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1. If slag is used in lieu of gravel, crushed stone, the material shall have a density of not 14. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean? the soil is clayey
less than ______________ 1,120 kg/m3
15. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is
2. A materials is considered unsuitable if the plastic limit with be greater than 55 already oven – dried? if the sample reaches its constant weight

3. A material which has a natural density of 800 kg/m3 is considered Unsuitable 16. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained? 110 ± 5°C
17. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable? because it
4. Item number for water? Item 714 can affect its weight

5. Fineness modulus is the summation of percent. Retained from sieve (No.4- 18. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture
100)X100 content? HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of an
air – dried sample while
6. What kind of test is allowed pursuant to MC No. 138-A for small quantity of materials NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of the original
intended for noncritical structures? sample from thefield.
a. Laboratory test c. frequency test
b. Simplified test d. consolidation test 19. What are the other terms for sieve analysis? Grading Test, Particle Size
Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis
7. What is the nominal maximum size of course aggregate in filling of the
20. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you
6”x 6” x 21” beam metal for the preparation sample specimen.
going to pursue your schedule? Why? No, because the moisture content is high
a. 2” c. 3”
and can affect the result
b. 2.5” d. 1”
21. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix
8. What test used to determine the resistance to determination or displacement due to
can be done by what test? Extraction Test
an impose/load or a repeated loading?
a. Stability c. flexibility
b. Durability d. workability 22. Range of sand size. 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø

9. Resistance to disintegration or deterioration due to the action of water, traffic and the 23. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids void ratio
changing climate.
a. Workability c. flexibility 24. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids moisture content
b. Durability d. stability
25. Significance of grading test are, except
10. A roadbed at the form line is found below the established grade filling of approved
granular materials to grade lifts of _____ , or less is allowed. Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 potential cohesion of soil

26. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard No. 40
11. An aggregate that absorbs water and light in weight is a _____ kind of minerals.
a. Hydrophobic b. hydrophilic c. acrylic d. filler
27. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except A-1, A-2,
A-3, A-4
12. _____ is the type of test to determine the silt and clay content of a soil.
a. Liquid limit b. plastic c. moisture content d. hydrometer test
28. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material Group
13. A free haul distance of an excavated material is _________m.
a. 400 b. 500 c. 600 d. 800
29. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made 45. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with
in accordance with AASHTO T 191 chemicals? distilled water

30. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non – 46. What is specific gravity? It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in
available, the use _____ allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended soils (or defined as the ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at
with crushed stones or gravel. a stated temperature)
40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
47. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be
31. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B 1 ½ inch soaked in water? 15 to 19 hours

32. Soil stabilizing agent Lime – for silty and clayey soil ; Cement – for sandy 48. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition? It is
soil determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the molded
shape of fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a
33. Peat and muck soils are considered as: highly organic soils surface dry condition

34. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course construction? 49. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates? Fine aggregate = grading,
to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse aggregate = grading,
the construction method. specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight an d abrasion Note:
Soundness test is also performed as per request
35. A good subgrade soil should have the following: low liquid limit and low plastic
limit 50. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what? depth
of soil layer
36. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a
particular purpose. Stabilization 51. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation.
If you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper
37. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____ weak subgrade method that you would recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the
subbase course? Geotextiles
38. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____ very stable
52. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
39. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___ Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass,
normal roots and sewage
Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
40. What are the three (3) major groups of soil? granular soil, fine grained soil, Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%
organic soil Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%
Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3
41. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the engineer
True or false?
53. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____ 2.75
42. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample? air dry the sample
under the heat of the sun 54. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of
good drainage and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as
43. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index
should be used? oven – dry the sample @ 60°C of zero indicates good subgrade material

44. What is particle size analysis? It is the determination of particle size 55. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least 100% modified
distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a combined analysis proctor
56. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% 74. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be
higher than the optimum moisture content? sensitive up to 0.1g
dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact
75. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from
57. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content? the oven, it will placed inside a dessicator
beam balance, oven, moisture can, extruder
76. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay constant
58. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements weight/mass 4 hrs
except grading. What will you recommend? reprocess the materials by blending
77. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been
59. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties? organic removed from the oven within 1 hour

60. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve? Colloids 78. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature;
the drying time depends on the kind of soil and size of sample. A 25-gram sample of
61. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and sandy material will be dried in about 2 hours
containing silt – clay materials soil aggregates
79. A test to determine the moisture content of soil calcium tri – chloride
62. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics? Dr. Karl Terzhagi
80. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is low
63. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce
good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay? Mechanic Stabilization 81. Sampling of soil aggregates in a big stockpile shall be done by:
a. Taking sample from the bottom, middle and top of the stockpile
64. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or b. Shovelling off the surface at the bottom of the stockpile and taking full
liquid and hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the sample thereat
rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil Calcium chloride or rock salt c. Shovelling off the surface at the middle of the stockpile and taking full
sample thereat
65. When do clay and granular soils become unstable? Clay soil becomes unstable if d. None of the above
moisture content increases. Granular material becomes unstable if it has 82. What is the minimum test requirement for riprap boulders
dried a. Stone size and specific gravity
b. Stone size or weight test and inspection report on assessment on
66. Coarse aggregates can be taken from crushed rock, slags and river gravel stone soundness
c. Stone size or weight test and abrasion test
67. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic impurities d. None
Colormatic Test
68. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates fineness modulus 83. The approval of preliminary samples from the same source shall
a. Be used as basis for acceptance of all materials from the source
69. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates free water b. Not be considered as guarantee of acceptance of all materials from
the source
70. What do you mean by SSD? Saturated Surface Dry c. Be used as basis for payment of the materials
d. Be used as basis for incorporation of the materials into the work
71. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity
consistency 84. As materials engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregate
base course materials?
72. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is objectionable a. As construction progresses
b. Once the source is identified
73. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to failure c. Once the materials is delivered and stockpiled
bearing capacity d. After the materials was incorporated into the work
85. The Standard Penetration Test is an in-situ test that measures 92. Consolidation test is usually performed on __________ samples.
a. Shear resistance a. Disturbed
b. Compressive strength b. Undisturbed
c. Depth of soil layer c. Consolidated
d. Consistency of soil d. Both a and b
86. The selection by a standard method of a representative portion of materials for the 93. Materials smaller than 0.001mm
purpose of ascertaining its characteristic is called: a. Clay
a. Batching b. Colloids
b. Sampling c. Silt
c. Quarrying d. Sand
d. Quartering
94. Fine grained soil smaller than 0.002mm
87. Which of the following fundamental duties is necessary for the materials engineer to a. Silt
be effective in the control of materials quality? b. Clay
a. He must be fully conversant with the soils and materials report to fully c. Colloids
understand the objectives of the design d. Sand
b. He must inspect the soils and materials proposed for use 95. In determining the water content of soil the soils is dried in the oven to a constant
c. He must assess the test results obtained speedily in order that the materials weight/mass at a temperature of:
are approved or at any remedial measure necessary to correct defective a. 110°C ± 5°C
materials taken without delay. b. 95°C ± 10°C
d. All of the above c. 105°C ± 5°C
d. 100°C ± 5°C
88. The apparent omission of a detailed description or definition concerning the quality of
materials from the plans and specification shall be regarded to mean that:
a. Any materials can be used
b. Materials of first class quality are to be used
c. Materials that are recommended by the contractor can be used
d. None of the above

89. Who would take samples of materials and bring them to the laboratory for testing?
a. DPWH materials engineer
b. Contractor’s materials engineer
c. Contractor’s project engineer
d. DPWH project engineer

90. Which of the following is authorized to test materials for use in DPWH projects?
a. Any DPWH accredited private testing laboratory
b. Any testing laboratory of local government unit with prior clearance from
DPWH implementing office
c. Any DPWH accredited private testing laboratory, with prior clearance from
DPWH implementing office
d. All of the above.
91. When taking three or more samples of aggregates to be combined for one materials
a. The sample must be packed in separate sample bags
b. The sample must be obtained from different lots
c. The sample should be of approximately equal size
d. None of the above
FDT / MDR 107. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and gradation.
96. What is the most common control test for embankment in order to have determined
the adequacy of degree of compaction? 108. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is air – dried
a. Field density test condition
b. maximum dry density
c. soil exploration 109. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place Sand cone method
d. soil survey
110. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing sieve No. 10 retained No.
97. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201? by Field 200
Density Test
111. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates
98. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its that compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs
result be used in field density test? Compaction Test or Moisture Density additional compaction
Relation Test
112. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff statement is
99. What is the significance of field density test? to determine the degree of true?
compaction of soil. It is also a control test in embankment construction to granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum density at
ensure adequate compaction. low optimum moisture content
clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
100. What compaction rammer shall be used if the specs given for Moisture – Density granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC
Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180? 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop none of the above

101. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size? Method A & B – use 113. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of water as
sample passing No. 4 ; Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch lubricant? Moisture – Density relation test

102. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method? T – 99 114. A soil compacted dry will reach a certain dry density. If compacted again with same
uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg compacted effort but this time with water in the soil, the dry density will be higher
(10lbs) rammer with an 18” drop. because:
a. The water lubricates the grains and allow them to slide in a denser structure
103. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density b. Air is forced out of soil
relation test or compaction test? Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum c. More space is left for the soil solids
moisture content (OMC) d. All of the above
115. The moisture density curve is different for each soil. Which of the following
104. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)? Any statements is/are true?
clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No. a. Granular, well graded soils generally have fairly high maximum densities at
200 sieve low optimum moisture content (OMC)
b. Clay soils have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soils
105. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone? ½ inch (12.7 c. Granular, well graded soils have higher densities than uniform soils at OMC
mm) d. All of the above
106. What are the apparatus used in FDT? sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide 116. Compaction rammer used for moisture density relation test on AASHTO T-180
plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing scale, oven with a. 2.5kgs (5.5lbs) rammer with 305mm (12”) drop
temperature control, chisel or digging tool, plastic bags and labeling b. 4.5kgs (10lbs) rammer with 305mm (12”) drop
materials (tag name) c. 2.5kgs (5.5lbs) rammer with 457mm (18”) drop
d. 4.54kgs (10lbs) rammer with 305mm (18”) drop
117. In calibration of sand used for Field Density Test, what sieve the sand passes UNITWT/MASS/LL PL/ATTERBERG
a. Passing #10 sieve, retained sieve # 200 121. In unit weight/mass determination of aggregates, the tamping rod shall be, steel with
b. Passing #60 sieve, retained sieve # 100 ______ mm diameter and __________mm long.
c. Passing #30 sieve, retained sieve # 60 a. 20mm dia, 600mm long c. 16mm dia, 700mm long
d. Passing #30 sieve, retained sieve # 200 b. 16mm dia, 600mm long d. 20mm dia, 700mm long
118. Laboratory Compaction Test is also known as:
a. Moisture Density Relation Test 122. In rodded unit weight determination, the measure shall be filled 1/3 and tamped
b. Tri axial test __________ times evenly.
c. Consolidation test a. 25 c. 35
d. Field compaction test b. 30 d. 40

119. The method in determining the density of soil in placed (FDT) is 123. In loose unit weight determination, the filling the volumetric measure to overflowing,
a. Sand cone method the aggregate from the height of about_______________ mm from the top of
b. Compaction method measure shall be discharge.
c. Water-cone method a. 20 mm c. 50 mm
d. None of the above b. 15 mm d. 25 mm

120. In field density test on embankment, result of dry density of soil was 1,650 kg/m3, 124. In determination of liquid limit & plastic limit, the materials shall pass the sieve # 40
laboratory compaction maximum dry density was 1,725 kg/m3 and optimum moisture
content was 12%. What is the degree of compaction? 125. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI? Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
a. 85%
b. 95% 126. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil? high degree of compressibility
c. 96%
d. 100% 127. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
No. 40 (0.425 mm)

128. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking
or crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm). Plastic Limit

129. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows. Liquid

130. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test? liquid limit device with
grooving tool

131. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test? glass plate

132. Significance of plasticity index are, except

indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material,
measures the shearing resistance of soil

133. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state. Liquidity Index

134. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except

shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index
135. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except h. None of the above
measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil, 152. The liquid limit test is expressed as moisture content corresponding to:
fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg limits a. 15 blows
b. 25 blows
136. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds c. 35 blows
80% and 55% d. All of the above

137. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is 800 kg/cu.m or lower 153. If liquid limit is 59 and plastic limit is 51, what is the plasticity index?
a. 8
138. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with AASHTO T 90 b. 10
c. 55
139. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with AASHTO T 89 d. 110

140. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state. LIQUID LIMIT

141. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state. PLASTIC SOUNDNESS TEST
154. Which of the following solution used in the conduct of soundness test?
142. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid. SHRINKAGE LIMIT a. Sodium Chloride c. Sodium Sulfate
b. Hydro Chloride d. Salicylic Acid
143. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base c.
through a height of _____? 10 mm 155. It is a test to determine the resistance of aggregates to disintegration. It also
evaluates or furnishes information on weathering actions.
144. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated? 2 rps a. Penetration Test c. Abrasion Test
b. CBR Test d. Soundness Test
145. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break? 3.2 mm
(1/8”) 156. In soundness test for coarse aggregates the weighted loss shall not exceed ________
mass percent.
146. Plasticity index is an indication of percent clay content a. 12 c. 10
b. 11 d. 9
147. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to
determine the liquid limit of the soil. Flow curve 157. In soundness test for fine aggregates, the weighted loss shall not exceed
_________mass percent.
148. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be a. 9% c. 8%
performed? Liquid limit test b. 10% d. 7%
149. Liquid limit is usually greater than plastic limit
150. When the plasticity index of a soil is zero, it means that: 158. In the conduct of sodium sulfate soundness test on aggts. How many cycles shall be
a. The soil is non plastic conducted?
b. The plastic limit is equal to liquid limit a. 4 c. 6
c. The plastic limit is greater than the liquid limit b. 5 d. 7
d. The soil is too plastic
159. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated
151. It is defined as the water content by which soils begin to crumble when rolled into solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate. Soundness test
3.2mm(0.125) diameter
e. Liquid limit
f. Plastic limit
g. Plasticity index
171. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed
160. The test which evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregates. It gives an is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs? Yes,
indication as determine to resistance to impact and wear. because the specs is 50% maximum
a. Load test c. Sp. gravity
b. Abrasion test d. Absorption 172. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455 grams
161. What is the approximate diameter of cast-iron spheres or steel spheres used in the
Abrasive machine? 173. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate,
a. 20 mm dia. c. 46.8 mm dia. grading A with 12 as number of spheres? 5,000 grams ± 25 grams
b. 30 mm dia. d. 10 mm dia.
174. What is significance of abrasion test? It evaluates the structural strength of
162. In abrasion test for coarse aggregates, the percent wear shall not exceed coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of quality as determined by
__________. resistance to impact and wear. It also determines whether the aggregates
a. 30% c. 35% will have degradation during traffic or rolling.
b. 25% d. 40%
175. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test? No. 12 (1.70 mm)
163. What is the machine used for abrasion test? Los Angeles Abrasion Machine

164. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed 176. What is the most commonly accepted measure of the hardness of aggregates?
is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs? Yes, a. Soundness
because the specs is 50% maximum b. Los Angeles Abrasion Test
c. Petro Graphic Test
165. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, d. Fractured face Test
a soil sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was
taken, except
specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction,
relative density

166. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in
accordance with AASHTO T 96

167. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or steel

GRADING A – 12 spheres
GRADING B – 11 spheres
GRADING C – 8 spheres
GRADING D – 6 spheres

168. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____ abrasion loss

169. What is the formula for percentage of wear?

Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
original wt.

170. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the
mass percent of wear? 30 – 33 rpm

1. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days
1. In Marshall Stability test, the mold specimen shall be tested within ____ seconds from before testing? Four (4)
time it is taken from the water tank.
a. 40 b. 30 c. 50 d. 60 1. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by AASHTO
2. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall T 193
Stability Method for heavy traffic is ___ 1800 lbs 2. Which of the following items does not need CBR?
subbase materials
3. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance surfacing materials
that a specimen will develop at _____ 60° base course materials
181. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the specimen
4. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy 25mm
traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method? 75 blows 182. Sample for CBR test is soaked for __ hours before subjecting it to penetration test
a. 24
177. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability. b. 48
decrease c. 72
178. What test determines the optimum asphalt content of mix for asphalt concrete? d. 96
a. Marshall Stability Test 183. The purpose of conducting CBR test on fill materials for embankment is to check:
b. Immersion Compression test a. Bearing capacity of subgrade materials
c. Flow test b. Permeability of the compacted subgrade materials
d. Penetration test c. Swelling characteristic of the subgrade materials
179. What determines the resistance to deformation of a compacted asphalt concrete mix? d. All of the above
a. Hardness test
b. Marshall stability test 184. The California Bearing Ratio (CBR) is generally selected at ___ penetration.
c. Ductility test a. 1.30mm (0.01”)
d. Durability test b. 2.54mm (0.10”)
180. ________ is the most commonly used method used in the design and evaluation of c. 5.08mm (0.21”)
bituminous concrete mixes d. 25.4mm (1.0”)
a. Marshall stability method
b. Design of bituminous mix
c. Design of concrete mix
d. All of the above
ITEM 104 - EMBANKMENT b. Decrease soil permeability
c. Increase shear strength and soil stability
5. In embankment construction, field density test shall be conducted as required for d. None of the above
every ______.?
e. 500 m2 b. 330 m2 c. 100 lin.m. d. one lot 188. What is the minimum compaction requirement for an embankment?
a. 80%
6. Selected borrow shall have a liquid limit of not more than ________. b. 90%
f. 10 b. 12 c. 6 d. 9 c. 95%
d. 100%
7. Selected borrow shall have a liquid limit of not more than ___________.
g. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 80
8. Unsuitable materials shall have a liquid limit exceeding ___.
h. 50 b. 60 c. 80 d. 90 1. What is the approximate area for density control strips? 335 sq. m

9. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings 30% 2. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on
each course of material to be compacted. Control strips
10. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings 6% 3.

11. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer 95%

12. The minimum compaction trial of embankment 10 m wide by 50 m long

13. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104?
All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not more than 15
mass % will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)

14. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item
104)? 3 grading tests

15. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose
measurement? 200 mm loose measurement

16. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control
measures and also to improve the stability of the slope. Berm

17. An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer. 150 mm

185. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104? ½ of the thickness

186. Which of the following is considered suitable as embankment materials?

a. Highly organic materials
b. Soils with natural water content exceeding 100%
c. Soils that can be properly compacted
d. None of the above
187. The improper compaction of an embankment materials will
a. Minimize compressibility
ITEM 200 – AGGREGATE SUBBASE COURSE & ITEM 201 – AGGREGATE BASE 22. The minimum CBR required for Item 200 25%
23. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course
4. The materials to be used for item 200 and 201, the fraction passing sieve 200 shall 100%
not exceed 2/3 of the fraction passing ______. 40
24. What is the minimum CBR value required for sub base materials obtained at the
5. The coarse portion retained on sieve 2.0mm (10) shall have a mass percent wear of maximum dry density determined by AASHTO T180 Method D?
not exceeding _____. 50 a. 25
b. 50
6. The maximum nominal size for materials to be used for item 200 and 201 is _____.2 c. 75
d. 80
7. The CBR value of materials used for item 200 shall not be less than ______.30
25. Materials suitable for embankment shall have a plasticity index of not more than
8. The CBR value of materials used for item 201 shall not be less than ______.80 a. 12
b. 10
9. In the scarcity of materials for base course the use of ____weathered lime stone shall c. 8
be blended with ____ crushed stone or gravel.40% d. 6

10. The area of a trial section for item 200, 201 and 104 shall be _____.500m2 26. What us the maximum PI (Plasticity Index) of Sub Base Course (Item 200)
a. 4-9
11. The liquid limit of an item 200 shall not greater than ________. b. 12
a. 35 b. 40 c. 25 d. 9 c. 4-7
d. 3-10
12. The plastic limit of item 201 materials shall not greater than _______.
a. 6 b. 12 c. 10 d. 8 27. The tolerance of thickness layer for Sub base Course
a. ±10mm
13. The liquid limit of an item 201 materials shall be greater than ________. b. ±20mm
a. 20 b. 30 c. 35 d. 25 c. ±15mm
d. ±25mm
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to
be used as Item 200 if finer than the required materials? blend Item 200 with 28. The tolerance of thickness layer for base Course
coarser materials a. ±10mm
b. ±20mm
15. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201? 80% maximum c. ±15mm
d. ±25mm
16. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201. ± 10 mm
29. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
17. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A 2” CBR, abrasion, GPCD

18. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200 12% 30. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201? maximum of 25%
and maximum of 6% respectively
19. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200 35%
31. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201? 100%
20. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200 2”
32. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub –
21. The required abrasion loss for Item 200 50% base shall spread and compacted in ____ two or more layers
33. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number ITEM 202 – CRUSHED AGGREGATE BASE COURSE
of CBR test is _____ four (4)
34. For a crushed aggregates base course, the course aggregates shall have a mass %
189. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road? base or subbase course near not exceeding 45%.

190. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and 35. A CBR value of crushed aggregates base course shall not less than 80%.
subgrade. base course
36. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____ 80%
191. The minimum CBR for base course should be
a. 60 37. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202 45%
b. 70
c. 80 38. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item
d. 90 202 50%

192. The minimum CBR for base course should be 39. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202 80%
e. 60
f. 70 40. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A 1 ½ inch
g. 80
h. 90 41. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B 1 inch

42. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base
193. The frequency of sampling and testing for compacting of sub base materials is: course? 0–12%
a. 1 per 1500m3
c. 1 per 500m3
d. 1 per 75m3 43. In lime stabilized road mix, the strength requirement for CBR is 100%.

194. Minimum required % compaction of Sub base course (Item 200) 44. In lime stabilized road mix, the degree of compaction is 100% of max dry density.
a. 95%
b. 98% 45. The lime stabilized base course shall have a 5 days curing period.
c. 97%
d. 100%
46. The required plasticity index for Item 203 4% to 10%
195. The purpose of trial section before subbase/base construction started is:
47. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203 50%
a. To check the suitability of the materials
b. To check the efficiency of the equipment used
48. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B 2”
c. To check construction method
d. All of the above

2. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m3, with an
49. An aggregates surface course, the plasticity index ranges from 4 to 9 , this materials actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m 3?
used utilize for road shoulders. 101.86%

50. If crushed aggregates is use the aggregates w/ one fractured face shall not less than 3. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and
50% . an oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams? 17.58%

51. The course aggregates of aggregate surface course shall not have a percent wear of 4. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of
not more than 45. compaction for this kind of soil? 95% degree of compaction

52. The liquid limit of an aggregate surface course shall not exceed 30. 5. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm
compacted depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve
53. The maximum nominal size for item 300 aggregate surface course is 1. analysis? 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis

54. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300. 1 inch 6. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of
8,250 cu.m? Six (6) compaction tests
55. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300. 35%
197. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on
56. Required plasticity index range on Item 300. 4% to 9% each side of the pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses with a
combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase is 125 mm, the
ITEM 303 – BITUMINOUS SEAL COAT spreading and compaction of the base and subbase courses shall be carried out in
_____? three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m
57. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface 198. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of
at the rate of approximately _____? 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2 embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer?
fifteen (15)

58. If crushed slag is use for bituminous surface treatment, it shall have a density of not
less than 960 kg/m3


59. A joint mortar for concrete pipes shall be 1 part by volume of cement to 2 parts of
sand. 1:2

60. If a class of bedding for conduit not specified the depth shall not be less than 10%
of the total depth.