1.

Visible light frequencies range from ____to____:

A. 0.3THz – 300Thz C. 0.03THz – 3000THz
B. 0.3Phz – 3PHz * D. 0.03PHz – 3000PHz

KINDLY FORMAT THE CHOICES THE SAME AS WITH

NUMBER (1) NA HINIGHLIGHT KO MA’AM….thnx

2. A part of solar noise characterized by a relatively constant radiation intensity

A. quiet *
B. silent
C. high intensity
D. sleep

3. Shot noise is sometimes called

A. transistor noise *
B. diode noise
C. IC noise
D. vacuum tube noise

4. Frequency stability that is a function of component aging and changes in the ambient temperature and
humidity:
A. long term stability *
B. midterm stability
C. short term stability
D. none of the above

5. Using the overtone mode of a crystal increases the usable limit of a standard crystal oscillator up to:
A. 200MHz *
B. 300MHz
C. 400MHz
D. 500MHz

6. A monolithic precision oscillator:

A. XR-2206
B. XR-2207
C. XR-2208
D. XR-2209 *

7. Indicate the false statement. From the transmitter the signal deterioration because of noise is usually
A. unwanted energy
B. predictable in character *
C. present in the transmitter
D. due to any cause

8. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generator is therefore
 A. halved
B. quadrupled
C. doubled
D. unchanged *

9. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Random noise power is inversely proportional to bandwidth
B. Flicker is sometimes called demodulation noise
C. Noise is mixers is caused by inadequate image frequency rejection *
D. A random voltage across a resistance cannot be calculated

10. A 3-stage amplifier is to have an overall noise temperature no greater than 70 degrees K. The overall gain
of the amplifier is to be at least 45 dB. The amplifier is to be built by adding a low-noise first stage to an
existing amplifier with existing characteristics as follows: Stage 2 has 20 dB power gain; 3 dB noise figure.
Stage 3 has a 15 dB power gain and 6 dB noise figure. Calculate the maximum noise figure (in dB) that
the first stage can have.
A. 1.138
B. 2
C. 0.56 *
D. 1.241

11. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is
A. unchanged
B. halved
C. doubled
D. increase by 50 percent *

12. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4; the
total modulation index
A. is 1
B. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are known
C. is 0.5 *
D. is 0.7

13. Indicate the false statement regarding the Armstrong modulation system
A. The system is basically phase, not frequency modulation.
B. AFC is not needed, as crystal oscillator is used.
C. Frequency multiplication must be used.
D. Equalization is unnecessary *

14. Three-point tracking is achieved with

A. variable selectivity
B. the padder capacitor *
C. double spotting
D. double conversion

15. In DSBFC AM, a modulation coefficient between _______ is maintained for the highest-amplitude
intelligence signal.
 A. 90% to 95%*
B. 95% to 100%
C. 98% to 99%
D. 92% to 94%

16. The ideal value of a shape factor is

A. 1 *
B. 0
C. infinite
D. both B and C

17. A typical sensitivity for a two-way mobile radio receiver is

A. 50uV
B. 0.1uV and 10uV *
C. 7dBm
D. 27dBm

18. A maximum tracking error that can be expected as the best value from a domestic AM broadcast band
receiver with a 455kHz IF.
A. ±3 kHz *
B. ±4 kHz
C. ±5 kHz
D. ±6 kHz

19. Which of the following is not a type of AGC:

A. delayed AGC
B. forward AGC
C. sweeping AGC *
D. simple AGC

20. The time constant of the preemphasis and deemphasis network is

A. 2.12 us
B. 75 us *
C. 21.2 ms
D. 7.5 ms

21. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 12 MHz. As the frequency of the
reference input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 10 MHz and comes out again at 16 MHz.
Find the lock range.
A. 16 kHz
B. 15 kHz
C. 4 kHz
D. 8 MHz *

22. Common mode rejection ratios for common balanced transmission lines.
A. 10dB to 30dB
B. 100dB to 300dB
C. 40dB to 70dB *
 D. 4dB to 7dB

23. A receiver is tuned to a station at 590 kHz calculate the image rejection in decibels, assuming that the
input filter consists of one tuned circuit with a Q of 40.
A. 78.3 dB
B. 83.7 dB
C. 38.7 dB *
D. 46.8 dB

24. A (75-j50)-Ω is connected to a coaxial transmission line of ZO = 75 Ω, at 10 GHz. The best method of
matching consists in connecting
A. a short-circuited stub at the load
B. an inductance at the load
C. a capacitance at some specific distance
D. a short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load *

25. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity; the line is terminated in
A. a short circuit
B. a complex impedance *
C. an open circuit
D. a pure reactance

26. For transmission-line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a
A. balun
B. broadband directional coupler
C. double stub *
D. single stub of adjustable position

27. CAT-5 twisted pair has:

A. 3 turns per inch
B. 5 turns per inch
C. 12 turns per inch *
D. 15 turns per inch

28. When Zo>RL, the quarter wave transformer act as:

A. step up transformer *
B. a step down transformer
C. a 1:1 transformer
D. RL is always equal to Zo

29. A transmitter supplies 50W to a load through a line with SWR of 2:1. Find the power absorbed by the
load.
A. 32.1 W
B. 44.4 W *
C. 23.4 W
D. 12.7 W
30. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.5 dB/100m. If 10W is supplied to one end of the
line, how many watts reach the load, 27 m away?
A. 10 W
B. 9.5 W
C. 10.9 W
D. 9.1 W *

31. An antenna has "gain" as compared to:

A. an isotropic radiator *
B. a vertically polarized radiator
C. a ground-wave antenna
D. none of the above

32. Ground waves are most effective:

A. below about 2 MHz *
B. above about 20 MHz
C. at microwave frequencies
D. when using horizontally polarized waves

33. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of:

A. reflection
B. diffusion
C. refraction
D. diffraction*

34. Meteor-trail propagation is:

A. used for radio telephony
B. used to send data by radio *
C. also called "ducting"
D. not possible

35. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is:

A. 0 dB *
B. 3 dB
C. 10 dB
D. infinite

36. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a:

A. dipole
B. folded dipole
C. ferrite "loop-stick"*
D. none of the above

37. Distances near the skip distance should be used for the sky-wave propagation
A. to avoid tilting
B. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference*
C. to avoid the Faraday effect
D. so as nor to exceed the critical frequency
38. In electromagnetic waves, polarization
A. is caused by reflection
B. is due to the transverse nature of the waves*
C. results from the longitudinal nature of the waves
D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium

39. Indicate which of the following reasons for using a counterpoise with antenna is false:
A. Impossibility of a good ground connection
B. Protection of personnel working underground*
C. Provision of an earth for the antenna
D. Rockiness of the ground

40. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to

A. increase the gain of the system
B. increase the beamwidth of the system
C. reduce the size of the main reflector
D. allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point *

41. When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide, three appears an extra electric component, in the
direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
A. transverse-electric
B. transverse-magnetic*
C. longitudinal
D. transverse-electromagnetic

42. A signal propagation in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity change between the two further
walls, and no component of the electric field in the direction of propagation. The mode is
A. TE1,1
B. TE1,0
C. TM2,2
D. TE2,0*

43. Which of the following waveguides tuning components is not easily adjustable?
A. Screw
B. Stub
C. Iris*
D. Plunger

44. A duplexer is used

A. to couple two different antennas to a transmitter without mutual interference
B. to allow the one antenna to be used for reception or retransmission without mutual interference*
C. to prevent interference between two antennas when they are connected to a receiver
D. to increase the speed of the pulses in pulses in pulsed radar

45. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the multicavity klystron amplifier, because it
A. is more efficient
B. has a greater bandwidth*
 C. has a higher number of modes
D. produces a higher output power

46. A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to

A. prevent anode current in the absence of oscillation
B. ensure that the oscillations are pulsed
C. help in focusing the electron beam, thus preventing spreading
D. ensure that the electrons will orbit around the cathode*

47. The attenuator is used in the traveling-wave tube to

A. help bunching
B. prevent oscillations *
C. prevent saturation
D. increase gain

48. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:

A. is fixed
B. depends on the frequency it carries
C. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
D. both b and c*

49. The typical reliability of a microwave system is:

A. 90%
B. 99%
C. 99.9%
D. 99.99%*

50. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about:

A. 2 watts*
B. 20 watts
C. 200 watts
D. none of the above

51. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:
A. 5 to 25 watts
B. 50 to 250 watts*
C. 500 to 2500 watts
D. depends on its orbit

52. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
A. 10^1 watts
B. 10^2 watts
C. 10^3 watts *
D. 10^4 watts

53. A typical VSAT system is configured as a:

A. star *
B. mesh
 C. ring
D. repeater

54. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are:

A. 4 GHz and 6 GHz
B. 12 GHz and 14 GHz *
C. 20 GHz and 30 GHz
D. none of the above

55. The height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit is

A. 100 mi.
B. 6800 mi.
C. 22,300 mi. *
D. 35,860 mi.

56. Most satellite operate in which frequency band?

A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C. 3 GHz to 30 GHz *
D. Above 300 GHz

57. Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems

A. At all times
B. Only during emergencies
C. During eclipse period *
D. To give the solar arrays a rest

58. The basic technique used to stabilize a satellite is

A. Gravity-forward motion balance
B. Spin *
C. Thruster control
D. Solar panel orientation

59. The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function(s)?
A. Modulation and multiplexing
B. Up conversion
C. Demodulation and demultiplexing *
D. Down conversion

60. The orbital inclination if the International Space Station is:

A. 51.5947 deg *
B. 47.9515 deg
C. 95.1547 deg
D. 74.5951 deg

61. A signal at the input to a u-law compressor is positive with its voltage one-half of the maximum value.
What portion of the maximum output voltage is produced?
A. 0.786Vo C. 0.687Vo
 B. 0.876Vo * D. 0.678Vo

62. In an 8-QAM type of modulation, there are how many possible output phase/s?
A. 1 C. 8
B. 4 * D. 16
63. Determine the resolution for an 8-bit linear sign magnitude PCM for a maximum decoded voltage of
2.55.
A. 0.02* C. 0.05
B. 0.03 D. 0.07

64. Multiplexing is the process of

A. Several signal sources transmitting simultaneously to a receiver on a common frequency.
B. Sending the same signal over multiple channels to multiple destinations.
C. Sending multiple signals simultaneously over a single channel. *
D. Transmitting multiple signals over multiple channels.

65. When can the baud be greater than the bit rate?
A. when using return to zero encoding
B. when using 128-PSK
C. When using Manchester encoding *
D. it will never happen

66. What is the minimum bandwidth required to transmit a 56 kbits/s binary signal with no noise?
A. 14 kHz C. 56 kHz
B. 28 kHz * D. 112 kHz

67. A modified QPSK where the bit waveform on the I and Q channels are offset or shifted in phase from
each other by one-half of a bit time.
A. shifted QPSK
B. phase-shift QPSK
C. offset QPSK *
D. both A and B

68. To ensure that a minimum change occurs in the analog signal while it is being deposited across the
capacitor in the sample-and-hold circuit in a PCM system, the acquisition time should be:
A. very long
B. long
C. very short *
D. short

69. Any round-off errors in the transmitted signal are reproduced when the code is converted back to analog
in the receiver.
A. aperture error
B. aperture distortion
C. overload distortion
D. quantization error *

70. The first channel vocoder was developed by:

 A. Alex Reeves
B. Alexander Reeves
C. Homer Dudley *
D. Michael Moore

71. A receiver requires 0.5 uV of the signal for satisfactory reception. How strong in microvolts must the
signal be at the antenna if the receiver is connected to the antenna by 25 m of the matched line having
an attenuation of 6 dB per 100m?
A. 0.345 uV
B. 0.467 uV
C. 0.132 uV
D. 0.594 uV *

72. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15K. The loss
between the antenna and the LNA input, due to the feddhorn, is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise
temperature of 40K. Calculate G/T.
A. 15 dB
B. 20.6 dB *
C. 19 dB
D. 16 dB

73. The receiving installation whose G/T was found to be 20.6 dB is used as a ground terminal to receive a
signal from a satellite at a distance of 38,000 km. The satellite has a transmitter power of 50 watts and
an antenna gain of 30 dBi. Assume losses between the satellite transmitter and its antenna are
negligible. The frequency is 12 GHz. Calculate the carrier-to-noise at the receiver, for a bandwidth of 1
MHz.
A. 30.6 dB *
B. 38.5 dB
C. 40.1 dB
D. 35.6 dB

74. A waveguide has a cutoff frequency for the dominant mode of 10GHz. Two signals with frequencies of 12
and 17 GHz propagate down a 50m length of the guide. Calculate the difference in arrival time for the
two.
A. 95.5 ns *
B. 105.6 ns
C. 76.2 ns
D. 65 ns

75. What is the beamwidth of a pyramidal horn with width and height of 12cm and 10 cm respectively with
an operating frequency of 10 GHz?
A. 19 deg.
B. 20 deg.*
C. 22 deg.
D. 23 degrees

76. What is the percent total harmonic distortion for a fundamental frequency with amplitude of 8 Vrms,
second harmonic amplitude of 0.2 Vrms, and the third harmonic amplitude of 0.1 Vrms?
 A. 2.795% *
B. 1.25%
C. 2.5%
D. 3.5%

77. Determine the shot noise for a diode with a forward bias of 1.40 mA over a 80 kHz bandwidth. (q = 1.6 x
10 raised to minus 19 C)
A. 0.005 uA *
B. 0.004 uA
C. 0.006 uA
D. 0.007 uA

78. An AM signal has the following characteristics: the carrier frequency is 150 MHz, the modulating signal
frequency is 3 kHz, the carrier voltage is 60 volts, where the modulating signal (Em) is 30 volts. Find the
peak voltage of the lower side frequency.
A. 10V
B. 15 V *
C. 30 V
D. 7.5 V

79. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter has an output power of 50 W and an efficiency of 60% and is
collector-modulated. How much audio power is required to be supplied to this stage for 100%
modulation.
A. 833 W
B. 41.66 W *
C. 30 W
D. 15 W

80. A filter-type SSB generator uses an ideal bandpass filter with a center frequency of 5.0 MHz and a
bandwidth of 2.7 kHz. What frequency should be used for the carrier oscillator if the generator is to
produce a USB signal with a baseband
frequency response having a lower limit of 280 Hz.
A. 4990.37 kHz C. 5001.35 kHz
B. 4996.65 kHz * D. 5001.63 kHz