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CHAPTER I
GENERAL CONSIDERATION

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. What is legal medicine?


A. It is a branch of medicine which deals with the application of medical
knowledge to the purposes of law and in the administration of
justice.
B. It concerns with the application of medical science to elucidate legal
problems.
C. It denotes knowledge of law in relation to the practice of medicine.
D. None of the above

2. Who is the Father of Forensic Medicine?


A. Paulus Zacchias
B. Justinian
C. Antistius
D. Julius Caesar

3. He is someone who specializes or is involved primarily with medico-legal duties.


What is he called?
A. Physician
B. Lawyer
C. Health Officer
D. Medical jurist

4. Who are authorized by law (PD 856) to perform autopsies?


A. Health officers, medical officers of law enforcement agencies
B. Nurse
C. Police
D. Lawyers
E.
5. What does a physician have to possess to be involved in medico-legal duties?
A. Sufficient knowledge of pathology, surgery, gynecology, toxicology,
other branches of medicine
B. Knowledge about all the laws of the Philippines
C. A and B
D. None of the above
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6. Which of the following is the correct distinction between an ordinary physician


and a medical jurist?
A. A physician sees on the point of treatment, while a medical jurist
sees on the point of view of cause
B. A physician ordinarily examines to testify in court, while a medical
jurist examines to arrive at a diagnosis
C. None of the mentioned
D. Both A and B

7. What are the instances where legal medicine can be applied in civil law?
A. Determination and termination of civil personality
B. Crime against chastitiy
C. Criminal liability
D. All of the above

8. Who was the earliest recorded medico-legal expert?


A. Imhotep
B. Julus Caesar
C. Justinian
D. Antistius

9. What provisions in criminal law can legal medicine be applied?


A. Circumstances affecting chastity
B. Circumstances affecting civil personality
C. Circumstances affecting nationality
D. None of the above

10. The following are special laws which have an application of legal medicine,
except one. Which is it?
A. Dangerous Drug Act
B. Taxation
C. Insurance Law
D. Code of Sanitation

11. Who was the first police surgeon or forensic pathologist?


A. Antistius
B. Paulus Zacchias
C. Numa Pompilius
D. Imhotep
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12. What is the title of the 5-volume book dealing with inquest, criminal, abortion,
etc.?
A. Instructions to Coroner
B. Medico Academia
C. Medico Titulares
D. None of the above

13. A book (one of the earliest ones) which dealt on virginity and defloration was
published in Paris in 1858. Who is the author of this book?
A. Justinian
B. Antistius
C. Severin Pineau
D. None of the above

14. A medico titulares is in charge of what affairs during the Spanish regime in the
Philippines?
A. Child birth
B. Public Consultations
C. Public Sanitation and medico-legal aid in the administration of justice
D. All of the above

15. What is the title of the first medical textbook printed in the Philippines?
A. Manual De Medicina Domestica
B. Traite Des Poision
C. Questiones Medico Legales
D. None of the above

16. Where was the first medico-legal laboratory established in the Philippines?
A. Manila City
B. Quezon City
C. Makati City
D. Marikina City

17. An autopsy, as stated in Presidential Decree 856 Sec. 95, shall be performed
in the following cases:
A. Whenever required by special laws
B. Upon written request of police authorities
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
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18. The role of a Cirujano Ministrante in remote places was essential in the early
times. What is their function when services of registered physicians was not
available?
A. They assist during child birth
B. They perform medico-legal works
C. They assist in community sanitation
D. None of the above.

19. What is autoptic or real evidence?


A. This is an evidence made known or addressed to the senses of the
court.
B. This is an evidence given as a testimony before the court
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

20. When does an evidence become a medical evidence?


A. When the means employed to prove a fact is medical in nature
B. When evidences like medical certificates are brought to court
C. When experimental evidence is shown
D. When the means employed is legal in nature

21. The following are limitations to the presentation of autoptic evidence except
one, which is it?
A. Indecency and Impropriety
B. Physical evidence
C. Repulsive objects
D. Objects which are offensive to sensibilities

22. What is one of the exceptions to the non-admissibility of hearsay evidence?


A. Dying declaration
B. Audio recording
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

23. A medical documentary evidence may be in the form of the following except
one, which is it?
A. Medical certificate
B. Medical expert opinion
C. Medical records
D. Deposition
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24. The following are the different types of physical evidence except one. Which is
it?
A. Corpus delicti evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Associative evidence
D. Tracing evidence

25. It is a method of preserving evidence wherein the person or thing to be


preserved is put into words. What is it?
A. Documentary
B. Testimonial
C. Physical
D. Description

26. A kind of evidence which proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any
inference or presumption. What is it?
A. Circumstantial
B. Documentary
C. Direct
D. Indirect

27. A physician on account of his training and experience can give his opinion on
a set of medical facts. True, false, or it depends?
A. False
B. It depends
C. True
D. None of the above

28. These are physical evidences which link a suspect to the crime. What are these
called?
A. Corpus delicti evidence
B. Tracing evidence
C. Real evidence
D. Associative evidence

29. What is done in the manikin method of preserving evidence?


A. There’s a miniature model of a scene or of a human body indicating
marks of the various aspects of the things to be preserved.
B. Recall of a person of which perceived something relevant for proper
adjudication of a case in court
C. This is putting into words the person or thing to be preserved.
D. None of the above
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30. The following are the instances where circumstantial evidence is sufficient to
produce conviction, except one. Which is it?
A. Where there is more than one circumstance
B. When there is exists no circumstance
C. When the fact from which the inferences are derived are proven
D. When the combination of all circumstances is such as to produce a
conviction beyond reasonable doubt

Prepared by

MA. DONNA ERIKA T. NAVARRO


LI.B -3 Student
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CHAPTER II
DECEPTION DETECTION

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.


A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Control questions
D. Peak-of-tension test

2. Questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of
similar nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions
under investigation.
A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Peak-of-tension test
D. Control questions

3. This test is applied when the response to relevant and control questions are
similar in degree and consistency and in a way that the examiner cannot
determine whether the subject is telling the truth or not.
A. Peak-of-tension test
B. Guilt complex test
C. Silent answer test
D. Control question

4. The alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the subject


manifests a heightened of suggestibility while awareness is maintained.
A. Scientific interrogation
B. Hypnosis
C. Confession
D. By observation

5. Good criminal investigator must be a keen observer and a good psychologist.


A. Hypnosis
B. Scientific interrogation
C. Confession
D. By observation
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6. To learn if there are any other reasons for the subject's responding to a
relevant question, other than the knowledge of the crime.
A. Supplementary tests
B. Post-test interrogation
C. Actual interrogation and recording
D. Pre-test interview

7. Subject may be given this test if he is not yet informed of the details of the
offense for which he is being interrogated by the investigator, or by other
persons or from other sources like the print media.
A. Guilt complex test
B. Silent answer test
C. Post-test interrogation
D. Peak-of-tension test

8. Feeblemindedness, as in idiots, imbeciles and morons


A. Physiological abnormalities
B. Unresponsiveness in a living or guilty subject
C. Nervousness or extreme emotional tension experienced
D. Mental abnormalities

9. Excessively high or excessively low blood pressure


A. Nervousness or extreme emotional tension experienced
B. Mental abnormalities
C. Unresponsiveness in a living or guilty subject
D. Physiological abnormalities

10. Psychosis or insanities, as in manic-depressives, paranoids, schizophrenics,


paretics, etc.
A. Physiological abnormalities
B. Unresponsiveness in a living or guilty subject
C. Nervousness or extreme emotional tension experienced
D. Mental abnormalities

11. Apparent inability to consciously control response by means of certain mental


sets of attitudes.
A. Mental abnormalities
B. Nervousness or extreme emotional tension experienced
C. Unresponsiveness in a living or guilty subject
D. Physiological abnormalities
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12. Method of deception detection is practically the same as that of administration


of truth serum. The only difference is the drug used.
A. Intoxication with alcohol
B. Administration of Truth Serum
C. Use of a Lie Detector or Polygraph
D. Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis

13. When a person speaks, there are audible voice frequencies, and superimposed
on these are the inaudible frequency modulations which are products of
minute oscillation of the muscles of the voice mechanism.
A. Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluator (PSE)
B. Use of a Lie Detector or Polygraph
C. Use of the Word Association Test
D. Administration of Truth Serum

14. A list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who is
instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
A. Use of a Lie Detector or Polygraph
B. Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluator (PSE)
C. Use of the Word Association Test
D. Administration of Truth Serum

15. Apparent stimulation effect of alcohol is really the result of the control
mechanism of the brain, so alcohol, like truth serum, and narcoanalytic drugs
"inhibit the inhibitor".
A. Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis
B. Administration of Truth Serum
C. Intoxication with alcohol
D. Use of the Word Association Test

16. If the face is flushed, it may indicate anger, embarrassment or shame.


A. Fidgeting
B. Sweating
C. "Peculiar feeling inside"
D. Color change

17. The subject may assert that it is not possible for him to do "anything like
that" inasmuch as he is a religious man and that he has a spotless record.
A. "Peculiar feeling inside"
B. "Spotless past record"
C. Sweating
D. Fidgeting
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18. Accompanied with a flushed face indicate anger, embarrassment or extreme


nervousness.
A. Dryness of the mouth
B. Fidgeting
C. Sweating
D. "Peculiar feeling inside"

19. The subject will resort to the use of "not that I remember" expression when
answering to be evasive or to avoid committing something prejudicial to him.
A. Excessive activity of the Adam's apple
B. "Aror that I remember" expression
C. Swearing to the truthfulness of his assertion
D. Inability to look at the investigator "straight in the eye"

20. Nervous tension causes reflex inhibition of salivary secretion and


consequently dryness of the mouth.
A. Excessive activity of the Adam's apple
B. Swearing to the truthfulness of his assertion
C. Sweating
D. Dryness of the mouth

21. The subject does not like to look at the investigator for fear that his guilt may
be seen in his eyes.
A. "Aror that I remember" expression
B. Inability to look at the investigator "straight in the eye"
C. Swearing to the truthfulness of his assertion
D. "Peculiar feeling inside"

22. Persons who commit crime in an impulsive manner usually on account of their
aggressive behavior.
A. Rational offenders
B. Passive inadequate offenders
C. Irrational offenders
D. Active aggressive offenders

23. These are persons who commit crimes in the heat of passion, anger, or
revenge, and also who commit offenses of accidental nature.
A. Professional offenders
B. Emotional offenders
C. Irrational offenders
D. Rational offenders
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24. Persons who commit crimes because of inducement, promise or reward.


A. Irrational offenders
B. Active aggressive offenders
C. Professional offenders
D. Passive inadequate offenders

25. Highly skilled and able to perform criminal acts with the least chance of being
detected.
A. Ordinary offenders
B. Irrational offenders
C. Passive inadequate offenders
D. Professional offenders

26. Those who commit crime with motive or intention and with full possession of
their mental faculties.
A. Irrational offenders
B. Rational offenders
C. Professional offenders
D. Passive inadequate offenders

27. Interrogator must create a mood that is conducive to confession.


A. Bluff on split-pair technique
B. Mutt and Jeff technique
C. Stern approach
D. Emotional appeal

28. Where there are two or more persons who allegedly participated in the
commission of a crime.
A. Bluff on split-pair technique
B. Mutt and Jeff technique
C. Emotional appeal
D. Stern approach

29. The questioning of a person suspected of having committed an offense or of


persons who are reluctant to make a full disclosure of information in his
possession which is pertinent to the investigation.
A. Guilt complex test
B. Peak-of-tension test
C. Control Question
D. Interrogation
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30. A person whose guilt is considered on reasonable ground to be a practical


possibility.
A. Witness
B. Victim
C. Suspect
D. Interrogator

Prepared by

BALTAZAR L. GAGAP, Jr.


LI.B -3 Student
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CHAPTER III
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS OF IDENTIFICATION

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. The following are the importance of identification of a person, except one:


A. In the identification of a person missing or presumed dead.
B. In foreseeing the imminent dangers or catastrophes.
C. In resolving the anxiety of the next-of-kin, other relatives and friends
as to the whereabouts of the missing person or victim.
D. In the prosecution of the criminal offense, the identity of the offender
and the victim.

2. A rule in personal identification wherein the greater the number of points of


similarities and dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater is the
probability for the conclusion to be correct.
A. Law of Dissimilarity of Evidence in Identification.
B. Law of Similarity of Evidence in Identification.
C. Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification.
D. Law of Negativity of Evidence in Identification.

3. The following are NOT among the methods of identification, except one:
A. By conclusion.
B. By comparison.
C. By convention.
D. By substitution.

4. A method of identification wherein the one whose identity has not been
established may be known by the process of elimination.
A. By convention.
B. By substitution.
C. By exclusion.
D. By comparison.
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5. A method of identification wherein the criteria for identification recovered


during investigation are compared with records available in the file, or post-
mortem finding are compared with ante-mortem records.
A. By convention.
B. By substitution.
C. By comparison.
D. By exclusion.

6. The following are NOT among the bases of human identification, except one:
A. Those which are based on hearsay.
B. Those which are based on scientific knowledge.
C. Those which are not deemed admitted as a tool for identification.
D. Those which rely only on the records of the case.

7. This may easily be shaved or grown within a short period of time.


A. Clothing.
B. Growth of hair, beard or mustache.
C. Frequent place of visit.
D. Grade of profession.

8. A person may have special desire or habit to be in a place if ever he has the
opportunity to do so.
A. Grade of profession.
B. Clothing.
C. Frequent place of visit.
D. Growth of hair, beard or mustache.

9. A person may have special preference for certain form, texture, or style. Some
are required to have specific cut, color, or design, as in uniforms, worn by
students, etc.
A. Frequent place of visit.
B. Growth of hair, beard or mustache.
C. Clothing.
D. Grade of profession.

10. Earrings, necklaces, rings, pins usually worn by persons may be points to
identify a person from the rest.
A. Clothing.
B. Growth of hair, beard or mustache.
C. Frequent place of visit.
D. Body Ornamentations.
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11. A characteristic that may not easily be changed where a recollection of time,
place and events may be a clue in identification.
A. Speech.
B. Physical attributes.
C. Mental memory.
D. Gait.

12. A characteristic that may not easily be changed where a person’s manner of
talking may be a clue in identification.
A. Mental memory.
B. Gait.
C. Speech.
D. Physical attributes.

13. A characteristic that may not easily be changed where a person’s manner of
walking may be a clue in identification.
A. Speech.
B. Physical attributes.
C. Gait.
D. Mental memory.

14. A characteristic that may not easily be changed where a person’s stereotype
movement or habit peculiar to him may be a clue in identification.
A. Mental memory.
B. Gait.
C. Mannerism.
D. Speech.

15. A characteristic that may not easily be changed where a person’s skin colour
may be a clue in identification.
A. Speech.
B. Gait.
C. Complexion.
D. Mannerism.

16. A characteristic that may not easily be changed where a person’s various facial
expressions may be a clue in identification.
A. Gait.
B. Mannerism.
C. Facies.
D. Speech.
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17. A characteristic that may not easily be changed where a person’s color of the
iris and shape of the eyes may be a clue in identification.
A. Mannerism.
B. Facies.
C. Changes in the eyes.
D. Gait.

18. A characteristic that may not easily be changed where a person’s preferential
use of one hand with skill to the other in voluntary motor acts may be a clue
in identification.
A. Mannerism.
B. Gait.
C. Left or Right – Handedness.
D. Speech

19. A characteristic that may not easily be changed where a person’s body built
may be a clue in identification.
A. Speech.
B. Gait.
C. Degree of Nutrition.
D. Left or Right – Handedness.

20. The following are the points of identification applicable to both living and dead
before onset of decomposition, except one:
A. Race.
B. Vices.
C. Stature.
D. Occupational marks.

21. A system which utilizes anthropometrical measurement of the human body as


the basis of identification.
A. Sherlock system.
B. Einstein system.
C. Bertillon system.
D. Newton system.

22. It is a verbal, accurate and picturesque description of the person identified.


A. Portrait Marle.
B. Portrait Sarle.
C. Portrait Barle.
D. Portrait Parle.
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23. The following are extrinsic factors in identification, except one:


A. Ornamentations.
B. Mannerism.
C. Foreign bodies.
D. Personal belongings.

24. It is considered to be the most valuable method of identification.


A. Determination of sex.
B. Handwriting.
C. Identification of skeleton.
D. Fingerprinting.

25. It is the study of handwriting for the purpose of determining the writer’s
personality, character and aptitude.
A. Handwriting.
B. Fingerprinting.
C. Determination of sex.
D. Graphology.

26. The following are the different types of fingerprint pattern, except one:
A. Arches.
B. Patches.
C. Loops.
D. Whorls.

27. Which of the following statements is false?


A. The more recent the ante-mortem records of the person to be
identified, the more unreliable is the comparative or exclusionary
mode of identification that can be done.
B. An adult has 32 teeth and each tooth has five surfaces.
C. The enamel of the teeth is the hardest substance of the human body.
D. The possibility of two persons to have the same dentition is quite
remote.

28. The following are the importance of sex determination, except one:
A. As an aid in identification.
B. As an aid in putrefaction.
C. Marriage or the union of a man and a woman.
D. To determine whether an individual can exercise certain obligations
vested by law to one sex only.
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29. Which of the following statements is true?


A. Determination of age is required in certain crimes such as Rape,
Infanticide, and Seduction.
B. Determination of civil liability is also important in the identification of
age.
C. Majority commences upon the attainment of the age of twenty-two
years.
D. Identification of age is important for the determination of one’s right
of taxation.

30. The following are the points in the identification of hair, except one:
A. Characteristics of the hair.
B. Chemical products for the hair.
C. Length of the hair.
D. Color of the hair.

Prepared by

DIANNE OCAMPOS
LI.B - Student
19

CHAPTER IV
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS OF DEATH

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. What is death?
A. It is the termination of life.
B. It is the complete cessation of all the vital functions without
possibility of resuscitation.
C. It is an irreversible loss of the properties of living matter
D. All of the above.

2. It is the kind of death where the state of the body in which there is complete,
persistent and continuous cessation of the vital functions of the brain, heart
and lungs which maintain life and death:
A. Somatic or clinical death
B. Molecular or cellular death
C. Apparent death
D. Cellular death

3. This condition is not really death but merely a transient loss of the vital
functions of the body on the account of disease, external stimulus or other
forms of influence.
A. Apparent death
B. Molecular death
C. Somatic death
D. Clinical death

4. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early
putrefactive changes of some internal changes. It is usually observed in the
first two hours after death.
A. Post-mortem Caloricity
B. Algor Mortis
C. Rigor Mortis
D. Somatic Death

5. Brain death - Death occurs when there is deep irreversible coma, absence of
electrical brain activity and complete cessation of all the vital functions without
possibility of resuscitation.
A. Brain death
B. Cardio-Respiratory Death
C. Brain and Cardio-Respiratory Death
D. Molecular Death
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6. This type of death occurs when there is a continuous and persistent cessation
of heart action and respiration.
A. Molecular Death
B. Cardio-Respiratory Death
C. Brain Death
D. Cellular Death

7. It is the breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler components


associated with the evolution of foul smelling gasses and accompanied by the
change of color of the body.
A. Marbolization
B. Putrefaction
C. Mummification
D. None of the above

8. It is the prominence of the superficial veins with reddish discoloration during


the process of decomposition which develops on both flanks of the abdomen,
root of the neck and shoulder and which makes the area look like a
"marbled"reticule of branching veins.
A. Putrefaction
B. Mummification
C. Marbolization
D. Clinical Death

9. This microorganism plays an important and dominant role in decomposition.


This bacteria starts to grow in parenchymatous organs. It is responsible for
the disintegration of cytoplasm, destruction of nuclei and generation of gases
in the cells.
A. Bacillus coli
B. Clostridium welchii
C. Bacillus proteus vulgaris
D. Bacillus mesentericus.

10. Mummification is the dehydration of the whole body which results in the
shivering and preservation of the body. It usually occurs when a dead body is
buried in a hot, and arid place with dry atmosphere and with free access of
hot air.
A. Putrefaction
B. Marbolization
C. Mummification
D. Algor Mortis
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11. Saponification or Adipocere Formation: This is a condition wherein the fatty


tissues of the body are transformed to soft brownish-white substance known
as adipocere. The layer of subcutaneous tissue is the frequent site of its
formation. It occurs naturally in the visceral organs and even in non-fatty
tissues of the body like the muscles.
A. Saponification or Adipocere Formation
B. Putrefaction
C. Maceration
D. Mummification

12. This is the softening of the tissues when in a fluid medium in the absence of
putrefactive microorganism which is frequently observed in the death of the
fetus en utero.
A. Putrefaction
B. Maceration
C. Saponification
D. Mummification

13. When a person is buried in hot, arid, sandy soil, there will be insufficient
moisture for the growth and multiplication of putrefactive bacteria. The body
will become dehydrated and mummified which is caused by the forces of
nature.
A. Natural Mummification
B. Saponification
C. Putrefaction
D. Marbolization

14. It is one way of examining Peripheral Circulation wherein a ligature is applied


around the base of a finger with moderate tightness to the finger of a dead
man.
A. Magnus’ test
B. Icard's Test
C. Flouroscopic Examination
D. None of the above
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15. This consists of the injection of a solution of fluorescein subcutaneously. If


circulation is still present, the dye will spread all over the body and the whole
skin will have a greenish-yellow discoloration due to flourescein. In a dead
man, the solution will just remain at the site of the injection. This test should
be applied only with the use of the daylight as the color is difficult to be
appreciated with the use of artificial light.
A. Magnus’ test
B. Icard's Test
C. Flouroscopic Examination
D. None of the above

16. How is criminal liability totally extinguished?


A. Art. 89, Revised Penal Code
B. Article 392 Civil Code
C. Rule 131 Section 5(jj) Rules of Court
D. Article 43, Civil Code

17. Succession is a mode of acquisition by virtue of which the property, rights


and obligations to the extent of the value of the inheritance of a person are
transmitted through his death to another or others either by will or by
operation of law (Art. 774, Civil Code).
A. Succession
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. None of the above

18. How does the the civil personality of a natural person extinguished?
A. Death
B. Marriage
C. Pardon
D. Amesty

20 If the absentee appears, or without appearing his existence is proved, he


shall recover his property in the condition in which it may be found, and the
price of any property that may have been alienated or the property acquired
therewith; but he cannot claim either fruits or rents.
A. Art. 392, Civil Code:
B. Art. 43, Civil Code
C. Art. 391 Civil Code
D. Art. 774, Civil Code
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21 If there is a doubt, as between two or more persons who are called to


succeed each other, as to which of them died first, whoever alleges the
death of one prior to the other, shall prove the same; in the absence of
proof, it is presumed that they died at the same time and there shall be no
transmission of rights from one to the other.
A. Art. 392, Civil Code:
B. Art. 43, Civil Code
C. Art. 391 Civil Code
D. Art. 774, Civil Code

22. The following shall be presumed dead for all purposes, including the division
of the estate among the heirs: (1) A person on board a vessel lost during a
sea voyage, or an aeroplane which is missing, who has not been heard of for
four years since the loss of the vessel or aeroplane. (2) A person in the
armed forces who has taken part in war, and has been missing for four
years: (3) A person who has been in danger of death under other
circumstances and his existence has not been known for four years.
A. Art. 392, Civil Code:
B. Art. 43, Civil Code
C. Art. 391 Civil Code & Sec. 5(x) Rule 131, Rules of Court
D. Art. 774, Civil Code

23. Order of Putrefaction When the Body is in Water:


a. Face and neck or sternum
b. Shoulders
c. Arms.
d. Abdomen.
e. Legs.

A. Abcde
B. Bdace
C. Cdeab
D. Edcba.

24. After death, proteolytic, glycolytic and lipolytic ferments of glandular tissues
continue to act which lead to the autodigestion of organs. This action is
facilitated by weak acid and higher temperature. It is delayed by the alkaline
reaction of the tissues of the body and low temperature. Their early
appearance is observed in the parenchymatous and glandular tissues.
A. Auto lytic or autodigestive changes after death
B. Putrefactioc
C. Rigor Mortis
D. Algor Mortis
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25. Physical Characteristics of Post-mortem Lividity:


A. It occurs in the most extensive areas of the most dependent portions
of the body.
B. It only involves the superficial layer of the skin and does not appear
elevated from the rest of the skin.
C. The Color is uniform but the color may become greenish at the start
of decomposition. There is no injury of the skin.
D. All of the above.

26. The following are conditions simulating rigor mortis except for one:
A. Heat Stiffening
B. Cold Stiffening
C. Cadaveric Spasm or Instantaneous Rigor:
D. Hypostatic Lividity

27. Points to be considered which may infer the position of the body at the time
of death:
A. Posture of the body when found
B. Post-mortem Hypostasis (Lividity):
C. Cadaveric Spasm
D. All of the above

28. These are the effects of the Pressure of Gases of Putrefaction


A. Displacement of the Blood & Bloating of the Body
B. Fluid Coming Out of Both Nostrils and Mouth
C. Extrusion of the Fetus in a Gravid Uterus & Floating of the Body
D. All of the above

29. A chemical methods used for the determination of the time of death of any
cadaver whose cerebro-spinal fluid is examined for the concentrations of
lactic acid (L.A.), non-protein nitrogen (N.P.N.) and amino acid (A.A.) and
whose axillary temperature has been taken at the time the cerebro-spinal
fluid has been removed.
A. Schourup's formula
B. Mummification
C. Putrefaction
D. Maceration
25

30. Limitations of Schroup’s Formula


A. The method is only applicable to adults, as the rate of biochemical
change in a child is far more rapid than in adult. It is the value to
person over the age of 15 years.
B. The cerebrospinal fluid must be free of blood, the presence of which
raises the lactic concentration and injuries must not have allowed the
escape of cerebrospinal
C. Death must have occurred' within a period 15 hours prior to the
withdrawal of the sample of cerebrospinal fluid, as after that time the
changes in the concentration per time unit become irregular
D. All of the above

Prepared by

SHIRLEY LERIOS
LI.B -3 Student
26

CHAPTER V
INVESTIGATION OF DEATH

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct answer.

1. Who among the following are not allowed to authorized death investigations?
A. Solicitor General
B. Provincial and City Fiscals
C. Director of the NBI
D. Health Officers

2. Refers to the place where elements ingredients of a crime took place


A. Crime place
B. Disaster Area
C. Yellow Tape Area
D. Crime Scene

3. The following are persons to compose a search team except:


A. Physician
B. Police
C. Photographer
D. Assistant

4. Which of the following is not needed in the collection of evidence?


A. Cameras
B. Magnifying Glass
C. Test Tubes
D. Cellphones

5. If the searches gather at the center of a room and proceed outwards along
radii or spokes, it is known as what type of search method?
A. Grid Method
B. Strip Method
C. Zone Method
D. Wheel Method

6. Measuring tape, compass, and chalk are all necessary equipment for the
___________.
A. Search of Physical Evidence
B. Documentation of the scene
C. Preservation and transportation of evidence collected
D. Collection of Evidence
27

7. The investigating physician making a thorough inspection of the cadaver should


have special consideration on which of the following details?
A. Discoloration of the skin
B. Condition of the apparel worn
C. Evidences which will prove the killer, in the circumstance of murder
D. How long the body has been decaying in its location

8. What are the stages of medico-legal examination?


A. Crime scene investigation and Autopsy
B. Internal and External Examination
C. Autopsy and Final Examination
D. Post-Mortem and Ante-Mortem Examination

9. Refers to an external examination of a dead body without incision being made.


A. Autopsy
B. Rigor mortis
C. Forensic Examination
D. Post-Mortem Examination

10. Which of these are NOT part of the rules in the examination of the dead body?
A. Weigh and measure everything that can be weighed or measured.
B. Look before you cut.
C. Never cut unless you know exactly what you are cutting.
D. Proceed to cut where you feel its perhaps necessary.

11. A kind of autopsy wherein even after all efforts are exerted and all techniques
are done, no cause of death is found is called:
A. Failed Autopsy
B. Careless Autopsy
C. Negative Autopsy
D. Negligent Autopsy

12. This is a kind of Autopsy wherein no cause of death is found as a result of lack
of foresight, imprudence and lack of skill.
A. Negative Autopsy
B. Careless Autopsy
C. Failed Autopsy
D. Negligent Autopsy

13. The following are Stages in the Post-Mortem examination except:


A. Preliminary examination
B. Final Examination
C. External Examination
D. Internal Examination
28

14. A type of search method wherein the searchers will traverse first parallel to the
base of the crime scene and then parallel to the side
A. Grid Method
B. Double-Strip Method
C. Zone Method
D. Wheel Method

15. A type of search method wherein the whole area is divided into subdivisions
and quadrants and search is made in the individual quadrants
A. Wheel Method
B. Strip Method
C. Zone Method
D. Grid Method

16. Who among the following are authorized to perform autopsies and dissections
A. Dentists
B. City Mayors
C. Provincial Fiscals and Judges
D. Health Officers

17. Which among the following manner of death should be autopsied?


A. Death by old age
B. Death of persons who were in bad health
C. Death by in a natural manner
D. Suicides

18. Which among the following forms is not part of Preliminary Examination?
A. Examination of the Surroundings
B. Examination of the Clothing’s
C. Identity of the Body
D. Examination of the Heart

19. This stage in Post-Mortem Examinations includes examination of the Body


Surfaces and Determination of the Position and Approximate Time of Death.
A. Preliminary Examination
B. Mental Examination
C. Internal Examination
D. External Examination

20. The following are mistakes in Autopsies, except?


A. Errors or Omissions in the collection of evidence for identification
B. Errors or Omissions in the disposal of evidence
29

C. Errors or Omissions in the collection of evidence for establishing the


time of death
D. Errors or Omissions in the collection of evidence required for other
medico-legal examination.

21. The manner of death that does not require an autopsy is _________?
A. Suicide
B. Natural Death
C. Unnatural Death
D. Accidental Death

22. An autopsy shall be performed on a dead body, except?


A. Whenever required by special laws.
B. Upon order of competent court, a mayor or provincial or city fiscal.
C. Upon written request of Police Authorities.
D. Whenever required by senate

23. Who are authorized to perform autopsies and dissections?


A. The Barangay Officials
B. The police, judges, and Fiscals
C. His mother, father, and relatives
D. Health Officers, Medical Staff of Law Enforcement Agencies, and
Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals.

24. What is the kind of method wherein the area is blocked out in the form of a
rectangle?
A. Strip Method
B. Rectangular Method
C. Spiral Method
D. Wheel Method

25. What are the kind of autopsies?


A. Internal and External Autopsy
B. Hospital and Medico-legal Official Autopsy
C. Spiral and Strip Autopsy
D. Post-mortem and Ante-mortem Autopsy

26. The following are purpose of autopsy, except?


A. Determine cause of death
B. Determine the gender of the victim
C. Study the natural course of the disease
D. All of the above
30

27. What is an Inquest Officer?


A. An official of the state charged with the duty of inquiring the manner
and cause of death of a person.
B. An official charged of prosecuting the victim.
C. An official charged of dissecting the body of the victim.
D. None of the above

28. A person who has previous knowledge of medico-legal investigation?


A. Assistant
B. Photographer
C. Physician
D. All of the above

29. A person who will act as a note taker, evidence collector and helper?
A. Photographer
B. Physician
C. Assistant
D. None of the above

30. A person who will document the crime scene and the places of evidence
recovered?
A. Physician
B. Assistant
C. Photographer
D. Director

Prepared by

MA. CRIELESE Y. MACABARE


LI.B-3 Student
31

CHAPTER VI

1. Natural cause of death is solely caused by a disease. The following are causes
of natural death, except
A. Severe pneumonia
B. Ruptured fallopian tube
C. Poisoning

2. The cause of death that allows no opportunity for sequelae or complications


to develop, is
A. Immediate cause of death
B. Secondary cause of death
C. Mechanism of death

3. A natural death where signs of violence maybe present is called?


A. Unnatural death
B. Natural death
C. Medico-legal masquerade

4. A violent death that maybe accompanied by minimal or no external evidence


of injury, is
A. Medico-legal masquerade
B. Natural death
C. Violent death

5. The unexpected death of infants, usually under six months of age, while in
apparently good health, is?
A. SIDS
B. Crib death
C. Both A &B

6. DOA means
A. A patient is dying on arrival
B. Dead on arrival
C. Both A & B
32

7. A comatose patient brought to emergency room by her wife, few minutes


while applying appropriate intervention the patient died. What should be the
appropriate cause of death in his death certificate?
A. Dead on arrival
B. Undetermined
C. Neither A & B
D. Both A &B

8. Lex and Lad are best friends . Lex was jokingly asking Lad to assist him in his
plan to kill himself. Unknowing that Lex was serious about their
conversation, Lad give his loaded gun to Lex. While on his way to the rest
room he heard a gunshot. Rushing back to know what happened, Lad saw his
BF on the floor, dead.

A. Will Lex be criminally liable for killing himself, Yes or no?

If yes, why?
If No, why?
B. Will Lad be liable in assisting Lex in his plan of suicide,
Yes
No

9. If Lad has hidden hatred for Lex and on many occasions secretly tried to kill
Lex but has not done so,

A. Will Lad then be liable for assisting Lex in his suicide?

Yes
No

10. Due to severe putrifaction of his internal organs, the physician was having a
hard time to collect specimen for examination of liver. In this instance of
violent death, what organ should be used for toxicological exam to determine
the cause of death?
A. Bone
B. Muscle
C. Both A& B
D. Neither A & B
33

11. An epileptic patient who is non-compliant to his medication had seizure attack
while having a heated argument with a friend. While on physical struggle
with each other, he was pushed to the water by his friend and suddenly went
into seizure and drowned that cause his death. What will be the liability of
his friend?

12. In a violent cause of death, physician examined the deceased for chronic
arsenic poisoning, what part of the body should the physician save for
examination?
A. Lungs
B. Muscle
C. Finger nails

13. A riot broke out inside a prison, one person died during the commotion. Who
will be made liable to the death of the victim?
A. The person who was still holding the deceased but he was just
about to deliver a blow
B. The last person known to have inflected the most severe blow
C. All person involved in the riot

14. It is the occlusion of the lumen of the cerebral vessels by the gradual
thickening of its wall thereby preventing the flow of blood peripheral to it, is?
A. Brain embolism
B. Brain abscess
C. Cerebral thrombosis

15. A circumscribed accumulation of infective materials in the brain that may lead
to coma when it rupture, is?
A. Brain abscess
B. Brain thrombosis
C. Botulism

16. Asphyxia is the death due to sudden and fatal cessation of the action of the
heart and its circulation.

A. True B. False
34

17. A stage in the symptom of asphyxia where the patient lies still except for
occasional deep inhalation, low blood pressure and pupils are dilated, is
A. Stage of dypnea
B. Stage of expiratory convulsion
C. Stage of exhaustion

18. A person who is unconscious with no response to pupil and conjunctiva


stimulation, salivary drooling resulting from brain injury is called
A. Coma
B. Stroke
C. Death

19. Patient was discovered to have an inflammation of the membrane covering


the brain due to an infection or other causes. The patient was diagnosed to
have?
A. TB
B. Meningitis
C. Brain Abscess

20. A surgeon while performing a laparotomy to arrest bleeding, left foreign body
inside the abdominal cavity and as a result of which the patient died. The
surgeon will be liable of?
A. Homicide
B. Murder
C. Homicide through reckless imprudence

21. Parricide is the killing of one’s own relative. The death of the following
persons is considered parricide, except
A. Common-law wife
B. Illegitimate child
C. Ascendants

22. In the killing of a child less than three days old is called infanticide. Will the
grandparent be liable of infanticide if they kill their three days old baby to
conceal dishonour,
Yes or No
35

23. Senility as a cause of death is still an acceptable cause of death entered in


the certificate of death

A. Yes B. False

24. The cause of death that defines whether it is violent or natural death is called
as the
A. Manner of death
B. Mechanism of death
C. Both A & B

25. In a violent death that requires autopsy for blood specimens, what is the
minimum amount of blood required for toxicological examination?
A. 500cc
B. 450cc
C. 100cc

Prepared by
LOPE MACAUBA
LI.B-3 Student
36

CHAPTER VII
JUDICIAL DEATH

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.


A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Control questions
D. Peak-of-tension test

2. Questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of
similar nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions
under investigation.
A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Peak-of-tension test
D. Control questions

3. This test is applied when the response to relevant and control questions are
similar in degree and consistency and in a way that the examiner cannot
determine whether the subject is telling the truth or not.
A. Peak-of-tension test
B. Guilt complex test
C. Silent answer test
D. Control question

4. The alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the subject


manifests a heightened of suggestibility while awareness is maintained.
A. Scientific interrogation
B. Hypnosis
C. Confession
D. By observation

5. Good criminal investigator must be a keen observer and a good psychologist.


A. Hypnosis
B. Scientific interrogation
C. Confession
D. By observation
37

6. To learn if there are any other reasons for the subject's responding to a relevant
question, other than the knowledge of the crime.
A. Supplementary tests
B. Post-test interrogation
C. Actual interrogation and recording
D. Pre-test interview

7. Subject may be given this test if he is not yet informed of the details of the
offense for which he is being interrogated by the investigator, or by other
persons or from other sources like the print media.
A. Guilt complex test
B. Silent answer test
C. Post-test interrogation
D. Peak-of-tension test

8. Feeblemindedness, as in idiots, imbeciles and morons


A. Physiological abnormalities
B. Unresponsiveness in a living or guilty subject
C. Nervousness or extreme emotional tension experienced
D. Mental abnormalities

9. Excessively high or excessively low blood pressure


A. Nervousness or extreme emotional tension experienced
B. Mental abnormalities
C. Unresponsiveness in a living or guilty subject
D. Physiological abnormalities

10. Psychosis or insanities, as in manic-depressives, paranoids, schizophrenics,


paretics, etc.
A. Physiological abnormalities
B. Unresponsiveness in a living or guilty subject
C. Nervousness or extreme emotional tension experienced
D. Mental abnormalities

11. Apparent inability to consciously control response by means of certain mental


sets of attitudes.
A. Mental abnormalities
B. Nervousness or extreme emotional tension experienced
C. Unresponsiveness in a living or guilty subject
D. Physiological abnormalities
38

12. Method of deception detection is practically the same as that of administration


of truth serum. The only difference is the drug used.
A. Intoxication with alcohol
B. Administration of Truth Serum
C. Use of a Lie Detector or Polygraph
D. Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis

13. When a person speaks, there are audible voice frequencies, and superimposed
on these are the inaudible frequency modulations which are products of
minute oscillation of the muscles of the voice mechanism.
A. Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluator (PSE)
B. Use of a Lie Detector or Polygraph
C. Use of the Word Association Test
D. Administration of Truth Serum

14. A list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who is
instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
A. Use of a Lie Detector or Polygraph
B. Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluator (PSE)
C. Use of the Word Association Test
D. Administration of Truth Serum

15. Apparent stimulation effect of alcohol is really the result of the control
mechanism of the brain, so alcohol, like truth serum, and narcoanalytic drugs
"inhibit the inhibitor".
A. Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis
B. Administration of Truth Serum
C. Intoxication with alcohol
D. Use of the Word Association Test

16. If the face is flushed, it may indicate anger, embarrassment or shame.


A. Fidgeting
B. Sweating
C. "Peculiar feeling inside"
D. Color change

17. The subject may assert that it is not possible for him to do "anything like
that" inasmuch as he is a religious man and that he has a spotless record.
A. "Peculiar feeling inside"
B. "Spotless past record"
C. Sweating
D. Fidgeting
39

18. Accompanied with a flushed face indicate anger, embarrassment or extreme


nervousness.
A. Dryness of the mouth
B. Fidgeting
C. Sweating
D. "Peculiar feeling inside"

19. The subject will resort to the use of "not that I remember" expression when
answering to be evasive or to avoid committing something prejudicial to him.
A. Excessive activity of the Adam's apple
B. "Aror that I remember" expression
C. Swearing to the truthfulness of his assertion
D. Inability to look at the investigator "straight in the eye"

20. Nervous tension causes reflex inhibition of salivary secretion and consequently
dryness of the mouth.
A. Excessive activity of the Adam's apple
B. Swearing to the truthfulness of his assertion
C. Sweating
D. Dryness of the mouth

21. The subject does not like to look at the investigator for fear that his guilt may
be seen in his eyes.
A. "Aror that I remember" expression
B. Inability to look at the investigator "straight in the eye"
C. Swearing to the truthfulness of his assertion
D. "Peculiar feeling inside"

22. Persons who commit crime in an impulsive manner usually on account of their
aggressive behavior.
A. Rational offenders
B. Passive inadequate offenders
C. Irrational offenders
D. Active aggressive offenders

23. These are persons who commit crimes in the heat of passion, anger, or
revenge, and also who commit offenses of accidental nature.
A. Professional offenders
B. Emotional offenders
C. Irrational offenders
D. Rational offenders
40

24. Persons who commit crimes because of inducement, promise or reward.


A. Irrational offenders
B. Active aggressive offenders
C. Professional offenders
D. Passive inadequate offenders

25. Highly skilled and able to perform criminal acts with the least chance of being
detected.
A. Ordinary offenders
B. Irrational offenders
C. Passive inadequate offenders
D. Professional offenders

26. Those who commit crime with motive or intention and with full possession of
their mental faculties.
A. Irrational offenders
B. Rational offenders
C. Professional offenders
D. Passive inadequate offenders

27. Interrogator must create a mood that is conducive to confession.


A. Bluff on split-pair technique
B. Mutt and Jeff technique
C. Stern approach
D. Emotional appeal

28. Where there are two or more persons who allegedly participated in the
commission of a crime.
A. Bluff on split-pair technique
B. Mutt and Jeff technique
C. Emotional appeal
D. Stern approach

29. The questioning of a person suspected of having committed an offense or of


persons who are reluctant to make a full disclosure of information in his
possession which is pertinent to the investigation.
A. Guilt complex test
B. Peak-of-tension test
C. Control Question
D. Interrogation
41

30. A person whose guilt is considered on reasonable ground to be a practical


possibility.
A. Witness
B. Victim
C. Suspect
D. Interrogator

Prepared by

GLENN NAPOLES
LI.B -3 Student
42

CHAPTER VIII
DISPOSAL OF THE DEAD BODY

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. These are the persons charged with duty of burial except;


If married: surviving spouse if possesses means to pay the necessary expenses.
A. Paramour or concubine
B. Unmarried or child: nearest kin if they be adults and within the
C. Philippines and in possession of means to pay the necessary
expenses.
D. Unmarried or no kin left with means: municipal authorities

2. What is embalming?
A. It is the artificial way of preserving the body after death by injecting
6 to 8 quarts of antiseptic solutions of formalin, perchloride of
mercury or arsenic, which is carried into the common carotid and the
femoral arteries.
B. It is the pulverization of the body into ashes by the application of
heat.
C. The deceased buried may be raised or disinterred upon the lawful
order of the authorities.
D. None of the above

3. These are some of the methods of disposing of the dead body except;
A. Embalming
B. Exhumation
C. Cremation
D. Inhumation

4. A person who died of a communicable disease must be buried within how


many hours after death?
A. 48 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 12 hours
D. None of the above

5. The bodies or remains of persons who have died of a communicable disease


may be exhumed only after the lapse of ______ from burial?
A. 2 hours
B. 5 years
C. 3 years
D. none of the above
43

6. It is the pulverization of the body into ashes by the application of heat.


A. Burial
B. Embalming
C. Exhumation
D. Cremation

7. The body must be buried within how many hours after death?
A. 48 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 12 hours
D. None of the above

8. Considering the climate conditions in the Philippines, the dead body must be
buried within ____ hours after death?
A. 48 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 12 hours
D. None of the above

9. What is the necessary requirement for burial?


A. Death Certificate
B. Birth Certificate
C. Marriage Certificate
D. Baptismal

10. The depth of the grave should be at least _______ meters.


A. 2 meters
B. 1 ½ meters
C. 1 meter
D. 3 meters

11. These are the persons permitted to detach body parts except;
A. Licensed Physicians and surgeons
B. Nurse
C. Known scientists
D. Medical or Scientific institution including eye-banks

12. The following may sign the death certificate except;


A. attending physician
B. barangay captain
C. municipal mayor
D. any councilor
44

13. These are the instances when permission for cremation must not be grated
except;
A. If the deceased left a written direction that he or she must not be
cremated.
B. If the person died of a dangerous communicable disease.
C. If the exact identity of the deceased has not yet been definitely
ascertained.
D. When the exact cause of death cannot be definitely ascertained
and further inquiry or examination may be needed.

14. What is the penalty who violated religious feeling?


A. Arresto mayor in its maximum period to prision correccional in its
minimum period.
B. Shall be punished by a fine of not more than two hundred pesos or
by imprisonment for not more than six months, or both.
C. Prison mayor
D. None of the above

15. What is/are the limitations rites of the funeral?


A. Will of the deceased.
B. Burial of the person sentenced to death must not be held with
pomp.
C. Restrictions as to funeral in cases of deaths due to communicable
disease.
D. All of the above

16. Permission to disinter remains of persons who died of non-dangerous


communicable disease may be granted after a burial of ______.
A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. None of the above

17. It is the removal of human remains from a grave or vault for the purpose of
examination.
A. Embalming
B. Cremation
C. Burial
D. Exhumation
45

18. Any person who shows disrespect to dead, or wrongfully interferes with a
funeral shall be liable for _____.
A. Prision Correccional in its minimum period
B. Prision Correccional in its medium and maximum periods
C. Damages
D. None of the above

19. What penalty is imposed to any public officer or employee who shall prevent
or disturb the ceremonies or manifestations of any religion?
A. Prision Correccional in its minimum period
B. Prision Correccional in its medium and maximum periods
C. Damages
D. None of the above

20. These are the requirements to be satisfied in exhumation except;


A. Compliance of the sanitary requirement
B. Death Certificate
C. Exhumation permit
D. Duration of the interment as required

21. If the body is unembalmed and remain unburied within 48 hours after death,
is a new permit necessary?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Sometimes

22. These are some of the requirements for a valid donation of a human organ
except;
A. Specify the person/institution granted the authorization
B. It must be oral
C. Specify the organ/part to be detached
D. Signed by the grantor and 2 disinterested persons

23. The body is thrown over board in an open sea provided that the deceased is
not suffering from dangerous communicable disease.
A. Embalming
B. Disposing of the Dead Body in the Sea
C. Inhumation
D. Cremation
46

24. What is the penalty to a person who wantonly or maliciously defaces, breaks,
or destroys any tomb, ornament, or gravestone erected to any deceased
person, or any momento or memorial, or any plant, tree or shrub pertaining
to places of burial of a dead body, or who shall wantonly or maliciously
remove any fence, post, or wall or any burial ground or cemetery?
A. Prision Correctional in its minimum period
B. Prision Correctional in its medium and maximum periods
C. Damages
D. Shall be punished by a fine of not more than two hundred pesos or
by imprisonment for not more than six months, or both.

25. Who are those persons have the duty and the right to make arrangements
for the funeral for the deceased?
A. The spouse;
B. The descendants of the nearest degree;
C. The ascendant, also of the nearest degree;
D. All of the above

26. The deceased buried may be raised or disinterred upon lawful order from
fiscals, court and any entity vested with authority to investigate.
A. Embalming
B. Exhumation
C. Burial
D. Cremation

27. It is the right of custody over the dead body.


A. Funeral
B. Succession
C. Inhulation
D. Possession

28. The body of a person dead of any dangerous communicable disease shall not
be carried from place to place except;
The bodies or remains may be used by medical schools and scientific
institutions for studies and research subject to the rules and regulations
prescribed by the Department.
A. Disposing of the Dead Body in the Sea
B. Use of the Body for Scientific Purposes
C. Inhumation
D. None of the above
47

29. The dead body must be buried within forty-eight hours after death except;
A. When it is still a subject matter of legal investigation.
B. When it is specifically authorized by the local health authorities that
the body may be buried more than 48 hours after death.
C. Impliedly when the body is embalmed.
D. All of the above

30. What is the penalty to a person who removed organs or portions of the
human body that died of a dangerous communicable disease?
A. Imprisonment of not less than six months nor more than one year.
B. Imprisonment of not less than Eight months nor more than one
year.
C. Damages
D. None of the above

Prepared by

LOVELY ROSE E. LEDAMA


LLB-3 Student
48

CHAPTER IX
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS OF PHYSICAL INJURIES

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. The effect of some stimulus on the body.


A. Physical Violence
B. Physical Injury
C. Wound
D. None of the above

2. The following are the causes of physical injury, except:


A. Physical violence
B. Gestures
C. Letter a and b
D. Electrical energy

3. Wound is the solution of the natural continuity of any tissue of the living body.
It is the disruption of the anatomic integrity of tissue in the body.
A. Either True or False
B. False
C. Neither True or False
D. True

4. Effect of physical violence may always result to production of wound but wound
is always an effect of physical violence.
A. True
B. Either True or False
C. Neither True or False
D. False

5. Physics of wound production:


A. Wound is kinetic energy times time times area times ―other factors
B. Kinetic Energy = MV
C. WOUND= kinetic energy x time x area x other factors
D. Letter a and c

6. The longer period used for transfer of energy, greater likelihood of producing
damage.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. No answer
49

7. The larger the area of contract between the airs applied on the body the lesser
is the damage to the body.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. All of the above maybe correct.

8. The less elastic and plastic the tissue, the greater the likelihood that a
laceration will result.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. None of the above is correct.

9. Elasticity and Durability refer to the ability of a tissue to return to its normal
size and shape after being deformed by pressure.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. Neither of the above

10. Below are the classifications of wounds, except:


A. Mortal Wound
B. Non-Mortal Wound
C. Contusion
D. None of the above

11. Mortal wound is capable of causing death immediately after infliction or shortly
thereafter.
A. It depends
B. Maybe
C. True
D. False

12. Parts of body where wound is inflicted considered mortal:


A. Heart and big blood vessel
B. Brain and upper portion of spinal cord
C. Lungs and Stomach, liver, spleen and intestine
D. All of the above
50

13. Non - mortal wound is capable of causing death immediately.


A. True
B. No answer
C. Maybe
D. False

14. Contusion, hematoma and lacerated wound is caused by a ______ instrument.


A. Sharp
B. Blunt and Sharp
C. Chemical expolsion
D. Blunt

15. Sharp-edged instrument can cause:


A. Barotrauma
B. Gunshot
C. Frostbite
D. Incised wound

16. Tearing force instrument can cause:


A. Barotrauma
B. Gunshot
C. Frostbite
D. Lacerated wound

17. Gunshot wound is caused by ______ instrument:


A. Blunt
B. Change of atmospheric pressure
C. Sharp
D. Chemical explosion

18. The following are the instrument that may cause a severe physical injury,
except:
A. Blunt Instrument/ Sharp Instrument
B. Heat or cold/Change of Atmospheric pressure
C. Chemical explosion/tearing force
D. All of the above

19. As to the manner of infliction HIT is by means of:


A. Bolo
B. Blunt
C. Axe
D. All of the above
51

20. Types of wound as to its depth:


A. Superficial
B. Deep
C. Self-inflicted wound
D. All of the above

21. Result of person’s instinctive reaction of self - protection; injuries suffered by


a person to avoid or repel potential injury from aggressor is _________.
A. No answer
B. Patterned wound
C. Defense and Patterned wound
D. Defense wound

22. The wound in the nature and shape of an object or instrument and which
infers the object or instrument causing it is __________.
A. Self-inflicted wound
B. Patterned Wound
C. Defense Wound
D. None of the above

23. Mutilation is the act of looping or cutting off any part or parts of the living
body. In order to be punishable under the Code, it must be intentional,
otherwise it will be considered as a physical injury.
A. It depends
B. False
C. Maybe
D. True

24. The kinds of Mutilation Punishable under Art. 262, Revised Penal Code:
1. Intentionally depriving a person, totally or partially of some of the
essential organs for digestion, and
2. Intentionally depriving a person of any part or parts of the human body
other than the organs for reproduction.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. I have no answer

25. Some Ways of Self-Mutilation are among others, except:


A. Castration by amputation of the penis
B. Bumping
C. Nail Biting
D. Nodding
52

26. Types of Stab wounds are ___________.


A. Castration by amputation of the penis, Bumping and bruxism
B. Suicidal, Homicidal or Accidental
C. Nail Biting
D. Pressure on the subcutaneous tissue by a tightly applied cord or belt
around the body, emphysema, and Trauma inflicted on the female
genitalia to induce abortion or promotes hemorrhage and creates an
anemia

27. Evidences showing that the stab wound is suicidal, when:


A. It is usually solitary. If multiple, located on one part of the body
B. If located on covered parts of the body, the clothing is not involved
C. The wounding weapon is firmly grasped by the hand of the victim
(cadaveric spasm)
D. Letters A, B & C.

28. Evidences showing that the stabbing is with homicidal intent when:
A. Stabbing is accompanied with slashing movement, the wound tailing
abrasion is seen towards the hand inflicting the injury
B. A suicide note may be present
C. No disturbance in the death scene, wounding instrument is found
near the victim
D. None of the above

29. Medical evidences showing intent of the offender to kill the victim:
A. More than one stab wounds
B. Located on different parts of the body or on parts where vital organs
are located
C. Deep/ Stab wound with serrated or zigzag borders/Irregular or
stellate shape skin defects
D. All of the above

30. Is vasectomy and tubal ligation within the purview of mutilation as defined and
penalized by Art. 262 of the Revised Penal Code?
A. Yes
B. It depends
C. Maybe
D. No

Prepared by
SYLDY MARTOS
LI.B-3 Student
53

CHAPTER X
MEDICO-LEGAL INVESTIGATION OF WOUNDS

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. In examining wounded body, the following are examinations that are applicable
to the living and dead victim, except one:
A. Age of the wound from the degree of healing.
B. Determination whether the injury is accidental, suicidal or homicidal.
C. Reasons for the municipality of the wounds in cases where there are
more than one wound.
D. Examination of the place where the crime was committed.

2. In examining wounded body, which of the following examination is applicable


only to the living?
A. Determination whether the wound is mortal or not.
B. Determination whether the wound is ante-mortem or post-mortem.
C. Determination whether the wound was caused by accident, suicide
or homicide
D. Determination whether the injury will produce permanent deformity.

3. What is it that include the size, shape, nature of the edges, extremities and the
other characteristic marks?
A. Character of the Wound
B. Location of the Wound
C. Depth of the Wound
D. Condition of the Surroundings

4. The following must be included in the examinations of the wound. The


determination of the exact depth of the wound must not be attempted in a
living subject if in so doing it will prejudice the health or life.
A. Character of the Wound
B. Depth of the Wound
C. Location of the Wound
D. Condition of the Surrounding
54

5. The following must be included in the examinations of the wound. The region
of the body where the wound is situated must be stated. It is advisable to
measure the distance of the wound from some fixed point of the body
prominence to facilitate reconstruction.
A. Character of the Wound
B. Location of the Wound
C. Depth of the Wound
D. Condition of the Surroundings

6. The following must be included in the examinations of the wound. The area
surrounding the wound must be examined. In gunshot would near or contact
fire will produce burning or tattooing of the surrounding skin.
A. Character of the Wound
B. Location of the Wound
C. Depth of the Wound
D. Condition of the Surroundings

7. The following must be included in the examinations of the wound. Several


wounds found in different parts of the body are generally indicative of murder
or homicide.
A. Extent of the wound
B. Number of Wounds
C. Nature and Extent of the Wound
D. Direction of the wound

8. The following must be included in the examinations of the wound. The direction
of the wound is material in the determination of the relative position of the
victim and the offender when such sound has been inflicted.
A. Conditions of the Locality
B. Direction of the wound
C. Location of the Wound
D. Depth of the Wound

9. In determination whether the wounds were inflicted during life or after death,
is more profuse when the wound was inflicted during lifetime of the
victim.
A. violence
B. swelling
C. blood
D. hemorrhage
55

10. In determination whether the wounds were inflicted during life or after death.
It is the fibrin formation, growth or epithelium scab or scar information
conclusively show that the wound was inflicted during life.
A. Signs of Inflammation
B. Hemorrhage
C. Reaction of the Edges of the Wound
D. Signs of Repair

11. The following are true statements of Post-Mortem Wound, except:


A. Blood is not clotted, if at all, it is a soft clot
B. Clotted blood
C. No spouting of blood
D. No inflammation or reparative processes

12. The following are possible instruments used by the assailant inferred from the
nature of wound, except:
A. Contusion – blunt instrument
B. Abrasion – sharp-pointed instrument
C. Incised wound – sharp-edged instrument inflicted by hitting
D. Lacerated wound – blunt instrument

13. In determination whether the wounds are homicide, suicidal or accidental.


What are commonly observed in suicide and homicide as to the nature of the
wound inflicted?
A. Contusion
B. Abrasions
C. Wound Inflicted
D. Incised Wounds

14. Contusion or abrasion may indicate trauma due to fist, finger or feet of the
assailant.
A. Number and Direction of wound
B. Direction of Wound
C. State of Clothing
D. Signs of struggle

15. This important in the case of cutthroat. It is generally transverse in case of


suicide.
A. Number and Direction of Wound
B. Signs of struggle
C. State of Clothing
D. Direction of Wound
56

16. There is usually no change in the condition of the clothing’s in suicide case.
A. Number and direction of Wounds
B. Direction of the Wound
C. Nature and extent of the Wound
D. State of the Clothing

17. The following are factors in determining length of time of survival of the victim
after infliction of wound except one:
A. Degree of healing
B. Hair and Other Substance on Weapon
C. Testimony of the witnesses
D. Changes in the body

18. What factor of Length of Time of Survival of the Victim After Infliction of the
wound, is this statement:
The length of time in the survival of the victims may be approximated from
the systematic changes in the body.
A. Changes in the Body in Relation to the Time of Death
B. Age of the bloodstain
C. Contusion
D. Degree of Healing

19. What factor of Length of Time of Survival of the Victim After Infliction of the
wound, is this statement:
The witness may testify in court as to the exact time the wound was inflicted
by the offender.
A. Testimony of the witness of the wound was inflicted
B. Age of bloodstain
C. Changes in the Body in Relation to the Time of
D. Degree of Healing

20. The following are possible instruments used by the assailant in inflicting the
injuries. What do we call the injury that is produced by blunt instrument?
A. Incised Wound
B. Contusion
C. Gunshot Wound
D. Punctured Wound
57

21. The following are possible instruments used by the assailant in inflicting the
injuries. What do we call the injury that is produced by sharp-pointed
instrument?
A. Contusion
B. Punctured Wound
C. Gunshot Wound
D. Incised Wound

23. Which of the following is not a condition of the locality of the injury?
A. Degree of hemorrhage
B. Presence of letter or suicide note
C. Evidence of struggle
D. Position of the Weapon

24. In case wherein the victim is a recipient of multiple injuries, the determination
as to which of the injuries caused death is dependent on the testimony of the
.
A. police
B. lawyer
C. physician
D. witness

25. In medico-legal investigation of physical injuries, which of the following does


not form part of the general investigation of the surroundings?
A. Examination of the place where the crime was committed
B. Examination of the wounding instrument
C. Photography, sketching, or accurate description of the scene of the
crime for purposes of preservation.
D. Examination of the wounded body

26. The following are possible instruments used by the assailant inferred from the
nature of wound, except one:
A. Contusion – blunt instrument
B. Abrasion – sharp-pointed instrument
C. Incised wound – sharp-edged instrument inflicted by hitti
D. Lacerated wound – blunt instrument

27. The following are factors in determining length of time of survival of the victim
after infliction of wound except one:
A. Degree of healing
B. Hair and Other Substance on Weapon
C. Testimony of the witnesses
D. Changes in the body
58

28. Which of the following is not a factor in determining whether a wound is


homicidal, suicidal, or accidental
A. External signs & position of the body when found
B. Nature of the wound inflicted
C. Motive
D. Hemorrhage

29. The following must be included in the examination of wound reports with its
details, except one:
A. Character of the wound
B. Hair and Other Substance on Weapon
C. Location of the wound
D. Condition of the surroundings

30. Which of the following is not extrinsic evidence in wound?


A. Evidences in the Clothings of the Victim
B. Evidences derived from the crime scene
C. Evidences derived from the examination of the assailant
D. Location of the wound in the body of the victim

Prepared by

ROMMEL L. VERECIO
LI.B -3 Student
59

CHAPTER XII
DEATH OR PHYSICAL INJURIES CAUSED BY EXPLOSION

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. The following are the classifications of explosion as to the source of energy


except for one.
A. Mechanical (Hydraulic) Explosion
B. Condensed Reactant Explosion
C. Nuclear Explosion
D. Electrical Explosion
2. Explosion is define as:
A. Occurs when two objects of different electrical potential are brought
close to one another, a large amount of heat develops.
B. The consumption of oxygen in the surrounding atmosphere, thereby
limiting the amount available for human consumption.
C. Composed of positively charged helium, having a high linear energy
transfer and with a poor penetrating power that can be stopped by
a sheet of paper.
D. The sudden release of potential energy producing a localized
increase in pressure.

3. This chemical explosion occurs when large quantity of heat and gas is produced
as a result of rapid chemical reaction in a solid or liquid material.
A. Diffused Reactant Explosion
B. Condensed Reactant Explosion
C. Low Order Explosive (Deflagrating Explosive)
D. High Order Explosive

4. It is regarded as storage of highly condensed energy and that the uncontrolled


release of this energy constitute an atomic explosion.
A. Beta Rays
B. Exploding missiles
C. Unstable High Order Explosive
D. Atomic nuclei
60

5. Which of the following is the concerned in the investigation of death or physical


injuries that is produced by explosion.
A. What exploded?
B. What caused it to explode?
C. How it produced the injury?
D. All of the above

6. What is the other term for Deflagrating Explosive?


A. Low Order Explosive
B. Stable High Order Explosive
C. Unstable High Order Explosive
D. High Order Explosive

7. The following may cause shrapnel wound except for one.


A. Grenade
B. Knife
C. Bomb
D. Mine

8. Where can an atomic explosion take place?


A. Aerial Explosion
B. Ground Explosion
C. Submarine Explosion
D. All of the above

9. What is Alpha Rays?


A. Composed of positively charged helium, having a high linear energy
transfer and with a poor penetrating power that can be stopped by a
sheet of paper.
B. Composed of positively or negatively charged electrons with a higher
penetrating power than the alpha rays but the ionizing power is much
less.
C. Composed of short rays with high energy and greater penetrating power
and like neutrons it extends a significant distance and causes much
damage to the human body.
D. Uncharged and composed of highly penetrating particles and basic
element in nuclei of atoms.
61

10. Which of the following is a ray emitted by radioactive substances during


explosion except for one.
A. Alpha Rays
B. Beta Rays
C. Gamma Rays
D. All of the above

11. The following are where an Atomic Explosion may take place except for one.
A. Aerial Explosion
B. Electrical Explosion
C. Ground Explosion
D. Submarine Explosion

12. A classification of Condensed Reactant Explosion which rely on burning and


confinement to produce explosion.
A. High Order Explosive
B. Stable High Order Explosive
C. Low Order Explosive (Deflagrating Explosive)
D. Unstable High Order Explosive

13. Rays Emitted by Radioactive Substances which composed of short rays with
high energy and greater penetrating power and like neutrons it extends a
significant distance and causes much damage to the human body.
A. Alpha Rays
B. Beta Rays
C. Neutron Rays
D. Gamma Rays

14. Rays Emitted by Radioactive Substances Composed of positively charged


helium, having a high linear energy transfer and with a poor penetrating power
that can be stopped by a sheet of paper.
A. Beta Rays
B. Gamma Rays
C. Neutron Rays
D. Alpha Rays

15. Rays Emitted by Radioactive Substances uncharged and composed of highly


penetrating particles and basic element in nuclei of atoms.
A. Alpha Rays
B. Beta Rays
C. Gamma Rays
D. Neutron Rays
62

16. A radiation chiefly from radiothorium series of granite.


A. Alpha Rays
B. Beta Rays
C. Terrestial Origin
D. Cosmic Origin

17. Which of the following is not a general effects of atomic explosion to the human
body?
A. Retardation of cell division, structural changes in the chromosomes
and cytoplasm, vacuolization, and with evidence of maturation.
B. Massive dose causes generalized erythema, disorientation followed
by coma and death.
C. Lesser dose may-cause nausea, vomiting followed by prostration and
rapidly developing and persistent leukemia.
D. Later symptoms may develop in the form of rise of temperature,
ulceration of lymphoid, easy fatigability, oro-pharyngeal ulceration
and severe leukopenia.
18. The following are local effects of Atomic Explosion to the human body.
A. It causes retardation of cell division, structural changes in the
chromosomes and cytoplasm, vacuolization, and with evidence of
maturation.
B. Lesser dose may-cause nausea, vomiting followed by prostration and
rapidly developing and persistent leukemia.
C. Epilation of the hair with the follicles remaining intact, sweat glands
lose their function, erector pili muscles not much affected.
D. There is endothelial necrosis and localized thrombosis. The blood
vessels thicken because of the hyalinization of the collagen.

19. It is the uncontrolled release of atomic nuclei as stored condensed energy


constitutes atomic explosion.
A. Chemical Explosion
B. Electrical Explosion
C. Mechanical (Hydraulic) Explosion
D. Atomic Explosion

20. It occurs when two objects of different electrical potential are brought close to
one another, a large amount of heat develops.
A. Electrical Explosion
B. Nuclear Explosion
C. Chemical Explosion
D. Mechanical (Hydraulic) Explosion
63

21. It is the release of a significant amount of energy by fusion or fission and


consequently with a significant increase of destructiveness.
A. Mechanical (Hydraulic) Explosion
B. Electrical Explosion
C. Chemical Explosion
D. Nuclear Explosion

21. A type of chemical explosion which is caused by the mixture of gas and air.
Mixture of gases with other materials may cause production of flame. The
most common example of dispersed gas explosion is in the internal
combustion engine.
A. Condensed Reactant Explosion
B. Low Order Explosive (Deflagrating Explosive)
C. Diffused Reactant Explosion
D. High Order Explosive

22. A type of chemical explosion which occurs when large quantity of heat and gas
is produced as a result of rapid chemical reaction in a solid or liquid material.
A. Diffused Reactant Explosion
B. Low Order Explosive (Deflagrating Explosive)
C. Condensed Reactant Explosion
D. High Order Explosive

23. A type of High Order Explosive includes trinitrobenzene (Picric acid), fulminate
of mercury, lead, antimony or bismuth and nitroglycerine.
A. Reactant Explosion
B. Low Order Explosive (Deflagrating Explosive)
C. Unstable High Order Explosive
D. Stable High Order Explosive

24. A High Order Explosive that includes dynamite (nitroglycerin made stable by
clay absorption).
A. Condensed Reactant Explosion
B. Low Order Explosive (Deflagrating Explosive)
C. Stable High Order Explosive
D. Unstable High Order Explosive

25. It occurs when a chemical reaction produces heat and gas at a rate faster than
the surroundings can dissipate.
A. Mechanical (Hydraulic) Explosion
B. Electrical Explosion
C. Nuclear Explosion
D. Chemical Explosion
64

26. Which among the classification of explosion as to the source of energy is not
included?
A. Mechanical (Hydraulic) Explosion
B. Electrical Explosion
C. Nuclear Explosion
D. None of the above

27. Which of the following is not High Order Explosive?


A. Mechanical (Hydraulic) Explosion
B. Electrical Explosion
C. Nuclear Explosion
D. All of the above

28. It is composed of positively or negatively charged electrons with a higher


penetrating power than the alpha rays but the ionizing power is much less.
The electrons are travelling at a very high velocity and in some cases
approaching the speed of light.
A. Alpha Rays
B. Gamma Rays
C. Neutron Rays
D. Beta Rays

29. Which of the following is the natural source of radiation?


A. Terrestial Origin
B. Diagnostic X-ray Equipment
C. Clinical nuclear pharmaceutical agents
D. Therapeutic radiation apparatus
30. The Diagnostic X-ray Equipment, Clinical nuclear pharmaceutical agent,
Therapeutic radiation apparatus are examples of what source of radiation?
A. Natural Source
B. Man-made Source
C. Terrestial Origin
D. Cosmic Origin

Prepared by

MARY GRACE L. BAUTISTA


LI.B -3 Student
65

CHAPTER XIII
GUNSHOT WOUND

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. It is an instrument used for the propulsion of a projectile by the expansive force


of gases coming from the burning of gunpowder.
A. Firecracker
B. Gun
C. Firearm
D. None of the above

2. Which of the following is not a small firearm which is of medico-legal interest?


A. Muskets
B. Revolver
C. Automatic Pistol
D. Shotgun

3. This is a firing weapon in which the empty shell is ejected when the cartridge
is fired and a new cartridge is slipped into the breech automatically as a result
of the recoil.
A. Rifle
B. Automatic Pistol
C. Revolver
D. Shotgun

4. Most of theses are principal parts of a cartridge or ammunition, except?


A. Bullet or projectile
B. Cartridge case or shell
C. Primer
D. firing pin

5. It is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which serves as the


projector for the propellant against moisture?
A. Gun Powder or Propellant
B. Bullet
C. Primer
D. The Cartridge case or shell
6. It is a firearm with a long barrel and butt.
A. Shotgun
B. Automatic pistol
C. Revolver
D. Rifle
66

7. All of the following are penal provisions pertaining to firearms, except?


A. Section 2692, Revised Administrative Code
B. Section 2690, Revised Administrative Code
C. Section 2693, Revised Administrative Code
D. Section 2691, Revised Administrative Code
8. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell?
A. Hammer
B. Primer
C. Trigger
D. Firing Pin

9. It is a primary propulsive force in a cartridge which when exploded will cause


the bullet to be driven forward towards the gun muzzle.
A. Primer
B. Cartridge case or shell
C. Bullet
D. Gunpowder/ Projectile

10. It is an object attached to the free end of the cylindrical tip of the cartridge
case, propelled by the expansive force of the propellant, and responsible in the
production of damages in the target.
A. Cartridge case or Shell
B. Primer
C. Gunpowder/ Propellant
D. Bullet

11. It refers to the instantaneous radial displacement of the soft tissues during the
passage of the bullet due to the liberation of the kinetic energy.
A. Hydrostatic Force
B. Shock Wave
C. Laceration and Permanent Cavity in the Bullet Trajectory
D. Temporary Cavity

12. It refers to the dissipation of kinetic energy in a radial direction perpendicular


to the path of the bullet when the bullet volocity is made more than the speed
of sound.
A. Muzzle blast in contact fire
B. Temporary Activity
C. Fragmentation of hard brittle objet in the trajectory
D. Shock wave
67

13. A type of firearm which propels a number of lead pellets in one charge to a
smooth bore barrel is________.
A. Automatic Pistol
B. Rifle
C. Revolver
D. Shotgun

14. Death or physical injuries brought about by powder propelled substnces may
be due to the following except:
A. Detonation of high explosives
B. Firearm Shot
C. All of the Above
D. None of the Above

15. The physical phenomenon when there is more “shocking or knock down
power” of the bullet is:
A. Laceration and Permanent Cavity in the Bullet Trajectory
B. Hydrostatic Force
C. Muzzle blast in contact fire
D. Fragmentation of Disintegration of the Bullet

16. What type of a hand firearm has a rotating cylinder that serves as the magazine
and which succesively places cartridge into position for firing?
A. Automatic Pistol
B. Rifle
C. Shotgun
D. Revolver

17. Which is true regarding entrance wounds?


A. Smaller than the missile
B. No definite Shape
C. Contusion collar is absent
D. Always Absent

18. Which is true regarding exit wounds?


A. Always Absent
B. “Contusion Collar” present
C. Tattoing/Smudging maybe present
D. Underlying tissues are not protruding
68

19. The effects of the garments on the movement of the bullet depend upon:
A. The number of layers of fabric between the muzzle and subjacent
skin;
B. Nature of the fabric which may be closely woven or loose mesh, light
or heavy, cotton or synthetic fibers.
C. Muzzle-clothing distance.
D. All of the above

20. Medical and Surgical Intervention is one of the problems confronting Forensic
Physician in the Identification of Gunshot Wounds because:
A. Problem Inherent to the Injury Itself
B. Embalming trocar may be introduced on the gunshot wound itself or
the trocar mark itself may be mistaken for a gunshot wound
C. Drying, decomposition, healing process, infection
D. Wound may be scrubbed medication applied, or surgically debrided,
extended exercised or sutured. The answer is not A considering tht
it has no connection regarding said proble.

21. These are pieces of evidence that tend to show that the gunshot(s) wound is
Suicidal, except:
A. The shot was fired in a closed or locked room, usually in the office
or bedroom.
B. There maybe a disturbance of the sorroundings on account of
previous struggle.
C. The death weapon is almost always found near the place where the
victim was found.
D. The shot is usually solitary.

22. These are pieces of evidence that tend to show that the gunshot(s) wound is
Homicidal, except:
A. The site or sites of wound of entrance has no point of election.
B. The shot was fired with the muzzle of the gun in contact with the
part of the body involved or at close range.
C. The fire is made when the victim is usually at some distance from
assailant.
D. Wounding firearm usually is not found at the scene of the crime.
69

23. These are pieces of evidence that tend to show that the gunshot(s) wound is
Accidental, except:
A. There is no special area of the body involved
B. Signs of struggle (defense wounds) may be present in the victim
C. Usually there is but one shot
D. Considerations of the testimony of the assailant and determination
as to whether it is possible to be accidental by knowing the relative
position of the victiom and the assailant.

24. The length of survival of the victim may be inferred from the following,
except?
A. Nature of the gunshot wound
B. Age of wound
C. Amount of Blood loss
D. Physical Condition of the victim

25. A shoulder-fired firearm having a barrel that is smooth bored and is intended
for the firing of a charged compound of one or more round balls or pellets.
A. Rifle
B. Automatic Pistol
C. Shotgun
D. Revolver

26. X-ray examinations are useful in:


A. The magnification of gunpowder elements.
B. The determination of chemical changes in the barrel of a gun.
C. The determination of gunpowder and its components.
D. Facilitating the location and extraction of the bullet lodged.

27. It is the study of mobility of the projetile?


A. Pathology
B. Forensics
C. Ballistics
D. None of the Above

28. A game wherein a group of persons may agree to load a revolver with a
single live cartridge and each member of the group will cock and pull the
trigger with the muzzle pressed or directed to the temple or towards other
vital parts of the body. The person who will pull the trigger with the live
cartridge in the firing chamber will suffer the fatal consequence.
A. Roulette
B. American Roulette
C. Russian Roulette
D. French Roullete
70

29. The following are the factors that must be utilized in the identification of
firearm used in the commission of the crime, except?
A. Fingerprints, Caliber of the Weapon
B. Serial number, Fourling of the barrel
C. Ballistic examination alone is sufficient
D. All of the above

30. All of the following are marks found in the shell, except?
A. Marks of the firing pin
B. Marks of the extractor
C. Number of lands and grooves
D. Marks of the ejector

Prepared by
ROCHEN SHAIRA E. DARGANTES
LI.B -3 Student
71

CHAPTER XIV
THERMAL INJURIES OR DEATHS

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. Which among the factors responsible for the effect of radiation is not included?
A. Sex
B. Age
C. Dosage
D. Kind of Radiation

2. This refers to the radiation from the sun or from outer space.
A. Terrestial Origin
B. Cosmic Origin
C. Natural Source
D. Man-made Source

3. Except for one, the following are man-made source of radiation.


A. Diagnostic X-ray Equipment
B. Clinical nuclear pharmaceutical agents
C. Therapeutic radiation apparatus
D. Cosmic Origin

4. It is caused by an appreciable deviation from normal temperature, capable of


producing cellular or tissue changes in the body.
A. Thermal injuries
B. Heat Stiffening
C. Chemical Burns (Corrosive Burns)
D. None of the above

5. The following are proofs that the victim was alive before burned to death except
for one.
A. Presence of smoke in the air passage
B. Presence of vital reaction at the heated areas.
C. Dermal erythema, edema and vesicle formation
D. Subendocardial left ventricular hemorrhage
72

6. What do you mean by Heat Rupture?


A. It is the splitting of the soft tissues of the body, like the skin, due to
exposure before or after death of the body to considerable heat.
B. A condition found in dead bodies which have been subjected to heat.
C. Injuries produced by the application to the body, liquids at or near
boiling point, or in its gaseous state.
D. None of the above.

7. What is third degree burn?


A. There is destruction of the cuticle and part of the true skin. The
burned area is very painful owing to exposure of the nerve endings.
Healing may leave a scar which contains all the elements of the true
skin, consequently without contracture.
B. There is erythema or simple redness of the skin associated with
superficial inflammation and slight swelling which may subside after
a few hours or may last for several days.
C. The whole skin is destroyed with formation of slough which is
yellowish-brown or parchment-like. may subsequently contract and
cause deformity of the part. On account of the complete destruction
of the nerve endings, this kind of burn is not very painful.
D. There is charring of the limb involving subjacent tissues, organs and
bone. If death does not ensue immediately inflammatory changes
may develop in the surrounding tissues.

8. An electrical burn due to a poor contact and the resistance of dry skin and shows
a pricked appearance with a central white zone (parchment) and surrounding
of hyperemia.
A. Contact Burn
B. Flash Burn
C. Spark Burn
D. None of the above

9. An Ultraviolet Light Burn is an example of what type of burn?


A. Electrical Burn
B. Chemical Burn
C. Radiation Burn
D. None of the above

10. The following are characteristics of lesions except for one.


A. Ulcerative patches of the skin.
B. Inflammatory redness of the skin surface.
C. Healing is quite delayed on account of the action of the chemicals to
the underlying tissue.
D. None of the above
73

11. What information that needs to obtain on the examination of the burnt body?
A. Identity
B. Whether the person was alive in the fire
C. Cause of death
D. All of the above

12. It is the involuntary spasmodic painful contraction of muscles essentially due


to dehydration and excessive loss of chlorides by sweating.
A. Heat Cramps (Miner's Cramp, Fireman's Cramp, Stoker's Cramp
B. Heat Exhaustion (Heat Collapse, Syncopal Fever, Heat Syncope, Heat
Prostration)
C. Heat Stroke (Sunstroke, Heat Hyperpyrexia, Comatous Form,
Thermic Fever)
D. None of the above

13. What is Thermal Burns (dry heat)?


A. Lesions which are caused by the application of heat or chemical
substances to the external or internal surfaces of the body, the effect
of which is destruction of the tissue of the body.
B. Injuries produced by the application to the body, liquids at or near
boiling point, or in its gaseous state.
C. The involuntary spasmodic painful contraction of muscles essentially
due to dehydration and excessive loss of chlorides by sweating.
D. None of the above.

14. Which of the following is not a symptom of Heat Cramps (Miner's Cramp,
Fireman's Cramp, Stoker's Cramp)?
A. The pupils are dilated, pulse weak and thready, and respiration is
sighing.
B. The onset is usually sudden as muscles cramp with agonizing pain.
C. The cramp is accompanied by headache, dizziness and vomiting.
D. The face is flushed, pupils are dilated with tinnitus and abdominal
pain.

15. The injuries produced by the application to the body, liquids at or near boiling
point, or in its gaseous state.
A. Thermal Burns (dry heat)
B. Second Degree Burn
C. Friction
74

16. On what degree of burn when there is erythema or simple redness of the skin
associated with superficial inflammation and slight swelling which may subside
after a few hours or may last for several days?
A. Fourth Degree
B. Third degree
C. Second Degree
D. First Degree

17. On what degree of burn where the whole skin is destroyed with formation of
slough which is yellowish-brown or parchment-like.
A. First Degree
B. Second Degree
C. Third degree
D. Fourth Degree

18. The following are immediate fatal result in burns and scalds except for one.
A. Death from shock
B. Dehydration with hemoconcentration
C. Death from concomittant physical injuries with burns
D. Suffocation

19. It is higher degree of over-exposure may produce blister, atrophy of the


superficial tissue and obliteration of the superficial blood vessels.
A. Burns from X-ray
B. Flash Burn
C. Contact Burn
D. Ultraviolet Light Burn

20. Which of the following is an effect of cold?


A. There is blanching and paleness of the skin due to vascular spasm.
B. The vascular spasm is followed by erythema, edema and swelling
due to vascular dilatation, paralysis and increased capillary
permeability.
C. In advanced stage of vascular paralysis, there will be blister
formation.
D. All of the above.
75

21. What do you mean by systematic effects of cold?


A. Systematic effects are reflex in nature brought about by the
stimulation and paralysis of the nerves.
B. Systematic effects are blanching and paleness of the skin due to
vascular spasm.
C. Systematic effects are followed by erythema, edema and swelling
due to vascular dilatation, paralysis and increased capillary
permeability.
D. Systematic effects are advanced stage of vascular paralysis, there
will be blister formation.

22. The effects of heat in the body may be local at the application, or general.
What do you mean by general?
A. When only part of the body is affected.
B. When the whole body is affected.
C. When there is specific part of the body is affected.
D. None of the above.

23. It is one of the general or systematic effects of heat which occurs among those
working in ill-ventilated places with dry and high temperatures or due to a
direct exposure to the sun.
A. Heat Stroke (Sunstroke, Heat Hyperpyrexia, Comatous Form,
Thermic Fever)
B. Heat Cramps (Miner's Cramp, Fireman's Cramp, Stoker's Cramp)
C. Heat Exhaustion (Heat Collapse, Syncopal Fever, Heat Syncope, Heat
Prostration)
D. None of the above.

24. A systematic effect of heat which is due to a heart failure primarily caused by
heat and precipitated by muscular exertion and warm clothing.
A. Heat Exhaustion (Heat Collapse, Syncopal Fever, Heat Syncope, Heat
Prostration)
B. Heat Cramps (Miner's Cramp, Fireman's Cramp, Stoker's Cramp)
C. Heat Stroke (Sunstroke, Heat Hyperpyrexia, Comatous Form,
Thermic Fever)
D. None of the above.
76

25. The following are symptoms of heat stroke except for one.
A. Sudden onset that may be followed by premonitory symptoms of
headache, malaise, giddiness and weakness of the legs.
B. The pupils are dilated, pulse weak and thready, and respiration is
sighing.
C. Temperature rises suddenly and the skin becomes dry, with burning
sensation and flushed skin and complete cessation of sweating.
D. Face is congested.

26. Except for one, the following are the general or systematic effects of heat
stroke.
A. Heat Cramps (Miner's Cramp, Fireman's Cramp, Stoker's Cramp)
B. Heat Exhaustion (Heat Collapse, Syncopal Fever, Heat Syncope, Heat
Prostration)
C. Heat Stroke (Sunstroke, Heat Hyperpyrexia, Comatous Form,
Thermic Fever)
D. Heat Stiffening

27. What does it mean by Pre-natural Combustibility?


A. The human body is inflammable on account of the presence of gases
which easily ignite.
B. The human body can ignite itself spontaneously and bum itself to
death.
C. A condition found in dead bodies which have been subjected to heat.
The heat coagulates the albuminous materials inside the muscle
making it stiff and contracted.
D. None of the above.

28. The kind of electrical burn that is due to a poor contact and the resistance of
dry skin and shows a pricked appearance with a central white zone
(parchment) and surrounding of hyperemia.
A. Contact Burn
B. Spark Burn
C. Flash Burn
D. Ultraviolet Light Burn

29. The kind of electrical burn wherein the appearance varies from the arborescent
pattern of lightning burns to the "crocodile skin" appearance of high voltage
flash.
A. Contact Burn
B. Flash Burn
C. Spark Burn
D. Ultraviolet Light Burn
77

30. A kind of radiation burn which depends upon the degree of intensity and period
of exposure.
A. Ultraviolet Light Burn
B. Contact Burn
C. Burns from X-ray
D. Spark Burn

Prepared by
MARY GRACE L. BAUTISTA
LI.B -3 Student
78

CHAPTER XV
PHYSICAL INJURIES OR DEATH BY LIGHTNING
AND ELECTRICITY

1. What is the cause of death in Electricity?


A. Shock
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. High voltage
D. Haemorrhages

2. Death by electrocution is mostly ______________.


A. Shock
B. Electrical discharge
C. Haemorrhages
D. accidental

3. What do you call the electrical discharge in the atmosphere?


A. Lightning
B. Thunder storm
C. Thunder
D. Typhoon

4. What is compression effect?


A. The compressed air pushed before the current with superheated
atmosphere may produce a backward wave
B. The expansion of the air on account of the superheated atmosphere
may bring about mechanical injury
C. The flash burn may produce arbore scent marking but are by no
means typical.
D. The presence of moist skin, wet floor, barefoot and proximity of
metals, increase the conductivity of the body to electricity.

5. What is the Direct effect from the electrical charge?


A. The electrical charge of lightning may pass to the body producing
electrocution
B. Some of the electrical energy in a lightning is transformed to heat
energy. The superheated air may cause burning of the skin of the
victim.
C. It may result to laceration the body surface, severe tearing of the
clothing and displacement of parts of the body
D. None of the above
79

6. The following are mechanism of death in electrical shock except of one?


A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Electrical arborisation
C. Mechanical asphyxia
D. Respiratory failure

Prepared by
MIRIAM JANE BERNABE
LI.B -3 Student
80

CHAPTER XVI
DEATH OR PHYSICAL INJURIES DUE TO CHANGE OF ATMOSPHERIC
PRESSURE (BAROTRAUMA)
Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct answer.

1. The normal atmospheric pressure at sea level is ______ millimeters of mercury


A. 750
B. 760
C. 800
D. 780

2. A person is subjected to a ________ atmospheric pressure as he goes deeper


in a body of water and a ________ as he ascends higher in the atmosphere.
A. decrease, increase
B. increase, increase
C. increase, decrease
D. decrease, decrease

3. What law in science which provides that “at constant temperature, the amount
of gas dissolved in liquid is directly proportional to the pressure”?
A. Henry’s Law
B. Murphy’s Law
C. Law of Gravity
D. None of the above

4. As the diver goes deeper into the body of water, the atmospheric pressure he
is subjected to, ________?
A. remains constant
B. decreases
C. changes gradually
D. increases

5. The longer the diver remains under pressure and the deeper is the descent, the
________ is the degree of gas saturation of the tissue and the ______ the
length of time required for subsequent decompression.
A. lesser, lesser
B. greater, greater
C. lesser, greater
D. greater, lester
81

6. What is the effect when nitrogen, an inert gas which constitute approximately
80% of the air in the lungs is dissolved in the body fluid?
A. Euphoria
B. Nitrogen Narcosis
C. Pulmonary Edema
D. Cerebral anoxia

7. The _______________ is an injury that a diver may suffer due to prolonged


stay under water.
A. Euphoria
B. Cerebral anoxia
C. Nitrogen Narcosis
D. Pulmonary Edema

8. The absorption of gas in the lungs will cause decrease pressure on the
pulmonary tissue as compared with that of the pulmonary circulation and this
difference in pressure will cause transfer of fluid from the pulmonary capillaries
into the alveolar space. This injury is called __________________.
A. Euphoria
B. Pulmonary Edema
C. Cerebral anoxia
D. Nitrogen Narcosis

9. A rapid descent under water may cause ______________________.


A. stretching, pain, hemorrhage and ultimate perforation of the
tympanic membrane
B. transfer of fluid from the pulmonary capillaries into the alveolar
space
C. rupture of the blood vessels and hemorrhage.
D. decrease pressure on the pulmonary tissue

10. The ear drum may bulge inward resulting to stretching, pain, hemorrhage and
ultimate perforation of the tympanic membrane due to increased atmospheric
pressure.
A. transfer of fluid from the pulmonary capillaries into the alveolar
space
B. stretching, pain, hemorrhage and ultimate perforation of the
tympanic membrane
C. rupture of the blood vessels and hemorrhage
D. decrease pressure on the pulmonary tissue
82

11. Example/s of other injuries the diver may suffer under water is/are
__________.
A. Cerebral anoxia due to a prolonged stay under water
B. Muscular cramp;
C. Physical injuries in the process of diving and hitting hard objects;
D. All of the above

12. If ascent is made _________, the chances of untoward effects during ascent
from a high atmospheric pressure of the deep sea to the surface atmosphere
may not be observed.
A. rapidly
B. at once
C. ocassionally
D. gradually

13. If ascent is made _________, the diver may suffer from the effects of the
sudden release of the gases from the body fluid.
A. at once
B. gradually
C. occassionaly
D. rapidly

14. Example/s of the Post-Mortem Findings if the death has been immediate is/are:
A. Subcutaneous emphysema
B. generalized visceral congestion
C. presence of gas bubbles
D. All of the above

15. Example/s of the Post-Mortem Findings if the death has occurred after a lapse
of several days is/are:
A. Degeneration
B. softening of the white matter of the spinal cord
C. Fat necrosis of the liver
D. All of the above
83

16. What do you call the condition where there is an increase of atmospheric
pressure?
A. Hyperbarism
B. Decompression
C. Hypobarism
D. Barotrauma

17. What do you call the condition where there is a decrease of atmospheric
pressure?
A. Decompression
B. Hyperbarism
C. Hypobarism
D. Barotrauma

18. ______________is a condition caused when at a higher altitude the


atmospheric pressure becomes lower and more gas will be liberated by the
body fluid.
A. Decompression
B. Hyperbarism
C. Barotrauma
D. Hypobarism

19. As a result of decreased atmospheric pressure, release of gases from the body
fluid will cause:
A. Bends
B. Chokes
C. Substernal Emphysema
D. All of the above

20. __________ is a condition where there is joint and muscular pain due to the
presence of air bubbles.
A. Chokes
B. Substernal Emphysema
C. Trapped gas
D. Bends

21. The _______ is a condition where there is non-productive coughing and


respiratory distress.
A. Chokes
B. Substernal Emphysema
C. Trapped gas
D. Bends
84

22. Accumulation of bubbles underneath the skin and is observed as a crepitation


on palpation of the skin is called _____________.
A. Chokes
B. Bends
C. Trapped gas
D. Substernal Emphysema

23. ____________ may result in the doubling of the size of hollow viscus, like the
stomach and intestine at 18,000 feet level.
A. Substernal Emphysema
B. Bends
C. Chokes
D. Trapped gas

24. The __________ is a condition when at higher altitude the oxygen content of
the atmosphere becomes lesser and lesser.
A. Anoxia
B. Hyperbarism
C. Barotrauma
D. Hypobarism

25. Example/s of Causes of Aircraft Injuries and Fatalities during the flight is/are:
A. Altitude
B. Speed
C. Temperature
D. All of the above

26. Example/s of Causes of Aircraft Injuries and Fatalities during the crash is/are:
A. Fracture of the tibia and fibula
B. Fracture of the femur
C. Cranio-facial injuries
D. All of the above

27. A _____________ is an injury after aircraft crash due to the impact of the
head to the seat in front when subjected to a vertical hit.
A. Fracture of the tibia and fibula
B. Fracture of the femur
C. Cranio-facial injuries
D. None of the above
85

28. The ____________is an injury after aircraft crash due to the presence of
the horizontal bar at the rear of the front seat.
A. Fracture of the tibia and fibula
B. Fracture of the femur
C. Cranio-facial injuries
D. None of the above

29. What is the injury after aircraft crash due to the high vertical force and the
front bar of the seat.
A. Fracture of femur
B. Fracture of the tibia and fibula
C. Cranio-facial injuries
D. None of the above

30. Most of the helicopter accidents are due to:


A. structural failure
B. engine and control failure
C. unseen obstacles such as wire, weather and error of judgment
D. All of the above

Prepared by
MARK DENNIEL J. LOJERO
LI.B -3 Student
86

CHAPTER XVII
DEATH BY ASPHYXIA

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct answer.

1. The general term applied to all forms of violent death which results primarily
from the interference with the process of respiration or the condition in which
the supply of oxygen to the blood or to the tissues or both has been reduced
below normal level.
A. Severe hemorrhage
B. Anoxia death
C. Asphyxia
D. Respiration de surprise

2. It is a type of asphyxial death which is associated with the failure of the arterial
blood to become normally saturated with oxygen.
A. Stagnant anoxic death
B. Histotoxic anoxic death
C. Anemic anoxic death
D. Anoxic death

3. Anoxic death may be due to mechanical interference with the passage of air
into or down the respiratory tract which results to:
A. Closure of the external respiratory orifice, like in the smothering and
overlaying.
B. Poisoning
C. Shock
D. Hemorrhage

4. This is due to the failure of the cellular oxidative process, although the oxygen
is delivered to the tissues, it cannot be utilized properly.
A. Anoxic death
B. Histotoxic anoxic death
C. Anemic anoxic death
D. None of the above

5. What are the common agents responsible for the histotoxic anoxic death?
A. Cyanide & alcohol
B. Heat failure
C. Poisoning
D. None of the above
87

6. This is due to a decreased capacity of the blood to carry oxygen.


A. Anemic anoxic death
B. Stagnant anoxic death
C. Histotoxic anoxic death
D. Anoxic death

7. The following are special forms of strangulation, except.


A. Palmar strangulation
B. Mugging or yoking
C. Garrotting
D. Hanging

8. A phase of asphyxial death which is due to the paralysis of the respiratory


center of the brain.
A. Dyspenic
B. Convulsive
C. Apneic
D. Anoxic

9. It is usually caused by the hemorrhage produced by the rupture of the


capillaries on account of the increase of intra-capillary pressure.
A. Apnea
B. Vascular spasm
C. Tardieu spots
D. None of the above

10. Smothering or closing of the mouth and nostrils by solid objects.


A. Suffocation
B. Asphyxia by submersion or drowning
C. Asphyxia by irrespirable gases
D. Strangulations

11. Form of asphyxial death whereby the constricting force applied in the neck is
the hand.
A. Ante mortem
B. Smothering
C. Throttling
D. Drowning
88

12. The application of materials, usually handkerchief, linen or other clothing


matters to prevent air to have access through mouth or nostrils. The pressure
might be so severe that it may cause injury to the buccal mucosa and teeth. It
is homicidal.
A. Accidental smothering of epileptic
B. Plastic bag suffocation
C. Gagging
D. Overlaying

13. The following are classified as asphyxia, except.


A. Asphyxia by submersion
B. Asphyxia by irrespirable gases
C. Asphyxia by pressure on the chest
D. Lynching

14. In this case the marks are not continuous and removed on stretching the skin
of the neck.
A. Fold markings on the neck of an obese individual
B. Marks of tight neckwear
C. Neck elongated and stretched with the head inclined on the side
opposite the knot or noose.
D. None of the above

15. The average time required for death in drowning is.


A. 1 – ½ mins
B. 1 min
C. 1 hour
D. 2-5 mins

16. This is due to simulation of the central nervous system by carbon dioxide. The
cyanosis becomes staring and pupils are dilated.
A. Apneic
B. Dyspneic
C. Convulsive
D. Asphyxia
89

17. Is a form of violent death brought about by the suspension of the body by a
ligature which encircles the neck and the constricting force is the weight of the
body.
A. Hanging
B. Suffocation
C. Drowning
D. Garroting

18. Qualitative tests for carbon monoxide in the blood, except.


A. Kunkel’s test
B. Aquosum
C. Gas chromatograph
D. Infra-red analysis

19. One of the most toxic and rapid acting gases:


A. Hydrogen cyanide
B. Sulphur dioxide
C. Phosgene
D. Tear gas

20. The following findings show that hanging is ante-mortem, except.


A. Marks of tight neckwear
B. Redness or ecchymosis at the site of ligature
C. Ecchymosis of the pharynx and epiglottis
D. None of the above

21. What is the material commonly used as ligature?


A. Electric Wires
B. Beddings
C. Belts
D. Rope

22. A condition which may be due to Severe hemorrhage, poisoning or low


hemoglobin level in the blood
A. Anemic Anoxic Death
B. Anoxic Death
C. Stagnant Anoxic Death
D. Histotoxic Anoxic Death
90

23. This is brought about by the failure of circulation


A. Anemic Anoxic Death
B. Anoxic Death
C. Stagnant Anoxic Death
D. Histotoxic Anoxic Death

24. ____________ is/are common agents responsible for histotoxic anoxic death.
A. Cyanide and alcohol
B. Cyanide
C. Alcohol
D. All of the above

25. _______________ is where the eyes become staring and more pronounced
and the pupils are dilated.
A. Cyanosis
B. Pupil dilation
C. Gasping of breath
D. None on the above

26. One of the symptom of ligature in hanging.


A. Gradual loss of sensibilities
B. Sensation of constriction of the neck
C. Loss of consciousness and muscular power
D. All of the above

27. Which phase of Asphyxial Death causes lack of oxygen and the retention of
carbon dioxide in the body tissue?
A. Shock
B. Heart Failure
C. Vein obstruction
D. Dyspneic

28. Accidental and suicidal death by _________________ poisoning is common.


A. Carbon monoxide
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Hydrogen cyanide
D. None of the above

29. What is due to a decreased capacity of the blood to carry oxygen?


A. Suffocation
B. Asphyxia
C. Hemorrhage
D. Anemic Anoxic Death
91

30. What are the reason/s for anoxic death?


A . Breathing in an atmosphere without or with insufficient oxygen, as
in high altitude
B. Obstruction of the air passage due to pressure from outside, as in
traumatic crush asphyxia.
C. Paralysis of the respiratory center due to poisoning, injury or
anesthesia
D. All of the Above

Prepared by

MA. CRIELESE Y. MACABARE


LLB-3 Student
92

CHAPTER XVIII
DEATH OR PHYSICAL INJURIES DUE TO AUTOMOTIVE CRASH OR
ACCIDENT

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct answer.

1. The following are factors responsible in an automotive crash, except:


A. Human factor
B. Financial factor
C. Environmental factor
D. Social factor

2. When car is running with high velocity before the impact, the car may be
“accordion” causing severe chest, neck, and facial injury. This condition
occurs in what type of automobile crash?
A. Front impact
B. Side impact
C. Rear impact
D. Roll over

3. Which of the following is not a human factor responsible in an automotive


crash?
A. Pedestrian
B. Perceptive defect
C. Disease
D. Mental attitude

4. This Environmental factor is caused by ______


A. Alcohol Bad
B. Bad or poorly maintained roads
C. Defective vision
D. Reckless driving

5. The space of time between the actual application of the brake and the
stopping of car.
A. Reaction time
B. Sked time
C. Accordion
D. Whiplash
93

6. There are ______ collisions that take place in an automobile crash.


A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. It depends.

7. The impact of the moving vehicle with another vehicle or a fixed object is
called the ____.
A. Third collision
B. First collision
C. Fourth collision
D. Second collision

8. The impact of the unrestrained occupants with the interior of the vehicle is
called ____.
A. Second collision
B. First collision
C. Third collision
D. Fourth collision

9. The following are factors Responsible for Passenger and Driver Injury except:
A. Displacement of the occupants within the vehicle with impact
against structures.
B. Alcoholism
C. Ejection
D. Distribution of the passengers in the compartment resulting in
direct impact injuries.

10. The backward and forward movement of the head in a rear impact crash is
known as _____.
A. Accordion
B. Whiplash
C. Rolling
D. Injury

11. The crash where the occupants may be pinned, crushed or may be thrown
away and fall on the ground and the unrestrained passenger may tumble
inside the vehicle and may sustain injuries from striking the interior of the
vehicle.
A. Front Impact Crash
B. Roll Over Crash
C. Side Impact Crash
D. Rear Impact Crash
94

12. What fracture of the leg bones as a consequence of the primary impact
A. Bumper fracture
B. Leg fracture
C. Bone fracture
D. Tire fracture

13. This is the subsequent impact of the pedestrian to the ground after the first
impact.
A. Third impact
B. Second impact
C. First Impact
D. Fourth Impact

14. Which of the following evidences in vehicular crash can be obtained from the
scene of the crime?
A. Capacity to manipulate the steering wheel, step on the brake and
accelerator, visual and hearing perception, reflex time, heart
condition, history of epileptic seizure, etc.
B. A photograph or sketch must be taken to determine who violated
the traffic rules and regulation.
C. Condition and position of the victim (pedestrian or occupants).
D. Narrations of witnesses as to how the incident took place including
the identity of the vehicle and the victims.

15. The first violent contact between the pedestrian and the motor vehicle.
A. First collision
B. Primary impact
C. Second collision
D. Secondary impact

16. This type of injury usually happens when the driver is drunk or "high", at
night time, in an isolated road and with no eyewitnesses or someone who
could take note of the identity of the vehicle.
A. Run over injuries
B. Hit-and-run injuries
C. Turn-turtle injuries
D. Ejection of the occupant

17. The use of seatbelt is an absolute safety device.


A. True.
B. False.
C. Partly false.
D. Partly true.
95

18. These are protective apparel which can be used to minimize crashes in
motorcycles, except:
A. Leather jacket
B. Sunglasses
C. Helmet
D. Gloves

19. Which is not among the purpose of an Autopsy of Victims in Vehicular


Accidents?
A. In order to determine who was at fault when the accident
happened.
B. The examiner can give his opinion as to the deceased's position in
the vehicle or the pattern of the injuries correlated to the point of
contact with the vehicle.
C. Examination will determine whether death occurred as a result of
the crash and not due to a natural disease, poisoning, gunshot
wound or other causes prior to the crash.
D. In cases when more than one member of the family died in a
crash, the examiner can form an opinion as to who from among
them survived the longest.

20. This is not one of the reasons why there is a high percentage of motorcycle
crash.
A. A motorcycle can attain a high speed compared with other ordinary
road vehicle.
B. There are more reckless motorcycle drivers than car drivers.
C. It has a small profile that the driver of other vehicles may fail to
see it.
D. At high speed and frequently in curves, the cyclist may lose control
of the bike. It may hit a fixed object, the tire may skid, or the
cyclist may be drunk.

21. The following are pieces of evidence in vehicular crash from the victim in
Vehicle-Pedestrian Collision, except:
A. Crush Injury
B. Alcoholic drunkenness
C. Tire Thread Marks
D. Physical Defects of the Victim
96

22. This refers to injuries to the abdominal wall, visceral organs and vertebral
column or abrasion, contusion and hematoma of the lower portion of the
abdomen as a result of the use of seatbelts.
A. Seat belt injury
B. Seat belt syndrome
C. Seat belt damage
D. Seat belt wound

23. The Roll over crash is also called as ______.


A. Whiplash
B. Turn-Turtle Impact
C. Run over injury
D. Suicide crash

24. This is usually a single vehicle and single occupant crash in which there is no
evidence of any effort to apply the brake or to avoid striking the object.
A. Front Impact Crash
B. Suicide Crash
C. Side Impact Crash
D. Roll Over Crash

25. Which of the following is a factor responsible for automotive crash?


A. Environmental Factor
B. Moral factor
C. Spiritual factor
D. Psychological factor

26. This defect in the steering wheel, poor brake, transmission failure, worn out
tires, unstable body are potential source of vehicular crash is a _____.
A. Social Factor
B. Mechanical factor
C. Pedestrian
D. Environmental factor

27. It may occur when a vehicle strikes on the side of another vehicle or when a
vehicle skids sideways into another fixed object.
A. Front impact crash
B. Top Impact crash
C. Rear impact crash
D. Side Impact crash
97

28. Crash fracture, skid or tire marks, rupture of organs and internal hemorrhage
may be seen at autopsy in this kind of injury. What is it?
A. Accidental injuries
B. Hit and run injuries
C. Suicidal injuries
D. Run over injuries

29. Which of the following is not a pattern of injuries on the Front Occupants?
A. Laceration of the Spleen and kidneys and pelvic
B. Abrasion of the face and scalp
C. Laceration of the face and scalp.
D. Fracture of the skull.

30. This may occur following change of lane in an express way or crash at the
rear of a parked vehicle.
A. Suicide Crash
B. Rear impact crash
C. Front Crash
D. Side Crash

Prepared by
RUPERTO CORTON
LI.B-3 Student
98

CHAPTER XIX
DEATH OR PHYSICAL INJURIES DUE TO ATHLETIC SPORTS

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. What is the primary objective of the combatants in boxing?


A. Knock out or win
B. Kill the opponent
C. Injured the opponent
D. Punch the opponent

2. Serous effusion on the loose tissue around the eyeball and the eyelid may cause
________.
A. Hemorrhage
B. Swelling
C. Spectacle hematoma
D. Puffiness and closing of the eye

3. A hemorrhage due to the rupture of the blood vessels or the fracture of the
orbital plate of the frontal bone may cause the swelling and discoloration in or
around the eye, known as __________.
A. Hemorrhage
B. Swelling
C. Spectacle hematoma
D. Puffiness and closing of the eye

4. The healing and scaring process after, the pinnas appear to be thick and
irregular, known as __________.
A. Hemorrhage
B. Cauliflower ears
C. Swelling
D. Pinna of the ears

5. It may develop a consequence of a hard hook or a straight blow.


A. Cauliflower ears
B. Pinna of the ears
C. Fracture of the skull
D. Fracture of the nasal septum, mandible and maxillary bone
99

6. A quite unusual to develop because of the difficulty to do so with gloved fist.


A. Cauliflower ears
B. Pinna of the ears
C. Fracture of the skull
D. Fracture of the nasal septum, mandible and maxillary bone

7. What is one of the serious hazards of boxing as it may cause partial or complete
loss of vision?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Muscle cramps, sprain and dislocation
C. Fracture of the skull
D. Fracture of the nasal septum, mandible and maxillary bone

8. The reason/s that may occur and may force the boxer to give up the fight.
A. Retinal detachment
B. Muscle cramps, sprain and dislocation
C. Fracture of the skull
D. Fracture of the nasal septum, mandible and maxillary bone

9. A cause of peri-renal hemorrhage or laceration of the kidney that causes it to


lose its function and subsequent uremia.
A. Retinal detachment
B. Muscle cramps, sprain and dislocation
C. A kidney punch
D. A blow on the face

10. It may cause laceration of the lip and buccal mucosa with loosening or
detachment of the teeth.
A. Retinal detachment
B. Muscle cramps, sprain and dislocation
C. A kidney punch
D. A blow on the face

11. In which of the following incidentally increases the number of injuries and
fatalities?
A. Cooking
B. Mining
C. Hunting
D. Athletic Sports
100

12. In Athletic Sports, most injuries and fatalities are, as a rule, due to
____________.
A. accident or from natural cause
B. inquiries as to the adequacy of the medical supervision
C. proper observation of the rules
D. All of the above

13. A Boxing as a sport is sometimes described as an ___________________.


A. slaughter
B. carnage
C. organized brutality
D. all of the above

14. What sport which is the primary objective of the combatants is to knock out or
win by decision by delivering a stunning or a weakening punch.
A. Boxing
B. Wrestling
C. Fencing
D. Taekwondo

15. The infliction of _______________ is purely accidental but in boxing, it is the


direct and primary objective of the combatants.
A. Pain
B. physical injuries
C. homicide
D. none of the above

16. It is the reason why boxing should not be prohibited is/are ______________.
A. It takes wayward youths who are victims of the educational system
off the streets
B. It teaches them self-discipline and controls and reinforces the adage
that nothing of value is acquired without hard work and sacrifice.
C. Self-confidence can only be promoted through an individual sport
where the athlete must rely in his own talent and believes in his own
ability. Only through conflict can hidden resources surface
D. All of the above
101

17. It is the reason why boxing should be prohibited is/are______________.


A. There is too much risk of death or injury to the participants.
B. Unlike other sports, the intention of the combatants is to produce
injury as a principal way to win the contest. So, young men should
be discouraged from a pugilistic career.
C. It encourages the youth to engage in street fights.
D. All of the above.

18. The potential injuries that may be suffered by the combatants in boxing is
bleeding from the eyebrow which may drip downwards to the eye and cause
_____________________.
A. immediate blindness
B. irritation and blurring of vision
C. retinal detachment
D. All of the above

19. Combatants in boxing may be knocked down or accidentally fall on the canvass
causing _________________.
A. cauliflower ears
B. spectacle hematoma
C. retinal detachment
D. laceration of the scalp

20. A blow on the face may cause ____________________.


A. cauliflower ears
B. muscle cramps, sprain and dislocation
C. laceration of the lip and buccal mucosa with loosening or detachment
of the teeth
D. Spectacle hematoma

21. _________________ or the transitory period of unconsciousness is a result


from a blow on the head that may last for a few seconds or longer.
A. Subdural haemorrhage
B. Pontine haemorrhage
C. laceration of the scalp
D. Cerebral concussion

22. Some effects on the brain of a boxing blow depends on the location,
_________, _________, ____________.
A. direction
B. intensity
C. velocity and number of blows
D. All of the above
102

23. _____________ known to some as boxers hemorrhage may be the result of


severe beating. The acute flexion and extension of the head during a series of
blows may cause the brain stem to be pinched over the tentorium causing
hemorrhage.
A. Subdural hemorrhage
B. Cerebral concussion
C. Spectacle hematoma
D. Pontine hemorrhage

24. What do you call a blow which causes the rotation of the movable head causing
the inert brain to lag behind the accelerated skull? This is particularly true to a
groggy fighter who has lost control of his neck muscles in the head which is
most susceptible to sudden acceleration.
A. Rotation (angular) Acceleration
B. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
C. Injury to the Carotid
D. Impact Deceleration

25. What follows severe trauma on the head?


A. Cerebral Edema
B. Ischemia
C. Herneation
D. None of the above

26. The delayed sequelae of intracranial damages in boxing is summed up to what


is commonly known as __________________ or traumatic or pugilistic
encephalopathy. This is characterized by slurred speech, slow clumsy
movement, unsteadiness of gait, tremor, progressive dementia, poor tolerance
to alcohol and symptoms of progressive ventricular dilatation.
A. Cerebral Edema
B. punch-drunkenness
C. Subdural hemorrhage
D. Ischemia

27. What occurs after a knockout, and the boxer hits the rope or mat? Fall on the
back produces rapid deceleration which typically results in contre-coup
contusions of the orbital surface of the frontal lobes and the tips of the temporal
lobes.
A. Impact Deceleration
B. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
C. Injury to the Carotid
D. Rotation (angular) Acceleration
103

28. In which measure/s is/are adapted to minimize injuries in boxing are?


A. Spacing between matches, usually not less than a month, to avoid
too much muscular strain and it should be a part of the regulation.
B. The use of stimulants is prohibited.
C. Blow on the genital region is considered a foul.
D. All of the above.

29. Some of the common injuries suffered by combatants in wrestling are


_________.
A. Injury to the cervical spine (fracture and/or dislocation) especially
when the wrestler forms a bridge during the contest. There is a
bridge when the trunk and neck is hyper-extended and the Body
weight is supported by the head which touches the ground and the
feet.
B. Knee injury, usually meniscus or ligaments tear that follows
hyperextension and rotation of the leg.
C. Injuries to the shoulder joint and a rotator cuff result from twisting
of the trunk and upper extremities.
D. All of the above.

30. A straight blow on the face may cause focal ischemic lesions, notably in the
cerebellum. Vascular spasm associated with focal ischemia are known to occur
after subarachnoid hemorrhage and often manifest themselves a few days after
bleeding. This is called _______.
A. Impact Deceleration
B. Injury to the Carotid
C. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
D. Rotation (angular) Acceleration

Prepared by
MANNYLOYD FRITCH L. GAM
LI.B -3 Student
104

CHAPTER XX
CHILD ABUSE OR NEGLECTED CHILD

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct answer.

1. Which of he following is the general duties of parents toward their children?


A. To give Unreasonable deprivation of his basic needs for survival,
such as food and shelter
B. To degrade a child as a human being
C. To give delay in seeking medical cure
D. To provide him with an adequate support

2. The failure to provide the child with the necessity of life.


A. Physical abuse
B. Physical neglect
C. Ignorant abuser
D. Constant child abuser

3. A medical evidence tending to show injuries due to abuse


A. Multiple bruises and kiss marks.
B. Multiple skin rashes.
C. Skin imprints from forcefully striking objects.
D. Both a and b

4. All are causes of child abuse or neglect, except:


A. Unwanted child
B. Child as a center of a triangle
C. Child may be a hindrance to the socio-economic activities of the
parents.
D. Abusive child

5. A parents who periodically batter a child with periods or proper care


between battering.
A. One-time child abuse
B. Ignorant abuser
C. Intermittent child abuse
D. Constant child abuser

6. _____Parent who actually hates his or her child and callously and
deliberately beats and miscares for it.
A. One-time child abuser
B. Intermittent child abuser
C. Ignorant abuser
D. Constant child abuser
105

7. _____Parent who manhandle their children for a time and never repeat the
act.
A. One-time child abuser
B. Intermittent child abuser
C. Ignorant abuser
D. Constant child abuse

8. Their attempts at rearing their children result in a permanent injury or death


or their children, and they are “truly sorry” when the child dies.
A. One-time child abuser
B. Intermittent child abuser
C. Ignorant abuser
D. Constant child abuser

9. What refers to a scientifically defined pattern of psychological and


behavioral symptoms found in women living in battering relationships as a
result of cumulative abuse.
A. Battered wife syndrome
B. Abusive parent
C. Battered chicken
D. Child abuse

10. The father, or in his absence the _____, is the legal administrator of the
property pertaining to the child under parental authority.
A. Court
B. DSWD
C. Siblings
D. Mother

11. It is When resentment builds between them, the child commonly becomes
the target of man's hostility.
A. One-time child abuser
B. Intermittent child abuser
C. Ignorant abuser
D. Child as center of triangle

12. What refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the woman or her
child resulting to the physical and psychological or emotional distress.
A. Battery
B. Battered granny
C. Child abuse
D. Battered chicken
106

13. Below are the facts to be considered to suspect that a child is a victim of
abuse, except.

A. The child is not emotional, fearful and with a vague history of


injury.
B. The parents present a vague and defensive detail of the child's
"illness" or "injury".
C. Too many previous unexplained signs of injuries or history of
previous illness.
D. Parents have extended delay in seeking medical cure.

14. _____have power to correct them and to punish them moderately.


A. DSWD
B. Court
C. Siblings
D. Parents

15. Do the parents have the right to discipline the child as may be necessary
for the formation of his good character?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Perhaps
D. Maybe

16. A persons may be extremely demanding, seeking more attention from the
caring descendant or with child-like behavior which may be irritating and
which may cause infliction of physical injuries.
A. Battered woman syndrome
B. Abusive parent
C. Battered grannies
D. Child abuse

17. What are the Act or Omission Affecting the Child's Health or Welfare?
A. Physical abuse and physical neglect
B. Abusive parent and unwanted child
C. Ignorant abuser and one-time abuser
D. Intermitent child abuser and constant child abuser

18. Below are classification of Child Abuser, except


A. Two-time child abuser
B. Intermittent child abuser
C. Ignorant abuser
D. Constant child abuser
107

19. All hospitals, clinics and other institutions as well as private physicians
providing treatment shall, within how many hours from knowledge of the
case, report in writing to the city or provincial fiscal or to the Local Council
for the Protection of Children?
A. 24 hours
B. 36 hours
C. 70 hours
D. 48 hours

20. In civil code which are the following are the right of the parents?
A. To give him affection, companionship and understanding.
B. To extend to him the benefits of moral guidance, self-discipline
and religious instruction.
C. To supervise his activities, including his recreation.
D. The duty to support them, to have them in their company,
educate and instruct them in keeping with their means, and to
represent them in all actions which may redound to their benefit;

21. What is battered grannies?


A. Elderly persons may be extremely demanding, seeking more
attention from the caring descendant or with child-like behavior
which may be irritating and which may cause infliction of physical
injuries.
B. refers to a scientifically defined pattern of psychological and
behavioral symptoms found in women living in battering
relationships as a result of cumulative abuse.
C. refers to the causes of child abuse or Neglect
D. refers physical and mental injury or maltreatment of a child by a
person who is responsible for the child's welfare .

22. What is battered woman syndrome?


A. Elderly persons may be extremely demanding, seeking more
attention from the caring descendant or with child-like behavior
which may be irritating and which may cause infliction of physical
injuries.
B. refers to a scientifically defined pattern of psychological and
behavioral symptoms found in women living in battering
relationships as a result of cumulative abuse.
C. refers to the causes of child abuse or Neglect
D. refers physical and mental injury or maltreatment of a child by a
person who is responsible for the child's welfare
108

23. It is the Failure to immediately give medical treatment to an injured child


resulting in serious impairment of his growth and development or in his
permanent incapacity or death.
A. Battered grannies
B. Battered woman syndrome
C. Child abuse
D. Abusive parent

24. What is physical neglect?


A. The failure to provide the child with the necessity of life.
B. refers physical and mental injury or maltreatment of a child by a
person who is responsible for the child's welfare .
C. Any act by deeds or words which debases, degrades or demeans
the intrinsic worth and dignity of a child as a human being
D. The law allows chastisement for discipline but it may be physical
abuse when it involves the use of instrument or fist blow.

25. What is physical abuse?


A. The failure to provide the child with the necessity of life.
B. refers physical and mental injury or maltreatment of a child by a
person who is responsible for the child's welfare .
C. Any act by deeds or words which debases, degrades or demeans
the intrinsic worth and dignity of a child as a human being
D. The law allows chastisement for discipline but it may be physical
abuse when it involves the use of instrument or fist blow.

26. What is Child as a center of a triangle?


A. In the case of a couple or mother "live-in" boyfriend, more often
the child is placed in the middle of an emotional triangle.
B. The wife may be periodically subjected to maltreatment by the
husband on the account of jealousy, infidelity, or incompatibility
of character.
C. persons may be extremely demanding, seeking more attention
from the caring descendant or with child-like behavior which may
be irritating and which may cause infliction of physical injuries.
D. The failure to provide the necessities of life.
109

27. What is battery mentioned in R.A. 9262?


A. Refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the woman or
her child resulting to the physical and psychological or emotional
distress
B. A container consisting of one or more cells, in which chemical
energy is converted into electricity and used as a source of power.
C. refers to the causes of child abuse or Neglect
D. refers to a scientifically defined pattern of psychological and
behavioral symptoms found in women living in battering
relationships as a result of cumulative abuse.

28. The law allows chastisement for discipline but it may be ______ it involves
the use of instrument or fist blow.
A. Physical neglect
B. Physical abuse
C. Abusive parent
D. Unwanted child

29. What is an ignorant Abuser?


A. it pertains to the acts of parent to attempts at rearing their
children result in a permanent injury or death or their children,
and they are “truly sorry” when the child dies.
B. Pertains to a Parent who manhandle their children for a time and
never repeat the act.
C. it pertains to a parents who periodically batter a child with periods
or proper care between battering.
D. Pertains to parent who actually hates his or her child and callously
and deliberately beats and miscares for it.

30. _______ parent had the intention to hurt the child and be indifferent to
the child's sufferings.
A. One-time child abuser
B. Intermittent child abuser
C. Ignorant abuser
D. Constant child abuser

Prepared by

TOMMY BOY LAUS


LI.B -3 Student
110

CHAPTER XXI
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS OF SEX CRIMES

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct answer.

1. What is a condition of a female who has not experienced sexual intercourse and
whose genital organs have not been altered by carnal connection?
A. Virginity
B. Moral Virginity
C. Physical Virginity
D. Virgo Intacta

2. What is the state of not knowing the nature of sexual life and not having
experienced sexual relation?
A. Moral Virginity
B. Physical Virgnity
C. Virginity
D. Virgo Intacta

3. The condition where a woman is conscious of the nature of the sexual life but
has not experienced sexual intercourse?
A. Moral Virginity
B. Physical Virginity
C. Virginity
D. Virgo Intacta

4. This refers to a condition wherein a female permits any form of sexual liberties
as long as hymen is not ruptured by sexual act.
A. Defloration
B. Physical Virginity
C. Moral Virginity
D. Demi Virginity

5. Which of the following statements is correct?


A. There is a presumption of virginity if a woman is not single.
B. All women in a relationship are not virgins.
C. A woman is a virtuous female if her body is pure and she has never
had sexual intercourse with another and her mind and body is pure.
D. A woman is a virtuous female if her body is pure and she has never
had sexual intercourse with another, though her mind and body is
impure.
111

6. The laceration or rupture of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse.


A. Moral Virginity
B. Defloration
C. Demi Virginity
D. Virgo Intacta

7. The following are parts of the female genitalia that must be examined to
determine defloration EXCEPT ONE.
A. Condition of the Vulva
B. semen
C. Vaginal canal
D. Fourchette

8. The following are parts of the female body to be considered in the determination
of the condition of virginity EXCEPT ONE.
A. Breast
B. Vulva
C. Labia Majora and Labia Minora
D. Vaginal Canal

9. In the medical examination of lacerated hymens, the following are the facts that
must be looked into EXCEPT ONE.
A. Location of laceration
B. Degree of laceration
C. Duration of laceration
D. Bacteria in the lacerated hymen.

10. Which of the following is an example of death related to sexual act?


A. Seduction
B. Abduction
C. Acts of Lasciviousness
D. cunnillingus

11. It is a living organism, normally present in the seminal fluid consisting of a


head, neck and tail, from 50-55 microns in length. The head is ovoid and
flattened when viewed in front and pear shape when viewed on the profile.
A. Condition of the Vulva
B. Vaginal Canal
C. Hymen
D. spermatozoon
112

12. What is the seduction of a woman who is single or a widow of good reputation,
over twelve, but under eighteen years of age, committed by means of deceit?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Abduction
C. Adultery and Concubinage
D. Acts of Lasciviousness

13. Tommy is conscious of his homosexual cravings and makes no attempt of


disguising his intention. What sexual abnormality does he have?
A. Overt Homosexual
B. Oralism
C. Sado-masochism
D. Fetishism

14. ____________ are acts which tend to excite lust; conduct which is wanton,
lewd, voluptuous or lewd emotion.
A. Seduction
B. Abduction
C. Adultery and Concubinage
D. Acts of Lasciviousness

15._____________, as an element in rape, need not be irresistible as long as it


brings the desired result.
A. Virginity
B. Seduction
C. Maturity
D. Force

16. Which are the means or procedures that may be use in the examination of
seminal fluid and spermatozoa?
A. Gross Examination and Micro-Chemical Examination only
B. Gross Examination and Micro-Chemical Examination, Macroscopic
Examination and Biological Examination
C. Gross Examination and Micro-Chemical Examination, Macroscopic
Examination
D. Gross Examination, Micro-Chemical Examination, Microscopic
Examination and Biological Examination
113

17. It is the act of the man enticing women to have unlawful intercourse with him
by means of persuasion, solicitation, promises, bribes, or other means without
employment of force.
A. Homosexual
B. Heterosexual
C. Infantosexual
D. Seduction

18. The following are medical evidences in rape EXCEPT ONE.


A. Evidences from the victim
B. Examination of morality
C. Evidences form the companion of the victim
D. Examination of the alleged offender

19. What is the viscid, albuminous fluid with faint grayish yellow color, having the
characteristic fishy odor, and containing spermatozoa, epithelial cells, lecithin
bodies and other substances?
E. semen
F. Breast
G. Vaginal Canal
H. Hymen

20. It is a type of Qualified Seduction wherein there is blood relationship between


the seducer and the seduced.
A. Qualified Seduction
B. Simple Seduction
C. Ordinary Qualified Seduction
D. Incestuous Qualified Seduction

21. What do you call the carrying away of a woman by an abductor with lewd
design?
A. Abduction
B. Acts of Lasciviousness
C. Adultery and Concubinage
D. Seduction

22. The intent of the abductor to have sexual intercourse with the woman
abducted.
A. Abduction
B. Seduction
C. Lewd Design
D. Adultery
114

23. The abduction of a virgin over twelve years and under eighteen years of age,
carried out with her consent and with lewd designs, shall be punished by the
penalty of _______________ in its minimum and medium periods.
A. Prision Mayor
B. Prision Correccional
C. Arresto Mayor
D. Arresto Menor

24. Adultery is committed by any married woman who shall have sexual
intercourse with a man not her husband and by the man who has carnal knowledge
of her knowing her to be married, even if the marriage be subsequently declared
void. Adultery shall be punished by ________________in its medium and
maximum periods.
A. Prision Mayor
B. Reclusion Perpetua
C. Arresto Mayor
D. Prision Correccional

25. Which statement is INCORRECT?


A. Infantosexual refers to sexual desire towards an immature person.
B. Bestosexual refers to sexual desire towards animals.
C. Autosexual (Self-gratification or masturbation) is a form of ―self-
abuse or solitary vice carried without the cooperation of another
person.
D. Heterosexual is a sexual desire towards same sex.

26. A sexual desire towards opposite sex.


A. Homosexual
B. Infantosexual
C. Heterosexual
D. Bestosexual

27. A sexual desire towards same sex.


A. Heterosexual
B. Infantosexual
C. Homosexual
D. Bestosexual

28. What is the sexual desire towards an immature person?


A. Infantosexual
B. Homosexual
C. Heterosexual
D. Bestosexual
115

29. What is the sexual desire towards animals?


A. Bestosexual
B. Homosexual
C. Heterosexual
D. Infantosexual

30. What is the sexual perversion characterized by erotic desire or actual sexual
intercourse with a corpse.
A. Necrophilia
B. Sado-masochism
C. Oralism
D. Fetishism

Prepared by

ATIENZA, JACOB A.
Ll.B – 3 Student
116

CHAPTER XXIII
DELIVERY

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. The process by which a woman gives birth to her offspring.


A. Abortion
B. Delivery
C. Puerperium
D. Caesarian

2. The interval between the termination of labor (delivery) to the complete return
of the reproductive organ to its non-pregnant state. It usually lasts from 6 to 8
weeks.
A. Delivery
B. Puerperium
C. Caesarian
D. All of the above

3. The following are the study of delivery which is important because proof of
delivery is necessary in judicial action, except one.
A. Legitimacy
B. Abdominal caesarian
C. Slander or libel
D. Abortion

4. The following are methods of delivery, except one.


A. Natural route
B. Linea nigra
C. Vaginal caesarian section
D. Surgical route

5. The expulsion of the products of conception through the normal passage; that
is, through the vaginal canal.
A. Surgical route
B. Natural route
C. Vaginal caesarian section
D. All of the above
117

6. The expulsion of the products of conception is not through normal openings of


the female generative tract but through some artificial openings brought about
by surgery.
A. Natural route
B. Surgical route
C. Post-mortem caesarian section
D. All of the above

7. The striae of pregnancy is also called as.


A. Linea nigra
B. Linea albicantes
C. Both a & b
D. All of the above

8. The child is delivered by opening the abdominal wall and the anterior wall of
the uterus.
A. Infanticide
B. Abdominal caesarian section
C. Natural route
D. Spontaneous

9. When the pregnant woman meet sudden death either naturally or through
violence and there is no chance of life, any person may open the abdomen to
get the
A. Fetus en utero
B. All of the above
C. Flaccidity of the abdominal wall
D. Linea nigra

10. This pigmentation is usually in the form of straight line in the median line
persists up to delivery.
A. Peculiar odor
B. Surgical route
C. Languid look
D. Presence of linea nigra

11. The following are the signs of recent delivery, except.


A. Peculiar odor
B. Legitimacy
C. Flaccidity of the abdominal wall
D. Changes in the breast
118

12. Presence of striae of pregnancy or linea atrophica on the abdominal wall.


A. Sign of recent delivery
B. Sign of abortion
C. All of the above
D. Sign of remote delivery in the living

13. When the products of conception passed out of the vagina without the aid of
physician, midwife, instrumentation or surgical intervention.
A. Spontaneous
B. Instrumentation
C. Both a and b
D. All of the above

14. When delivery is effected with the aid of surgery.


A. Surgical intervention
B. Instrumentation
C. Infanticide
D. All of the above

15. The second stage of labor is modified by the use of instrumentation


A. Surgical route
B. Instrumentation
C. Normal route
D. Concealment of child

16. The child is delivered thru the surgical opening made through the vagina.
A. Abortion
B. Vaginal caesarian section
C. Abdominal caesarian section
D. Post mortem caesarian section

17. The characteristic odor of the lochical discharge is present up to the ______
day of confinement.
A. Second
B. Tenth
C. Ninth
D. Third

18. This usually disappears normally in 2 or 3 days after delivery


A. Peculiar odor
B. Changes in the breast
C. Languid look, with pulse and temperature slightly increased
D. Flaccidity of the abdominal wall
119

19. The origin of linea nigra is most probably


A. Normal
B. Hormonal
C. Surgical
D. All of the above

20. It is the discharge from the vagina after delivery.


A. Rubra
B. Serosa
C. Linea Ablicantes
D. Lochia

21. When the pregnant woman meet sudden death either naturally or through
violence and there is no chance of life.
A. Post-Mortem Caesarian Section
B. Abortion
C. Surgical route
D. Natural route
22. Immediately after delivery, the uterus does not return to its original size
A. Presence of linea nigra
B. Abdominal caesarian section
C. Hydremia of the blood.
D. Uterus is enlarged and palpable

22. The normal_______ of the wall of the vaginal canal is lost due to severe
distention
A. Lochia
B. Concealment of child
C. Delivery
D. Rugosities

24. It is the lochial discharge from the vagina after delivery of bloody in color
is called
A. Linea Ablicantes
B. Lochia Serosa
C. Sugical
D. Lochia Rubra
120

25. It is the lochial discharge from the vagina after delivery of almost colorless
is called
A. Linea Ablicantes
B. Lochia Rubra
C. Sugical
D. Lochia Serosa

26. The characteristic odor of the lochial discharge is present up to the tenth
day of confinement
A. Surgical
B. Peculiar Odor
C. Instrumentation
D. Foul Odor

27. The scar of the previous laceration may be present


A. Changes In The Breast
B. Vulva And Perineum
C. Hymen
D. Both A & C

28. There is a sensation of tightness of the breasts and milk may be expressed
A. Linea Albicantes present in the abdominal wall
B. b.Changes in the breast
C. Flaccidity of the abdominal wall
D. Peculiar odor

29. This usually disappears normally in two or three days after delivery
A. Uterus is enlarged and palpable
B. Presence of Linea Nigra
C. Flaccidity of the abdominal wall
D. Languid look, with pulse and temperature slightly increased

30. The post mortem findings in the uterus in a woman who died recently after
delivery,except
A. Laceration or contusion of the cervix
B. Presence of Linea Nigra
C. Uterus is enlarged and flabby
D. Inner surface of uterus is bloody and rugged looking

Prepared by
BRIAN H. QUIMINALES
LI.B -3 Student
121

CHAPTER XXIV
ABORTION

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. What is abortion?
A. the expulsion of the contents of a gravid uterus any time before full
term while others consider it as the forcible expulsion of the product
of conception any time before the age of viability.
B. That the expulsion of the product of conception is induced.
C. That the fetus dies either as an effect of the violence used, drug
administered or the fetus was expelled before the term of its viability.
D. An ovum destroyed by hemorrhage into the choriospace usually
before the 4th month of the pregnancy.

2. What is viability?
A. The point at which the fetus is potentially able to live outside of the
mother’s womb, albeit with respiratory aid.
B. The expulsion of the contents of a gravid uterus any time before full
term while others consider it as the forcible expulsion of the product of
conception any time before the age of viability.
C. The whole product of conception is expelled.
D. None of the above

3. What are the principal elements of abortion?


I. That the expulsion of the product of conception is induced.
II. Death of the fetus
III. Abnormality of the uterus
IV. That the fetus dies either as an effect of the violence used, drug
administered or the fetus was expelled before the term of its viability.
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

4. What is Missed Abortion?


A. An ovum destroyed by hemorrhage into the choriospace usually
before the 4th month of the pregnancy.
B. The whole product of conception is expelled.
C. Hormonal deficiency
D. Hemorrhage with dilatation if the internal os and the presence of
rhythmical pain.
122

5. What is incomplete abortion?


A. Not all products of conception had been expelled from the uterus;
fragments or portions of which is retained.
B. Is at the point at which the fetus is potentially able to live outside of
the mother’s womb, albeit with respiratory aid.
C. That the expulsion of the product of conception is induced.
D. Hemorrhage without dilatation of the internals.

6. What is inevitable abortion?


A. Hemorrhage with dilatation if the internal os and the presence of
rhythmical pain.
B. The whole product of conception is expelled.
C. Done without therapeutic indication but with criminal intent is
punishable by law.
D. Abortion purposely done to preserve the life of the mother.

7. These are the clinical types of abortion?


I. Missed Abortion
II. Threatened Abortion
III. Incomplete Abortion
IV. Complete Abortion
A. I, II and IV
B. III, II and I
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

8. What is threatened abortion?


A. Hemorrhage without dilatation of the internals.
B. Trauma whether direct or indirect
C. An ovum destroyed by hemorrhage into the choriospace usually
before the 4th month of the pregnancy.
D. The whole product of conception is expelled.

9. What are the causes of abortion?


I. Induced
II. Acute specific fever and high temperature
III. Emotional condition
IV. Therapeutic
A. II and III
B. I and IV
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
123

10. The following are elements of induced abortion, except:


A. That the woman is pregnant.
B. That the expulsion of the product of conception is induced.
C. That violence was applied, or drug was administered, or a person
acts upon such pregnant woman.
D. That the effect of such violence, drug, or acts of the offender, the
fetus dies or is expelled.

11. Abortion is induced by:


A. Financial difficulty.
B. Preserve the life and health of the pregnant woman.
C. To preserve body form.
D. The parents of the woman, or either of them for the purpose of
concealing her dishonor and with the consent of the woman herself.

12. It is an element of unintentional abortion?


A. That violence was applied, or drug was administered, or a person
acts upon such pregnant woman.
B. That the effect of such violence, drug, or acts of the offender, the
fetus dies or is expelled.
C. That the offender has the intention to abort the pregnant woman.
D. Violence was applied on such pregnant woman.

13. What is spontaneous abortion?


A. Occurs without any form of inducement or intervention.
B. Is the expulsion of the product of conception after death of the
pregnant woman brought about by the post-mortem contraction of
the uterine muscles.
C. Done without therapeutic indication but with criminal intent is
punishable by law.
D. Abortion purposely done to preserve the life of the mother.

14. It is the reason why some people procure abortion?


A. Preserve the life and health of the pregnant woman.
B. Terminate prematurely illegitimate pregnancy in order to conceal the
dishonor of the woman.
C. Financial difficulty.
D. All of the above

15. How abortion is induced or procured, except:


A. By General Violence
B. By Local Violence
C. By the Use of Drugs
D. By Shock
124

16. What is general violence?


A. Includes intentional violence, exerting strong physical efforts and
other forms of strenuous and exhaustive exercises.
B. Violence is applied in any portion of the generative organ.
C. This will not take place had it not been for some form of inducement
or intervention.
D. None of the above

17. It is vaginal Inhibition?


A. Pathogenic organism may be introduced into the uterus and produce
systemic symptoms. If death occurs, signs of toxemia may be
observed at autopsy.
B. Solution is frequently used for vaginal douche and may cause
systemic poisoning.
C. Sudden dilatation of the cervix due to the introduction of some
objects may cause sudden collapse due to reflex inhibition of the
vagus nerve.
D. Adherent placental tissue, infection, presence of foreign bodies and
atony of the uterus may cause hemorrhage for failure of the uterine
muscles to contract.

18. What is sterility?


A. Plugging of the fallopian tubes, infection of the ovaries may cause
sterility.
B. Perforation of the bladder or any of the neighboring organs.
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

19. What is pelvic adhesion?


A. Infection and trauma may cause the uterus or vagina to become
adherent to the surrounding organs or tissues.
B. Communication between the vagina or the uterus with the rectum
or bladder may be an after effect of perforation due to
instrumentation.
C. Air Embolism
D. Bacterial Embolism

20. What are the medical evidences of abortion?


A. Living and Dead
B. Modern Methods like Amniocentesis and Vacuum Suction V
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
125

21. These are the grounds of therapeutic abortion.


A. Hereditary conditions as insanity
B. Cardio
C. Blood condition as severe anemia.
D. All of the above

22. This refers to an abortion which the law allows under some justifications.
A. Hereditary conditions as insanity
B. Cardio
C. Blood condition as severe anemia.
D. Therapeutic Abortion

23. In the performance of an abortion, how many lives are involved?


A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

24. The following are grounds of therapeutic abortion except:


A. Hereditary conditions as insanity
B. Sex of the baby
C. Blood condition as severe anemia.
D. Cardio

25. The lawful abortion must be performed by a licensed ________.


A. Soldier
B. Physician or surgeon
C. Teacher
D. All of the Above

26. Abortion performed in a private clinic wherein there are no sufficient facilities
to cope with emergency which may arise in the course of the operation may
be a ground for ____________.
A. Abortion
B. Therapeutic Abortion
C. Misbehavior
D. Malpractice
126

27. Which of the following is an element of an Intentional Abortion?


A. That the woman is pregnant.
B. That violence was applied, or drug was administered, or a person
acts upon such pregnant woman.
C. That the effect of such violence, drug, or acts of the offender,
the fetus dies or is expelled.
D. All of the above.

28. Which of the following is NOT an element of an Unintentional Abortion?


A. The woman must be pregnant.
B. That the offender has the intention to abort the pregnant woman.
C. Violence was applied on such pregnant woman without the
intention of aborting her.
D. The woman aborted as a result of the violence.

29. Which of the following is NOT an element of abortion practiced by the woman
herself or by her parents?
A. The woman is pregnant.
B. Abortion is intended to be committed.
C. Abortion is induced by the pregnant woman herself.
D. The woman aborted as a result of the violence.

30. Which of the following is NOT an element of abortion practiced by a physician


or midwife and dispensing abortive?
A. The woman is pregnant.
B. The physician induced or assisted in causing the abortion with
the use of scientific knowledge.
C. The acts done by the physician or midwife was intended to cause
abortion.
D. That the effect of such violence, drug, or acts of the offender,
the fetus dies or is expelled.

Prepared by

ANTONIO C. JAMOSMOS JR.


Ll. B – 3 Student
127

CHAPTER XXVI
INFANTICIDE

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. By commission of an infanticide, the person uses kitchen utensils or any other


hard or sharp objects may traumatize a child.
A. Suffocation
B. Strangulation
C. Drowning
D. Inflicting physical injuries

2. By commission of an infanticide, the person uses the simultaneous burning of


the dwelling place to conceal offense.
A. Drowning
B. Strangulation
C. Inflicting Physical Injuries
D. Burning

3. By commission of an infanticide, the person uses Denatured alcohol, tincture


of iodine, or any other drugs which form a part of the household-remedies may
be administered to the child.
A. Suffocation
B. Strangulation
C. Drowning
D. Poisoning

Prepared by

ALLAIN REEV JACA


LI.B -3 Sstudent
128

CHAPTER XXVII
PATERNITY AND FILIATION

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. Children conceived or born during the marriage of the parents.


A. Natural children.
B. Illegitimate children.
C. Adopted children.
D. Legitimate children.

2. Children conceived as a result of artificial insemination of the wife with the


sperm of the husband or that of a donor or both.
A. Illegitimate children.
B. Natural children.
C. Adopted children.
D. Legitimate children.

3. The following are the means to establish the filiation of legitimate children,
except one:
A. Any other means allowed by the Rules of Court and special laws.
B. An open admission of legitimate filiation by the parent concerned.
C. An admission of legitimate filiation in a public document or a private
handwritten instrument and signed by the parent concerned.
D. The record of birth appearing in the civil register or a final judgment.

4. Children conceived and born outside a valid marriage.


A. Legitimate children.
B. Natural children.
C. Adopted children.
D. Illegitimate children.

5. The child shall be considered legitimate although the mother may have
declared against its legitimacy or may have been sentenced as an adulteress.
A. None of the above.
B. True.
C. Maybe.
D. False.
129

6. Illegitimate children may establish their illegitimate filiation in the same way
and on the same evidence as legitimate children.
A. False.
B. Maybe.
C. None of the above.
D. True.

7. Illegitimate children shall use the surname and shall be under the parental
authority of their father, and shall be entitled to support in conformity with this
Code.
A. True.
B. Maybe.
C. None of the above.
D. False.

8. Children conceived and born outside of wedlock of parents who, at the time of
the conception of the former, were not disqualified by any impediment to marry
each other.
A. Adopted children.
B. Legitimate children.
C. Natural children.
D. Legitimated children.

9. Legitimated children shall not enjoy the same rights as legitimate children.
A. True.
B. Maybe
C. None of the above.
D. False.

10. The following persons may not adopt, except:


A. The guardian with respect to the ward prior to the approval of the
final accounts rendered upon the termination of their
guardianship relation.
B. A former Filipino citizen who seeks to adopt a relative by
consanguinity.
C. An alien.
D. Any person who has been convicted of a crime involving moral
turpitude.
130

11. The adopter must be at least eighteen years older than the person to be
adopted, unless the adopter is the parent by nature of the adopted, or is the
spouse of the legitimate parent of the person to be adopted.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
D. None of the above.

12. The following may not be adopted, except one:


A. A person of legal age, unless he or she is a child by nature of the
adopter or his or her spouse, or, prior to the adoption, said person
has been consistently considered and treated by the adopter as
his or her own child during minority.
B. A minor except in the cases when the adoption of a person of
majority age is allowed by the Civil Code of the Philippines.
C. A person who has already been adopted unless such adoption
has been previously revoked or rescinded.
D. An alien with whose government the Republic of the Philippines
has no diplomatic relations.

13. The legitime of each illegitimate child shall consist of one-third of the legitime
of a legitimate child.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
D. None of the above.

14. The filiation of children may be by nature or by adoption.


A. False.
B. True.
C. Maybe.
D. None of the above.

15. The legitimacy or illegitimacy of a child born after three hundred days following
the termination of the marriage shall be proved only by the child’s relatives.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
D. None of the above.
131

16. Legitimate children shall have the following rights, except one:
A. To be entitled to the legitimate and other successional rights granted
to them by the Civil Code.
B. To bear the surnames of the father and the mother, in conformity
with the provisions of the Civil Code on Surnames.
C. To receive support from their parents, their ascendants, and in
proper cases, their brothers and sisters, in conformity with the
provisions of this Code on Support.
D. To inherit only his legitime.

17. The written consent of the following to the adoption shall be necessary, except:
A. The person to be adopted, if ten years of age or over.
B. The person to be adopted, if twenty years of age or over.
C. The legitimate and adopted children, ten years of age or over, of the
adopting parent or parents.
D. The parents by nature of the child, the legal guardian, or the proper
government instrumentality.

18. For civil purposes, the adopted shall be deemed to be a legitimate child of the
adopters and both shall acquire the reciprocal rights and obligations arising
from the relationship of parent and child, including the right of the adopted to
use the surname of the adopters.
A. False.
B. Maybe.
C. None of the above.
D. True.

19. The adopted shall remain a testate heir of his parents and other blood relatives.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
D. None of the above.

20. The heirs of the husband may impugn the filiation of the child within the period
prescribed in the preceding article only in the following cases, except:
A. If the child was born after the death of the husband.
B. If the child was born before the death of the husband.
C. If the husband should die before the expiration of the period fixed
for bringing his action.
D. If he should die after the filing of the complaint without having
desisted therefrom.
132

21. The action to impugn the legitimacy of the child shall be brought within one
year from the knowledge of the birth or its recording in the civil register, if the
husband or, in a proper case, any of his heirs, should reside in the city or
municipality where the birth took place or was recorded.
A. False.
B. True.
C. Maybe.
D. None of the above.

22. Legitimation shall take place by a prior valid marriage between parents. The
annulment of a voidable marriage shall not affect the legitimation.
A. True.
B. Maybe.
C. None of the above.
D. False.

23. Legitimacy of a child may be impugned only on the following grounds, except:
A. That it is proved that for biological or other scientific reasons, the
child could not have been that of the husband.
B. That in case of children conceived through artificial insemination, the
written authorization or ratification of either parent was obtained
through mistake, fraud, violence, intimidation, or undue influence.
C. That it was physically impossible for the husband to have sexual
intercourse with his wife within the first 120 days of the 300 days
which immediately preceded the birth of the child because of the
physical incapacity of the husband to have sexual intercourse with
his wife.
D. That it was physically impossible for the husband to have sexual
intercourse with his wife within the first 120 days of the 300 days
which immediately preceded the birth of the child because of the
physical incapacity of the wife to have sexual intercourse with her
husband.

24. The action to claim legitimacy may be brought by the mother of the child during
his or her lifetime and shall be transmitted to the heirs should the child die
during minority or in a state of insanity.
A. True.
B. False.
C. Maybe.
D. None of the above.
133

25. The effects of legitimation shall retroact to the time of the child's birth.
A. False.
B. True.
C. Maybe.
D. None of the above.

26. It is the civil status of the child in relation to its mother or father.
A. Paternity.
B. Association.
C. Affiliation.
D. Filiation.

27. The following are NOT among the importance of determining paternity and
filiation, except:
A. For marriage.
B. For succession.
C. For enforcement of Taxation Laws.
D. For adoption.

28. The following are the kinds of children under the law, except:
A. Legitimate children.
B. Naturalized children.
C. Adopted children.
D. Illegitimate children.

29. The following are the medical evidences used in determining paternity and
filiation, except:
A. Parental likeness.
B. Affinity test.
C. Blood grouping test.
D. Evidences from the mother.

30. It is the civil status of the father with respect to the child begotten by him.
A. Filiation.
B. Association.
C. Affiliation.
D. Paternity.

Prepared by
DIANNE OCAMPOS
LI.B – 3 Student
134

CHAPTER XXVIII
PATERNITY AND FILIATION ON NON-CONVENTIONAL METHODS OF
PROCREATION

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. What are the two conventional methods of procreation as solution to some


specific problems of reproduction?
A. Artificial Insemination and In Vitro Fertilization
B. Vasectomy and tubal ligation
C. In Vitro Fertilization and tubal ligation
D. None of the above

2. ARTIFICIAL INSEMINATION is a medical procedure by which the semen is


introduced into the vagina by means other than copulation for the purpose of
procreation.
A. It depends
B. False
C. Maybe
D. True

3. It is an artificial insemination wherein the sperm comes from the husband.


A. A.I.D
B. A.I.E
C. A.I.H.D
D. A.I.H

4. What is the artificial insemination wherein the sperm comes from a donor other
than the husband.
A. A.I.D
B. A.I.H
C. A.I.H.D
D. None of the above

5. What is the artificial insemination wherein the donor semen comes from the
husband and a third party donor.
A. A.I.H.D
B. A.I.H
C. A.I.D
D. None of the above
135

6. Where the selection of the appropriate donor of semen of A.I.D does resides?
A. Physician
B. Lawyer
C. Teacher
D. Engineer

7. Is an A.I.H child legitimate?


A. It depends
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Yes

8. What is an A.I.D child legitimate?


A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends
D. No answer

9. Is the child under A.I.D case can be considered illegitimate, if the consent of
the husband is not obtained?
A. Maybe
B. No
C. It depends
D. Yes

10. If the child is considered born because of adultery, did the wife commit
adultery?
A. Yes
B. No answer
C. It depends
D. No

11. In Vitro Fertilization (test tube baby), involves combining eggs and sperm
outside the body in a laboratory. Once an embryo or embryos form, they are
then placed in the uterus.
A. Maybe
B. No
C. It depends
D. Yes
136

12. Why In Vitro Fertilization is done?


A. The wife cannot conceive on account of the occlusion of the fallopian
tube
B. Although the couple can possibly have a child through normal
intercourse but they want early screening of the conceptus for
genetic defects, control the timing of the pregnancy or select a
blastocyst with certain characteristics.
C. Letters A and B
D. None of the above

13. The implications of the right of privacy which may be the basis of legality of
in vitro fertilization are:
A. Right of procreation
B. Right of marital privacy
C. Right to decide whether to bear or beget
D. Right of self-determination
E. All of the Above

14. Procreation is fundamental to the very existence and survival of a race.


A. Maybe
B. False
C. It depends
D. True

15. Prohibition of in vitro fertilization as a way to have children will mean


government intrusion into the marital bedroom in search of evidence for
violating the law.
A. Maybe
B. False
C. It depends
D. True

16. Right to decide whether to bear or beget is the right of a person to determine
whether to carry or not to carry a product of conception, to be or not to be a
mother or to raise or not to raise a family.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. I cannot answer
137

17. Every human being of adult age and of sound mind has the right to determine
what shall be done on his own body.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. None of the above

18. What is the removal of an unfertilized egg froma woman and placing it on the
reproductive tract of another woman?
A. Artificial Inovulation
B. Embryo Transplantation
C. Parthenogenesis ("Virgin Birth")
D. Cloning

19. What is the removal of a fertilized egg from a woman's uterus to transfer to
that of another woman's uterus?
A. Artificial Inovulation
B. Embryo Transplantation
C. Parthenogenesis ("Virgin Birth")
D. Cloning

20. What is the type of sexual reproduction whereby the unfertilized egg with 23
chromosome compliment doubled its content to become a diploid cell that
starts dividing as if it is a fertilized egg without the intervention of a male
sperm cell, the resulting offspring is thus a female?
A. Artificial Inovulation
B. Embryo Transplantation
C. Parthenogenesis ("Virgin Birth")
D. Cloning

21. What is the type of a sexual reproduction whereby the nucleus of a female
egg is removed (enucleation) which contains the genetic material and replaced
with the nucleus of a body (somatic) cell of the same or another woman
(renucleation)?
A. Artificial Inovulation
B. Embryo Transplantation
C. Parthenogenesis ("Virgin Birth")
D. Cloning
138

22. Below are other non-conventional methods of procreation, except:


A. Artificial Inovulation
B. Embryo Transplantation
C. Parthenogenesis ("Virgin Birth")
D. Cloning
E. None of the above

23. In The In Vitro Fertilization process begins with injections into the oocyte
(ovum) donor of a hormone known as gonadotropin, which induces super-
ovulation.
A. Maybe
B. False
C. It depends
D. True

24. Is the consent of the husband necessary to avoid the wife being charged with
adultery?
A. True
B. False
C. It depends
D. No answer

25. Is the consent of the husband necessary to ward the question of legitimacy of
the child, issues of divorce, separation or inheritance?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. No answer

26. Is the Wife right that her husband had no visitation right since the child had
been conceived from a donor sperm?
A. Yes
B. No answer
C. Maybe
D. No

27. Is the child born by artificial insemination entitled for support?


A. It depends
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Yes
139

28. A gonadotropic hormone is administered to induce more production of oocytes


to give the physician the privilege of selecting which among is the best for
fertilization.
A. It depends
B. False
C. Both True and False
D. True

29. A surrogate mother is a woman who is not the source of the ovum and in
whose uterus the in vitro fertilized egg is implanted to develop up to full term
and delivered child.
A. I do not know
B. False
C. Maybe
D. True

30. A woman may be willing to be a surrogate mother for the sake of humanity.
A. I really don’t have any idea
B. False
C. Maybe
D. True

Prepared by

SYLDY MARTOS
LI.B-3 Student
140

CHAPTER XXIX
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS OF MARITAL UNION AND DISSOLUTION

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. A man who had a sex change operation declared thereafter he was a woman.
A marriage was contracted with a boyfriend of 10 years and solemnized by a
minister who was aware of the change operation. The marriage is:
A. Valid
B. Null and void upon declaration by a court of law
C. Void from the start
D. None of the above

2. Dr. Pedro is single but keeps a married woman in his condominium to vent and
seek pleasure. Which is true?
A. Dr. Pedro is liable for concubinage.
B. The mistress is liable for concubinage.
C. Both are not liable for any punishment.
D. Dr. Pedro is liable for adultery.

3. Which of the following marriages shall be considered void from the beginning?
A. Between the adopting father or mother and the adopted
B. Between the legitimate children of the adoptor and the adopted
C. Between stepfather and stepdaughter
D. All of the above

4. What causes sexual dissatisfaction after marriage?


A. Dyspareunia
B. Orgasm
C. Pleasure
D. All of the above

5. Dra. Petra’s homosexual husband left her for another man. Out of frustration,
she had a one-night stand with a man she met in a bar. Her husband filed a
complaint against her. She can be held liable for:
A. Infidelity
B. Concubinage
C. Marital impropriety
D. Adultery
141

6. Rene and Lily got married after a brief courtship. After one month, Lily
discovered that while Rene presented himself as a macho man he was actually
gay. He would not go to bed with her. He kept obscene magazines of nude
men and always sought the company of handsome boys. What legal remedy
does Lily have?
A. She can seek a declaration of nullity of the marriage based on Rene’s
psychological incapacity.
B. She can go abroad and file for divorce in a country that can grant it.
C. She has none since she had the opportunity to examine the goods
and freely entered into the marriage.
D. She can file an action for annulment of marriage on ground of fraud.

7. Manuel came to Manila and married Marianne. Unknown to Marianne, Manuel


had been previously convicted in Palawan of theft and served time for it. After
Marianne learned of his previous conviction, she stopped living with him. Can
Marianne seek the annulment of the marriage based on Manuel's nondisclosure
of his previous crime?
A. No, since the assumption is that marriage forgives all past wrongs.
B. No, in case of doubt, the law must be construed to preserve the
institution of marriage.
C. No, since Manuel already served the penalty for his crime.
D. Yes, since the non-disclosure of that crime is the equivalent of fraud,
which is a ground for annulment.

8. The day after John and Marsha got married, John told her that he was impotent.
Marsha continued to live with John for 2 years. Marsha is now estopped from
filing an annulment case against John.
A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. No Comment

9. Amor gave birth to Thelma when she was 15 years old. Thereafter, Amor met
David and they got married when she was 20 years old. David had a son, Julian,
with his ex-girlfriend Sandra. Julian and Thelma can get married
A. No Comment
B. Uncertain
C. False
D. True
142

10. A marriage is void from the beginning if:


A. Solemnized by a minister whom the parties believe to have the
authority.
B. Between parties both 23 years of age but without parental advice.
C. Those contracted through mistake of one contracting party as to the
identity of the other.
D. Solemnized by any incumbent member of the judiciary within the
court's jurisdiction

11. A wife learned that her husband is afflicted with STD three years after
marriage. Apparently, the husband has been afflicted even before the
marriage but concealed such fact. An action for annulment may be filed by
the wife.
A. Within five years upon knowledge of the STD.
B. Anytime during the lifetime of the husband.
C. Within five years after the celebration of the marriage.
D. Anytime during the marriage.

12. What is adultery?


A. Adultery is commited by a married woman and that she has sexual
intercourse with a man not her husband.
B. Adultery is committed by any husband who shall keep a mistress in
the conjugal dwelling, or, shall have sexual intercourse, under
scandalous circumstances, with a woman who is not his wife, or shall
cohabit with her in any other place.
C. Adultery is basically the act of marrying again while the first marriage
is still subsisting.
D. Adultery is committed by a husband who must be charged together
with the concubine.

13. Which of the following marriages is void for reasons of public policy?
A. Between brothers and sisters, whether of the full or half blood
B. Between step-parents and step children
C. Between parents-in-law and children-in-law
D. B and C
143

14. The following constitute the different circumstances or cases of fraud which
will serve as ground for the annulment of a marriage, except?
A. Non-disclosure of the previous conviction by final judgment of the
other party of a crime involving moral turpitude.
B. Concealment by the wife or the husband of the fact of previous
sexual relations prior to the marriage.
C. Concealment of a sexually-transmissible disease, regardless of its
nature, existing at the time of the marriage.
D. Concealment of drug addiction, habitual alcoholism, homosexuality
or lesbianism existing at the time of marriage.

15. What is the punishment of a person guilty of concubinage?


A. Prision Correctional Minimum And Medium
B. Prision Correctional Medium And Maximum
C. Destierro
D. Prison Mayor

16. What is the punishment of a person guilty of adultery?


A. Prision Correctional Medium And Maximum
B. Prision Correctional Minimum And Medium
C. Destierro
D. Prison Mayor

17. A valid marriage licence secured prior to the marriage is a formal requisite to
make the marriage valid except;
A. Marriage in articulo mortis
B. Marriage between parties who have been cohabiting for at least 5
years without any legal impediment to marry each other
C. All of the above
D. Letter B only

18. The following constitute fraud which is a ground for annulment of marriage.
A. That either party was of unsound mind, unless such party after
coming to reason, freely cohabited with the other as husband and
wife.
B. Concealment of pregnancy of the wife by a man other than the
husband.
C. Concealment of physical incapacity of consummating the marriage
and such incapacity continues and appears to be incurable.
D. All of the above
144

19. A, an American citizen married B, a Filipina in the Philippines. A obtained a


decree of divorce against B capacitating him to remarry under USA law. Can B
remarry?

A. B can get married right away after the decree has become final and
executory.
B. B cannot get married because from the point of view of Philippine
Law, he is still married.
C. B can get married provided that she goes to court and proves the
decree of divorce as a fact according to the rules of evidence.
D. B can get married because the divorce decree being valid in the USA
is valid in the Philippines to be fair to B.

20. Cris and James got married with Pastor Carlito, a pastor of the Seventh Day
Adventists as the solemnizing officer. Cris and James do not belong to the sect
where the pastor belongs. Is their marriage valid?

A. Their marriage is valid because the infirmity is only on a formal


requisite of marriage.
B. Their marriage is valid because it is immaterial whether they belong
to the sect where the pastor belongs.
C. Their marriage is valid because the pastor is authorized to solemnize
marriage of anyone.
D. Their marriage is void because one or both of the parties should
belong to the sect where the solemnizing officer belongs.

21. Who can file the action for adultery or concubinage?


A. A stranger
B. The parents of the offended spouse
C. The daughter and/or son
D. The offended spouse

22. A proof of sexual intercourse is enough in adultery.


A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. No comment

23. What period should an action for legal separation on the ground of sexual
infidelity or perversion be filed?
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 4 years
D. Imprescriptible
145

24. What does physical incapacity to consummate marriage mean?


A. Lack of power to copulate which is permanent in nature.
B. Refusal to have sex with the spouse;
C. The sexual organ is so small;
D. Sterility.

25. In the enumeration below, which is not a ground to dismiss an action for legal
separation under the law?
A. Condonation
B. Mutual guilt
C. Consent
D. Death

26. A & B are married. They put into writing an agreement that they would live
separately where they can live with other partners. A went to live with C, his
childhood sweetheart, hence, B filed an action for legal separation invoking as
ground, sexual infidelity. Will the action prosper?
A. The action will prosper because of the act of A which is a ground
under the law.
B. The action will prosper because the agreement is void as it is
contrary to law and morals.
C. The action will not prosper because of the consent of B.
D. The action will prosper because B is bound by the principle of
estoppels by deed.

27. A & B are married. During the marriage B filed an action for legal separation
alleging that A shot her and seriously wounded her resulting in her permanent
disability. Will the action prosper?
A. The action will not prosper because B did not file a criminal case for
frustrated parricide.
B. The action will not prosper because there is a need for conviction of
A for the crime committed.
C. The action will prosper because the ground of attempt by one against
the life of the other spouse needs only proof by preponderance of
evidence.
D. The action will not prosper because the act was a frustrated act of
parricide, not attempted parricide.

28. If homosexuality is concealed, it is a ground for:


A. Legal separation;
B. Declaration of nullity of marriage;
C. The other spouse live separately from the other.
D. Annulment of marriage;
146

29. The following are the characteristics of psychological incapacity, except:


A. Juridical antecedents
B. Refusal to have sex
C. Grave
D. Incurable

30. Which of the following statements is correct?


A. A spouse who refuses to live with the other spouse can be declared
as one suffering from psychological incapacity.
B. A spouse who spends more time with his friends is suffering from
psychological incapacity.
C. A spouse who marries another during the marriages is suffering from
psychological incapacity.
D. A spouse who has a narcissistic personality disorder is suffering from
psychological incapacity.

Prepared by:
Kimberly Claire C. Amascual
LLB 3
147

CHAPTER XXX
IMPOTENCY

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. is the physical incapacity of either sex to allow or grant to the other legitimate
sexual gratification. A person may be impotent but not sterile, or sterile but not
impotent although both conditions may exist at the same time.
A. Suffocation
B. Strangulation
C. Drowning
D. Impotency

2. Is the loss of power of procreation and is absolutely independent of whether


or not impotence is present.
A. Drowning
B. Strangulation
C. Inflicting Physical Injuries
D. Sterility

Prepared by
ALLAIN REEV JACA
LI.B -3 Student
148

CHAPTER XXXI
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECT OF DISTURBANCE OF MENTALITY

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct answer.

1. Which of the following best describes insanity in its legal concept?


A. Insanity is the persistent inability through mental causes to adapt
oneself to the ordinary environment.
B. Insanity is the prolonged departure of the individual from his natural
mental state arising from bodily disease.
C. Insanity covers nothing more than the relation of a person and the
particular act which is the subject of judicial investigation.
D. All of the above.

2. In civil law, is an insane person exempt from all the obligations which arises
from his actions?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. It depends

3. When is insanity a ground for the annulment of marriage?


A. When after the celebration of marriage one or both of the spouses
becomes insane and becomes unable to perform his marital
obligations.
B. When before marriage one or both of the spouses was insane.
C. When one or both of the spouses was insane at the time of the
celebration of the marriage.
D. All of the above.

4. It is a rule in succession that a testator must be of sound mind, which of the


following circumstances is a testator considered to be of sound mind?
A. The testator must be in possession of all his reasoning faculties.
B. The testator’s mind be wholly unbroken, unimpaired, or unshattered
by disease, injury or other cause.
C. The testator was able at the time of making the will to know the
nature of the estate to be disposed of, the proper objects of his
bounty, and the character of the testamentary act.
D. All of the above.
149

5. Can an insane person be held criminally liable even if Article 12 of the Revised
Penal Code exempts insane persons from criminal liability?
A. Yes, if the insane person committed the crime during his lucid
interval.
B. No, because the law said so,
C. Yes, if the crime is so violent.
D. No, for a person to be held liable for a criminal act he should also
have a criminal mind.

6. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Principles in Criminal Responsibility?


A. A sane man is assumed to be wholly responsible for the consequence
of his criminal act.
B. A person who commits a criminal act is presumed to be sane.
C. There cannot be a guilty act unless there is a guilty mind.
D. None of the above.

7. Which of the following is not a correct distinction between feign insanity and
true insanity?
A. Feigned insanity develops insidiously while true insanity develops
suddenly.
B. Symptoms of insanity may only be observed in feigned insanity when
he is conscious that he is under observation and becomes normal when
he is alone and unobserved.
C. Violent exertion of feigned insanity usually leads to an early
exhaustion while in true insanity the patient can withstand violent
exertion without any sign of exhaustion and fatigue.
D. A feigned insane usually observes rules of personal hygiene and does
not look dirty and filthy. A true insane is filthy, dresses dirtily and does
not observe hygiene.

8. What type of impulsion is an irresistible impulse to set things afire?


A. Pyromania
B. Kleptomania
C. Mutilomania
D. Dipsomania
150

9. What type of impulsion is an irresistible impulse to indulge in intoxication either


in alcohol or drugs?
A. Pyromania
B. Kleptomania
C. Mutilomania
D. Dipsomania

10. What type of impulsion is an irresistible impulse to steal articles of not much
value?
A. Pyromania
B. Kleptomania
C. Mutilomania
D. Dipsomania

11. What type of impulsion is an irresistible impulse to maim animals.


A. Pyromania
B. Kleptomania
C. Mutilomania
D. Dipsomania

12. If a person losses his memory of the recent events, what type of amnesia did
he obtained?
A. Anterograde Amnesia
B. Prograde Amnesia
C. Retrograde Amnesia
D. Getorade Amnesia

13. If a person losses his memory of the past events, what type of amnesia did he
obtained?
A. Anterograde Amnesia
B. Prograde Amnesia
C. Retrograde Amnesia
D. Getorade Amnesia
151

14. A form of temporary dementia, occurring in young people and induced by


conditions likely to produce that state, like malnutrition, overwork, dissipation or
too rapid growth.
A. Acute Dementia
B. Dementia Paralytica
C. Dementia Praecox (Schizophrenia)
D. Senile Dementia

15. Degeneration of physical, intellectual and moral power leading to paralysis.


A. Acute Dementia
B. Dementia Paralytica
C. Dementia Praecox (Schizophrenia)
D. Senile Dementia

16. Dementia of the adolescence and characterized by loss of memory.


A. Acute Dementia
B. Dementia Paralytica
C. Dementia Praecox (Schizophrenia)
D. Senile Dementia

17. Occurring in advanced age and characterized by loss of memory, with childish
and silly behaviour and physical degeneration.
A. Acute Dementia
B. Dementia Paralytica
C. Dementia Praecox (Schizophrenia)
D. Senile Dementia

18. A false interpretation of an external stimulus. It may be manifested with the


sense of sight, hearing, taste, touch and smell.
A. Hallucination
B. Illusion
C. Dementia
D. Dellusion
152

19. An erroneous perception without external object of stimulus.


A. Hallucination
B. Illusion
C. Dementia
D. Delusion

20. A state of excitement accompanied by exaltation or a feeling of well-being


which is out of harmony with the surrounding circumstances of the patient.
A. Melancholia
B. Apathy
C. Delusion
D. Mania

21. Intense feeling of depression and misery which is unwarranted by his physical
condition and external environment. He is absorbed by his miserable thought.
A. Melancholia
B. Apathy
C. Delusion
D. Mania

22. The below-normal intellectual functioning which originates from the arrest or
incomplete development of the mind during the development period below the age
of 18 which may be induced by various factors associated with the impairment of
learning, social adjustment or maturation.
A. Insanity
B. Mental Deficiency
C. Mental Retardation
D. Senility

23. Is feeble-mindedness a mitigating circumstance in criminal law?


A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Probably
153

24. Can the peace officer or other persons who are concerned with the welfare of
the society may force the insane to be confined in a hospital?
A. No, such coercive confinement is tantamount to arbitrary detention.
B. No, only the guardians of such insane person has the authority to
confine the insane in the hospital.
C. Yes, it is an exercise of the police power of the state.
D. I have no idea.

25. It is the feigning or simulation of a disease or injury characterized by


ostentation, exaggeration and inconsistency.
A. Feign insanity
B. Malingering
C. Mental Deficiency
D. Imbecility

26. This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a person is performing an act


while in the state of natural sleep.
A. Somnambulism
B. Semisomnolence
C. Somnolencia
D. Delirium

27. It is a state of confusion of the mind. It is characterized by incoherent speech,


hallucination, illusions, delusions, restlessness, and apparently purposeless
motions.
A. Somnambulism
B. Semisomnolence
C. Somnolencia
D. Delirium

28. It is a state of half asleep or in a condition between sleep and waking.


A. Somnambulism
B. Semisomnolence
C. Delirium
D. Hypnotism
154

29. Which of the following terms is not commonly used as synonyms of insanity?
A. Lunacy
B. Madness
C. Unsoundness of mind
D. Malingering

30. A, who has no children and who’s parents were already dead, made a will
instituting B his friend as his only heir. When A died B instituted a probate of A’s
will. C who is a brother of B opposed the allowance of the will alleging that A was
already imbecile when he executed the will. The court ordered B to prove that A
was sane when he made the will. Is the order of the court proper?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Probably

Prepared by

GLIEF RAY SARMIENTO


LI.B -3 Student
155

CHAPTER XXXII
DRUG DEPENDENCE

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. What is a drug whose use is attended by risk and therefore unsafe, perilous
and hazardous to people and or to the society?
A. Dangerous drug
B. Prescriptive drug
C. Regulated drug
D. All of the above

2. What are those arising from medical complication of drug abuse, such as viral
hepatitis and bacterial endocartis?
A. Secondary drug fatalities
B. Drug-associated fatalities
C. Primary drug fatalities
D. Terminal fatalities

3. This drug is obtained from the milky exudate of the incised unripe seed
capsules of the poppy plant, Papaver Somaiferum.
A. Barbiturates
B. Marijuana
C. Methaqualone
D. Opium

4. It a type of marijuana that when ingested makes the power effect long lasting
and there is more hang-over when smoked.
A. Vietnam Green
B. Panama Red
C. Synthetic Tetrahydrocannabinol
D. Natural Tetrahydrocannabinol

5. A characteristic of drug addiction.


A. The desire to use the drugs is not compulsive but merely psychical
B. There is little or no tendency to increase the dose.
C. A psychological and physical dependence on the use of drugs.
D. None of the above
156

6. Those who take amphetamine to bolster their functioning within conventional,


interpersonal and social activities.
A. Escapist abuser
B. Casual abuser
C. Expert abuser
D. Adaptive abuser

7. It is a sedative drug in a smaller dose and a hypnotic in a bigger dose.


A. Barbiturates
B. Opium
C. Marijuana
D. Methaqualone

8. How much Amphetamine is destroyed in the liver by dissemination?


A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 90%
D. 50%

9. A temporary malfunction or less in reality, this is self-limited and usually no


drug is necessary. The patient must only be protected from injury for the
duration of his disorientation.
A. Panic reaction
B. A motivational syndrome
C. Acute toxic psychosis
D. Bronchitis

10. This substance is colorless, tasteless, odorless, usually in liquid form and taken
orally.
A. Opium
B. Amphetamine
C. Cocaine
D. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide or LSD

11. It was first synthesized in 1927 as a substitute for epinephrine which was
isolated from the adrenal gland and from epinephrine obtained from the
Chinese herb ephedra vulgaris.
A. Methamphitamine
B. Opium
C. Methaqualone
D. Amphetamine
157

12. What are those caused by homicidal, accidental and suicidal violence stemming
directly or indirectly from activities related to the obtaining and use of illicit
drugs?
A. Drug-associated fatalities
B. Primary drug fatalities
C. Secondary drug fatalities
D. Terminal fatalities

13. Which of the following drugs are not covered by the Dangerous Drug Act of
1972?
A. Amphetamine
B. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide or LSD
C. Opium
D. Deliriants

14. Which of the following is NOT a reason why some persons abuse the use of
Amphetamine?
A. To reduce fatigue during athletic performance
B. To ward off sleep among students cramming for examination
C. For thrill
D. To increase one’s height

15. What is the desire to have continuous use of drug but with the capacity to
refrain physically from using it?
A. Drug habituation
B. Drug addiction
C. Drug dependence
D. Drug tolerance

16. These are the consequences of continuous use of opium except:


A. Development of tolerance to the drug
B. Physical and moral deterioration
C. Untruthfulness, dishonesty and mental deterioration
D. Excellent performance in examinations

17. This substance is an alkaloid from the leaves of the coca shrub cultivated
extensively in Bolivia and Peru.
A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Amphetamine
D. Cocaine
158

18. What special law repealed the provisions of Articles 190 – 194 0f the Revised
Penal Code?
A. RA 6425
B. RA 9262
C. BP 22
D. RA 11

19. What drug may be medically used in the treatment of alcoholism and opium
addiction?
A. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide or LSD
B. Opium
C. Amphetamine
D. Cocaine

20. All of the following are ways of controlling or combating the drug problem
except:
A. Counseling
B. Treatment and rehabilitation
C. By preventing non-users from starting a life of drug dependence
D. Execution of suspected illegal drug pushers

Prepared by

MARICAR C. TEGERO
Ll.B -3 Student
159

CHAPTER XXXIII
ALCOHOLISM

Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write the letter of the correct
answer.

1. The wine contains the extracted pigments from the skin, stem and seed of
the fermented fruit juice.
A. Wine
B. Red wine
C. Alcohol
D. White wine

2. Beverages produced from distillate of wines, distilled from grains or starch


solution or distillate from aromatic substances.
A. Rum
B. Gin
C. Whisky
D. Distilled liquor

3. Composed of fermented juice of sugar with the characteristic brown color,


bitter taste and aroma.
A. Lambanog
B. Chinese medicinal wine
C. Gin
D. Ztosi

4. A characteristic bitter flavor is imparted by the addition of hops.


A. Stout
B. Beer
C. Malt liquor
D. Gin

5. The presence of sufficient amount of food and water in the stomach may
delay the rate of absorption.
A. Nature of the food in the stomach and intestine
B. Volume of gastric content
C. Aggravating
D. Mitigating
160

6. Effects of alcohol become more pronounced, the nervous control of the body
gradually diminishes.
A. Oxidation
B. Excitement
C. Coma
D. Stage of Incoordination or Confusion

7. A condition wherein a small amount of alcohol intake may be sufficient to


make a person drunk on account of an existing pathological condition of the
body.
A. Punch Drunkenness
B. Complication of Alcoholism
C. Pathological Drunkenness
D. Analysis of the Breath

8. Examination of the brain for its alcohol content is a reliable diagnostic


procedure.
A. Analysis of the Urine
B. Screening
C. Chemical Method
D. Analysis of Body Tissue

9. The act is purely mechanical and it does not utilize the mental faculties of
the subject.
A. Chemical Test
B. Against the Defendant
C. Chemical Method
D. Enzymatic Method

10. It absorbs specific wave lengths of infrared.


A. Gas Chromatographic Method
B. Chemical Method
C. Enzymatic Method
D. Infrared Absorption Method

11. Specimen purified or injected directly to the apparatus.


A. Infrared Absorption Method
B. Enzymatic Method
C. Chemical Test
D. Gas Chromatographic Method
161

12. This method is applicable in death cases.


A. Analysis of the Breath
B. Analysis of Body Tissue
C. Analysis of the Urine
D. Analysis of Blood

13. Alcoholics are prone to be victims of traffic accidents or other traumatic


injuries.
A. Unexpected Aspiration of Food ("Cafe Coronary")
B. Methyl Alcohol (CH3OH, Methanol, Wood Alcohol)
C. Hidden Trauma
D. Ethylene glycol and/or Diethylene glycol

14. The heart muscles may suffer direct damage from the high concentration of
blood alcohol.
A. Ingestion of alcohol and synergistic drugs
B. Cardiac myopathy
C. Paralysis of the medullary center
D. Excretion

15. It requires the consumption of 8 oz. of whiskey to bring a blood level of 0.15%.
A. Wine
B. Beer
C. Gin
D. Whiskey

16. There is flushing of the face, with exaggerated mood, but a person is able to
control his behavior.
A. Moderate Inebriation
B. Slight Inebriation
C. Stage of Narcosis or Coma
D. Drunk

17. Person is talkative, argumentative and over-confident. There is slight


impairment of mental faculties, difficulty of articulation, and loss of
coordination to finer movements.
A. Drunk
B. Very Drunk
C. Slight Inebriation
D. Moderate Inebriation
162

18. The mind is confused, behavior is irregular and movement is uncontrolled. The
speech is thick and incoordinated.
A. Very Drunk
B. Drunk
C. Moderate Inebriation
D. Slight Inebriation

19. Increasing amount of alcohol intake the acuity is progressively diminished to


the point where vision to obscure to a degree comparable to wearing dark
sunglasses at night.
A. Hearing
B. Touch
C. Taste
D. Vision

20. Original distillation of mash or by redistillation of distilled spirits with or over


juniper berries and may contain other aromatic botanical substances or sugar.
A. Rum
B. Whiskey
C. Alcoholic Cordials and Liquors
D. Gin

21. The product of fermentation of fruit juices only after removal of the skin and
stem.
A. Sweet Wine
B. White Wine
C. Still Wine
D. Red Wine

22. Wine in which fermentation has been completed before bottling so that it
contains only such properties of carbon dioxide produced in the fermentation.
A. Still Wine
B. White Wine
C. Sparkling Wine
D. Red Wine

23. Alcoholic beverages produced from distillate of wines, distilled from grains or
starch solution or distillate from aromatic substances.
A. Wine
B. Malt Liquors
C. Distilled Liquor
D. "Ztosi"
163

24. A malt liquor brewed in such a manner as to possess the aroma, taste and
character commonly attributed to ale and shall contain not less than 3.2%
absolute alcohol.
A. Beer
B. Stout
C. Ale
D. Porter

25. Fatty food makes absorption slower as compared with sugar and other
carbohydrates and proteins.
A. Concentration and total quantity of alcohol taken.
B. Volume of gastric content
C. Diseased condition of the stomach and intestine
D. Nature of the food in the stomach and intestine

26. After absorption, alcohol is distributed throughout the body in proportion to


the water contents.
A. Length of time the gastric content is held in the stomach prior to the
opening of the pylorus and permeability of the stomach or intestinal
wall.
B. Diseased condition of the stomach and intestine.
C. The optimum concentration of alcohol in beverages between 10 to
20% is the most rapidly absorbed.
D. Volume of gastric content

27. The remaining portion of the blood alcohol (approximately less than 10%)
remains as such excreted through the urine, lungs, saliva and perspiration.
A. Oxidation
B. Excretion
C. Acute Alcoholic Intoxication
D. Hidden Trauma

28. Either or both are present in industrial antifreeze mixture but may become
contaminant to the alcoholic beverages.
A. Isopropyl Alcohol (Rubbing Alcohol)
B. Methyl Alcohol (CH3OH, Methanol, Wood Alcohol)
C. Poisoning by Congener or Contaminants in Alcoholic Beverages
D. Ethylene glycol and/or Diethylene glycol
164

29. It may be observed among professional boxers who may have developed a
peculiar physical and mental condition on account of repeated trauma on the
head.
A. Pathological Drunkenness
B. Laboratory Examination in Alcoholism
C. Diseases Associated with/or as a Complication of Alcoholism
D. Punch Drunkenness

30. Although it may be done, examination of these fluids is seldom done.


A. Analysis of Body Tissue
B. Analysis of the Urine
C. Analysis of Saliva, Perspiration and Spinal Fluid
D. Analysis of the Breath

Prepared by

BALTAZAR L. GAGAP, Jr.


LI.B-3 Student
165

CHAPTER XXXIV
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECT OF POISONING

1. The minimal amount of specimen to be preserved for toxicological


examination of spleen is,
A. 500gm
B. whole spleen
C. 100gm

2. For suspicious poisoning with lead, what organs are recommended to be


saved?
A. Kidney, liver, and bone
B. Kidney, liver, and brain
C. Kidney, liver, and stomach

3. What method of poison administration has two times higher absorption than
oral route?
A. Lungs
B. Hypoderm
C. Rectum
D. Vagina

4. It is the smallest dose known to cause death?


A. Poisoning
B. Putrefaction
C. Young’s Rule
D. Fatal dose

5. A healthy person is usually more susceptible to the action of ingested poison


in soluble form,
A. true
B. false

6. Signs and symptoms that may lead one to suspect poisoning, except
A. Symptom appears when individual is healthy
B. The symptom may either be getting severe or steadily improving
C. Complaint and symptoms appears gradually
166

7. Failure to detect poison does not show that the substance is absent,
A. True
B. false

8. Differential diagnosis of poisoning with signs of vomiting, except


A. Gastric ulcer
B. acute gastritis
C. UTI

9. Evacuation of the stomach in patient in patient suffering from acute poisoning


may be done by, except
A. NGT
B. Emetics
C. Physical reaction
D. None of the above

10. What history and symptoms the physician needs to know to determine the
actual cause of death, except
A. Suicidal attempt history
B. Presence of person with grudge to him
C. Mental status
D. Possible source of poison
E. NOTA

11. This internal post-mortem findings of the stomach may be found in poisoning
by strong mineral acids especially sulphuric acid,
A. Ulceration
B. perforation.
C. Inflammation

12. Things to be considered in examining contents of the stomach, except


A. Quantity
B. Color
C. Odor
D. Size
167

13. The following substance are found in the Liver, Urine and stomach content
for toxicological analysis, except
A. Morphine, alkaloids and alcohol
B. Morphine, alkaloids and oxalic acid

14. When internal organs are badly putrified, specimens should be taken from?
A. Fat
B. blood
C. muscle

15. The following substances are considered strong corrosive acids, except
A. Sulphuric acid.
B. Carbolic acid
C. Ammonia
D. Nitric acid

16. The following substance are neural depressant, except


A. Aconite
B. Conium
C. Camphor

17. The following substance are cerebral depressant, except


A. Digitalis
B. Hydrogen cyanide
C. Laurel water

18. The following poisonous gasses are irrespirable, except


A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Chlorine
C. Benzene

19. Poisoning usually due to ingestion of food stored and prepared in an


unsatisfactory conditions and eaten without cooking, ingestion, anaerobic
clostridium botulinum
A. Food poisoning
B. Poisoning
C. Botulism
168

20. Convulsion is a differential diagnosis of poisoning to this types of illness


A. Tetany, hysteria, epilepsy
B. Epilepsy, tetany, cholera
C. Hysteria, epilepsy, fever

21. In the administration of emetics in patient suffering from acute poisoning the
following can be given, except
A. Zinc sulphate
B. Salt and water
C. Cornstarch and water

22. Neutralization if poison in the stomach by direct chemical reaction is


A. Acid vs alkali
B. Iodine vs starch
C. Egg albumen vs mercuric chloride

23. If unknown poison is suspected, a mixture composing of the following may be


used to determine the substance,
A. Powder charcoal, magnesia, tanic acid
B. Powder charcoal, magnesia, water
C. Powder charcoal, magnesia, starch

24. Eliminating the poison is aided by purgative, sudorifics and,


A. Diuretics
B. Inhalation
C. Chloral

25. Slate-colored stain from the wall of the stomach is an indication of


___________poisoning,
A. Arsenic
B. Mercury
C. Sulphuric acid

26. Softening of the stomach is cause by the substance?


A. Alkaline irritants
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Carbolic acid
169

27. What substance can usually be found in a specimen of finger nail clipping or
whole nail?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Arsenic poisoning
C. Heavy metal poisoning

28. The organ the needs to be preserved in order to determine the fat soluble
drug substance
A. Brain
B. spleen
C. Hair

29. Amount of gastric contents that is required for toxicological examination


A. 50gm
B. 25gm
C. 10gm

30. Amount of blood required for toxicological examination


A. 50cc
B. 25 cc
C. 100 cc

Prepared by

LOPE MACAUBA
LI.B-3 Student