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SESSION – 1
SENTENCE CORRECTION – PART I
QUESTION TYPES
I. SPOTTING ERRORS
II. SENTENCE CORRECTION
III. IDENTIFYING CORRECT AND INCORRECT USAGE

Directions for Q1 to Q10: In each sentence, certain words or phrases have been underlined and labelled (A), (B), (C)
or (D). Choose the underlined word or phrase that is incorrect in each sentence.
1. The (A) Washington Monument is the (B) tribute to the first and perhaps the greatest (C) president of the (D)
United States.
2. Muslims abstain from (A) food and drink during (B) Ramadan, the (C) ninth month of its (D) calendar.
3. The tomato is (A) an integral part of many (B) regional cuisines, and it was (C) popular since (D) the 1600’s.
4. The drainage (A) of swamps and other breeding (B) places of (C) mosquitoes have (D) greatly diminished the
incidence of malaria.
5. The shoulder (A) height of the Siberian mammoth, which (B) roamed throughout (C) the Northern Hemisphere,
was about nine foot (D).

Directions for Q6 to Q10: Each sentence has been divided into four parts – (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify which part
has an error.
6. After an outbreak of the so-called Mad Cow's disease, (A) / the United Kingdom was forced (B) / to quarantine
its beef exports (C) / and killing thousands of cows (D).
7. Police departments all over the world (A) / employs computers and other electronic equipment (B) / to capture
the criminals (C) / they pursue (D).
8. The novels of John Irving (A) / depict common everyday life (B) / in New Hampshire (C) / where he grown up (D).
9. The Chinese, (A) / who are credited with (B) / the inventing of gunpowder, (C) / also created the kite and the
printing press (D).
10. In 1978, the atoll Enewetak was declared uninhabitable (A) / for at least 350 years (B) / because of the high
levels of radiation (C) / resulting U.S. nuclear testing (D).

Directions for Q11 to Q15: In each sentence below, a part has been given in bold. Choose the best answer option to
replace the bold part. If no correction or replacement is necessary, choose option (e).

11. The performance of our players was rather worst than I had expected.
(a) bad as I had expected (b) worse than I had expected (c) worse than expectation
(d) worst than was expected (e) No correction required

12. Why should the candidates be afraid of English Language is not clear.
(a) the candidates should be (b) do the candidates be (c) should be the candidates
(d) are the candidates (e) No correction required

13. Anyone interested in the use of computers can learn much if you have access to a personal computer.
(a) they have access (b) access can be available (c) he or she has access
(d) one of them have access (e) No correction required

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14. The train will leave at 8.30 p.m. We have been ready by 7.30 p.m. so that we can reach the station in time.
(a) were (b) must be (c) are
(d) should have (e) No correction required

15. They examined both the samples very carefully but failed to detect any difference in them.
(a) some difference in (b) some difference between (c) any difference between
(d) any difference among (e) No correction required

Directions for Q16 to Q25: In each sentence below, a part has been underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find
five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you
think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

16. George’s personal diary and album formed the basis for his book about the places he had visited.
(a) the basis for his book about the places he had visited.
(b) the basis for his book regarding the places he had visited.
(c) the basis of his book about the places he visited.
(d) the basis of his book about the places which he had visited.
(e) the basis of his book about the places he had visited.

17. By next month Ms. Jones will be Mayor of Tallahassee for two years.
(a) will be Mayor of Tallahassee (b) will have been Mayor of Tallahassee
(c) will be mayor of Tallahassee (d) will have been mayor of Tallahassee
(e) could have been mayor of Tallahassee

18. If he would have revised his first draft, he would have received a better grade.
(a) would have revised (b) had revised (c) could of revised
(d) had of revised (e) would revise

19. Anu claims that cats made the best pets.


(a) made the best pets. (b) could be the best pets. (c) are the best pets.
(d) make of the best pets (e) make the best pets.

20. The government requires that these forms should be submitted before the end of the financial year.
(a) that these forms should be submitted (b) that these forms be submitted
(c) for these forms to be submitted (d) these forms submission
(e) these forms should be submitted

21. The reason why Sravanti wrote the letter was because she could not contact him over the phone.
(a) wrote the letter was because (b) wrote the letter was the reason that
(c) wrote the letter was that (d) had written the letter was because
(e) wrote the letter was since

22. After the heavy rains last week, the water in the reservoir raised another two feet.
(a) raised another two feet (b) risen another two feet (c) have risen by two feet
(d) would raise another two feet (e) rose another two feet

23. The drama enacted by the students had many scenes which were so humorous that it was hardly possible to
keeping a straight face.
(a) hardly possible to keeping (b) hardly impossible keeping (c) hardly possible to keep
(d) hardly impossible to keep (e) hardly possible for keeping

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24. If you had attended the seminar you could benefit a great deal.
(a) could benefit (b) would have benefited (c) would benefit
(d) might benefit (e) should have benefit
25. Each group have their own ideology which it is bound to abide by.
(a) Each group have their own ideology (b) Every group has its own ideology
(c) Each group has their own ideologies (d) Each group has ideologies
(e) Every group have their own ideology
Directions for Q26 to Q28: Choose the CORRECT sentence from the four options given.

26. (a) India is a country with at least fifty major regional languages, of whom fourteen have official recognition.
(b) India is a country with at least fifty major regional languages, fourteen that have official recognition.
(c) India is a country with at least fifty major regional languages, fourteen of which are officially recognised.
(d) India is a country with at least fifty major regional languages, among whom fourteen have official recognition.

27. (a) Each of us was scheduled to take the test.


(b) Each of us were scheduled to take the test.
(c) Everyone of us were scheduled to take the test.
(d) Each of us are scheduled to take the test.

28. (a) Mukesh is the richest of the two brothers.


(b) You do not look well today.
(c) She spoke quicker than he did.
(d) I have never been more surer of anything in my life.

Directions for Q29 and Q30: Choose the INCORRECT sentence from the four options given.

29. (a) She looked suspicious at the man wearing the trench coat.
(b) She looked suspiciously at the man wearing the trench coat.
(c) The man wearing the trench coat looked suspiciously at her.
(d) The man wearing the trench coat looked suspicious to her.

30. (a) You may look out the window.


(b) Divide the candy between the two of you.
(c) That is something with which I cannot agree.
(d) Take your shoes off of the bed.

SESSION – 2
SENTENCE CORRECTION – PART II
Directions for Q1 to Q5: In each sentence, certain words or phrases have been underlined and labelled (a), (b), (c) or
(d). Choose the underlined word or phrase that is incorrect in each sentence.
1. In engineering (a), fatigue is the microscopic cracking (b) of materials, after repeating (c) applications of stress
(d).
2. In one of its (a) more useful functions in nature, the common housefly speeds up (b) the decomposing (c) of
dead (d) animals.
3. Magnolia (a) are native (b) to Japan, China, North America and the Himalayas, and they produce (c) large white,
rose or purple flowers (d).

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4. The Pied Piper of Hamelin, the legendary figure of Hamelin, Germany, rid the town (a) of their (b) rats and mice
by leading them (c) away with his flute playing (d).
5. The pharynx is located on (a) the back of (b) the throat where (c) the mouth and nose meet (d) the esophagus.

Directions for Q6 to Q10: Each sentence has been divided into four parts – (a), (b), (c) and (d). Identify which part
has an error.
6. Medusa, the more famous (a) / of the three monstrous Gorgons, (b) / offended Athena (c) who changed
Medusa’s hair into snakes (d).
7. With the introduction of the new syllabus, (a) / the number of colleges reporting (b) / high results are
decreasing (c) / year after year (d).
8. The Maginot Line, (a) / a massive system of fortifications, (b) / became obsolete before (c) / their completion in
1934 (d).
9. There are lesser buffalos (a) / roaming the Great Plains today (b) / than during the last century (c) / due to the
campaigns of white Americans against Native Americans (d).
10. The handles of the Big and Little Dippers (a) / extend in opposite directions, (b) / and when one was upright
(c) / the other is inverted. (d).

Directions for Q11 to Q15: In each sentence below, a part has been given in bold. Choose the best answer option to
replace the bold part. If no correction or replacement is necessary, choose option (e).

11. Making friends is more rewarding than to make enemies.


(a) to have enemies (b) enmity (c) get enemies
(d) making enemies (e) No correction required

12. There’s not so much work to do this week.


(a) many (b) plenty (c) less
(d) any (e) No correction required

13. Had I realised how close I was to the edge of the road, I would not have raised the speed of the car.
(a) Had I been realised (b) If I would have realized (c) When I realized
(d) Had I had realized (e) No correction required

14. They continued to work in the field despite of the heavy rains.
(a) even though there is heavy rain (b) although heavily rains (c) in spite the heavy rains
(d) even though it rained heavily (e) No correction required

15. Their earnings are such that they find it difficult to make both ends to meet.
(a) to makings both ends meet (b) to make both ends for meeting (c) to make both ends meet
(d) for making both ends to meet (e) No correction required

Directions for Q16 to Q25: In each sentence below, a part has been underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find
five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you
think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

16. A conjunction is used to connect words and sentences together.


(a) words and sentences together. (b) words or sentences together.
(c) words and sentences. (d) words or sentences.
(e) words to sentences.

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17. Citing the recent rise in violence against foreigners, the Embassy urged expats to remain vigilant, avoid the
Blackburn district, and refraining from travelling late at night.
(a) refraining from travelling late at night (b) travelling during the day instead of the night
(c) as an imperative, refrain from travel at night (d) as an imperative, refrain from travel at night
(e) refrain from travelling at night

18. The protestors campaigned against whale hunting, didn’t they?


(a) didn’t they (b) weren’t they (c) were they (d) isn’t it (e) wasn’t it

19. The sports writer questioned the skill of basketball players compared to tennis players.
(a) skill of basketball players compared to tennis players
(b) skills of basketball players compared to tennis players
(c) skill of basketball players to tennis players
(d) skill of basketball players compared to that of tennis players
(e) skill of basketball players compared to those of tennis players

20. It is a special feature of cell aggregation in the developing nervous system that in most regions of the brain the
cells not only adhere to one another and also adopt some preferential orientation.
(a) to one another and also adopt (b) one to the other, and also they adopt
(c) one to the other, but also adopting (d) to one another but also adopt
(e) to each other, also adopting

21. The red cross organization appealed to the people to come forward to help the drought victims and said that
each may contribute what they can.
(a) each may contribute what they can (b) each might contribute what they can
(c) each should contribute what they could (d) each may contribute what he can
(e) each may contribute what each one can

22. Unlike the brown sparrow, the passenger pigeon was slaughtered indiscriminately and became extinct in 1914.
(a) was slaughtered indiscriminately (b) did not slaughter indiscriminately
(c) had been slaughtered indiscriminately (d) slaughtered indiscriminately
(e) has been slaughtered indiscriminately

23. Because zebras have very striped patterns, photos can be used to identify them when captured.
(a) very striped patterns (b) varying stripe patterns (c) varied striped patterns
(d) various stripe pattern (e) striped pattern in variety

24. Shyamala had not scarcely entered when Rama shouted.


(a) not scarcely entered when (b) scarcely entered than (c) not hardly entered when
(d) scarcely enters (e) scarcely entered when

25. Between these two shirts which is the least costly?


(a) which is the least costly (b) which one is the least costly (c) which is least costly one
(d) which is less costly (e) which one less cost

Directions for Q26 and Q27: Choose the CORRECT sentence from the four options given.

26. (a) As the invitation stated, we'll see you the tenth for our reunion.
(b) Like the invitation stated, we'll see you on the tenth for our reunion.
(c) As the invitation stated, we'll see you on the tenth for our reunion.
(d) Like the invitation stated, we'll see you the tenth for our reunion.

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27. (a) I prefer coffee over tea.


(b) Stella McCartney is regarded one of the greatest designers of today.
(c) If you have any more questions, you should refer to a grammar book.
(d) He did well in the test, except the sentence construction questions.

Directions for Q28 to Q30: Choose the INCORRECT sentence from the four options given.

28. (a) I wonder what he could have said to her.


(b) Anita and she have quit the team.
(c) You didn't tell us that they were here first.
(d) My brother and myself constructed the fence.

29. (a) Nora is one of the candidates who are worthy of my vote.
(b) My problem, which is minor in comparison with others, exist because I failed in the test.
(c) If our staff members don't quit picking at each other, we will not meet our goals.
(d) At the end of the story, they were living happily ever after.

30. (a) Eighty percent of the class have passed the test.
(b) Either Gary or I am responsible for allocating the funds.
(c) None of the garbage was picked up.
(d) None of the sentences were punctuated correctly.

SESSION – 3
INFERENCES
To “infer” is to draw a logical conclusion from what is known or assumed to be true.

Inferences are not stated explicitly in the passage. Rather, inference questions require you to draw conclusions from
the factual knowledge or evidence presented.

In order to answer an inference question:


You must understand the logic of the author’s statements.
One type of inference question will ask you to draw a conclusion that is supported by facts presented in the passage.
Another type of inference question may ask you the meaning of a word or phrase that is included in the passage.

Answering Inference Questions:


• Look for key words that identify the question as an inference question.
• Identify the most important substantive word(s) in the question.
• Remember to pay special attention to words such as but, yet, although, since, except moreover, unless,
nonetheless, however in the passage. The ideas that follow these words are often the subject of inference
questions.
• Learn to spot wrong answers. Wrong answers for inference questions often make a wild leap not supported by
the details of the passage or contain a factual error.

Directions for Q1 to Q20: Read the passage and answer the questions below.

1. The men walked down the streets to the mine with their heads bent close to their chests. In groups of five or six
they scurried on. It was impossible to recognise individuals from the small gaps between their caps, pulled
down over their eyes, and the tightly bound scarves tied tightly over the bottom half of their faces."

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According to the author


(a) the men were in groups to avoid being recognised
(b) the day was cold and windy
(c) the men dressed up to protect from being recognized
(d) the men were ashamed of their deeds that they bent down their heads

2. Scientists estimate today that the results of their research into aging will be felt by a large segment of the
population as we move into the next century. An increase in longevity will be apparent with more and more
people living to be 100. People will not only live longer, but live healthier because of improved medical care,
more exercise and better eating habits. Many will have second and even third careers as the word “retirement”
takes on a new meaning. Slowly, the word “aging” will have to be redefined.
The sentence that best states the stated main idea is
(a) Scientists estimate today that the results of their research into aging will be felt by a large segment of the
population as we move into the next century.
(b) Many will have second and even third careers as the word “retirement” takes on a new meaning.
(c) Slowly, the word “aging” will have to be redefined.
(d) Both (a) and (c)

3. Many underachieving adolescents have had poor parent-child relationships. For example, parents may reject
them or fail to encourage them. In addition, the school environment may contribute. Underachievers may find
school boring or need extra help that is not provided. Peer pressure may also cause teens to underachieve.
They may fail to “fit in” with a certain group of friends.
Which statement best expresses the implied or unstated main idea?
(a) Many young people fail in school.
(b) Students need parental support.
(c) Young people feel as if they need to belong to a group.
(d) There are several reasons that may explain why some young people do not do well in school.

4. According to researchers, the annual number of AIDS cases in the United States will decrease in the next
decade. The latest study, done by Dr. Marc Richardson, states that the annual number of new AIDS cases will
reach a maximum of 20,000 to 30,000 in the next few years and then decline. He attributes this decline to the
fact that the AIDS virus has been contained to two high-risk groups-- homosexual/bisexual men and virus and
intravenous drug users—and these groups are being educated to change their behaviors.
(a) AIDS will decline because a cure has been found.
(b) We can stop worrying about the spread of AIDS.
(c) Education will reduce drug usage.
(d) The risk of homosexual/bisexual men contracting AIDS will be reduced.

5. As American cities grew, more and more people depended on fewer and fewer people for their food supply. As
our economy changed from rural to urban, people bought their food from stores rather than producing it
themselves. Today, over 90% of Americans depend on food grown by others and purchased in stores. Most of
this food comes from farms located hundreds of miles away from the place of purchase.
(a) American industrial development resulted in a large food industry.
(b) Ten percent of Americans eat healthier foods.
(c) Our urban economy will someday mean the total disappearance of American farms.
(d) Americans have lost variety in their diet.

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6. Eye contact between people differs from situation to situation and culture to culture. We tend to have better
eye contact if we are comfortable with the people we are talking to and the subject we are talking about. In
contrast, we avoid eye contact if we are nervous about the person or conversation. Also, we have more eye
contact when we are trying to influence the other person. Looking into someone’s eyes makes us seem sincere.
Often we may avoid eye contact if we may be trying to hide something. In some cultures, direct eye contact is
valued, while in others it is considered impolite.
(a) While lying, a child is likely to look his mother in the eye.
(b) Salespeople are likely to have good eye contact.
(c) If a person does not look at you directly, he or she always has something to hide.
(d) A defendant who wishes to seem innocent should lower his eyes in court.

7. Consider the following sentence which is a first draft of a report to a client: The introduction of new products
appears to be an inadvisable during this current period of time. Here is the rewritten version: Introducing new
products right now is not a good idea. As you can see, the loss of words does not change the meaning of the
sentence.
The author implies
(a) writing reports is a difficult task (b) the person is a bad writer
(c) rewriting a report can reduce the wordiness (d) introducing products is not a good idea

8. The technical procedure that is used to guard against observer effects is the “double blind.” It simply means
that observers are kept unaware of or blind to which experimental group subjects are in, so the observers’
expectations cannot affect the outcome. Unfortunately, the double-blind method is virtually impossible to use
in gender difference research because the observer cannot be “blind” to the differences between the physical
appearance of men and women.
The phrase “double blind” refers to
(a) people who are blind (b) double blind observers
(c) the two sexes-men and women (d) a way to ensure that the experiment is valid

9. If your words and ideas are ready to leap onto the page, let them come. Otherwise, one of the following
techniques may help you to get started. Begin by telling your audience how you feel about the problem or issue
at hand. You might describe what went wrong or project into the future. If you don’t have strong feelings about
the issue, picture yourself talking to someone who does. Picture yourself actually speaking the words of your
opponent.
The author suggests that
(a) the reader is having a good time
(b) the reader is ignorant
(c) the reader is having difficulty getting started
(d) the reader is a good writer

10. Excellent writing is difficult to describe. Although in most contexts “excellence” implies forcefulness, all
excellent business writing is not necessarily forceful. Excellent business writing can be tactful, descriptive and
even technical. It can be formal or informal, and it can deal with matters that are important or simple.
The author’s point of view about business writing is
(a) different types of writing are good
(b) excellent business writing may be forceful but does not need to be
(c) business writing is the only good writing
(d) business writing is difficult to master

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11. The economy of Europe, although devastated by World War II, is now one of the strongest in the world. Europe has
been industrialized for two centuries. In the past 25 years, Europeans have doubled their incomes, having twice as
many goods and services at their disposal as they had in 1965. This compares with an increase of only 60 percent in
the United States and an increase of 40 percent in Japan. However, U.S. income is higher than European income.
The author implies
(a) the European economy recovered relatively quickly from WWII
(b) the U. S. economy is better than the European
(c) Europeans live a middle class life
(d) the Japanese people are poorer than the Europeans

12 Mexico’s two most pressing problems are population growth and foreign debt. Nowhere is population more
visible than in Mexico City. Hoping to find jobs, more than 2,000 people move to the city each day. The
metropolitan area is one of the world’s largest. Experts predict it will have 26 million residents by 2000.
Terrible joblessness, filthy slums, disgusting fog, and viscous traffic jams are among the city’s problems. The
rapid economic growth has slowed and much of Mexico’s income comes from oil sales. In the past, the country
borrowed heavily from other nations to pay for sales. The country also borrowed heavily from other nations to
pay for industrialization. It was expected that oil would pay off these debts. When world oil prices dropped in
the 1980’s, Mexico found it hard to repay its loans. Today, it has one of the highest foreign debts.
The author suggests that
(a) Mexico is a great country (b) Mexico is in trouble
(c) Mexico has many problems to solve (d) People should not visit Mexico

13. Iridium has not been common at Earth’s surface since the very beginning of the planet’s history. Because it
usually exists in a metallic state, it was preferentially incorporated in Earth’s core as the planet cooled and
consolidated. Iridium is found in high concentrations in some meteorites, in which the solar system’s original
chemical composition is preserved. Even today, microscopic meteorites continually bombard Earth, falling on
both land and sea. By measuring how many of these meteorites fall to Earth over a given period of time,
scientists can estimate how long it might have taken to deposit the observed amount of Iridium in the boundary
clay. These calculations suggest that a period of about one million years would have been required. However,
other reliable evidence suggests that the deposition of the boundary clay could not have taken one million
years. So the unusually high concentration of Iridium seems to require a special explanation.
The paragraph implies that a special explanation of the Iridium in the boundary clay is needed because
(a) the Iridium in microscopic meteorites reaching Earth during the Cretaceous period would have been
incorporated into Earth’s core
(b) the Iridium in the boundary clay was deposited much more than a million years ago
(c) the concentration of Iridium in the boundary clay is higher than in microscopic meteorites
(d) the amount of Iridium in the boundary clay is too great to have come from microscopic meteorites during
the time the boundary clay was deposited

14. Information for parents: We want to make your child's stay at Camp Yahali a truly happy, comfortable, and
fulfilling one. To that end, we have developed what we believe to be the perfect balance of free time and
structured activities. The activities cover a wide range of interests, and we ask that you take a moment to sit
down with your child to determine which activities your child would like to participate in and let us know by
signing up prior to camp starting. That way we can make sure that we have enough supplies, equipment, and
staff available for each of the activities. If there's room, we can do some limited changes at camp, but your child
should expect to participate in the activities he or she signs up for. For this reason, we encourage you to make
careful decisions about what to choose; some parents find it helpful to have their kids consult with their friends
to make sure the activities are one that kids they know are also participating in.

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What can be inferred about why the staff at Camp Yahali suggests kids find out what activities their friends are
participating in?
(a) It's important to ensure there are enough supplies, equipment, and staff.
(b) Kids will want to do activities with their friends.
(c) Parents are curious.
(d) Camp Yahali staff want kids to do activities only with their friends.

15. The City of Elm is now hiring for the position of Assistant City Attorney, Litigation. Candidates must be
members in good standing of the California Bar Association. Ideal candidates will have:
 At least 3 years' litigation experience
 The ability to work both self-directed and as part of a team
 The ability to manage a large caseload
Competitive salary and excellent benefits offered. Position available immediately.
Send completed application to:
HR Department
Attention: Veronica Smith
1 City Center Plaza
Elm, California 95763
It can be inferred from the advertisement that
(a) a person staffing this position may work independently and/or as part of a team
(b) Veronica Davis will make the hiring decisions
(c) caseloads will start out small for new hires
(d) a candidate could work part-time if he or she chose to

16. NEWSPAPER AD
City of Elm Babysitting/ Nanny Jobs Wanted

College sophomore, aged 20, seeks regular part- Very responsible and reliable high-school junior
time nanny work. Weekends (Sat and Sun) only. available for occasional babysitting. I love kids,
Up to three kids, any age range. Have four years and they love me! Personal references available.
of babysitting experience. References available. Contact Jose at 422-6868.
Contact Lisa, 634-1966.

Experienced nanny seeks full-time (M-F, 9-5) Devoted, experienced, reliable nanny seeks part-
nanny position. Over 10 years' experience as time (Tuesday and Thursday) nanny work. Also
nanny. Many, including local, references available for occasional evening and weekend
available. Will also consider light housework, childcare. Contact Regina at 530-1227.
cooking. Contact James, 212-1736.

Which of the people seeking work can one infer from the ads is the youngest?
(a) Lisa (b) Jose (c) James (d) Regina

17. Hybrid cars are good for the environment, but they may not perform as cars that run only on gasoline. The
Toyota Prius gets great gas mileage and has low emissions, making it a good “green” option. However, many
people think that it is unattractive. The Prius also cannot accelerate as quickly as other models and cannot hold
as many passengers as larger gas-fueled SUVs. Although they save money on fuel, hybrid cars cost more up
front than gas-fueled cars. A new hybrid car can cost almost $3,500 more than the same car configured to run
just on gasoline.

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Which of the following can you infer from the passage?


(a) Hybrid cars are more dangerous than other options.
(b) Toyota is making a lot of money from the Prius.
(c) Cars that use gasoline are going to destroy the environment.
(d) Hybrid cars may not be the best choice for everyone.
(e) Hybrid cars are very faster than other cars.

18. The country has taken a major initiative by introducing convertibility of the Rupee on the current account. It
has also been declared that the ultimate goal is to make the Rupee fully convertible. These are signs of the
country's achieving economic maturity. India is now ready to welcome foreign capital. It is preparing to reduce
import tariffs to levels which are currently the norm in other developing countries. All these measures show
that India is today mature and strong enough to face international competition and to integrate itself
successfully with the global economy. The country is ready to shed its ideological inhibitions and ready to
evaluate the international economic environment in a pragmatic spirit.
(a) Convertibility has not been introduced on the capital account.
(b) Current account convertibility means full convertibility.
(c) An economically immature country does not have any convertibility of currency.
(d) Import tariffs in India are lower than those in other developing countries.
(e) Socialistic ideals prevented India from evaluating the international economic environment in a pragmatic
spirit.
19. Television ratings are based on the number of overall viewers, but the highest-rated television shows do not
always command the most advertising dollars.
Many advertisers are willing to pay more for spots that run during shows that attract a high proportion of
males between the ages of 19 and 34 than for ads that run during other, more highly rated shows that do not
attract as large a proportion of males aged 19 to 34. Ads that run during televised sporting events are often
more expensive than ads that run during other programs.
Which one of the following is most strongly supported by these statements?
(a) Advertisers have done little research into the typical consumer and are not using their advertising dollars
wisely.
(b) Sports programs are viewed by a greater proportion of males aged 19 to 34 than are other prime-time
network programs.
(c) The ability to reach a particular demographic is more important to many advertisers than reaching the
greatest number of overall viewers.
(d) Many advertising executives prefer sports programs and assume that other Americans do as well.
(e) Ads that run during the most popular sporting events are the most expensive of all ads.
20. Increases in the level of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) in the human bloodstream lower bloodstream cholesterol
levels by increasing the body’s capacity to rid itself of excess cholesterol. Levels of HDL in the bloodstream of
some individuals are significantly increased by a program of regular exercise and weight reduction.
Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
(a) Individuals who are underweight do not run any risk of developing high levels of cholesterol in the
bloodstream.
(b) Individuals who do not exercise regularly have a high risk of developing high levels of cholesterol in the
bloodstream late in life.
(c) Exercise and weight reduction are the most effective methods of lowering bloodstream cholesterol levels in
humans.
(d) A program of regular exercise and weight reduction lowers cholesterol levels in the bloodstream of some
individuals.
(e) Only regular exercise is necessary to decrease cholesterol levels in the bloodstream of individuals of average
weight.

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SESSION – 4
CLOZE TEST
A Cloze test consists of a text passage with some words removed (cloze text). It’s a mixture of comprehension and fill
in the blanks type of questions. To solve cloze test correctly, you are expected to have a strong command over the
language and grammar, along with good vocabulary.

Tricks to solve the test:

a) Read the passage at least twice without filling up the blanks.

b) Don’t treat each sentence separately instead think of logical connections that link up the sentences together.

c) Fill up those blanks that you are 100% sure.

d) To find out the missing words in the remaining gaps, find out which among the following part of speech will fill
in the gap: articles, nouns, pronouns, adverbs, prepositions, adjectives, conjunctions or verbs.

e) Some sentences may have the following combinations:

a preposition following a noun, adjective or verb. (Example: good at languages)

f) a prepositional phrase. (Example: in spite of )

g) an adverb. ( Example: He moved to Mumbai two years ago.)

h) a connector.(Example: First, he arrived; then he sat down; finally, he left.)

i) a conjunction. (Example: Although he is seven, he can speak eight languages.)

j) an auxiliary verb. (Example: He has won 2 contests.)

k) an article or some other kind of determiner. (Example: I have no time.)

l) a pronoun, either subject or object. (Example : It is easier to know.)

m) a comparative or superlative involved?

n) Check Tone – The passage is usually written in a certain tone; sometimes narrative, sometimes critical,
sometimes humorous. Pick words that fit in with the tone of the passage.

For example –

Jonah ____ down the stairs, bumping along like a quarter in a tumbling dryer.

(a) tumbled (b) fell (c) dropped

Clearly, you can use either ‘tumbled’ or ‘fell’ in this blank. But the rest of the sentence is written in a humorous vein. So
we try to maintain the tone of the sentence. This is best accomplished by the use of the word ‘tumbled’ as it brings to
mind images of people falling funnily.

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Directions for Q1 to Q45: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The Huffington post ________(1)________ its first international edition, Huffpost Canada, on May 26, 2011. On July 6 of the
same year, the Huffington Post UK launched its UK ________(2)________. On January 23, 2012, Huffington, in partnership
with Le Monde and Les Nouvelles Editions Independantes, launched Le Huffington Post, and the launch of French
________(3)________ edition is the first in a non-English speaking ________(4)________. On February 8, another French
language edition ________(5)________ launched in the Canadian province of Quebec. On May Day, a US-based Spanish-
language edition was launched under the name Huffpost Voces, replacing AOL’s Hispanic news platform, AOL Latino.

1. (a) launched (b) demanded (c) installed (d) took (e) established

2. (a) platform (b) process (c) edition (d) label (e) stint

3. (a) translation (b) language (c) post (d) term (e) module

4. (a) province (b) region (c) area (d) country (e) group

5. (a) was (b) is (c) were (d) has (e) had

Once upon a time, two friends were ________(6)________ through the desert. During some point of the ________(7)________
they had an argument, and one friend slapped the other one on the face. The one who got slapped was
________(8)________ but without saying anything, he wrote in the sand, “Today my best friend slapped on the face”. They
kept on walking ________(9)________ they found an oasis where they ________(10)________ to take a bath.

6. (a) crawling (b) speaking (c) swimming (d) walking (e) dancing

7. (a) journey (b) touring (c) travelling (d) border (e) hunt

8. (a) dead (b) captured (c) presentable (d) missing (e) hurt

9. (a) as (b) until (c) from (d) with (e) through

10. (a) decided (b) resolved (c) promised (d) want (e) decide

The one, who had been slapped, got ________(11)________ in the quicksand and started being drawn inside. But the other
friend acted fast and pulled him out. After being ________(12)________ from nearly being drowned, he wrote on a stone,
“Today my best friend saved my life”. The friend who had slapped and then saved his best friend asked him, “After I
hurt you, you wrote in the sand but ________(13)________ you wrote on a stone. Why? The other friend ________(14)________
“When someone hurts us, we should write it down in sand where winds of forgiveness can erase it away. But, when
someone does something good for us, we must ________(15)________ it on a stone where no wind can ever erase it”

11. (a) murdered (b) stuck (c) blended (d) mixed (e) marooned

12. (a) caught (b) doomed (c) died (d) recovered (e) saved

13. (a) also (b) immediately (c) soon (d) today (e) now

14. (a) called (b) tell (c) replied (d) questioned (e) asked

15. (a) publish (b) scratch (c) engrave (d) cypher (e) bury

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Whenever I ________(16)________ at the moon, my heart ________(17)________ with pleasure. I wish I had ________(18)________
to fly up to the moon, I know if I could ________(19)________ to become an ________(20)________, I would be able to go to the
moon. Special equipment and a ________(21)________ training are required to go to the moon. I would have to wear a
special ________(22)________ along with a gas-mask for ________(23)________. My space shuttle would be equipped with
________(24)________ cameras and other scientific ________(25)________.

16. (a) looked (b) saw (c) viewed (d) gaze

17. (a) fills (b) filled (c) field (d) feels

18. (a) hands (b) wings (c) legs (d) feelers

19. (a) grow up (b) mow (c) blow (d) show

20. (a) astrology (b) astronomy (c) astronaut (d) aristocrat

21. (a) special (b) ordinary (c) common (d) natural

22. (a) trousers (b) spacecraft (c) space-suit (d) space formula

23. (a) breadth (b) breathing (c) bathing (d) breathe

24. (a) sensitive (b) touchy (c) primitive (d) decorative

25. (a) accessory (b) things (c) intuition (d) gadgets

Given the state of ________(26)________ life in our country today—where corruption, violence and intolerance are
increasingly ________(27)________ in day-to-day interactions isn’t it ________(28)________ time that ________(29)________ made
a concerted effort to teach values? The very first ________(30)________ from many is that values cannot be taught, they
need to be ________(31)________. Ideally, values must be taught by people who are ________(32)________ to lead by example.
Fortunately for us, Indian culture has ensured that good role ________(33)________ can still be found ________(34)________
our midst. We only need to ________(35)________ in on them.

26. (a) my (b) their (c) social (d) night (e) public

27. (a) sordid (b) practical (c) evident (d) theoretical (e) tense

28. (a) long (b) high (c) quantum (d) quality (e) depressing

29. (a) educationists (b) players (c) politicians (d) artists (e) government

30. (a) suggestion (b) objection (c) proclamation (d) temptation (e) emotion

31. (a) studied (b) tried (c) learned (d) imbibed (e) experienced

32. (a) thrilling (b) willing (c) declaring (d) considering (e) trying

33. (a) players (b) actors (c) models (d) reversal (e) leading

34. (a) amongst (b) between (c) above (d) like (e) against

35. (a) ten (b) bang (c) zero (d) hit (e) smart

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Economic growth figures for the first quarter of this financial year seem to support the claim that the worst may be
over for the Indian Economy. The gradual revival is also an indication that the government’s economic stimulus
package is ________(36)________. What could, however, upset the positive outlook is the drought which
________(37)________ large parts of the country and its impact on overall growth. Even though the monsoon had picked
up ________(38)________ the rains received were grossly ________(39)________. There are clear ________(40)________ that farm
output, particularly cereals, will fall drastically. Insufficient rain is bound to shoot up the ________(41)________ of
agricultural commodities and that would impact the economy as a whole. The drought would also ________(42)________
a drastic reduction in rural employment and consumption besides inflation in the prices of food articles.

Food prices have been ________(43)________ since the past few months, and lower agricultural production is likely to
________(44)________ the situation. The government has said that food grain from the buffer stocks will be used to keep
prices ________(45)________. Subsidized food grain is necessary in these times, but its effectiveness will depend a lot on
the distribution system.

36. (a) impractical (b) ambiguous (c) failing (d) working (e) weakening

37. (a) strike (b) affected (c) exposed (d) reverted (e) altered

38. (a) unseasonably (b) unfavorably (c) presently (d) meagerly (e) later

39. (a) inadequate (b) enough (c) missing (d) ample (e) atrocious

40. (a) contradictions (b) advices (c) reasons (d) results (e) indications

41. (a) production (b) requirement (c) prices (d) yield (e) labour

42. (a) trigger (b) lead (c) result (d) contribute (e) dampen

43. (a) improving (b) balanced (c) stable (d) increasing (e) decreasing

44. (a) aggravate (b) amend (c) smoothen (d) improve (e) challenge

45. (a) unprofitable (b) futile (c) maximum (d) growing (e) down

SESSION – 5
SENTENCE IMPROVISATION
Directions for Q1 to Q30: In the following questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is required, choose ‘No improvement’.

1. A lot of people has left this place.


(a) has been left this place (b) have left this place
(c) will be left this place (d) were left this place
(e) No improvement

2. This opportunity is a lifelong opportunity for me.


(a) is a lifetime opportunity (b) is being a lifelong opportunity
(c) shall be a lifetime opportunity (d) is a life lasting opportunity
(e) No improvement

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3. If the books have been catalogued last week, why haven't they been placed on the shelf?
(a) have been catalogued (b) would have been catalogued
(c) was catalogued (d) were catalogued
(e) No improvement

4. We stood in line for three hours.


(a) from three hours (b) since three hours
(c) upto three hours (d) in three hours
(e) No improvement

5. Jessica Mitford wrote The American Way of Death, a best-selling book that led eventually to an official
investigation of the funeral industry.
(a) that led eventually (b) that had led eventually
(c) that eventually led (d) which eventually led
(e) No improvement

6. In order to increase their profits, many spice producing companies have been engaging themselves in
propaganda against commonly used spices and promoting exotic and expensive varieties of spices as more
healthier options.
(a) as healthier options (b) many healthier options
(c) mostly healthy options (d) less healthy options
(e) No improvement

7. The setting of a story effects the story's plot.


(a) effects the story's plot (b) effects the stories plot
(c) affect the story's plot (d) affects the story's plot
(e) No improvement

8. Charlie would have won the series if he would have played strategically.
(a) could play strategically (b) had played strategically
(c) did played strategically (d) have been playing strategically
(e) No improvement

9. The use of radar as well as two-way radio paging makes it possible for state police to intercept most speeders.
(a) eliminates the impossibility (b) allows the possibility
(c) makes possible (d) facilitates the possibility
(e) No improvement

10. The Indians hoped to immediately see the result of the new government’s trade policy.
(a) hoped to immediately saw (b) hoped to immediately seen
(c) hoped to see immediately (d) hoped to immediately seeing
(e) No improvement

11. Farmers in our country suffer because of an over dependence on rain and the threat to natural calamities like
floods.
(a) threat of natural calamities (b) threat against natural calamities
(c) threatened to natural calamity (d) natural calamities threatened
(e) No improvement

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12. Though it was a race against time, they managed to fill and submit their examination forms.
(a) race for time (b) race in time (c) race before time
(d) race with time (e) No improvement

13. One view of the economy contends that a large drop in oil prices should eventually lead to lowering interest
rates, as well as lowering fears about inflation, a rally in stocks and bonds, and a weakening of the dollar.
(a) lowering interest rates, as well as lowering fears about inflation,
(b) a lowering of interest rates and of fears about inflation,
(c) a lowering of interest rates, along with fears about inflation,
(d) interest rates being lowered, along with fears about inflation,
(e) interest rates and fears about inflation being lowered, with

14. After the Civil War, contemporaries of Harriet Tubman's maintained that she has all of the qualities of a great
leader: coolness in the face of danger, an excellent sense of strategy, and an ability to plan in minute detail.
(a) Tubman's maintained that she has (b) Tubman's maintain that she had
(c) Tubman's have maintained that she had (d) Tubman maintained that she had
(e) Tubman had maintained that she has

15. From 1982 to 1987 sales of new small boats increased between five and ten percent annually.
(a) From 1982 to 1987 sales of new small boats increased between five and ten percent annually.
(b) Five to ten percent is the annual increase in sales of new small boats in the years 1982 to 1987.
(c) Sales of new small boats have increased annually five and ten percent in the years 1982 to 1987.
(d) Annually an increase of five to ten percent has occurred between 1982 and 1987 in the sales of new small
boats.
(e) Occurring from 1982 to 1987 was an annual increase of five and ten percent in the sales of new small boats.

16. In recent years cattle breeders have increasingly used crossbreeding, in part that their steers should acquire
certain characteristics and partly because crossbreeding is said to provide hybrid vigor.
(a) in part that their steers should acquire certain characteristics
(b) in part for the acquisition of certain characteristics in their steers
(c) partly because of their steers acquiring certain characteristics
(d) partly because certain characteristics should be acquired by their steers
(e) partly to acquire certain characteristics in their steers

17. The peaks of a mountain range, acting like rocks in a streambed, produce ripples in the air flowing over them;
the resulting flow pattern, with crests and troughs that remain stationary although the air that forms them is
moving rapidly, are known as "standing waves."
(a) crests and troughs that remain stationary although the air that forms them is moving rapidly, are
(b) crests and troughs that remain stationary although they are formed by rapidly moving air, are
(c) crests and troughs that remain stationary although the air that forms them is moving rapidly, is
(d) stationary crests and troughs although the air that forms them is moving rapidly, are
(e) stationary crests and troughs although they are formed by rapidly moving air, is

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18. Like Auden. the language of James Merrill is chatty, arch, and conversational--given to complex syntactic flights
as well as to prosaic free-verse strolls.
(a) Like Auden, the language of James Merrill (b) Like Auden, James Merrill's language
(c) Like Auden's, James Merrill's language (d) As with Auden, James Merrill's language
(e) As is Auden's the language of James Merrill

19. In the textbook publishing business, the second quarter is historically weak, because revenues are low and
marketing expenses are high as companies prepare for the coming school year.
(a) low and marketing expenses are high as companies prepare
(b) low and their marketing expenses are high as they prepare
(c) low with higher marketing expenses in preparation
(d) low, while marketing expenses are higher to prepare
(e) low, while their marketing expenses are higher in preparation

20. Teratomas are unusual forms of cancer because they are composed of tissues such as tooth and bone not
normally found in the organ in which the tumor appears.
(a) because they are composed of tissues such as tooth and bone
(b) because they are composed of tissues like tooth and bone that are
(c) because they are composed of tissues, like tooth and bone, tissues
(d) in that their composition, tissues such as tooth and bone, is
(e) in that they are composed of tissues such as tooth and bone, tissues

21. The Senate approved immigration legislation that would grant permanent residency to millions of aliens
currently residing here and if employers hired illegal aliens they would be penalized.
(a) if employers hired illegal aliens they would be penalized
(b) hiring illegal aliens would be a penalty for employers
(c) penalize employers who hire illegal aliens
(d) penalizing employers hiring illegal aliens
(e) employers to be penalized for hiring illegal aliens

22. Scientists have recently discovered what could be the largest and oldest living organism on Earth, a giant
fungus that is an interwoven filigree of mushrooms and rootlike tentacles spawned by a single fertilized spore
some 10,000 years ago and extending for more than 30 acres in the soil of a Michigan forest.
(a) extending (b) extends (c) extended
(d) it extended (e) is extending

23. The period when the great painted caves at Lascaux and Altamira were occupied by Upper Paleolithic people
has been established by carbon-14 dating, but what is much more difficult to determine are the reason for their
decoration, the use to which primitive people put the caves, and the meaning of the magnificently depicted
animals.
(a) has been established by carbon-14 dating, but what is much more difficult to determine are
(b) has been established by carbon-14 dating, but what is much more difficult to determine is
(c) have been established by carbon-14 dating, but what is much more difficult to determine is
(d) have been established by carbon-14 dating, but what is much more difficult to determine are
(e) are established by carbon-14 dating, but that which is much more difficult to determine is

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24. The Baldrick Manufacturing Company has for several years followed a policy aimed at decreasing operating
costs and improving the efficiency of its distribution system.
(a) aimed at decreasing operating costs and improving
(b) aimed at the decreasing of operating costs and to improve
(c) aiming at the decreasing of operating costs and improving
(d) the aim of which is the decreasing of operating costs and improving
(e) with the aim to decrease operating costs and to improve

25. The Federalist papers, a strong defense of the United States Constitution and important as a body of work in
political science as well represents the handiwork of three different authors.
(a) and important as a body of work in political science as well, represents
(b) as well as an important body of work in political science, represent
(c) and also a body of work of importance in political science is representing
(d) an important body of work in political science and has been representative of
(e) and as political science an important body of work too, represent

26. Although the term "psychopath" is popularly applied to an especially brutal criminal, in psychology it is
someone who is apparently incapable of feeling compassion or the pangs of conscience.
(a) it is someone who is (b) it is a person
(c) they are people who are (d) it refers to someone who is
(e) it is in reference to people

27. Parliament did not accord full refugee benefits to twelve of the recent immigrants because it believed that to do
it rewards them for entering the country illegally.
(a) to do it rewards (b) doing it rewards
(c) to do this would reward (d) doing so would reward
(e) to do it would reward

28. Many policy experts say that shifting a portion of health-benefit costs back to the workers helps to control the
employer's costs, but also helps to limit medical spending by making patients more careful consumers.
(a) helps to control the employer's costs, but also helps
(b) helps the control of the employer's costs, and also
(c) not only helps to control the employer's costs, but also helps
(d) helps to control not only the employer's costs, but
(e) not only helps to control the employer's costs, and also helps

29. The plot of The Bostonians centers on the rivalry between Olive Chancellor, an active feminist, with her
charming and cynical cousin. Basil Ransom, when they find themselves drawn to the same radiant young
woman whose talent for public speaking has won her an ardent following.
(a) rivalry between Olive Chancellor, an active feminist, with her charming and cynical cousin, Basil Ransom
(b) rivals Olive Chancellor, an active feminist, against her charming and cynical cousin, Basil Ransom
(c) rivalry that develops between Olive Chancellor, an active feminist, and Basil Ransom, her charming and
cynical cousin
(d) developing rivalry between Olive Chancellor, an active feminist, with Basil Ransom, her charming and
cynical cousin
(e) active feminist. Olive Chancellor, and the rivalry with her charming and cynical cousin Basil Ransom

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30. A powder derived from the North American Echinacea flower, which has been effective in preventing colds, is
grown by many small farmers out West.
(a) A powder derived from the North American Echinacea flower, which has been effective in preventing colds,
(b) A derivative, which has been effective in preventing colds, of the North American Echinacea flower
(c) A North American Echinacea flower derivative, which has been effective in preventing colds
(d) The North American Echinacea flower has a derivative which has been effective in preventing colds, that
(e) The North American Echinacea flower, a derivative of which has been effective in preventing colds,

SESSION – 6
MISCELLANEOUS GRAMMAR
EXERCISE – I

Directions for Q1 to Q40: The following exercise contains Sentence Completion Questions. Choose the word or
phrase that best completes each of the following sentences.

NOUNS AND ARTICLES

1. __________ runs parallel to the coast of Queensland, Australia, and is 1,250 miles long.
(a) The Great Barrier Reef (b) A Great Barrier Reef
(c) Great Barrier Reef (d) An Great Barrier Reef

2. An arthropod is an invertebrate with a segmented body and __________.


(a) hard outer shells (b) the hard outer shell
(c) a hard outer shell (d) the hard outer shells

3. A lemur is a small arboreal primate __________.


(a) indigenous to Madagascar and the Comoro Islands
(b) indigenous to the Madagascar and the Comoro Islands
(c) indigenous to Madagascar and a Comoro Islands
(d) indigenous to a Madagascar and the Comoro Islands

4. __________ they lose much of their mass due to friction.


(a) When the meteors enter the Earth’s atmosphere,
(b) When meteor enters the Earth’s atmosphere,
(c) When the meteor enters the Earth’s atmosphere,
(d) When meteors enter the Earth’s atmosphere,

5. Tempeh, miso, and seitan are three of the many nutritious products __________.
(a) made from the soybeans (b) made from a soybean
(c) made from soybeans (d) made from a soybeans

PRONOUNS

6. The pharaohs of ancient Egypt were buried in magnificent tombs with supplies and earthly possessions
__________.
(a) to help us in the afterlife (b) to help him in the afterlife
(c) to help them in the afterlife (d) to help themselves in the afterlife

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7. A naturalist seeks to observe animals __________ without disruption or intrusion.


(a) in their natural habitats (b) in a natural habitat
(c) in its natural habitat (d) in his natural habitat

8. __________ the U.S. and the Soviet Union became bitter rivals in the following decades.
(a) Although they were allies during World War II,
(b) Although it was an ally during World War II,
(c) Although they were an ally during World War II,
(d) Although we were an ally during World War II,

9. A chameleon has the ability to change its skin pigmentation in order to blend in __________.
(a) with its surroundings (b) with it’s surroundings
(c) with their surroundings (d) with there surroundings

VERBS (IN UNFINISHED TIME)

10. Since 1980, several economies in developed nations __________.


(a) experiences declines and recoveries (b) are experiencing declines and recoveries
(c) have experienced declines are recoveries (d) experienced declines and recoveries

11. Although most drama critics believe his work to be insignificant, Neil Simon’s plays __________ than those of any
other contemporary playwright.
(a) received more performances (b) are received by more performances
(c) have received more performances (d) receives more performances

12. The shark __________ lungs nor swim bladders.


(a) possesses either (b) has possessed both
(c) is possessing no (d) possesses neither

13. Vintners produce wine by crushing grapes, fermenting the juice, and then __________ it for several months.
(a) to store (b) store (c) be stored (d) storing

VERBS (IN FINISHED TIME)

14. The belief in vampires __________ in the early fifteenth century.


(a) was first recorded in Transylvania (b) had first been recorded in Transylvania
(c) that was first recorded in Transylvania (d) was recording in Transylvania

15. In 1928, Walt Disney created the character Mickey Mouse and released the first animated cartoon __________.
(a) starts the soon-to-be-famous rodent (b) starred the soon-to-be-famous rodent
(c) starring the soon-to-be-famous rodent (d) staring at the soon-to-be-famous rodent

16. Unlike the brown sparrow, the passenger pigeon __________ became extinct in 1914.
(a) slaughtered indiscriminately and (b) was slaughtered indiscriminately and
(c) did not slaughter indiscriminately and (d) had been slaughtered indiscriminately and

17. Aboard sailing ships, scurvy __________ among sailors because citrus fruit was rarely given to crews.
(a) was especially common (b) is especially common
(c) was being especially common (d) has been especially common

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VERBS (IN TIME NOT YET STARTED)

18. Market studies show that, by the end of this century, smoking cigars __________ than smoking cigarettes.
(a) will be more widespread (b) will have been more widespread
(c) is more widespread (d) are widespread

19. When scientists predicted that plastics __________ in society, few realized how accurate they were.
(a) will play an important role (b) is going to play an important role
(c) were playing an important role (d) would play an important role

20. An increasingly frequent form of cancer, melanoma __________ as this century progresses.
(a) has taken more lives (b) will have taken more lives
(c) will take more lives (d) takes more lives

21. Primary malnutrition __________ of essential foodstuffs.


(a) is caused by a lack (b) will cause the lack
(c) won’t cause the lack (d) has been causing the lack

22. Even with modern up-to-date meteorological equipment, weather forecasters __________ predicting the weather
accurately.
(a) still will have problems (b) will still has problems
(c) still have problems (d) be having problems

ADJECTIVES (COMPARATIVES AND SUPERLATIVES)

23. Lake Pontchartrain is crossed by the world’s __________.


(a) most longest highway built over water (b) most long highway built over water
(c) longer highway built over water (d) longest highway built over water

24. __________ adopted by President Franklin D. Roosevelt was the New Deal, which helped alleviate the effects of the
Great Depression.
(a) A most significant program (b) The more significant program
(c) The most significant program (d) A more significant program

25. The term tarantula is used to describe __________ species of giant spiders.
(a) many different and unrelating (b) many different and most unrelating
(c) many different and unrelated (d) many differed and unrelating

26. The Ganges, __________, flows through a highly populated agricultural region before emptying into the Bay of
Bengal.
(a) a major source of water (b) the most major source of water
(c) a more major source of water (d) a major sources of water

POSSESSIVES

27. Henry Thoreau’s Walden Pond was a place __________ to write his books.
(a) which inspired him (b) by inspiring him
(c) where he inspired (d) inspired

28. __________ gives them the power to destroy or create.


(a) Humans reliance on fire (b) Humans’ reliance on fire
(c) Human’s reliance on fire (d) Humans’s reliance on fire

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29. __________ can push through and hills and rotten trees for insects.
(a) The anteater’s two-foot tongue (b) The anteaters’ two-foot tongue
(c) The anteaters’s two-foot tongue (d) The anteaters two-foot tongue

30. One of Benjamin Disraeli’s biographers wrote that the politician’s fame __________.
(a) was less than the actor George Artiss’s
(b) was less than the actor George Arliss’
(c) was less than the actor George Arliss
(d) was less than the actor’s George Arliss

31. The blue whale is the largest mammal that has ever lived, and __________.
(a) it’s weight reaches 150 tons (b) its weight reaches 150 tons’
(c) its’ weight reaches 150 ton’s (d) its weight reaches 150 tons

ADVERBS—COMPARATIVE AND SUPERLATIVE ADVERBS

32. __________ are two key elements in military strategies.


(a) Careful planning and appropriate timing
(b) Carefully planning and appropriately timed
(c) Carefully planning and appropriate timing
(d) Careful planned and appropriately timed

33. The giant panda __________ with black ears, limbs, and eye patches.
(a) has a predominant white body
(b) has a predominantly whitely body
(c) has a predomination of white body
(d) has a predominantly white body

34. __________, Krepotkin is more commonly known for his writings on anarchism.
(a) Initial an accomplishing geographer
(b) Initially an accomplishing geographer
(c) Initial an accomplished geographer
(d) Initially an accomplished geographer

35. Both moths and butterflies belong to the order Lepidoptera, but the exact differences between the two insects
__________.
(a) are not clearly definitely (b) is not clearly defined
(c) are not clearly defined (d) is not clear defined

INFINITIVES, GERUNDS AND PARTICIPLES (VERBS AS NOUNS AND ADJECTIVES)

36. Because zebras have __________, photos can be used to identify them when captured.
(a) very striped patterns (b) varying stripe patterns
(c) varied striped patterns (d) various striping patterns

37. Pete Sampras, the youngest man to win the U.S. Open, is known for his __________.
(a) shots placed well and powerful tennis serves
(b) well-placed shots and powerful tennis serves
(c) well-placing shots and powerful tennis serves
(d) well-placed and powerful shooting tennis serves

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38. __________ is essential if scientists wish to estimate population decline.


(a) Monitoring endangered species (b) To monitor dangerous species
(c) Endangering the monitored species (d) To dangerous species, monitoring

39. __________ has recently developed into a profitable business.


(a) To bred hunting dogs (b) Hunting breed dogs
(c) The breed of hunt dogs (d) Breeding hunting dogs

40. Early in the thirteenth century, Ghengis Khan united __________ into a powerful nation.
(a) the tribes of Mongol feuds (b) to feuding the Mongol tribes
(c) the feuding Mongol tribes (d) Mongol tribes feuding

SESSION – 7
MISCELLANEOUS GRAMMAR
EXERCISE – II

Directions for Q1 to Q40: The following exercise contains Sentence Completion Questions. Choose the word or
phrase that best completes each of the following sentences.

1. __________ not only emptied its prisons, it also extended its empire.
(a) Britain’s sending its convicts to Australia (b) Britain’s sent convicts to Australia
(c) Britain sends its convicts to Australia (d) Britain’s sending it’s convicts to Australia

2. Binoculars __________ magnify distant objects with depth perception.


(a) varying lenses and eyepieces (b) with their various lenses and eyepieces
(c) vary with their lenses and eyepieces (d) varied lenses and eyepieces

3. The gigantic land tortoises __________ are now facing extinction despite the efforts of scientists.
(a) how indigenous to the Galapagos Islands (b) is indigenous to the Galapagos Islands
(c) indigenous to the Galapagos Islands (d) are indigenous to the Galapagos Islands

PHRASES (APPOSITIVES)
4. The Mississippi, __________ runs through the United States.
(a) the longest river in North America (b) North America’s longest river
(c) along the river in North America (d) that river is the longest
5. Irene Joliot-Curie, __________, was the daughter of Pierre and Marie Curie.
(a) won the Nobel Prize in 1935 (b) winner of the Nobel Prize in 1935
(c) winning the Nobel prize in 1935 (d) wins the Nobel Prize in 1935
6. Cleopatra, __________, revolted against her brother Ptolemy XI and became Queen of Egypt.
(a) whose character fascinated history (b) a fascinating character in history
(c) is a fascinating historical character (d) a historical fascinating character
7. Smallpox, __________, causes a high fever and severe skin eruptions.
(a) a disease highly contagious (b) that contagious disease
(c) a highly contagious disease (d) disease highly contagious
8. The jaguar, __________, is similar to the shorter-limbed and stockier leopard.
(a) an animal adaptable (b) animal which adapts
(c) an adaptable animal (d) is an adaptable animal

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CLAUSES

9. Aphasia is a language disturbance __________ of the brain.


(a) by which is caused a lesion (b) caused by a lesion
(c) that cause a lesion (d) which causes a lesion

10. __________ who defeated the Nationalists and founded the People's Republic of China.
(a) When Mao Ze Dong (b) Mao Ze Dong
(c) It was Mao Ze Dong (d) Mao Ze Dong was

11. Dan O'Brien's return to win the 1996 Olympic decathlon gold medal is the kind of life achievement __________
might be written.
(a) of a movie (b) by which a movie
(c) which a movie (d) about which a movie

12. Unlike a tornado __________, a hurricane occurs on the ocean.


(a) it occurs on land (b) occurring on land
(c) which occurs on land (d) occurred on land

13. Although the Great Wall of China is one of the largest man-made structures, it cannot, contrary to legend,
__________ by the naked eye.
(a) have been seen from the moon (b) be seeing from the moon
(c) be seen from the moon (d) see anything from the moon

WHO, WHOM, WHOSE

14. A football team consists of __________ must wear protective equipment.


(a) eleven members, who each of (b) eleven members, each of who
(c) eleven members, to whom each (d) eleven members, each of whom

15. In 1492 Christopher Columbus, who set sail for uncharted territory, commanded __________ reached what was
thought to be India.
(a) three ships, all of which (b) three ships, to whom all
(c) three ships, all of whom (d) three ships, which all of

CONJUNCTIONS

16. __________, British monarchs play only a limited political role in the modern United Kingdom.
(a) Because of their cultural and social significance
(b) Although their cultural and social significance
(c) Despite their cultural and social significance
(d) Not only their cultural and social significance

17. __________, water heated by geothermal power is not uncommon in Iceland.


(a) Due to its location in an active volcanic zone
(b) In spite of the fact that it is located in an active volcanic zone
(c) Despite its location in an active volcanic zone
(d) Even though its location in an active volcanic zone

18. Golda Meir was elected to the Knesset in 1949 __________ premier of Israel in 1969.
(a) and finally became (b) but finally became
(c) though finally became (d) because she finally became

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19. Rigoberta Menchu, an advocate of the rights of indigenous people, is lacking in formal education __________.
(a) and nonetheless a compelling speaker and writer
(b) because she is nonetheless a compelling speaker and writer
(c) but is nonetheless a compelling speaker and writer
(d) even though a compelling speakerand writer

PREPOSITIONS

20. __________ of the emperor Meiji marked the conclusion of Japan's Tokugawa period.
(a) At the beginning of the reign (b) The beginning of the reign
(c) During the beginning of the reign (d) The beginning from the reign

21. Holy relics, such as pieces of the cross on which Jesus Christ was crucified, are found __________.
(a) in cathedrals throughout Europe (b) in cathedrals through Europe
(c) at cathedrals by Europe (d) in cathedrals at Europe

22. The Ohio River begins __________ of the Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers.
(a) in the confluence (b) of the confluence
(c) at the confluence (d) nearby the confluence

23. The absolute magnitude of a star is the brightness it would have if it were viewed __________
(a) of a distance of 10pe (b) from a distance of 10pe
(c) on a distance of 10pe (d) through a distance of 10 pc

24. A great amount of thrust is needed to lift an airplane __________.


(a) of the ground during takeoff (b) off of the ground while takeoff
(c) off the ground during takeoff (d) off the ground on takeoff

COUNTABLE/NON-COUNTABLE NOUNS, PLURAL/SINGULAR

25. Methanol, which can be made __________ is the simplest alcohol.


(a) by dry distillations of wood (b) by the dry distillation of woods
(c) by the dry distillation of wood (d) by dry distillations of woods

26. One of the most distinctive features of the raccoon is the black __________.
(a) mask-like markings on its face (b) mask-like markings on the faces
(c) mask-like markings on their face (d) mask-like markings on their faces

27. Camphor, derived from the laurel tree, is used as an __________.


(a) insects repellent, painkiller, and antispasmodic
(b) insect repellent, painkiller, and antispasmodic
(c) insect repellent, painkillers, and antispasmodic
(d) insect repellents, painkillers, and antispasmodics

28. The balalaika is a plucked, __________ of ancient Slavic origin.


(a) three-strings instrument (b) three-stringed instruments
(c) three-stringed instrument (d) three-string instruments

ADJECTIVES OF QUANTITY (MUCH, MANY, MORE)

29. Improvements in the economy may sometimes explain __________.


(a) periods of lesser crimes (b) periods of fewer crimes
(c) periods of little crimes (d) periods of less crimes

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30. Because of advanced communications technology, __________ remain unknown throughout the world for very
long.
(a) fewer important news stories (b) little important news stories
(c) few important news stories (d) lesser important news stories

ADJECTIVES THAT SHOW QUANTITY

31. Approximately 20% of the Earth's atmosphere __________, and most of the remainder is comprised of nitrogen.
(a) is comprised of oxygen (b) comprised of oxygen
(c) are comprised of oxygen (d) are comprising oxygen
32. Only a small amount of plastic explosive __________.
(a) are needed to cause extensive damage (b) is needed to cause extensive damage
(c) needed to cause extensive damage (d) needs to cause extensive damage
33. __________ in 1986 will witness its return in 2061.
(a) Little people alive to see Haley's Comet
(b) Few people alive to see Haley's Comet
(c) Few of the peoples alive to see Haley's Comet
(d) Fewer people alive to see Haley's Comet
34. __________ which make up the state of Michigan borders Lake Ontario.
(a) Neither of the peninsula (b) Either of the peninsulas
(c) Neither of the peninsulas (d) Either of the peninsula

PARALLELISM

35. Recent studies have shown that parents of today are generally concerned with their children's health and safety
rather than __________.
(a) with educating them (b) an education for them
(c) with their education (d) the education of theirs
36. The more powerful the tennis serve, __________
(a) the more difficult it is to return it (b) the more difficult the return
(c) the more difficulty the other player has (d) the more difficult played the return
37. The survival of different species of birds actually depends on their ability to camouflage themselves, __________
(a) but not on predatory skills (b) not their predatory skills
(c) on predatory skills (d) not on their predatory skills
38. The financial yields of Alaska's petroleum reservoirs is greater than __________.
(a) fishing and farming industries combined
(b) that of its fishing and farming industries combined
(c) of its combined fishing and farming
(d) that fishing and farming industries combined
39. Winner of the Nobel Prize for Peace, Mikhail Gorbachev is regarded as a skilled technocrat, an effective
reformer, and __________.
(a) an accomplished politician (b) politician who is accomplished
(c) accomplished politician (d) an accomplishing politician
40. Spiders __________, injecting them with poison, or simply by starving them.
(a) kill their prey by suffocation (b) suffocate their prey
(c) suffocating their prey (d) kill their prey by suffocating them

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ACTIVE-PASSIVE VOICE

Directions for Q41 and Q42: Convert the following sentences from Active/Passive to Passive/Active voice.

41. A mistake was made by the lawyer and a mistrial was declared by the judge.
(a) A mistake was made by the lawyer and the judge declared a mistrial.
(b) The lawyer made a mistake and a mistrial was declared by the judge.
(c) The lawyer made a mistake and the judge declared a mistrial.
(d) A mistake was made by the lawyer and declared by the judge as mistrial.

42. I know him.


(a) He is known by me. (b) He was known to me.
(c) He has been known by me. (d) He is known to me.

DIRECT & INDIRECT SPEECH

Directions for Q43 to Q45: Each sentence is in direct or indirect speech and is followed by four alternatives of the
opposite form of narration to that of the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.

43. Kumar said, “I may bring someone with me to the party”.


(a) Kumar said I may bring someone with me to the party.
(b) Kumar said he might bring someone with him to the party.
(c) Kumar said he might have brought someone with him to the party.
(d) Kumar said he may bring someone with himself to the party.

44. He said, ‘I must get going. Otherwise, I'm going to be late’.


(a) He told me he had to get going. Otherwise, I was going to be late.
(b) He told me he had to get going. Otherwise, he was going to be late.
(c) He told me he has to get going. Otherwise, he was going to be late.
(d) He told me he must get going. Otherwise, he was getting to be late.

45. They said, 'We’ve lived here for a long time’.


(a) They said they have lived there for a long time.
(b) They said they lived here for a long time.
(c) They said they were living here for a long time.
(d) They said they had lived there for a long time.

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