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A client with pemphigus is being seen in the clinic regularly.

The nurse plans care based on which of the

following descriptions of this condition?
A. The presence of tiny red vesicles
B. An autoimmune disease that causes blistering in the epidermis
C. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by a virus
D. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales

The nurse is caring for a client in the coronary care unit. The display on the cardiac monitor indicates
ventricular fibrillation. What should the nurse do first?
A. Perform defibrillation
B. Administer epinephrine as ordered
C. Assess for presence of pulse
D. Institute CPR
Answer C: Assess for presence of pulse .Artifact can mimic ventricular fibrillation on a cardiac monitor. If the
client is truly in ventricular fibrillation, no pulse will be present.

The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is
determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds
A. "The complaints of at least 3 common findings."
B. "The absence of any opportunistic infection."
C. "CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200."
D. "Developmental delays in children."
Answer C: "CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200." CD4 lymphocyte counts are normally 600 to 1000.

The home care nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been diagnosed with an allergy to latex.
In determining the client’s risk factors associated with the allergy, the nurse questions the client about an
allergy to which food item?
A. Eggs
B. Milk
C. Yogurt
D. Bananas
Answer: D

Initial step while detecting pulmonary embolism?

A. Start IV line
B. Check vitals
C. Administer morphine
D. Administer oxygen
Answer: D
Major health complications associated with maternal Zika virus infection?
A. Macrocephaly
B. Microcephaly
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Myasthenia gravis .
Answer: B

While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health
history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?
A. Compulsive behavior
B. Sense of impending doom
C. Fear of flying
D. Predictable episodes
Answer is B: Sense of impending doom.
The feeling of overwhelming and uncontrollable doom is characteristic of a panic attack.

Indications for fundoplication?

A. Hiatus hernia
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
D. All the above
Answer: D

Left ventricular pressure can be measured by using

A. C.V. C
B. Pulmonary artery catheter
C. Swanz - Ganz Catheter
D. All the above
E. Both B&C
Answer: E

United Nations decided to mark the importance of India’s former President and great scientist APJ Abdul
Kalam and declared his birthday as ‘World Students Day’. The world students day is ....?
A. November 15
B. October 15
C. October 17
D. November 17
Answer: B

Sex education should be given to

A. Toddler
B. Preschooler
C. Schoolar
D. Adolescents
Answer: D

Dowager's hump is the forward curvature(kyphosis) of the spine resulting in a stoop, caused by collapse of the
front edges of the thoracic vertebrae commonly seen in....?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteoporosis
D. Lumbar fracture
Answer; C

Cessation of breathing more than ....seconds is known as apnea

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
E. 30
Answer: D

While newborns vitals assessments , it should be

A. T,P,R
B. R,P,T
C. P,T,R
D. P,R,T
Answer: B

Koplik spots (also Koplik's sign) are a prodromic viral enanthem of ---- disease?
A. Chikun gunya
B. Diphtheria
C. Herpes zoster
D. Herpes simplex
E. Measles.
Answer: E

CVP is the pressure within

a)inferior venacava
b)pulmonary artery
c)pulmonary vein
d)subclavian vein
Anti - infective vitamin?
A. A
B. B12
C. C
D. D
Answer: A

Scilent killer in neonates?

A. Hypothermia
B hypoxia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Dehydration
Answer: A

Which of the following condition Christmas disease ?

A. Leukemia
C. Hemophilia A
D. Hemophilia B
Answer : D

Zika is a viral diseases transmitted by mosquito

A. Culex
B. Ades
C. Anopheles
D. Asian tiger
Answer : B

Malnutrition landmark in children?

A. Head circumference
B. Chest circumference
C. Mid arm circumference
D. Milestone achievement
Answer: C

Trendelenburg test is used to detect

B. Varicose vein
C . vulvular disorder
Do thrombophlebitis
A reflex that is seen in normal newborn babies, who automatically turn the face toward the stimulus and make
sucking motions with the mouth when the cheek or lip is touched.
A. Moro
B. Rooting
C. Sucking
D. Swallowing
Answer: B

Rh positive mother has to receive Rh immunoglobulin at

A. 14 weeks
B. 26 weeks
C. 32 weeks
D. None of these.
E. 28 weeks
F. After delivery
Answer: D

CA cervix caused by
B. H. Pylori
C. E coli
D. Treponema
E. Gardnerella vaginalis
Answer: A

" Vande matharam " project associated with

A. Immunization
B. Antenatal care
C. Breast feeding
D. Child care
Answer: B

Royal disease is....

B. Hypertension
C. Hemophilia
D. Nephrotic syndrome
Answer: C

Immediately after amniotomy the nurse should check

A. Uterine tone
B. Bladder distension
E. Cervical dilation
Answer: C

Degree 4 th , uterine prolapse?

A. uterine inversion
B. Uterine atony
C. Parametritis
D. procidentia
Answer: D

Toxic shock syndrome is due to

A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Pneumococus
D. Haemophilus.
Answer: B
Toxic shock syndrome is a rare, life-threatening complication of certain types of bacterial infections. Often
toxic shock syndrome results from toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus (staph) bacteria, but the
condition may also be caused by toxins produced by group A streptococcus (strep) bacteria.

Molloscum contagiosum is caused by...

A. Poxvirus
B. Candia
D. Variola
E. Gonorrhoea
Answer: A

Colostrum contains highest %

A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Vitamins & minerals
Answer: B
Normal sperm densities range
A. 20 - 300 million/ ml
B. 10- 20 billion/ ml
C. 10000- 20000/ ml
D. None of these.
Answer: A

Mr.Ashok orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationship throughout the organization. Which of the
following principles refer to this?
A.Span of control
B. Hierarchy
C.Esprit d’ corps
D. Unity of direction
Answer: B

Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Highly cost-effective
B. Makes management easier
C. Reflects the interest of the worker
D. Allows quick decisions or actions.
E. Both A&B
F. Both C&D
Answer: E

Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in formulating objectives for nursing care?
A. Written nursing care plan
B. Holistic approach
C. Prescribed standards
D. Staff preferences
Answer: D

Rh negative mother has to receive RH D immunoglobulin with in ----- days postpartum

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 7
E. None
Answer: C

Pelvic cellulitis
A. Parametritis
B. Vulvitis
C. Pelvic abscess
D. Perinitis
Answer: A

An opioid analgesic is administered to a client during surgery. The nurse assigned to care for the client ensures
that which medication is readily available if respiratory depression occurs?
A. Betamethasone
B. Morphine sulfate
C.Naloxone (Narcan)
D. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)
Answer: C

Fetal bradycardia means HR below

A. 80/mts
B. 100/mts
C. 120/mts
D. 140/mts
Answer: C

A good fetal outcome in contraction test ...?

A. Neutral
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. None of these.
Answer: C

Liquor amnie exceeds 2000ml

A. Hydramnios
B. Oligohydramnions
C. Polyhydramnions
D. Both A & C
Answer : D

MTP act enforced in ...?

A. 1927
C. 1989
D. 1871
Answer: B

Early sign of DIC

A. Pain
B. Hematuria
C. Clot formation
D. Vascular obstruction
Answer: B

Highest degree of abortion seen among

A. Husband with A blood group and wife with O group
B. Husband with O blood group and wife with A group
C. Husband with A blood group and wife with B group
D. Husband with AB blood group and wife with O group
Answer: A

.Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of:

A. Iron
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Digoxin
D. Beta blockers
Answer: A

The nurse is preparing to teach a client how to use crutches. Before initiating the lesson, the nurse performs
an assessment on the client.The priority nursing assessment should include which focus?
A. The client's feelings about the restricted mobility
B. The client's fear related to the use of the crutches
C. The client's muscle strength and previous activity level
D. The client's understanding of the need for increased mobility
Answer: C

Most specific enzyme for MI?

Answer: B

Which is the following largest and most muscular chamber of heart

a)right atrium
b)right ventricle
c)left ventricle
d)left atrium

Uterine contractions monitored by ......?

A. Friedman's curve
B. Tonometer
C.Tocodynamo meter
D. Fetoscope
Answer: c

Which of the following drug shows drug holiday


After TURP, the client having continues bladder irrigation. Which of these statements explain the reason for
continuous bladder irrigation?
a. To remove clot from the bladder
b. To maintain the patency of the catheter
c. To maintain the patency of the bladder
d. To dilute urine
Answer: A

The nurse has developed a plan of care for a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which client problem
should the nurse select as the priority in the plan of care?
A. Malnutrition
B. Inability to cope
C. Concern about body appearance
D. Lack of knowledge about nutrition
Answer: A

Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhoea after delivery or in postpartum period..(in proper lactating
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
Answer: B

Why should an infant be quiet and seated upright when the nurse checks his fontanels?
A. The mother will have less trouble holding a quiet, upright infant.
B. Lying down can cause the fontanels to recede, making assessment more difficult.
C. The infant can breathe more easily when sitting up.
D. Lying down and crying can cause the fontanels to bulge.
Answer: D
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with renal calculi?
A. Ineffective tissue perfusion
B. Functional urinary incontinence
C. Risk for infection
D. Decreased cardiac output
Answer: C

Most common site of hematoma during postpartum period?

A. Uterine hematoma
B.Vaginal hematoma
C.cervical hematoma
D. Vulvar hematoma
Answer: D

Which trait is the most important for ensuring that a nurse-manager is effective?
A. Communication skills
B. Clinical abilities
C. Health care experience
D. Time management skills
Answer :A
Communication skills are a necessity for a successful nurse-manager. The manager must be able to
communicate with the staff, clients, and family members. Clinical abilities, experience, and time management
are also important to the manager's success, but without communication skills the manager won't be

Which of the following ECG lead shows changes In IWMI

D. V3

Absence of recognizable QRS Complex in ECG indicate

1)Atrial fibrillation
2)Ventricular fibrillation
3)Sinus arrhythmias
4)paroxysmal VT

Another name Of Glucose?

A. Fruit sugar,
B. Cane Sugar,
C. Fructose,
D. Dextrose,
Answer: D

Daily Requirements of protein Is per Kilogram of Body weight?

A) 1 gm,
B) 10gm,
C) 20gm,
D) 30gm,
Answer: A

A client on prolonged bed rest has developed a pressure ulcer. The wound shows no signs of healing even
though the client has received appropriate skin care and has been turned every 2 hours. Which factor is most
likely responsible for the failure to heal?
A. Inadequate vitamin D intake
B. Inadequate protein intake
C. Inadequate massaging of the affected area
D. Low calcium level
Answer: B
Clients on bed rest suffer from a lack of movement and a negative nitrogen balance.

In Gynace ward , the find out a client, she is on PPH . What the nurse should do first?
A.monitor vitals
B. Call physician
C. Eliminate the blood loss
D. Stay with the client & call for help.
Answer: D
Client may goes to shock. So stay with client
Call help and ask another to call doctor.eliminate blood loss. Then monitor & record vitals

A client complains of abdominal discomfort and nausea while receiving tube feedings. Which intervention is
most appropriate for this problem?
A. Giving the feedings at room temperature
B. Decreasing the rate of feedings and the concentration of the formula
C. Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position while feeding
D. Changing the tube feeding administration set every 24 hours
Answer: B
Decreasing the rate of feedings and the concentration of the formula. Its the higher priority.

which detail of a client's drug therapy is the nurse legally responsible for documenting?
A. Peak concentration time of the drug
B. Safe ranges of the drug
C. Client's socioeconomic data
D. Client's reaction to the drug
Answer: D
The nurse legally must document the client's reaction to the drug in addition to the time the drug was
administered and the dosage given. The nurse isn't legally responsible for documenting the peak
concentration time of the drug, safe drug ranges, or the client's socioeconomic data.

The Ward nurse administering mannitol and the doctor advised slowly to be given. Why?
The risk for ---?
A. cerebral embolism
B. Pulmonary edema
D. Fluid overload
Answer: B
Rapid fluid shift will results pulmonary edema

The nurse is collecting data on a client before surgery. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to
the presence of risk factors for postoperative complications?
A "I haven't been able to eat anything solid for the past 2 days."
B. "I've never had surgery before."
C. "I had an operation 2 years ago, and I don't want to have another one."
D. "I've cut my smoking down from two packs to one pack per day."
Answer: D

The physician prescribes morphine 4 mg I.V. every 2 hours as needed for pain. The nurse should be on the
alert for which adverse reaction to morphine?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Neutropenia
D. Respiratory depression
Answer: D
The nurse should be alert for respiratory depression after morphine administration. Other adverse reactions
include bradycardia (not tachycardia), thrombocytopenia (not neutropenia), and hypotension (not

The nurse is auscultating a client's chest. How can the nurse differentiate a pleural friction rub from other
abnormal breath sounds?
A. A rub occurs during expiration only and produces a light, popping, musical noise.
B. A rub occurs during inspiration only and may be heard anywhere.
C. A rub occurs during both inspiration and expiration and produces a squeaking or grating sound.
D. A rub occurs during inspiration only and clears with coughing.
Answer: C
A male client has been complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath for the past 2 hours. He has a
temperature of 99° F (37.2° C), a pulse of 96 beats/minute, respirations that are irregular and 16
breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 140/96 mm Hg. He's placed on continuous cardiac monitoring to:
A. prevent cardiac ischemia.
B. assess for potentially dangerous arrhythmias.
C. determine the degree of damage to the heart muscle.
D. evaluate cardiovascular function.
Answer: B

A client with mitral stenosis is scheduled for mitral valve replacement. Which condition may arise as a
complication of mitral stenosis?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Myocardial ischemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
Answer: C

Mitral stenosis, or severe narrowing of the mitral valve, impedes blood flow through the stenotic valve,
increasing pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary circulation.

INR Value of patient with mechanical valves

4)none of above

A client with chest pain doesn't respond to nitroglycerin (Nitrostat). On admission to the emergency
department, the health care team obtains an electrocardiogram and administers I.V. morphine. The physician
also considers administering alteplase (Activase). This thrombolytic agent must be administered how soon
after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) symptoms?
A. Within 3 to 6 hours
B. Within 24 hours
C. Within 24 to 48 hours
D. Within 5 to 7 days
Answer: A

An unconscious infant received to the emergency department. Which pulse should the nurse palpate during
rapid data collection of an unconscious infant?
A. Radial
B. Brachial
C. Femoral
D. Carotid
Answer: B
The brachial pulse is palpated during rapid data collection of an infant.
During rapid data collection, the nurse's first priority is to check the client's vital functions by checking his
airway, breathing, and circulation.

The nurse places a neonate with hyperbilirubinemia under a phototherapy lamp, covering the eyes and
gonads for protection. The nurse knows that the goal of phototherapy is to:
A. prevent hypothermia.
B. promote respiratory stability.
C. decrease the serum conjugated bilirubin level.
D. decrease the serum unconjugated bilirubin level.
Answer: D
Phototherapy is the primary treatment in neonates with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Photoisomerism is
the therapeutic principle working here.
This conjugated form of bilirubin is then excreted into the bile and removed from the body via the gut/urine.

The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug absorption rate from an
I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection site
Answer: C
Blood flow to the I.M. injection site affects the drug absorption rate. Muscle tone and strength have no effect
on drug absorption.

What is the most appropriate method to use when drawing blood from a child with hemophilia?
A. Use finger punctures for lab draws.
B. Be prepared to administer platelets for prolonged bleeding.
C. Apply heat to the extremity before venipunctures.
D. Schedule all labs to be drawn at one time.
Answer: D

For a client with cirrhosis, deterioration of hepatic function is best indicated by:
A. fatigue and muscle weakness.
B. difficulty in arousal.
C. nausea and anorexia.
D. weight gain.
Answer: B
Hepatic encephalopathy, a major complication of advanced cirrhosis, occurs when the liver no longer can
convert ammonia (a by-product of protein breakdown) into glutamine. This leads to an increased blood level
of ammonia — a central nervous system toxin — which causes a decrease in the level of consciousness.
Fatigue, muscle weakness, nausea, anorexia, and weight gain occur during the early stages of cirrhosis.
1.Cellulitis on the floor of mouth is known as...???
A. Stomatitis
B. Glositis
C. Angina pectoris
D. Angina Ludovici
E. Gingivitis
Answer:D/ ludwing's angina

2. To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient

3.A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse should
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the feet

4. A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by food

5. A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine

(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best response of the
Nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary

6. Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would indicate this
complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site

7. A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready pulses,hypotension and an
increased pulse rate. The patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and decreased urine output. The lab work
reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse should suspect:
A. Renal failure
B. Sepsis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dehydration

8.client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should the nurse assess
A. Blood pressure
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Cardiac rhythm
Answer: D

9.The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most
effective in removing respiratory secretions?
A. Administration of cough suppressants
B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Answer is B: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day. Secretion removal is enhanced with adequate
hydration which thins and liquefies secretions.

10.Method to diagnosis & locate seizures?

D. CT scan
Answer: A
11.The primary goal of therapy for a client with pulmonary edema and heart failure?
A Enhance comfort
B Improve respiratory status
C Peripheral edema decreased
D Increase cardiac output
Answer: D

12.The nurse is preparing to administer an I.M. injection in a client with a spinal cord injury that has resulted in
paraplegia. Which of the following muscles is best site for the injection in this case?
A. Deltoid.
B. Dorsal gluteal.
C. Vastus lateralis.
D. Ventral gluteal.
Answer: A

13. The nurse is to collect a sputum specimen from a client. The best time to collect this specimen is:
A. early in the evening.
B. anytime during the day.
C. in the morning, as soon as the client awakens.
D. before bedtime.
Answer: C Because sputum accumulates in the lungs during sleep, the nurse should collect a sputum specimen
in the morning, as soon as the client awakens and before he eats or drinks. This specimen will be
concentrated, increasing the likelihood of an accurate culture

14. An obese client has returned to the unit after receiving sedation and electroconvulsive therapy. The nurse
requests assistance moving the client from the stretcher to the bed. There are 2 people available to assist.
Which of the following is the best method of transfer for this patient?
A. Carry lift.
B. Sliding board.
C. Lift sheet transfer.
D. Hydraulic lift.

Which type of nursing intervention does the nurse perform when she administers oral care to a client?
A. Psychomotor.
B. Educational.
C. Maintenance.
D. Supervisory.
On her 3rd postpartum day, a client complains of chills and aches. Her chart shows that she has had a
temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) for the past 2 days. The nurse assesses foul-smelling, yellow lochia. What do
these findings suggest?
A. Lochia alba
B. Lochia serosa
C. Localized infection
D. Cervical laceration

What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a client?
A. Eupnea
B. Apnea
C. Bradypnea
D. Tachypnea

QJ1. A client receives a painkiller. Thirty minutes

later , The nurse asks the client if the pain is
relieved. Which step of nursing process the
nurse is using?
A. Assessment
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

A client says to the nurse "I know that I'm going to die." Which of the following responses by the nurse would
be best?
A. "We have special equipment to monitor you and your problem."
B. "Don't worry. We know what we're doing and you aren't going to die."
C. "Why do you think you're going to die?"
D. "Oh no, you're doing quite well considering your condition."

A dull percussion is noted over the symphysis pubis , it may indicate

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Prostatitis
C. Peritonitis
D. Distended Bladder
Answer: D

The nurse is assessing the reflexes of a newborn. The nurse assesses which of the following reflexes by placing
a finger in the newborn’s mouth?
A. Moro reflex
B. Sucking reflex
C. Rooting reflex
D. Babinski reflex
Answer: B

When caring for a patient who has intermittent claudication, a cardiac/vascular nurse advises the patient to:
A. apply graduated compression stockings before getting out of bed.
B. elevate the legs when sitting.
C. refrain from exercise.
D. walk as tolerated.
Answer: D

The client is brought to the emergency department due to drug poisoning. Which of the following nursing
interventions is most effective in the management of the client’s condition?
a) Gastric lavage
b) Activated charcoal
c) Cathartic administration
d) Milk dilution
Answer:B Activated charcoal
The administration of activated charcoal is the most effective in the management of poisoning because it
absorbs chemicals in the gastrointestinal tract, thus reducing its toxicity.

A nurse is assessing a group of clients. The nurse knows that which of the following clients is at risk for fluid
volume deficit?(DHA)
a) Client diagnosed with liver cirrhosis.
b) Client with diminished kidney function.
c) Client diagnosed with congestive heart failure.
d) Client attached to a colostomy bag.
Answer: D

Best time to check IOP?

A. Early morning
B. After noon
C. Late evening
D. At noon
Answer: A

The physician teaches a client about the need to increase her intake of calcium. At a follow-up appointment,
the nurse asks the client which foods she has been consuming to increase her calcium intake. Which answer
suggests that teaching about calcium-rich foods was effective?
A. Broccoli and nuts
B. Yogurt and kale
C. Bread and shrimp
D. Beans and potatoes
Answer: B

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke. Because of the stroke, the client has dysphagia
(difficulty swallowing). Which intervention by the nurse is best for preventing aspiration?
A. Placing the client in high Fowler's position to eat.
B. Offering liquids and solids together.
C. Keeping liquids thinned.
D. Placing food on the affected side of the mouth.
Answer: A

When administering an I.M. injection to an infant, the nurse in charge should use which site?
a. Deltoid
b. Dorsogluteal
c. Ventrogluteal
d. Vastus lateralis
Answer: D

Which organ in the body always recieve the most percentage of blood(%cardiac output)flow?.(AIIMS,ME,BPSC
A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Brain
D. Lung
Answer: D
Lung recieves 100% of cardiac output via both pulmonary & systemic circulation.

The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test (UPT)is:

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone
Answer: C

The stool guaiac test (gFOBT) for the detection of...?

A. Piles
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Colo-Rectol carcinoma
Answer: D

Which of the following, if observed as a sudden change in the resident, is considered a possible warning sign
of a stroke?
A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Slurred speech
D. Irregular heartbeat
One of the clasical symptom of stroke

A resident who is incontinent of urine has an increased risk of developing (prometric saudi2016)
A. dementia.
B. urinary tract infections.
C. dehydration
D. pressure sore
Risk for altered skin integrity due to contact with wet surface

A resident is on a bladder retraining program. The nurse aide can expect the resident to
A . Have a fluid intake restriction to prevent sudden urges to urinate.
B . Wear an incontinent brief in case of an accident.
C . Have an indwelling urinary catheter.
D . Have aschedule for toileting.

What is the first choice of MI


In a client with chronic bronchitis, which sign would lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure?
A. Cyanosis of the lips
B. Bilateral crackles
C. Productive cough
D. Leg edema

Which of the following is considered a normal age‐related change?

A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Bladder holding less urine
D. Wheezing when breathing
Answer: C
Is an age related physiological changes. Othes are pathological
Which is the primary consideration when preparing to administer thrombolytic therapy to a patient who is
experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI)?(HAAD2014)
A. History of heart disease.
B. Sensitivity to aspirin.
C. Size and location of the MI.
D. Time since onset of symptoms.
Answer: D
Its the crieteria for thrombolytic therapy, early onset.Thrombolytic medications are approved for the
immediate treatment of stroke (with in 3hrs of onset)and heart attack(with in 12 hrs of onest)

Which of the following statements is true about range of motion (ROM) exercises?
A Done just once a day
B Help prevent strokes and paralysis
C Require at least ten repetitions of each exercise
D Are often performed during ADLs such as bathingor dressing

When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the
importance of:
A. restricting fluids.
B. restricting sodium.
C. forcing fluids.
D. restricting potassium.

. When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?
A. Complaints of double vision.
B. Complaints of halos around lights.
C. Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg.
D. Soft globe on palpation.

In the emergency department, the nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who was brought in by
ambulance after losing consciousness. Upon assessment, the client's breath was noted to be fruity. Which of
the following ABG results would the nurse expect?
A. pH: 7.49 PCO2: 50 HCO3: 18
B. pH 7.28: PCO2: 40 HCO3: 16
C. pH:7.38 PCO2: 45 HCO3: 26
D. pH: 7.31 PCO2: 60 HCO3: 29
Risk for metabolic acidosis in type1 DM

Before administering methergine , to treat PPH the nursing priority to check

A. Uterine tone
B. Output
D. amount of lochia
E. Deep tendon reflex
Answer: C

High risk clients for the reactivation of herpes zoster?

the clients with ....
A. First degree burns
B. Renal transplant
C. Post ORIF
D. Head injury.

The cardiac marker which is elevated soon after MI is


The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the
patient has severe generalized pain, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
B. Intense pain in the toe
C. Yellow-tinged sclera
D. Headache

A client has hypoxemia of pulmonary origin. What portion of arterial blood gas results is most useful in
distinguishing acute respiratory distress syndrome from acute respiratory failure?
A. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
B. Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2)
C. pH
D. Bicarbonate (HCO3–)
Answer: A

The procedure involves removal of the "head" (wide part) of the pancreas, the duodenum, a portion of the
common bile duct, gallbladder, and sometimes part of the stomach.And anastomosis to jejunum ?
A. Birloth 1procedures
B. Birloth 2 procedures
C. Wipple procedures
D. Subtotal cholecystectomy
Answer: C
A client with a fluid volume deficit is receiving an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in water and lactated Ringer's
solution at 125 ml/hour. Which data collection finding indicates the need for additional I.V. fluids?
A. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
B. Temperature of 99.6° F (37.6° C)
C. Neck vein distention
D. Dark amber urine
Answer: D
Normally, urine appears light yellow; dark amber urine is concentrated and suggests decreased fluid intake.

Pseudo membraneous colitis is due to

A. Tetenus toxins
B. Clostridium difficile
C. H.pylori
D. E- Coli

Glomerulonephritis is the complication of impetigo due to...?

A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does not cross the barrier between mother and infant in the
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE

The most severe expressions of alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

A. disequilibrium syndrome
B. dawn phenomenon
C. somogyi phenomenon
D. Delirium tremens
Answer : D

A 39-year-old forklift operator presents with shakiness, sweating, anxiety, and palpitations and tells the nurse
he has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the follow actions should the nurse do first?
A. Inject 1 mg of glucagon subcutaneously.
B. Administer 50 mL of 50% glucose I.V.
C. Give 4 to 6 oz (118 to 177 mL) of orange juice.
D. Give the client four to six glucose tablets

The nurse is collecting data on a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom likely prompted the
client to seek medical attention?
A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
B. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
C. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

A client with B negative blood requires a blood transfusion during surgery. If no B negative blood is available,
the client should be transfused with:
A. A positive blood
B. B positive blood
C. O negative blood
D. AB negative blood
Answer: C
If the client’s own blood type and Rh are not available, the safest transfusion is O negative blood. Answers A,
B, and D are incorrect because they can cause reactions that can prove fatal to the client

An woman is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test.
The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?
A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
C. Metallic taste
D. Hypoglycemia

A 30-year-old male from Haiti is brought to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What is the best
position for this client?
a. Side-lying with knees flexed
b. Knee-chest
c. High Fowler’s with knees flexed
d. Semi-Fowler’s with legs extended on the bed

Which of the following vein is commonly used for CABG

b)greater saphenus
Chronic alcoholic's needs which of the following vitamins
A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavine
C .cyanocobalamin
D. Pyridoxine
Answer : A

which of the following is the warning sign of dying?

A. Rigor mortis
B. Kussmaul breathing
C. Chyene stroke respiraton
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C

The nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to treat a client with heart failure. Which adverse effect must the
nurse watch for most carefully?
A. Increase in blood pressure
B. Increase in blood volume
C. Low serum potassium level
D. High serum sodium level
Answer: C
Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic. The nurse must monitor the serum potassium level and assess for
signs of low potassium. As water and sodium are lost in the urine, blood pressure decreases, blood volume
decreases, and urine output increases.

A confirmational test for gestational diabetes ?

A. Fasting blood sugar
B. Urine sugar
C.glucose tolerance test
D. Fasting lipid profile with RBS
Answer: C

nasal septum disruption is an indication for over usage of ---

A. Marijuana
B. Alcohol
C. cocaine
D. Brown sugar
Answer: C

The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. The physician orders 600 mg of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) oral
suspension to be given once per day. The medication label indicates that the strength is 150 mg/5ml. How
many milliliters of medication should the nurse pour to administer the correct dose?
A. 2.5 ml
B. 4 ml
C. 10 ml
D. 20 ml
Answer: D

The nurse is preparing to discharge a 70-year-old man on warfarin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. The
nurse’s dischargeteaching should include which of the following instructions?
A.Follow a healthy diet by increasing ingestion of green, leafy vegetables.
B. Take herbal remedies to manage cold symptoms.
C. Avoid alcohol due to enhanced anticoagulant effect.
D. Take Coumadin only on an empty stomach.

Route of administration of BCG vaccine?question (AIIMS Delhi 2011)

Answer: B

major part of cardiac output used for which organ?

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Spleen

Cystic fibrosis is diagnosed by ....

A. Fibro scan
B. Sweat test
C. Myelogram

World immunization day?

A. Oct 10
B. Nov 10
C. Dec 10
D. Aug 10
Answer: B

A client with a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock is placed on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IAPB). If
the device is functioning properly, the balloon inflates when the:
A. tricuspid valve is closed.
B. pulmonic valve is open.
C. aortic valve is closed.
D. mitral valve is closed

QM1: world malaria day?

A. March 18
B. April 25
C. May 12
D. May 25

World Cancer day is ...?

A. January 30
B. December 1
C. February 4
D. March 7
Answer: C

In adults, Normal endotracheal suction pressure?

A. 40-90 mm of Hg
B. 70-140 mm of Hg
C. 130- 180 mm of Hg
D. 180-320 mm of Hg
Answer: B

A client undergoes hip-pinning surgery(DHS) to treat an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. The nurse
should include which intervention in the postoperative plan of care?
A. Performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the client's legs once each shift
B. Keeping a pillow between the client's legs at all times
C. Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours
D. Maintaining the client in semi-Fowler's position
Answer: B

During the initial admission process, a geriatric client seems confused. What is the most probable cause of this
client's confusion?
A. Depression
B. Altered long-term memory
C. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
D. Stress related to an unfamiliar situation
Answer: D
The stress of being in an unfamiliar situation, such as admission to a hospital, can cause confusion in geriatric
clients. Depression doesn't produce confusion, but it can cause mood changes, weight loss, anorexia,
constipation, and early morning awakening. In geriatric clients, long-term memory usually remains intact,
although short-term memory may be altered. Decreased LOC doesn't normally result from aging; therefore,
it's a less likely cause of confusion in this client.

The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug absorption rate from an
I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection site
Answer: C
Blood flow to the I.M. injection site affects the drug absorption rate. Muscle tone and strength have no effect
on drug absorption. The amount of body fat at the injection site may help determine the size of the needle
and the technique used to localize the site; however, it doesn't affect drug absorption (unless the nurse
inadvertently injects the medication into the subcutaneous tissue instead of the muscle).

The nursing care plan for a client with decreased adrenal function should include
A. Encouraging activity
B. Placing client in reverse isolation
C. Limiting visitors
D. Measures to prevent constipation
Answer is C: Limiting visitors
Any exertion, either physical or emotional, places additional stress on the adrenal glands which could
precipitate an addisonian crisis. The plan of care should protect this client from the physical and emotional
exertion of visitors.

Witch's milk commonly seen only in ----?

C. Adolescents
D. prenatal clients
Answer: A

Lactation provides contraception for

A. 14 days
B. 30 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 180 days
Answer: C
The nurse is doing a physical assessment and electrocardiogram on an elderly client. Which finding during the
nurse's assessment of the cardiac system is of most concern and warrants prompt further investigation?
A. S4 heart sound.
B. Increased PR interval.
C. Orthostatic hypotension.
D. Irregularly irregular heart rate.

An elderly patient is admitted to the hospital with swollen ankles. The best way to limit
edema of the feet is for the nurse to:

A. Restrict fluids
B. Apply bandages
C. Elevate the legs
D. Do passive range of motion exercises (ROM)
Answer : C

Which of the following actions is the most effective measure to reduce hospital acquired

A. Double bagging of all contaminated laundry

B. Restricting visitors of infectious patients
C. Using disposable supplies
D. Correct hand washing
Answer : D

A patient is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse would expect the physician to

A. Regular insulin IV
B. NPH insulin SC
C. Glucagon IM
D. Mixed insulin SC
Answer : A

The rationale for having the patient void before an abdominal paracentesis procedure is to:

A. Minimize discomfort
B. Avoid abdominal distention
C. Prevent bladder puncture
D. Reduce infection rate
Answer : C
An 85-year-old man is admitted with dementia. He continuously attempts to remove his
nasogastric tube. The nurse applies cloth wrist restraints as ordered. Which of the following
actions by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. Evaluate the need to restrain by observing patient’s behavior once every 24 hrs
B. Perform circulation checks to the extremities every two hours
C. Remove the restraints when the patient is sleeping
D. Instruct family to limit physical contact with the patient
Answer : B

During balloon inflation of an indwelling urinary catheter, the patient complains of pain and
discomfort. The nurse should:

A. Continue the procedure and assure the patient

B. Aspirate the fluid and remove the catheter
C. Withdraw the fluid and reinsert the catheter
D. Decrease the amount of injected fluid and secure
Answer : C

A patient is to receive 25mg/hr of an aminophylline infusion. The solution prepared by the

pharmacy contains 500mg of aminophylline in 1000ml of D5W. How many milligrams are
available per ml?

A. 0.25 mg/ml
B. 0.5 mg/ml
C. 1 mg/ml
D. 2 mg/ml
Answer : B

A patient has had a total hip joint replacement. Which of the following actions should the
nurse consider for the patient’s daily recommended exercise program?

A. Administering an analgesic before exercising

B. Discontinuing the program if the patient dislikes it
C. Continuing exercises inspire of severe pain
D. Evaluating effectiveness of exercise based on pain scale
Answer : A
Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that
would indicate this complication to the nurse would be:

A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site
Answer : D

Which of the following techniques should the nurse implement to prevent the patient’s
mucous membranes from drying when the oxygen flow rate is higher than 4 liters per

A. Use a non rebreather mask

B. Add humidity to the delivery system
C. Use a high flow oxygen delivery system
D. Ensure that the prongs are in the nares correctly
Answer : B

Extrapyramidal adverse effects and symptoms are most often associated with which of the
following drug classes?

A. Antidepressants
B. Antipsychotics
C. Antihypertensives
D. Antidysrhythmics
Answer : B

A construction worker was brought to the emergency department and admitted with the
diagnosis of heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity during hot weather conditions.
Which action should the nurse take?

A. Immediately immerse the patient in cold water to reduce the patient’s temperature
B. Administer an antipyretic such as aspirin or acetaminophen
C. Place ice packs to the neck, axillae, scalp and groin
D. Encourage foods and oral fluids that contain carbohydrates and electrolytesAnswer : C

The nurse should observe for which of the following symptoms in a patient who has just
undergone a total thyroidectomy:

A. Weight gain
B. Depressed reflexes
C. Muscle spasm and twitching
D. Irritable behavior
Answer : C

Which of the following indicates the nurse is engaging in a therapeutic nurse-patient


A. The nurse establishes a relationship that is mutually beneficial

B. The nurse demonstrates sympathetic feelings toward the patient
C. The nurse commits to helping the patient find ways to help self
D. The nurse utilizes therapeutic touch to convey acceptance of the patient
Answer : C

One factor affecting the pharmokinetics of older patients’ drug absorption is:

A. Decreased gastrointestinal motility

B. A difficulty in swallowing
C. A prevalence of obesity
D. Numerous medications
Answer : A

Question No : 36 –

Pain management for terminally ill patients is most effective when analgesics are given:

A. Around the clock

B. Only when clearly needed
C. After non-pharmacological methods fail
D. As the patient requests them
Answer : A
Question No : 37 –

The physician orders 20 u of U-100 regular insulin. The only syringe on hand is a 1 ml
tuberculin syringe. How many milliliters should be administered?

A. 0.02 ml
B. 0.2 ml
C. 1 ml
D. 2 ml
Answer : B

Question No : 38 –

The urinary catheter is kept securely in the bladder by:

A. Taping the urinary catheter to the leg

B. Securing catheter and collection bag connections
C. Inflating the balloon of the catheter
D. Anchoring the catheter bag to the bed
Answer : C

Question No : 39 –

Order: Compazine 8 mg IM stat. Drug availablE.10 mg/ 2mL in vial.

How many mLs would you give?

A. 0.6 mL
B. 1.6 mL
C. 2.6 mL
D. 3.6 mL
Answer : B

Question No : 40 –
A medication was ordered by a physician. The nurse believes the medication dose is
incorrect. What should the nurse do next?

A. Clarify the order with another physician who is available on the unit
B. Ask the nurse in charge if the order is correct
C. Contact the pharmacy department
D. Call the physician who prescribed the medication
Answer : D

Question No : 41 –

The immediate treatment for ventricular fibrillation is:

A. Precordial blow
B. Defibrillation
C. Bolus of lidocaine
D. Ventricular pacing
Answer : B

Question No : 42 –

A patient requires tracheal suctioning through the nose. Which of the following nursing
action would be incorrect?

A. Lubricating the catheter with sterile water

B. Applying suction while withdrawing the catheter from the nose
C. Applying suction for a minimum of 30 seconds
D. Rotating the catheter while withdrawing it
Answer : C

Question No : 43 –

Thirty minutes after starting a blood transfusion a patient develops tachycardia and
tachypnea and complains of chills and low back pain. The nurse recognizes these
symptoms as characteristic of:

A. Circulatory overload
B. Mild allergy
C. Febrile response
D. Hemolytic reaction
Answer : D

Question No : 44 –

To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:

A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses

B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient
Answer : B

Question No : 45 –

Order: 1000 ml of D5W to run for 12 hours. Using a micro drip set calculate the drops per
minute (gtts/min):

A. 20 gtts/min
B. 45 gtts/min
C. 60 gtts/min
D. 83 gtts/min
Answer : D

Question No : 46 –

Which of the following tasks requires specialized education and should be performed by
the nurse only after the training has been completed?

A. Administering a dose of promethazine (Phenergan) via intravenous push (IVP)

B. Applying a transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic)
C. Instilling tobramycin (Tobrex) ophthalmic solution
D. Beginning an intravenous infusion of cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
Answer : D
Question No : 47 –

The patient is to receive 100 ml/hr of D5W through a micro drip. How many drops per
minute should the patient receive?

A. 25 gtts/min
B. 30 gtts/min
C. 100 gtts/min
D. 200 gtts/min
Answer : C

Question No : 48 –

Immediately after a craniotomy for head trauma, the nurse must monitor the drainage on
the dressing. Which of the following should be reported?

A. Blood tinged
B. Straw colored
C. Clotted
D. Foul-smelling
Answer : B

Question No : 49 –

Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement if a patient complains of
cramps while irrigating the colostomy?

A. Reduce the flow of solution

B. Have the patient sit up in bed
C. Remove the irrigation tube
D. Insert the tube further into the colon
Answer : A
Question No : 50 –

A nurse is not familiar with a particular solution ordered to irrigate a patient’s wound. The
appropriate action would be to:

A. Check if the solution is available on the ward, and if so, use it to clean the wound
B. Put a neat line through the order and re-write the solution more commonly used
C. Check with the Pharmacist about the uses of the solution ordered
D. Ask the patient what solution he would prefer to be used
Answer : C

Question No : 51 –

A 65-year-old patient is admitted with ischemic stroke. Which of the following would be
initially assessed by the nurse to determine the patients level of consciousness?

A. Visual fields
B. Deep tendon reflexes
C. Auditory acuity
D. Verbal response
Answer : D

Question No : 52 –

While preparing for a kidney biopsy the nurse should position the patient:

A. Prone with a sandbag under the abdomen

B. Lateral opposite to biopsy site
C. Supine in bed with knee flexion
D. Lateral flexed knee-chest
Answer : A

Question No : 53 –
To promote accuracy of self-monitoring blood glucose by patients the nurse should:

A. Retrain patients periodically

B. Direct patients to rotate testing sites
C. Advise patients to buy new strips routinely
D. Compare results from patient’s meter against lab results
Answer : A

Question No : 54 –

After administration of penicillin, a patient develops respiratory distress and severe

bronchospasm. The nurse should:

A. Contact the physician

B. Apply ice packs to the axilla
C. Assess the patient for orthostatic hypotension
D. Encourage the patient to take slow deep breaths
Answer : A

Question No : 55 –

The administration of which of the following types of parenteral fluids would result in a
lowering of the osmotic pressure and cause the fluid to move into the cells?

A. Hypotonic
B. Isotonic
C. Hypertonic
D. Colloid
Answer : A

Question No : 56 –

A newborn infant is assessed using the Apgar assessment tool and scores 6. The infant
has a heart rate of 95, slow and irregular respiratory effort, and some flexion of extremities.
The infant is pink, but has a weak cry. The nurse should know that this Apgar score along
with the additional symptoms indicates the neonate is:
A. Functioning normally
B. Needing immediate life-sustaining measures
C. Needing special assistance
D. Needing to be warmed
Answer : C

Question No : 57 –

Nursing management of the patient with external otitis includes:

A. Irrigating the ear canal with warm saline several hours after instilling lubricating ear drops
B. Inserting an ear wick into the external canal before instilling the ear drops to disperse the medication
C. Teaching the patient how to instill antibiotic drops into the ear canal before swimming
D. Instilling ear drops without the dropper touching the auricle and positioning the ear upward for 2 minutes
Answer : D

Question No : 58 –

The best example of documentation of patient teaching regarding wound care is:

A. “The patient was instructed about care of wound and dressing changes”
B. “The patient demonstrated correct technique of wound care following instruction”
C. “The patient and family verbalize that they understand the purposes of wound care”
D. “Written instructions regarding wound care and dressing changes were given to the patient”
Answer : B

Question No : 59 –

A patient is ordered 75mg of pethidine which comes in an ampoule of 100mg/2ml. What

would the nurse do with the remaining pethidine after drawing up the required dose?

A. Lock up the remaining dose in the medication cupboard to use later

B. Ask a fellow staff nurse to witness the disposal of the remaining drug
C. Use the remaining dose within 2 hours for another patient
D. Pour the remaining dose down the nearest sink
Answer : B

Question No : 60 –
A nurse can ensure she maintains her competency to practice through:

A. Being involved in continuing education programs

B. Making sure that what was learnt at nursing school is strictly followed
C. Closely carrying out instructions given by the Charge Nurse
D. Working on the same ward for at least 2 years
Answer : A

Question No : 61 –

The patient with liver cirrhosis receives 100 ml of 25% serum albumin intravenously. Which
of the following findings would best indicate that the albumin is having its desired effect?

A. Decreased blood pressure

B. Increased serum albumin level
C. Increased urine output
D. Improved breathing pattern
Answer : C

Question No : 62 –

The nurse should suspect that a patient has bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract
when the color of the patient’s stool is:

A. Yellow
B. Black
C. Clay
D. Red
Answer : B

Question No : 63 –

A registered nurse delegates care to a practical nurse. The person most responsible for the
safe performance of the care is the:
A. Head nurse who is in-charge of the unit
B. The practical nurse assigned to provide the care
C. The registered nurse who delegated the care to the practical nurse
D. The nursing care coordinator who is the supervisor of the unit
Answer : C

Question No : 64 –

A deficiency of which of the following vitamins can affect the absorption of calcium?

A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin B12
Answer : C

Question No : 65 –

A patient with a central venous line develops sudden clinical manifestations that include a
decrease in blood pressure, an elevated heart rate, cyanosis, tachypnea, and changes in
mental status. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. An air embolism
B. Circulatory overload
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Developing bacteremia
Answer : A

Question No : 66 –

When taking routine post-operative observations on a patient who underwent an

exploratory laparotomy, the nurse plans to monitor which important finding over the next

A. Serosanguinous drainage on the surgical dressing

B. Blood pressure of 105/65 mmHg
C. Urinary output of 20 mls in the last hour
D. Temperature of 37.6 °C
Answer : C

Question No : 67 –

When the nurse is caring for a patient placed on droplet precautions, the nurse should:

A. Have the patient wear a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask

B. Wear a surgical mask when standing within 3 feet (1 meter) of the patient
C. Assign the patient to a room with monitored negative air pressure
D. Apply a disposable gown when entering the patient’s room
Answer : B

Question No : 68 –

A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In
caring for this patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:

A. Dehydration
B. Subinvolution
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hypertension
Answer : C

Question No : 69 –

Collection urine bag should be emptied as necessary and at least every 8 – 9 hours to

A. Pooling of urine in the tube

B. Reflux of urine into the bladder
C. Pulling on catheter
D. Bacterial contamination
Answer : D
Question No : 70 –

Which of the following statements accurately describes the occurrence of dyspnea in

patients who are receiving end of life care?

A. Dyspnea is only experienced by patients who have primary diagnoses that involve the lungs
B. Dyspnea occurs in less than 50% of the patients who are receiving end of life care
C. Dyspnea that is caused by increased fluid volume may be improved by diuretics
D. Dyspnea may be caused by antibiotic therapy used over a long period of time
Answer : C

Question No : 71 –

The patient has a nursing diagnosis of altered cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral
edema. An appropriate nursing intervention for this problem is to:

A. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees

B. Provide a position of comfort with knee flexion
C. Provide uninterrupted periods of rest
D. Ensure adequate hydration with mannitol
Answer : A

Question No : 72 –

While assessing a patient, the nurse learns that he has a history of allergic rhinitis, asthma,
and multiple food allergies. The nurse must:

A. Be alert to hypersensitivity response to the prescribed medications

B. Encourages the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case of an allergic reaction
C. Advise the patient to use aspirin in case of febrile illnesses
D. Admit the patient to a single room with limited exposure to health care personnel
Answer : A

Question No : 73 –

The nurse should administer nasogastric tube (NGT) feeding slowly to reduce the hazard

A. Distention
B. Abdominal cramps
C. Diarrhea
D. Regurgitation
Answer : A

Question No : 74 –

A patient arrived to the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) complaining of pain after
undergoing a right total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following should the nurse do to
assess the patient’s level of pain?

A. Determine the patient’s position during surgery and how long the patient was in this position
B. Inspect the dressing, note type and amount of drainage, and insure bandage adhesive is not pulling on skin
C. Ask anesthesiologist what type of anesthesia patient received and last dose of pain medication
D. Note location, intensity and duration of pain and last dose and time of pain medication
Answer : D

Question No : 75 –

When caring for a patient with impaired mobility that occurred as a result of a stroke (right
sided arm and leg weakness). The nurse would suggest that the patient use which of the
following assistive devices that would provide the best stability for ambulating?

A. Crutches
B. Single straight-legged cane
C. Quad cane
D. Walker
Answer : C

Question No : 76 –

The nurse teaches a patient recovering from a total hip replacement that it is important to
A. Putting a pillow between the legs while sleeping
B. Sitting with the legs crossed
C. Abduction exercises of the affected leg
D. Bearing weight exercises on the affected leg for 6 weeks
Answer : B

Question No : 77 –

A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:

A. Generalized burning sensation

B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by food
Answer : C

Question No : 78 –

You have started work on a new ward. One of the patient’s allocated to you has been on
the ward for the last 7 months since she had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). You notice
that her nursing care plan says strict bed rest, but on assessment you can not see any
reason why this patient can not sit out of bed for short periods. Your nursing action would

A. Check with the other nursing staff as to reasons behind the nursing care plan then update the plan based on
your assessment
B. Follow the nursing care plan strictly as this would have been developed after a detailed and collaborative
C. Seek physician’s orders so that you have permission to move the patient
D. Try and move the patient without consulting with anyone to see how she manages
Answer : A

Question No : 79 –

A nurse prepares a narcotic analgesic for administration, but the patient refuses to take it.
Which of the following actions by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. Encourage the patient to reconsider taking the medication

B. Label the medication and replace it for use at a later time
C. Discard the medication in the presence of a witness and chart the action
D. Call the physician with the patient’s refusal to take the prescribed medication
Answer : C

Question No : 80 –

A patient who sustained a chest injury has a chest tube inserted which is connected to an
under water seal drainage system. When caring for this patient the nurse will:

A. Instruct the patient to limit movement of the affected shoulder

B. Observe for fluctuation of the water level
C. Clamp the tube when needed
D. Administer hourly analgesia
Answer : B

Question No : 81 –

Which of the following laboratory blood values is expected to be decreased in hepatic


A. Albumin
B. Bilirubin
C. Ammonia
D. ALT and AST
Answer : A

Question No : 82 –

A patient with allergic rhinitis reports severe nasal congestion, sneezing, and watery eyes
at various times of the year. To teach the patient to control these symptoms the nurse
advises the patient to:
A. Avoid all over the counter intranasal sprays
B. Limit the use of nasal decongestant sprays to 10 days
C. Use oral decongestants at bedtime to prevent symptoms during the night
D. Keep a diary of when an allergic reaction occurs and what precipitates it
Answer : D

Question No : 83 –

The apical pulse can be best auscultated at the:

A. Left 2nd intercostal space lateral to the mid clavicular line

B. Left 2nd intercostal space at the left sternal border
C. Left 5th intercostal space at the mid clavicular line
D. Left 5th intercostal space at the mid axillary line
Answer : C

Question No : 84 –

The nurse notes that there are no physician’s orders regarding Fatima’s post operative
daily insulin dose. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to:

A. Withhold any insulin dose since none is ordered and the patient is NPO
B. Call the physician to clarify whether insulin should be given and at what dose
C. Give half the usual daily insulin dose since she will not be eating in the morning
D. Give the patient her usual daily insulin dose since the stress of surgery will increase her blood glucose
Answer : B

Question No : 85 –

An 8-month-old infant is diagnosed with communicating hydrocephalus. The nurse notices

that his intracranial pressure is increasing from the following changes in his vital signs:

A. Bradycardia, hypotension and hypothermia

B. Bradycardia, hypertension and hyperthermia
C. Tachycardia, hypotension and hyperthermia
D. Tachycardia, hypertension and hypothermia
Answer : B
Question No : 86 –

Whenever a child with thalassemia comes for blood transfusion, he is administered

Desferoxamine (Desferal). The action of this drug is to:

A. Inhibit the inflammatory process

B. Enhance iron excretion
C. Antagonize the effect of vitamin C
D. Increase red blood cell production
Answer : B

Question No : 87 –

A patient becomes angry and threatens to leave the hospital unless the physician reviews
the reason for the patient’s delay in discharge. The patient has a medication order for
agitation available p.m..but refuses the medication and requests a drink of orange juice
instead. What should the nurse do?

A. Secretly slip the p.r.n. medication into the orange juice and give it to the patient
B. Give the patient the orange juice and tell the patient that a staff member is attempting to call the physician
C. Inform the patient that staff is unable to force anyone to stay in the hospital
D. Inform the patient that nothing can be done until the morning
Answer : B

Question No : 88 –

A nurse prepares to set up a secondary intravenous (IV) cannula. The primary IV infusing
is normal saline. In order for the secondary cannula to infuse correctly, the nurse should set
up the primary IV to:

A. Hang higher than the secondary IV

B. Hang at the same level as the secondary IV
C. Hang lower than the secondary IV
D. Discontinue before the secondary IV starts
Answer : C
Question No : 89 –

A 21 year old woman is being treated for injuries sustained in a car accident. The patient
has a central venous pressure (CVP) line insitu. The nurse recognizes that CVP

A. Estimate Cardiac output

B. Assess myocardial workload
C. Determine need for fluid replacement
D. Determine ventilation – perfusion mismatch
Answer : C

Question No : 90 –

After application of a cast in the upper extremity, the patient complains of severe pain in the
affected site. Which of the following would the nurse initiate?

A. Administer analgesics as ordered

B. Assess neurovascular status
C. Notify his physician
D. Pad the edges of the cast
Answer : B

Question No : 96 –

The best dietary advice a nurse can give to a woman diagnosed with mild pregnancy-
induced hypertension is to:

A. Follow a strict low salt diet

B. Restrict fluid intake
C. Increase protein intake
D. Maintain a well-balanced diet
Answer : D
Question No : 97 –

A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

A. 11 year old male – 90 b.p.m, 22 resp/min. , 100/70 mm Hg

B. 13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg
C. 5 year old male- 102 b.p.m, 24 resp/min., 90/65 mm Hg
D. 6 year old female- 100 b.p.m., 26 resp/min., 90/70mm Hg
Answer : B

Question No : 98 –

Which of the following actions is the most appropriate when the nurse is responding to a
patient during a tonic-clonic seizure?

A. Restrain the patient

B. Protect the patient from harm
C. Minimize noise and light stimulus
D. Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula
Answer : B

Question No : 99 –

The patient’s pre-operative blood pressure was 120/68 mmHg. On admission to the Post
Anesthesia Care Unit, the blood pressure was 124/70 mmHg. Thirty minutes after
admission, the patient’s blood pressure falls to 112/60 mmHg, pulse to 72 BPM, and the
skin appears warm and dry. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to:

A. Raise the head of the bed

B. Notify the anesthetist immediately
C. Increase the rate of IV fluid replacement
D. Continue to monitor the patient
Answer : D

Question No : 100 –

An 84-year-old man has arthritis and is admitted for a severely edematous knee. The
physician orders heat packs every 2 hours and you feel this order may worsen the tissue
congestion. An appropriate nursing action would be:

A. Contact the physician and discuss your concerns about the order
B. To include the order in the nursing care plan and monitor outcome
C. Complete an incident report form and document concerns in the nursing notes
D. Involve the patient by asking what his treatment preference is
Answer : A

Question No : 101 –

The nurse plans the care for a patient with increased intracranial pressure, she knows that
the best way to position the patient is to:

A. Keep patient in a supine position until stable

B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
C. Maintain patient on right side with head supported on a pillow
D. Keep patient in a semi-sitting position
Answer : B

Question No : 102 –

The coronary care nurse draws an Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) sample to assess a patient for
acidosis. A normal pH for arterial blood is:

A. 7.0 – 7.24
B. 7.25 – 7.34
C. 7.35 – 7.45
D. 7.5 – 7.6
Answer : C
Question No : 103 –

A patient voided a urine specimen at 9:00 AM. The specimen should be sent to the
laboratory before:

A. 9:30 AM
B. 10:00 AM
C. 10:30 AM
D. 11:00 AM
Answer : A

Question No : 104 –

Which of the following correctly describes wound packing in a wet to dry dressing?

A. Pack gauze into the wound tightly

B. Overlap the wound edges with wet packing
C. Pack the wound with slightly moistened gauze
D. Use gauze well saturated with saline for packing the wound
Answer : C

Question No : 105 –

To prevent post-operative thrombophlebitis, which one of the following measures is


A. Elevation of the leg on two pillows

B. Using of compression stocking at night
C. Massage the calf muscle frequently
D. Performing leg exercises
Answer : D

Question No : 106 –
The mother of a child with nephrotic syndrome asks why her child must be weighed each
morning. The nurse’s response should be based on the fact that this is important to
determine the:

A. Nutritional status
B. Water retention
C. Medication doses
D. Blood volume
Answer : B

Question No : 107 –

When caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy the nurse may carry out the
following orders: give enemas, provide a low protein diet, and limit physical activities.
These measures are performed to:

A. Minimize edema
B. Decrease portal pressure
C. Reduce hyperkalemia
D. Decrease serum ammonia
Answer : D

Question No : 108 –

A patient is to receive 2.5mg of morphine sulfate. The ampoule contains l000mcg/mL. How
much morphine should the nurse administer?

A. 0.25 ml
B. 1 ml
C. 1.5 ml
D. 2.5 ml
Answer : D

Question No : 109 –

When the post-operative patient returns to the surgical unit, the priority is to:
A. Assess the patient’s pain
B. Measure the patient’s vital signs
C. Monitor the rate of the IV infusion
D. Check the physician’s post-operative orders
Answer : B

Question No : 110 –

While preparing the midday medications, the nurse finds difficulty reading the label on a
medicine bottle. The best action by the nurse is to:

A. Document that it could not be given due to difficulty in reading the label
B. Make out a new label with clear handwriting using adhesive tape to attach it
C. Ask the pharmacist to replace it with a clearly labeled bottle
D. Give the medication if it is similar to a bottle present on the trolley
Answer : C

Question No : 111 –

To ensure safe practice during defibrillation, the nurse must:

A. Cover paddles with electrode gel

B. Avoid touching the patient’s bed
C. Remove paddles after the shock
D. Synchronize prior to shock delivery
Answer : B

Question No : 112 –

The physician orders heparin 40 000 U in 1 liter of D5W IV to infuse at 1000 U/hr. What is
the flow rate in milliliters per hour?

A. 250 mls/hr
B. 25 mls/hr
C. 2.5 mls/hr
D. 0.25 mls/hr
Answer : B

Question No : 113 –

What two behaviors are important when documenting the depth of the patients

A. Orientation and appearance

B. Helplessness and hopelessness
C. Affect and thought processes
D. Mood and impulse control
Answer : B

Question No : 114 –

The nurse knows that the greatest risk for a patient with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy is:

A. Hemorrhage leading to hypovolemic shock

B. Strictures and scarring of the fallopian tube
C. Adhesions and scarring from blood in the abdomen
D. Infertility resulting from treatment with a salpingectomy
Answer : A

Question No : 115 –

The nurse manager has just prepared a medication for a patient and she asked you to give
the medication. Which of the following is the best response to the nurse manager’s

A. Give the patient his medication and record it on the chart

B. Ask another nursing colleague to give and record the medication
C. Explain that you cannot give a medication that you did not prepare
D. Give the medication and ask the nurse manager to record it on the chart
Answer : C
Question No : 116 –

A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready pulses,
hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and
decreased urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse
should suspect:

A. Renal failure
B. Sepsis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dehydration
Answer : D

Question No : 117 –

A patient is to receive 50mL of fluid in 1/2 hour (30 min). The infusion pump should be set
to deliver how many milliters per hour?

A. 25 ml/hr
B. 50 ml/hr
C. 75 ml/hr
D. 100 ml/hr
Answer : D

Question No : 118 –

A patient with a history of angina pectoris arrives in emergency complaining of headache,

visual disturbances and feeling dizzy. Your nursing assessment also notes he looks
flushed, is perspiring perfusely and is experiencing palpitations. You should suspect:

A. An overdose of sublingual nitroglycerin

B. The onset of a myocardial infarction
C. The patient has been over exercising
D. The beginning of a severe chest infection
Answer : A

Question No : 119 –
The purpose of a cardiac pacemaker is to:

A. Initiate and maintain the heart rate when SA node is unable to do so

B. Stabilize the heart rate when it is above 100 beats per minute
C. Stabilize the heart when the patient has had a heart attack
D. Regulate the heart when the patient is going for open heart surgery
Answer : A

Question No : 120 –

A nurse has been working in a general hospital on the same medical unit for 6 years. The
Behavioral Unit is desperately short staffed and the nurse is asked to work her shift in this
other unit. What would be the expected response of the nurse to this request?

A. “I will go to the unit and hopefully the behavioral health staff members will assist me with my assignment.”
B. “I cannot go. I have no previous behavioral health experience. I do not want to reduce the quality of patient
C. “I have no previous behavioral health experience. I am willing to go and help with any duties that are similar
to those I perform on my unit.”
D. “I should not be expected to float to another unit without a proper orientation. I will fill out an incident
report if I am sent there.”
Answer : C

Question No : 121 –

Order: Allopurinol 450 mg p.o. daily. Drug availablE.Allopurinol 300 mg scored tablets.
Which of the following will you administer?

A. 0.5 tablet
B. 1.5 tablets
C. 2 tablets
D. 2.5 tablets
Answer : B

Question No : 122 –

The correct way to trim the toe nails of a patient with diabetes is to:
A. Cut the nails in a curve and then file
B. Cut the nails straight across and then file
C. File the nails straight across and square only
D. File the nails in a curved arch with low sides only
Answer : C

Question No : 123 –

A patient complains of pain in his right arm. The physician orders codeine 45 mg and
aspirin 650 mgs every 4 hours PRN. Each codeine tablet contains 15mg of codeine and
each aspirin tablet contains 325mg of aspirin. What should the nurse administer?

A. 2 codeine tablets and 4 aspirin tablets

B. 4 codeine tablets and 3 ½ aspirin tablets
C. 3 codeine tablets and 2 aspirin tablets
D. 3 codeine tablets and 3 aspirin tablets
Answer : C

Question No : 124 –

During the acute phase of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) the nurse should maintain the
patient in which of the following positions?

A. Semi-prone with the head of the bed elevated 60-90 degrees

B. Lateral, with the head of the bed flat
C. Prone, with the head of the bed flat
D. Supine, with the head of the bed elevated 30-45 degrees
Answer : D

Question No : 125 –

A patient on diuretics has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the
following is this patient most at risk for developing?
A. Hypokalemia and cardiac arrhythmias
B. Hypercalcemia and polyuria
C. Dehydration and hyperglycemia
D. Hyperalimentation and heart block
Answer : A

Question No : 126 –

A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine

(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best
response of the nurse to this order is to:

A. Give the dose immediately and once

B. Give medication if patient’s blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary
Answer : A

Question No : 127 –

Which of the following is the most appropriate first action for the nurse to take for a pre-
schooler who has fallen and has a hematoma formed on the temporal bone?

A. Encourage a nap
B. Give pain medication
C. Apply ice and monitor vital signs
D. Allow the child to continue activities
Answer : C

Question No : 128 –

The minimal amount of urine that a post-operative patient weighing 60 kgs should pass is?

A. 120 ml/hr
B. 90 ml/hr
C. 60 ml/hr
D. 30 ml/hr
Answer : D

Question No : 129 –

You are the nurse providing post-operative care for a 9 year old boy who is 6 hours post-
tonsillectomy. He is sleeping, but on routine observation you notice that his pulse has
increased, he seems to be restless and trying to swallow frequently. Your immediate action
would be:

A. Apply an ice collar to reduce discomfort

B. Allow child to keep sleeping and record observations
C. Wake him and offer some ice chips to suck
D. Check inside his mouth for any signs of bleeding and notify the physician
Answer : D

Question No : 130 –

When inserting a rectal suppository for a patient the nurse should?

A. Insert the suppository while the patient performs the ‘valsava maneuver’
B. Place the patient in a supine position
C. Position the suppository beyond the muscle sphincter of the rectum
D. Insert the suppository 1/2 inch into the rectum
question_answerVIEW ANSWER

Answer : C

Question No : 131 –
A patient with pneumonia is coughing up purulent thick sputum. Which one of the following
nursing measures is most likely helpful to loosen the secretions?

A. Postural drainage
B. Breathing humidified air
C. Percussion over the affected lung
D. Coughing and deep breathing exercises
Answer : B

Question No : 132 –

A patient is admitted to a hospital with acute renal failure. The patient wakes up
complaining of abdominal pain. On assessment, the nurse observes edema to the patient’s
ankles and distended neck veins. The patient is dyspneic with a blood pressure of 200/96
mmHg. The proper nursing diagnosis for this patient is:

A. Deficient fluid volume related to disease process

B. Excess fluid volume related to decreased glomerular filtration rate
C. Knowledge deficit related to proper medication regimen
D. Acute pain related to renal edema
Answer : B

Question No : 133 –

A patient arrives at the emergency department with slurred speech and a right facial droop.
The patient’s relative states the patient “is not himself.” Upon assessment, the nurse finds
paresthesia to the right side of the body, receptive aphasia, hemianopia and altered
cognitive abilities. The nurse should suspect:

A. A narcotic overdose
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Alcohol withdrawal
D. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
Answer : D
Question No : 134 –

The nurse is preparing teaching plans for several patients. The nurse should recognize
which of the following patients is at greatest risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

A. A 2-year-old patient who is receiving gastrostomy feedings

B. A 20-year-old patient with a sigmoid colostomy
C. A 40-year-old patient who is 3 days post-operative with an ileostomy
D. A 60-year-old patient who is 8 hours post-renal arteriography
Answer : C

Question No : 135 –

A 3-month-old infant is admitted with a diagnosis of ventricular septal defect. The physical
assessment for this infant would reveal:

A. High pitched cry

B. Harsh heart murmur
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypertension
Answer : B

Question No : 136 –

A young patient is extremely irritable due to meningitis. It would be most important for the
nurse to:

A. Use low-level lighting in the room

B. Ventilate the room
C. Eliminate strong odors
D. Allow frequent visitors
Answer : A

Question No : 137 –
A male patient with a right pleural effusion noted on a chest X-ray is being prepared for
thoracentesis. The patient experiences severe dizziness when sitting upright. To provide a
safe environment, the nurse assists the patient to which position for the procedure?

A. Prone with head turned toward the side supported by a pillow

B. Sims’ position with the head of the bed flat
C. Right side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
D. Left side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
Answer : D

Question No : 138 –

A newborn is diagnosed with ventricular septal defect. The baby is discharged with a
prescription for digoxin syrup 20 micrograms bid. The bottle of digoxin is labeled as 0.05
mg/ml. The nurse should teach the mother to administer on each dose:

A. 0.1 ml
B. 0.2 ml
C. 0.4 ml
D. 0.8 ml
Answer : C

Question No : 139 –

As a part of the treatment given to a child with leukemia the child is placed on reverse
barrier isolation to:

A. Protect the child from injury

B. Protect the child from infectious agents
C. Provide the child with a quiet environment
D. Keep the child away from other children
Answer : B

Question No : 140 –
The nurse should be aware that tetracycline is contraindicated in children under 12 years of
age because:

A. Minimal doses are needed to control infection

B. Immunosuppression is a common side effect
C. Staining of the teeth is an adverse effect
D. They are prone to develop renal failure
Answer : C

Question No : 146 –

When caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis, the patient is most likely to complain of
pain which is:

A. Severe and located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the groin
B. Burning and located in the epigastric area and radiating to the groin
C. Severe and located in the epigastric area and radiating to the back
D. Burning and located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the back
Answer : C

Question No : 147 –

The best time for the nurse to teach an anxious patient about the patient controlled
analgesic (PCA) pump would be during which of the following stages of patient care?

A. Post-operative
B. Pre-operative
C. Intraoperative
D. Post anesthesia
Answer : B

Question No : 148 –

Elevated levels of amylase and lipase in the blood are common in:

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Esophagitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Hepatitis
Answer : C
Question No : 149 –

In preparing the patient for electroencephalogram (EEG), the nurse should:

A. Withhold breakfast
B. Give sleeping pills the night before
C. Shave the hair
D. Restrict intake of coffee
Answer : D

Question No : 150 –

An 11 year old girl with a history of asthma arrives at the primary health clinic with
signs/symptoms of shortness of breath, audible wheezing, nasal flaring and mild lip
cyanosis. Your immediate nursing action is to:

A. Assess respiratory distress and peak expiratory flow rate

B. Take a blood sample to assess COlevels
C. Instruct the parents to take the child immediately to hospital
D. Sit the child comfortably and offer 2 puffs of ventolin stat
Answer : A

Question No : 141 –

While assessing an 84-year-old post-operative patient, the nurse observes that the patient
suddenly becomes very anxious, appears cyanotic and has severe dyspnea. The nurse
recognizes these symptoms to be consistent with:

A. Congestive heart failure

B. Pulmonary embolism
C. COPD exacerbation
D. Myocardial infarction
Answer : B

Question No : 142 –

When preparing an eye medication, the nurse reads the order “OS”. Medication is given

A. Both eyes
B. Left eye
C. Right eye
D. Infected eye
Answer : B

Question No : 143 –

A patient has been taking Aluminum Hydroxide daily for 3 weeks. The nurse should be alert
for which of the following side effects?

A. Constipation
B. Flatulence
C. Nausea
D. Vomiting
Answer : A

Question No : 144 –

An early sign of acute respiratory failure is:

A. Diaphoresis
B. Cyanosis
C. Restlessness
D. Orthopnea
Answer : C

Question No : 145 –

In caring for a woman and baby day 3 postnatally, she tells you that her baby has not had a
bowel action since delivery. Your appropriate response would be:

A. Reassure the mother that it is quite normal for a baby to not move their bowels until day 5 after a few days
of milk feeding
B. Start a bowel chart, document all findings, and wait another 48 hours before reporting to the physician
C. Encourage more frequent warm baths for the neonate with gentle abdomen massages
D. Tell the mother that you will let the physician know, so the baby can be checked for any obstruction
Answer : D