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Group 2

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Group-2 test series for preliminary exam contains 10 comprehensive tests

covering all the topics like polity, economy, history, geography science and
technology, ap culture, AP Reorganisation related issues, logical reasoning and data
interpretation and current affairs, etc. as mentioned in syllabus..

Group 2 Schedule is as below:

1. Test 1 on Feb 27th

2. Test 2 on Mar 6th
3. Test 3 on Mar 13th
4. Test 4 on Mar 20th
5. Test 5 on Mar 27th
6. Test 6 on Apr 3rd
7. Test 7 on Apr 10th
8. Test 8 on Apr 17th
9. Test 9 on Apr 24th
10. Test 10 on May 1st

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"Assured QUALITY papers with detailed explanations

prepared under the guidance of Former Chief Secretary."

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Group 1

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COMBO PACK @ Rs. 1148 only – 18 Tests – 2460 Qs

Group 1 preliminary exam contains two papers.

Paper 1 is general studies covering topics from History, Polity, Economics, Culture, International
Relations, Geography, Ap bifurcation issues etc

Paper 2 is General Aptitude paper covering topics from Science and Technology, Environmental
and Climate change, Disaster management and Current affairs, Aptitude, Logical Reasoning,
Data interpretation etc.

We provide total 8 tests, 4 tests in each paper. Each test has the questions covering all topics in
respective papers.

Group 1 Test Series Schedule:

1. General Studies Test -- 1 on 30th Jan, 2019

2. General Aptitude Test -- 2 on 3rd Feb, 2019

3. General Studies Test -- 3 on 10th Feb, 2019

4. General Aptitude Test -- 4 on 17th Feb, 2019

5. General Studies Test -- 5 on 24th Feb, 2019

6. General Aptitude Test -- 6 on 3rd Mar, 2019

7. General Studies Test -- 7 on 10th Mar, 2019

8. General Aptitude Test -- 8 on 17th Mar, 2019

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under the guidance of Former Chief Secretary."

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Group 2 Sample Test Questions

1. Which is 'The State Bird of Andhra Pradesh'?

(A) Crow
(B) Peacock
(C) Rose ringed Parakeet
(D) Sparrow

Ans. C

Exp: The state bird of undivided Andhra Pradesh was Indian Roller (coracias benghalensis) or
Palapitta. This has been changed to Rama Chiluka (psittacula krameri) or rose ringed parakeet.

2. Atapaka Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

(A) Pulicat Lake
(B) Talakona Waterfalls
(C) Kolleru Lake
(D) Papikondalu of Godavari

Ans. C

Exp: Kolleru Bird Sanctuary also called as Atapaka Wildlife Sanctuary, covers mainly two districts
of Andhra Pradesh they are Krishna and West Godavari districts and between the River Krishna
and River Godavari deltas

3. Which of the following forests grows in waterlogged areas of Coringa in Andhra Pradesh?
(A) Mangrove
(B) Evergreen
(C) Deciduous
(D) Coniferous

Ans. A

Exp: Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary and estuary situated in Andhra Pradesh,
India. It is the second largest stretch of mangrove forests in India with 24 mangrove tree species
and more than 120 bird species. It is home to the critically endangered white-backed vulture
and the long billed vulture. Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal
intertidal zone. There are about 80 different species of mangrove trees. All of these trees grow
in areas with low-oxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate.

4. Which of the following divides India into Northern and Southern parts?

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(A) Equator
(B) Tropic of Cancer
(C) Tropic of Capricorn
(D) Arctic Circle

Ans. B

Exp: Tropic of Cancer divides India into Northern and Southern parts. Tropic of Cancer passes
through 8 Indian states including: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.

5. Seasonal changes on the earth occur due to

(A) Inclination of earth on its axis and rotation
(B) Inclination of earth on its axis and revolution
(C) Rotation and revolution of Earth
(D) Revolution of the Earth only

Ans. B

Exp: The seasons are caused as the Earth, tilted on its axis, travels in a loop around the Sun each
year. Summer happens in the hemisphere tilted towards the Sun, and winter happens in the
hemisphere tilted away from the Sun.

6. Which one of the following endocrine gland is situated in the neck?

(A) Testes
(B) Thyroid
(C) Pituitary
(D) None of the above

Ans. B

Exp: The thyroid gland is located in the neck and is composed of two lobes connected by the
isthmus. The thyroid is made up of follicle cells that produce the hormones thyroxine and

7. A small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form
because silica gel
(A) Kills bacteria
(B) Kills germs and spores
(C) Absorbs moisture
(D) Absorbs all gases present inside the bottle

Ans. C

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Exp: Little packets of silica gel are found in all sorts of products because silica gel is a desiccant --
it adsorbs and holds water vapor. It is found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form
because it absorbs the moisture and thereby increases the storing life of medicine. In leather
products and foods like pepperoni, the lack of moisture can limit the growth of mold and reduce

8. Hydrophobia or fear of water may affect a person suffering from

(A) Diphtheria
(B) Pneumonia
(C) Rabies
(D) Tetanus

Ans. C

Exp: Rabies is medically termed hydrophobia (fear of water or any liquid) because with the onset
of paralysis, which also affects the oropharyngeal muscles and the swallowing and breathing
centers in the brain, the person infected with rabies is unable to swallow, especially liquid, and
has the sensation of choking when they try to drink.

9. When sitting in a room which has metallic mesh on all sides, the mobile phone signal is weak
due to
(A) Optical shielding
(B) Magnetic shielding
(C) Electronic shielding
(D) Electromagnetic shielding

Ans. D

Exp: Construction materials used in the home or office may affect your cell signal. Cell signals do
not have strong penetration through metal, aluminum and concrete. Some high-security
buildings are constructed with a wire mesh known as a "Faraday cage." This is a metallic
enclosure made from fine-mesh copper screening. It creates a conductive shell that prevents the
entry or escape of any electromagnetic field. Faraday cages are used in electronic labs to
prevent electromagnetics from interfering with electronic testing. They are also used as a
security precaution to prevent hackers from remotely viewing classified or proprietary on-
screen computer data. A building with this copper wire mesh encasement prohibits cell phones
from sending or receiving any signals.

10. The vitamin which is water soluble and generally excreted in urine is
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin A

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Ans. A

Exp: Vitamins B and C are water soluble and any surplus of these vitamins is excreted in the

11. Five boys took part in a race. Raj finished before Mohit but behind Gaurav. Ashish finished
before Sanchit but behind Mohit. Who won the race?
(A) Raj
(B) Gaurav
(C) Mohit
(D) Ashish

Ans. B

Exp: The order is Gaurav, Raj, Mohit, Ashish, Sanchit. Hence, Gaurav won the race.

12. If M is the sister of Z, Z is the wife of P and P is the son of A, how Z relates to A?
(A) Daughter-in-law
(B) Daughter
(C) Wife
(D) Mother

Ans. A

Exp: As shown in the given figure, Z is the daughter in law of A.

13. How many rectangles can you see in the figure?

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(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 7

Ans. C

Exp: After counting all the rectangles, the correct answer will be 10 counting from left to right
and right to left.

14. Rajneesh started walking towards North. He took a left turn after walking 20 m. He again took a
right turn after walking 30 m. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) West
(D) South

Ans. A

Exp: If Rajneesh initially headed towards North and turn left & then right. Hence, he is in the
initial direction, which in North.

15. The mean of the following distribution is 6.5. Find the value of k.

X 2 4 6 8 10
F 5 3 7 6 k

(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 8

Ans. C

Exp: Mean = Sum of all observations/Total number of observations

Mean = ∑fᵢxᵢ/∑fᵢ
∑fᵢ = 5+3+7+6+k=21+k
∑fᵢxᵢ = 2*5+4*3+6*7+8*6+10*k =112+10*k
Mean =( 112+10*k)/21+k =6.5
16. Sum of mode and median of the data
12, 15, 11, 13, 18, 11, 13, 12, 13
(A) 26

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(B) 31
(C) 36
(D) 25

Ans. A


Ascending order 11, 11, 12, 12, 13, 13, 13, 15, 18

Number of observations= 9(odd)

So median is 5th term i.e. 13

Maximum frequency= 3(of 13)

So Mode = 13

Sum of Median and Mode= 26

17. Money Bills can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha only for
(A) 30 days
(B) 14days
(C) 20 days
(D) 7 days

Ans. B

Exp: The Rajya Sabha has restricted powers with regard to a money bill. It cannot reject or
amend a money bill. It can only make the recommendations. It must return the bill to the Lok
Sabha within 14 days, wither with or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha can either
accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. If the Rajya Sabha does
not return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, the bill is deemed to have been passed by
both the Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha.

18. Which Article permits separate constitution for the state of Jammu and Kashmir?
(A) Article 360
(B) Article 390
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 152

Ans. C

Exp: Article 370 in Part XXI of the Constitution grants a special status to it. Accordingly, all the
provisions of the Constitution of India do not apply to it. It is also the only state in the Indian
Union which has its own separate state Constitution—the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir.

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19. Which of the following is a feature of the parliamentary system?

(A) The president is the real executive
(B) Individual responsibility
(C) Collective responsibility
(D) Powerful Judiciary

Ans. C

Exp: Collective Responsibility is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The

ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in
particular (Article 75).

20. Identify the correct match

(A) Budget Session – November
(B) Money Bill – Rajya Sabha
(C) Monsoon Session – July
(D) Winter Session – February

Ans. C

Exp: Correct matches are Budget Session – February

Money Bill – Lok Sabha

Monsoon Session – July

Winter Session –November

21. Article 51(A) of the Indian Constitution deals

(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive principles of State Policy
(D) Amendment of the Constitution

Ans. B

Exp: The Congress Government at Centre enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in
1976. This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution. This new part
consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten
fundamental duties of the citizens.

22. Who was the Political Guru of Gandhi?

(A) Surendranath Bannerjee
(B) WC Bannerjee
(C) Bipin Chandra Pal

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(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Ans. D

Exp: Gopal Krishna Gokhale, the senior leader of Indian National Congress and the founder of
Servants of Indian Society, is known to be a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
was also a social reformer whose goals were to promote non-violence and reform within
existing government institutions.

23. Which one of the following were the earliest monuments in Andhra?
(A) Megaliths
(B) Buddhist Stupas
(C) Shaiva Temples
(D) Rockcut Rathas

Ans. A

Exp: The megalithic monuments are usually constructed with large stone slabs or blocks of stone
either in their natural form or roughly quarried and trimmed. In Andhra Pradesh megalithic
culture flourished between 6th century B.C. and the 2nd -3rd centuries A.D.

24. Who fought for widow remarriages through 'Viveka Vardhini' Journal?
(A) Tanguturi Prakasham Panthulu

(B) Kandukuri Veeresalingam

(C) Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar

(D) Suravram Pratapa Reddy

Ans. B

Exp: Rao Bahadur Kandukuri Veeresalingam Pantulu, considered as the father of renaissance
movement in Telugu. He fought for women education, widow remarriage and fought against
dowry system.

Viveka Vardhini –Journal; Satihita Bodhini - Monthly Magzine were used to continue his fight
against social evils.

25. Which of the following tells us about the Social conditions of Satavahanas?
(A) Gatha Saptasathi
(B) Rajatarangini
(C) Bhagavata Purana
(D) Ratnavali

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Ans. A

Exp: This book is written by a Satavahana ruler Hala in 1st century in Prakrit language. It is about
emotions of love. However it tells about the Social conditions during Satavahanas.

26. As per Section 26 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, the Assembly constituencies in
Andhra Pradesh can be increased through delimitation from the present number of 175 to
(A) 208
(B) 212
(C) 225
(D) 195

Ans. C

Exp: Excerpt from the act ‘26 (1) Subject to the provisions contained in article 170 of the
Constitution and without prejudice to section 15 of this Act, the number of seats in the
Legislative Assembly of the successor States of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana shall be increased
from 175 and 119 to 225 and 153, respectively, and delimitation of the constituencies may be
determined by the Election Commission’

27. Which of the following countries have launched a common digital currency “Aber”?

(A) Germany and France

(B) Japan and South Korea
(C) Argentina and Uruguay
(D) UAE and Saudi Arabia
Ans. D
Exp: The central banks of the UAE and Saudi Arabia will launch a common digital currency called
Aber. Aber will be used for financial settlements between the two countries through Blockchains
and Distributed Ledgers technologies.
Benefits of the Digital Currency
The digital currency would be launched to explore the following benefits:
The digital currency would aid in studying the impact on the improvement and reduction of
remittance costs and the assessments of risks.
Aber will establish an additional means for the central financial transfer systems of the two
countries and enable banks to directly deal with each other in conducting financial remittances.
Initially, the use of the digital currency will be restricted to a limited number of banks. By
studying the various technical, economic and legal requirements, the use of the digital currency
would be expanded.
Digital Currency Aber relies on the use of a distributed database between the central banks and
the participating banks from both sides. Digital Currency is part of the efforts to adopt new
technologies like Blockchain, Artificial Intelligence, Internet of Things, etc., in line with the
Fourth Industrial Revolution that is reshaping governments and corporates around the world.

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28. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan announced
in Interim Budget, 2019 of Central Government

1) to provide assured monthly pension of 3000 rupees per month.

2) zero premium to be paid by the beneficiary
3) It is applicable to all workers including organised sector.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1,2 only
(C) 1,2&3
(D) 1& 3 only
Ans. A
Exp: The Union Finance Minister Piyush Goyal announced the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi
Mandhan scheme in the interim budget 2019 for workers in the unorganised sector.
The features of the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan scheme are:
Under the scheme, an assured monthly pension of Rs 3,000 per month will be provided to
workers in the unorganised sector after 60 years of age.
To avail of the scheme, workers will have to contribute a minimal Rs 100 month per month.
The scheme is expected to benefit 10 crore workers.
This new pension scheme will run alongside the existing Atal Pension Yojana, which guarantees returns

29. Which of the following are included in broad money(M3) in India

1) currency with the public

2) demand deposits with banks
3) time deposit with banks
4) other deposits with RBI
select the correct answer using the code given below
(A) 1,2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1,2,3 and 4
Ans. D
Exp: M3= M1+ Time deposits with the
banking system
M1= Currency with the public +
Demand deposits with the
banking system + ‘Other’
deposits with the RBI.
30. Effective revenue deficit is

(A) fiscal deficit minus net interest payment

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(B) total revenue Expenditure minus total revenue receipts

(C) revenue deficit minus grants for creation of capital assets
(D) total government expenditure minus total government receipts
Ans. C
Exp: To calculate effective revenue deficit, subtract capital creation grants given to States.
Effective Revenue deficit is a new term introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12.

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