its mass but expressed in different units
(D) is the force with which its is attracted towards the earth.

3. A bag of sugar weighs W at some place on the equator. If this bag is taken to Antarctica, will it weigh same,
more or less? Give a reason for your answer.

4. Which is greater: the attraction of earth for 1 kg of lead or attraction of 1 kg lead for earth?

5. The weight of a man on the earth is 100kg. Does this weight on the moon increase or decreases?

6. When dropped from the same height a body reaches the ground quicker at poles than at the equator. Why?

7. What is weightlessness?

8. Give one point of distinction between g and G.

9. A body weighs (i) 900N and (ii) 360N on the surface of earth. How much will it weigh on the surface of mars
whose mass is one-ninth and radius is one-half that of the earth? Take g on the surface of earth to be 10ms–2

10. A ball is thrown straight upwards into the air with an initial velocity of 20ms–1. How long will it take the ball to
reach a height of 15m? How fast will it then be going? Take g = 10ms–2.

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DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : PRESSURE IN FLUIDS

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Pressure is equal to force divided by_________________
(b) The force acting normally on a surface is called_________________
(c) Pressure is defined as the _________________ acting per unit area of body.
(d) In fluids pressure acts in _____________ directions and pressure _____________ as the depth increases.
(e) Air pressure can be measured by mercury ______________

2. Multiple choice Questions :
(a) The pressure inside a liquid of density p at a depth h below its surface is

h  hg
(A) g (B) hg (C) hg (D)

(b) Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?
(A) bar (B) torr (C) pascal (D) newton

(c) Pressure at any point inside a liquid depends upon density as
(A) proportional to density (B) inversely proportional to density
(C) proportional to square root of density (D) proportional to square of density

(d) Normal atmospheric pressure is
(A) 76mm of Hg (B) 76 cm of Hg (C) 760 cm of Hg (D) 760 mm of water

3. Explain the following:
(i) Sense of hearing is affected while rapidly gaining of losing height.
(ii) The nose of some people starts bleeding, when an aeroplane climbs up rapidly.
(iii) A soda straw does not draw liquid, if there is a tiny hole near its upper end.
(iv) Why is water not a suitable barometric liquid?
(v) Why is mercury used as a barometric liquid?

4. Define pressure and thrust and give their SI unit.

5. Write the three factors on which the pressure exerted by a liquid depends.

7. The normal atmospheric pressure is 76cm of mercury. Calculate this pressure in SI units.

8. The pressure in water pipe on the ground floor of a building is 100,000 Pa. Calculate the pressure in a water
pipe on the floor at a height of 3m. (Density of water = 1000 kg m3, g = 1ms–2).

9. A rectangular solid block has sides 4 × 10 × 20 cm and a density of 7.5gcm–3. If it rests on a horizontal flat
surface, calculate the minimum and maximum pressure it can exert (in SI units). Also calculate the thrust in
both cases.

10. (a) a long vertical tube contains oil to a height of 42.5cm. The density of the oil is 0.8 gcm–3. Calculate the
maximum lateral pressure exerted by the oil on the sides of the tube.
(b) A beaker has 2.5cm of mercury as 13.6gcm–3 and g = 10ms–2.

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DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : ARCHIMEDES PRINCIPLE & FLOATATION

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The upwards force experienced by a body immersed partially or fully in a fluid is called_____________
(b) Density of a substance is defined as the ratio of the mass of a body to its_____________
(c) Relative density of a substance is defined as the ratio of th density of the substance to the density of
water at_____________.
(d) In c.g.s the relative density of a substance is _____________ its density in g.cm–3.
(e) The combined weight of the sinker and cork is _____________ than the weight of the sinker alone.

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) A piece of wood is held under water. The upthrust on it is
(A) equal ot the weight of the wood (B) less than the weight of the wood
(C) more tha n the weig ht of wood (D) zero

(b) The relative density of a solid of 0.6. It floats in water with
(A) whole of its volume inside water (B) 60% volume inside water
(C) 60% volume outside water (D) 40% volume inside water

(c) A balloon filled with hydrogen rises upwards because:
(A) hydrogen is an element
(B) the pressure inside the balloon is greater than the atmospheric pressure
(C) hydrogen is a colourless gas
(D) the weight of the balloon is less than the weight of the air displaced by it.

(d) An empty tin container with its mouth closed has an average density equal to that of liquid. The container is
taken 2m below the surface of the liquid and is left there. Then the
(A) container will bounce back to the surface (B) container remains where it is left.
(C) container sinks further (D) none of these

(e) The unit of relative density is :
(A) kg m–3 (B) g cm-3 (C) g.litre-1 (D) it does not have a unit.

3. What is meant by upthrust? What is Its SI unit?

4. A glass full of water, with a piece of ice floating in it, is left in a warm room. Briefly explain why the water does
not overflow as the ice melts.

5. State the principle of floatation.

6. It is easier to lift a stone under water. Explain.

7. While floating, is the weight of the body greater than, equal to or lesser than the upthrust?

8. An iron cube, mass 480g and density 8.0gcm–3 is suspended half immersed in an oil of density 0.90gcm–3.
(a) Find the buoyant force exerted on the iron cube by the oil surrounding it.
(b) Find the tension in the suspension.

9. A balloon of volume 2000m3, is filled with hydrogen of density 0.09kg/m3. The mass of the fabric is 100kg.
The mass of the pilot is 70kg. What is the greatest mass of equipment that can be carried when operating in
air of density 1.25kgm–3.

10. The RD of ice is 0.92 and that of sea water is 1.025. Find the total volume of an iceberg which floats with its
volume 800cm3above water.

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DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : ARCHIMEDES PRINCIPLE & FLOATATION

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) For a body to float the density of the floating object should be___________than or equal to the density of
the liquid in which it is to float.
(b) The centre of ___________ is a point, where the total upthrust, due to fluid displaced by part ___________
of body acts.
(c) When a body is partly or wholly immersed in a ___________ , it experiences an___________.
(d) An iceberg floats with ___________ of its volume below ___________ .

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) Two balls, one of iron and other of aluminium experience same upthrust when dipped in water.
(A) Both have equal volume (B) Both have equal weight in air
(C) Both have equal density (D) Nothing definite can be said

(b) A wooden cube of side 10cm has a mass of 700g. It floats in water with
(A) Half of its volume underwater (B) 3cm above the water
(C) 7cm above thewatersurface (D) just inside the water surface

(c) Archimedes’ principle states that when a body is totally or partially immersed in a fluid the upthrust is equal to :
(A) the weight of the fluid displaced by it (B) the weight of the body
(C) volume of the fluid displaced (D) volume fo the body

(d) The stem of a hydrometer is made narrow because it:
(A) reduces its cost (B) has a better shape
(C) increases its sensitivity (D) will not tilt sideways

(e) If extra cargo is loaded on the ship, the ship will
(A) rise higher in the water (B) sink lower in the water
(C) remain at the same level (D) tend to turn over and float bottom upwards.

3. What is the direction of the force of buoyancy?

4. What is the apparent weight and loss of weight of body of mass m floating in a liquid of density  ?

5. State Archimedes’principle.

6. A body whose volume is 100cm3 weighs 1 kg in air. Find its weight in water.

7. Explain briefly how a submarine uses the principle of floatation (a) to float in the sea, (b) to lower itself and
remain such below the surface and (c) to rise again to the surface.

8. A glass stopper weighs 0.250kgf in water and 0.125kg in a liquid. Calculate RD. of solid as well as liquid.

9. A glass stopper weighs 0.250kgf in air, 0.150kgf in water. When the sinker is tied to a cork of weight 6gf, the
combination is found weigh 40.5gf in water. Calculate R.D. of cork.

10. A cork weighing 6.5gf is attached to a lead piece weighing 43gf. The two together weigh 11.5gf in water.
Calculate (i) the volume of the lead piece (ii) weight of water displaced by the lead piece (iii) the relative
density of cork.

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DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : HEAT, TEMPERATURE & EXPANSION OF SOLIDS

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Heat is energy in___________
(b) Heat flows from a regionof ___________ temperature to a region of ___________ temperature.
(c) Heat istransfered only when there is a ___________
(d) 1 calories = ___________ joule

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) Which of these is not the unit of heat?
(A)calorie (B) joule (C) erg (D) watt.

(b) Heat flows
(A) from a hot to a cold body (B) from a cold to a hot body
(C) in any direction (D) none of these

(c) With change in temperature solids
(A) expand on heating (B) contract on heating
(C) may contract or expand on heating (D) none of these

(d) Liquids
(A) expand on heating (B) contract on heating
(C) may contract or expand on heating (D) none of these

3. Explain the following:
(i) A little space is left between the two rails on a railway track.
(ii) An Iron-rim is heated red-hot before placing on the cartwheel.
(iii) Pendulum clocks generally go fast in winter and slow in summer
(iv) Why do Tonga drivers pour water on the wooden wheels of their Tongas in summer?
(v) Why are the girders supporting bridges mounted on rollers?

4. Explain thermal expansion of a substance on the basis of kinetic theory of matter.

5. What is a bimetallic strip? Name two gadgets where it is used.

6. From the defining equation of coefficient of linear expansion, show that Lt = L0 (1 + t) where the symbols
have their usual meanings.

7. What is Invar? What is its specially regarding expansivity?

8. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 49 × 10–5° C–1, What is the fractional change in its volume
(V / V) for 30°C rise in temperature?

9. The length of a brass rod is 2cm at 20°C. What will be its length at 120°C? Given Coefficient of linear
expansion of brass is 20 – 10–6 C–1 .

10. A brass rod of length 50cm is joined to a steel rod of the same length. What is the change in length of the
combined rod at 250°C if the rods are originally at 40°C. Given aB = 2.0 ×10–5°C–1 and s = 1.2 ×10–5°C–1

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DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : THERMOMETRY

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Hypsometeris used for marking the ___________ fixed point of the thermometer.
(b) –40°C corresponds to___________°F.
(c) 98.4°F corresponds to___________ °C.
(d) The lower fixed point on the Fahrenheit scale is marked as___________.
(e) The coefficient of expansion of a thermometric substance should be___________.

2. Multiple choice Question:
(a) A thermometer measures
(A) density (B) amount of heat (C) temperature (D) specific heat

(b) Which of the following is the most precise thermometer?
(A) Platinum resistance (B) optical pyrometer (C) Mercury in glass (D) alcohol in glass

(c) Which of the following is a disadvantage of mercury as a thermometric liquid?
(A) high boiling point (B) low specific heat (C) it is opaque (D) it is toxic.

3. Why is the stem of clinical thermometer thin and short and has a small cross-sectional area?

4. Why is the stem of a clinical thermometer made triangular?

5. Why is the scale of a clinical thermometer marked from 95°F to 110°F?

6. Why is a capillary tube provided with a construction in a clinical thermometer?

7. What is mercury thermometer? Name some mercury thermometers.

8. State two disadvantages using mercury as a thermometric liquid.

9. A room air conditioner is set at 68°F for comfortable living. Convert this temperature to Celsius scale.

10. During a hot day in Delhi, the temperature rose from 25°C to 35°C. Express these temperatures in °F.
Calculate the rise in temperature in C° and in F°. Hence obtain the relation between the size of one degree
on Celsius scale and on Fahrenheit scale.

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DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : TRANSFER OF HEAT

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Silver is a _________ conductor of heat than brass.
(b) Heat transfer in solids is by _________, in liquids is by __________ and in gases is by ___________
(c) Black or dull surfaces are ___________ reflectors, but ___________ absorbers of heat.
(d) The conductivity of vacuum is ____________

2. Multiple choice questions:
(a) Heat radiations travel with a speed:
(A) less than the speed of light (B) equal to the speed of light
(C) greater than the speed of light (D) equal to the speed of sound.

(b) Heat in a liquid is mainly transferred by:
(A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) conduction and radiation.

(c) The fastest mode of transfer of heat is:
(A) conduction (B) convection (C) radiation (D) all of these

(d) Heat loss from a surface by radiation can be minimised by:
(A) polishing the surface (B) blackening the surface
(C) creating vacuum around it (D) keeping in dark

(e) The vacuum is kept in between the walls of thermos-flask to reduce the heat loss by:
(A) conduction only (B) convection only (C) radiation only (D) conduction and convection

3. State uses of good conductors, giving at least four examples.

4. Why double glass window panes are used in cold countries?

5. Why do we wear woollen clothes in winter?

6. Describe the principle and working of Davy’s safety lamp.

7. Describe an experiment to illustrate that brass is a better conductor of heat than wood.

8. What is convection? Why does it not occur in solids and in vacuum?

9. A boy files a kite near the sea. In what direction will his kite fly, if he files his kite (i) In the morning and (ii) in
the evening? Give the necessary explanation.

10. Explain how :
(a) the double wall
(b) the vacuum in between and
(c) the silver coatings reduce the heat transfer between the contents of a thermos flask and its surroundings.

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DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : RECTILINEAR PROPAGATION OF LIGHT

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Light is a form of ____________
(b) A plane mirror produces a ____________ and an ____________ image.
(c) The focal length of a plane mirror is ____________
(d) When the reflected rays are all parallel after reflection from a mirror then the reflection is called ____________
reflection.
(e) The deviation produced by a plane mirror is ____________

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) The focal length of a plane mirror is
(A) zero (B) Infinity
(C) Depends upon the mirror’s length (D) Depends upon the mirror’s area.
(b) If the incident ray retracts its path after reflection from a plane mirror, then the angle of incidents is
(A) 0° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°

(c) If a plane mirror is rotated in the plane of incidence by an angle , while the incident ray remains fixed then the
reflected ray rotates by an angle.
(A)  (B) 2 (C) /2 (D) /4

(d) Deviation produced on reflection by a plane mirror if a ray of light is incident at angle i is
(A) 90°–i (B) 2i (C) 180°–i (D) 180°–2i

3. Can a plane mirror ever form (a) Areal image and (b) An inverted image?

4. If a mirror reverses right and left, why does not it reverse up and down?

5. When two plane mirrors are placed parallel and facing each other and an object is placed in between them,
infinite images are formed, Why, then only a few images are actually visible?

6. A man holding a lighted candle in front of a thick glass mirror and viewing it obliquely sees a number of
images of the candle. What is the origin of these multiple images?

7. Define the following. Illustrate your answer.
(i) Ray of light (ii) Beam of light (iii) Parallel beam (iv) Divergent beam
(v) Convergent beam (vi) angle of incidence (vii) angle of reflection (viii) plane of incidence

8. Explain why we see the sign in front of the some vehicles.

9. If a plane mirror is turned by an angle 15°, what is the angle by which reflected ray turns?

10. Two plane mirrors are placed at an angle 60°, 72°. How many numbers of images will they form?

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DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : REFLECTION OF LIGHT AT SPHERICALSURFACE

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) A ray of light passing through the ____________ of a concave mirror, after reflection, becomes parallel to
the principal axis.
(b) A ray of light incident on the ____________ of a concave mirror gets reflected in accordance with the laws
of reflection.
(c) In a concave mirror, the image is inverted and of the same size as the object when the object is placed at
____________.
(d) A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature ____________ back on itself.

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is
(A) twice the focal length (B) half the focal length
(C) equal to the focal length (D) is not related to the focal length

(b) A concave mirror is also called
(A) diverging mirror (B) negative mirror (C) converging mirror (D) none of these

(c) A convex mirror is also called
(A) diverging mirror (B) negative mirror (C) converging mirror (D) none of these
(d) All rays parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror, after reflection.
(A) pass through the centre of curvature (B) are reflected back on themselves
(C) pass through the focus (D) do not obey the laws of reflection

3. How will you distinguish, without touching, between a plane mirror, concave mirror and a convex mirror?
4. What is the difference between virtual images produced by concave, plane and convex mirrors?

5. For driving a car what type of mirror would you prefer to see the traffic at your back and why?

6. A ray is incident along ACB on a spherical mirror, where C is the centre of curvature. In which direction will the
ray be reflected?

7. If you want to see an enlarged image of your face, which type of mirror will you see? Where will you place
your face?

8. In a diagram show
(i) Principal axis (ii) Pole (iii) Focus (iv) centre of curvature
(v) radius of curvature, in a convex mirror and a concave mirror.

9. Copy the figure and show the image formation with the help of rays. Write three characteristic of the image
formed.

10. Complete the following ray diagrams by drawing suitable rays.

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DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : PROPAGATION OF SOUND WAVES
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) In air, so und t rave is as ___________ wave.
(b) The velocity of sound in gases varies ___________ as the square root of density.
(c) A body cannot produce sound unless it is ___________
(d) Sound waves require a ___________ for its propagation.
(e) The speed of sound in air is ___________ ms–1.

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) Which of the following are transferred from one place to another place by the waves?
(A) mass (B) wave length (C) velocity (D) energy

(b) Which of the following does not require a medium to propagate?
(A) radio waves (B) water waves (C) sound waves (D) waves in strings

(c) Sound waves are
(A) transverse (B) longitudinal
(C) partly transverse and partly longitudinal (D) none of these

(d) Hertz is a unit of
(A) time period (B) wavelength (C) frequency (D) wave speed

(e) If the density of a medium through which sound is propagation is maximum, then this point is called
(A) rarefaction (B) crest (C) compression (D) trough

(f) If the density of a medium through which sound is propagating is minimum, then this point is called
(A) rarefaction (B) crest (C) compression (D) trough

(g) The audible range for a normal human being is
(A) 10 Hz to 20,000 Hz (B) 20 Hz to 20 kHz (C) 10 Hz to 50 kHz (D) 20 Hz to 1000 Hz

3. Explain why echoes can’t be heard in a small room.

4. Why can we hear echoes in long galleries and big halls?

5. Two astronauts cannot hear each other on the moon. Why?

6. Explain why there is usually a time delay between observing a flash and hearing a thunder?

7. What are ultrasonic waves?

8. Find the distance covered by (i) sound waves (ii) light waves in 0.01sec. Take velocity of sound and light in air
to be 340 ms–1 and 3 × 108 ms–1.
9. The echo of a sound is heated 2 second after the sound from a cracker is produced. How far away is the
reflector (Cliffs) from the listener. Take velocity of sounds as 340 ms–1.
10. How much time light will take to travel once round the earth. Radius of the earth is 6.4 × 106 ms and velocity
of light in air = 3 x 108ms–1.

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DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : STATIC ELECTRICITY

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Unlike charges ____________ while like charges ____________ each other.
(b) A gold leaf electroscope is used to ____________ charge.
(c) When positively charged body is brought near one end of a rod, its farther end becomes ____________
charged.
(d) Positive electrification is due to ____________ of electrons as compared to ____________ .
2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) When an ebonite rod is rubbed with fur, then
(A) electrons move from fur to the ebonite rod. (B) electrons move from ebonite rod to the fur
(C) protons move fur to the ebonite rod (D) protons move from ebonite rod to the fur

(b) When two bodies A and B are rubbed together, then
(A) A and B get equal and opposite charges
(B) A and B get equal and similar charges
(C) A gets more charge then B but of opposite kind
(D) A and B get opposite charges but nothing can.
(c) Which of the following is a conductor of electricity:
(A) wood (B) glass (C) ebonite (D) human body

(d) The rod of stem in a gold leaf electroscope is made of:
(A) wood (B) brass (C) glass (D) ebonite

(e) A gold leaf electroscope can be charged positively by conduction by bringing
(A) A positively charged rod near the cap without touching it
(B) A positively charged rod in contact with the cap
(C) A negatively charged rod near the cap without touching it
(D) A negatively charged rod in contact with the cap.
3. What kind of charge is produced on each, when (i) a glass rod is rubbed with silk and (ii) an ebonite rod is
rubbed with wool?
4. An ebonite rod held in hand can be charged by rubbing with fur but a copper rod cannot be charged like this.
Why?

5. When a polythene piece is rubbed with wool, it acquires negative charge. Is there a transfer of mass from
wool to polythene?
6. Two identical metallic spheres of exactly equal masses are taken. One is given a positive charge Q and the
other an equal negative charge by friction. Are their masses after charging equal?
7. In the following pairs identity the bodies which lose electrons when the two bodies are rubbed with each
other,
(i) Dry hair and Comb (ii) Fur and Ambar (iii) Woollen carpet and rubber shoes
(iv) Glass rod and silk (v) Fur and ebonite rod (vi) Nylon and cotton cloth
8. Ordinarily atoms are neutral (not charged), then how does a body in the example of Q7 get charged? Does
the force of friction create charges? If yes, how ? If no, what does the force of friction do to an atom to make
it charged?

9. What is the main difference between the composition of a neutral body and a charged body?
10. What is an electroscope? Name the two common types.

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DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Alessandro Volta invented the first practical cell. His cell was called the ___________ .

(b) An electrochemical cell or cell is an arrangement which converts ___________ into electrical energy.

(c) A much larger current can be drawn from a ___________ cell than can be drawn from a ___________ cell.

(d) Electric current flows through a circuit only if the circuit is___________.

2. You are given a primary and a secondary cell of the same e.m.f. From which cell, will you be able to draw a
larger current and why?

3. What is conventional current?

4. Name two requirements of a good cell

5. What is a source of e.m.f?

6. What transformation of energy takes place when current is drawn from a cell?

7. What is a primary cell? Give an example.

8. What is a secondary cell? Give an example.

9. What is conventional current?

10. In the electric circuit show below identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D. Briefly explain, the function of
these parts in an electric.

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DPP NO. 18
TOPIC : CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Insulators are those materials which ___________ the passage of electricity through them.
(b) Positive charge flows from a body at ___________ potential to a body at lower potential and negative
charge flows from a body at a lower potential to a body at ___________ potential.
(c) The electric potential difference between two conductors is defined as the ___________ done in moving
a unit positive charge from one conductor to the other.
(d) CFLs consume ___________ powerthan incandescent bulbs.

2. Consider two spheres A and B, one positively charged and the other negatively charged respectively. These
spheres are placed in contact. Answer the following
(i) Which speher is at a higher potential?
(ii) Which sphere is at a lower potential?
(iii) In which direction will the conventional current flow?
(iv) In which direction will the electronic current flow?
(v) What is the potential of sphere after contact?

3. Two conductors A and B are joined by a copper wire. State the direction of flow of electrons in each of the
following cases
(i) If A is positively charged and B is negatively charged,
(ii) If A is negatively charged and B is uncharged,
(iii) If A is negatively charged and B is positively charged.

4. What are conductors and insulators?

5. Consider the points A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the circuit shown below. Let VA, VB, ...VG be the potentials at
A, B, ... G respectively, (a) Which point has the highest potential? (b) Which point has the lowest potential?
(c) Relate the values of VA, VB, ...VG using the symbols >, = or <.

6. (a) Why is there no current reading in the ammeter when the circuit is open (key is not closed) (b) Why is
there a reading in the ammeter when the circuit is closed (key closed)?

7. What is the source of light emitted by a bulb? (What transformation of energy is taking place)?

8. In series combination there is only one path for the current to flow, but there are two paths for the same in
case of parallel combination. In which of these two paths do you think the resistance will be less. Explain.

9. What is eco-efficiency?

10. List some ways in which electricity consumption can be reduced.

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DPP NO. 19
TOPIC : CALORIMETRY
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The energy required by a substance to change phase is called energy of_____________
(b) All night, the earth radiates energy mainly in the form of _____________ radiation.
(c) The earth is being heated continuously by the sun, therefore the temperature of earth is_____________than
that of the sun.
(d) Global warming is due to the reckless use of _____________ fuels.
(e) The most important cause of the global warming is the excess presence of _____________ gas in the
atmosphere.
2. Multiple choice Question:
(a) The specific heat is maximum for
(A) ice (B) steam (C) water (D) alcohol
(b) Greenhouse effect is used in a
(A) solar cell (B) solar cooker (C) solar water heater (D) gobar gas plant
(c) The earth is heated by the sun during the day. During night the radiation prominently emitted by earth are
(A) ultraviolet rays (B) X-rays (C) infrared rays (D) y-rays
(d) In the absence of the greenhouse effect, the temperature of the earth considerably at night will
(A) increase (B) remain the same (C) fall considerably (D) none of these
(e) Global warming can be reduced by
(A) choosing energy efficient (B) reduction of waste gas emissions
(C) planting trees (D) all of these
3. During the change of state of a substance, the temperature remains unchanged, although the heat is supplied
or withdrawn. Explain it on the basis of kinetic theory. Or explain the physical difference between solids,
liquids and gases on the basis of molecular force
4. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of temperature versus time, when a substance like naphthalene is heated
from 0°C to 100°C. Also draw another curve when the molten substance cools to room temperature. How will
you determine the melting point and freezing point from the graphs drawn?
5. Why should we dry the ice in above experiment? If some of the ice is not dry how will it affect the final result,
value of L obtained?
6. Explain why, with reference to high latent heat of fusion of ice:
(i) rivers fed by water from snow covered mountains are not likely to dry up in summer.
(ii) weather may become chilly when snow in the mountains starts melting at the end of the winter season.
(iii) a barrel of water is kept in cellars (where vegetable is stored) when a farmer suspects severse cold
weather approaching.
(iv) ice cubes are more effective than ice cold water in cooling a glass of lemonade. Illustrate with some
numerical values.
7. A 200g mass of copper is heated in an oven for some time and transferred to a copper calorimeter (mass 75g)
containing 125g of water at 25°C. The steady temperature reached is 50°C. Calculate the temperature of the
copper piece before transfer and hence estimate the temperature of the oven. (Assume C, for water = 4000
Jkg–1 K–1 and C2 for copper = 400 Jkg–1K–1).
8. A copper calorimeter of mass 100g contains 150g of water and 10g of ice in thermal equilibrium at atmospheric
pressure. A piece of lead of mass 100g at 200°C is dropped into the calorimeter. Find the final temperature
(assume no heat is lost to the surroundings) and the amount of ice left. (Take L = 336 kJkg–1), if required.
9. A molten metal weighing 150g is kept at its melting point 800°C. When it is allowed to solidify at the same
temperature, it gives out 75000J of heat. What is the specific latent heat of the metal? If its specific heat
capacity is 200Jkg–1 K–1, how much additional heat will it give out in cooling to –50°C?
10. A block of lead mass 250g at 27°C was heated in a furnace till it completely melted. Find the quantity of heat
required (i) to bring the block to melting point, (ii) to completely melt the block at its melting point, (melting
point of lead = 327°C, specific heat capacity = 0.13Jg–1K–1 specific latent heat of fusion = 26 Jg–1)

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DPP NO. 20
TOPIC : MAGNETISM
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) If a magnet is cut parallel to its length then its pole strength becomes ____________ but if the magnet is
cut perpendicular to its length there is ____________ in its pole strength.

(b) An alloy called ___________ is used to make permanent magnets which are used in school laboratories.

(c) The magnetism acquired by an unmagnetised magnetic material when it is kept near or in contact with a
magnet, is called __________

(d) The region around a magnet in which its magnetic force can be experienced by another magnetic substance
is called ___________ of the magnet.

2. Multiple choice Question:
(a) Which of the following statements is trues?
(A) Artificial magnets are cheaper than the natural magnets.
(B) A magnet can be broken into N and S poles.
(C) The distance between the north and south poles of a magnet is its effective length
(D) Poles of a magnet lie exactly at its ends.

(b) Electromagnets are made of
(A) steel (B) copper (C) brass (D) soft iron

(c) At a neutral point, the resultant magnetic field is:
(A)maximum (B) zero (C) along E-W (D) uncertain

3. Write at least four properties of a bar magnet.

4. If a magnet is cut into a number of parts, what happens to each part?

5. What is the name of the material used to make laboratory magnets? What is its composition?

6. You are an astronaut stranded on a planet with no test equipment or minerals around. The planet does not
even have a magnetic field. You have two bars of iron in your possession ; one is magnetized, one is not. How
could you determine which is magnetized?

7. Since only the ends of a magnet are seats of a magnetic strength (or poles), why do we not save a lot of iron
by making a magnet hollow?

8. If a magnet is broken, which one of the following remains unchanged in each part - mass, magnetisation,
length.

9. Two rod are identical in appearance. One is a magnet and the other is not. How can you tell them apart? You
are not permitted to suspend either bar as a compass needle of to use any other apparatus.

10. If one pole of a powerful magnet is gradually brought towards a similar pole of a weaker magnet, the two
repel each other, but when it is quickly brought very close to the weaker pole, the two attract each other.
Explain, why?

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DPP NO. 21
TOPIC : MAGNETISM
1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) A magnetic field lines ______________ each other.
(b) Crowding of magnetic field linesmeansa ________________ magneticfield.
(c) Steel is used for making_magnets, while _______________ is used for making electromagnets.
(d) When a magnet is placed with its North pole facing the geographic South pole of the earth, the null points
are obtained on a line which is _______________ to the longer side of the magnet.

2. Multiple choice Questions:
(a) Like poles of two magnets
(A) attract (B) repel
(C) both attract and repel (D) neither attract nor equal

(b) A bar magnet when suspended freely always points in the
(A) East west, direction (B) North south direction
(C) Vertically upwards (D) vertically downwards.

(c) When a magnet is placed in the magnetic meridian with its north pole pointing towards the earth’s geographic
north pole then the neutral points are obtained on a line
(A) perpendicular to the longer side of the magnet (B) parallel to the longer side of the magnet
(C) above the magnet (D) below the magnet

(d) When a magnet is placed in the magnetic meridian with its north pole pointing towards the earth’s geographic
south pole then the neutral points are obtained on a line
(A) perpendicular to the longer side of the magnet (B) parallel to the longer side of the magnet
(C) above the magnet (D) below the magnet

3. What is meant by induced magnetism? How can you demonstrate it?

4. What is the convention regarding the direction of the magnetic lines of force?

5. What are neutral points? How are they located?

6. How are wrist watches protected from powerful magnets?

7. A strong alnico magnet A can hold a chain consisting of several cylinders made of soft iron. What will happen
to the cylinders if a similar magnet B is up from below? The similar poles of magnets face each other. What
will happen to the cylinders if the magnets have their opposite poles facing each other?

8. A nail is placed at rest on a smooth table top near a strong magnet. It is released and is attracted by the
magnet. What is the source of kinetic energy it acquires before striking the magnet?

9. A vertical pillar, introduced partly in the earth, is found to be magnetised after several years. What will be the
polarity at the top of the pillar, in the north hemisphere of the earth?

10. Among steel, soft iron and silicon-steel, which is suitable for making permanent magnets and why?

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DPP NO. 22
TOPIC : ENERGY FLOW & ITS IMPORTANCE
1. What do you understand by energy flow?

2. Briefly describe the energy flow in first trophic level.

3. Define food chain.

4. What do you understand by food web?

5. What is nutrient cycle?

6. What is hydrological cycle?

7. What is Biogas?

9. What is the other name of renewable sources of energy?

10. What is the other name of non-renewable source of energy?

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VIBRANT ACADEMY CHEMISTRY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – IX (ICSE)

DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : MATTER AND ITS COMPOSITION

1. On changing which of the following, the states of matter will change ?
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure (C) (A) & (B) both (D) None of these

2. Melting & freezing point of water -
(A) are same. (B) have large difference between them.
(C) have slight difference between them. (D) None of these

3. The boiling point of alcohol is 78ºC. What will be the temperature in Kelvin scale ?
(A) 373 K (B) 351 K (C) 375 K (D) 78 K

4. Latent heat of vaporisation of water is -
(A) 2.25 × 102 J/kg (B) 22.5 × 105 J/kg (C) 3.34 × 105 J/kg (D) 33.4 × 102 J/kg

5. S.I. unit of temperature is -
(A) Kelvin (B) Celsius (C) Both (D) None

6. In sublimation process -
(A) solid changes into liquid. (B) liquid changes into gas.
(C) solid changes directly into gas. (D) None of these

7. 10ºC temperature is equal to -
(A) 163 K (B) 10 K (C) 183 K (D) 283 K

8. Which of the following will respond to sublimation ?
(A) Common salt (B) Sugar (C) Camphor (D) Potassium nitrate

9. Solids cannot be compressed because -
(A) constituent particles are very closely packed.
(B) interparticle attractive forces are weak.
(C) movement of constituent particles is restricted.
(D) constituent particles diffuse very slowly.

10. A chemical equation is always balanced to fulfil the condition of -
(A) law of conservation of mass.
(B) law of multiple proportions.
(C) law of constant proportions
(D) All of these

11. What is latent heat of fusion ?

12. Name one property which is shown by naphthalene and not by sodium chloride.

13. When a solid melts, its temperature remains the same, so where does the heat energy go ?

14. Explain the interconversion of states of matter.

15. Potassium chlorate decomposes on heating to form potassium chloride and oxygen. When 24.5 g of
potassium chlorate is decomposed completely then 14.9 g potassium chloride is formed. Calculate the
mass of oxygen formed. Which law of chemical combination have you used in solving this problem ?

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DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : STUDY OF GAS LAWS

1. Volume occupied by 4.045 × 1023 molecules of oxygen at 27º C and 700 torr pressure is
(A) 17.95 L (B) 8.97 L (C) 27.50 L (D) 6.72 L

2. The temperature of 20 litres of nitrogen was increased from 100 K to 300 K at a constant pressure.
Change in volume will be -
(A) 80 litres (B) 60 litres (C) 40 litres (D) 20 litres

3. If the volume of a given mass of a gas at constant temperature becomes three times, the pressure will
be-
(A) 3p (B) p/3 (C) 9p (D) p

4. If the pressure of a given mass of a gas is reduced to half and temperature is doubled simultaneously ,
the volume will be -
(A) same as before (B) twice as before
(C) four times as before (D) one fourth as before

5. 10 g of a gas at STP occupies a volume of 2 litres. At what temperature will the volume be double,
pressure and amount of the gas remaining same ?
(A) 273 K (B) 546 K (C) –273 ºC (D) 546 ºC

6. Remaining the pressure constant temperature must a gas at 127 ºC be cooled, so that its volume is
reduced to 1/5 of the initial volume ?
(A) –193 ºC (B) – 93 ºC (C) 293 ºC (D) None of these

7. 5 dm3 of dry hydrogen is collected at a temperature of 37 ºC and 720 mm pressure. Find the volume of
gas at S.T.P. ?
(A) 8.34 dm3 (B) 1.32 dm3 (C) 2.65 dm3 (D) 4.17 dm3

8. The pressure of one mole of a gas at S.T.P. is doubled and the temperature is raised to 546 K. What is
3
the final volume of gas, when one mole of gas occupies 22.4 dm at S.T.P. ?
3 3 3
(A) 11.2 dm (B) 22.4 dm (C) 5.6 dm (D) 44.8 dm3

9. A fixed mass of gas has volume 750 cm3 at –23º C and 800 mm pressure. What will be the pressure for
which its volume will be 720 cm3, the temperature being –3 ºC.
(A) 700 mm (B) 800 mm (C) 900 mm (D) 600 mm

10. For an ideal gas. Boyle’s law is best described by

P P P P

(A) (B) (C) (D)
T V V T

11. State Boyle’s law.

12. Give the values of molar gas constant in different units.

13. Is it possible to change the temperature and pressure of a fixed mass of gas without changing its
volume. Explain your answer.
14. A gas is collected at a pressure of 95 cm of Hg and a temperature of 50ºC. To what temperature should
it be cooled so that is occupies a volume which is 80% of its original volume when the pressure of the
gas is 90 cm of Hg.

15. Calculate the final volume of a gas, if the pressure of the gas, originally at s.t.p. is doubled and its
temperature is tripled.

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DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS AND MIXTURES

1. Which of the following is/ are example of suspension ?
(A) Muddy water (B) Slaked lime (C) Paints (D) All

2. Which of the following statement is not true about suspension ?
(A) The particles of suspension can be separated from solvent by the process of filtration.
(B) When the suspension is kept undisturbed the particles of suspension settle down.
(C) A suspension is homogeneous in nature.
(D) Scattering of light takes place in suspension.

3. Which of the following statement is not true about colloidal solution ?
(A) These are visible under powerful microscope.
(B) Their particles do not settle down with passage of time.
(C) Their particles are electrically charged.
(D) These are homogeneous in nature.

4. Which of the following is an example of emulsion ?
(A) Face cream (B) Shaving cream (C) Honey (D) Smoke

5. Soap solution is an example of -
(A) true solution (B) suspension (C) colloidal solution (D) none of these

6. When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution, it gets -
(A) reflected (B) absorbed (C) scattered (D) refracted

7. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect ?
(A) Starch solution (B) Sodium chloride solution
(C) Copper sulphate solution (D) Sugar solution

8. Which of the following can be classified as a pure substance?
(A) Milk (B) Sea-water (C) Ice (D) Cast iron

9. Which of the following statement is not true about true solution ?
(A) It can pass through filter paper.
(B) It is homogeneous in nature.
(C) At constant temperature, particles of solute settle down.
(D) From a true solution, the solute can easily be recovered by evaporation or crystallisation.

10. A solution, which at a given temperature dissolves as much solute as it is capable of dissolving, is said
to be a -
(A) saturated solution (B) semi saturated solution
(C) unsaturated solution (D) super saturated solution

11. Classify the following into elements and compounds:
Iron, Iron sulphide, Oxygen, Carbon, Urea, Sodium, Chalk, Washing soda and Gold.

12. Give the main points of distinction between a compound and a mixture.

13. What is meant by homogeneous mixtures ? Give two examples.

14. Explain why, water is a compound and not a mixture ?

15. Write the differences between colloid, suspension and true solutions.

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PART-II

1. Which of the following substances when mixed with sand cannot be separated by sublimation ?
(A) NaCl (B) NH4Cl
(C) Camphor (D) Iodine

2. Which of the following is a physical change ?
(A) Evaporation of alcohol (B) Melting of ice
(C) Rusting of iron (D) Both (A) & (B)

3. What will be the sublimate , when a mixture of sand, sulphur, common salt and iodine is sublimed ?
(A) Sand (B) Iodine
(C) Sulphur (D) Common salt

4. Mixture of sand and camphor can be purified by -
(A) distillation (B) filtration
(C) sedimentation (D) sublimation

5. A mixture of alcohol and water can be separated by
(A) separating funnel (B) fractional distillation
(C) simple distillation (D) sublimation

6. To separate the various coloured pigments present in a substance which method is used ?
(A) Sublimation (B) Chromatography
(C) Centrifugation (D) Evaporation

7. Carbon burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide. The properties of carbon dioxide are -
(A) similar to carbon
(B) similar to oxygen
(C) totally different from both carbon and oxygen
(D) much similar to both carbon and oxygen

8. A mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium chloride can be separated by -
(A) chromatography (B) hand picking
(C) by sublimation (D) centrifugation

9. Which of the following is not a chemical change ?
(A) Rusting of iron (B) Cooking of food
(C) Freezing of water (D) Digestion of food

10. Which of the following method is used for separation of different components of petroleum?
(A) Fractional distillation (B) Sublimation
(C) Chromatography (D) Simple distillation

11. What is chromatography ?

12. Write applications of centrifugation.

13. How will you separate iron filings, ammonium chloride and sand from their mixture ?

14. What is fractional distillation ? Draw a labelled diagram of the apparatus used for separating a mixture
of alcohol and water.

15. Explain Tyndall effect briefly.

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DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : THE LANGUAGE OF CHEMISTRY

1. The number of atoms present in a molecule of element is called its -
(A) molecularity (B) atomicity
(C) valency (D) reactivity

2. Which of the following is symbol of copper ?
(A) Ca (B) Cu
(C) Co (D) None of these

3. The symbol of element oxygen is -
(A) O (B) O2
(C) O3 (D) None of these

4. 1 u is equal to
(A) 1.6605 g (B) 1.6605 × 1024 g
(C) 1.6605 × 10–24 g (D) 1 g

5. The atoms of which of the following element exist in free state ?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Helium
(C) Hydrogen (D) Oxygen

6. Atoms can exist in the form of -
(A) molecules (B) Ions
(C) Both A & B (D) None of these

7. A molecule of hydrogen is represented as -
(A) H (B) 2H (C) H2 (D) All of these

8. The first scientist to use the symbols of elements was -
(A) Dalton (B) Berzilius (C) Kanad (D) Proust

9. Molecular mass of H2SO4 is -
(A) 89 u (B) 98 u (C) 49 u (D) 198 u

10. Molecular formula of sulphur is -
(A) S4 (B) S2 (C) S8 (D) S18

11. State whether the following statement is correct or not and why ?
The symbol of element cobalt is CO.

12. What is the difference between the molecule of an element and the molecule of a compound? Give one
example of each.

13. What is the significance of the symbol of an element ? Explain with the help of examples .

14. Write the relation between nanometre and metre.

15. The molecular formula of glucose is C6H12O6. Calculate its molecular mass .

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PART-II
1. Which of the following represents a polyatomic ion?
(A) Sulphide (B) Chloride (C) Sulphate (D) Nitride.

2. The formula mass of NaCl is -
(A) 56. 5 u (B) 36. 5 u (C) 58.5 u (D) 55.5 u

3. Which of the following set of ions is present in potassium sulphate (K2SO4) ?
(A) K+, SO4–2 (B) K+4, SO–2 (C) K+2, SO4– (D) K+,SO4–

4. Two elements A (atm. wt. 75) and B (atm wt. 16) combine to yield a compound.The percentage by
weight of A in the compound was found to be 75.08.The formula of the compound is -
(A) AB (B) AB2 (C) A2B (D) A2B3

5. If the molecular mass of a compound is 74.5 then the compound is -
(A) KCl (B) HCl (C) NaCl (D) LiCl

6. The overall charge on an ionic compound is equal to -
(A) the charge of the cation (B) zero
(C) the charge of the anion (D) None of these

7. Which one of the following is a trivalent anion ?
(A) Aluminium ion (B) Phosphide ion (C) Ferric ion (D) Calcium ion

8. In a chemical formula more electronegative element is written on the -
(A) right side (B) left side (C) either side (D) None of these

9. Which of the following is the formula of nitrate ion ?
(A) N3– (B) NO3– (C) NO+ (D) NO2+

10. Symbol of ferric ion is -
(A) Fe++ (B) Fe+++ (C) Fe (D) F–

11. What do we call those particles which have -
(a) more electrons than those in the normal atoms ?
(b) less electrons than those in the normal atoms ?

12. Name the following compounds . Also write the symbols and formulae of the ions present in them .
(a) CuSO4 (b) (NH4)2SO4 (c) Na2O (d) Na2CO3
(e) CaCl2

13. An element A forms an oxide A2O5 . Then answer the following.
(a) What is the valency of element A ?
(b) What will be the formulae of chloride of A ?

14. An element X has a valency of 4 whereas another element Y has a valency of 1. What will be the
formula of the compound between X and Y ?

15. The valencies (or charges ) of some of the ions are given below -
on Valency   on Valency
Sodium ion +1 Bromide ion –1
Ammonium ion +1 Hydroxide ion – 1
Calcium ion +2 Sulphate ion –2
Lead ion +2 Phosphate ion – 3
Using this information , write down the formulae of the following compounds -
(i) Sodium phosphate (ii) Ammonium sulphate
(iii) Calcium hydroxide (iv) Lead bromide

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PART-III

1. The number of carbon atoms in 1 g of CaCO3 is -
(A) 6.023 x 1023 (B) 6.023 x 1021
(C) 3.0125 x 1022 (D) 1.204 x 1023

2. Which of the following has largest number of molecules ?
(A) 8 g of CH4 (B) 4.4 g of CO2
(C) 34.2 g of C12H22O11 (D) 2 g of H2

3. Which of the following contains one mole molecules of the substance?
(A) 16 g Oxygen (B) 7 g Nitrogen
(C) 2 g Hydrogen (D) 36 g Water.

4. The number of molecules in 16.0 g of oxygen is -
(A) 6.02 x 1023 (B) 6.02 x 10–23
(C) 3.01 x 10–23 (D) 3.01 x 1023

5. The volume of one mole of a gas at normal temperature and pressure is -
(A) 11.2 litres (B) 22.4 litres
(C) 100 litres (D) None of these

6. The number of gram atoms in 8 g of He are -
(A) 2 (B) 1.204 × 1024
(C) 3.1 × 1023 (D) None of these

7. The percentage of hydrogen in H2O is -
(A) 8.88 (B) 11.12
(C) 20.60 (D) 80.0

8. The charge in coulombs of 1 gram ion of N3– is (the charge on an electron is 1.602 × 10–19 C)-
(A) 2.894 × 105 C (B) 3.894 × 105 C
(C) 2.894 × 106 C (D) None of these

9. The mass of oxygen contained in 1 kg of potassium nitrate (KNO3) will be -
(A) 478.5 g (B) 485.5 g
(C) 475.2 g (D) 488. 2 g

10. 1 mole of a compound contains 1 mole of carbon and 2 moles of oxygen.The molecular weight of the
compound is -
(A) 3 (B) 12
(C) 32 (D) 44

11. If 1 g of oxygen element contains X atoms , what will be the number of atoms in 1 g of aluminium ? (
Atomic mass : O = 16 u , Al = 27 u)

12. Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide (Al2O3).
[Atomic mass : Al = 27u ; O = 16u]

13. What weight of oxygen gas will contain the same number of molecules as 56 g of nitrogen gas ?
(Atomic mass : O = 16 u ; N = 14u)

14. What is the mass of 4.0 × 10–3 mol of glucose, (C6H12O6) ? How many carbon atoms are there in
4.0 × 10–3 mol of glucose ?

15. How many molecules of water are present in 1 ml of water vapours at NTP ?

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DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

1. Chemical reaction 2Na + Cl2  2NaCl is an example of -
(A) combination reaction
(B) decomposition reaction
(C) displacement reaction
(D) double displacement reaction

2. Which of the following equations is representing combination of two elements ?
(A) CaO + CO2  CaCO3
(B) 4Na + O2 2Na2O
(C) SO2 + 1/2 O2  SO3
(D) 2Na + 2H2O 2NaOH + H2

3. Which of the following equations is not an example of single displacement reaction ?
(A) 2Al + Fe2O3  Al2O3 + 2Fe
(B) Ca + Cl2  CaCl2
(C) 2KI + Cl2  2KCl + I2
(D) 2Na + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2

4. Which of the following is/are a decomposition reaction(s) ?
Heat
(A) 2HgO 2Hg + O2
Heat
(B) CaCO3 CaO + CO2
Electrolysis
(C) 2H2O 2H2 + O2
(D) All of these

5. Match the following -
Column A Column B
Types of chemical Chemical equations
reaction
(a) Combination reaction (i) CaCO3 CaO + CO2
Electricity
(b) Decomposition reaction (ii) 2H2O 2H2 + O2
(c) Displacement reaction (iii) CaO + CO2  CaCO3
(d) Analysis reaction (iv) Fe(s) +CuSO4(aq.)  FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(A) a (ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(B) a (i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(C) a (iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(D) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
6. Which of the following reactions is/are a double displacement reaction(s) ?
(i) AgNO3 + NaBr  NaNO3 + AgBr
(ii) BaCl2 + H2SO4  BaSO4 + 2HCl
(iii) As2O3 + 3H2S As2S3 + 3H2O
(iv) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
(A) (i) & (ii) (B) only (iii)
(C) only (iv) (D) (i) to (iv) all

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7. AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq)  AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
Above reaction is a -
(A) precipitation reaction
(B) double displacement reaction
(C) combination reaction
(D) (A) and (B) both

8. H2SO4 + 2NaOH  Na2SO4 + 2H2O
Above equation is a
(i) neutralization reaction
(ii) double displacement reaction
(iii) decomposition reaction
(iv) addition reaction
(A) (i) to (iv) all (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)

9. Zn + H2SO4(dil)  ZnSO4 + H2 
Above equation is a -
(A) decomposition reaction
(B) single displacement reaction
(C) combination reaction
(D) synthesis reaction

10. The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is -
(A) a displacement reaction
(B) a decomposition reaction
(C) an addition reaction
(D) a double displacement reaction

11. Classify the following reactions -
(i) N2 + O2  2NO – Heat
(ii) 2HgO  2Hg + O2
(iii) Na2SO4 + BaCl2  2NaCl + BaSO4
(iv) CuSO4 (aq.) + Zn  ZnSO4 (aq.) + Cu
(v) NH3 + HCl  NH4Cl

12. When a white compound ‘X’ is placed under sunlight, it turns grey. Give the name of reaction and write
the balanced chemical equation.

13. What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions ? Write equations for
these reactions.

14. What happens when copper metal is dipped in silver nitrate solution ? Give the balanced chemical
equation for the change.

15. (i) What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate taken in a
test tube ?
(ii) Which type of reaction is this ?
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction.

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PART-II

1. In the reaction Mg + Cl2  MgCl2
Chlorine may be regarded as -
(A) an oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent
(C) a catalyst (D) providing an inert medium

2. When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide react, the reaction is
SO2 + 2H2S  2H2O + 3S
Here hydrogen sulphide is acting as -
(A) an oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent
(C) a dehydrating agent (D) a catalyst

3. Which of the following statements is false for oxidation reaction ?
(A) Gain or addition of electronegative radical or element
(B) Removal of hydrogen atom
(C) Removal or loss of electropositive radical or element
(D) All the above statements are correct.

4. CuO + H2  H2O + Cu, reaction is an example of -
(A) redox reaction (B) synthesis reaction (C) neutralisation (D) analysis reaction

5. Which of the following is an example of oxidation reaction ?
(A) Sn +2 – 2e-  Sn+4 (B) Fe+3 + e-  Fe+2
-
(C) Cl2 + 2e  2Cl - (D) None of these

6. In the process of burning of magnesium in air, magnesium undergoes -
(A) reduction (B) sublimation (C) oxidation (D) all of these

7. A substance which oxidises itself and reduces other is known as -
(A) an oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

8. Oxidation is a process which involves -
(A) addition of oxygen (B) removal of hydrogen
(C) loss of electrons (D) All are correct

9. In the reaction PbO + C  Pb + CO.
(A) PbO is oxidised
(B) C acts as oxidising agent.
(C) C acts as a reducing agent.
(D) This reaction does not represent a redox reaction.

10. A redox reaction is one in which -
(A) both the substances are reduced.
(B) both the substances are oxidised.
(C) an acid is neutralised by the base.
(D) one substance is oxidised, while the other is reduced.

11. Oxidation reactions have some harmful effects. Comment on the sentence.

12. Can oxidation occur without reduction ? Explain

13. Explain the terms oxidation and reduction with examples.

14. What do you mean by corrosion ?

15. Identify the substances that are oxidized and the substances that are reduced in the following
reactions-
(a) ZnO + C  Zn + CO (b) MnO2 + 4HCl  MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
(c) 2FeCl3 + H2S  2FeCl2 + S + 2HCl (d) 3Mg + N2 Mg3N2

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DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : WATER

1. Solubility of sugar in water
(A) decrease with increase in temperature (B) increase with increase in temperature
(C) is not affected by temperature (D) None of these

2. Which of these statements is true ?
(A) Density of ice is more than the density of water.
(B) Volume of ice is more than the volume of water, having same mass.
(C) Temperature of ice is more than the temperature of water.
(D) None of these

3. Pure water is -
(A) an element (B) a compound (C) a mixture (D) None of these

4. Water is called universal solvent because -
(A) it can dissolve all the liquids in the universe
(B) it dissolve all the gases in the universe
(C) it dissolve large number of solids, liquids and gases
(D) None of these

5. The boiling point of water on plains is 100ºC . At hills it will be ______
(A) 100ºC (B) more than 100ºC (C) less than 100ºC (D) None of these

6. Solubility of gases in water.
(A) increase with increase in temperature (B) decreases with decrease in temperature
(C) decrease with increase in temperature (D) None of these

7. The ratio of the number of hydrogen atoms and those of oxygen in water is -
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 2 (D) None of these

8. Which of these has the lowest density ?
(A) Ice (B) Water at 10ºC (C) Water at 4ºC (D) None of these

9. Water is used as coolant in engines because -
(A) it makes us feel cold (B) it freezes easily
(C) it has a high specific heat (D) None of these

10. Water that lathers easily with soap is
(A) hard water (B) soft water (C) saline water (D) None of these

11. Explain how ground water is recharged ?

12. You have been asked to maintain a garden. How would you minimise the use of water ?

13. Write equation for the following reactions.
(a) action of steam on iron. (b) action of cold water on sodium metal.

14. Explain water cycle.

15. List the physical properties of water.

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PART-II

1. Waste water which flows from homes into drains is called -
(A) effluent (B) sewage
(C) emission (D) None of these

2. The process of removing pollutants from the water before it is reused is -
(A) effluent treatment (B) underground treatment
(C) sewage treatment (D) None of these

3. An excessive growth of algae in lakes, which is rich in nutrients is called -
(A) eutrophication (B) ammonification
(C) centrifugation (D) None of these

4. Sludge is used as -
(A) fertilizer (B) insecticides
(C) pesticides (D) None of these

5. In sewage, nitrates and phosphates are -
(A) nutrients (B) inorganic impurities
(C) organic Impurities (D) None of these

6. The diseases caused by bacteria in polluted water is -
(A) Cholera (B) Typhoid
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

7. Primary treatment is a kind of -
(A) chemical process (B) mechanical process
(D) biological process (D) None of these

8. Light floatable water that rises to the top during wastewater treatments is -
(A) sludge (B) scum
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these

9. ------------------- is a process in which sludge is processed to produce gases.
(A) Dewarting (B) Incinerating
(C) Composting (D) None of these

10. -------------------- is the parameter that indicates whether the water is acidic or basic.
(A) pH (B) BOD
(C) ppm (D) None of these

11. What is sewage ? Explain why is it harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.

12. Why should oils and fats be not released in the drain? Explain.

13. Describe the steps involved in getting clarified water from waste water.

14. What is sludge ? Explain how it is treated.

15. Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. Explain.

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DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. Where are protons located in an atom ?
(A) Around the nucleus (B) Inside the nucleus
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

2. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) A proton is 1837 times heavier than an electron.
(B) A proton is 1/1837 times heavier than an electron.
(C) A proton is 1/1837 times lighter than an electron.
(D) Proton has the same mass as an electron.

3. When alpha particles are allowed to strike thin metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil
because -
(A) alpha particles are much heavier than electrons.
(B) alpha particles are positively charged.
(C) most part of the atom is empty.
(D) alpha particles move with high velocity.

4. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of -
(A) nucleus (B) atom (C) electron (D) neutron

5. The mass of a proton is -
(A) 1.00728 amu (B) 1.673 × 10–24 gm (C) 1.673 × 10–27 kg (D) all of these

6. A proton is usually represented as -
(A) 1p
1 (B) H+ (C) 24 He (D) both (A) & (B)

7. The protons and neutrons are collectively called -
(A) deutrons (B) positrons (C) mesons (D) nucleons

23
8. 11 Na contains -
(A) 22 protons (B) 22 neutrons (C) 12 neutrons (D) None of these

9. The formula that gives the maximum number of electrons in a particular shell is -
n2
(A) n2 (B) 2n2 (C) 2n (D)
2

10. Energy levels are designated as -
(A) K,L,M,N and so on (B) k, , m, n and so on
(C) , , , V and so on (D) All of these

11. What is the difference between the charge & mass of a proton and an electron ?

12. Why was Thomson’s atomic model discarded ?

13. Show the different observations of Rutherford’s alpha scattering experiment by a diagram only.

14. Describe the essential features of the model of atom proposed by E. Rutherford. How is it different from
that proposed by J.J. Thomson ?

15. From what observations do you derive the following inferences ?
(a) The most of the space inside the atom is empty.
(b) The volume of the nucleus is very small.

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PART II

1. Which of the following has the same number of protons, electrons & neutrons ?
54 55 1 54 55
(A) 27 X (B) 27 X (C) 26 X (D) 28 X

2. In an atom there are four orbits, the maximum number of electrons in this atom will be -
(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 32 (D) 62

3. Isotones of an element have -
(A) same number of electrons (B) same number of protons
(C) same number of neutrons (D) same number of neutrons & protons

76
4. An isotone of 32 Ge is -
77 77 77 79
(A) 32 Ge (B) 33 As (C) 34 Se (D) 34 Se

5. Many elements have non- integral masses because -
(A) they have isobars.
(B) their isotopes have non - integral masses.
(C) they have isotopes.
(D) the constituents neutrons, protons & electrons combine to give fractional masses.

6. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is -
14 15 17 12 14 19
(A) 6 C, 7 N , 9 F (B) 6 C, 7 N, 9 F
14 14 17 14 14 19
(C) 6 C, 7 N , 9 F (D) 6 C, 7 N , 9 F

7. Two atoms of the same element are found to have different number of neutrons in their nuclei. These
two atoms are -
(A) isomers (B) isotopes
(C) isobars (D) allotropes

8. Members of which of the following have similar chemical properties ?
(A) Isotopes (B) Isobars
(C) Allotropes (D) Both isotopes & allotropes

9. An atom which has a mass number of 14 & 8 neutrons is an -
(A) isotope of oxygen (B) isobar of oxygen
(C) isotope of carbon (D) isobar of carbon

10. The number of electrons in the L - shell of phosphorus is not equal to that in the -
(A) L - shell of neon (B) M - shell of potassium
(C) M - shell of chromium (D) M - shell of argon

11. How did Bohr’s atomic model explain the stability of an atom ?

12. An atom has 2 K and 8 L electrons. Write down its electronic configuration and indicate in it -
(a) total number of subshells. (b) total number of orbitals.

13. Find out the number of electrons, protons and neutrons in the following -
(a) oxygen atom (b) oxide ion (O–2) (c) oxygen molecule

14. Which isotope of hydrogen is present in heavy water ?

15. Ar (40) & Ca (40) have the same mass number but their chemical properties are entirely different. Why?

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DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : THE PERIODIC TABLE

1. The law of octaves was proposed by -
(A) Newlands (B) Dobereiner
(C) Lavoisier (D) Mendeleev

2. The early attempt to classify elements as metals and non-metals was made by -
(A) Mendeleev (B) Newlands
(C) Lavoisier (D) Henry Moseley

3. The early attempts to classify elements were based on -
(A) atomic number (B) atomic mass
(C) electronic configuration (D) None of these

4. Cl, Br, , if this is a Dobereiner’s triad and the atomic masses of Cl and  are 35.5 and 127 respectively,
then the atomic mass of Br is -
(A) 162.5 (B) 91.5
(C) 81.25 (D) 45.625

5. According to Newlands’ law of octaves 3rd element will resemble in its properties to -
(A) ninth element (B) eighth element
(C) tenth element (D) eleventh element

6. Newlands could classify elements only upto -
(A) copper (B) chlorine
(C) calcium (D) chromium

7. According to Mendeleev’s periodic law which properties of the elements are the periodic function of
their atomic masses ?
(A) Physical properties only (B) Chemical properties only
(C) Physical and chemical properties both (D) None of these

8. Mendeleev classified elements in -
(A) increasing order of atomic number. (B) increasing order of atomic masses.
(C) decreasing order of atomic masses. (D) decreasing order of atomic number.

9. Mendeleev’s periodic table was divided into -
(A) seven periods and seven groups. (B) eight periods and eight groups.
(C) seven periods and nine groups. (D) eight periods and seven groups.

10. Noble gases were included in Mendeleev’s periodic table in the -
(A) 1st group (B) 7th group
(C) 8th group (D) None of these

11. Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in the periodic table ?

12. What were the major defects of Mendeleev’s classification ?

13. Why is the law proposed by Newlands called the Law of Octaves ?

14. A,B,C are the elements of a Dobereiner’s triad. If the atomic mass of ‘A’ is 9 and that of ‘C’ is 39, what
is the atomic mass of element ‘B’ ?
15. Among the halogens F, Cl, Br, and  which does not fit in the Dobereiner’s triad ?

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PART-II

1. Modern periodic law was proposed by-
(A) Mendeleev (B) Henry Moseley
(C) Werner (D) Bohr and Bury

2. The long form of periodic table consists of -
(A) seven periods & eight groups. (B) seven periods & eighteen groups.
(C) eight periods & eighteen groups. (D) eighteen periods & eight groups.

3. In the long form of periodic table lanthanides are placed in the -
(A) 2nd period (B) 5th period
(C) 6th period (D) 7th period

4. All the members in a group of long form of periodic table have the same -
(A) valency (B) number of valence electrons
(C) chemical properties (D) All of these

5. Which of the following pairs of elements belong to the same period of the periodic table ?
(A) C, Mg (B) N, Ar
(C) Ca, Cl (D) K, Cu

6. The number of elements in the 4th period of periodic table are -
(A) 8 (B) 18
(C) 10 (D) 32

7. One important merit of modern periodic table is -
(A) it explains why elements in the same group have the same chemical properties.
(B) hydrogen has been placed accurately.
(C) isobars have not been placed separately.
(D) it is based on classifying elements according to their atomic masses.

8. Which of the following properties does not match to the elements of halogen family ?
(A) They have seven electrons in their valence shells.
(B) They are diatomic in their molecular form.
(C) They are highly reactive chemically .
(D) They are metallic in nature.

9. Which of the following sets does not belong to a group ?
(A) Li, Na, K (B) N, O, F
(C) Be, Mg, Ca (D) He, Ne, Ar

10. In the modern periodic table which one of the following does not have an appropriate position ?
(A) Transition elements (B) Inert gases
(C) Inner transition elements (D) Halogens

11. What does the word ‘Period’ signify in the periodic table ?

12. Why are 18th group elements called inert gases ?

13. Name three elements with single electron in their valence shell.

14. What is a group and a period in a periodic table ?

15. State the modern periodic law.

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PART-III

1. The difference between ions and atoms is of -
(A) relative size (B) electronic configuration
(C) presence of charge (D) All of these

2. Which of the following has the largest size ?
(A) Na (B) Na+
(C) Mg (D) Mg+2

3. An element M has an atomic number 9 and atomic mass 19. Its ion will be represented by-
(A) M (B) M+2
(C) M– (D) M–2

4. Which of the following has the maximum non-metallic character ?
(A) F (B) Cl
(C) Br (D) I

5. Which of the following is the most reactive halogen ?
(A) F (B) Cl
(D) Br (D) I

6. In the third period of the periodic table, the element having smallest size is -
(A) Na (B) Ar
(C) Cl (D) Si

7. Which of the following elements has maximum metallic character ?
(A) Li (B) N
(C) Na (D) P

8. On moving left to right in a period, in the periodic table, metallic character -
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains same (D) first increases, then decreases

9. On moving from top to bottom in a group, in the periodic table, size of an atom -
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains same (D) first increases, then decreases

10. On moving from top to bottom in a group, in the periodic table, valency -
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains same (D) first increases, then decreases

11. On the basis of the periodic classification, identify each set belonging to either a group or a period.
(a) Na, Mg, Al (b) K, Rb, Cs (c) N, O, F (d) Ne, Ar, Kr

12. Why does the atomic size decreases from Na to Cl when we move in the third period of the periodic
table?

13. Show the variation of valency with respect to hydrogen in the 2nd period.

14. Which of the following species are isoelectronic in nature ?
(i) Ca2+ (ii) K (iii) Mg2+ (iv) S2–
(v) Cl–

15. (a) What is meant by periodicity in properties of elements with reference to the periodic table ?
(b) Why do all the elements of the same group have similar properties ?
(c) How will the tendency to gain electrons change as we go from left to right across a period ? Explain.

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DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : HYDROGEN

1. Which of the following is reducing agent ?
(A) Hydrogen (B) Metals
(C) Non-metals (D) (A) & (B) both

2. Who proved the elementary character of hydrogen very first ?
(A) Lavoisier (B) Cavendish
(C) Boyle (D) None of these

3. Iron forms ___________when reacts with water.
(A) FeO (B) Fe2O3
(C) Fe3O4 (D) Fe(OH)2

4. Which of following metal oxides can react with bases ?
(A) FeO (B) Al2O3
(C) CuO (D) K2O

5. HNO3 is a strong oxidizing agent because it produces -
(A) oxygen gas (B) nascent oxygen
(C) hot oxygen (D) All of these

6. To remove the impurity of phosphine which of the following compound is used ?
(A) Pb(NO3)2 (B) AgNO3
(C) CaCl2 (D) KOH

7. Which of the following metal will produces hydrogen gas when react with HNO3 (dil.) ?
(A) Mn (B) Mo
(C) Na (D) Au

8. Hydrogen gas can be collected in a gas jar by -
(A) downward displacement of air (B) downward displacement of water
(C) downward displacement of mercury (D) (B) & (C) both

9. During bosch process which of the following promoter is used ?
(A) Fe2O3 (B) Fe3O4
(C) Cr2O3 (D) FeO

10. Which of the following metal can not adsorb hydrogen gas ?
(A) Copper (B) Nickel
(C) Palladium (D) Platinum

11. Why does hydrogen show dual nature (behaviour like both alkali metals and halogens) ?

12. HNO3 is not used to prepare hydrogen by the reaction with metals. Why ?

13. Why do we use granulated zinc in laboratory method of preparation of H2

14. Hydrogen is a good fuel explain ?

15. How does hydrogen participates in oxidation reduction reactions ?

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DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : ATMOSPHERIC POLLUTION

1. Corrosion of statues and monuments occurs due to:
(A) Photochemical smog (B) CO
(C) Acid rain (D) Methane

2. Pollutant released by jet planes is :
(A) Fog (B) Aerosol
(C) Smog (D) Colloid

3. Ozone layer is present in atmosphere in –
(A) troposphere (B) stratosphere
(C) mesosphere (D) thermosphere

4. Acid rain is caused due to
(A) Nitrogen and sulphur oxide (B) Oxygen and nitrogen oxide
(C) Carbon & Sulphur oxide (D) All

5. Green House Gases are
(A) CO2 & N2O (B) CO & CO2
(C) NO & CO2 (D) CO & NO

6. Ozone is formed in which layer of atmosphere?
(A) troposphere (B) stratosphere
(C) mesosphere (D) exosphere

7. All whether phenomenon happens in which layer of atmosphere ?
(A) troposphere (B) stratosphere
(C) mesosphere (D) exosphere

8. Which of the following chemical is used in AC’s is
(A) CH4 (B) N2O
(C) CFCs (D) C3H8

9. Reaction between H2O & SO2 gives
(A) H2SO2 (B) H2SO4
(C) H3SO4 (D) H2SO3

10. Recommended alternative of CFCs is
(A) PCFCs (B) HCFCs
(C) BCFCs (D) None of these

11. Describe greenhouse effect.

12. Write a short note on ozone depletion.

13. Explain how promoting ‘afforestation’ and checking ‘deforestation’ reduces the release of green house
gases.

14. Give reason why acid rain affects marine organisms.

15. Name the chemicals responsible for destruction of the ozone layer.
State the main chemical from these chemicals, which is responsible for more than 80% ozone
depletion.
State the man-made applications which make use of that chemical.

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DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : PRACTICAL CHEMISTRY

1. Brown ring in the test of NO3 is formed due to the formation of :
(A) FeSO4.NO (B) [Fe(SO4)2.NO].H2O
(C) Fe2 (SO4)3 NO (D) None of these

2. Which of the following is not soluble in NaOH?
(A)Fe(OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2 (C) Al(OH)3 (D) Sn(OH)2

3. Nessler ‘s reagent is:
(A) NaHgCl4 (B) K2HgI4 (C) Hg(NH3)2 Cl (D)K2HgI4 + KOH

4. The brown ring test for nitrates depends on :
(A) the reduction of nitrate to nitric oxide (B) oxidation of nitric oxide to nitrogen dioxide
(C) reduction of ferrous sulphate to iron (D) oxidising action of sulphuric acid

5 The basic radical which is tested by the reagent and also used for the test of phosphate is :
2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
(A) Cd (B) Sn (C) Sb (D) As

6. A gas is obtained by addition of dil H2SO4 to a mixture which turns lead acetate paper black. It is :
(A) SO2 (B) CO2 (C) H2S (D) NO2

7. Gas evolved in reaction between metallic sulphite and dilute acid will turn KMnO4 paper to
(A) pink to colourless (B) pink to red (C) pink to white (D) pink to yellow

8. Colour of nitrogen dioxide fumes is
(A) white (B) greenish blue (C) violet (D) reddish brown

9. Colour of ammonia dioxide fumes is
(A) white (B) greenish blue (C) violet (D) reddish brown

10. Which coloured reactant is produced after decomposition of ammonium dichromate
(A) white (B) blue (C) green (D) black

11. Give a chemical test to distinguish between the following gases :
(a) hydrogen and oxygen (b) carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide
(c) hydrogen chloride and hydrogen sulphide (d) chlorine and nitrogen dioxide
(e) ammonium and hydrogen chloride. (f) sulphur dioxide and chlorine.

12. Give balanced equations for the following conversions affected by heat alone on the substances :
(a) copper carbonate to copper oxide (b) hydrated copper sulphate to sulphur dioxide
(c) copper nitrate to nitrogen dioxide (d) ammonium dichromate to nitrogen
(e) zinc carbonate to zinc oxide (f) zinc nitrate to nitrogen dioxide

13. A mixture consists of 20% sodium chloride and 80% sand. Explain in brief a simple method involved to
ascertain the correct percentages in the mixture.

14. To determine the quality of water in different water samples collected from water sources, specific tests
are performed . State four physical tests & three chemical tests performed to determine the quality of
water. For each test explain how the test is conducted & the conclusion drawn about the quality of
water.

15. How can we remove temporary hardness in water?

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VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – IX (ICSE)

DPP : 01
TOPIC : BASIC BIOLOGY
1. Cell wall shows
(A) complete permeability (B) semipermeability
(C) differential permeability (D) impermeability

2. A plant cell attains turgidity due to
(A) endosmosis (B) plasmolysis (C) electrolysis (D) hydrolysis

3. The solution having concentration equal to the concentration of solution of inside the cell is called as
(A) isotonic solution (B) hypotonic solution (C) hypertonic solution (D) all of the above

4. Lysosomes are responsible for
(A) protein synthesis (B) digestion of organic molecules
(C) fat synthesis (D) fat emulsification

5. What is more abundant in smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
(A) Cisternae and vesicles (B) Tubules
(C) Tubules and vesicles (D) Cisternae

6. Which of the following plant tissues causes growth in girth of stem and root ?
(A) Apical meristem (B) Intercalary meristem
(C) Lateral meristem (D) None of the above

7. Totipotency is present in .
(A) meristem (B) cambium (C) phloem (D) cork

8. The tissue that joins one bone to the other is .
(A) ligament (B) tendon (C) blood (D) cartilage

9. Areolar tissue is a .
(A) nervous tissue (B) muscular tissue (C) connective tissue (D) epithelial tissue

10. Which of these cells are called as .soldiers of the body.
(A) RBC (B) WBC (C) Platelets (D) None of these

11. Who gave the cell theory? What does it state? Which organism is an exception of cell theory ?

12. Name various types of plastids present in a plant cell.

13. Differentiate between plant and animal cell with suitable figures.

14. Name the different elements of xylem and phloem.

15. State the main features of muscular tissues.

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DPP : 02
TOPIC : FLOWERING PLANTS
1. The plant cells lacking the cell wall are called
(A) Proteome (B) Protoplast (C) Leucoplast (D) Genome

2. Artificial vegetative propagation of mango varieties such as Dussehri and Alphanso, is carried out
through
(A) Bud grafting (B) Scion grafting (C) Mound layering (D) Aerial layering

3. Which of these are seedless plants?
(A) Banana (B) Apple (C) Papaya (D) Guava

4. Mixing of the characters of two parents in the new offspring is -
(A) Hybridization (B) Micropropagation (C) Biotechnology (D) None of these

5. When sepals are free, the condition is -
(A) polysepalous (B) gamosepalous (C) Polyadelphous (D) Polypetalous

6. Which part connect stigma to ovary
(A) Pollen tube (B) style (C) ovule (D) embryo

7. Which of these plants are monoecious ?
(A) Palm (B) Papaya (C) Maize (D) None of these

8. Exine and intine are the parts of
(A) Embryo sac (B) Pollen grain (C) Stigma (D) Seed

9. Anemophily is pollination by
(A) air (B) water (C) insects (D) animal

10. Pollination between different flowers of same plant is called
(A) autogamy (B) geitonogamy (C) allogamy (D) xenogamy
11. Name the following
(a) The process by which a new variety is developed through cross-pollination.
(b) The portion of the plant which is used in micropropagation.
12. State any two differences between sexual reproduction and vegetative reproduction in plants.

13. What are the essential and non essential parts of the flower ?

14. Distinguish between the following pairs :
(a) Flower and fruit, (b) Petals and sepal.

15. Why cross pollination is considered best for evolution explain it ?

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DPP : 03
TOPIC : PLANT PHYSIOLOGY

1. Seeds sown very deep in the soil fail to germinate because -
(A) they cannot exert enough force to push the soil upward
(B) they do not get enough sunlight
(C) they get too much water
(D) they do not get enough oxygen

2. What is seed?
(A) Ripened fruit (B) Ripened ovary (C) Ripened pollen grain (D) Ripened ovule

3. Select the dicotyledonous seed
(A) pea (B) wheat (C) maize (D) grasses

4. Seed contains
(A) embryo (B) endosperm (C) testa (D) all of these

5. The optimum temperature range for germination of seed is
(A) 15°C – 25°C (B) 25°C – 35°C (C) 20°C – 40°C (D) 35°C – 45°C

6. More energy production occurs in which respiration .
(A) aerobic respiration (B) anaerobic respiration
(C) same energy in both (D) energy production is uncertain

7. Glycolysis is a process:
(A) In which glycogen is broken down into glucose
(B) which occur in mitochondria
(C) in which glucose is broken down into pyruvate
(D) Occurs after Kreb's cycle

8. Respiration in yeast
(A) takes place in the presence of oxygen (B) yields lactic acid and carbon dioxide
(C) is anaerobic and produces carbon dioxide (D) takes place only in darkness

9. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures performs the same common function?
(A) Stomata and Veins (B) Stomata and Lenticels
(C) Lenticels and Sepals (D) Lenticels and Hydathodes

10. The Kreb's cycle takes place in:
(A) cytoplasm (B) Mitochondria (C) Chloroplast (D) None of the above

11. What is the important condition for seed germination?

12. What are the functions of the following in a seed?
(a) Seed coat (b) Micropyle (c) Cotyledons (d) Radicle (e) Plumule

13. Write any two points of difference between respiration in plants and respiration in animals.

14. Explain the process of respiration in different parts of plant. What are the various structures involved in
respiration in plants?
15. Write the differences between photosynthesis and respiration.

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DPP : 04
TOPIC : DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
1. What will happen, if all the green plants disappear from the earth ?
(A) all animals will die (B) only carnivores will die
(C) only herbivores will die (D) it will have no effect on animals
2. In an ecosystem
(A) Primary producers are more than that of primary consumers
(B) Secondary consumers are largest, because they are powerful
(C) Primary consumers are out of number
(D) Primary consumers are least dependent upon primary producers
3. Classification reflecting the evolutionary interrelationships of organisms is called
(A) phylogenetic classification (B) artificial classification
(C) natural classification (D) numerical classification
4. Principles and rules of classification are studied under
(A) Systematics (B) Natural classification
(C) Nomenclature (D) Taxonomy.

5. Five kingdom classification was proposed by
(A) Linnaeus (B) Whittaker (C) John Ray (D) Lamarck
6. Flowering plants are included under
(A) cryptogams (B) phanerogams (C) bryophytes (D) pteridophytes
7. Contractile vacuole is present in
(A) Amoeba (B) Euglena (C) Paramecium (D) All of the above
8. Choanocytes are unique to
(A) Protozoa (B) Porifera (C) Mollusca (D) Echinodermata
9. Which of the following antibiotic is obtained from bacteria ?
(A) Streptomycin (B) Aureomycin (C) Chloromycin (D) All of the above
10. Study of fungi is
(A) Phycology (B) Algology (C) Mycology (D) All of the above
11. What is Nitrogen fixation ? Name the microorganisms which are used in this process.
12. What is the mode of nutrition in fungi ?

13. Mention the characteristic features of Arthropoda.
14. Mention two points of difference between fish and frog.
15. Explain the different components of ecosystem.

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DPP : 05
TOPIC : HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
1. The general formula for carbohydrate is
(A) CnH2nOn–1 (B) CnH2nOn
(C) Both of them are correct (D) None of them are correct
2. Sunshine vitamin is
(A) vitamin -A (B) vitamin – D (C) vitamin- K (D) vitamin - E
3. Pepsin differs from trypsin in that it digests :
(A) protein in alkaline medium in stomach (B) protein in acid medium in stomach
(C) protein in acid medium in duodenum (D) protein in alkaline medium in duodenum.
4. Thorough mastication of food is essential because
(A) mastication of food makes the teeth stronger
(B) it makes the process of swallowing the food easier
(C) by this process bigger pieces of food are broken down into smaller pieces
(D) bigger pieces of food are broken down into smaller pieces and saliva is properly mixed with it
5. The wave of contractions that pushes the food through the alimentary canal is called
(A) peritoneum (B) peristalsis (C) cyclosis (D) polarisation
6. Appendicular skeleton is made up of -
(A) Girdles (B) Hind limb bones (C) Fore limb bones (D) All
7. Fixed or immovable joints is present in
(A) vertebrae (B) shoulder joint (C) skull bones (D) knee joint
8. Which can do both skeletal and muscular movements?
(A) Earthworm (B) Snail (C) Fish (D) Cockroach
9. If for some reason the sebaceous glands fail to function.
(A) the body will not be able to regulate the body temperature
(B) the skin will turn darker with more melanin
(C) the hair will fail to grow
(D) the skin will turn dry and rough
10. In respiration pyruvic acid is :
(A) Broken down into two carbon fragments and carbon dioxide
(B) Formed only when oxygen is available
(C) One of the products of Kreb's cycle
(D) A result of protein break down
11. Name the disease which is caused by deficiency of iodine.

12. Name five different types of glands involved in human digestive system .
13. What is the difference between ligament and tendon ? What are their functions ?
14. How does our skin provide protection to our body against the following ?
(a) Entry of germs (b) Excessive loss of heat in severe cold (c) Entry of harmful ultra-violet rays
15. State one function of each of the following :
(a) Ciliated epithelium lining the respiratory tract (b) Mitochondria
(c) Intercostal muscles (d) Pleural fluid

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DPP : 06
TOPIC : HEALTH AND HYGIENE
1. A disease widely spread worldwide is known as :
(A) endemic (B) epidemic (C) pandemic (D) sporadic
2. Use of disposable syringes for injection is specially advised to prevent
(A) Poliomyelitis (B) Mumps (C) Rabies (D) AIDS
3. Rabies is another name of
(A)Anthrax (B) Hydrophobia (C) Mumps (D) Taeniases
4. Tetanus is caused by
(A) Worms (B) Protozoa (C) Virus (D) Bacteria
5. Syphilis is caused by
(A) Treponema (B) Clostridium (C) Ascariasis (D) None of these
6. No urination due to shortage of water in the body is a typical symptom of
(A) typhoid (B) malaria (C) dysentery (D) cholera
7. Which one of the following is an unhealthy habit?
(A) Removing wax from inside the ears (B) Keeping the mouth closed while breathing
(C) Sleeping for only 6-7 hours (D) Sharing towels with others
8. The causative agent of cholera is
(A) Vibrio cholerae (B) Mycobacterium (C) Entamoeba (D) none of these
9. Aedes mosquito spreads
(A) Malaria (B) Filaria (C) yellow fever (D) none of these
10. Which of these is not a water borne disease ?
(A) Typhoid (B) Dysentry (C) Cholera (D) AIDS
11. Define the terms infection, pathogen and incubation period.

12. What are the different ways in which infectious diseases can spread ?
13. Name any four non-infectious diseases and their causes.

14. Write a note on social hygiene.
15. Name the two types of dysentery and their causative germs and give one main precaution against
them.

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DPP : 07
TOPIC : WASTE GENERATION AND MANAGEMENT
1. The most convenient reusable wastes are
(A) Old newspapers (B) Broken glass (C) Flyash (D) Medical instruments.
2. The most rapidly increasing and much harmful waste, today is
(A) plastics (B) pesticides (C) municipal sewage (D) electronic waste
3. Incineration is the disposal of waste by ;
(A) sedimentation (B) burning (C) Scrubers (D) none of these
4. e-waste is
(A) emergeney waste (B) energy waste (C) electronic waste (D) None of these
5. Which of these are non degradable waste ?
(A) Vegetable waste (B) Fruit peelump (C) Plastics (D) none of these
6. Which of these is a plant residue ?
(A) Pesticides (B) Fertilizers (C) Bagasse (D) Dung
7. Methods of disposal of wastes includes
(A) Dumping (B) Composting (C) Drainage (D) All of these
8. Devices used to remove gaseous & particulate air pollutants are called
(A) Scrubber (B) Chimneys (C) Sedimentation tanks (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following can recycle?
(A) Household waste (B) Paper (C) Plastic (D) All of these
10. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
(A) Municipal waste – Bagasse (B) Industrial waste – Oil refineries
(C) Laboratories waste – Rags (D) Domestic waste – Refrigerators
11. What is incineration? What are the advantages of incineration?

12. Differentiate between degradable and non-degradable types of waste.
13. Give reasons for the following:
a) Broken glass utensils are a kind of non-degradable waste.
b) Landfills are coming up fast near large cities.
c) Why is municipal sewage first separated into degradable and non-degradable wastes ?

14. Mention the types of waste with suitable examples.
15. Describe the procedure how compost is usually produced.

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MATHEMATICS
&
MENTAL ABILITY

DPPS

CLASS-IX (ICSE)

INDEX

MATHEMATICS - 01-17
MENTAL ABILITY - 18-47

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: IX (ICSE)

DPP : 01
TOPIC : PURE ARITHMETIC
1. Convert 0.225 in to form p/q.
3 9 9 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10 40 50 400

1 1
2. Two rational numbers between and are
8 2

3 5 1 3 1 3 1 5
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
8 8 4 8 4 4 6 6

3. Decimal representation of a rational number cannot be :
(A) Terminating (B) Non-terminating non-repeating
(C) Non-terminating repeating (D) None of these

4. The product of any two irrational numbers is :
(A) always an irrational number (B) always a rational number
(C) always an integer (D) sometimes rational, sometimes irrational

5. The value of 10  25  108  154  225 is :
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

6. Which of the following surds is greatest in magnitude
6
17, 2,12 25 , 3 4 .

(A) 6 17 (B) 12 (C) 3 (D)
25 4 2

ac
7. If a, b, c are positive, is :
bc

a a
(A) always smaller than (B) always greater than
b b

a a
(C) greater than only if a > b. (D) greater than only if a < b.
b b
8. The number of integers between – 8 and 32 is :
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

9. The biggest among the following is :
(A) 21/2 (B) 31/3 (C) 61/6 (D) 81/8

5 7
10. After rationalizing the denominator of : we get :
7 3
7 35 21 15 7 21 35 15
(A) (B)
4 4

7 35 21 15 7 35 21 5
(C) (D)
4 4
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3 1 3 1
11. If a and b then the value of a2 + ab + b2 is
3 1 3 1

6
12. The digit at the 100th place in the decimal representation of , is.
7

13. Let D be a recurring decimal of the form D = 0. a1 a2 a1 a2 a1 a2 ....., where digits a1 and a2 lie between 0 and 9. Further,
at most one of them is zero. Which of the following numbers necessarily produces an integer, when multiplied by D?

14. Find the square root of 7 – 4 3 .

15. The value of (256)0.16 × (256)0.09 is.

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DPP : 02
TOPIC : COMMERCIAL MATHEMATICS
1. If the compound interest of a certain sum for 3 years at 10% per annum be Rs. 331, what would be the simple
interest ?
(A) Rs. 320 (B) Rs. 310 (C) Rs. 321 (D) Rs. 300
1
2. A businessman sells at a shirt a profit of 12 % and invests the proceeds to buy a pant which he sells at a
2
profit of 20%. If he gets Rs. 700 for this, the cost of the shirt approximately is -
(A) Rs. 600 (B) Rs. 519 (C) Rs. 571 (D) Rs. 548

3. If a sum of money doubles at 12.5% p.a. interest. What is the time period in case of S.I.
(A) 5.88 yrs (B) 8 yrs (C) 9.88 yrs (D) 2.88 yrs

1
4. W hat sum will become Rs 9826 in 18 months if the rate of interest is 2 % per annum and the interest is
2
compounded half-yearly ?
(A) Rs. 9466.54 (B) Rs. 9646.54 (C) Rs. 9566.54 (D) Rs. 9456.54

5. In what time will Rs 64000 amount to Rs 68921 at 5% per annum, interest being compounded half-yearly ?

1 2
(A) 1 years (B) years (C) 2 years (D) None of these
2 3
6. The value of refrigerator which was purchased 2 years ago depreciates at 12 % p.a. If its present value is Rs 9680,
for how much was it purchased ?
(A) Rs. 11500 (B) Rs. 10500 (C) Rs. 12000 (D) Rs. 12500

7. The compound interest on Rs. 10,000 in 2 years at 4 % per annum, being compounded half yearly is :
(A) Rs. 832.24 (B) Rs. 828.82 (C) Rs. 824.32 (D) Rs. 912.86

8. A sum of Rs. 500 was lent for two years at 2 % compound interest. The interest for two years will be :
(A) Rs. 20.00 (B) Rs. 25.00 (C) Rs. 50.20 (D) Rs. 20.20

9. Compute the compound interest on Rs. 1000 for 2 years at 10 % per annum when compounded half-yearly.
(A) Rs. 315.15 (B) Rs. 200 (C) Rs. 215.50 (D) None of these
1
10. Find the compound interest on Rs 24000 at 15 % per annum for 2 years.
3
(A) Rs. 9327 (B) Rs. 9723 (C) Rs. 9372 (D) Rs. 9237

11. Find the amount of Rs 12000 after 2 years compounded annually, the rate of interest being 5 % p.a. during the first
year and 6 % p.a. during the second year, also find the compound interest.

3
12. Find the compound interest on Rs 31250 at 8 % per annum for 2 years.
4

13. A certain sum amounts to Rs 72900 in 2 years at 8 % per annum compound interest. Find the sum.

14. At what percent per annum, simple interest will double a sum of money in 12 years?

15. A certain principal becomes Rs. 96800 in 2 years if compounded annually at a certain rate of interest.The same
principal becomes Rs. 97240 in two years if compounded half yearly at the same rate of interest. The rate of interest
is

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DPP : 03
TOPIC : ALGEBRA–1

x2 y2 z2
1. If x + y + z = 0, then the value of is
yz xz xy
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) –1
2. The factors of (x2
– 1 – 2a – are - a2)
(A) (x + a + 1) (x – a – 1) (B) (x–a–1) (x–a + 1) (C) (x+a–1)(x–a+1) (D) None of these

1 1 4 2
3. If a , then 4a is equal to
a 2 a2
(A) 9 (B) – 9 (C) – 10 (D) 10
3 3 3
(x – y) (y – z) (z – x)
4. The value of 2 is :
(x – y 2 )3 (y 2 – z 2 )3 (z 2 – x 2 )3
1
(A) (x - y) (y - z) (z - x) (B)
(x – y)(y – z)(z – x)
1
(C) (D) (x + y) (y + z) (z + x)
(x y)(y z)(z x)
a b
5. If (a2 + b2)3 = (a3 + b3)2 then + =
b a
2 3 5 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 6 5
x 3  y 3
6.
x 3 y 1  ( xy )  2  y 3 x 1
1 1 1 1
(A) x + y (B) y – x (C) – (D) +
x y x y

7. If
 a – b  4 2
ab
=
5
, then the value of a : b is :
a–b 3
(A) 1 : 16 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 16 : 1

8. For what value of k, do the equations 3x – y + 8 = 0 and 6x – ky = –16, represent coincident lines ?
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) –2
2 2

9. The pair of linear equations 8x – 5y = 7 and 5x – 8y = –7 have :
(A) one solution (B) two solutions (C) no solution (D) many solutions

10. Which of the following pairs of equations represent inconsistent system ?
(A) 3x – 2y = 8, 2x + 3y = 1 (B) 3x – y = –8, 3x – y = 24
(C) 5x – y = 3, x + 3y = 4 (D) 5x – y = 10, 10x – 2y = 20
11. The value of k for which the system : 4x + 2y = 3, (k – 1)x – 6y = 9 has no unique solution is.
12. The number of solutions of the pair of linear equations x + 2y – 8 = 0 and 2x + 4y = 16 is.
13. Solution of the system : 11x + 9y = 31, 9x + 11y = 29 is.
14. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father will be four times his son’s
age. The present ages, in years, of the son and the father respectively are.

15. The pair of linear equations 2x + 5y = 3 and 6x + 15y = 12 represent.

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DPP : 04
TOPIC : ALGEBRA–2

1. Let a, b, c be positive real numbers such that abc  1, (ab)2 = (bc)4 = (ca)x = abc. Then x equals
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4/5
2. If xy2 = a3 , yz2 = b3 and zx2 = c3 then z3 equals

bc 4 b 4c b2c 4 ab4
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D)
a a b c2
3. The value of [log10 (5 log10 100)]2 is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10

4. If log10 [log10(log10x)] = 0.
(A) x = 103 (B) x = 1010 (C) x = 155 (D) None
1
5. If log 3 M  3 log 3 N = 1+ log 5, then :
3 0.008

9 9 3 3
(A) M9  (B) N9  (C) M3  (D) N9 
N M N M

6. The value of x, when log3(log2 x) + 2 log9(log7 8) = 2, is :
(A) 243 (B) 27 (C) 343 (D) 64

7. Find x if log10 1250 + log1080 = x.
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 7

8. If logxy = 100 and log2x = 10, then the value of y is :
(A) 21000 (B) 2100 (C) 22000 (D) 210000

9. Find the value of ‘x’ if 2logx 7 + log7x 7 + 3log49x 7 = 0
4
(A) x = (B) x = 7–1/2 (C) x = 7–4/3 (D) Either (B) or (C)
3
10. If log x = n then 2n is equal to :
(A) log (x2) (B) (logx)2 (C) log (x+2) (D) log 2x

11. If log 10N  2.5 then, find out total number of digits in N.

 1  1  1  1 
12. log10 1  2  + log10 1  3  + log10 1  4  + ... + log10 1  1999  . When simplified has the value equal to.
       

13. Given log2 = 0.3010, then log 16 is.

5 11 8x
5 5 5
14. If         , then x = ?
 3  3  3

15. If xyz = 0, then find the value of (ax)yz + (ay)zx + (az)xy =

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DPP : 05
TOPIC : GEOMETRY

1. Which of the following is not a criterion for congruence of triangles?
(A) SAS (B) ASA (C) SSA (D) SSS

2. In ABC and PQR, if AB = QR, BC = PR and CA = PQ, then:
(A) ABC  PQR (B) CBA  PRQ (C) BAC  RPQ (D) PQR  BCA

3. In ABC, BC = AB and B = 80º. Then A is equal to:
(A) 80° (B) 40° (C) 50° (D) 100°

4. In PQR, R = P and QR = 4 cm and PR = 5 cm. Then the length of PQ is:
(A) 4 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 2 cm (D) 2.5 cm

5. D is a point on the side BC of a ABC such that AD bisects BAC. Then:
(A) BD = CD (B) BA > BD (C) BD > BA (D) CD > CA

6. In a ABC, if A = 45° and C = 60°, then the shortest side of the triangle is:
(A) AB (B) AC (C) BC (D) none of these

7. Which of the following figures may not be congruent?
(A) two squares of equal sides (B) two line segments of equal lengths
(C) two circles of equal radii (D) two triangles of equal angles
8. Read the two statements and choose among the correct options:
Statement P: All equilateral triangles are isosceles triangles.
Statement Q: All scalene triangles are isosceles triangles.
(A) P is true but Q is false (B) P is false but Q is true
(C) Both P and Q are true (D) Both P and Q are false

9. For the given triangle PQR, which of the following is true ?

(A) PQ = QR (B) PQ > QR (C) PQ < QR (D) ext. P < ext. Q

10. In the following figure, AD bisects  A. Then the relation between the sides AB, BD and DC is :

(A) AB < DC < AC (B) BD < AB < DC
(C) AB > DC > BD (D) DC < BD < AB

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11. In the given figure alongside , three coplanar lines intersect at a point ‘O’ forming angles as shown. The value
of (c + d) – (a + b) is :

T R Q

b a
O
80°
c
d 70°

P U
S

12. The value of x in the given figure is –

13. In the given figure, ABP = ACQ, BAC = 68°. The the value of CR

T S
A
68°

P B C Q
R U

14. In the given figure AB || CD and BC || DE, then the value of x =
A B
x

D C
60°

E

15. In the given figure BD || CE, then :

120°
D y
A
x E

B
70° z
C

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DPP : 06
TOPIC : GEOMETRY-2

1. In the adjoining figure, AP and BP are angle bisectors of A and B which meets at P on the parallelogram
ABCD. Then 2APB =

(A) C + D (B) A + C (C) B + D (D) 2C

2. Observe given figure, then find GH.

(A) 3 cm (B) 2.5 cm (C) 4 cm (D) Data inadequate
3. The given figure , ABCD is a trapezium in which A =(x + 25º), B = yº, C = 95º and D = (2x + 5)º. Then
the value of x and y are –

(A) x = 50, y = 85 (B) x = 45, y = 85
(C) x = 40, y = 90 (D) x = 92, y = 60

KP 4
4. In figure, PQ || MN. If  and KN = 20.4 cm, then KQ =
PM 13

K

P Q

M N

(A) 3.8 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 4.5 cm (D) 4.8 cm

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NT 9
5. In the figure, if = and if MB = 10 cm, then MN will be -
AB 5

(A) 18 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 90 cm
6. In ABC, if D is a point in BC and divides it in the ratio 3 : 5 i.e., if BD : DC = 3 : 5 then, ar(ADC) :
ar(ABC) = ?
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 3 : 8 (C) 5 : 8 (D) 8 : 3

7. If the point D divides the side BC of ABC in the ratio p : q, then the ar (ABD) : ar(ADC) are in the
ratio :
(A) q : p (B) p : q (C) q2 : p2 (D) p2 : q2

8. ABCD is a parallelogram. Points P and Q, on BC trisects it in three equal parts. PR and QS are also drawn
parallel to AB, then ar(APQ) = ........... ar(ABCD).

1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 4 6

9. In the figure, D and E are the mid-point of the sides AC and BC respectively of ABC. If ar(BED) = 12 cm2,
then ar (AEC) =

(A) 48 cm2 (B) 24 cm2 (C) 36 cm2 (D) none of these

10. In the below diagram, ABCD is a rectangle with AE = EF = FB. What is the ratio of the areas ofCEF and
that of the rectangle ?

D C

A E F B

1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
6 8 9

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11. Two parallel chords of a circle whose radius is 117 cm, are 12 cm and 18 cm. Both chords are on the same
side of the centre. Then distance between the chords is

O
117

A 9 cm M 9 cm B
C 6 cm N 6 cm D

12. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, AB and CD are two chords such that OL is perpendicular to
AB and OM is perpendicular to CD. AOB = 50°, AL = DM = 2 cm. The measure of COD is

A
D
2 cm O 2 cm
L
M

B
C

13. In the given figure, AB = BC = CD, If BAC = 25º, then value of AED is :
C
D
B
25º

A
E

14. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If AOC = 90°, then ABC is
D

O
90º
A C

B

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DPP : 07
TOPIC : STATISTICS

Q.1 If the mean of 6, 4, 7, p, p+1 and 10 is 9, The value of p is
(A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D) 16

Q.2 To draw a histogram to represent the following frequency distribution :
Class interval 5-10 10-15 15-25 25-45 45-75
Frequency 6 12 10 8 15
the adjusted frequency for the class 25-45 is :
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2

Q.3 The mean of 10 numbers is 30. If 3 is subtracted from every number, Then the new mean is
(A) 10. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D) 27.

Q.4 The median of the observations 11, 12, 13, 15, 17, x-1, x+1, x+2, x+4, 33 and 35 is 24. The value of x is
(A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27.

Q.5 The mean of 10 observation is 25. If one observation namely 25 is deleted. The new mean is
(A) 20. (B) 22. (C) 25. (D) 26.

Q.6 The mean of 6, y, 7, x, 14 is 8 then
(A) x2 + y2 = 15. (B) x + y = 13. (C) x – y = 13. (D) 2x + 3y =13.

Q.7 The average of A and B is 25; B and C is 28; C and A is 22. The average of A, B and C is
(A) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26.

Q.8 The given bar graph is showing the height of six mountain peaks.

The second highest peak is
(A) B. (B) A. (C) E. (D) C.

Q.9 Given x, x+2, x+4, x+6, x+8. If mean of these five numbers is 11 then the mean of first three numbers will be
(A) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12.

Q.10 If M is the mean of x1, x2, x3 and x4 then the value of (x1-M) + (x2-M) + (x3-M)+ (x4-M) will be
(A) 3. (B) 2. (C) 1. (D) 0.

Q.11 Look at the frequency distribution table given below :
Class Interval 35-45 45-55 55-65 65-75

Frequency 8 12 20 10

The median of the above data is

Q.12 The mean and mode of a frequency distribution are 28 and 16 respectively. The median is

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Q.13 Find mean deviation from following data :
x 3 9 17 23 27
f 8 10 12 9 5

Q.14 If the arithmetic mean of 7, 5, 13, x and 9 be 10, then the value of x is :

Q.15 Mean of the following distribution is 19.5. Values of f1 and f2 are :
Marks Frequency
5 15
20 10
25 12
30 f1
32 f2
Total 50

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DPP : 08
TOPIC : MENSURATION

1. The sides of a triangle are x, y and z. If x + y = 7 m, y + z = 9 m, and z + x = 8 m, then area of the triangle
is :
(A) 4 m2 (B) 5 m2 (C) 6 m2 (D) 7 m2

2. Area of an equilateral triangle is 9 3 cm2 in find its side -

(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 3 (D) 2 3

3. The length of the sides of a triangle are 5x, 5x and 8x. The area of the triangle is :
(A) 144 x2 sq. units (B) 100 x2 sq. units (C) 24x2 sq. units (D) 12 x2sq. units

4. The area of a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm, CD = 4 cm, DA = 5 cm and AC = 5 cm is:
(A) 2(3  21)cm 2 (B) (3  21)cm 2 (C) ( 2  31)cm 2 (D) 3(2  31)cm 2

5. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of ground is –
(A) 75 cu. m (B) 750 cu. m (C) 7500 cu. m (D) 75000 cu. m

6. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated by the side of 3 cm to form a cone. The volume of
the cone so formed is :
(A) 12 cm3 (B) 15 cm3 (C) 16 cm3 (D) 20 cm3

7. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the celling is equal to the sum of
the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is –
(A) 720 (B) 900 (C) 1200 (D) 1800

8. A hollow iron pipe is 12 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and iron
weights 8 g/cm3, then the weight of the pipe is :
(A) 2112 kg (B) 2.112 kg (C) 211.2 kg (D) 21.12 kg

9. In given figure, ABCD is a square of 14 cm, find the area of shaded portion, if all larger circles are equal

D C

A B

57 2
59 77
(A)
2
(3 – 2 ) cm (B)
3
(3 – 3 ) cm2 (C) 2 (3 – 2 2 ) cm2 (D) none of these

10. 50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long and 20 m broad on a religious day if the average displacement
of water by a man is 4 m3, then the rise in the water level in the tank will be.
(A) 20 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 35 cm (D) 50 cm

11. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find the area of its curved surface.

12. A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m × 36 m. From each of its corners, a square is
cut off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box (in m3) is.

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13. If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square, then the ratio of their areas is.

14. A boat having a length 3m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man gets
on it. The mass of the man is (density of water is 1000kg/m3 ).

15. The perimeter of the following shaded portion of the figure is :

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DPP : 09
TOPIC : TRIGONOMETRY
4
1. If cos A = , then the value of tan A is :
5
3 3 4 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 4 3 3
a
2. If sin  = , then cos  is equal to :
b
a b b2 – a 2 a
(A) 2 2 (B) (C) (D)
b –a a b b – a2
2

1
3. How many values of  satisfies the following : sin2  = 1–
sec 2 

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) more then 1 but less then 20 (D) infinite

 4 sin  – cos  
4. If 4 tan  = 3, then   is equal to :
 4 sin   cos  
2 1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2 4
1 – sin 2 45º
5. is equal to :
1  sin 2 45º
(A) cos 60° (B) sin2 60° (C) tan2 30° (D) sin 30°

6. The value of (sin 30° cos 60° + cos 30° sin 60°) is :
(A) sin 90° (B) cos 90° (C) sin 0° (D) cos 30°
sin 
7. is equal to :
1  cos 
1  cos  1 – cot  1 – cos  1 – sin 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
sin  sin  sin  cos 
8. If x = a cos  and y = b sin , then b2x2 + a2y2 is equal to :
(A) a2b2 (B) ab (C) a4b4 (D) a2 + b2
9. If cos 9= sin  and 9 < 90°, then the value of tan 5 is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) cannot be determined

10. In the given figure, ACB = 90°, BDC = 90°, CD = 4 cm, BD = 3 cm, AC = 12 cm, cos A – sin A is
equal to :

5 5 7 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 13 12 13

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11. If the angle lies in the third quadrant and tan = 2 then sin is equal to.

4 5 sin   7 cos 
12. If tan  = , where 0 <  < 90º, then the value of is.
15 6 cos   3 sin 

 cos 2 A  1
13. Prove :   1 tan 2 A 
2  cos 2 A
 sin A 

cos ec
14. Prove : = cos
cot   tan 

cos  cos 
15. Prove :  = 2 tan
cos ec  1 cos ec – 1

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DPP : 10
TOPIC : COORDINATE GEOMETRY

1. The ratio in which the segment joining the points (5, 1) and (–7, –1) divided by x-axis is :
(A) 1 : 6. (B) 6 : 2. (C) 2 : 6. (D) 1 : 1.

2. The coordinates of the points of trisection of a segment joining A(–3, 2) and B(9, 5) is :
(A) (3, 1), (–5, –4). (B) (5, 9), (–9, 5). (C) (2, 3), (4, 5). (D) (1, 3), (5, 4).

3. If A (3, 1), B(2, 6) and C(–5. 7) are the midpoints of the sides of PQR, then the area of the PQR is :
(A) 68 sq. units. (B) 24 sq. units. (C) 48 sq. units. (D) 50 sq. units.

4. A(–1, 2), B(4, 1) and C(7, 6) are three vertices of the parallelogram ABCD. Then the coordinates of fourth
vertex is :
(A) (7, 2).   (B) (–2, 7). (C) (7, –2). (D) (2, 7).

5. If y co-ordinate of a point is zero, then this point always lies :
(A) in I quadrant (B) in II quadrant (C) on x-axis (D) on y-axis

6. The coordinates of a point P on y-axis, equidistant from two points A(–5, –2) and B(3, 2) on the same plane
are :
(A) (0, –1). (B) (0, –2). (C) (0, –3). (D) (0, –4).

7. If A(1, 4), B(3, 0) and C(2, 1) are the vertices of a triangle, then the length of the median through C is
(A) 1 unit. (B) 2 units. (C) 3 units. (D) 4 units.

8. If (x, y) = (y, x), then :
(A) x – y = 0 (B) x + y = 0 (C) xy = 0 (D) None of these

9. If A (1, 1) and B(2, –3) are two points and P is a point on AB produced such that AP = 3AB. Then the
co-ordinate of point P are :
(A) (4, 11) (B) (4, –11) (C) (4, –9) (D) None of these

10. If point P divides the line joining A(–3, 3) and B(2, –7) internally in the ratio 2 : 3, then the coordinates of point
P are :
(A) (0, 1). (B) (1, 0). (C) (1, 1). (D) (–1, –1).

11. If points (t, 2t) (–2, 6) and (3, 1) are collinear, then t is

12. Area of quadrilateral formed by the vertices (–1, 6), (–3, –9), (5, – 8) and (3, 9) is

13. If three points (0,0), (3, 3 ) and (3, ) from an equilateral triangle, then  is

14. The two opposite vertices of a square are (–1, 2) and (3,2), so the coordinates of the other two vertices are

15. The vertices of ABC are A(2,1), B(6, –2), C(8,9). If AD is angle bisector, where D meets on BC, then
coordinates of D are.

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VIBRANT ACADEMY MENTAL ABILITY
(India) Private Limited CLASS IX - (ICSE)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET
DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES
Find the missing term :
1. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, ? ,16, 64
(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 25 (D) 28
2. 2, 20, ?, 110, 182
(A) 56 (B) 72 (C) 90 (D) 96
3. 5, 14, 41, 122, 365, ?
(A) 1194 (B) 1094 (C) 1095 (D) 1093
4. 12, 30, 56, 90, ?
(A) 130 (B) 125 (C) 147 (D) 132
5. 7, 21, 11, 33, 17, ?
(A) 32 (B) 50 (C) 54 (D) 51
6. 495, 270, 126, 45, 9, ?
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 0
7. 210, 120, ?, 24, 6, 0
(A) 64 (B) 48 (C) 35 (D) 60
8. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?
(A) 194 (B) 210 (C) 252 (D) 258
9. 3, 8, 35, 48, ?, 120
(A) 72 (B) 64 (C) 80 (D) 99
10. 20, 40, 60, 100, 220, 700, ?
(A) 2620 (B) 2200 (C) 1120 (D) 3100
Find the wrong term :
11. 297, 272, 245, 216, 185, 153, 117
(A) 117 (B) 153 (C) 185 (D) 216
12. 444, 300, 200, 136, 87, 84, 80
(A) 200 (B) 136 (C) 87 (D) 80
13. 376, 188, 88, 40, 16, 4, –2
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 40 (D) 188
14. 572, 284, 140, 72, 32, 14, 5
(A) 14 (B) 32 (C) 72 (D) 5
15. 13, 22, 31, 41, 49
(A) 41 (B) 22 (C) 31 (D) 13
16. 1, 2, 6, 21, 84, 445, 2676
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 21 (D) 84
17. –15, 2, 21, 42, 67
(A) – 15 (B) 67 (C) 42 (D) 21
18. 2, 5, 11, 23, 48, 95, 191, 383
(A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 23 (D) 48
19. 9, 25, 46, 73, 107, 139
(A) 9 (B) 46 (C) 139 (D) 107
20. 0, 10, 24, 68, 130
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 68 (D) 130

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DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES
Find the missing term :
1. FLP, INS, LPV, ?
(A)ORX (B) PRY (C) ORY (D) OSY
2. LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ?
(A) ELS (B) FMR (C) GKS (D) FLR
3. DC, DE, FE, ?, HG, HI
(A) DE (B) ED (C) FG (D)GF
4. 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, ?
(A) 27V24 (B) 47U15 (C) 45U15 (D) 47V14
5. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22P
(A) I11T (B) L11S (C) L12T (D) L11T
6. AN, OB, CP, QD, ?
(A) ER (B) ES (C) FR (D) EQ
7. 1BR, 2EO, 6HL, 15KI, ?
(A) 22NF (B) 31NF (C) 31NE (D) 28NF
8. (ABC)-6, (DEF)-15, (GHI)-24, ?
(A) (IJK)-33 (B) (JKM)-33 (C) (IJK)-32 (D) (JKL)-33
Find the wrong term :
9. D4V, G10T, J20R, M43P, P90N
(A) P90N (B) G10T (C) J20R (D) D4V
10. DOU, EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
(A) HTY (B) EPV (C) FQW (D) ITZ
A K P S W
11. , , , ,
1 2 7 3 5
S K P W
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 7 5
12. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L
(A) G4T (B) J10R (C) M20P (D) P43N
13. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, X18O, Z23R
(A) V12L (B) X18O (C) Z23R (D) R5F
14. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, Y88F
(A) S2E (B) W21C (C) Y88F (D) Q1F
15. EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
(A) FQW (B) GRX (C) HTY (D) ITZ
Fill in the blanks :
16. pq _ r _ q _ r _ qrr
(A) rppp (B) rprp (C) rpqr (D) rppr
17. uv _ uww _ _ xu _ v
(A) vwxu (B) vuvu (C) uvxu (D) vuxv
18. aba _ baca _ ba _ bacaabac _ aca
(A) cacb (B) ccab (C) cabc (D) abcc
19. a_ _b_a_ab_aa
(A) a b a a b (B) b b a b a (C) b b a b b (D) b a a b a
20. k _ mk _ lmkkl _ kk _ mk
(A) lklm (B) lkmk (C) lkmm (D) lkml
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DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES
Find the missing term :

1.

(A) 39 (B) 45 (C) 35 (D) 48

2.

(A) 35 (B) 37 (C) 45 (D) 26

3.

(A) 26 (B) 25 (C) 34 (D) 38

4.

(A) D (B) W (C) Y (D) U

3 ?
2 15 54 6
5. 4 67 75 3
7 8
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

6.

(A) 16 (B) 9 (C) 85 (D) 112
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7.

(A) 65, 36, 63 (B) 53, 24, 63 (C) 49, 32, 53 (D) 51, 25, 61

1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
8.
1 2 1 ? 10 24

(A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) 8

15 4
33 2
27 2
36 8
32 ?
9. 18 9
22 11
12 3

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12

6 1 9

2 12 4 4 12 2 2 ? 3
10.
3 3 15

(A) 27 (B) 45 (C) 120 (D) 180

11.

(A) 94 (B) 86 (C) 82 (D) 78

12.

(A) 4.5 (B) 5.0 (C) 8.5 (D) 7.0

13.

(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

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14.

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 5

15.

(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

93 27 79 38 67 16

63 37 42
16.
3 4 ?

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9

17. BIG - 792 HCA - 138

FED - 456 E?H - 87?
(A) G, 6 (B) I, 9 (C) G, 5 (D) I, 5

11 9 15 7 25 21
18.
40 176 ?
(A) 184 (B) 210 (C) 241 (D) 425

12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 27

19.
6 8 ?
(A) 18 (B) 12 (C) 9 (D) 6

5 7 5 3 2 5
8 3 6

174 336 ?
20.
5
3 2 9 2 7 9 6 4

(A) 140 (B) 150 (C) 200 (D) 180

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DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : CODING-DECODING

1. In a certain code language, tim nac means blue shirt, pit mit tim means shirt and pant and nac pit
means blue pant. Which word in that language means and ?
(A) tim (B) pit (C) nac (D) mit

2. If 123 × 754 = 715243 , then 935 × 487 = ?
(A) 973984 (B) 793857 (C) 498375 (D) 573984

3. BEAD = 6; JOIN = 24; CASE = 20; GIVE = ?
(A) 31 (B) 34 (C) 14 (D) 10

4. In a certain code 253 means Books are old, 546 means old man gold and 378 means Books and pen.
What stand for are in that code ?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6

5. If pen is called pencil, pencil is called scale, scale is called bag and bag is called book which is used to
carry the books ?
(A) Scale (B) Pen (C) Book (D) Bag

Directions : (6 to 11) In the following questions Column II contains codes for the respective words given in Column
I. Understand the coding pattern and answer the questions.
Column I Column II
(1) FAMOUS (A) jcqhxp
(2) SATIRE (B) hqdbyn
(3) FRIGHT (C) ybcnke
(4) TANGLE (D) zewhnd
(5) ROVING (E) epbmyw
(6) HUNTER (F) wdnbxk

6. What is the code used for the letter M ?
(A) q (B) x (C) j (D) e

7. What is the code used for the letter E ?
(A) d (B) n (C) b (D) k

8. What is the code used for the letter F ?
(A) w (B) p (C) d (D) c

9. What is the code used for the letter A ?
(A) h (B) q (C) b (D) n

10. What is the code used for the letter N ?
(A) e (B) p (C) m (D) w

11. What is the code used for the letter U ?
(A) d (B) n (C) b (D) x

12. In a certain code language, 3a, 2b, 7c means Truth is Eternal, 7c, 9a, 8b, 3a means Enmity is not
eternal, 9a, 4d, 2b, 8b means Truth does not perish. Which of the following does mean Eternal in that
language ?
(A) 3a (B) 2b (C) 7c (D) Cannot be determined

Directions : (13 to 15) In each Q. there is a word written in capital letters with one letter underlined. For each letter
in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), (D) or (E) not
in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The number of that
code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word (s) may be coded differently.

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13. MAGIC
(A) km (B) eg (C) ik (D) ce

14. PRISM
(A) r (B) o (C) h (D) q

15. QUITE
(A) hj (B) su (C) tv (D) pr

Directions (16 to 20) In each Q. there is a word written in capital letters with one letter underlined. For each letter in
that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), (D) or (E) not in
the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The number of that
code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word (s) may be coded differently.

16. APRIL
(A) s (B) l (C) u (D) o

17. LIGHT
(A) w (B) o (C) l (D) k

18. ACTED
(A) g (B) w (C) d (D) a

19. BOXES
(A) b (B) s (C) e (D) x

20. MAILS
(A) o (B) n (C) c (D) u

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DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : LOGICAL ALPHABET NUMBER AND TIME SEQUENCE TEST

1. If the first and second digits in the sequence 5981327438 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits,
the fifth and the sixth digits and so on, which digit would be the seventh counting to your right ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 1

2. In the following series, how many times the sum of two consecutive numbers results an even number ?
12346342593674123676543
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) None of these

3. In a queue of boys Sohan is 9th from the back. Ramesh’s place is 8th from the front. Radhey is standing in
between the two.What could be the minimum number of boys standing in the queue?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

4. In a row of girls, Rina and Mona occupy the ninth place from the right end and tenth place from the left end,
respectively. If they interchanged their places, Rina and Mona occupy seventeenth place from the right and
eighteenth place from the left, respectively. How many girls are there in the row ?
(A) 25 (B) 26 (C) 27 (D) Data inadequate

5. In the following list of numerals, how many 2.s are followed by 1 but not preceded by 4 ?
421214211244412212144214212124142124146
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five

6. If the digits of the following numbers are reversed and then the number are arranged in ascending order then
what will be the middle digit of the middle term ?
375, 682, 315, 792, 865, 129, 875
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

7. How many pair of letters are there in the word REPURCUSSION which have as many letters between them
in the word as in the alphabet.
(A) Three (B) One (C) Two (D) More than three

8. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series decreases by one. Which of the following
series is observing the rule ?
(A) BGKNPR (B) CINRTU (C) EJNQST (D) LQUXAP

9. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is in the order of 12, 22, 32.Which of the
following series observes the rule given above ?
(A) EGLV (B)GINQ (C)GINR (D) TVYB

10. How many pairs of letters in the word CONTRACTOR have as many letters between them in the word as in
the alphabet ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) more than 4

11. How many odd numbers are there in the above sequence which are immediately preceded and also immedi-
ately followed by an even number ?
51473985726315863852243496
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

12. How many A are in the given letter series which does not has B just before it but has C just after it
DACBACDACBCACBACBADC
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

13. How many c(s) are there in between two consonants in the following series ?
cabcdcdcecfcocicjckcck
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 11

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14. How many pairs of letters in the word “DABBLE” have as many letters between them in the word as in the
alphabets ?
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

15. If the first and the fifth letters in the word ‘ORDINARY’ are interchanged, the second and the sixth, the third
and the seventh and so on what will be the fifth letter from the right end after rearrangement ?
(A) R (B)  (C) Y (D) N

16. If the first four letters of the word ‘ANTHROPOMORPHISM’ are rewritten in the reverse order followed by the
next four rewritten in the reverse order followed by the next four letters in the reverse order and so on, which
letter will be twelfth from the left end in the rewritten order ?
(A) O (B) H (C) M (D) P

Directions : (17 to 20) Study the following information to answer the given questions :
(1) In a class of boys and girls, Amar’s rank is 12th and Meeta’s rank is 8th.
(2) Amar’s rank among the boys is 6th and Meeta’s rank among girls is 3rd.
(3) In the class Meeta’s rank is 52nd from the other end.
(4) From the other end, Amar’s rank among the boys is 26th.
17. How many boys are there in the class ?
(A) 31 (B) 28 (C) 29 (D) Can’t be determined

18. Which of the following is Meeta’s rank among the girls from the other end ?
(A) 23rd (B) 28th (C) 26th (D) Can’t be determined

19. How many boys are there before Meeta ?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) Can’t be determined

20. How many boys are there between Amar and last rank (assuming it is a girl) in the class ?
(A) 25 (B) 47 (C) 22 (D) Can’t be determined

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DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATION

1. If × means ÷ , – means ×, ÷ means + and + means –, then (3 – 15 ) × 8 + 6 = ?
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) –1

2. f ‘A’ means ‘+’, ‘B’ means ‘–’ , ‘C’ means ‘x’, then what will be the value of ( 10C 4) A (4C4) B6=?
(A) 60 (B) 56 (C) 50 (D) 46

Directions : (3 to 4) Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. If ‘$’ represents ‘+’, ‘,’
represents ‘–’, ‘#’ represents ‘×’ and ‘@’ represents ‘/’ then answer the following questions based on the
above given representation.

3. What is the value of 4 # 3 $ 10 @ 5 $ 8 # 2 , 18 ?
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 6.8 (D) 11.2

4. Which of the following has the value equivalent of 5 $ 6 # 2 $ 8 @ 4 ?
(A) 4 # 7 , 12 $ 2 # 1 (B) 8 # 2 , 3 $ 6 @ 3 (C) 8 @ 2 , 3 $ 6 # 3 (D) 4 $ 7 , 12 $ 2 # 1

5. Find out two sign to be interchanged for making the question correct
5 – 9 × 45 + 15 ÷ 3 = 5
(A) + and – (B) × and + (C) × and ÷ (D) × and –

Direction %(6 to 7 ) In answering the questions below, use the following information :
X  Y means divide X by Y
X  Y means multiply X by Y
X # Y means subtract Y from X
X  Y means add Y to X

6. The simple interest of an amount is calculated by multiplying P and T and R and dividing the value by 100.
This can be written as :
(A) P  T  R100 (B) (P  T)  R100 (C) (P  T  R)  100 (D) can’t be determined

7. A receives X number of balls. He gives 10% of his ball to B, 15% of his ball to C and 12% of his ball to D. How
many balls does he have with him now ?
(A) X  X  (10  100)  X  (15  100) # X  (12  100)
(B) X  X  (10  100)  X (15  100)  X  (1  100)
(C) X # [X  (10  100)  X  (15  100)  X  (12  100)]
(D) None of these

Direction : (8 & 9) If > denotes +, < denotes –, + denotes ,  denotes ×, – denotes =, × denotes > and = denotes
<, choose the correct statements in each of the following questions.

8. (A) 14 > 18 + 9 = 16 + 4 < 1 (B) 4 > 3  8 < 1 – 6 + 2 > 24
(C) 3 < 6  4 > 25 = 8 + 4 < 1 (D) 12 > 9 + 3 < 6 × 25 + 5 > 6

9. (A) 29 < 18 + 6 = 36 + 6  4 (B) 18 > 12 + 4 × 7 > 8  2
(C) 32 > 6 + 2 = 6 < 7  2 (D) 31 > 1 < 2 = 4 > 6  7

10. If + = 7, = 27, = 81 then + =?

(A) 690 (B) 689 (C) 780 (D) 789

11. If ÷ means +, – means ÷, × means – and + means ×, then
(36  4)  8  4
=?
4  8  2  16  1
(A) 0 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 16

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Directions (12 to 13) : The sign marked () stand for different mathematical signs. The mathematical signs in the
proper sequence are given in the alternatives signs given in one of the alternatives, When () is replaced by
the mathematical signs given in one of the alternatives, in the same sequence, the equation becomes
correct. Find the correct alternative. Rule

12. 24 * 9 * 2 * 6
(A) = + × (B) × = + (C) = × + (D) + × =

13. 24 * 16 * 5 * 8
(A) + × = (B) + = × (C) = × + (D) × = +

Directions (14 to 17) : The given equation becomes correct when symbols and numbers are interchanged as given
in one of the options. Find the correct option.

14. 27 3 – (4 + 7) × 18 = – 1
(A) and × (B) + and – (C) – and  (D) × and +

15. 6 + 45 – 9  4 × 2 = 3
(A) × and – (B)  and + (C)  and – (D) + and ×

16. 40 + 3  1 × 3 – 26 = 15
(A)  and × (B) + and × (C) – and × (D) + and 

17. (27 – 8)  24 + 7 × 3 = 13
(A) + and × (B)  and × (C)  and + (D) × and –

18. If + is x,– is +, x is  and  is –, then what is the value of given equation
21 ÷ 8 + 2 – 12 × 3 = ?
(A) 14 (B) 9 (C) 13.5 (D) 11

19. If – means + means ×, ÷ means –,× means +, then which of the following equations is correct?
(A) 52  4 + 5 × 8 – 2 = 36 (B) 43 × 7  5 + 4 – 8 = 25
(C) 36 × 4 – 12 + 5  3= 420 (D) 36 – 12 × 6  3 + 3= 60

20. If x stands for 'add', y stands for ‘subtract', z stands for ‘divide', and p stands for 'multiply,' then what is the
value of (7 p 3) y 6 x 5 ?
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 15 (D) 20

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DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT

Direction : (1 to 3) Study the given information and answer the questions that following.
(i) P, Q, R, S T, U and V are sitting in a row facing East.
(ii) R is on the immediate right of S.
(iii) Q is at an extreme end and has T as his immediate neighbour.
(iv) V is exactly between T and U.
(v) S is sitting third from the South end.

1. Who is sitting to the immediate right of T ?
(A) P (B) V (C) S (D) U

2. Which of the following pairs of people are sitting at the extreme ends ?
(A) PQ (B) PS (C) QR (D) UB

3. Name the person who is at the third place from the North end.
(A) T (B) U (C) V (D) S

Direction : (4 & 5) Six girls J, K, L, M, N, and P are sitting in a circle facing the centre and playing cards. L has J
sitting to her left and P to her right. N is sitting opposite to L and K is sitting opposite to J.

4. Who sits opposite to P?
(A) L (B) M (C) N (D) K

5. Who are sitting on either side of J?
(A) L,M (B) M,N (C) N,K (D) P, K

Direction : (6 to 10)
i. Eleven students, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K, are sitting in the first row of the class facing the teacher.
ii. D who is to the immediate left of F is second to the right of C.
iii. A is the second to the right of E, who is at one of the ends.
iv. J is the immediate neighbour of A and B and third to the left of G.
v. H is to the immediate left of D and third to the right of I.

6. Who is sitting in the middle of the row ?
(A) B (B) C (C) G (D) I

7. Which of the following group is sitting to the right of G ?
(A) CHDE (B) CHDF (C) IBJA (D) ICHDF

8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the above sitting arrangements ?
(A) There are three students sitting between D and G.
(B) K is between A and J.
(C) B is sitting between J and I.
(D) G and C are neighbours sitting to the immediate right of H.

9. In the above sitting arrangement, which of the following statements is superfluous ?
(A) i (B) ii
(C) iii (D) None

10. If E and D, C and B, A and H and K and F interchange their positions, which of the following pairs of students
is sitting at the ends ?
(A) D and E (B) D and K
(C) K and F (D) D and A

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Direction : (11 to 15)
In an Exhibition seven cars of different companies - Cadillac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford
and Fargo are standing facing to east in the following order :
i. Cadillac is next to right of Fargo.
ii. Fargo is fourth to the right of Fiat.
iii. Maruti car is between Ambassador and Bedford.
iv. Fiat which is third to the left of Ambassador, is at one end.

11. Which of the cars are on both the sides of Maruti car ?
(A) Fargo and Mercedes (B) Ambassador and Fargo
(C) Cardilac and Mercedes (D) Bedford and Ambassador

12. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Bedford is at one end. (B) Mercedes is at one end.
(C) Fiat is next second to the right of Maruti. (D) Bedford is next to left of Fiat.

13. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Fargo car is in between Ambassador and Fiat (B) Fargo is next to right of Cadillac
(C) Cadillac is next to left of Mercedes car (D) Maruti is fourth to right of Mercedes

14. Which of the following groups of cars is to the right of Ambassador ?
(A) Cadillac, Fargo and Maruti (B) Maruti, Bedford and Fiat
(C) Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo (D) Bedford, Cadillac and Fargo

15. Which one of the following is the correct position of Mercedes ?
(A) Fourth to the right of Maruti. (B) Between Bedford and Fargo.
(C) Next to the left of Bedford. (D) Next to the left of Cadillac.

Direction : (16 to 20) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions
Eight friends P, M, R, T, Q, U, V & W are sitting in two opposite rows, facing each other. Each row has 4
persons. P is between U and V and is facing north. W is opposite to Q who is to the immediate left of M. R
is between T and M. W is to the immediate right of V.

16. Who is to the immediate right of R ?
(A) M (B) U (C) M or T (D) none of these

17. Which of the following pairs has the person sitting opposite each other ?
(A) RP (B) RV (C) TV (D) UR

18. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) TP (B) RV (C) QP (D) QV

19. Which of the following pairs of persons has second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person ?
(A) UP (B) VP (C) QM (D) RT

20. Who is sitting opposite of R ?
(A) U (B) Q (C) V (D) P

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DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : PUZZLE TEST

Directions : (1 to 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
I. There are six students ( A, B, C, D, E and F) in a group. Each student can opt for only three choices
out of the six which are music, reading, painting, badminton, cricket and tennis.
II. A, C and F like reading.
III. D does not like badminton, but likes music.
IV. Both B and E like painting and music.
V. A and D do not like painting, but they like cricket.
VI. All student except one like badminton.
VII. Two students like tennis.
VIII. F does not like cricket, music and tennis.

1. Which pair of students has the same combination of choices ?
(A) A and C (B) C and D (C) B and E (D) D and F

2. Who among the following students likes both tennis and cricket ?
(A) A and B (B) C (C) B and D (D) D

3. How many students like painting and badminton ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

4. Who among the following do not like music ?
(A) A , C and D (B) A, B and C (C) A, C and F (D) B, D and F

5. Which of the following is the most popular choice ?
(A) Tennis (B) Badminton (C) Reading (D) Painting

Directions (6 to 10) : Study the following infirmation carefully and answer the given questions :
B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with III-tier sleeper berth. Each of them has a
different profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist and Pathologist. They
occupied two lower berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. B, the Engineer, is not on the upper
berth. The Architect is the only other person who occupies the same type of berth as that of B. M and H are
not on the middle berth and their profession are Pathologist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is
neither a Journalist nor an Architect. K occupies the same type of berth as that of the Doctor.

6. Who is the Architect ?
(A) D (B) H (C) R (D) None of these

7. What is Dís profession ?
(A) Pharmacist (B) Lawyer (C) Doctor (D) Engineer

8. Which of the following pairs occupy the lower berth ?
(A) BT (B) BD (C) BK (D) None of these

9. Which of the following groups occupies the middle berth ?
(A) DKT (B) HKT (C) DKR (D) DHT

10. Which of the following combinations of person-berth-profession is correct ?
(A) K - Upper - Lawyer (B) D - Upper - Doctor
(C) M - Lower - Journalist (D) R - Lower - Architect

Directions : (11 to 15) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
There is a group of six students - M, N, O, P, Q and R - in a class. Each of the six students opt for two
subjects one compulsory and one optional. Pís optional subject was geography while three others have it as
a compulsory subject. Q and R have chemistry as one of their subjects. Rís compulsory subject is physics
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which is an optional subject of both O and Q. Geography and English are Mís subjects, as compulsory and
optional subjects respectively. Biology is an optional subject of only one of them. The only female student in
the group is the one who has geography as the optional and English as the compulsory one.

11. Who is the female student in the group?
(A) M (B) N (C) O (D) P

12. What is the compulsory subject of O ?
(A) Geography (B) Chemistry (C) Physics (D) English

13. Which of the following has the same compulsory / optional set as that of R?
(A) M (B) Q (C) O (D) None of these

14. Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same combination as
that of P ?
(A) M (B) N (C) O (D) Q

15. Which of the following groups of students have geography as their compulsory subject ?
(A) M, O and P (B) O, N, and P (C) O, P and R (D) M, N and O

Directions : (16 to 17) Read the information carefully given below and answer the questions that follow.
A total of nine cards consisting of four kings, four queens and one Joker were there with Sujith, Ajay are
Sanjay.
I. Ajay had two cards, Sujith had three cards, and Sanjay had four cards.
II. The man with the most cards did not have the joker.
III. Everyone has at least one king.

16. Who had the Joker ?
(A) Ajay (B) Sanjay (C) Sujith (D) Ajay or Sujith

17. Who can have three queens ?
(A) Ajay (B) Sanjay (C) Sujith (D) Sanjay of Sujith

Directions : (18 to 20) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it :
There are five men A, B, C, D and E and six women P, Q, R, S, T and U. A, B and R are advocates ; C, D, P,
Q and S are doctors and the rest are teachers. Some teams are to be selected from amongst these eleven
persons subject to the following conditions :
A, P and U have to be together. B cannot go with D or R. E and Q have to be together. C and T have to be
together. D and P cannot go together. C cannot go with Q.

18. If the team is to consist of two male advocates, two lady doctors and one teacher, the members of the team
are
(A) A B P Q U (B) A B P U S (C) A P R S U (D) B E Q R S

19. If the team is to consist of one advocate, two doctors, three teachers and C may not go with T, the members
of the team are :
(A) A E P Q S U (B) A E P Q T U (C) B E Q S T U (D) E Q R S T U

20. If the team is to consist of one male advocate, one male doctor, one lady doctor and two teachers, the
members of the team are :
(A) A C P T U (B) A D E P T (C) A D E P U (D) B C E Q U

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DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : CALENDAR

1. If 24th July, 1999 is Sunday, what day is 20th December, 1999 ?
(A) Monday (B) Sunday (C) Tuesday (D) Friday

2. If 15th April 1988 is Friday, what day is 10th September, 1989 ?
(A) Monday (B) Sunday (C) Tuesday (D) Friday

3. Mohini went to the movies nine days ago. She goes to the movies only on Thursday. What day of the week
is today ?
(A) Thursday (B) Saturday (C) Sunday (D) Tuesday

4. What was the day on 7th December, 1990 ?
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Thursday (D) Friday

5. What was the day on 24th October, 1984 ?
(A) Monday (B) Wednesday (C) Thursday (D) Friday

6. On what dates of October, 1985 did Thursday fall ?
rd th th th th th th st th
(A) 3 , 10 , 17 , 24 , 31 (B) 7 , 14 , 21 , 28
th th th th nd th th rd th
(C) 6 , 13 , 20 , 27 (D) 2 , 9 , 16 , 23 , 30

7. Which two months in a year have the same calendar ?
(A) June, October (B) April, November (C) April, July (D) October, December

8. Sangeeta remembers that her father’s birthday was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of December.
Her sister Natasha remembers that their father’s birthday was definitely after ninth but before fourteenth of
December. On which date of December was their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th (B) 11th (C) 12th (D) Data inadequate

9. If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier than Friday, what day will it be on the nineteenth day of the
month ?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Wednesday (D) Friday

10. A baby who was born on 29th Feb. 1896, when did he celebrate his first birthday.
(A) 28th Feb. 1897 (B) 29th Feb. 1900 (C) 29th Feb. 1904 (D) 20th Feb. 1908

11. Sonika is 10 weeks elder then Mala and Mala is 91 days younger than Jyoti. If Jyoti was born on Monday
then on what day of a week Sonika was born.
(A) Saturday (B) Sunday (C) Monday (D) None of these

12. Monika is 20 weeks elder than Priyanka and Priyanka is 63 days younger than Jyoti. If Jyoti was born on
Sunday then on what day of a week Monika was born.
(A) Saturday (B) Sunday (C) Monday (D) None

13. Maximum number of Thursdays are possible in a leap year is.
(A) 51 (B) 52 (C) 53 (D) 54

14. If the sixth day of a month is fourth day after Sunday then which day of the weak will be on 19th day of that
month
(A) Friday (B) Wednesday (C) Saturday (D) Tuesday

15. If Sripalís birthday falls on Thursday 20th March, 2000, then on which day of the week his birthday falls in the
year 2001 ?
(A) Wednesday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday

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16. Find the day of the week on 16 January, 1969.
(A) Monday (B) Thursday (C) Wednesday (D) Tuesday

17. Find the day of the week on 18 July, 1776 (leap year).
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C)Thursday (D) Wednesday

18. On what dates of October, 1975 did Tuesday fall ?
(A) 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th, 31th (B) 7th, 14th, 21st, 28th
(C) 6th, 13th, 20th, 27th (D) 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th

19. The year next to 1996 having the same Calendar will be -
(A) 2001 (B)2002
(C) 2004 (D) 2006

20. Find the day of the week on 26 January, 1950.
(A) Tuesday (B) Friday (C) Wednesday (D) Thursday

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DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : VENN DIAGRAM

Directions : (1 to 4) Each question below contains three groups of things. You are to choose from the
following four numbered diagrams, the diagram that depicts the correct relationship among the
three groups of things in each question.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1. Vegetable, Fruit, Brinjal

2. Door, Window, House

3. Honest, intelligent, Poor

4. Car, Train, Automobile

Directions : (5 to 10) Select the diagram that best represents the given relationship.

5. Animals, Cows, Dogs

(A) (B) (C) (D)

6. Students, Children, Animals.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. Doctors, Nurse, Human being

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. Musicians, Instrumentalists and Violinists ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

9. Pigeons, Birds, Dogs

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10. Animals, Elephants and Lions

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Directions : (11 to 15) The following questions are based on the diagram given below. In the diagram, circle repre-
sents tall children, the square, obese children, rectangle, the energetic children and the triangle, girl chil-
dren. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow.

11. Which area represents girls who are tall and obese but not energetic ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

12. Which of the following areas represents the tall, obese and energetic girls ?
(A) Only 3 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4

13. Which of the following area represents children who are tall, obese and energetic but are not girls?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 9

14. Which areas represent energetic children who are not obese ?
(A) 1, 13 and 15 (B) 13 and 15 (C) 1, 11 and 15 (D) 6, 13 and 15

15. Which of the following areas represent obese and energetic children, who are neither girls nor tall ?
(A) 2 and 12 (B) 3 and 10 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 11 and 12

Directions : (16 to 20) Study the figure below and answer the following questions.

16. Find out the number of families which have all the four things mentioned in the diagram.
(A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 20

17. Find out the number of families which have scooters.
(A) 145 (B) 100 (C) 188 (D) 240

18. Find out the number of families which have V.C.R. and T.V. both
(A) 84 (B) 24 (C) 104 (D) 100

19. Find out the number of families which have only one thing, that is, either V.C.R. or T.V. or Scooter or Maruti.
(A) 160 (B) 184 (C) 225 (D) 254

20. Find out the number of families which have T.V. and scooter both but have neither V.C.R. nor Maruti.
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 4 (D) 50

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DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : SYLLOGISM

Directions (Questions 1 to 10) : In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclu- sions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows;
(b) if only conclusion II follows;
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows;
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows;
(e) if both conclusions I and II follow.

1. Statements : All men are dogs. All dogs are cats.
Conclusions : I. All men are cats.
II. All cats are men.

2. Statements : All roads are waters. Some waters are boats.
Conclusions : I. Some boats are roads.
ll waters are boats.

3. Statements : All jungles are tigers. Some tigers are horses.
Conclusions : I. Some horses are jungles.
II. No horse is jungle.

4. Statements : Some dedicated souls are angels. All social workers are angels.
Conclusions : I. Some dedicated souls are social workers.
II. Some social workers are dedicated souls.

5. Statements : All trucks fly. Some scooters fly.
Conclusions : I. All trucks are scooters.
II. Some scooters do not fly.

6. Statements : Some swords are sharp. All swords are rusty.
Conclusions : I. Some rusty things are sharp.
II. Some rusty things are not sharp.

7. Statements : Some adults are boys. Some boys are old.
Conclusions : I. Some adults are not old.
II. Some boys are not old.

8. Statements : Some books are tables. Some tables are mirrors.
Conclusions : I. Some mirrors are books.
II. No book is mirror.

9. Statements : No gentleman is poor. All gentlemen are rich.
Conclusions : I. No poor man is rich.
II. No rich man is poor.

10. Statements : No magazine is cap. All caps are cameras.
Conclusions : I. No camera is magazine.
II. Some cameras are magazines.
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Directions (11 to 20) : In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by three or four conclu-
sions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements : All branches are flowers. All flowers are leaves.
Conclusions : I. All branches are leaves. II. All leaves are branches.
III. All flowers are branches. IV. Some leaves are branches.
(A) None follows (B) Only I and IV follow
(C) Only II and III follow (D) All follow

12. Statements : All politicians are honest. All honest are fair.
Conclusions : I. Some honest are politician. II. No honest is politician.
III. Some fair are politician. IV. All fair are politician.
(A) None follows (B) Only I follows
(C) Only I and II follow (D) Only I and III follow

13. Statements : All terrorists are guilty. All terrorists are criminals.
Conclusions : I. Either all criminals are guilty or all guilty are criminals.
II. Some guilty persons are criminals.
III. Generally criminals are guilty.
IV. Crime are guilt go together.
(A) Only I follows (B) Only I and III follows
(C) Only II follows (D) Only II and IV follow

14. Statements : All aeroplane are trains. Some trains are chairs.
Conclusions : I. Some aeroplane are chairs.
II. Some chairs are aeroplane.
III. Some chairs are trains.
IV. Some trains are aeroplane.
(A) None follows (B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only II and III follow (D) Only II and IV follow

15. Statements : Some bottles are drinks. All drinks are cups.
Conclusions : I. Some bottles are cups. II. Some cups are drinks.
III. All drinks are bottles. IV. All cups are drinks.
(A) Only I and II follow (B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II and IV follow (D) Only III and IV follow

16. Statements : Some books are pens. No pen is pencil.
Conclusions : I. Some pens are books. II. Some pencils are books.
III. Some books are not pencils. IV. All pencils are books.
(A) Only I follows (B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow (D) Only I and II follow

17. Statements : Some clothes are marbles. Some marbles are bags.
Conclusions : I. No cloth is a bag. II. All marbles are bags.
III. Some bags are clothes. IV. No marbles is a cloth.
(A) Only either I or IV follows (B) Only either I or II follows
(C) None follows (D) Only either I or III follows

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18. Statements : All shares are debentures. No debenture is equity.
Conclusions : I. No equity is a share. II. Some debentures are shares.
III. No share is equity.
(A) Only I follows (B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows (D) All follows

19. Statements : Some tables are TVs. Some TVs are radios.
Conclusions : I. Some tables are radios. II. Some radios are tables.
III. All radios are TVs. IV. All TVs are tables.
(A) None follows (B) All follows
(C) Only I and III follow (D) Only II and IV follow

20. Statements : Some bags are pockets. No pocket is a pouch.
Conclusions : I. No bag is a pouch. II. Some bags are not pouch.
III. Some pockets are bags. IV. No pocket is a bag.
(A) None follows (B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow (D) Only either I or IV follow

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DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : NON-VERBAL SERIES

Directions : (1 to 20) In the following questions, some figures are given in a sequence. Find out the figure
from the alternatives, which will come in place of the question mark to continue the sequence.
Problem Figures Answer Figure

1.

2.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (A) (B) (C) (D)

3. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

4.
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

5.
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

6. ?

7. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

8.
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

9.
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

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10. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)

11. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)

12. ? D

13. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

14.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

15.
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

16. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)

17. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

18. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)

19. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)

20. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

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DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : NON-VERBAL ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION
Directions : (1 to 10) There is some relationship between the two figures/pair of letters/numbers on the left
of the sign (::). The same relationship exists between the two terms on the right of which one is
missing. Find the missing one from the given alternatives.

1. : :: :?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. : :: :?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3. : :: :?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

4. : :: :?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5. : :: :?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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6. : :: :?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7.
: :: ?:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. : :: :?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

......
........
............ ......... ............
9.
......
: ...............
... .. :: ..................
... ...
...
..
..
.
.......... : ?

.. ...........
... .................
..... ..................... ..... .. ...
................. ...... .... .. ...

(A) (B) (C) (D)

• ••

××
: :: :

10. • ?
××××
××
××

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (11 to 20) In each of the following questions four figures are given. One of these figures does not
correlate with the rest of the figures. Find the different figure.

11.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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12.

13.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

14.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

15.

× + + ×
+ +
16. × × + × ×
× + ×
+ +
(A) (B) (C) (D)

S =  =
17.  = S
=  S S 

(A) (B) (C) (D)

18. S S S S

(A) (B) (C) (D)

19.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

20.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : CUBE TEST & DICE TEST

Directions : (1 to 5) A cube is coloured red on two opposite faces, blue on two adjacent faces and yellow on
two remaining faces. It is then cut into two halves among the plane parallel to the red faces. One
piece is then cut into four equal cubes and the other one into 32 equal cubes.

1. How many cubes do not have any coloured face?
(A) 0 (B) 16 (C) 4 (D) 8

2. How many cubes do not have any red face ?
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 20 (D) 24

3. How many cubes have at least two coloured face ?
(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 32

4. How many cubes have each a yellow face with other faces without colour ?
(A) 4 (B) 14 (C) 17 (D) 20

5. How many cubes have at least one face painted blue ?
(A) 4 (B) 14 (C) 17 (D) 20

Directions : (6 to 10) A cube of 5 cm has been painted on its surfaces in such a way that two opposite
surfaces have been painted blue and two adjacent surfaces have been painted red. Two remain-
ing surfaces have been left unpainted. Now the cube is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.

6. How many cubes will have no side painted ?
(A) 48 (B) 27 (C) 45 (D) None of these

7. How many cubes will have at least red colour on its surfaces ?
(A) 50 (B) 48 (C) 45 (D) 46

8. How many cubes will have at least blue colour on its surfaces ?
(A) 48 (B) 45 (C) 32 (D) 50

9. How many cubes will have only two surfaces painted with red and blue colour respectively ?
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 20 (D) 18

10. How many cubes will have three surfaces coloured ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 8

11. A dice has been thrown four times and produces following results.

(I) (II) (III) (IV)
Which number will appear opposite to the number 3 ?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 1

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12. What should be the number opposite 4 ?

(I) (II) (III)
(A) 5 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2

13.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Which symbol will come opposite to symbol 
(A) 0 (B) = (C) x (D) 

Directions : (14 to 15) In each of the following questions how does the figure look like when folded into
a cube along the marked lines ?

14.

(x) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) A and D (B) Only A (C) C and D (D) B and C

15.

(x) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) A and B (B) B and D (C) B and C (D) A and D

16. The number opposite to 4 is :

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6

17. Which of the following dices is identical to the unfolded figure as shown here ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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18. Three positions of the same dice are given below. Observe the figures carefully and tell which number will
come in place of ?

(I) (II) (III)

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 6

19.

(i) (ii) (iii)
Which letter will come on the blank surface ?
(A) C (B) A (C) D (D) E

20.

(i) (ii)
Which number is on the opposite face of 2 ?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6

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VIBRANT ACADEMY PHYSICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – IX (ICSE)

ANSWER KEY
DPP 1
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e) 2-(f) 2-(g)
Ans. Coincide Thread width Mass B C A B B D B
DPP 2
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 1-(f) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)
Ans. Comparative Graph Ratio Motion Origin Scalar quantity B C B C
Que. 2-(e)
Ans. A
DPP 3
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Ans. Physical Quantitys Three Motion Qualitaive Equal D A C D C

DPP 4
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Conservation
Ans. Acceleration Opposite of A D C C B
momentum

DPP 5
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Ans. Gravitational Gravity Decreases D D D C C

DPP 6
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Ans. Decreases Surface Weight, Mass A B B D D

DPP 7
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)
Perpendicular,
Ans. Area Thrust Thrust Coloumn B D A B
Increases

DPP 8
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Ans. Upthrust volume 4ºC Greater than Greater than C B D B D

DPP 9
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Ans. Less Pressure Upthrust 91%, Water A B C C B

DPP 10
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)
all bodies
Temprature
Ans. temperature Higher, Lower 4.186 D A A A
difference
Greater than 0 K

DPP 11
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c)
Ans. –40 36.8 32º f High C B D

DPP 12
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Conduction,
Bad,
Ans. Better Convection, Zero B B A B D
Good
Radiation

DPP 13
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)
Ans. Energy Virtual, Elect Infinity Regular 180º–2q B A B D

DPP 14
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)
Centre of
Ans. Focus Pole Reflected A C A C
Curvature

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DPP 15
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Ans. Longitudinal Inversely Vibrate Medium 332 D A B C C
Que. 2-(f) 2-(g)
Ans. A B

DPP 16
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Deficiency,
Ans. Attaract, Repel Detect Positively A A D B B
Protons

DPP 17
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d)
Chemical Lechlonche,
Ans. Valtaic Pile Closed
Energy Denial

DPP 18
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d)
Higher,
Ans. Resist Work Less
Higher

DPP 19
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 1-(e) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d) 2-(e)
Ans. Latent Energy Inphased Lower Fossils CO2 C C C C D

DPP 20
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c)
Ans. Half, no change ALNICO Magnetization Field C D B

DPP 21
Que. 1-(a) 1-(b) 1-(c) 1-(d) 2-(a) 2-(b) 2-(c) 2-(d)
Ans. Cannot Intersect Strong Soft Iron Along B B A B

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VIBRANT ACADEMY CHEMISTRY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: IX (ICSE)

AN S WE R K EY
DP P 1
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A B B A C D C A A

DP P 2
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B A B A D B C C

DP P 3
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C D A A C A C C A

DPP 3 [P a rt-II]
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D B D B B C C C A

DP P 4
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B A C B C C A B C

DPP 4 [P a rt-II]
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C C A D A B B A B B

DPP 4 [P a rt-III]
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D C D B A B A C D

DP P 5
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B D C D D B B D

DPP 5 [P a rt-II]
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B D A A C B D C D

DP P 6
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B B C C C A A C B

DPP 6 [P a rt-II]
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C A A B C A A C A

DP P 7
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A C A D D D C B A

DPP 7 [P a rt-II]
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D C B C A C D C C
DPP 8
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C B C C C C B C D

DP P 8 [Pa rt-II]
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B B C C C C B C D

DP P 8 [Pa rt-III]
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D A C B A C C A A C

DPP 9
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D B C B B B A B C A

DPP 10
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B B A A B A C D B

DPP 11
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A B A D C A D A C
VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – IX (ICSE)

ANSWER KEY
DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A A B C C B A C B

DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A A A A B C B A B

DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A A A A A C C B B

DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A A D B B D B D C

DPP 5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B B D B D C C A A

DPP 6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D B D A D D A B D

DPP 7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D B C C C D A D B

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VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS – IX (ICSE)

ANSWER KEY
DPP 1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B B D A A D D B A

DPP 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D B B A A D C D C A

DPP 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A A C A B D C A B

DPP 4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D B B B B C A A D A

DPP 5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B C A B C D A C B

DPP 6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A D A D A C B D B A

DPP 7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D D B C B C D A D

DPP 8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A D A B A C B C B

DPP 9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C D C C A C A B D

DPP 10
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D D A D C B A A B D

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VIBRANT ACADEMY MENTAL ABILITY
(India) Private Limited Daily Practice Problems
CLASS: IX (ICSE)
DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C
15. A 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. D

DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES

1. C 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. B
8. D 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C
15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. D

DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES

1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. A
15. B 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B

DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : CODING-DECODING

1. D 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. A 10. D 11. D 12. D 13. C 14. A
15. D 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. C

DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : LOGICAL ALPHABET NUMBER AND TIME SEQUENCE TEST

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. D
8. C 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. D
15. C 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A

DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATION

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. C
8. B 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D
15. C 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. 20. D

DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. B
8. C 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. C
15. A 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. D

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DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : PUZZLE TEST

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. D 9. A 10. D 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. A
15. D 16. D 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. A

DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : CALENDAR

1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. B
15. B 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. D

DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : VENN DIAGRAM

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. D
8. A 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. A
15. D 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. B

DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : SYLLOGISM

1. A 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. D
8. C 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. C 14. D
15. A 16. C 17. D 18. D 19. A 20. C

DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : NON-VERBAL SERIES

1. 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D
8. B 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. D
15. A 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. D

DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : NON-VERBAL ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION

1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B
8. A 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. B
15. D 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. D

DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : CUBE TEST & DICE TEST

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. B
15. C 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. D

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