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You are on page 1of 20

TEST No. 6

PAPER - I

AK A S H TE

A ST

IA for

D

SE

IN

RI

JEE (Main) 2014

ALL

ES

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

1. Read each question carefully. 9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,

2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.

appropriate circle in the answer sheet. 10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C

3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics

having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each

4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct

5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on response.

answer sheet. 11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum

6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other marks are 360.

material in the examination hall. 12. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating

7. Before attempting the question paper, student should incorrect response of each question. No deduction from

ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page the total score will be made if no response is indicated for

is missing. any question in the answer sheet.

8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, 13. Pattern of the questions are as under:

candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and Section – I : Straight Objective Type Questions

Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly. Section – II : Assertion – Reason Type Questions

Test No. 6

Paper I

Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves

Chemistry Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes,

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

TEST - 6 (Paper-1)

PART - A (PHYSICS)

SECTION - I wire. If a battery is connected across the ends AB,

Straight Objective Type Questions magnetic field at O is B0. If the same battery is

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions connected across A and C, the magnetic field at O

numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), will be

E D

(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

F O C

1. Which one of the following circulation is correct?

C3 A B

(1) Equal to B0

(2) Greater than B0

(3) Less than B0

i1 X i2 (4) May be less or greater than B0

C1 C2

3. Figure shows two coils carrying equal currents. The

ratio of magnetic field at P due to coil-1 to coil-2 is

R

2R

(1) ∫ B.dl 0i1 i R

C1 i

P

(2) ∫ B.dl 0i 2 R

C2 2

1

(3) ∫ B.dl 0 (i 2 i1) 1

(1) (2) 1 : 2

C3 2

1

(4) ∫ B.dl 0 (i1 i 2 ) 1 ⎛ 1 ⎞4

(3) (4) ⎜ ⎟

C3 4 ⎝ 2⎠

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

4. The arrangement shown here is a Faraday's disc of 6. A solenoid has an inductance L and a resistance R.

radius a which is rotating in a uniform magnetic field If the solenoid is connected to a battery, the time it

B perpendicular to the plane of disc. The current will take to reach half of its final equilibrium value is

passing through the resistance is

L 2L

2 (1) ln2 (2) ln3

B a 2R R

(1)

R B

L L

(3) ln 2 (4) ln3

Ba 2 R R

(2)

2R 7. A wire forms a closed circular loop of radius 2 m and

resistance 6 . The circle is centred on a long

B2a straight wire. (The straight wire is insulated). The

(3) current changes according to i = (5 – 2t 2 )A.

2R

The magnitude of current induced in the loop at

t = 1 s is

B a 2 R

(4)

R

diminishing at the rate of (T/s). The force on the i

electron at a distance r along y-axis is

Y

(1) 1 A (2) 2 A

(3) 3 A (4) Zero

B

8. Wire AB is moved with a velocity 2 m/s. Wire is

e P

kept near a long current carrying conductor, as

shown. Emf induced in the wire is

X

0

(1) ln3

2 2 m/s

5A A B

5 0

(2) ln3

2 1m

r r

(1) e( iˆ) (2) e(iˆ) 3m

2 2

5 0

(3) ln3

r2 r2

(3) e(iˆ) (4) e(iˆ)

2 2 (4) Zero

Space for Rough Work

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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

9. EMF of the battery shown in the circuit varies with 12. If a direct current of value "a" ampere is

time, so that the current is given by i = 3 + 5t, superimposed on an ac i = bsint flowing through a

where i is in ampere and t is in second. The wire, the effective value of resulting current in the

expression for battery emf as a function of time is circuit is

b b

(1) (2) a

2 2

R=4

b2 a2 b 2

(3) a2 (4)

E L=6H 2 2

13. An electron moves in a uniform magnetic field and

follows a spiral path as shown in figure. Which of the

following statement is incorrect?

(1) 10t + 32

(2) 20t + 42

(3) 20t + 18

(4) 10t + 22

10. The current density J inside a long, solid cylindrical (1) Angular velocity of electron remains constant

wire of radius a is along central axis and its (2) Magnitude of velocity of electron decreases

r continuously

magnitude varies linearly with r as J J0 . The

a (3) Net force on the particle is always perpendicular

to direction of motion

a

magnetic field at r is (4) Magnitude of net force on the electron

2

decreases continuously

0 J 0 a 0J0a 14. A bar magnet is moved between two circular coils A

(1) (2)

3 6 and B with a constant velocity v as shown. Then the

coils

0 J 0 a 0 J 0 a A B

(3) (4)

9 12

v

11. An ideal choke takes a current of 8 A when

connected to an a.c. source of 100 V and 50 Hz. A

pure resistance under the same conditions takes a

current of 10 A. If two are connected in series to an

a.c. supply of 100 V and 40 Hz, then current in the (1) Repel each other

circuit is

(2) Attract each other

(1) 10 A (2) 8 A

(3) Neither attract nor repel each other

(3) 5 2 A (4) 10 2 A (4) May attract or repel depending upon size of coils

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

15. Slider of length 1 m moves with velocity 2 m/s in a 17. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from

uniform magnetic field of 2T. Resistance of the slider rest at the origin as shown in figure. The speed of

is 2 . The magnitude of external force required to the particle when it has travelled a distance d along

maintain the velocity is the z axis is given by

z

2qE0 d

(1)

×B m

E0 d E0

(2) B0

6 v 3 B0

y

m m, q

(3) qE0 d

x

2m

(1) 1 N (2) 2 N (4) qE0 d

(3) 4 N (4) 6 N 18. A magnetic needle of negligible width and thickness

16. A copper rod is bent into a semicircle of radius a and as compared to its length oscillates in horizontal

is being rotated with an angular velocity in the plane with period T. If it is broken into n equal parts,

magnetic field shown. Resistance of the circuit is then the time period of each part in same field

negligible. Amplitude of current through the circuit is will be

(1) T n (2) nT

O a O T T

× (3) (4)

n n

×B 19. Current in R3 just after closing the switch and in

steady state respectively, will be

E L

C

R1

1

(1) B a2C 2

2 R3

C R2

1

(2) Ba 2C2

4 S

E

1 (1) 0, 0 (2) R ,0

(3) Ba2C2

8 3

E

(4) 2Ba 2C2 (3) 0, (4) Indeterminate

R3

Space for Rough Work

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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

20. In the arrangement shown, maximum current that will 23. An E.M. wave going through vacuum is described by

flow in the circuit is E = E0sin(kx – t); B = B0sin(kx – t) then

(1) V0

L 4V0 V0 (2) E0B0 = k

– + + –

C S (3) E0 = B0k

(2) V0 2C C

L

(4) E0 = B0

V0 L 24. A paramagnetic material is kept in a magnetic field.

(3)

2 6C The field is increased till the magnetization becomes

L constant. If the temperature is now decreased, the

V0 6C magnetization

(4)

2 L

(1) Will increase

21. In the figure shown IL = 0.8 A and IC = 0.6 A. The

(2) Will decrease

current drawn from the source is

L (3) Remains constant

C 20

25. A toroid has a mean radius R cm and a total

IC

of 400 turns of wire carrying a current of 2 A.

I

~ A metallic ring at 300 K inside the toroid provides

V the core. If the magnetization I = 4.8 × 10–2 A/m,

(1) 0.2 A (2) 0.4 A the susceptibility of metal at this temperature is

22. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and (3) 2.4 × 10–4 (4) 4.2 × 10–4

separation between the plates d, is charged by a

constant current i. Consider a plane surface of area SECTION - II

A Assertion – Reason Type Questions

parallel to the plates and drawn symmetrically

2

between plates. The displacement current through Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-

this area is Reason type questions. Each of these questions

contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and

i

(1) i (2) Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has

2

four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct

i

(3) (4) Zero answer. You have to select the correct choice.

4

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

26. Statement-1 : Co-axial cable containing equal and (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

opposite current in wire and hollow conducting Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

cylinder is used to produce zero magnetic fields Statement-1

outside the cable. (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

and Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-2 : Net current enclosed for the cable by Statement-1

a concentric outer circular loop is zero. (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

29. An inductor is connected to a battery through a

Statement-1

switch.

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-1 : The emf induced in the inductor is

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for much larger when the switch is opened as

Statement-1 compared to the emf induced when the switch is

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False closed.

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True and

27. Statement-1 : In an a.c. series circuit, the applied Statement-2 : When the switch is opened, the current

instantaneous voltage is not equal to the algebraic suddenly tends to drop to zero. But when the switch

sum of instantaneous voltage across the different is closed, due to finite resistance of the circuit, the

elements of the circuit. current does not suddenly build up to the maximum

and value.

Statement-2 : The RMS voltage across different (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

elements are not in phase, only their phasor sum is Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

equal to the applied RMS voltage. Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1 Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Statement-1 30. Statement-1 : In electromagnetic waves energy is

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False equally shared between electric field and magnetic

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True field.

28. Consider two small elements of current carrying wire and

as shown. Statement-2 : Unit vector of E B gives the

2 direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave.

1 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

i2 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

i1

Statement-1 : The force on 1 due to 2 is downwards Statement-1

in the plane of paper but the force on 2 due to 1 is (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

zero. Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

and Statement-1

Statement-2 : Electromagnetic waves carry (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

momentum with them. (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)

SECTION - I 33. CH3 CH CH2

HOCl

(A)

KOH

(B)

C H ONa

2 5

in C H OH

(C)

2 5

The product (C) formed in the given sequence of

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions reactions will be

numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(1) CH3 – CH = CH – OC2H5

(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

OH

Cl (2) CH3 – CH – CH2

+

H3O OC2H5

+ OH

–

(X) (Y)

31.

OC2H5

NO2

(3) CH3 – CH – CH2

(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH = O

OH

Cl 34. Which of the following hydrocarbon gives the

following compounds on ozonolysis followed by

(1) (2) reductive hydrolysis?

O2N OH

I. CH3 – CO – CH3

NO2

II. CH3CHO

III. CH3 – CO – CHO

NO2

CH3

OH

(1) CH3 – CH = C – C = CH – CH3

(3) (4)

CH3

NO2 NO2

CH3

32. In which of the molecules all the effects namely (2) CH3 – C = C – CH = CH – CH3

inductive, resonance and hyperconjugation operate?

CH3

(1) CH3 – CH = CH2

(2) ClCH2CH2OH (3) CH3 – CH = C – CH = C – CH3

(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CHO CH3 CH3

(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 (4) Both (2) & (3)

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

O – CH2

(1) HOCH2 – CH

CH2

NH2 CH2

CH2 – O

C2H5 – NH – C2H5 18

N (2) CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH2OH

N

H O18

(3)

I II III IV

O

(1) IV > I > III > II (4)

(2) II > III > IV > I

38. Find out the reagent (X) used in the following

(3) I > IV > II > III reaction

(4) IV > II > III > I Me Me

Baeyer's (X)

(A) OH

36. Consider the following base induced elimination Reagent

reactions O

(1) NaBH4 (2) (i) O3, (ii) Zn/H2O

B /

– (3) K2Cr2O7/H+ (4) NH2 – NH2/KOH

CH3 – CO – CH – CH3

(X)

39. Name the product formed in the following reaction

Br CH3 – CO – CH = CH2 CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3

– (Z)

B /

CH3 – CO – CH2 – CH2 Cl Cl

(Y)

Br + alcoholic Na2S

(1) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3

Which one of the following statements is true?

SH SH

(1) (X) reacts faster than (Y)

CH2 – CH2

(2) (Y) reacts faster than (X)

(2) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3

(3) Both (X) and (Y) react at the same rate

(4) Both (X) and (Y) do not react CH2 – CH2

37. Identify the product (B) in the following reaction (3) CH3 – CH CH – CH3

18 S

HOCH2 C C CH2 CH2 OH H2

(4) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3

Lindlar 's H /

(A) (B)

Catalyst SH Cl

Space for Rough Work

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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

40. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing 45. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

order of their acidic strength

(1) m-cresol when treated with Br 2(H 2O) gives

HCOOH CH3 – COOH C6H5 – COOH tribromoderivative

I II III (2) Picric acid and phenol can be distinguished by

(1) II < III < I (2) II < I < III FeCl3

(3) III < II < I (4) III < I < II (3) o-nitrophenol is steam volatile

41. (+) mandelic acid has a specific rotation of +158º. (4) Phenol and benzyl alcohol can be separated by

What would be the specific rotation of a solution NaOH

containing 35% of (–) mandelic acid and 65% of (+)

46. Identify the missing reactant in the following reaction

mandelic acid?

CH3CH2NH2 + (X) + KOH CH3CH2NC + KCl + H2O

(1) (–) 55.3° (2) (+) 47.4°

(3) (+) 102.7° (4) (–) 102.7° (1) CH3Cl (2) CH2Cl2

42. Identify the reagent (X) in the following reaction (3) CHCl3 (4) CCl4

47. What is the major product formed in the following

(X) reaction?

CH3 CH3

OH

OH Br

–

(1) PBr3 (2) SOBr2 OH

+ K2S2O8 Major product

H2O

(3) HBr (4) Both (1) & (2)

OH OH

43. Arrange the following compounds in the decreasing

order of their reactivity towards SN2 reaction OH SO3H

(1) (2)

I. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl

II. CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl

III. CH3 – CH = CH – Cl OH OH

(1) II > I > III (2) I > II > III

(3) II > III > I (4) I > III > II (3) (4)

44. Which one of the following compounds is most

acidic? SO3 H OH

OH COOH

48. Pesticides consist of

(3) Fungicides (4) All of these

O OH 49. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

O

(3) (4) C (1) CO2 (2) N2O

O OH HO OH (3) CO (4) CH4

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

50. Which of the following free radicals is most stable? 53. The decreasing order of stability of carbocations is

CH2 CH3 I. CH CH CH

3 3

(1) (2)

II. CH O CH

3 2

CH3 CH3

(3) (4) III. CH S CH

3 2

51. CH2 CH C CH HBr A(Major) , (3) I > III > II (4) I > II > III

54. Which one of the following compounds gives instant

The product 'A' is

precipitate with aqueous AgNO3?

(1) CH3 CH C CH Cl

Br

(1) Cl (2)

(2)

CH2 CH2 C CH

Br Cl

Br

55. Identify the major product formed in the following

(4) CH 2 CH CH CH reaction

Br

OH

52. The number of optically active isomers of the following H+

compound is Major product

O

H H

O

CH3 – C – CH = CH – C – CH3

Cl Cl (1) (2)

O

O

(1) 2

(2) 4 O

(3) 6

(3) (4)

(4) 8 O

O

Space for Rough Work

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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

differentiated by I2/NaOH.

Assertion – Reason Type Questions

and

Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion- Statement-2 : Butan-2-ol is more acidic than

Reason type questions. Each of these questions butan-1-ol.

contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct Statement-1

answer. You have to select the correct choice. (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

56. Statement-1 : Neopentyl chloride undergoes

Statement-1

nucleophilic substitution by SN1 mechanism only.

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

and

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Statement-2 : Neopentyl chloride is a primary alkyl 59. Statement-1 : If BOD level of water in a reservoir is

halide. greater than 5 ppm, it is highly polluted.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; and

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-2 : High biological oxygen demand

Statement-1 means low activity of bacteria in water.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

57. Statement-1 : Dipole moment of CH3 – F is greater (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

than that of CH3 – Cl.

60. Statement-1 : The nitro group of nitrobenzene is

and deactivating and mata directing towards electrophilic

aromatic substitution.

Statement-2 : C – F bond is more polar than C – Cl

and

bond.

Statement-2 : Nitrobenzene reacts with CH3 – Cl in

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; presence of AlCl3 to give m-nitrotoluene.

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-1

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-1 Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)

SECTION - I x y2

dy

Straight Objective Type Questions 64. If ∫

2

3 cos t dt ∫ sin tdt 0, then

dx

0

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions 3

numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (1) 3 cos2 x

(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1

(2)

4 2

x 4 2y .sin( y 2 )

61. If ∫ x2

dx log , then

2

3 cos2 x

(1) + 2 is irrational number (3)

2sin( y 2 )

(2) = 2 (1 – )

(3) (, ) lies on x2 – 4y2 = 2(x – 1) 3 cos2 x

(4)

2y sin( y 2 )

(4) (, ) lies on x2 – 4y2 = 4(x + 1)

65. Tangent to a curve xy = a2 at point P meets the

⎧

⎪3 x ,

2

x2 x-axis in A and y-axis in B. Then, the ratio AP : PB

62. If f ( x ) ⎨ is

⎩ a 14 x 48 , x 2

⎪

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1

and f(x) has a local maxima at x = 2, then (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 3

(1) Least value of 'a' is 2011 66. For the curve y = a log(x2

– a2), where a is positive

(2) Greatest value of 'a' may be 2011 number. The algebraic sum of the tangent and

subtangent at any point on curve is

(3) a can not be determined

(4) The greatest value of 'a' may be 2345 xy 2xy

(1) (2)

a a

x loge (1 e x )

63. If ∫ 1 e x

dx f ( x ) c , then f(x) =

xy xy

(3) (4)

2a a

(1) –log(1 + ex)

(2)

1 ex Rolle's theorem for f(x) = 2x3 + x2 – 4x – 2 is

1

2 3 4

(3) log(1 e x ) (1) (2)

2 5 5

1

2

2

log(1 e x ) 2

(4) (3) (4)

2 3 3

Space for Rough Work

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Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

progression is equal to the least value of the function 73. If y(x – y)2 = x, then the value of ∫ x 3y equals

25

f ( x ) 3 x2 x

12

and the first term of the (1)

x

2

loge ( x y )2 1 c

progression is equal to the square of its common

ratio. Then, the common ratio is (2)

1

2

loge ( x y )2 1 c

(1) 2 1 (2) 3 1

2 2

1

2

2

(3) x loge ( x y ) 1 c

(3) 2 3 (4)

3 2

(4) loge ( x y ) 1 c

⎡ 12 ⎤ sec x(2 sec x )

69. Let f(x) = |x2 – 5x + 6|, x ⎢0, ⎥ . Then, the sum

⎣ 5⎦ 74. The value of ∫

(1 2sec x )2

dx is equal to

of the maximum and minimum values of f on ⎢0, is

⎣ 5 ⎥⎦ (2) (2cotx + cosecx)–1 + c

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 2cosecx – cotx + c

13 11 (4) (2cosecx + cotx)–1 + c

(3) (4)

2 2 loge 5

ex ex 1

log x 75. The value of ∫ ex 3

dx is equal to

70. The value of ∫ x 2 2 dx is equal to 0

0

(1) 3 + (2) 3 –

(1) loge()2 (2)

(3) 4 + (4) 4 –

(3) loge ( ) (4) 22 a 1

2

76. The maximum value of ∫ e ( x 1) dx , aR, is

71. The area bounded by x3 = 4(x – y)2 and x = 1 is a 1

attained at

4 2

(1) sq. units (2) sq. units (1) a = 2 (2) a = 1

5 5

(3) a = –1 (4) a = 0

(3) 1 sq. unit (4) 2 sq. unit

77. If [t] stands for the integral part of t, then the value of

x

1/3

7 4

72. If ∫x 1 dx k ( x 4 1)4/3 (4 x 4 3) c , then 5 /12

∫ [tan x ] dx equals

0

1 1

(1) (2) (1) (2)

112 28 2

3 1

(3) (4) (3) (4) 2

112 56 4

Space for Rough Work

13/16

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

x

78. The function F ( x ) attains in two points (0, 0) and (2, 0) and encloses an area

∫ (4 sin t 3 cos t )dt

/6

3

of square units with the axes. Then the value of

4

⎡ 3 ⎤

least value on ⎢ , ⎥ at x equals

⎣4 4 ⎦ 2

∫ xf ( x ) dx, equals to

0

(1) (2)

3 2

3 3

(1) (2)

3 2 4

(3) (4)

4 4

3

79. The area bounded by the curve y = 2x – x2 and the (3) (4) 1

straight line y = –x is 4

7 1 1 1

(1) 3 (2) 83. If Sn ..... , then the

2 1 n 2 2n n n2

(3) (4) 4 n

2

(1) loge2

80. The area bounded by the curve y2 = 4a(a – |x – a|),

a > 0, is (2) 2 + 2loge2

(3) 2 + loge2

8a 2 16a 2

(1) (2)

3 3 (4) 2loge2

84. The number of critical points for the function

19a 2 13a 2

(3) (4)

3 3 ⎛1 ⎞ 2

f ( x ) ⎜ sin ⎟ tan3 x (sin 1)tan x ,

⎝3 ⎠ 8

81. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2,

y

1 1 where < < 2, x 2n 1 , where n is a integer, is

and x is loge2 – p, then p equals to 2

x 2

(1) 4

5 5

(1) (2) (2) 2

24 24

(3) 1

7 7

(3) (4)

24 24 (4) 0

Space for Rough Work

14/16

Test - 6 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

2

⎛ 2 cos x ⎞ attains maximum value 2 at x = 1.

85. For x(0, ), the least value of f ( x ) ⎜ ⎟

⎝ sin x ⎠ and

is Statement-2 : If f x does not exist at a point x0

(1) 2 but f x exists in a neighbourhood of x 0 and

changes its sign at x0, then x0 may be a point of

(2) 3 local extremum for f(x).

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

(4) Statement-1

3

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

SECTION - II Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

Assertion – Reason Type Questions

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion-

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Reason type questions. Each of these questions

contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and 88. Statement-1 : The function

Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has

⎧ 2⎛ 1⎞

four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct ⎪2 x ⎜ 2 sin ⎟ , x 0

answer. You have to select the correct choice. f (x) ⎨ ⎝ x ⎠

⎪2, x 0

⎩

86. Statement-1 : The function f(x) = x3 + bx2 + cx + d,

where 0 b2 < 3c, is strictly increasing in (–, ). has local maximum at x = 0.

and

and

Statement-2 : If f(x) is a real valued function such

Statement-2 : If f is continuous on [a, b], that f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) then

differentiable in (a, b) and f(x) > 0 x (a, b),

2

then f is strictly increasing in (a, b).

∫ f x f x dx 4

2

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

15/16

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 6 (Paper-I)

x 2

then ⎡ x x x⎤

function then ∫ ⎢⎣ 4 sin 4 cos 4 cos 2 ⎥⎦ dx 0

f(0) = 2 0

and and

⎛ ⎛ x 1⎞ ⎞ 20

⎜ x 1 ⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎟ dx e f x c

x x

∫e

x x

Statement-2 :

⎝ ⎝ x ⎠⎠ Statement-2 :

10

∫ 2 sin cos dx 30

2 2

then f(1) = 2.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1

Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1 Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

16/16

Test Booklet Code A

Test No. 5

Paper I

AKASH TE

A ST

IA

D

SE

IN

for

RI

ALL

ES

Test - 5 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

TEST - 5 (Paper-I)

ANSWERS

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

1. (4) 31. (2) 61. (1)

2. (3) 32. (4) 62. (4)

3. (1) 33. (2) 63. (3)

4. (1) 34. (2) 64. (4)

5. (2) 35. (1) 65. (3)

6. (2) 36. (3) 66. (2)

7. (3) 37. (4) 67. (1)

8. (3) 38. (4) 68. (4)

9. (4) 39. (1) 69. (2)

10. (2) 40. (4) 70. (1)

11. (3) 41. (2) 71. (2)

12. (2) 42. (3) 72. (1)

13. (2) 43. (2) 73. (4)

14. (1) 44. (1) 74. (2)

15. (1) 45. (4) 75. (2)

16. (2) 46. (2) 76. (1)

17. (1) 47. (4) 77. (4)

18. (2) 48. (3) 78. (3)

19. (2) 49. (3) 79. (3)

20. (3) 50. (3) 80. (2)

21. (4) 51. (4) 81. (3)

22. (3) 52. (3) 82. (4)

23. (3) 53. (2) 83. (2)

24. (2) 54. (1) 84. (3)

25. (2) 55. (4) 85. (1)

26. (1) 56. (3) 86. (2)

27. (1) 57. (1) 87. (2)

28. (1) 58. (1) 88. (4)

29. (3) 59. (2) 89. (3)

30. (1) 60. (1) 90. (3)

1/7

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