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BASIC ELECTRONICS - I

1) What voltage producing method is used for radio receiver's oscillator?

Pressure

2) The term "remote job entry" relates to

Batch processing

3) What is the kilowatt-hour consumption of a 40 W lamp if it remains on for 1750 h?

70

4) A battery's capacity to deliver power is measured in

Ah

5) Suppose you double the voltage in a simple dc circuit, and cut the resistance in half. The current will

become four times as great

6) Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the
sunspot cycle?

Six or ten meters

7) Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?

The Keplerian elements

8) Electrode may not be made up of

Silver

9) Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's
surface?

A horizontally polarized

10) Conventionally, negative terminals is shown as

a short fat line

11) Saucepans can be manufactured through electrolysis of

copper
12) Imagine three resistors in parallel, with values of 22 Ω, 27 Ω, and 33 Ω. If a 12-V battery is connected
across this combination, what is the current drawn from the battery?

1.4 A

13) What is the kilowatt-hour consumption of a 40 W lamp if it remains on for 1750 h?

70

14) Non-electrolytes include

A. all of these (Your Answer)

B. Trichloromethane (CHCl3)

C. Tetra chloromethane (CCl4)

D. Molten Sulphur

15) An optoisolator consists of

an LED and a photodiode

16) A telephone modem contains

an A/D converter

17) In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with:

transformer coupling

18) An absolute limit to the component density that can be achieved in IC technology is determined by

the size of the semiconductor atoms

19) The frequency of a signal is INVERSELY proportional to which of the following:

period

20) Imagine four 100-μH inductors connected in a 2 m 2 series-parallel combination. Suppose there is
no mutual inductance among them. What is the net inductance of this matrix?

100 μH

21) A thermal printer might be an ideal choice for

a salesperson who is on the road


22) Imagine an inductor and resistor connected in series, such that the inductive reactance is 300 Ω and
the resistance is 500 Ω at a particular frequency. If the frequency is decreased, what happens to the
relative phase of the instantaneous current and the instantaneous voltage?

They become more nearly in phase

23) The amount of useful output power provided by a device is 1.5 W. It is powered by a 48-V supply
with 100 mA of current. How much power is wasted in heat?

3.3 W

24) Approximately how much current can a 2-kW generator reliably deliver at 117 V?

17 A

25) Indicate the true statement. The process of sending and receiving started as early as

the 1840s

26) Indicate the false statement regarding the advantages of SSB over double sideband, full-carrier AM

Transmitter circuits must be more stable, giving better reception

27) In a stop-and-wait ARQ system, the transmitting terminal

does not wait for acknowledgement after sending a block

28) Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

The director is normally the shortest parasitic element

29) The ability of a material to retain magnetism is called

retentivity

30) Communication network is

a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications service


among stations attached to the network

31) Which of the following circuit quantities can be varied ONLY by varying one of the other circuit
quantities?

Current

32) When Kirchoff's voltage law is used to assign polarities to the voltage drop across a resistor, which
of the following references is used to indicate the end of the resistor that the current enters?
Negative

33) A secondary cell generates dc via chemical activity; a primary cell generates dc

chemically

34) Which of the following terms describes a single resistor that represents a complex circuit?

Equivalent resistor

35) The synchronous modems are more costly than the asynchronous modems because

they contain clock recovery circuits

36) Carbon resistors have which of the following disadvantages?

The resistance value changes with age

37) Polarization occurs due to

copper electrode gets covered with bubbles of hydrogen gas

38) Difficulty of discharge is lowest in

zinc ions

39) If an open occurs in a series portion of a circuit, what is the effect on (a) total resistance, and (b)
total current?

(a) Becomes infinite (b) Decreases to zero

40) Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?

full duplex lines

41) Which semiconductor component has a gate electrode?

Field effect transistor

42) The basic difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker is

a circuit breaker is reusable

43) Which of the following frequencies has the lowest value for Maximum Permissible Exposure limit?

50 MHz

44) Electrolysis is used for

extraction of metals, electrorefinning, & electroplating


45) In electrolysis of brine, ions moving to anode include

hydroxide + Chloride ions

46) Difficulty of discharge is lowest in

hydrogen ions

47) Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna
tower?

Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires

48) A covalent liquid which does not conduct electricity is

non-electrolyte

49) What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not
using the same polarization?

Signals could be significantly weaker

50) Which of the following circuit quantities need NOT be known before designing a voltage divider?

The current of the source

51) Suppose you have an unlimited supply of 1-W, 1000-Ω resistors, and you need to get a 3000-Ω, 5-W
resistance. The best way is to

do something other than any of the choices

52) Which of the following units is NOT a unit of conductance?

Ohm

53) What is the name for standardized representations of components in an electrical wiring diagram?

Schematic symbols

54) Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?

Ensure that the voltmeter and leads are rated for use at the voltages to be measured

55) Weak acids are weak electrolytes because

A. Both A and B (Your Answer)

B. (A) number of valence electrons are lower

C. (B) they contain only a few ions


56) The packets switching concept was first proposed

in the early 1960s for military communication systems, mainly to handle speech

57) A material whose resistance decreases as the temperature increases has what temperature
coefficient?

Negative

58) In electrolysis of concentrated HCl, at cathode

chlorine gas is given off at anode

59) What is the function of a mixer in a superheterodyne receiver?

To shift the incoming signal to an intermediate frequency

60) Term that is used to compose matrix of pixel is

Image

61) What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?

The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting

62) Difficulty of discharge is highest in

sulphate ions

63) A switch is a device that

opens or completes a current path

64) In addition to friction, magnetism, and chemical action, which of the following methods can be used
to produce a voltage?

Pressure

65) In electrolysis of brine, ions moving to cathode include

sodium + hydrogen ions

66) Most reactive metal in given series is

tin

67) Which of the following is true regarding vertical antennas?


The electric field is perpendicular to the Earth

68) What would have to be done to the circuit to cause the current to decrease from 3 amps to 2 amps?

The source voltage would have to be decreased

69) When does maximum power transfer happen from the source to the load?

When the source resistance equals the load resistance

70) Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires

71) Electrodes may be made up of metals like

Graphite

72) Least reactive metal in given series is

Silver

73) What describes about the container of a cell?

mounting for the electrode

74) Of the following characteristics, which one describes the mercury cell?

It has a very stable output voltage

75) What describes a floating charge?

Used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle

76) What is the first step in performing maintenance on a secondary-cell battery?

Check the technical manual for information on the specific type of battery

77) If the electrolyte level in a battery is low, what should be added to the electrolyte to bring it to the
proper level?

Distilled water

78) A strong electrolyte solution makes a bulb

shine brightly

79) Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?

Modulation
80) What subatomic particle has no charge?

Neutron

81) Hydrogen gas is given off at cathode, if solution

A. Both A and B (Your Answer)

B. (C) is non-electrolyte

C. (B) contains concentrated HCl

D. (A) contains dilute HCl

82) What causes hydrogen to be attracted to the anode of a primary cell when the cell is discharging?

A negative charge caused by an excess of electrons

83) Ethanol C2H5OH(I) is an example of

non-electrolyte

84) Maximum number of characters or symbols that can be represented by Unicode

232

85) Types of electrodes used during electrolysis affect the

products of electrolysis

86) What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage battery?

Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented

87) What is the cause of irregular fading of signals from distant stations during times of generally good
reception?

Random combining of signals arriving via different path lengths

89) What is a beam antenna?

An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction

90) Difficulty of discharge is highest in

nitrate ion

91) This resistance change of a deformed object, usually measured using a Wheatstone bridge, is related
to the strain by the quantity known as the
gauge factor

92) The number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom determines which of the following
characteristics of the atom?

Valence

93) In a dry cell, polarization

is prevented through magnese oxide

94) What band is best suited to communicating via meteor scatter?

6 meters

95) Position of metals in reactivity series does not determine the

rate of polarization

96) What is the relationship of total current to the current through a component in (a) a series circuit,
and (b) a parallel circuit?

(a) Equals (b) divides

97) An example of potential energy is

a battery

98) Weak acids are weak electrolytes because

A. Both A and B (Your Answer)

B. (A) number of valence electrons are lower

C. (B) they contain only a few ions

D. (C) they have more hydrogens

99) Ferromagnetic materials have which of the following qualities?

They are relatively easy to magnetize

100) What term is given to the process that takes place inside a cell?

Electrochemical action

101) An object that is in motion has what type of energy?

Kinetic
102) Why is coaxial cable used more often than any other feedline for amateur radio antenna systems?

It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations

103) "Half-splitting" is

a means of isolating a problem in a circuit

104) Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a
coaxial cable feed line?

Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected to an external ground

105) What is the term applied to the ability to do work?

Energy

106) Weber,s theory of magnetism assumes that magnetic material is composed of

tiny molecular magnets

107) Paraffin is an example of

non-electrolyte

108) Cathodic reduction refers to

gain of electrons at cathode

109) If current through a resistance is halved

the voltage is halved

110) The receive equalizer reduces delay distortions using a

tapped delay lines

111) What is a simple resonant or tuned circuit?

An inductor and a capacitor connected in series or parallel to form a filter

112) How many valence shell electrons are there in semiconductor atoms?

113) What describes about the container of a cell?


Mounting for the electrode

114) Suppose you have an unlimited supply of 1-W, 1000-Ω resistors, and you need a 500-Ω resistance
rated at 7 W or more. This can be done by assembling

four sets of two resistors in series, and connecting these four sets in parallel

115) Which of the following is NOT a property of magnetic lines of force?

They cross each other at right angles

116) In a magnesium-copper battery with dilute acid as electrolyte,

duration of bulb brightness is shorter

117) In a dry cell, function of zinc casing is to

act as negative electrode

118) In electrolysis of dilute Hydrochloric Acid (HCl(aq)), at anode

oxygen gas is given off

119) On passing electricity through electrolyte solution,

A. all of these (Correct Answer)

B. ions migrate towards oppositely charged electrodes (Your Answer)

C. electrolyte decomposes

D. electrolyte splits up

120) If molten Lead Bromide (PbBr2) is electrolyzed,

at anode, brown fumes of bromide gas are given off

122) An ROP would be attached to a

simplex channel

123) Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?

A directional antenna

124) A material whose resistance remains constant as the temperature increases has what temperature
coefficient?

Zero
125) Baseband is

transmission of signals without modulation

126) Since ions are held in fixed positions by strong forces, electricity is not conducted by

insulators

127) Oxidation of Hydrogen Gas (H2) to prevent polarization occurs through

depolarizing mixture of manganese oxide and ammonium chloride

128) Most reactive metal in given series is

magnesium

129) The rate at which work is performed is called

power

2130) Electricity is measured through a device called as

Ammeters

131) How much power (roughly) a light emitting diode can couple into an optical fiber?

100 microwatts

132) Non-conductors include

nylon

133) A basic electric circuit is made up of what components?

A voltage source, a load, and a conductive path for current

134) Least reactive metal in given series is

tin

135) Selective charges occurs for the

ions which require least energy to be discharged

136) How much power (roughly) a light emitting diode can couple into an optical fiber?

100 microwatts
137) Electrolysis can be useful for

electrocoating

138) Which of the following is caused by local action in a cell?

Shelf life is reduced

139) You can expect to find a wiring diagram

in the service/repair manual for a two-way radio.

140) Which of the following terms describes a single resistor that represents a complex circuit?

Equivalent resistor

141) What describes about the cathode of a cell?

positive electrode

142) Difficulty of discharge is lowest in

copper ions

143) Difficulty of discharge is lowest in

hydroxide ions

144) What is the function of a product detector?

Detect CW and SSB signals

145) What describes an equalizing charge?

Used periodically as part of a maintenance routine

146) What describes an initial battery charge?

Used after electrolyte is added to a dry-shipped battery

147) Electrode is

plate which carried electricity into liquid

148) Anodic oxidation refers to the

loss of electrons at anode

149) What causes negative ions to be attracted to the cathode of a primary cell while the cell is
discharging?
A positive charge caused by a loss of electrons

150) Most of organic solvents are

non-electrolyte

151) Which one of the following safety precautions for batteries is NOT correct?

Terminals should be electrically connected together before transporting a battery

152) Good engineering practice usually requires that a series-parallel resistive network be assembled

A from resistors that are all identical

153) Examples of conductors include

mercury

154) A battery with a capacity of 600 ampere-hours should provide 3 amperes for a maximum of how
many hours?

200 hr

155) In a dry cell, leaking occurs because

zinc electrode has dissolved away

156) In order to conduct electricity, ionic metals

shall be in molten form

157) What describes about the electrolyte of a cell?

solution acting upon the electrode

158) Distilled water is an example of

non-electrolyte

159) What describes about the electrolyte of a cell?

solution acting upon the electrode

160) Polarization refers to the

prevention of electricity flowing in electrolyte solution

161) If light energy collides with an orbiting electron, what happens to the electron?

The electron will jump to an orbit further from the nucleus


162) A suitable constant flow of electricity can be ensured through

a rheostat

163) Position of metals in reactivity series does not determine the

rate of polarization

164) In a dry cell, electrolyte paste is formed of

ammonium chloride

165) Of the following, which color of the fifth band on a resistor indicates the LEAST chance of failure?

Brown

166) Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?

The keypad or VFO knob

167) If violent gassing occurs during the charging of a battery, which of the following actions should be
taken?

Decrease the charging rate

168) Electricity is measured through a device called as

Ammeters

169) Duration of bright-bulb is shorter in a magnesium-copper battery because

magnesium is highly reactive and dissolves very rapidly in acid

170) Difficulty of discharge is highest in

A. sulphate ions (Correct Answer)

B. bromide ions

C. nitrate ions

D. chloride ions

171) If light energy collides with an orbiting electron, what happens to the electron?

The electron will jump to an orbit further from the nucleus

172) In electrolysis of H2SO4 (aq), at anode

oxygen gas is given off


173) Difficulty of discharge is highest in

A. calcium ions (Correct Answer)

B. copper ions

C. lead ions

D. silver ions

174) In electrolysis of brine, ions moving to cathode include

sodium + hydrogen ions

175) A decrease in magnitude of current, voltage, a power of a signal in transmission between points, is
known as

Attenuation
BASIC ELECTRONICS - II

1. When checking a diode, low resistance readings both ways indicate the diode is:

faulty

2. In a flash analog-to-digital converter, the output of each comparator is connected to an input of a:

priority encoder

3. ___ occurs in a transformer when some of the primary flux lines pass through the air instead of the
core.

Magnetic flux leakage

7. What is the difference between common-mode and differential-mode input signals?

phase relationship

8. Increasing the number of turns in a conductor loop in a basic generator will ___.

increase the generator's output voltage amplitude

9. Use the two's complement system to add the signed numbers 11110010 and 11110011. Determine, in
decimal, the sign and value of each number and their sum.

–14 and –13; –27

10. ECL gates are noted for their high frequency capability and small output voltage swing.

True

11. An ideal inductor would not dissipate any energy.

True

12. 1300 × 10–12 F is the same as 1300 ___.

pF

13. A circuit whose output is proportional to the difference between the input signals is considered to
be which type of amplifier?

differential

14.How will electrons flow through a p-channel JFET?

from drain to source


15. Once a PAL has been programmed:

it cannot be reprogrammed.

16. What happens to the parallel output word in an asynchronous binary down counter whenever a
clock pulse occurs?

The output word decreases by 1.

17. The data stored in a Mask ROM (MROM) is ___________.

permanent

18. The phase angle between the two waveforms in the given circuit equals _____.

15°

19. If the frequency increases in the given circuit, how would the total current change?

The total current would increase.

20. A step-up transformer will have a turns ratio greater than 1.

True

21. What is the true power consumed in a 30 V series RLC circuit if Z = 20 ohms and R = 10 ohms?

22.5 watts

22. The ___ oscillator takes advantage of the piezoelectric effect.

crystal

23. One ampere of current flowing through one ohm of resistance is equal to:

1 watt

24. DC current flows in one direction, while ac current rises from zero to a maximum, then falls to zero
in one direction, then rises to a maximum, then falls to zero in the opposite direction.

True

25. When and who discovered that more than one transistor could be constructed on a single piece of
semiconductor material:

1959, Robert Noyce


BASIC ELECTRONICS -III

1. The removal of a non-neutral subatomic particle converts the atom into a:

charged ion

2. The charge of one coulomb is equal to:

6.24 x 1018 electrons

3. The voltage across any branch of a parallel circuit:

is equally applied to all branch conductances

4. Components that connect in parallel form:

branches

5. A parallel circuit differs from a series circuit in that a parallel circuit has

more than one path for current flow

6. If two parallel-connected resistors dissipate 6 watts and 10 watts of power, then what is the total
power

16 watts

7. In a parallel resistive circuit:

there is more than one current path between two points

8. A parallel circuit is also used as a divider for:

current

9. Which are the better test devices used to isolate a suspected open component within a parallel
circuit?

an ammeter or an ohmmeter

10. Which is considered to be the common reference for a parallel circuit?

Voltage

11. The ___ rating of a resistor will increase with an increase in the surface area of the resistor.

power
12. The number of joules used in 1 second is always equal to the number of _______.

watts

13. Resistance and current are _________.

inversely proportional

14. Which resistive component is designed to be temperature sensitive?

Thermistor

15. What type of switch is this?

SPDT

16. The negative and positive charge symbols are assigned (in that order) to the:

electron and proton

17. Current equals:

mca1_1002a1.gif

18. What are the unit and symbol for current?

Ampere, I

19. The removal of a non-neutral subatomic particle converts the atom into a:

charged ion

20. Current is considered as the movement of:

electrons

21. The basic difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker is

a fuse is reusable

22. When parallel resistors are of three different values, which has the greatest power loss?

The smallest resistance

23. What happens to total resistance in a circuit with parallel resistors if one of them opens?

It increases.

24. Components that connect in parallel form:


branches

25. A parallel circuit differs from a series circuit in that a parallel circuit has

more than one path for current flow

26. In the given circuit, Channel 1 of the stereo amplifier outputs 12 V to the speakers. How much total
current is the amplifier providing to the speakers?

3A

27. In a parallel resistive circuit:

there is more than one current path between two points

28. What procedure should be followed when troubleshooting with an ammeter or voltmeter?

Start with the highest scale and adjust down to a lower scale.

29. A parallel circuit is also used as a divider for:

current

30. Which are the better test devices used to isolate a suspected open component within a parallel
circuit?

an ammeter or an ohmmeter

31. Which is considered to be the common reference for a parallel circuit?

Voltage

32. When is a capacitor fully charged?

when the current through the capacitor is the same as when the capacitor is discharged

34. After which time constant can a capacitor be considered to be fully charged?

fifth

35. You could increase the time constant of an RC circuit by

adding a capacitor in parallel with the circuit capacitance

36. A capacitor's rate of charge is considered:

exponential

37. A resistor and an output capacitor form a series circuit with a square wave applied. The circuit is:
an integrator

38. If an open capacitor is checked with an ohmmeter, the needle will:

stay on infinity

39. As a capacitor is being charged, current flowing into the capacitor will:

decrease

40. A capacitor stores energy within a dielectric between the conducting plates in the form of:

an electric field

41. As a capacitor is being charged, the voltage across its terminals will:

increase

42. What is the total opposition to current in a series RC circuit called?

impedance

43. Which of the following statements is true?

An uncharged capacitor appears as a short to an instantaneous change in current.

44. In a capacitive circuit, current flow is limited to

both charging periods and discharging periods

45. A capacitor is constructed of two parallel:

conductors

46. Which of the following determines the capacitance of a capacitor?

Plate area, dielectric constant, and plate separation

47. What is the reactance value for a capacitor installed in a dc circuit?

infinite

48. In a purely capacitive circuit,

current leads voltage by 90°

49. What is the dielectric constant for ceramic?

between 6 and 8000


50. What is wrong with a leaky capacitor?

The dielectric resistance has decreased.

51. What is the value of a capacitor labeled 102?

1000 pF

52. If the dielectric constant of a capacitor is decreased, then its capacitance will:

decrease

53. Power stored from the source and then returned to the source is called:

reactive power

54. Capacitor value markings are usually:

Alphanumeric

55. When a circuit consists of a capacitor and a resistor in series with a voltage source, and the voltage
across the resistor is zero, then the capacitor is:

fully charged

56. Which material has the highest dielectric strength?

Mica

57. In an ac circuit, a capacitor and an output resistor are connected in series with an ac signal. What
filter action will be the result?

high-pass

58. A practical capacitor

looks like a capacitor in parallel with a resistor

59. What do variable capacitors use for dielectric?

air, ceramic, mica, or plastic

60. If a charged capacitor is disconnected from a circuit, it will:

leak the charge

61. The strength of an electric field at a given point is proportional to the potential difference on the
plates and inversely proportional to the:

plate separation
62. How is ac current related to ac voltage in a purely capacitive circuit?

AC current leads ac voltage.

63. For a given charge difference, electrostatic field strength varies according to:

plate area

64. A capacitor and an output resistor form a series circuit with a square wave applied. The circuit is:

a differentiator

65. Capacitive reactance values connected in series offer

an increase in total XC

66. The quantity that represents an ideal capacitor dissipating 0 W of power is

true power

67. "Half-splitting" is

a means of isolating a problem in a circuit

68. If the resistance in a circuit with constant voltage increases, the current will

decrease

69. A damaged resistor

A. may appear burned

B. may have an increased resistance value

C. may be checked with an ohmmeter

D. All of the above

70. Power supplies differ from batteries in that

A. power supply output voltages are ac and not dc

B. power supply voltages are not stable

C. power supplies are low-current devices

D. None of the above

Answer: Option D
71. Ohm's law describes the mathematical relationship between

resistance, voltage, and current

80. Energy is defined as the ability to

A. produce heat

B. produce light

C. produce sound

D. All of the above

81. Power supplies are regulated to prevent the output voltage from changing due to changes in the

A. line voltage

B. supply load

C. frequency

D. both line voltage and supply load

82. If current through a resistance is halved

the voltage is halved

83. As frequency increases

both series and parallel RL impedance increase

84. Which of the following statements is true about a lag network?

An increase in frequency causes an increase in phase lag.

85. An RL integrator and an RC differentiator can act as what types of filters, respectively?

low-pass, high-pass

86. If the capacitor in an RC integrator shorts, the output

is at ground

What device is similar to an RTD but has a negative temperature coefficient?

Thermistor
87. What is the zero-voltage switch used for?

To reduce radiation of high frequencies during turn-on of a high current to a load

88. What are the two main applications for ac?

electric, magnetic

89. The distance that a signal's energy can travel in the time it takes for one cycle to occur is called the
signal's:

. wavelength

90. One oscilloscope selector knob that allows the major and minor divisions of the graticule to be used
to determine a signal amplitude value is called the:

volts/cm control

91. What voltage will an ac voltmeter display?

rms

92. What is the peak value of a household appliance that uses a 230 V ac source?

325 V

93. Test equipment selection enables the technician to both generate signals and:

sense circuit conditions

94. Why is ac current transfer more effective than dc current transfer over long distances?

due to step-up and step-down transformers reducing I2R losses

95. A test equipment item that has the ability to produce either square, triangular, or saw tooth
waveforms is called:

a function generator

96. What does the CRT oscilloscope display?

voltage and period

97. Power companies supply ac, not dc, because:

it is easier to transmit ac

98. If a waveform period is determined to be 10 microseconds in duration, what is the frequency of the
signal?
100 kHz

99. The phase difference between sine waves of different frequencies is:

the difference in their fixed time displacement

100. What term expresses the frequency of a rectangular wave?

PRF

101. AC effective voltage is named:

root mean square

102. One adjustable knob on the oscilloscope that allows the trace to be aligned with a reference
graticule is called the:

position control

103. The magnitude that an alternation varies from zero is called its:

amplitude

104. The power that is distributed from a power plant to your home is:

high voltage to low voltage

105. A rectangular wave that has a duty cycle of 50 percent could be called a:

square wave

106. A triangle wave consists of repeating:

positive and negative ramps of equal value

107. What is the name of a device used to directly measure the frequency of a periodic wave?

frequency meter or counter

108. Which control should be moved to display more cycles of a signal on an oscilloscope?

time/cm to a higher setting

109. What is the name of a device that converts sound waves to electrical waves?

a microphone

A sine wave has:

A. four quadrants
B. two alternations

C. one period

D. all of the above

110. One oscilloscope selector knob that allows the major and minor divisions of the graticule to be used
to determine a waveform period is called a:

time/cm control

111. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the:

saturation and cutoff regions

112. Three different Q points are shown on a dc load line. The upper Q point represents the:

maximum current gain

113. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called:

alpha

114. With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading between the other transistor
terminals should be:

low resistance

115. To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must be forward biased with reverse bias
applied to which junction?

collector-base

116. A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a:

variable resistor

117. With low-power transistor packages, the base terminal is usually the:

middle

118. Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow:

into the collector

119. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by:

base current
120. One of the most common applications of a potentiometer is as an adjustable voltage divider, also
known as

volume control

121. Power is defined as:

the rate at which work is done

122. If series current doubles, then:

resistance is halved

123. A short circuit has:

no resistance

124. A string of resistors in a series circuit will:

divide the source voltage in proportion to their values

125. While putting three 1.5 V batteries into a flashlight, you put one in backwards. The flashlight will be

dimmer than normal

126. Given a series circuit containing resistors of different values, which statement is not true?

The voltage drop across each resistor is the same.

127. In a series circuit, the voltage measured across a short will be:

zero volts

128. The voltage drop across a series resistor is proportional to what other value?

its own resistance

129. Resistance in a series circuit will:

oppose current

130. When a battery is connected to a series circuit, it delivers current based only upon:

total resistance

131. What determines the total resistance in a series circuit?

the sum of the resistors

132. If two resistors have the same voltage drop in a series circuit, it means:
they are of equal value

133. If two resistors have the same voltage drop in a series circuit, it means:

they are of equal value

134. Electricity may be generated by a wire:

passing through a flux field

135.What is magnetic flux?

the number of lines of force in webers

136. As current travels within a conductor:

a magnetic field is developed around it

137. What type of device consists of a coil with a moveable iron core?

solenoid

138. What is hysteresis?

lag between cause and effect

139. In a purely inductive circuit,

voltage leads current by 90°

140. A series RL filter circuit with an output across the inductor will result in what type of filtering?

passing of the higher frequencies

141. On a schematic, dashed lines between two vertical coils usually mean the transformer has:

a ferrite core

142. A henry value divided by a circuit resistive value provides the:

induced voltage amplitude

143. Faraday's law states that the:

emf depends on the rate of cutting flux

What does Faraday's law concern?

a magnetic field cutting a conductor


144. What is the permeability of transformer iron?

5,500

145. A magnetic field has:

lines of force

146. The four factors determining inductance are the number of turns, coil length, coil area, and:

permeability

147. The time difference, or lag, between flux density and magnetizing force is known as:

hysteresis

148. A magnetic circuit breaker will open to protect equipment only when:

current is exceeded

149. Electromagnetic induction is the generation of:

electricity from magnetism

150. Inductance is:

directly proportional to the number of turns on the coil

151. Current will cause a magnetic field in a conductor as follows:

A dc current causes an alternating magnetic field.

152. During a current change, the ability of a conductor to produce counter emf within itself is called:

self-induction

153. When a transformer secondary lead has been connected to a middle loop that is not an end
connector, it is called a:

center-tapped secondary

154. What will happen when an inductor's magnetic field collapses?

Voltage will be induced.

155. What term is used to describe the action of magnetic flux from one circuit that cuts across the
conductors of another circuit?

mutual inductance
156. Reactance in an inductive circuit will:

increase with frequency

157. A turns ratio of 5 for a transformer implies:

more secondary turns than primary turns

158. A practical inductor

A. has inductance

B. has winding resistance

C. has winding capacitance

D. all of the above

159. A utility pole transformer used to supply a residential customer with two phases uses:

a center tap on the secondary

160. When a coil collapses the induced circuit current will:

be in the same direction

161. When a rate of one ampere per second causes an induced voltage of one volt, the unit of measure
is

a henry

162. If you wanted to decrease the inductance of a coil, you might increase the:

spacing between turns

163. The output phase for a transformer is:

dependent on the direction of the primary and secondary windings

164. Opposition to current flow without the dissipation of energy is called

inductive reactance

165. When the transformer secondary is not loaded:

no secondary current flows

166. A transformer is used:

to couple electric energy from one ac circuit to another


167. Which of the following is NOT one of the three major types of fixed inductor?

A. air core

B. ferrite core

C. magnesium core

D. iron core

167. When an electromagnet reaches maximum strength, it is considered to be:

at saturation

168. You could decrease the time constant of an RL circuit by

adding an inductor in series with the circuit inductance

169. Indication of transformer primary and secondary voltage relationships is accomplished by:

dot notation

170. A value of "ten to the eighth power magnetic lines of force" is for the term:

weber

171. A change of one ampere per second in an inductor that induces a voltage of one volt is considered
as which unit value?

a henry

172. What is the name of the part inside a relay that is moved by the action of the electromagnet?

armature

173. The unit of flux density is:

a tesla

174. When used as a filter, an inductor is

placed in series with the load and opposes any current changes

175. A loaded transformer will achieve mutual induction when:

primary current is increased by an increase in secondary current

176. A transformer will have:

primary and secondary windings


177. A winding of wire can be called

A. an inductor

B. a coil

C. a choke

D. All of the above

178. What happens when moving expanding lines of force encounter a conductor?

Voltage is induced.

179. Fixed transformers have:

turns ratios that cannot be changed

180. Which of the following represents a true equivalent of an inductor?

A capacitance in parallel with the series combination of a resistance and an inductance

181. The time required for one weber of flux to cut a conductor and produce one volt is:

one second

182. What is electromagnetism?

the magnetic field generated around a conductor when a current passes through it

183. Counter emf or induced voltage is:

directly proportional to the inductance in henrys

184. What are the properties that determine the inductance of a coil?

Type of core material, number of turns, cross-sectional area of core, and length of core

185. An inductor is in series with a voltage source, an open switch, and a resistor. The instant the switch
is closed, the inductor acts like

an open

186. When a load is not connected to the secondary of a transformer:

primary current is inversely proportional to primary impedance

187. The dc current through each diode in a bridge rectifier equals:

the load current


188. When matching polarity connections have been made and the potential difference (PD) is above
0.7 V, the diode is considered to be:

forward biased

189. In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a smooth dc output?

regulator

190. The characteristic curve for the complex model of a silicon diode shows that

the barrier potential increases slightly with an increase in current

191. Since diodes are destroyed by excessive current, circuits must have:

current limiting resistors

192. A diode for which you can change the reverse bias, and thus vary the capacitance is called a

varactor diode

193. A filtered full-wave rectifier voltage has a smaller ripple than does a half-wave rectifier voltage for
the same load resistance and capacitor values because:

there is a shorter time between peaks

194. Testing a good diode with an ohmmeter should indicate

high resistance when reverse biased and low resistance when forward biased

105. The peak inverse voltage (PIV) across a nonconducting diode in a bridge rectifier equals
approximately:

the peak value of the secondary voltage

196. Electrons in the outermost orbit or shell of an atom are called

valence electrons

197. Shunting the ac component away from the load is the task of a:

filter

198. When a diode is forward biased, the voltage across it

remains approximately the same

199. Why is heat produced in a diode?

due to current passing through the diode


200. The arrow in the schematic symbol of a diode points to

the p-type material, which is called the anode

201. The diode schematic arrow points to the:

cathode lead

202. When checking a diode, low resistance readings both ways indicate the diode is:

faulty

203. In a diode schematic, the anode is represented by a(n):

triangle

204. With full-wave rectification, current through the load resistor must be:

in the same direction

205. Rectifier output polarity depends upon:

diode installation

206. The conduction band is closest to the valence band in

semiconductors

207. Which of the following circuits would require the least amount of filtering?

A full-wave rectifier and a bridge rectifier

208. Providing a constant output regardless of ac input or load resistance changes is the function of a:

regulator

209. When a diode is destroyed it has infinite impedance. When damaged by heat it will probably:

short

210. DC power should be connected to forward bias a diode as follows:

+ anode, – cathode

211. In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a pulsating dc output?

rectifier

212. Permeability is the inverse equivalent of which electrical term?


Resistance

213 Which electromagnetic device uses brushes and a commutator?

A dc generator

214. Series" and "parallel" as applied to dc motors refer to

the connection of the field coil and armature windings

216 The component that produces power in an electromagnetic generator is called the

armature

217. Which electromagnetic device has a flexible cone?

A speaker

218. What do you call the characteristic of a magnetic material whereby a change in magnetization lags
the application of a magnetizing force?

Hysteresis

219. Which electromagnetic device has a movable iron core called a plunger?

A solenoid

220. Which electromagnetic device contains an armature?

A dc generator

221. The polarity of induced voltage while a field is collapsing is

opposite to the force creating the field

222. Increasing the number of turns of wire on the secondary of a transformer will

decrease the secondary current

223. The transformer turns ratio determines

A. the ratio of primary and secondary voltages

B. the ratio of primary and secondary currents

C. the reflected impedance

D. all of the above

224. Mutual induction is dependent on


current changes

225. A special transformer used to convert unbalanced signals to balanced signals is the

balun

226. A transformer has

a primary winding used as an input and a secondary winding used as an output

227. A JFET

is a voltage-controlled device

228 In a class B push-pull amplifier, the transistors are biased slightly above cutoff to avoid

crossover distortion

229. Which of the following conditions are needed to properly bias an npn transistor amplifier?

Forward bias the base/emitter junction and reverse bias the base/collector junction.

230. The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a(n)

bypass capacitor

231. The depletion-mode MOSFET

can operate with positive as well as negative gate voltages

232. To get a negative gate-source voltage in a self-biased JFET circuit, you must use a

source resistor

233. What are the two major categories for resistors?

fixed and variable

234. The six basic forms of energy are:

electrical, mechanical, light, heat, magnetic, and chemical

235. Power is defined as:

the rate at which energy is used

236. With Ohm's law, no change in resistance means that current and voltage will be:

directly proportional
237. What happens to current and resistance if the voltage doubles?

Current doubles and resistance remains the same.

238. One problem with mechanically variable resistors is noticeable in audio circuits as:

scratchy noise

239. If a variable resistor's resistance varies in a non uniform manner as the shaft is moved, it is
considered to be:

tapered

240. Power is measured in units of:

joules/time

241. How many basic types of resistors exist?

242. Resistors are identified as to wattage by:

size

243. What are the parts of a rheostat?

wiper and resistor track

244. The load resistance increases. How will the load current change?

decrease

245. Resistance is:

the opposition to current flow accompanied by the dissipation of heat

246. Electrical equipment is protected against excessive current by a(n):

fusible wire link

247. A wire with a smaller cross-sectional area will produce:

more heat

248. A good fuse will have:

zero ohms resistance

249. What property does an incandescent lamp possess?


A. cold resistance

B. hot resistance

C. ballast resistance

D. both cold and hot resistance

250. One advantage of a carbon film resistor over a carbon composition resistor is:

less circuit noise

251. If a metallic conductor has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, then:

as temperature increases, resistance increases

252. After a lamp is turned on, its filament resistance will change to become:

more resistive

253. Wirewound resistors are usually used in circuits that have:

high current

254. How is power dissipated in a resistor?

by heat

255. Good insulators:

have a large dielectric strength

256. The determination of a digital signal's frequency and wave shape is best accomplished with which
test equipment?

an oscilloscope
BASIC ELECTRONICS - IV

1. An advantage of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet is that:

An electromagnet can be switched on and off

2. What happens to the flow of electrons in electronic circuit when the resistance is increased?

The flow will be decreased

3. What is the relationship between frequency and the value of R?

Frequency has no effect

3. Longest life cell capable of 20, 000 times charged-discharged cycle and could last 30 years or over

Nickel hydrogen

5. Refers to a field surrounding electrons and protons at stationary period indicating a stored energy

Electrostatic field

6. What determines whether a substance is an insulator or a conductor?

Number of valence electrons

7. Which of the following is positive electricity?

Vitreous static electricity

8. The change in the direction of a compass needle, when a current-carrying wire is brought near, is:

Electromagnetic deflection

9. A unidirectional form of DC can be derived from which of the following sources?

Generator

10. An advantage of full-wave rectifier over half-wave rectifier.

The tube will conduct during both halves of the cycle.

11. What composes all matter whether a liquid, solid or gas?

Atoms

13. A very high resistance connected in parallel with smoothing capacitors in a high voltage DC system is
called a
bleeder

14. What is the smallest part of a computer language?

Bit

15. What law in electronics where an induced current will be in such a direction that its own magnetic
field will oppose the magnetic field that produces the same?

Lenz law

16. has the unit of electron volt.

Energy

17. What element possesses four valence electrons?

Semiconductor

18. Term used to describe sudden reverse conduction of an electronic component caused by excess
reverse voltage across the device.

Avalanche

19, What type of materials formed when trivalent material is doped with silicon or germanium?

P type

20. An instrument used to measure one location in terms of coordinates.

Global Positioning System

21. What is a pi-network?

A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor

22. is the property of a material which opposes creation of magnetic flux?

Reluctance

23. The purpose of cells connected in parallel is to

increase current capacity

24. is a type of linear regulator used in applications requiring efficient utilization of the primary power
source.

A series regulator

25. When a switch is closed, it has a total resistance of


zero

26. What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Tunnel diode

27 Which is the majority carrier in an N-type semiconductor?

Electrons

28. Steel is hard to magnetize because of its _______.

B. low permeability

29. When you increase the resistance in a circuit, the flows of electrons will ______

be decreased

30. Current in a chemical cell refers to the movement of ________

negative and positive ions

31. What is the effect of light in a photodiode?

Reverse current

32. is the dc motor control senses.

Counter emf

33. What is the range of voltage rating available in zener diodes?

2.4 volts to 200 volts

34. What type of transformer that is used to protect technicians and operators from deadly electrical
shock?

Isolation transformer

35. When batteries have cells connected in series the effect is

increased voltage supply

36. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of

Hole current in the emitter

37. Digital ICs are mostly

monolithic
38. What is the total resistance of a two equal valued resistor in series?

Twice as one

39. What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and non-metallic
characteristics?

Silicon and Germanium

40. What do you expect when you use the two 20 k-ohms, 1 watt resistor in parallel instead of one 10 k-
ohms, 1 watt?

Provide more power

41. Protons are about _______ heavier than electrons.

1,800 times

42. In half-wave rectifier, if a resistance equal to load resistance is connected in parallel with the diode
then

circuit will stop rectifying

43. Electric energy refers to _________.

Volt-coulomb

44. What is the process by which AC is converted to pulsating DC?

Rectification

46. frequency is reached when the capacitive and inductive reactance in a tuned circuit are equal.

Resonant

47. Which of the following demodulates an RF modulated wave?

Detector

48. The ideal internal resistance of an ammeter should be

zero

49. is a layer of insulating medium that separates the plates of a capacitor.

C. Dielectric

50. How can electrical current be inducted with a coil and a magnet?

moving either the magnet or the coil


51. Which of the following is not primary type cell?

Silver zinc

52. A Transformer consist of the following

two coils wound on a common core

53. What type of tube is used to display a signal on an oscilloscope?

Cathode ray tube

54. What physical effect will a two parallel wires and with the same direction of current flowing over
them?

attract each other

55. Ohm’s law refers to ________.

current varies directly as the voltage and inversely as the resistance

56. A transistor acts as _________ when saturated.

very low resistance

57. What is the most widely used semiconductor material in electronic devices?

Silicon

58. How are electron-hole pairs produced?

By thermal energy

59. What produces the current in a semiconductor?

By both electrons and holes.

60. What is anything that has weight had occupied space which may be a solid, liquid or gas?

Matter

61. In the operation of dry cells, we normally refer to the supply of current to load resistance where its
current neutralizes the separated charges at the electrodes.

Discharging the cells

62. In voltmeter, the purpose of series resistor is to _________.

increase the voltage range


63. An instrument used to record the electric potentials associated with the electrical currents that
traverse the heart.

Electrocardiograph

64. What is the magnetic equivalent to electrical voltage?

Magnetomotive force

65. How many junctions are there in a semiconductor diode?

One

66. A transformer composed of two or more coils which are wound around a non metallic core.

Air core transformer

67. What materials are meter pointers normally made?

Aluminum

68. An instrument used to detect presence, sign and in some configurations the magnitude of an electric
charge by the mutual attraction or repulsion of metal foils or pith balls.

Electroscope

69. What is the lightest kind of atom or element?

Hydrogen

70. A motor- generator unit in which is built to convert low voltage direct current to high voltage direct
current, both use the same field windings and share armature.

Dynamotor

71. Mechanical rotation frequency is measured using a device called _______.

Tachometer

72. What instrument is used for measuring radio frequency (rf) power?

Thermocouple ammeter

73. What are used as filters for the passage or rejection of specific frequencies?

Tuned circuits

74. A material that removes oxides from surfaces to be joined by soldering or welding

Flux
75. Power transformer normally operates at ___ alternating current.

60 Hz or 400 Hz

76. What is the direction of the magnetic field around a vertical conductor when the current flows
upward?

Counterclockwise
DATA COMMUNICATION

1) Which of the following best illustrates the default subnet mask for a class A,B, and C Network?

255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.

2) Establishing a virtual connection is functionally equivalent to

Placing a telephone call prior to a conversation

3) A global network of millions of business, government, educational, and research networks; computer
systems; database; and end users.

The Internet

4) Most networks are connected to other local area or wide area networks.

Internet works

5) The basic Ethernet design does not provide

automatic retransmission of a message

6) Establishing a virtual connection is functionally equivalent to

Placing a telephone call prior to a conversation

7) The term "remote job entry" relates to

batch processing

8) Although MANs are primarily fiber-optic networks, a wireless contender for metropolitan-area
networking is known as

WiMAX

9) Four routers have to be interconnected in a point-to-point Network. Each pair of root us may
connected by a high-speed line, a medium speed line or a low speed line. Find the total number of
topologies.

729

10) How many hosts are attached to each of the local area networks at your site?

254
11) Which of the following TCP/IP protocol allows an application program on one machine to send a
datagram to an application program on another machine?

UDP

12) What is the default subnet mask for a class A network?

255.0.0.0

13) The first step in troubleshooting many problems is to verify which of the following?

TCP/IP is installed correctly on the client

14) What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over a serial communication link layer?

15) On a class C network with a subnet mask of 192, how many subnets are available?

15) How can you see the address of the DHCP server from which a client received its IP address?

By using IPCONFIG/ALL

16) Who originally designed TCP/IP?

The Department of Defense

17) RS-232-G

is an interface standard between Data terminal Equipment and Data Circuit Terminating Equipment

18) The 802.5 standard implements a way for preventing collisions on the network. How are collisions
prevented when using this standard?

Token passing

19) What operates in the Data Link and the Network layer?

Brouter

20) In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is

the quotient at the sender

21) Distributed Queue Dual Bus is a standard for

LAN and MAN


22) Which of the following device is used to connect two systems, especially if the systems use different
protocols?

gateway

23) A software that allows a personal computer to pretend it as a terminal is

auto-dialing

24) Which of the following is an example of a client-server model?

A. All of the choices (Correct Answer)

B. TELNET (Your Answer)

C. FTP

D. DNS

25) A software that allows a personal computer to pretend it as a terminal is

auto-dialing

26) What does 192 translate to in binary?

11000000

27) HDLC (High-level Data Link Control) is

a very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued by ISO.

28) Which of the following characteristics is not true of NetBEUI?

Routable

29) If delays are recorded as 10 bit numbers in a 50 router network, and delay vectors are
exchanged twice a second, how much bandwidth per fill duplex line is occupied by the distributed
routing algorithm?

1000 bps

30) Eight stations are competing for the use of a shared channel using the 'Adaptive tree Walk
Protocol'. If the stations 7 and 8 are suddenly become ready at once, how many bit slots are needed to
resolve the contention?

7 slots
31) Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions?

A. All of these choices are correct (Correct Answer)

B. Automatic repeat request in case of error

C. A header which contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being
sent

D. A check sum which permits error detection

32) A T-switch is used to

rearrange the connections between computing equipment

33) A distributed data processing configuration in which all activities must pass through a centrally
located computer is called a

spider network

34) Business meeting and conferences can be held by linking distantly located people through a
computer network. Not only the participants exchange information but are able to see each other. What
is it called?

Teleconferencing

35) Parameter that refers to uneven delay of data packets in delivery is

Jitter

36) In OSI model, which of the following layer provides error-free delivery of data?

Transport

37) Which of the following file retrieval methods use hypermedia?

HTTP

37) Which IP address class has few hosts per network?

38) If you get both local and remote echoes, every character you type will appear on the screen
twice

39) Communication network is

a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications service


among stations attached to the network

40) Communication between computers is almost always

serial

41) A communication network which is used by large organizations over regional, national or global
area is called

WAN

42) A proposed network infrastructure of interconnected local, regional, and global networks that
would support universal interactive multimedia communications.

Information super highway

43) What is the name of the device that connects two computers by means of a telephone line?

modem

44) One important characteristic of the hub architecture of ARC-net is

directionalized

45) Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Networks (LANs)?

Modem

46) End-to-end connectivity is provided from host-to-host in

Transport layer

47) On a class B network, how many hosts are available at each site with a subnet mask of 248?

2,046

48) For connecting modem, a computer must be equipped with a port that conforms to the RS-232
standard of the Electronic Industries Association of America. What do the letters 'RS' stand for?

Recommended standard

49) In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _____ the CRC.

one bit more than


50 ) What may occur if data signals propagate over multiple paths?

Error rates are likely to increase

51) Now-a-days computers all over the world can talk to each other. Which is one of the special
accessories essential for this purpose?

Modem

52) You have purchased a MAU (Multistation Access Unit) from your computer supplier and now must
decide what type of network card you should install in the workstations. Which of the following would
be the most appropriate?

Token-Ring

53) What is a commonly used method of sending signals to and from a digital satellite?

FM Packet

54) You are working with a network that has the network ID 192.168.10.0 and require nine subsets for
your company and the maximum number of hosts. What subnet mask should you use?

255.255.255.240

55) A required characteristic of an online real-time system is

no delay in processing

56) The physical layer, in reference to the OSI model, defines

the interface between the X.25 network and packet mode device

57) Stephanie is in charge of a small network and wants to make it simple but secure. The users want to
have full control over their data and still be able to share data with the rest of the office. The networking
knowledge of the office staff is basic. Which network(s) would be the best for Stephanie to set up?

Server-based

58) What is the port number for NNTP?

119

58) How many class A, B, and C network IDs can exist?

2,113,658

59) Examples are packet switching using frame relay, and cell switching using ATM technologies.

Switching alternating
60) RS-232-G

is an interface standard between Data terminal Equipment and Data Circuit Terminating
Equipment

61) An error detecting code is which code is the remainder resulting from dividing the bits to be
checked by a predetermined binary number, is known as

Cyclic redundancy check

62) What is PSK31?

A low-rate data transmission mode

63) Term that is used for physical path by which a message travels from sender to receiver is

Transmission Medium

64) What does the term "APRS" mean?

Automatic Packet Reporting System

65) Networks that follow the 802.5 standard appear to be in a star topology but are actually operating in
what type of topology?

Ring

66) What is the number of separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway specified by the X.25
standard?

67) With an IP address set starting with 150, you currently have six offices that you are treating as
subnets. Plans are in place to open 10 more offices before the end of the year. What subnet mask
should you use to satisfy the needed number of subnets and maximize the number of hosts available at
each site?

248

70 )Contention is

the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the same time

71) Computers in a LAN can be interconnected by radio and infrared technologies

Wireless LANs

72) Which of the following technique is used for fragment?


one of the pieces that results when an IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller pieces for
transmission across a network that cannot handle the original datagram size

73) If delays are recorded as 10 bit numbers in a 50 router network, and delay vectors are exchanged
twice a second, how much bandwidth per fill duplex line is occupied by the distributed routing
algorithm?

1000 bps

74) The most important part of a multiple DHCP configurations is to make sure you don't have which of
the following in the different scopes?

Duplicate addresses

75) Ethernet networks can be cabled in a number of topologies, depending on what works best in each
environment. As more nodes are added, the efficiency of Ethernet decreases. Select the best answer as
to why Ethernet becomes less efficient as size increases.

Network collisions occur

76) What does 240 translate to in binary?

11110000

77) Which of the following allows a simple email service and is responsible for moving messages from
one mail server to another?

A. SMTP

78) Synchronous protocols

allow faster transmission than asynchronous protocols do

79) X.21 is

network access standard for connecting stations to a circuit-switched network

80) Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for file transfer with minimal capability and minimal
overhead?

TFTP

81) If a firm wanted to transmit data from 1,000 punched cards to a remote computer, they would use

batch processing terminal

82) The physical layer, in reference to the OSI model, defines


the interface between the X.25 network and packet mode device

83) A front-end processor is

a minicomputer that relieves main-frame computers at a computer centre of communications


control functions

84) Which of the following layer protocols are responsible for user and the application programme
support such as passwords, resource sharing, file transfer and network management?

Layer 7 protocols

85) Transmission of computerised data from one location to another is called

data communication

86) A hard copy would be prepared on a

A. All of these (Your Answer)

B. plotter

C. line printer

D. typewriter terminal

87) Data communications are transfer of data through some

transmission medium

88) The birthplace of the World Wide Web is considered to be

CERN

89) After coding a document into a digital signal, it can be sent by telephone, telex or satellite to the
receiver where the signal is decoded and an exact copy of the original document is made.

Facsimile

90) The physical layer of a network

Defines the electrical characteristics of signals passed between the computer and
communication devices

91) What is the port number for NNTP?

119

92) An error-detecting code inserted as a field in a block of data to be transmitted is known as


Frame check sequence

93) How can you see the address of the DHCP server from which a client received its IP address?

By using IPCONFIG/ALL (

94) On a class B network, how many hosts are available at each site with a subnet mask of 248?

2,046

95) Which of the following provides a storage mechanism for incoming mail but does not allow a user to
download messages selectively?

POP3

What are the data transmission channels available for carrying data from one location to another?

A. All of these (Your Answer)

B. Narrowband

C. Voiceband

D. Broadband

96) If the ASCII character H is sent and the character I is received, what type of error is this?

A. single-bit

97) Error detecting code is

a code in which each expression conforms to specify rules of construction, so that if


certain errors occur in an expression, the resulting expression will not conform to the rules of
construction and thus the presence of the error is detected

98) Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?

The keypad or VFO knob

99) Sending a file from your personal computer's primary memory or disk to another computer is called

Uploading

100) What is the main purpose of a data link content monitor?

to detect problems in protocols


103) Although MANs are primarily fiber-optic networks, a wireless contender for metropolitan-area
networking is known as

wirelessMAN

105) HDLC (High-level Data Link Control) is

a very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued by ISO.

107) If delays are recorded as 10 bit numbers in a 50 router network, and delay vectors are exchanged
twice a second, how much bandwidth per fill duplex line is occupied by the distributed routing
algorithm?

1000 bps

111) Which of the following file retrieval methods use hypermedia?

HTTP

112) If you get both local and remote echoes, every character you type will appear on the screen

twice

114) One important characteristic of the hub architecture of ARC-net is

directionalized transmission

116) The _____ houses the switches in token ring.

MAU

118) Unwanted ads and solicitations via email fall into the category of

spam

120) ADSL stands for:

Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line

121) Which of the following specifies the network address and host address of the computer?

The IP address

122) Error control is needed at the transport layer because of potential errors occurring _____.

in routers

123) Which of the following is separated by a subnet mask?

Network ID and host ID


125) Which address is the loopback address?

127.0.0.1

12 6) Four bits are used for packet sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer
network. What is the maximum window size?

15

127) Number of bits per symbol used in Baudot code is

128) Performance, reliability, and security are criteria of

Efficient network

129) The most flexibility in how devices are wired together is provided by

bus networks

130) An example of a medium-speed, switched communications service is

DDD

131) An information utility can offer a user

A. All of the choices (Correct Answer)

B. complete airline schedules for all domestic flights

C. news stories from wire services (Your Answer)

D. instant bonds and stock quotations

133) What is the main purpose of a data link content monitor?

to detect problems in protocols

134) Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?

The Keplerian elements

135) What is a satellite beacon?

A transmission from a space station that contains information about a satellite

136) How many bits internet address is assigned to each host on a TCP/IP internet which is used in all
communications with the host?
32 - bits

137) What is the number of separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway specified by the X.25
standard?

139) Which of the following statements is correct?

Protocol converters are usually not operated in pairs.

140) FDDI is a

ring network

42) Which of the following is not a standard synchronous communication protocol?

PAS

143) A T-switch is used to

rearrange the connections between computing equipment

144) Which of the following digits are known as the area code of the Network User Address (NUA)?

5-7

145) Which file transfer protocol uses UDP?

A. TFTP

146) You are trying to decide which type of network you will use at your office, and you want the type
that will provide communication and avoid collisions on the cable. Which of the following is the best
choice?

Token-Ring

147) HDLC (High-level Data Link Control) is

a very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued by ISO.

148) Which of the following summation operations is performed on the bits to check an error-detecting
code?

Checksum

149) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. All of these (Your Answer)


B. The Addresses Resolution Protocol, ARP, allows a host to find the physical address of a
target host on the same physical network, given only the target IP address.

C. The sender's IP - to- physical address binding is included in every ARP broadcast;
receivers update the IP-to-Physical address binding information in their cache before processing an ARP
packet.

D. ARP is a low-level protocol that hides the underlying network physical addressing,
permitting us to assign IP-addresses of our choice to every machine.

150) A network that requires human intervention of route signals is called a

T-switched network

151) It is also known as PHL-Microsat-1, a Philippine microsatellite.

Diwata-1

152) Which of the following technique is used for fragment?

one of the pieces that results when an IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller pieces for
transmission across a network that cannot handle the original datagram size

153) Which of the following refers to the terms "residual error rate"?

The probability that one or more errors will be undetected when an error detection scheme is
used

154) What is the first octet range for a class A IP address?

1 - 126

155) FEC stands for:

Forward Error Correction

156) Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called:

binary data

157) Which of the following statements is correct?

Transmission section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

158) Because the configuration infor-mation for a DHCP client is received dynamically, you must use
which utility to read the current configuration to verify the settings?

IPCONFIG
159) You are working with three networks that have the network IDs 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and
192.168.7.0. What subnet mask can you use to combine these addresses into one?

255.255.252.0

160) A batch processing terminal would not include a

CPU

161) Performance, reliability, and security are criteria of

Efficient network

152) Which of the following connectors is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?

A UHF (PL-259/SO-239) connector

163) If odd parity is used for ASCII error detection, the number of 0s per eight-bit symbol is _____.

odd

164) The CCITT Recommendation X.25 specifies three layers of communications

physical datalink and network

165) Number of bits per symbol used in Baudot code is

166)Which of the following files is used for NetBIOS name resolution?

LMHOSTS

167) Which network topology is considered passive?

Bus

168) If a person has stopped breathing and there is NO detectable heartbeat, who should perform CPR

The first person on the scene

168) The cheapest modems can transmit

300 bits per second

169) Avalanche photodiode receivers can detect hits of transmitted data by receiving

200 photons

170) What protocol is used between E-Mail servers?


SMTP

171) A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue.
What routing algorithm is being used?

hot potato routing

172) ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is

a protocol that handles error and control messages

173) In mesh topology, every device has a dedicated topology of

Multipoint linking

174) When a group of computers is connected together in a small area without the help of telephone
lines, it is called

Local area network(LAN)

175) The standard suit of protocols used by the Internet, intranets, extranets, and some other networks.

TCP/IP

2) What device separates a single network into two segments but lets the two segments appear
as one to higher protocols?

Bridge

176) Which application allows a user to access and change remote files without actual transfer?

NFS

177) If you configure the TCP/IP address and other TCP/IP parameters manually, you can always verify
the configuration through which of the following? Select the best answer.

Network Properties dialog box

178) The geostationary satellite used for communication systems

A. All of these (Your Answer)

B. rotates with the earth

C. remains stationary relative to the earth

D. is positioned over equator

179) Microprogramming is
control unit programming

180) The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

A. All of the these (Your Answer)

B. reports error conditions to the original source, the source must relate errors to
individual application programs and take action to correct the problem

C. provides communication between the Internet Protocol Software on one machine and
the Internet Protocol Software on another

D. allows gateways to send error a control messages to other gateways or hosts

181) Computers cannot communicate with each other directly over telephone lines because they use
digital pulses whereas telephone lines use analog sound frequencies. What is the name of the device
which permits digital to analog conversion at the start of a long distance transmission?

Modem

182) The _____ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.

physical

184) Intranets and extranets can use their network fire walls and other security features to establish
secure Internet links within an enterprise or with its trading partners.

Virtual Private Network

185) Which of the following characteristic(s) is/are suited to the PSS applications?

A. All of these (Your Answer)

B. Multiple remote host or applications accessed by a single local access circuit terminal
and circuit

C. widely dispersed terminals and access to international packets switched services

D. bursty traffic and low communications intensity

186) The first step in troubleshooting many problems is to verify which of the following?

TCP/IP is installed correctly on the client


187) The probability that a single bit will be in error on a typical public telephone line using 4800 bps
modem is 10 to the power -3. If no error detection mechanism is used, the residual error rate for a
communication line using 9-bit frames is approximately equal to

0.009

188) Which of the following provides a storage mechanism for incoming mail but does not allow a user
to download messages selectively?

POP3

190) The effect of too many collisions is:

the network slows

191) To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use

ISB

192) To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to:

reinject the carrier

193) Which of the following statement is correct?

Buffering is the process of temporarily storing the data to allow for small variation in device
speeds

194) In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is _____.

zero

195) What is the name of the software package that allows people to send electronic mail along a
network of computers and workstations?

Data communication package

196) The transmission signal coding method of TI carrier is called

Bipolar

197) Bulletin board system

is a public access message system

198) In a PC to telephone hookup for long distance communication, modem is connected between the
telephone line and

asynchronous port
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is

a protocol that handles error and control messages

199) Interconnected networks need communication processors such as switches, routers, hubs, and
gateways.

Internetwork processor

200) One big disadvantage of a star topology is, if one hub goes down whole system is

Dead

201) Which of the following refers to the terms "residual error rate"?

The probability that one or more errors will be undetected when an error detection scheme is
used

202) Many data communication networks have been established which provide a wealth of on-demand
information services to people at home. What is the name of the system which provides an interactive,
graphics-rich service that permits user to select what they want?

Videotex system

204) ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is

a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high level IP Address to a low-level physical
hardware address

206) What is the number of separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway specified by the X.25
standard?

207) Your company has a LAN in its downtown office and has now set up a LAN in the manufacturing
plant in the suburbs. To enable everyone to share data and resources between the two LANs, what type
of device(s) are needed to connect them? Choose the most correct answer.

Router

208) If the averaging time for exposure is 6 minutes, how much power density is permitted if the signal
is present for 3 minutes and absent for 3 minutes rather than being present for the entire 6 minutes?

2 times as much

209) Each set of bit pattern is called

Code
201) Which command-line tool is included with every Microsoft TCP/IP client?

PING

211) A T-switch is used to

rearrange the connections between computing equipment

212) What may occur if data signals propagate over multiple paths?

Error rates are likely to increase

213)An encyclopedic database

is an information utility that specializes in storing and searching information

214) Brightness of battery light depends on the

difference in reactivity series of two metals in battery

215) You have a network ID of 192.168.10.0 and require at least 25 host IDs for each subnet, with the
largest amount of subnets available. Which subnet mask should you assign?

255.255.255.224

216) What is the name of the software package that allows people to send electronic mail along a
network of computers and workstations?

Data communication package

217) The most flexibility in how devices are wired together is provided by

bus networks

218) In a synchronous modem, the receive equalizer is known as

adaptive equalizer

219) An example of digital, rather than analog, communication is

DDS

220) Telecommunication networks frequently interconnect an organization with its customers and
suppliers.

Inter organizational networks

221) Which network topology is considered passive?

Bus
222) If the ASCII character G is sent and the character D is received, what type of error is this?

burst

233) Which of the following is caused by local action in a cell?

Shelf life is reduced

234) Which of the following program is used to copy files to or from another UNIX timesharing system
over a single link?

UUCP

235) In a dry cell, electrolyte paste is formed of

ammonium chloride

236) The most important part of a multiple DHCP configurations is to make sure you don't have which of
the following in the different scopes?

Duplicate addresses

237) What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?

The output signal might become distorted

238) How many digits of the Network User Address are known as the DNIC (Data Network Identification
Code)?

first four

239) MAC is

a method of determining which device has access to the transmission medium at any
time

240) The dialogue techniques for terminal use do not include

open-ended questions

241) Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong
over-the-horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?

Sporadic E

242) The 802.5 standard implements a way for preventing collisions on the network. How are collisions
prevented when using this standard?
Token passing

243) In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by

network layer

244) What OSI layer handles logical address to logical name resolution?

Transport

245) Which of the following digits are known as the area code of the Network User Address (NUA)?

5-7

246) Bulletin board system

is a public access message system

247) If you configure the TCP/IP address and other TCP/IP parameters manually, you can always verify
the configuration through which of the following? Select the best answer.

Network Properties dialog box

248) The transport layer protocol is connectionless.

UDP

249) Weber,s theory of magnetism assumes that magnetic material is composed of

tiny molecular magnets

250) Internet-like networks within an enterprise.

Intranets

251) Interconnected networks need communication processors such as switches, routers, hubs, and
gateways.

Internetwork processor

252) Four bits are used for packet sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer
network. What is the maximum window size?

15

253) Band limited signal is

a signal all of whose energy is contained within a finite frequency range

254) What is the total number of connections on (a) a rheostat and (b) a potentiometer?
(a) Two (b) three

255) CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access) is

a method access control technique for multiple-access transmission media.

256) Terminals are required for

realtime, timesharing, and message switching

257) Which of the following types of routine charges follows the name plate data in restoring a battery
to its charged condition during the ordinary cycle of operation?

Normal

258) The most important part of a multiple DHCP configurations is to make sure you don't have which of
the following in the different scopes?

Duplicate addresses

259) On a class C network with a subnet mask of 192, how many subnets are available?

260) How many class A, B, and C network IDs can exist?

2,113,658

261) HDLC (High-level Data Link Control) is

a very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued by ISO

262) Keyboard and traditional monitors are examples of

Simplex devices

363) Which of the following technique is used for encapsulation?

a technique used by protocols in which a lower level protocol accepts a message from a
higher level protocol and places it in the data portion of the low level frame.

264) HOSTS file entries are limited to how many characters?

255

265) When you ping the loopback address, a packet is sent where?

Down through the layers of the IP architecture and then up the layers again
266) The encoding method specified in the EIA-232 standard is _____.

NRZ-L

267) In electrolysis of brine, ions moving to cathode include

sodium + hydrogen ions

268) The communication mode that supports two-way traffic but only one direction at a time is

half duplex

269) What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile
stations that are moving while transmitting?

Picket fencing

270) Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

It affects the average exposure of people to radiation

271) An international standard, multilevel set of protocols to promote compatibility among


telecommunications networks.

OSI

272) In a synchronous modem, the receive equalizer is known as

adaptive equalizer

273) A communications device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is a

multiplexer

274) A 4 KHz noise less channel with one sample ever 125 per sec is used to transmit digital signals. If
Delta modulation is selected, then how many bits per second are actually sent?

8 kbps

275) Which of the following program is used to copy files to or from another UNIX timesharing system
over a single link?

UUCP

276) In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is

the quotient at the sender


277) How many hosts are attached to each of the local area networks at your site?

254

278) Thorough planning must take place when setting up an 802.3 network. A maximum number of
segments can separate any two nodes on the network. What is the maximum number of segments
allowed between two nodes?

Five

279) Error control is needed at the transport layer because of potential errors occurring _____.

in routers

280) Which command-line tool is included with every Microsoft TCP/IP client?

PING

281) Each set of bit pattern is called

Code

282) The systematic access of small computers in a distributed data processing system is referred to as

polling

283) What is the approximate SWR value above which the protection circuits in most solid-state
transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power?

2 to 1

284) Protocols are, set of rules to govern

Communication

285) The most flexibility in how devices are wired together is provided by

bus networks

286) In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the

Equilizer

6) A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue. What
routing algorithm is being used?

Hot potato routing


287) The probability that a single bit will be in error on a typical public telephone line using 4800 bps
modem is 10 to the power -3. If no error detection mechanism is used, the residual error rate for a
communication line using 9-bit frames is approximately equal to

D. 0.009

288) Carrier is

a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second signal

289) What is the usual number of bits transmitted simultaneously in parallel data transmission used by
microcomputers?

290) Which address is the loopback address?

127.0.0.1

291) The cheapest modems can transmit

300 bits per second

292) Contention is

the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the same
time

292) A 4 KHz noiseless channel with one sample every 125 per sec, is used to transmit digital signals.
Find the bit rate (bits per second) that are sent, if CCITT 2.048 Mbps encoding is used.

64 Kbps

294) A machine that connects to two or more electronic mail systems and transfers mail messages
among them is known as

mail gateway

295) Synchronous protocols

allow faster transmission than asynchronous protocols do

296) What describes a fast charge?

Used in emergency only

297) CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access) is

a method access control technique for multiple-access transmission media.


298) Each set of bit pattern is called

Code

299) HMP (Host Monitoring Protocol) is

a protocol used to monitor computers

300) Which layer of OSI determines the interface of the system with the user?

Application

301) A 4 KHz noiseless channel with one sample every 125 per sec, is used to transmit digital signals.
Find the bit rate (bits per second) that are sent, if CCITT 2.048 Mbps encoding is used.

64 Kbps

302) Satellite-Switched Time-Division Multiple Access (SS/TDMA) is

a form of TDMA in which circuit switching is used to dynamically change the channel
assignments

303) What is the maximum number of entries in the HOSTS file?

Unlimited

304) Transmission of computerised data from one location to another is called

data communication

305)The communication mode that supports two-way traffic but only one direction at a time is

half duplex

306) To avoid transmission errors, a check figure is calculated by the

transmitting computer and receiving computer

307) How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country?

First three

308) A T-switch is used to

rearrange the connections between computing equipment

309) A communications device that combines transmissions from several 1/ O devices into one line is a

multiplexer
310) ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is

a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high level IP Address to a low-level physical
hardware address

311) Which of the following is an application of APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System)?

Providing real time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing
the locations of stations

312) The main difference between TCP and UDP is

UDP is a datagram where as TCP is a connection oriented service

313) Which of the following uses network address translation?

Network adapter drivers

314) Which of the following device copies electrical signals from one Ethernet to another?

repeater

315) You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required to add 60 new
subnets very soon. You would like to still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet.
Which subnet mask should you assign?

255.254.0.0

316) What may occur if data signals propagate over multiple paths?

Error rates are likely to increase

317) The 32-bit internet address 10000000 00001010 00000010 00011110 will be written in dotted
decimal notation as

128.10.2.30

318) What does the acronym ISDN stand for?

Integrated Services Digital Network

319)The basic Ethernet design does not provide

automatic retransmission of a message

320) Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for file transfer with minimal capability and minimal
overhead?

TFTP
321) The geostationary satellite used for communication systems

A. All of these

B. rotates with the earth

C. remains stationary relative to the earth

D. is positioned over equator


RA 9292 & Law of Ethics

1) Foreign Reciprocity – RA 9292

ARTICLE V SEC. 33

2) Qualifications of Board Members – RA 9292

ARTICLE II SEC. 8

3) Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional Identification Card for Certain


Grounds – RA 9292

ARTICLE III SEC. 21

4) RA 9292 was approved on

April 17, 2004

5) Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law is Passed – RA 9292

ARTICLE VII SEC. 38

6) Licensure Examination – RA 9292

ARTICLE III SEC. 13

7) IRR of RA 9292 took effect on

October 02, 2007

8) Separability Clause – RA 9292

ARTICLE VIII SEC. 41

9) Roster of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians – RA


9292

ARTICLE III SEC. 25

10) Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law is Passed – RA 9292

ARTICLE VII SEC. 38

11) Practice of PECE, ECE, ECT – RA 9292

ARTICLE IV
12) The members of the BECE shall hold office for a term of _____ years from date of appointment.

13) Composition of the Board – RA 9292

ARTICLE II SEC. 6

14) Release of the Results of Examination – RA 9292

ARTICLE III SEC. 17

15) Removal of Board Members – RA 9292

ARTICLE II SEC. 11

16) RA 9292 Article I – General Provisions, is composed of __ Sections

17) Reinstatement, Re-issuance or Replacement of Certificate of Registration and Professional


Identification Card– RA 9292

ARTICLE III SEC. 24

18) 'Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering - RA 9292

ARTICLE II

4) Practice of PECE, ECE, ECT – RA 9292

ARTICLE IV

19) Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law is Passed – RA 9292

ARTICLE VII SEC. 38

20) An Act repealing RA 5734

RA 9292

21) Statement of Policy – RA 9292

ARTICLE I SEC. 2

22) Examination, Registration and Licensure - RA 9292

ARTICLE III

23) Custodian of Board Records, Secretariat and Support Services – RA 9292


ARTICLE II SEC. 12

24) IRR of RA 9292 shall take effect after ___ days following its complete and full publication in the
Official Gazette or in any newspaper

15

25) Continuing Professional Education (CPE) and/or Development Programs – RA 9292

ARTICLE V SEC. 31

26) Scope of Examination for Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians – RA 9292

ARTICLE III SEC. 15

27) Memorandum Circular issued by the National Telecommunications Commission on Voice Over
Internet Protocol (VOIP).

Memorandum Circular No. 05-08-2005

28) Which of the following radio station's typical emissions symbols that means Facsimile by direct
frequency modulation of the carrier?

F4

29) A Memorandum Circular released by the National Telecommunications Commission for the re-
allocation of the 470-512 MHz band for Digital Terrestrial Television Broadcasting Service in the
Philippines.

MC 04-06-2016

30) Department of Information and Communications Technology Act of 2015 was approved on

May 23, 2016

5) An Executive Order issued in 2008 transferring the NTC back to the Commission on Information and
Communications Technology (CICT).

EO 648

31) The world's largest developer and publisher of International Standards.

ISO

32) An emergency procedure word used internationally as a distress signal in voice procedure radio
communications.

Mayday
33) Shall mean all radio stations the operation of which does not require human intervention except the
turning "on" and "off" of the power supply. (NTC MC No. 7-4-99)

Unmanned radio stations

34) Transferring back the NTC Under the Supervision and Control of the DOTC.

EO 454

35) An order that requires radio stations with music content to play at least 4 OPM song every clock
hour.

EO 255

36) Unmanned radio stations shall mean all radio stations the operation of which does not require
human intervention except the turning "on" and "off" of the power supply.

NTC MC No. 7-4-99

37) Memorandum Circular issued by the National Telecommunications Commission on Voice Over
Internet Protocol (VOIP).

Memorandum Circular No. 05-08-2005

38) DICT stands for

Department of Information and Communications Technology

30) The revised guidelines on the Continuing Professional Development (CPD) program for all registered
and licensed professionals.

Resolution No. 2013-774

40) An Act Providing for a More Responsive and Comprehensive Regulation for the Practice, Licensing,
and Registration of Electrical Engineers and Electricians.

RA 7920

41) Exempting Unmanned Radio Stations from the Requirement of Duly LicensedRadio Operators.

NTC MC No. 7-4-99

42) The Book 1 of the Philippine Electronics Code is called

TELECOMMUNICATIONS FACILITIES SYSTEM

43) A Memorandum Circular released by the National Telecommunications Commission about


Additional Frequency Allocations for Broadband Wireless Access (BWA).
NTC MC No. 02-02-2018

44) An act providing for the regulation of radio stations and radio communications in the Philippine
Islands, and for other purposes.

Act No. 3846

45) Which of the following radio station's typical emissions symbols that means Television?

F5

46) Rules and Regulations on the allocation and assignment of 3G Radio Frequency Bands.

NTC MC No. 07-08-2005

47) Creating the Commission on Information and Communications Technology.

EO 205

48) To enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided for by local exchange and inter-exchange
operators, and overseas carriers through circuit switched networks.

Value-added services

49) Regulating the Operation of Cable Antenna Televisions (CATV) Systems in the Philippines.

EO 205

50) The Book 4 of the Philippine Electronics Code is called

DISTRIBUTED ANTENNA SYSTEM

51) Responsible for maintaining a roster of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians.

Board of Electronics Engineering

52) A law creating a Department of Information and Communications Technology (DICT).

RA 10844

53) At least _______ of a TV station's daily airtime should be devoted to programs suitable for viewing
by children.

fifteen percent

54) Shall mean all radio stations the operation of which does not require human intervention except the
turning "on" and "off" of the power supply. (NTC MC No. 7-4-99)
Unmanned radio stations

55) A Memorandum Circular released by the National Telecommunications Commission on Fixed


Wireless Systems operating in the 71-76 GHz and 81-86 Ghz bands.

NTC MC No. 07-08-2016

56) RA 9292 was finally passed under Senate Bill No.

2683

57) Prescribing Policy Guidelines to Govern the Operations of Cable Television in the Philippines.

EO 436

58) NTC Memorandum Circular on Frequency Allocation Telemetry and Other Similar Data Systems.

MC 04-08-2015

59) Regulating the Ownership and Operation of Radio and Television Stations and for other purposes.

Presidential Decree 576-A

60) A non-regular TV advertisement is any mention or display of an identifiable product or service in the
course of a program or in the credits other than through traditional advertisements or commercials.

casual plugs

61) Reorganizing the Ministry of Transportation and Communications. Defining its Powers and Functions
and for other purposes.

EO 125

62) TVRO stands for:

Television Receive Only

63) The operation and maintenance of any broadcasting system or network shall be under the effective
supervision of a:

Registered ECE

64) Data Log Retention of Telecommunications Traffic.

NTC MC No. 04-06-2007

65) How many CPD Credit Units is required for the renewal of ECT License?
30 Credit Units

66) The Anti-Wiretapping Law of the Philippines.

RA 4200

67) RA 9292 was approved on

April 17, 2004

68) A non-regular TV advertisement is any mention or display of an identifiable product or service in the
course of a program or in the credits other than through traditional advertisements or commercials.

casual plugs

69) An Act Providing for a More Responsive and Comprehensive Regulation for the Practice, Licensing,
and Registration of Electrical Engineers and Electricians.

RA 7920

70) What is the maximum allowable power of a High Power RFID Proximity Readers as stated in the NTC
MC No. 03-08-2006.

4 watts eirp

71) To enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided for by local exchange and inter-exchange
operators, and overseas carriers through circuit switched networks.

VOIP Services

72) The practice of Electronics Engineering relates to the development and application of the electronics
engineering science and technology in the field of

All of the choices

Consultation

Design

Research and Development

73) The operation and maintenance of any broadcasting system or network shall be under the effective
supervision of a:

Registered ECE
74) Memorandum Circular released by the National Telecommunications Commission on Guidelines For
The Grant And Authorization Of 500 Watt FM Broadcast Stations.

MC 02-06-2006

75) The Book 2 of the Philippine Electronics Code is called

FIRE DETECTION AND ALARM SYSTEM


Section T3A

Radio wave characteristics: how a radio signal travels; fading; multipath; wavelength vs. penetration;
antenna orientation

T3A01

What should you do if another operator reports that your station's 2 meter signals were strong just a
moment ago, but now they are weak or distorted?

Try moving a few feet or changing the direction of your antenna ifpossible, as reflections may be causing
multi-path distortion

T3A02

Why are UHF signals often more effective from inside buildings than VHF signals?

The shorter wavelength allows them to more easily penetrate the structure of buildings

T3A03

What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the
VHF and UHF bands?

Horizontal

T3A04

What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using
the same polarization?

Signals could be significantly weaker

T3A05

When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to access a distant repeater if
buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?

Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater

T3A06

What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile
stations that are moving while transmitting?

Picket fencing

T3A07
What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?

Electromagnetic

T3A08

Which of the following is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals received by ionospheric reflection?

Random combining of signals arriving via different paths

T3A09

Which of the following results from the fact that skip signals refracted from the ionosphere are
elliptically polarized?

Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception

T3A10

What may occur if data signals propagate over multiple paths?

Error rates are likely to increase

T3A11

Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?

The ionosphere

Sub element T3

Radio wave characteristics: properties of radio waves; propagation modes

Section T3B

Radio and electromagnetic wave properties: the electromagnetic spectrum; wavelength vs. frequency;
velocity of electromagnetic waves; calculating wavelength

T3B01

What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?

Wavelength

T3B02

What property of a radio wave is used to describe its polarization?


The orientation of the electric field

T3B03

What are the two components of a radio wave?

Electric and magnetic fields

T3B04

How fast does a radio wave travel through free space?

At the speed of light

T3B05

How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency?

The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases

T3B06

What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?

Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz

T3B07

What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands?

The approximate wavelength

Each frequency range has a corresponding wave-length that hams will refer to.

T3B08

What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?

30 to 300 MHz

T3B09

What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum?

300 to 3000 MHz

T3B10

What frequency range is referred to as HF?


3 to 30 MHz

T3B11

What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space?

• B.

300,000,000 meters per second

Section T3C

Propagation modes: line of sight; sporadic E; meteor and auroral scatter and reflections; tropospheric
ducting; F layer skip; radio horizon

T3C01

Why are direct (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely heard from stations outside your local coverage
area?

UHF signals are usually not reflected by the ionosphere

T3C02

Which of the following might be happening when VHF signals are being received from long distances?

Signals are being refracted from a sporadic E layer

T3C03

What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection?

The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted

T3C04

Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-
horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?

Sporadic E

T3C05

Which of the following effects might cause radio signals to be heard despite obstructions between the
transmitting and receiving stations?

Knife-edge diffraction
T3C06

What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of
approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?

Tropospheric scatter

T3C07

What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?

6 meters

T3C08

What causes tropospheric ducting?

Temperature inversions in the atmosphere

T3C09

What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F layer?

From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity

T3C10

What is the radio horizon?

The distance over which two stations can communicate by direct path

T3C11

Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance
between two stations?

The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light

T3C12

Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot
cycle?

Six or ten meters

Section T4A

Station setup: connecting microphones; reducing unwanted emissions; power source; connecting a
computer; RF grounding; connecting digital equipment; connecting an SWR meter
T4A01

Which of the following is true concerning the microphone connectors on amateur transceivers?

Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for powering the microphone

T4A02

How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?

• A.For logging contacts and contact information

• B.For sending and/or receiving CW

• C.For generating and decoding digital signals

• D.All of these choices are correct

T4A03

Which is a good reason to use a regulated power supply for communications equipment?

It prevents voltage fluctuations from reaching sensitive circuits

T4A04

Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions from your station?

Between the transmitter and the antenna

T4A05

Where should an in-line SWR meter be connected to monitor the standing wave ratio of the station
antenna system?

In series with the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna

T4A06

Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio
station?

Terminal node controller

T4A07

How is a computer's sound card used when conducting digital communications using a computer?

The sound card provides audio to the microphone input and converts received audio to digital form
T4A08

Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?

Flat strap

T4A09

Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current flowing on the shield
of a microphone cable?

Ferrite choke

T4A10

What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver's
receive audio?

The alternator

T4A11

Where should the negative return connection of a mobile transceiver's power cable be connected?

At the battery or engine block ground strap

T4A12

What could be happening if another operator reports a variable high-pitched whine on the audio from
your mobile transmitter?

Noise on the vehicle's electrical system is being transmitted along with your speech audio

Section T4B

Operating controls: tuning; use of filters; squelch function; AGC; repeater offset; memory channels

T4B01

What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?

The output signal might become distorted

T4B02

Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?

The keypad or VFO knob

T4B03
What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?

To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received

T4B04

What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency on your transceiver?

Store the frequency in a memory channel

T4B05

Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?

Turn on the noise blanker

T4B06

Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too
high or low?

The receiver RIT or clarifier

T4B07

What does the term "RIT" mean?

Receiver Incremental Tuning

T4B08

What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?

Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode

T4B09

Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in order to minimize noise
and interference for SSB reception?

2400 Hz

T4B10

Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in order to minimize noise
and interference for CW reception?

500 Hz

T4B11
Which of the following describes the common meaning of the term "repeater offset"?

The difference between the repeater's transmit and receive frequencies

T4B12

What is the function of automatic gain control or AGC?

To keep received audio relatively constant

Subelement T5

Electrical principles: math for electronics; electronic principles; Ohm's Law

Section T5A

Electrical principles, units, and terms: current and voltage; conductors and insulators; alternating and
direct current

T5A01

Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

Amperes

T5A01

Volts (Voltage) - Electromotive force, or potential.

Ohms - resistance

Watts - power

Amperes - Current

T5A02

Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?

Watts

Volts - Electromotive force.

Ohms - resistance.

Watts - power.

Amperes - Current.

T5A03
What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

Current

T5A04

What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction?

Direct current

T5A05

What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?

Voltage

T5A06

How much voltage does a mobile transceiver usually require?

About 12 volts

T5A07

Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?

Copper

T5A08

Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

Glass

T5A09

What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?

Alternating current

T5A10

Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?

Power

T5A11

What is the basic unit of electromotive force?


The volt

T5A12

What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current reverses direction?

Frequency

Section T5B

Math for electronics: conversion of electrical units; decibels; the metric system

T5B01

How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?

1,500 milliamperes

T5B02

What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz?

1500 kHz

T5B03

How many volts are equal to one kilovolt?

One thousand volts

T5B04

How many volts are equal to one microvolt?

One one-millionth of a volt

T5B05

Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?

0.5 watts

T5B06

If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading


would it show?

3 amperes

T5B07
If a frequency readout calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it
were calibrated in kilohertz?

3525 kHz

T5B08

How many microfarads are 1,000,000 picofarads?

1 microfarad

T5B08

T5B09

What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts
to 10 watts?

3 dB

T5B10

What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12
watts to 3 watts?

-6 dB

T5B11

What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20
watts to 200 watts?

10 dB

T5B12

Which of the following frequencies is equal to 28,400 kHz?

28.400 MHz

T5B13

If a frequency readout shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in GHz?

2.425 GHz

Section T5C
Electronic principles: capacitance; inductance; current flow in circuits; alternating current; definition of
RF; DC power calculations; impedance

T5C01

What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?

Capacitance

What is the ability to store energy in a MAGNETIC field called? Inductance

What is the ability to store energy in an ELECTRIC field called? Capacitance

T5C02

What is the basic unit of capacitance?

The farad

• the Volt - basic unit of voltage

• the Ohm - basic unit of resistance

• the Henry - basic unit of inductance

T5C03

What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?

Inductance

T5C04

What is the basic unit of inductance?

The henry

• the coulomb - unit of electric charge

• the farad - unit of capacitance

• the ohm - unit of resistance

T5C05

What is the unit of frequency?

Hertz

• the farad - unit of capacitance


• the henry - unit of inductance

• the tesla - unit of magnetic field strength. 31µT (3.1×10−5T) - strength of Earth's magnetic field
at 0° latitude (on the equator)

T5C06

What does the abbreviation "RF" refer to?

Radio frequency signals of all types

T5C07

What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that travel through space?

Radio waves

• Gravity waves - wave that have the restoring force of gravity or buoyancy.

• Sound waves - a sound wave is a type of pressure wave.

• Pressure waves - propogate via particle collisions and is formed from alternating compressions
and rarefactions.

T5C08

What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit?

Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)

P=E×I

E=PI

I=PE

T5C09

How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is
10 amperes?

138 watts

T5C10

How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5
amperes?

30 watts
T5C11

How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120
watts?

10 amperes

T5C12

What is meant by the term impedance?

It is a measure of the opposition to AC current flow in a circuit

T5C13

What are the units of impedance?

Ohms

Section T5D

Ohm's Law: formulas and usage

T5D01

What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?

Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R)

T5D02

What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?

Voltage (E) equals current (I)multiplied by resistance (R)

T5D03

What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?

Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)

T5D04

What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to
90 volts?

30 ohms

T5D05
What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5
amperes?

8 ohms

T5D06

What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?

3 ohms

T5D07

What is the current flow in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?

1.5 amperes

T5D08

What is the current flowing through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?

2 amperes

T5D09

What is the current flowing through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?

10 amperes

What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?

1 volt

T5D11

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?

10 volts

T5D12

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?

• D.

20 volts

Subelement T6
Electrical components: semiconductors; circuit diagrams; component functions

Section T6A

Electrical components: fixed and variable resistors; capacitors and inductors; fuses; switches; batteries

T6A01

What electrical component is used to oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit?

Resistor

T6A02

What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?

Potentiometer

T6A03

What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?

Resistance

T6A04

What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?

Capacitor

T6A05

What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an
insulator?

Capacitor

T6A06

What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?

Inductor

T6A07

What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?

Inductor

T6A08
What electrical component is used to connect or disconnect electrical circuits?

Switch

T6A09

What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?

Fuse

T6A10

Which of the following battery types is rechargeable?

A. Nickel-metal hydride

B. Lithium-ion

C. Lead-acid gel-cell

D. All of these choices are correct

T6A11

Which of the following battery types is not rechargeable?

Carbon-zinc

Section T6B

Semiconductors: basic principles and applications of solid state devices; diodes and transistors

T6B01

What class of electronic components is capable of using a voltage or current signal to control current
flow?

Transistors

A Capacitor stores electricity in the form of an electric field.

A resistor impedes the flow of electricity

An Inductor stores electricity in the form of a magnetic field.

T6B02

What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?


Diode

T6B03

Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch or amplifier?

Transistor

T6B04

Which of the following components can be made of three layers of semiconductor material?

Transistor

T6B05

Which of the following electronic components can amplify signals?

Transistor

T6B06

How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode usually identified?

With a stripe

T6B07

What does the abbreviation LED stand for?

Light Emitting Diode

T6B08

What does the abbreviation FET stand for?

Field Effect Transistor

T6B09

What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode?

Anode and cathode

T6B10

What are the three electrodes of a PNP or NPN transistor?

Emitter, base, and collector


T6B11

What at are the three electrodes of a field effect transistor?

• B.

Source, gate, and drain

Emitter, base and collector are the components of a Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT).

Cathode, grid and plate are components of a tube.

A thyristo r has a cathode, gate and anode.

T6B12

What is the term that describes a transistor's ability to amplify a signal?

Gain

T6C12

What do the symbols on an electrical circuit schematic diagram represent?

Electrical components

T6C13

Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical circuit schematic diagrams?

The way components are interconnected

Section T6D

Component functions: rectification; switches; indicators; power supply components; resonant circuit;
shielding; power transformers; integrated circuits

T6D01

Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current
signal?

Rectifier

T6D02

What best describes a relay?


A switch controlled by an electromagnet

T6D04

Which of the following can be used to display signal strength on a numeric scale?

Meter

T6D05

What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?

Regulator

T6D06

What component is commonly used to change 120V AC house current to a lower AC voltage for other
uses?

Transformer

T6D07

Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?

LED

T6D08

Which of the following is used together with an inductor to make a tuned circuit?

Capacitor

T6D09

What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one
package?

Integrated circuit

T6D11

What is a simple resonant or tuned circuit?

An inductor and a capacitor connected in series or parallel to form a filter

T6D12

Which of the following is a common reason to use shielded wire?


To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire

Sub element T7

Station equipment: common transmitter and receiver problems; antenna measurements;


troubleshooting; basic repair and testing

Section T7A

Station equipment: receivers; transmitters; transceivers; modulation; transverters; low power and
weak signal operation; transmit and receive amplifiers

T7A01

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?

Sensitivity

T7A02

What is a transceiver?

A unit combining the functions of a transmitter and a receiver

T7A03

Which of the following is used to convert a radio signal from one frequency to another?

Mixer

T7A04

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?

Selectivity

Tuning rate - Rate means speed, how fast the tuner can change frequencies.

Sensitivity - this is a measure of how well weak signals can be amplified and picked up out of noise.

Noise floor - this is the noise energy that hides or obscures our signal; if the signal is less than the noise
it cannot be seen just like a floor hides what is below it. Or it is the lowest level that can be detected.

T7A05

What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal of a desired frequency?

Oscillator

T7A06
What device takes the output of a low-powered 28 MHz SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output
signal?

Transverter

T7A07

What is meant by term "PTT"?

The push to talk function which switches between receive and transmit

T7A08

Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?-

Modulation

T7A09

Which of the following devices is most useful for VHF weak-signal communication?

A multi-mode VHF transceiver

T7A10

What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver?

An RF power amplifier

T7A11

Where is an RF preamplifier installed?

Between the antenna and receiver

Section T7B

Common transmitter and receiver problems: symptoms of overload and overdrive; distortion; causes of
interference; interference and consumer electronics; part 15 devices; over and under modulation; RF
feedback; off frequency signals; fading and noise; problems with digital communications interfaces

T7B01

What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?

Talk farther away from the microphone

T7B02
What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission
unintentionally?

The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band

T7B03

Which of the following may be a cause of radio frequency interference?

A. Fundamental overload

B. Harmonics

C. Spurious emissions

D. All of these choices are correct

T7B04

Which of the following is a way to reduce or eliminate interference by an amateur transmitter to a


nearby telephone?

Put a RF filter on the telephone

T7B05

How can overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?

Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver

T7B06

Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station's transmissions
are interfering with their radio or TV reception?

Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own
radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel

T7B07

Which of the following may be useful in correcting a radio frequency interference problem?

A. Snap-on ferrite chokes

B. Low-pass and high-pass filters

C. Band-reject and band-pass filters

D. All of these choices are correct


T7B08

What should you do if something in a neighbor's home is causing harmful interference to your amateur
station?

A. Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device

B. Politely inform your neighbor about the rules that prohibit the use of devices which cause
interference

C. Check your station and make sure it meets the standards of good amateur practice

D. All of these choices are correct

T7B09

What is a Part 15 device?

An unlicensed device that may emit low powered radio signals on frequencies used by a licensed service

T7B10

What might be the problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is
distorted or unintelligible?

All of these choices are correct

T7B11

What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?

Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible transmissions

T7B12

What might be the first step to resolve cable TV interference from your ham radio transmission?

Be sure all TV coaxial connectors are installed properly

Section T7C

Antenna measurements and troubleshooting: measuring SWR; dummy loads; coaxial cables; feed line
failure modes

T7C01

What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?

To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests


T7C02

Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired
operating frequency?

An antenna analyzer

T7C03

What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)?

A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line

T7C04

What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed
line?

1 to 1

T7C05

What is the approximate SWR value above which the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters
begin to reduce transmitter power?

2 to 1

T7C06

What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?

Impedance mismatch

T7C07

What happens to power lost in a feed line?

It is converted into heat

T7C08

What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use to determine if a feed line and antenna are
properly matched?

Directional wattmeter

T7C09

Which of the following is the most common cause for failure of coaxial cables?
Moisture contamination

T7C10

Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?

Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable

T7C11

What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?

It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption

T7C12

Which of the following is a common use of coaxial cable?

Carrying RF signals between a radio and antenna

T7C13

What does a dummy load consist of?

A non-inductive resistor and a heat sink

Section T7D

Basic repair and testing: soldering; using basic test instruments; connecting a voltmeter, ammeter, or
ohmmeter

T7D01

Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?

A voltmeter

T7D02

What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit?

In parallel with the circuit

T7D03

How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit?

In series with the circuit


T7D04

Which instrument is used to measure electric current?

An ammeter

• Ohmmeter: used to measure resistance in ohms

• Wavemeter

• Voltmeter: used to measure voltage

T7D05

What instrument is used to measure resistance?

An ohmmeter

T7D06

Which of the following might damage a multimeter?

Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting

T7D07

Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter?

Voltage and resistance

T7D08

Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use?

• C.

Rosin-core solder

T7D09

What is the characteristic appearance of a cold solder joint?

A grainy or dull surface

T7D10

What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across an unpowered circuit, initially
indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?

The circuit contains a large capacitor


T7D11

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an
ohmmeter?

Ensure that the circuit is not powered

T7D12

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?

Ensure that the voltmeter and leads are rated for use at the voltages to be measured

Sub element T8

Modulation modes: amateur satellite operation; operating activities; non-voice communications

Section T8A

Modulation modes: bandwidth of various signals; choice of emission type

T8A01

Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?

Single sideband

T8A02

What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?

FM

T8A03

Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and
UHF bands?

SSB

T8A04

Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?

FM

T8A05

Which of the following types of emission has the narrowest bandwidth?


CW

T8A06

Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF and UHF single-sideband communications?

Upper sideband

T8A07

What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions?

SSB signals have narrower bandwidth

T8A08

What is the approximate bandwidth of a single sideband voice signal?

3 kHz

T8A09

What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM phone signal?

Between 10 and 15 kHz

T8A10

What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 cm band?

About 6 MHz

T8A11

What is the approximate maximum bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?

150 Hz

Section T8B

Amateur satellite operation; Doppler shift, basic orbits, operating protocols; control operator,
transmitter power considerations; satellite tracking; digital modes

T8B01

Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space
station?
Any amateur r whose license privileges allow them to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency

T8B02

How much transmitter power should be used on the uplink frequency of an amateur satellite or space
station?

The minimum amount of power needed to complete the contact

T8B03

Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?

All of these answers are correct

T8B04

Which amateur stations may make contact with an amateur station on the International Space Station
using 2 meter and 70 cm band amateur radio frequencies?

Any amateur holding a Technician or higher class license

T8B05

What is a satellite beacon?

A transmission from a space station that contains information about a satellite

T8B06

Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?

The Keplerian elements

T8B07

With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift?

An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth
station

T8B08

What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in mode U/V?

The satellite uplink is in the 70 cm band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band

T8B09

What causes spin fading when referring to satellite signals?


Rotation of the satellite and its antennas

T8B10

What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur satellite?

The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit

T8B11

What is a commonly used method of sending signals to and from a digital satellite?

FM Packet

Section T8C

Operating activities: radio direction finding; radio control; contests; linking over the Internet; grid
locators

T8C01

Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?

Radio direction finding

T8C02

Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?

A directional antenna

T8C03

What popular operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified
period of time?

Contesting

T8C04

Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a radio contest?

Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange

T8C05

What is a grid locator?

A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location


T8C06

How is access to an IRLP node accomplished?

By using DTMF signals

T8C06

IRLP: Internet Radio Linking Project DTMF: Dual Tone - Multi Frequency

T8C07

What is the maximum power allowed when transmitting telecommand signals to radio controlled
models?

1 watt

T8C08

What is required in place of on-air station identification when sending signals to a radio control
model using amateur frequencies?

A label indicating the licensee's name, call sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter

T8C09

How might you obtain a list of active nodes that use VoIP?

From a repeater directory

T8C10

How do you select a specific IRLP node when using a portable transceiver?

Use the keypad to transmit the IRLP node ID

IRLP = Internet Radio Linking Project

T8C11

What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the
Internet?

A gateway

T8C12

What is meant by Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) as used in amateur radio?

A method of delivering voice communications over the Internet using digital techniques
T8C13

What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?

A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the Internet using Voice Over
Internet Protocol

Section T8D

Non-voice communications: image signals; digital modes; CW; packet; PSK31; APRS; error detection and
correction; NTSC

T8D01

Which of the following is an example of a digital communications method?

All of these choices are correct

• Packet Radio is probably the best known digital mode which can be thought of as using a
modem over a radio to allow computers to exchange data

• PSK31 is short for Phase Shift Keying, 31 Baud and is more of system for chat over radio; it
allows realtime keyboard to keyboard informal chat between operators.

• MFSK is short for Multiple frequency-shift keying and is a variation of FSK, a method used by
some packet radio systems.

• IEEE 802.11 is a set of specifications for implementing wireless local area network (WLAN)
computer communication in the 900 MHz and 2.4, 3.6, 5, and 60 GHz frequency bands.

T8D02

What does the term "APRS" mean?

Automatic Packet Reporting System

T8D03

Which of the following devices provides data to the transmitter when sending automatic position
reports from a mobile amateur radio station?

A Global Positioning System receiver

T8D04

What type of transmission is indicated by the term NTSC?

An analog fast scan color TV signal


T8D05

Which of the following is an application of APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System)?

Providing real time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations
of stations

T8D06

What does the abbreviation PSK mean?

Phase Shift Keying

T8D07

What is PSK31?

A low-rate data transmission mode

T8D08

Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions?

A. A check sum which permits error detection

B. A header which contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent

C. Automatic repeat request in case of error

D. All of these choices are correct

T8D09

What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands?

International Morse

T8D10

Which of the following can be used to transmit CW in the amateur bands?

All of these choices are correct

T8D11

What is an ARQ transmission system?

A digital scheme whereby the receiving station detects errors and sends a request to the sending
station to retransmit the information
Subelement T9

Antennas and feed lines

Section T9A

Antennas: vertical and horizontal polarization; concept of gain; common portable and mobile
antennas; relationships between antenna length and frequency

T9A01

What is a beam antenna?

An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction

T9A02

Which of the following is true regarding vertical antennas?

The electric field is perpendicular to the Earth

T9A03

Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's
surface?

A horizontally polarized antenna

T9A04

What is a disadvantage of the "rubber duck" antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers?

It does not transmit or receive as effectively as a full-sized antenna

T9A05

How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency?

Shorten it

T9A06

What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish?

Directional antennas
T9A07

What is a good reason not to use a "rubber duck" antenna inside your car?

Signals can be significantly weaker than when it is outside of the vehicle

T9A08

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?

19

T9A08

146 MHz is in the 2 meter band. 300146≈2 m

2 meters is almost 80 inches.

14×80 in=20 in.

19 inches is the closest answer.

OR

300/146 MHz=2.0547 m2.0547 m×39.37 in/m=80.89 in

Then to determine size of antenna from the question, 80.89×14[λ]=20.22 in rounded to nearest whole
number is 20 in.

T9A09

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a 6 meter 1/2-wavelength wire dipole antenna?

112

T9A09

There are many factors that will affect the amount of length needed for the 1/2 wave dipole antenna,
such as the physical characteristics of the wire or nearby conductive sources. But the easiest way to
solve this problem is to remember that a meter is a little longer than a yard, or approximately 39 inches.
To calculate this, half of the 6 meter wavelength would be 3 meters. To convert that to inches, multiply
by 39 inches per meter:

3 m×39 in/m=117 in

112 inches is the closest to this.

T9A10
In which direction is the radiation strongest from a half-wave dipole antenna in free space?

Broad side to the antenna

What is meant by the gain of an antenna?

The increase in signal strength in a specified direction when compared to a reference antenna

T9A12

What is a reason to use a properly mounted 5/8 wavelength antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?

It offers a lower angle of radiation and more gain than a 1/4 wavelength antenna and usually provides
improved coverage

T9A13

Why are VHF or UHF mobile antennas often mounted in the center of the vehicle roof?

A roof mounted antenna normally provides the most uniform radiation pattern

T9A14

Which of the following terms describes a type of loading when referring to an antenna?

Inserting an inductor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it electrically longer

Section T9B

Feed lines: types of feed lines; attenuation vs. frequency; SWR concepts; matching; weather protection;
choosing RF connectors and feed lines

T9B01

Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feed line?

To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses

T9B02

What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur radio installations?

50 ohms

T9B03

Why is coaxial cable used more often than any other feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?
It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations

T9B04

What does an antenna tuner do?

It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance

T9B05

What generally happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?

The loss increases

T9B06

Which of the following connectors is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?

A Type N connector

T9B07

Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?

They are commonly used at HF frequencies

T9B08

Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion?

To prevent an increase in feed line loss

T9B09

What might cause erratic changes in SWR readings?

A loose connection in an antenna or a feed line

T9B10

What electrical difference exists between the smaller RG-58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables?

RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency

T9B11

Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?
Air-insulated hard line

Sub element T0

Electrical safety: AC and DC power circuits; antenna installation; RF hazards

Section T0A

Power circuits and hazards: hazardous voltages; fuses and circuit breakers; grounding; lightning
protection; battery safety; electrical code compliance

T0A01

Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery?

Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an explosion

T0A02

How does current flowing through the body cause a health hazard?

A. By heating tissue

B. It disrupts the electrical functions of cells

C. It causes involuntary muscle contractions

D. All of these choices are correct

T0A03

What is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug?

Safety ground

T0A04

What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?

To interrupt power in case of overload

T0A05

Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?

Excessive current could cause a fire

T0A06
What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?

All of these choices are correct

T0A07

Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial
cable feed line?

Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected to an external ground

T0A08

What safety equipment should always be included in home-built equipment that is powered from 120V
AC power circuits?

A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC hot conductor

T0A09

What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage battery?

Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented

T0A10

What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged too quickly?

The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas or explode

T0A11

What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?

You might receive an electric shock from the charged stored in large capacitors

Section T0B

Antenna safety: tower safety; erecting an antenna support; overhead power lines; installing an antenna

T0B01

When should members of a tower work team wear a hard hat and safety glasses?

T0B02

What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower?


Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses

T0B03

Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?

Never

T0B04

Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?

Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires

T0B05

What is the purpose of a gin pole?

To lift tower sections or antennas

T0B06

What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?

So that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires

T0B07

Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?

This type of tower must never be climbed unless it is in the fully retracted position

T0B08

What is considered to be a proper grounding method for a tower?

Separate eight-foot long ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other

T0B09

Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires

T0B10

Which of the following is true concerning grounding conductors used for lightning protection?

Sharp bends must be avoided


T0B11

Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?

Local electrical codes

T0B12

Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning
protection?

Ensure that connections are short and direct

Section T0C

RF hazards: radiation exposure; proximity to antennas; recognized safe power levels; exposure to
others; radiation types; duty cycle

T0C01

What type of radiation are VHF and UHF radio signals?

Non-ionizing radiation

T0C02

Which of the following frequencies has the lowest value for Maximum Permissible Exposure limit?

50 MHz

T0C03

What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an
RF exposure evaluation is required?

50 watts PEP at the antenna

T0C04

What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?

A. Frequency and power level of the RF field

B. Distance from the antenna to a person

C. Radiation pattern of the antenna

D. All of these choices are correct

T0C05
Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?

The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others

T0C06

Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF
exposure regulations?

A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

B . By calculation based on computer modeling

C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

D. All of these choices are correct

T0C07

What could happen if a person accidentally touched your antenna while you were transmitting?

They might receive a painful RF burn

Which of the following actions might amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in
excess of FCC-supplied limits?

Relocate antennas

T0C09

How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?

By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed

T0C10

Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

It affects the average exposure of people to radiation

T0C11

What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?

The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting

T0C12

How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?


RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause genetic damage

T0C13

If the averaging time for exposure is 6 minutes, how much power density is permitted if the signal is
present for 3 minutes and absent for 3 minutes rather than being present for the entire 6 minutes?

2 times as much

REPUBLIC ACT NO. 9292

AN ACT PROVIDING FOR A MORE RESPONSIVE AND COMPREHENSIVE REGULATION FOR THE
REGISTRATION, LICENSING AND PRACTICE OF PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEERS, ELECTRONICS
ENGINEERS AND ELECTRONICS TECHNICIANS, REPEALING REPUBLIC ACT NO. 5734, OTHERWISE KNOWN
AS THE "ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS ENGINEERING ACT OF THE PHILIPPINES", AND FOR
OTHER PURPOSES

Be it enacted by the Senate and the House of Representatives of the Philippines in Congress assembled:

ARTICLE I

GENERAL PROVISIONS

SECTION 1. Title. - This Act shall be known as the "Electronics Engineering Law of 2004".

SEC. 2. Statement of Policy. - The State recognizes the importance of electronics engineering in nation-
building and development. The State shall therefore develop and nurture competent, virtuous,
productive and well-rounded Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics
Technicians whose standards of practice and service shall be excellent, qualitative, world-class and
globally competitive through inviolable, honest, effective and credible licensure examinations and
through regulatory measures, programs and activities that foster their integrity, continuing professional
education, development and growth.
SEC. 3. Definition and Interpretation of Terms. - As used in this Act, the following terms shall mean:

(a) Electronics - the science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems
involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in gaseous media, in
plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices, including, but not limited to,
applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other energy forms when transduced or converted
into electronic signals.

(b) Professional Electronics Engineer - a person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly
registered/licensed Professional Electronics Engineer under this Act and to affix to his/her name the
letters "PECE".

(c) Electronics Engineer - a person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly
registered/licensed Electronics Engineer under this Act and to affix to his/her name the letters "ECE".

(d) Electronics Technician - a person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly
registered/licensed Electronics Technician under this Act and to affix to his/her name the letters "ECT".

(e) Electronics and Communications Engineer - a person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a
duly-registered/licensed Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.

(f) Computer – any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or
instructions, executing the programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting the results.

(g) Information and Communications Technology - the acquisition, production, transformation, storage
and transmission/reception of data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal,
pictorial, textual, numeric or the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and
processes utilizing such data and information.
(h) Communications - the process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or
messages between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and
wired or wireless medium

(i) Telecommunications - any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages,
text, written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible
signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/format and for
any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other electronic, electromagnetic and
technological means.

(j) Broadcast, Broadcasting - an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images
or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or
wireless means.

(k) Industrial Plant - includes all manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where
electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold,
maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.

(l) Commercial Establishment - shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels,
hospitals, condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, studios, stadia, parking areas,
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other building/s or
area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are
installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.

(m) Consulting Services - as used in this Act, shall include services requiring adequate technical
expertise, experience and professional capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or
feasibility studies, design, planning, construction, supervision, management and related services, and
other technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.

0(n) Accredited Professional Organization - the integrated and accredited national organization of
Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians.
SEC. 4. Categories of Practice. - The following shall be the engineering and technician categories
covered by this Act:

(a) Professional Electronics Engineer (PECE)

(b) Electronics Engineer (ECE)

(c) Electronics Technician (ECT)

SEC. 5. Nature and Scope of Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics Technician
Professions.

a) The scope and nature of practice of the Electronics Engineer shall embrace and consist of any work or
activity relating to the application of engineering sciences and/or principles to the investigation,
analysis, synthesis, planning, design, specification, research and development, provision, procurement,
marketing and sales, manufacture and production, construction and installation,
tests/measurements/control, operation, repair, servicing, technical support and maintenance of
electronic components, devices, products, apparatus, instruments, equipment, systems, networks,
operations and processes in the fields of electronics, including communications and/or
telecommunications, information and communication technology (ICT), computers and their networking
and hardware/firmware/software development and applications, broadcast/broadcasting, cable and
wireless television, consumer and industrial electronics, electro-optics/photonics/opto-electronics,
electro-magnetics, avionics,

aerospace, navigational and military applications, medical electronics, robotics, cybernetics, biometrics
and all other related and convergent fields; it also includes the administration, management, supervision
and regulatory aspects of such works and activities; similarly included are those teaching and training
activities which develop the ability to use electronic engineering fundamentals and related advanced
knowledge in electronics engineering, including lecturing and teaching of technical and professional
subjects given in the electronics engineering and electronics technician curriculum and licensure
examinations.

(b) The scope and nature of practice of the Professional Electronics Engineer shall embrace and consist
of all of the above plus the sole authority to provide consulting services as defined in this Act and to sign
and seal electronics plans, drawings, permit applications, specifications, reports and other technical
documents prepared by himself/herself and/or under his direct supervision.

(c) The scope and nature of practice of the Electronics Technician profession shall embrace and consist
of any non-engineering work or activity relating to the installation, construction, operation, control,
tests and measurements, diagnosis, repair and maintenance, manufacture and production, sales and
marketing of any electronic component/s, device/s, products, apparatus, instruments, equipment,
system/s, network/s, operations and processes located on land, watercraft, aircraft, industrial plants or
commercial establishments, including the teaching and training of technical and professional subjects
given in the electronics technician curriculum and licensure examinations.

ARTICLE II PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

SEC. 6. Composition of the Board. - There is hereby created a Professional Regulatory Board of
Electronics Engineering, hereinafter referred to as the Board, under the administrative control and
supervision of the Professional Regulation Commission, hereinafter referred to as the Commission,
composed of a chairman and two (2) members who shall be appointed by the President of the
Philippines from the three (3) recommendees per position chosen and ranked by the Commission, which
recommendees shall in turn be chosen from the five (5) nominees for each position submitted by the
accredited professional organization, in accordance with rules and regulations presently in existence or
that may be promulgated for such purpose.

SEC. 7. Powers and Functions of the Board. - The Board is vested with the authority to:

(a) Administer/Implement the provisions of this Act;

(b) Administer oaths in connection with the administration of this Act;

(c) Adopt an official seal of the Board;

(d) Issue, suspend or revoke Certificates of Registration and accordingly the Professional Identification
Cards of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or Electronics Technicians, or
otherwise suspend the holder thereof from the practice of his/her profession, for any justifiable cause
and after due process;

(e) Maintain a roster of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics
Technicians;
(f) Issue, suspend and/or cancel special permits to foreign Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics
Engineers or Electronics Technicians in accordance with the provisions of this Act;

(g) Prescribe, amend or revise the requirements for licensing of Professional Electronics Engineers, and
prepare, adopt and issue the syllabi of the subjects for the licensure examination for Electronics
Engineers and Electronics Technicians, and prepare the questions therefore, in strict conformance with
the scope of the syllabi;

(h) Adopt a program for the full computerization of the licensure examination;

(i) Grant registration without examination, subject to review and approval by the Commission, in
accordance with the provisions of this Act;

(j) Study, examine and recommend, in coordination with the Commission on Higher Education (CHED)
and the Technical Education and Skills Development Authority (TESDA), and in consultation with other
concerned government entities and the accredited professional organization, the essential requirements
as to curricula and facilities of schools, colleges or universities, seeking permission to open courses or
programs or already offering courses or programs in electronics engineering, electronics technician and
related courses or programs and to see to it that these requirements, including employment of
qualified faculty members, are properly complied with: Provided, That within three (3) years after the
effectivity of this Act, the Board shall, in coordination with CHED, TESDA, and in consultation with other
concerned government entities and the accredited professional organization, review and define/re-
define the curricula for electronics engineering, electronics technician and/or

allied courses or programs for the purpose of re-aligning, revising and/or consolidating the same and/or
otherwise defining the minimum requirements by means of which graduates of related or allied courses
or programs can qualify to take the Electronics Engineer and Electronics Technician licensure
examinations;

(k) Inspect educational institutions and based on their findings thereon, recommend to CHED and/or the
TESDA and/or other government entities concerned with the granting of school permits or
authorization, the opening, improvement/upgrading or closure of colleges or schools and universities
offering electronics engineering and electronics technician courses or programs;

(l) Adopt and administer a Code of Ethics and a Code of Technical Standards of Practice for Professional
Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians in the Philippines;

(m) Promulgate rules and regulations on the scope of practice of Professional Electronics Engineers,
Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians;

(n) Promulgate a program for continuing professional education and/or development of Professional
Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians;
(o) Prescribe the minimum manning and manpower requirements for Professional Electronics Engineers,
Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians in industrial plants and commercial establishments for
purposes of ensuring compliance with the provisions of this Act and all other ordinances, laws, rules and
regulations that may be enacted hereinafter;

(p) Formulate, prescribe and adopt such rules and regulations for electronics installations in industrial
plants, commercial establishments and other buildings or structures covered by the National Building
Code of the Philippines, in coordination with the Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH),
other concerned agencies, representatives of industry and the Accredited Professional Organization;

(q) Study the conditions affecting the Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering and
Electronics Technician professions in the Philippines, and whenever necessary, exercise the powers
conferred by this and other Acts, and adopt such measures as may be deemed proper for the
enhancement and advancement of the professions and/or the maintenance of high professional, ethical
and technical standards, and for this purpose, the Board may personally or through subordinate
employees of the Commission or member/s of the Accredited Professional Organization, duly
authorized by the Board and approved by the Commission, conduct ocular inspection or visit industrial
plants and commercial establishments where Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers
and Electronics Technicians are employed for the purpose of determining compliance with the
provisions of law relative thereto, in accordance with established policies promulgated by the
Commission;

(r) Hear and decide violations of this Act, its implementing rules and regulations, the Code of Ethics and
the Code of Technical Standards of Practice for the profession, and for this purpose, issue subpoena ad
testificandum and/or subpoena duces tecum to secure attendance of witnesses and the production of
documents in connection with the charges presented to and/or any investigation pending before the
Board;

(s) Delegate the hearing or investigation of administrative cases filed before it to authorized officers of
the Commission, except in cases where the issue involved strictly concerns the practice of the
Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering and Electronics Technician Professions, in
which case the hearing shall be presided over by at least one (1) member of the Board assisted by a
Legal or Hearing Officer of the Commission;

(t) Promulgate resolutions, orders and/or decisions on such administrative cases: Provided, That such
resolutions, orders and/or decisions shall be subject to appeal within fifteen (15) days from receipt
thereof with the Commission, which may affirm or reverse the same, dismiss the case, deny the appeal
or remand the case to the Board for further action or proceeding: Provided, further, That if after fifteen
(15) days from the receipt of such decision no appeal is taken therefrom to the Commission, the same
shall become final and immediately enforceable;

(u) Submit an annual action plan and corresponding report at the beginning and close of each fiscal year
on the activities, proceedings and accomplishments of the Board for the year, incorporating therein any
recommendation to the Commission; and
(v) Discharge such other powers and functions as the Board and the Commission may deem necessary
for the practice of the profession and the upgrading, enhancement, development and growth of the
Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer and Electronics Technician professions in the
Philippines. Except those in administrative cases, all resolutions embodying rules and regulations and
other policies and measures issued and/or promulgated by the Board shall be subject to the review and
approval by the Commission.

SEC. 8. Qualifications of Board Members. - The chairman and members of the Board must
possess the following qualifications at the time of their appointment:

(a) Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at least to five (5) consecutive years prior to his/her
appointment;

(b) Be of good moral character and integrity;

(c) Be a holder of a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid Professional Identification Card as a
Professional Electronics Engineer, duly qualified to practice as a Professional Electronics Engineer in the
Philippines;

(d) Be a member of good standing of the Accredited Professional Organization;

(e) Be in active practice of the electronics engineering profession for at least ten (10) years prior to his
appointment, either in self-practice, or employment in government service and/or in the private sector;

(f) Must not have any pecuniary interest, directly or indirectly, in any school, academy, college,
university or institution conferring an academic degree and/or certification/accreditation necessary for
admission to the practice of Electronics Engineering and/or Electronics Technician or where review
classes in preparation for the licensure examination are being offered or conducted nor shall he/she be
a member of the faculty or of the administration thereof prior to taking his/her oath of office; and

(g) Must not have been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude.

SEC. 9. Term of Office. - The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of three (3) years
from date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be
re-appointed once for another term. Any vacancy occurring within the term of a member shall be filled
for the unexpired portion of the term only: Provided, That the member appointed to serve the
unexpired term may be re-appointed more than once for as long as his/her continuous tenure shall not
exceed six (6) years. Each member of the Board shall take the proper oath prior to the assumption of
office.
SEC. 10. Compensation and Allowances of the Board. - The Chairman and members of the
Board shall receive compensation and allowances comparable to that being received by the Chairman
and members of existing regulatory boards under the Commission as provided for in the General
Appropriations Act.

SEC. 11. Removal of Board Members. - The President of the Philippines, upon recommendation
of the Commission, may suspend or remove any member of the Board for neglect of duty,
incompetence, manipulation or rigging of the licensure examination results, disclosure of secret
information or the examination questions prior to the conduct of the said examination, or tampering of
the grades therein, for unprofessional or unethical conduct, or for any final judgment or conviction of
any criminal offense by the Courts, after having given the member concerned an opportunity to be
heard and/or to defend himself/herself in a proper administrative investigation.

SEC. 12. Custodian of Board Records, Secretariat and Support Services. - All records of the
Board, including applications for examination, administrative cases involving Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians shall be kept by the Commission.

The Commission shall designate the Secretary of the Board and shall provide the
secretariat and other support services to implement the provisions of this Act.

ARTICLE III EXAMINATION, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE

SEC. 13. Licensure Examination. - Except as otherwise specifically provided in this Act, all
applicants seeking to be registered and licensed as Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians,
shall undergo the required examinations to be given by the Board in such places and dates as the
Commission may designate in accordance with the provisions of Republic Act No. 8981.
SEC. 14. Qualifications for Examinations. - In order to be allowed to take the examination for
Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician, an applicant must, at the time of the filing of his/her
application, establish to the satisfaction of the Board that:

(a) He/She is a citizen of the Philippines or of a foreign country qualified to take the examination as
provided for in Section 33 of this Act;

(b) He/She is of good moral character and had not been convicted by a court of law of a criminal offense
involving moral turpitude;

(c) For the Electronics Engineering examinations, he/she is a holder of a degree of Bachelor of Science in
Electronics and Communications Engineering or Electronics Engineering, or subject to compliance with
minimum requirements to be prescribed by the Board, such equivalent and/or related engineering
course or program from any school, institute, college, or university recognized by the Government or
the State where it is established, after completing a resident collegiate course equivalent to that of a full
baccalaureate degree;

(d) For the Electronics Technician examinations:

(1) is a graduate of an Associate, Technician, Trade or Vocational course in electronics or, subject to the
evaluation of the Board, such equivalent and/or related formal or non-formal course or program from
any school, college, university or training institution recognized by the Government or the State where it
is established, after completing a resident course or program of not less than two (2) years, or

(2) has completed at least the minimum third-year equivalent of a Bachelor of Science program in
Electronics and Communications Engineering or Electronics Engineering according to CHED guidelines,
or, subject to the evaluation of the Board such equivalent and/or related engineering course or program
from any school, institute, college or university recognized by the Government or State where it is
established;

SEC. 15. Scope of Examination for Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians. - The examination
for Electronics Engineers shall consist of written tests which shall cover subjects prescribed by the Board
but including at least the following: Mathematics, Applied Sciences, Engineering Economics, Laws and
Ethics, Electronics, Communications, Computers, and Information and Communications Technology.
The examinations for Electronics Technician shall consist of written and/or practical tests covering
subjects to be prescribed by the Board and shall cover subjects specific to the practice of Electronics
Technicians.

As urgent and important need arises so as to conform to technological and modern changes, the
Board may re-cluster, rearrange, modify, add to or exclude any subject and prescribe the number of
final examination/s per year after approval by the Commission. The PRC Board resolution thereon shall
be officially published in the Official Gazette or major daily newspapers of general circulation and also
circularized and disseminated to all colleges.

SEC. 16. Ratings. - To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or
Electronics Technician must obtain a passing rating of seventy percent (70%) in each subject given
during the examination: Provided, however, That a candidate who obtains a passing rating in the
majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s below seventy percent (70%) but not
lower than sixty percent (60%), shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s
where he/she failed to obtain the passing rating: Provided, finally, That should the examinee fail to
obtain a passing rating in the removal examination, he/she shall be considered as having failed the
entire licensure examination.

SEC. 17. Release of the Results of Examination. - The Board and the Commission shall correct and
rate the licensure examination papers and shall release the examination results within fifteen (15) days
after the said examination.

SEC. 18. Qualifications and Schedule of Registration for Professional Electronics Engineer. - For
application for registration as a Professional Electronics Engineer, the following shall be required:

(a) Valid Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card as Electronics Engineer;

(b) Valid/current membership identification card from the Accredited Professional Organization;

(c) Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in government service
or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board, indicating the inclusive dates,
companies worked for, description of specific responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name,
position of immediate supervisors for a period of at least seven (7) years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at
least two (2) years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work, from the date
applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer or Electronics Engineer;
(d) Three (3) certifications signed by three (3) Professional Electronics Engineers attesting that the
experience record submitted by the applicant is factual.

Applications for registration as Professional Electronics Engineer may be submitted anytime to the
Commission. The Board shall then schedule an en banc oral interview of the applicant for the purpose of
verifying, authenticating and assessing the submittals and establishing the competency of the applicant
according to rules, regulations and competency standards to be formulated by the Board: Provided, That
those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications Engineers under
Republic Act No. 5734 for at least seven (7) years upon the effectivity of this Act need only to submit
items (a), (b), and (c) above: Provided, further, That those who have been registered and licensed as
Electronics and Communications Engineers under Republic Act No. 5734 for less than seven (7) years
after the effectivity of this Act shall submit shall submit their certified experience records and
certifications from three (3) Professional Electronics Engineers as in items

(c) and (d) above, and submit to an en banc oral interview of the Board for competency assessment,
upon passing of which he can be registered as a Professional Electronics Engineer.

SEC. 19. Issuance of the Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card. - A
Certificate of Registration shall be issued to examinees who pass the Electronics Engineer and
Electronics Technician licensure examination, to Electronics Engineers who are registered as
Professional Electronics Engineers and to Electronics Technicians who are registered without
examination, subject to payment of fees prescribed by the Commission. The Certificate of Registration
shall bear the signature of the Chairperson and Members of the Board, stamped with the official seal of
the Commission and the Board, indicating that the person named therein is entitled to practice the
profession with all the privileges appurtenant thereto, subject to compliance with all applicable
requirements. The said certificate shall remain in full force and effect until withdrawn, suspended or
revoked in accordance with this Act.

A Professional Identification Card bearing the registration number, date of registration, duly
signed by the Chairperson of the Commission, shall likewise be issued to every registrant who has paid
the prescribed fee. This identification card will serve as evidence that the holder thereof is duly
registered with the Commission.

SEC. 20. Registration without Examination for Electronics Technicians. - Within five (5) years after
the effectivity of this Act, the Board shall issue Certificates of Registration and Professional Identification
Cards without examination to applicants for registration as Electronics Technicians who shall present
evidence or other proof satisfactory to the Board that:
(a) He/She is a graduate of at least a two-year Associate, Technician, Trade or Vocational course in
Electronics as certified by the TESDA, or that he/she has completed at least the minimum third-year
equivalent of a Bachelor's Degree of Science in Electronics and Communications Engineering or
Electronics Engineering according to CHED guidelines, or, subject to the evaluation of the Board, an
equivalent and/or related formal or non-formal course or program from any school, institute, college,
university or training institution recognized by the Government or the State where it is established, and

(b) He/She has rendered at least seven (7) years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/or
employment either in the Government or private sector, indicating therein his/her specific duties and
responsibilities, relevant accomplishments, the complete names and addresses of clients and companies
or persons worked for, as well as the names and positions of immediate superiors.

The above submittals shall be accompanied by a certification from at least three (3) registered
Professional Electronics Engineers vouching for the integrity, technical capability and good moral
character of the applicant.

SEC. 21. Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional Identification Card for
Certain Grounds. - The Board and/or the Commission shall not register and shall not issue a Certificate
of Registration and Professional Identification Card to any person convicted by a court of competent
jurisdiction of any crime involving moral turpitude, to any person of immoral or dishonorable conduct
and to any person of unsound mind, furnishing the party concerned a written statement containing the
reasons for such action, which statement shall be incorporated in the records of the Board.

SEC. 22. Professional Oath. - All successful examinees and all those who have qualified for
registration without examination shall be required to take a professional oath before any member of the
Board or any person authorized by the Commission before he/she can be registered and issued a
Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card, and as a prerequisite to practicing as a
Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician.

SEC. 23. Revocation and Suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification


Card and Cancellation of Special Permits. - The Board shall, upon proper notice and hearing, revoke or
suspend the validity of a Certificate of Registration and accordingly the Professional Identification Card,
or cancel a Special Permit granted under Section 26 herein, for any of the causes mentioned in the
preceding sections, or for unprofessional or unethical conduct, malpractice, incompetence or any
violation of this Act and its implementing rules and regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of
Technical Standards of Practice, or where fraud, deceit, or false statement was found to have been
employed in obtaining said Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card or Special Permit.

SEC. 24. Reinstatement, Re-issuance or Replacement of Certificate of Registration and


Professional Identification Card. - The Board may, two (2) years after the revocation of a Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, upon application and for reasons deemed proper and
sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification
Card, subject to compliance with the applicable requirements of the Commission, and the Board:
Provided, That he/she did not commit any illegal practice of the profession or any violation of this Act,
its rules, codes and policies during the time that his/her Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card was revoked.

A new Certificate of Registration or Professional Identification Card to replace lost, destroyed, or


mutilated certificate or registration card may be issued, subject to the rules promulgated by the Board
and the Commission, upon payment of the required fees.

SEC. 25. Roster of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics
Technicians. - The Board shall prepare and maintain a roster of the names, residence and/or office
address of all registered Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics
Technicians, which shall be updated annually in cooperation with the Accredited Professional
Organization, indicating therein the status of the Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification
Card and membership in the Accredited Professional Organization of the professional, whether valid,
inactive due to death or other reasons, delinquent, suspended or revoked. The said roster shall be
conspicuously posted within the premises of the Commission and the information there from made
available to the public upon inquiry or request.

SEC. 26. Exemptions from Examination and Registration. - No examination and registration shall
be required for foreign Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or Electronics
Technicians who are temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the
Philippines in the following cases:
(a) Where no qualified equivalent Filipino professional is available for the specific item of work to be
rendered, as attested to by the Accredited Professional Organization;

(b) Where the conditions of the scope and funding for the work or project are such that it stipulates the
temporary employment of a foreign professional;

(c) As defined in the General Agreement on Trade in Services, the ASEAN and APEC Engineer Registry
programs and other similar international treaties, agreements and/or covenants to which the Philippine
Government is a signatory and has ratified: Provided, however, That:

(1) The said foreign professional is legally qualified to practice his/her profession in his/her own country
in which the requirements for licensing and registration are not lower than those specified in this Act;

(2) The work to be performed by said foreign professional shall be limited only to the particular work or
project for which he/she was specifically contracted;

(3) Prior to commencing the work, the foreign professional shall secure a Special Permit from the Board,
which shall be subject to the approval of the Commission; Provided, That no working visa and/or permit
shall be issued by concerned government agencies unless such Special Permit has been granted first;

(4) The same foreign professional shall not engage in private practice on his/her own account;

(5) For every foreign professional contracted for the work or project, at least two (2) corresponding
Filipino professionals who are registered under this Act shall be employed as counterparts by the
Philippine Government or the private firm utilizing the services of such foreign professional for at least
the same duration of time as the foreigner's tenure of work; and

(6) The Special Permit herein granted shall be valid only for a period of not more than six (6) months and
renewable every six (6) months thereafter subject to the discretion of the Board and the approval of the
Commission: Provided, That said permit shall cease to be valid if the foreigner terminates his/her
employment in the work or project for which said permit was originally granted and thereafter engages
in an occupation that requires another Special Permit or registration under this Act.

ARTICLE IV PRACTICE OF PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING, ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING AND


ELECTRONICS TECHNICIAN

SEC. 27. Practice of the Profession. - No person shall offer himself/herself in the Philippines as, or
use the title "Professional Electronics Engineer", "Electronics Engineer" or "Electronics Technician", as
defined in this Act, or use any word, letter figure, or sign whatsoever, tending to convey the impression
that he/she is a Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician, or
advertise that he/she is qualified to perform the work of a Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics
Engineer or Electronics Technician, without holding a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid
Professional Identification Card in accordance with this Act, except as provided under Section 26 hereof.

SEC. 28. Prohibitions and Limitations on the Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics
Technician Profession. - Unless otherwise prescribed by any supervening law, the practice of electronics
engineering and electronics technician shall be a professional service, admission to which must be
determined on the basis of the individual's personal qualifications. Hence, no firm, company,
partnership, association or corporation may be registered or licensed as such for the practice of
electronics engineering and electronics technician. However, persons properly registered and licensed
as Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or Electronics Technicians may, among
themselves or with any other allied professionals, form a partnership or association or corporation and
collectively render services as such: Provided, That individual members of such partnerships or
associations or corporations shall be responsible for their own respective acts.

SEC. 29. Seal of the Professional Electronics Engineers. - All licensed Professional Electronics
Engineers shall obtain and use a seal of a design prescribed by the Board bearing the registrant’s name,
registration number and title. Plans, drawings, permit applications, specifications, reports and other
technical documents prepared by and/or executed under the supervision of, and issued by the
Professional Electronics Engineer shall be stamped on every sheet/page with said seal, indicating therein
his/her current Professional Tax Receipt (PTR) number, date/place of payment and current membership
number in the Accredited Professional Organization, when filed with government authorities or when
used professionally.

SEC. 30. Code of Ethics and Code of Technical Standards of Practice. - The Board shall adopt a
Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice for Electronics Engineers and
Technicians, which shall be promulgated by the Accredited Professional Organization.

ARTICLE V SUNDRY PROVISIONS


SEC. 31. Continuing Professional Education (CPE) and/or Development Programs. – All registered
Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers, and Electronics Technicians, shall comply with
pertinent rules and regulations already prescribed by and/or as may be prescribed and promulgated by
the Commission and/or the Board, the Accredited Professional Organization and other government
agencies, pursuant to this Act and other relevant laws, international treaties, agreements and/or
covenants to which the Philippines is a signatory and has ratified, with respect to continuing
professional education and/or development and/or other similar/related programs.

SEC. 32. Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization. - There shall be one (1) integrated
and Accredited Professional Organization of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers
and Electronics Technicians in the country, which shall be registered with the Securities and Exchange
Commission as a non-stock, non-profit corporation and recognized by the Board, the Commission and all
government agencies as the one and only integrated and accredited national organization for the said
professionals. Every Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer and Electronics Technician,
upon registration with the Commission as such, shall ipso facto become a member of this Accredited
Professional Organization. Those who have been previously registered by the Board but are not
members of this Accredited Professional Organization at the time of effectivity of this Act, shall be
allowed to register as members of this organization within three (3) years

after the effectivity of this Act. Membership in this Accredited Professional Organization shall not be a
bar to membership in other associations of the electronics engineering and electronics technician
professions.

The Accredited Professional Organization shall implement the continuing professional education,
accredit other organizations or entities to provide continuing professional education, and/or
development program promulgated by the Board and/or the Commission, compliance with which shall
be one of the requisites for the maintenance of membership in good standing of the professional in the
Accredited Professional Organization. All members of good standing of this Accredited Professional
Organization shall be issued an annual membership card indicating the membership number and validity
period of the membership, which shall be affixed to all plans, specifications and any document signed by
the member in the course of practice of his/her profession. Failure to maintain membership in good
standing in the Accredited Professional Organization shall be a cause for listing of the individual as
delinquent in the roster of professionals.

SEC. 33. Foreign Reciprocity. - No foreigner shall be admitted for registration as Professional
Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician with or without examination under
this Act unless he/she proves in the manner as provided by the Board that, by specific provisions of law,
the country, state or province of which he/she is a citizen, subject or national, or in accordance with
international treaties, agreements and/or covenants to which their country, state or province is a
signatory, admits Filipino citizens to practice as Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer
or Electronics Technician after an examination or registration process on terms of strict and absolute
equality with the citizens, subjects or nationals of said country, including the unconditional recognition
of professional licenses issued by the Board and/or the Commission and prerequisite degrees/diplomas
issued by institutions of learning duly recognized by the

government of the Philippines.

Sec. 34. Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and Licensed Professional
Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians. - Within three (3) years from
the effectivity of this Act, all existing and proposed positions in the local and national government,
whether career, permanent, temporary or contractual and primarily requiring the services of
Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or Electronics Technicians shall accordingly be
filled only by registered and licensed Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers or
Electronics Technicians.

ARTICLE VI PENAL PROVISION AND ASSISTANCE OF LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES

SEC. 35. Penal Provision. - The following shall be punished by a fine of not less than One hundred
thousand pesos (P100,000.00) nor more than One million pesos (P1,000,000.00), or by imprisonment of
not less than six (6) months nor more than six (6) years, or both, in the discretion of the court:

(a) Any person who shall give any false or fraudulent statement to the Board to obtain a Certificate of
Registration and/or Professional Identification Card as Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics
Engineer or Electronics Technician;

(b) Any person who shall present or use as his/her own a Certificate of Registration, Professional
Identification Card, membership identification card in the Accredited Professional Organization and/or
seal issued to another and any person who allows the use of his/her Certificate of Registration,
Professional Identification Card, membership card in the Accredited Professional Organization and/or
seal;

(c) Any person who shall present or use a revoked or suspended Certificate of Registration as
Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician;

(d) Any person who shall assume, use, or advertise as Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics
Engineer or Electronics Technician, or append to his/her name, any letter/s or words tending to convey
the impression that he/she is a registered Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or
Electronics Technician, when in fact he/she is not duly registered with the Board as such;
(e) Any Professional Electronics Engineer, or any person on his/her behalf, who shall stamp or seal any
document with his/her seal as such after his/her Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification
Card and membership card in the Accredited Professional Organization has been revoked or suspended
or after he/she has been suspended from practice or removed from the roster of Professional
Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineers or Electronics Technicians;

(f) Any Professional Electronics Engineer who shall sign his/her name, affix his/her seal, or use any other
method of signature on plans, technical descriptions or other documents prepared by or under the
supervision of another Professional Electronics Engineer, unless the same is prepared in such manner as
to clearly indicate the part of such work actually performed by the former;

(g) Any person, except the Professional Electronics Engineer or Electronics Engineer in-charge, who shall
sign for any electronics engineering work, or any function of electronics engineering practice, not
actually performed by him/her;

(h) Any person holding a Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card as Professional
Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician who shall be involved in illegal wire-
tapping, cloning, hacking, cracking, piracy and/or other forms of unauthorized and malicious electronic
eavesdropping and/or the use of any electronic devices in violation of the privacy of another or in
disregard of the privilege of private communications and/or safety to life, physical and/or intellectual
property of others, or who shall maintain an unlicensed and/or unregistered communications system or
device; and

(i) Any person who shall violate any provision of this Act or any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and
the Code of Technical Standards of Practice promulgated under this Act.

SEC. 36. Assistance of Law Enforcement and Other Government Agencies. - Any law
enforcement agency shall, upon call or request of the Board and/or the Commission, render assistance
in enforcing this Act including the Code of Ethics, Code of Technical Standards of Practice and the
implementing rules and regulations and measures promulgated hereunder, by prosecuting violators
thereof in accordance with law and the Rules of Court.

Any department, instrumentality, office, bureau, institution or agency of the government including
local governments, upon call or request from the Board and/or the Commission, shall render such
assistance as it may require, cooperate and coordinate with it in carrying out, enforcing or implementing
this Act, the codes, policies, measures, programs or activities of the Board and/or the Commission that it
may undertake pursuant to the provisions of this Act.

ARTICLE VII TRANSITORY PROVISIONS


SEC. 37. Transitory Provision - Upon effectivity of this Act, the incumbent Board of Electronics
and Communications Engineering shall complete all pending/unfinished works within a six (6)-month
period, after which it shall cease to exist. The President of the Philippines shall before then appoint the
Chairman and members of the first Board of Electronics Engineering in accordance with Sections 6 and 8
herein, who shall formulate and thereafter promulgate the rules and regulations for the implementation
of this Act.

SEC. 38. Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law is Passed. -
Electronics and Communications Engineers holding a valid Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card at the time of effectivity of this Act shall be automatically registered and recognized
as Electronics Engineers and shall be issued a new Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card as Electronics Engineers with the same license number as their original Electronics
and Communications Engineer Certificate of Registration, subject to the payment of prescribed fees and
other requirements of the Board and/or Commission.

ARTICLE VIII FINAL PROVISION

SEC. 39. Implementing Rules and Regulations. - Subject to the approval of the Commission, the
Board, in coordination with the accredited professional organization, shall adopt and promulgate such
rules, regulations, resolutions, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice for
Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians to carry out the
provisions of this Act, which shall be published in the Official Gazette or a newspaper of general
circulation and shall be effective fifteen (15) days after publication therein.

SEC. 40. Appropriations. - The Chairperson of the Professional Regulation Commission shall
include in the Commission's program the implementation of this Act, the funding of which shall be
included in the annual General Appropriations Act.

SEC. 41. Separability Clause. - If any provisions of this Act or any portion hereof is declared
unconstitutional by any competent court, the other provisions hereof shall not be affected thereby.
SEC. 42. Repealing Clause. - Republic Act No. 5734 is hereby repealed. All other laws, executive
orders, rules and regulations or parts thereof in conflict with the provisions of this Act are hereby
repealed or amended accordingly.

SEC. 43. Effectivity. - This Act shall take effect fifteen (15) days following its full publication in
the Official Gazette or any newspaper of general circulation.

Approved.

FRANKLIN M. DRILLON JOSE DE VENECIA, JR.

President of the Senate Speaker of the House

of Representatives

This act which is a consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate Bill No. 2683 was finally passed by
the House of Representatives and the Senate on February 2, 2004.
OSCAR G. YABES ROBERTO P. NAZARENO

Secretary of the Senate Secretary General

House of Representatives

Approved: April 17, 2004

GLORIA MACAPAGAL-ARROYO

President of the Philippines