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100 Which is not an element of procurement management? Purchasing Expediting Acquisition Marketing C and D 101 The purchasing cycle consists of all the following elements except? Defined Need Transmit Need Inspection Price & Terms
PMgroup Executing 102 Que # 102 Que The cost of corrective action taken by the purchaser and chargeable to the supplier under the terms of the contract is A. Payment authorization B. Bid cost considerations C. Release payment D. Back charge E. PMgroup Planning 103 Que # 103 Que __________ is a narrative description of the work to be accomplished or resource to be supplied. A. B. C. D. E. Purchase order Level of effort work Scope of work Contract stipulation
PMgroup Executing 104 Que # 104 Que By which means is a contractor able to control costs overruns due to changing requirements? A. B. C. D. E. Project Data review Change order Change Control Contract negotiations
PMgroup Executing 105 Que # 105 Que _________ is a written order directing the contractor to make changes according to the provisions of the contract documents.
A. B. C. D. E.
Change order/purchase order Amendment Contract order Modifications. Contractor claim Owner Directive
PMgroup Planning 106 Que # 106 Que _________ defines when the work is ready for or is being used for the purpose intended and is so certified. A. B. C. D. E. Final Completion Substantial Completion Final Acceptance Mechanical Completion
PMgroup Executing 107 Que # 107 Que _________ is a request for interim stoppage of work due to non conformance, funding or technical considerations A. B. C. D. E. Bid Protest Stop Work order Notice to Proceed Supplier Default Notice
PMgroup Executing 108 Que # 108 Que The process that may be used by an unsuccessful supplier to seek remedy for a non award of work is A. B. C. D. E. Bid Protest Stop Work Order Back charge Contract Dispute
PMgroup Planning 109 Que # 109 Que The __________ specification describes, defines or specifies the goods/services to be supplied. A. Performance B. Functional C. Technical D. Bid E. General Requirements PMgroup Planning 110 Que # 110 Que The Bid Evaluation process is characterized by all of the following activities except? A. B. C. Evaluation of suppliers financial resources Ability to comply with technical specifications, Delivery schedule and Cost factors
Performance Record Competitors' method of sourcing
PMgroup Planning 111 Que # 111 Que Which is not a consideration in a make or buy decision? A. Cost factors B. Sales Volume C. Existence of sufficient administration/technical personnel D. Political and, social factors with the organization E. PMgroup Executing 112 Que # 112 Que There are four methods of government procurement. Which is not one of these methods? A. B. C. D. E. Assistance Sealed Bidding Competitive proposals Acquisition Small Purchases
PMgroup Executing 113 Que # 113 Que A purchasing operation does not contain this classification of work A. Management B. Buying C. Follow up and expedition D. Marketing E. Clerical PMgroup Executing 114 Que # 114 Que __________ is a register of suppliers invited to submit bids for goods/services as specified. A. B. C. D. E. Procurement invitation Bid List Resource Identification Supplier's Rankings
PMgroup Planning 115 Que # 115 Que __________ is a formal invitation to submit a price for goods and/or services as specified. A. Request for Quotation B. Bid Response C. Intention for Bid D. Invitation for Bid E. Request for Proposal PMgroup Planning 116 Que # 116
Que A. B. C. D. E.
Which contract type should be used by the owner on a high risk project? Cost Plus Percentage of Cost Cost Plus Incentive Fee Lump Sum Fixed Price Plus Incentive Fee C and D
PMgroup Planning 117 Que # 117 Que Cost Reimbursable contracts are equivalent to A. Progress Payment Contracts B. Extra Work Order Contracts C. Cost Plus Contracts D. Fixed Price Contracts E. PMgroup Planning 118 Que # 118 Que Fixed price and incentive type contracts place responsibility for performance and financial risks associated with delay or non performance on the A. B. C. D. E. Contractor Owner Lending Institution Project Manager
PMgroup Executing 119 Que # 119 Que __________ is based on information gathered and analyzed about demand and supply. This forecast provides a prediction of short and long term prices and the underlying reasons for those trends. A. B. C. D. E. Sales forecast Consumer Price Index Production forecast Price forecast
PMgroup Executing 120 Que # 120 Que The contract is signed at the end of the A. Pre-award phase B. Award phase C. Post-award phase D. Solicitation phase E. Award cycle PMgroup Planning 121 Que # 121 Que Definitive contract terms are spelled out in the A. Pre-award phase B. Award phase C. Post-award phase D. Purchasing phase
supplier and terms are specified B. Requisition cycle C. Mind-reading and extra-sensory perception E. C. scratching B.E. Fast-tracking is a very poor time to consider a contractor. the product or service is relatively low value and readily available C. cycles required for the contract PMgroup Executing 126 Que # 126 Que To relieve pressure on the project schedule. Fixed lump sum Cost plus incentive Cost plus percentage of cost c and d PMgroup Executing 127 Que # 127 Que Which is not a factor in choosing a contractor? . solicitation cycle E. Which form of contract(s) should she consider? A. the product or service has high value. Diane decided to fast-track and hire a contractor to do part of the work. award and contractual cycles C. probing. B. Sniffing and smelling (olfactory) C. requirements. requisition and award cycles B. Touching and caressing (tactile) D. None of the above PMgroup Planning 124 Que # 124 Que The bid package is developed in the A. D. requisition and solicitation cycles D. Award cycle E. PMgroup Executing 123 Que # 123 Que PMI suggests which of the following behaviors as part of contract negotiations? A. None. but is easy to obtain E. the product or service has high value and is unique D. and Award phase for cost plus contracts PMgroup Planning 122 Que # 122 Que A bilateral RFP is preferred to an invitation to bid when A. Award phase PMgroup Executing 125 Que # 125 Que The Award phase includes the A. E. Pre-award phase for fixed cost contracts. Protocol. Requirements phase B. Solicitation cycle D.
award fee fixed price. a specification. C. D. C. C. In most cases. The buyer. the form of contract required to get the best contractor Fixed price Cost plus Overseas PMgroup Planning 129 Que # 129 Que In the area of contracting. there are two basic types of contracts that reflect how the total price is determined. undefined incentive fee. the best form of contract for this environment would be A. E. E. Complexity of requirements Price competition Competency Capacity none of the above PMgroup Planning 128 Que # 128 Que Requirements and specifications are always changing in the systems integration business. B. an explicit work and product description a generic statement of the requirements a basic contract. A. D. B. and something of value in a legal document. the contract must be comprised of ________. E. therefore. B. A. The ________ contract has an objective of a pre-determined end price while the ________ contract has an objective of a target end price.A. services. B. the buyer (owner) will attempt to transfer the risk to the seller (project sponsor). D. cost-plus end price. C. A. full value. To define the goods. E. target price PMgroup Planning 130 Que # 130 Que A contract is a promise to provide goods and/or services to one party in return for something of value from that party. D. partial value definitive. Therefore. a statement of work. C. and a list of documentation requirements statements of the requirements using language that describes the physical characteristics and the amount of money to be paid for the delivered products none of the above PMgroup Planning 131 Que # 131 Que The selection of the type of contract is important because of the cost risk involved. fixed price cost-plus time and materials definitive . will always attempt to award a(n) ________ contract to the seller. D. B.
C. E. A. Given a choice. incentive fee PMgroup Planning 132 Que # 132 Que The buyer has not completely defined all the requirements for the project but has enough definition to start. E. issued by the project procurement section received by the vendor filled by the vendor accepted and signed by the vendor completed through delivery of the products by the vendor PMgroup Planning 135 Que # 135 Que The marketplace often dictates the price of products and services through competitive or noncompetitive supply situations. E. letter cost-plus fixed price variable price temporary PMgroup Planning 133 Que # 133 Que Contracts may be written in any form that is understandable and enforceable. C.E. D. and often project personnel attempt to be "creative" in developing the document. mixed competition pure competition monopolistic competition oligopoly monopoly PMgroup Executing 136 Que # 136 . E. D. D. prepare a unique contract tailor an old contract use standard clauses in contracts avoid using contractual documents mix standard and unique clauses PMgroup Executing 134 Que # 134 Que A purchase order can be considered a contract with a vendor to provide a number of parts or components that will be used in project implementation. B. B. D. A. C. The purchase order becomes a "contract" when it is ________. it is best to ________ to meet the requirements of the project. C. The type of contract that will most likely be awarded while additional requirements are being finalized is the ________ contract. B. However. B. A. A. ________ is not a market condition. which will vary from many suppliers to one supplier.
A. separate contracts between the customer and the project stand-alone subcontracts to the prime contract an integral part of the prime contract as an amendment secondary in legality to the prime contract . change notice new contract change order proposal plan PMgroup Executing 140 Que # 140 Que Changes to a contract are approved and signed by both the buyer and seller as the desired performance requirements. B. D. requisition requirement solicitation award contractual A. D. B. A. These changes are ________. availability of people availability of funds technology/know-how availability of contractors/manufacturers price PMgroup Executing 138 Que # 138 Que A contract is a stand-alone legal document and must be individually managed to ensure the proper performance. PMgroup Planning 137 Que # 137 Que Project management. B. and post-award phases and five cycles that describe the activities under the phases. has the need to either make or buy components of the system. A. D. B. D. A. C. B. Therefore. The correct method of initiating a change to the contract is to prepare a ________ for submission to the customer (buyer). responsibility matrix listing of contracts contracting manual project contract management plan project configuration management plan PMgroup Executing 139 Que # 139 Que Contracts for projects require revisions to meet the project needs as those needs evolve. as an integration function. E. The decision to make or buy is based on all the following but ________. E. C. C. award. it is best to have a ________ that anticipates and describes the types of contracts required for the project. Many projects have several contracts to be initiated and executed throughout the life of the project. D. E.Que The contracting process for the negotiation and legal execution is divided into pre-award. E. C. The first cycle under the pre-award phase is the ________ cycle. C.
B. function. and function/performance PMgroup Executing 142 Que # 142 Que Warranties are given in two manners. If the project manager knowingly accepts faulty material. and maintainability desirability. reliability. function. D. A. 25 50 . A. A. A. C. C. E. E. durability. reliability. including ________. maintainability. reliability. and desirability appearance. the vendor is usually ________ any damages that the material may cause. is always given by a sales person is always written at the time of sale gives specific descriptions of the product's qualities is not a recorded statement of the characteristics of the product none of the above PMgroup Executing 143 Que # 143 Que A project manager may issue a "waiver" on items received from a vendor because the items are less than the purchase order specified. E. and maintainability reliability. C. whether the delays were necessary for safety whether the delay could be anticipated by the project manager who caused the delay (buyer or seller) and the nature of the interruption why the delay affected the delivery of the system all of the above PMgroup Executing 145 Que # 145 Que Performance bonds are required by some contracts to ensure the project is completed and the system functions as specified. E. D. the key(s) to the issue is/are ________. B. description. either implied or expressed. durability. D. The implied warranty differs from the expressed warranty in that the implied warranty ________. primary in legality and the prime contract becomes secondary PMgroup Executing 141 Que # 141 Que The concept of warranty is based upon one party's assurance that the product or service will meet certain standards of quality. A. Although the contract specifies a specific monetary penalty for delays. A performance bond should never be for less than ________ percent of the contract price. held responsible for relieved of responsibility for made to pay a percentage of willing to repair/correct not paid in the amount of PMgroup Executing 144 Que # 144 Que A contract may include a clause that imposes a penalty on the project for late delivery of the completed system. and reparability condition. B.E. B. C. B. desirability. D. performance.
service. Therefore. B. 75 100 none of the above PMgroup Executing 146 Que # 146 Que Payment bonds are often required by the contract and require specific actions under the stated conditions. A. or system on or before that date. B. C. E. When a time is not specified in a contract. it is assumed that performance must be completed ________. Payment bonds are specifically designed to ensure payment of ________ by the prime contractor. when a contract administrator is assigned to the project. D. E. the project manager ________ the contract. A. D. at the same pace as other work sooner than contracts of a lesser dollar value in the order in which the work (contract) was accepted as soon as possible. E. all of which consume his/her time. C. E. understand the need for the product. laborers. A. breech stop-work flawed contract contract in situ none of the above PMgroup Executing 148 Que # 148 Que The time of delivery for a contract is often specified to ensure that both parties. does not need to manage can transfer all responsibility to the contract administrator for matters related to must still manage all major aspects of must know only the general contents of is not concerned with the management of PMgroup Closing 150 Que # 150 .C. B. A. D. and materials damages for accidents caused PMgroup Closing 147 Que # 147 Que Some contracts are not completed because the contractor fails or refuses to complete the contractual conditions. but without causing the seller any additional expense within a reasonable time PMgroup Executing 149 Que # 149 Que The project manager is responsible for all the activities within a project and interfaces with external functions. D. B. This situation is called a ________ for which damages can be assigned. D. E. C. C. the buyer and seller. insurance premiums weekly payrolls incremental earned value charges subcontractors.
A. what the contractor (seller) is to provide. From a contractual point of view. the primary focus is on obtaining a product or service without regard for the termination. E. what procedures are to be used. D. Therefore. fixes on a date that designates completion permits adjustments to the perceived termination. how the work is to be performed. PMgroup Executing 151 Que # 151 Que In initiating a contract. B. B. the prime consideration is to determine ________. the profit made on this project who must be notified that the contract is completed the degree to which the project met the provisions of the contract what reports are required to terminate the contract how many changes were made in the course of the project and whether all the changes are accounted for A. A. C. how the work will be performed C. who will perform the work B. a contract should always have a method of removing the obstacles to progress. E. D. This review establishes the baseline for ________. The contract for goods or services should have a termination provision (after successful completion) that ________. E. the procedures to be used . C. C. B. when the work is to be performed. D.Que The final step on a project is the close-out phase where all activities are to be terminated in a business-like fashion. how the work is to be performed E. C. payment of current bills and incentive bonuses demonstrated performance and future potential future pricing and costs work measurement and work standards none of the above PMgroup Planning 154 Que # 154 Que Project contracts can be separated into two broad categories A. B. when necessary requires a specific action on the part of the seller and the buyer requires the seller to demonstrate the product's capability requires the buyer to formally accept the product on a specific date PMgroup Executing 152 Que # 152 Que The language of contracts does not preclude misunderstanding and situations that adversely affect project completion. D. A. One method is to form a ________ committee to address matters that the project manager and the customer's representative cannot handle. top management disputes resolution problem processing steering none of the above PMgroup Closing 153 Que # 153 Que It is important to review the performance of subcontractors during postcontract evaluations. who may be used to perform the work. what performance standards will be used D. E.
disregard the owner's suggestions unless it precludes the contractor from obtaining the contract immediately make changes to follow the owner's suggestions although the contractor believes the replacements are less qualified discuss the suggestions with the owner and clarify the qualifications of individuals prior to making a change tell the owner that personnel working on the contract are not his/her responsibility and make no changes tell the owner that the individuals will be replaced and ignore the situation (the owner is not responsible for personnel selection) PMgroup Planning 157 Que # 157 Que The contractor (seller) accepts all liability for engineering errors. E. submit proposals. A. B. B. submit proposals PMgroup Executing 159 Que # 159 . C.PMgroup Planning 155 Que # 155 Que In a cost-reimbursable contract. D. B. D. the owner (buyer) must assess the capability of the contractor (seller) to perform the work. the owner (buyer) accepts most of the ________. review proposals receive invitation for bid. E. review proposals. E. select bidder prepare proposals. letter incentive fee cost-plus fixed price variable production PMgroup Executing 158 Que # 158 Que Contracting for project work follows a set sequence of activities that ensures a favorable contracting strategy. and consequential damages under a(n) ________ contract. risk and exercises more control over the project cost and has a greater interest in the schedule design work and influences the end product project management and daily direction of the work force planning function and cost disbursements for the project PMgroup Planning 156 Que # 156 Que During the proposal and bidding phase. if the owner believes the proposed team consists of some individuals who do not have the requisite qualifications and suggests that these individuals be replaced. C. submit bid prepare proposals. Therefore. the contractor should ________. the owner has more input as to how the work is accomplished as compared to a fixed price contract. The sequence of contracting activities includes the following A. A. C. select winner prepare proposals. B. For example. A. receive proposals. D. review invitation for bid. poor workmanship. C. E. D. evaluate proposals. receive proposals.
must contain specific items to obligate or bind the tendering organization. A. C. C. E. B. financial stability. which will minimize the competition. and interest capital. The evaluators must be aware of the need to balance fact versus judgment. experience. and cost A. A. C. The four key items to be used in contractor screening are ________. PMgroup Planning 160 Que # 160 Que A request for proposal (RFP) is used to A. capability. and ________.Que Contractor screening is important to ensure that candidates are capable of performing the work and the number is neither excessive. capacity. B. D. establish project baselines. risk. the complete description of the work to be performed the list of terms and conditions the signature of a corporate officer a statement of work that describes how the work will be accomplished a price for the complete work to be performed PMgroup Executing 162 Que # 162 Que The most critical aspect of selecting a contractor and awarding a contract is the proposal evaluation (or bid review) process. which will make the proposal evaluation process difficult. establish a project master plan. objective versus subjective reasoning. solicit bids from contractors. PMgroup Planning 160 Que # 160 Que When invitations for bid are issued to the contractors. C. B. experience. capital. D. E. D. maintain control over unauthorized work changes. D. and location experience. E. The proposals. work tasks versus costs. the owner (buyer) has a format that he/she routinely uses and wants to force the contractors to meet his/her requirements the Uniform Commercial Code specifies that all proposals will comply with the law and the standard format the government has specified that proposals must meet the requirements of contract law and this assures the incorporation of all items the Association of Contractors has prescribed the format to which all bidders must comply to meet a legal proposal it gives the greatest assurance that all items are covered and the proposals can be evaluated in a uniform manner PMgroup Planning 161 Que # 161 Que Submission of proposals to perform work is the avenue for acquiring most projects. when submitted. experience. capacity. E. B. and capability industry. capacity. The most important item is ________. . the bids (proposals) must be submitted in a standard format because ________. create project budgets. nor too few. and skills facilities. time versus price. interest.
C. E. D. The contract also forms a ________ in which the participants strive to work toward the common goal of successfully completing the legal obligations in the most efficient manner. preliminary proposal planning and approval kickoff technical assessment staff assignment 165 Executing When entering into a contract. create situations where disputes will arise. B. C. it is often assumed that the performance of the work will be as specified and no disputes will be raised during the performance period. A company bidding for projects can ease the workload and enhance the potential for successfully "winning" contracts by ________. but they can be easily resolved with good procedures A. C. E. appointing the proposal manager early in the process identifying a proposal staff early in the process having a technical information data base having standard scopes of services all of the above 164 Planning Similar to a small project. The contract defines the legal relationship between the participants and what each participant is expected to do before the contract can be concluded. D. C. 164 Que # PMgroup Que A. PMgroup Que union partnership consortium single team situation of opposition Planning The proposal preparation is in itself a short-term project that requires intense effort to be completed in the owner's (buyer's) format and time frame. while being responsive to the requirements of the formal invitation for bid. it is better to assume that there will be disputes and include a procedure in the contract as to the means for dispute resolution because ________.A. B. E. certainty versus uncertainty quality versus cost quality versus price risk versus opportunity none of the above PMgroup Executing 163 Que # 163 Que Contracting is a means of obtaining required goods and/or services that are required to meet the needs of a project. A. D. the proposal preparation process is started by a ________ meeting where the technical. E. . B. 165 Que # PMgroup Que A. On the contrary. by their very nature. contracts. legal. and compensation considerations are reviewed and assignments of responsibility are made. D. B.
and quality new. and for what price the services to be rendered by one party and the price to be paid by the other party who will perform the work and who will pay for the work the description of services to be rendered and the description of the payment and payment schedule 167 Planning In abstract theory. schedule. E. Application area extensions E. D. C. at what time.B. Project funding availability D. personnel. money. vendors. E. complex. A negotiated contract is one where both participants agree on the basis for principal considerations the period of performance and the specifications for the project how the work will be performed. 168 Que # PMgroup Planning 453 Que # 453 Que When making the project procurement plan. C. Contracts are. and complex work substantial. Including a complete statement of work C. Including the list of potential bidders/respondents E. D. and material cost. D. 167 Que # PMgroup Que A. 166 Que # PMgroup Que the tracking of claims is important for the best "win" position during the subsequent litigation disputes must be brought before the National Contract Arbitration Board to obtain equitable resolution there will be a hostile relationship between the contract participants once the contract is signed it is more economical to resolve disputes as soon as claims are made and before time and effort are wasted 166 Executing A contract is a promise to do or not do something in exchange for some form of consideration. Facilitating accurate and complete responses B. B. Describing the desired form of response D. the project manager should consider all of the following EXCEPT A. PMgroup Planning . E. Preliminary cost estimates B. however. B. unique. C. particularly when they are interdependent. a contract is not essential to the performance of a project. useful when the performance involves ________ . and extended commitments subcontractors. Market conditions C. Product descriptions PMgroup Planning 454 Que # 454 Que Procurement documents should have all of the following attributes EXCEPT A. and suppliers 168 A.
It is an effective method of expanding the list of potential bidders III. E. 455 A request for bid differs from a request for proposal in that the RFP is used when source selection will be price driven RFP is used when the project timeframe is limited RFB is used when source selection will be price driven RFP disregards price considerations RFB is concerned with price exclusively PMgroup Executing 456 Que # 456 Que Contract administration change requests may include all of the following EXCEPT A. E. what is a fait accompli tactic? A. Pretending to accept the other sidee's offer C. It is sometimes required on public projects II. Modificaitons to the terms of the contract Termination of teh contract if teh seller's work is unsatisfactory Modification to the description of teh product or service to be provided Seller invoices Contracted changes PMgroup Executing 457 Que # 457 Que Which of the following is true about the advertising in the solication process? I. E. Cost Plus Fixed Fee C. B. and III PMgroup Planning 458 Que # 458 Que Which type of contract provides the highest risk to the Owner (Buyer)? A. Accomplishing teh phase before teh otehr side is ready B. Promising that a requirement will be completed before it is due PMgroup Executing 460 Que # 460 Que An expressed warranty A. II. Claiming an issue has already been decided on and cannont be changed D. D. Is a statement of the characteristics of the product . B. C. Is provided by the sales manager B. D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee PMgroup Executing 459 Que # 459 Que In negotiations. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost B. C. B. It can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes A. I only Ii only I and II only I and III only I. Acting in good faith E. Fixed Price Plus Incentive Fee E. Firm Fixed Price D. D.455 Que # Que A. C.
Postponed as long as possible to protect the budget B. Letters of commendation to all project staff III. and IV only PMgroup Planning 463 Que # 463 Que Which type of contract should be used for a well-defined project A. and tabulated C. B. PMgroup Executing 465 Que # 465 Que Potential contract changes should be A. The contractor submission C. Unit price contract B. Technical documentation B. Viewed as negative. D. Formal notice of project c ompletion to the contractor II. Cost reimbursable contract D. E. Financial documents C. An administrative review B. I only IV only I and III only II and IV only I. Quantified and fed back through the project planning and procurement processes D. Covers a longer period than the implied warranty Is the best guarantee to teh buyer Can be sold separately PMgroup Executing 461 Que # 461 Que The project's contractor payment system should include A. III. Negotiations over price E.C. Submitted for bids to the relevant vendor list . C. A unit price contract that disallows such contracting PMgroup Closing 464 Que # 464 Que Contract close-out documentation includes all of the following EXCEPT A. Partnership contract E. Reviewed by senior management and the buyer E. Internal notice to senior management/buyer A. Fixed price contract C. D. quantified. E. Formal notice of acceptance to the contractor IV. A reveiw of work performed D. A viable account payable system PMgroup Executing 462 Que # 462 Que The contract administrator should provide ___________ at formal closure of project I. Results of contract-related inspections E. The RFP or RFB and seller's working proposal D.
and IV only II. Free Form Project E. Mediation III.PMgroup Executing 466 Que # 466 Que The purpose of a procurement audit is to do all of the following EXCEPT A. Determine if the bid documents used were effective D. III. Management approach Financial capaccity Life cycle cost Technical capabilities Mode of delivery PMgroup Planning 468 Que # 468 Que All of the following methods are available to the project manager for shortlisting contract proposals EXCEPT A. Firm Fixed Price D. D. all of the following evaluation criteria should be identified and documented to support an integrated assessment EXCEPT A. D. Fixed File Procurement PMgroup Planning 501 Que # 501 . C. PMgroup Planning 470 Que # 470 Que FFP is an acronym for A. C. Identify successes and failures and their implications PMgroup Executing 467 Que # 467 Que When the procurement item is available from only one supplier. E. Maintain a complete file of contract-related records B. V. E. D. and V only I. Determine if the contract change control system was effective E. Fundamentally Fixed Price C. E. B. I and III only II and IV only IV and V only I. C. Disputes Arbitration A. Free Flow Performance B. Claims IV. Comparing proposals against independent estimates Weighting systems Subjective screening systems Resource distribution system Negotiation PMgroup Executing 469 Que # 469 Que Which terms are used to describe contested changes when the seller and project management team disagree on compensation for the change? Appeals II. B. Determine if all required work has been completed C. III. B.
E. how much fee will the buyer pay? $104K $56K $40K $30K $24K Planning Which of the following terms is an expression by one party of its assent to certain terms in the contract provided that the other party expresses its assent to the identical terms? Proposal Counteroffer Bargain Offer Exchange 502 Executing Which term describes the failure by either the buyer or seller to perform part or all of the duties of a contract? Termination of contract Partial performance Breach of contract Contract litigation Contract waiver 503 Executing Which of the following practices is NOT an important element of effective contraxt administration? Preparing contract change documenbtation Processing payment vouchers Establishing the appropriate contract type Implementing a contract change control system Preparing monthly contract status reports for the buyer 504 Executing When actual costs exceed estimated costs without any change in the scope of work. E. C. 504 Que # PMgroup Que A. E. B. 502 Que # PMgroup Que A. B. C. D. D. 505 Que # PMgroup . C. D. B.Que The buyer has negotiated a cost-plus-incentive fee contract with the seller. E. D. a maximum fee of $60K. If the seller has actual costs of $380K. 503 Que # PMgroup Que A. C. C. The contract has a target cost of $300k. B. a share ration of 80/20. and a minimum fee of $10K. B. E. PMgroup Que A. the project is experiencing Accelerated costs Cost growth Schedule compression Cost overrun Cost risk 505 Planning A. a target fee of $40K. D.
Que Contract type selection is dependent on the degree of risk or uncertainty facing the project manager. B. C. and C 510 Executing A. E. B. C. From the perspective of the buyer. 508 Que # PMgroup Que A. C. D. B. 510 Que # PMgroup . D. B. D. E. E. D. B. B. and awarding contract modifications occurs during The preaward phase The award phase Contract administration Contract formation Contract resolution 508 Executing Which term describes those costs that are traceable to or caused by a specific project work effort? Variable Direct Indirect Fixed Semivariable 509 Planning Subcontracting may be the best option when The subcontractor possesses special technical or engineering skills The performing organization possesses limited capacity in an area The subcontractor can augment the contractor's labor force at a lower cost than an in-house cpability can be maintained A and C A. E. E. 509 Que # PMgroup Que A. C. D. 507 Que # PMgroup Que A. C. 506 Que # PMgroup Que A. compensation to a contractor in a cost contract is based on Actual costs incured based on the contractor's best efforts The amount of time required to complete the contract Delivery of the goods and services stipulated in teh contract The number of resources used Actual costs incurred minus profit if the cost ceiling was exceeded 507 Executing The process of monitoring contract performance. making payments. the preferred contract type in a low-risk situation is Firm-fixed-price Fixed-price-incentive Cost-sharing Cost-plus-fixed fee Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost 506 Executing Generally speaking.
E. E. common understanding of the buyer's requirements Confirm which bidders are going to be considered in the procurement Ensure that all qualified sellers are on teh qualified sellers list Obtain detailed information on the prospective sellers' past performance Ensure that all bidders attending teh conference receive amendments 514 Executing A specification that describes the buyers requirements with special dimensions. Which negotiation technique is the seller using? Recommendation Rejection of offer Separate offer Suggestion Counteroffer 511 Planning Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller to control costs? Fixed-price with economic price adjustment Fied-price incentive (firm target) Firm-fixed-price Cost-plus-award fee Cost-plus-incentive fee 512 Planning Which of the following contract types does NOT encourage the seller to control costs and. or features. the seller takes exception to the buyer's terms and conditions and proposes different terms and conditions. E. places the greatest risk on teh buyer? Cost-sharing Cost-plus-award fee Cost-plus-fixed fee Cost-plus-incentive fee Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost 513 Planning The purpose of the bidders' conference is to Ensure that prospective sellers have a clear. as a result. C. B. tolerances. B. such as chemical or electronic requirements and that is accompanied by engineering drawings. D. 512 Que # PMgroup Que A. E. B. B. D. C. 515 Que # PMgroup . D. C.Que During neotiation. 514 Que # PMgroup Que A. D. is called a Design specification Functional specification Performance specificati0ons Commercial standard Qualified product 515 Executing A. C. E. 511 Que # PMgroup Que A. D. C. B. 513 Que # PMgroup Que A.
C. E. D. 516 Que # PMgroup Que A. a force majeure clause excuses a seller from failure to perform because of Unanticipated work loads Serious illnss Unusually severe weather Delays caused by the negligence or fault of contractors A and D 519 Planning Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to costreimbursement contracts? The seller's interest in cost control diminishes Payment is based solely on teh delivery of goods and services The seller is reimbursed for all allowable and allocable costs The buyer's concern about the seller's performance increases The buyer bears the greater financial risk 520 Planning A. B. B. E. C.Que The language of contracts sometimes causes misunderstandings and creates situations that adversely affect peojct completion. D. B. 518 Que # PMgroup Que A. E. a relatively fast and informal method for removing the obstacles to progress should always be available. C. B. D. Therefore. C. D. E. This process is known as Cause of action Alternative dispute resolution Problem processing Steering resolution Mediation litigation 516 Executing The legal contractual relationship that exists between the buyer and the seller is called Caveat emptor Apparent authority Contract privity Terms and conditions Force majeure 517 Planning Which term is NOT a common name for a procurement document that solicits an offer from prospective sellers? Invitation for bid Request for proposal Request for information Request for quotation Invitation for negotiation 518 Executing Typically. B. E. C. 520 Que # PMgroup . 517 Que # PMgroup Que A. D. 519 Que # PMgroup Que A. One such method is to submit the issue in question to an impartial third party for resolution.
Fixed-price B. B. D. C. 524 Que # Executing The contracting function in an organiztion is considered to be decentralized when Each project manager has control over the contracting process for his or her project The project manager controls contract award The contracting person appointed to the project is available and under the project manager's direct control Contracting is tailored to a single project All of the above 524 PMgroup Planning Que Which of the following terms represents a contract type category A. and suppliers of material Damages for accidents caused 522 A. C. B. E. the buyer cannot receive A. D. From teh seller's perspective. unit-price D. All of the above 523 Que # 523 PMgroup Que A.Que Buyers use a variety of methods to provide incentives to a seller to complete work early or within certain contractually specified time frames. Punitive damages C. Compensatory damages B. and C 525 Que # 525 PMgroup Executing . Specific performance D. B. 521 Que # PMgroup Que A. C. E. 522 Que # PMgroup Executing Que When a seller breaches a contract. E. labrers. Payment bonds are specifically designed to ensure that the prime contractor provides payment of Insurance premiums Weekly payrolls Incremental earned value charges Subcontractors. A and B E. B. Cost-reimbursement C. A. D. One such incentive is the use of liquidated damages. Liquidated damages E. liquidated damages are what form of incentive? Positive Negative Nominal Reverse Risk-prone 521 Planning Payment bonds are often required by the contract and require specific actions under the stated conditions.
The buyer has also negotiated a ceiling price of $270K and a share ratio of 70/30. and cash flow projections D. D. 529 Que # PMgroup Que A. C. B. E. the project is experiencing Accelerated costs Cost growth Cost escalation Cost overrun Cost risk 530 Planning A.Que A. D. a target profit of $30K. Make-or-buy analysis. the best course of action to meet the requirements of the project is to Prepare unique terms and conditions Tailor an existing contract Use standard clauses whenever possible Avoid using contractual documents None of the above 529 Executing When costs increase because of changes in the scope of work. The contract has a target cost of $200K. B. B. Scope statement. 528 Que # PMgroup Que A. Fixed-price. Contract type selection. and cash flow projections 527 Que # 527 PMgroup Que Executing A buyer has negotiated a fixed-price incentive contract with the seller. If all the following options are available. invoice processing. If the seller completes the contract with actual costs of $170K. how much profit will teh buyer pay the seller? $1K $30K $35K $39K $51k 528 Executing Contracts may be written in any form that is understandable and enforceable. B. cost-reimbursement. E. C. and a target price of $230K. negotiation. and marketing analysis E. D. and contract type selection B. 526 Que # Which item is NOT a basic element of a contract? Offer Acceptance Consideration Pricing structure Legality of purpose 526 PMgroup Planning Que Three techniques used for procurement planning are A. C. E. C. change management. E. expert judgement. 530 Que # PMgroup . so project personnel often attempt to be "creative" in developing the contract's terms and conditions. and unit-price contracts C. D. Cost and schedule estimates.
and C 531 PMgroup Planning Que During solicitation planning. a post negotiation critique should be conducted to Obtain feedback on how well teh negotiation was planned and conducted Target areas for improvement in future negitiations Establish how well teh negotiations achieved the objectives Analyze the strategy and tactics of both parties to determine how to improve negotiations in the future All of the above 533 Executing The principal function of a warranty is to Provide assurance of teh level of quality to be provided Provide a way to assert claims for late payment Provide a way to allow additional time following acceptance to correct deficiencies without additional costs Ensure that goods purchased fit the purposes for which they are to be used Ensure that goods are merchantable 534 Executing Which term describes those costs that are assiociated with two or more projects but are not traceable to each of them individually? Variable Direct Indirect Fixed Semivariable 535 Executing The procurement audit Identifies successes and failures that can be applied to other projects Verifies that all work was completed correctly so that the buyer is satisfied . the project team is responsible for A. B. B. E. B. C. E. E. D. Executing After the contract is signed by both parties. Determining the make-or-buy decision B. 535 Que # PMgroup Que A. 531 Que # Issues to be addressed during procurement planning are Importance of price versus quality of products Lead time required to fordering products Poetntial delays in receiving products and development of appropriate follow-up procedures A and B A. C. 533 Que # PMgroup Que A. C. Preparing "should cost" estimates if required 532 Que # 532 PMgroup Que A. Developing the procurement documents D. D. 534 Que # PMgroup Que A. D. B. C. Specifying schedule parameters in the form of delivery dates C. Developing the specifications and drawings to accompany the solicitation E. E. B. D.Que A. B.
This may result in a cost overrun. it is discovered that a subcontractor has a contract clause stating a 5% payroll increase per year is included. E. 536 Que # Includes updating al records to reflect final results Provides a way for final acceptance and closure of the contract All of the above 536 PMgroup Executing Que A purchase order is a good example of which form of contracting? A. Unilateral D. Quality control plan E. such as minimum and maximum capacity. While reviewing the project plan. B. D. B. D. D. E. velocity. Design specification Functional specification Commercial standard Performance specification Qualified product 607 Que # 607 PMgroup Executing Que A new project manager has been assigned to an existing project. is called a A. What does the new project manager do first? A. No one found this before. Severable E. E. Promissory 537 Que # 537 PMgroup Que A. C. 538 Que # Executing What doctrine causes a party to relinquish rights under a contract because he or she knowlingly fails to execute those rights? Quantum meruit Assignment of claims Material breach Waiver Warranties 538 PMgroup Planning Que Requirements for inspection and acceptance are defined in the A. Overall project plan D. Procurement management plan C.C. C. Trilateral C. Contract B. Bilateral B. or operation of equipment. Proposal 539 Que # 539 540 Que # 540 PMgroup Planning Que A specification that expresses the buyer's requirements in terms of a range of acceptance characteristics or minimum acceptable standards. function. Ask for management reserve .
D.B. C. Analyze cost impact Call the customer immediately Refuse to honor the contract ANSWERS 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 E C D C C A B B A C E B D D B A C C A D E C C A B D E E C D C A B C D A B B D D C D D . E.
143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 B C D D A E C C C B B D A C D D A D E C D A E C A C D D D C D C A C B D C B C C A E D D C E D C C D A A C .
509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 607 B E E C E A AB C C C BB D B E E D A D C B E C E A C E C D A D B .
Identify risks. those which cannot be identified or evaluated) A. their impact(s). Should be deflected to the contracting officer B. Past experience B. All of the above E.e. Should be ignored. PMgroup Planning Que # 103 Que Risks can be divided into two basic types. For a firm fixed price contract.. payment for risks . All of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 102 Que Risks classified as unknown unknowns (i. Eliminate project risks C. Execution D.PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT PMgroup Planning Que # 117 Que Budgeted contingencies can be determined by A. Applying standard allowances C. B and C PMgroup Planning Que # 104 Que The type of contract (payment mechanism) chosen for a project is of the degree of risk associated with completing that project. Should be ignored since they cannot be identified D. and any appropriate responses E. Determining the sum total of the most probable variances of the various risk item properly identified D. Conclusion E. Liability loss B. Significantly reduce project risks B. None of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 101 Que Which phase of the project life cycle typically has the highest uncertainty and risk associated with it? A. which one(s) fall(s) under business risk? A. and D. Development C. C. Personnel-related loss E. Concept B. None of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 100 Que By using Project Risk management techniques project managers can develop strategies that do all but which of the following A. Provide a rational basis for better decision making D. business risk and pure (or insurable risk). Of the following. Profit loss D. Direct property loss C. since they are not covered in the Project Risk Assessment E. Should be handled via contingency allowances C.
A and C E. Contracting out to another party B. C. Performing contingent planning E. Should not be calculated for small project B. Reduce the consequences or severity of impacts of a potential risk event D. Is the cumulative sum of the probability of each individual project risk event times the consequences of occurrence of that risk event D. budget. Is accomplished by paying the actual costs to the contractor Is accomplished by paying the contractor for his cost a plus a fixed fee (profit) Is an undisclosed contingency in the contractor's bid Is accomplished by paying for the budgeted costs of dealing with as predicted in the Project Risk Assessment E. None of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 107 Que Risk mitigation involves all but which of the following A. A. Developing planning alternatives PMgroup Planning Que # 108 Que Total Project Risk. Large projects D. schedule or quality specifications of the project C. Is the probability of each project event times the sum of the consequences of individual project risk events which could occur during the project C. Identification of project risks D. May be completed in reduced overall time than other projects . Developing schedule alternatives C. D. Developing discrete organizational functions under the project manager to handle risk events D. B. A and C PMgroup Planning Que # 109 Que In Project Risk Management.A. A and B E. Risk Response may include actions to A. Complex projects B. Obtaining insurance against loss C. Change the scope. All of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 106 Que Deflection involves the transfer of risk by such means as A. All of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 110 Que "Fast tracked" project awarded and begun before all planning and risk assessment information is complete and available A. responsibility standards) B. Simple projects C. procedures. A and C E. Developing system standards (policies. B and C PMgroup Planning Que # 105 Que The principles of risk management should be followed only for A. Disaster planning and responses E. Reduce the probability of risk events B.
The total number of possible events divided into the consequences of the risk event E. E. Are in a higher risk category than other projects C. Translated the impacts into economic terms for analysis B. 0.12 PMgroup Controlling Que # 116 Que In performing an impact analysis the most effective tool to ensure all risks are identified on large projects is the A.35 D. Concentrates on schedule impacts C. A and D. A and C PMgroup Controlling Que # 113 Que Sensitivity Analysis can be used in risk analysis to A. what is the probability of success for project B? A.3 B. All of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 115 Que Using the figure below. May not consider safety and environmental impacts D. Problems which can arise from self insurance include A. A and B E. The number of times the risk event may occur C. Estimate the effect of change of one project variable on the overall project D. All of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 114 Que Many companies self-insure against some risks.15 E. 0. 0. 0. A and C E.2 C.B. Milestone review and schedule technique . Confusion of business risks with insurable risks D. Work breakdown structure B. A and B E. Failure to reserve funds to handle worst-case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in severe financial damage to the company B. All of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 111 Que Risk event probability is determined as A. A and B. Substitute for uncertainty analysis in risk quantification B. PMgroup Planning Que # 112 Que Final risk quantification and modeling normally considers the impacts of all risks combined and A. Stiff competition from insurance companies C. 0. The total number of possible events divided into the expectation or frequency of the risk event B. Are not compatible with project risk assessment D. Estimate the level of risk aversion adopted by management C. The fraction of the total project tasks which may be affected by the risk event D.
impossible to determine without optimistic and pessimistic estimates PMgroup Controlling Que # 124 Que Mitigating risk could involve A. Cost/schedule Control system D. the contingency required for a given level of confidence E. 5. 10 and 3 for the critical path. developing standards. variation beyond which the project will likely fail B.5 E. 143 D. Planning programming budget system E. contracting and quality assurance C. The management of a contingency budget D. buying insurance. obtaining insurance and developing alternatives B. the variance resulting from sensitivity analysis C. True B. What is the standard deviation for the entire path? A. PMgroup Planning Que # 123 Que The single point standard deviations are 3. 5. E. Concept B. A and C PMgroup Controlling Que # 120 Que Critical variance is best described as A. Development C. C and D PMgroup Planning Que # 119 Que Contingent planning should include all but which of the following? A. The development of a contingency allowance determined by combining (layering) various estimate segments to form larger estimate segments B.C. c and d PMgroup Planning Que # 121 Que The Delphi method involves brainstorming as a method of risk identification. D. rescoping the project and reassessing requirements E. 12 C. A. Execution D. the maximum tolerable variance in any single element of an estimate's bottom line total cost D. identifying risks. c and d . 21 B. An assessment of project shut-down liabilities E. Conclusion E. Program and evaluation review technique PMgroup Planning Que # 118 Que During which phase of the project life cycle is the amount at stake lowest? A. False C. The development of schedule alternatives and work-arounds C. and planning for contingencies and alternatives D.
acceptability E.PMgroup Controlling Que # 125 Que The 200 million dollar nuclear power plant you have just built cannot be activated because a pair of rare spotted owls have just built their nest in your steam tower. in need of a solution E. affordability D.unknown D. identifying. and suppressing PMgroup Planning Que # 130 Que Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of the chances of ________ that will adversely affect project objectives. A. monitoring. an unknown . a known . the mode is 4. -3 and 9 D. reviewing. changing. reliability C. likely events B. an occurrence that should be handled via contingency allowances E. a 95% confidence level is between A. intolerant of basic project management principles PMgroup Planning Que # 127 Que If the mean is 3. analyzing. operability PMgroup Planning Que # 129 Que Risk management is defined as the art and science of ________ risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project. reviewing.unknown C. identifying. complex schedules . You explain this to the CEO of the utility as A. and avoiding E. complex activities C. the PERT is 6 and one standard deviation is 3. producibility B. reviewing. risk averse D. authoritarian B. and acting on B. the importance of concern for endangered species B. 0 and 6 PMgroup Planning Que # 128 Que Final risk quantification and modeling normally considers the impacts of all risks except possibly those due to A. and responding to C. the median is 2. and managing D. 3 and 9 C. researching. 1 and 7 E. analyzing. c and d PMgroup Controlling Que # 126 Que A manager who says "I'll pay for it. 0 and 12 B. risk accepting C. but I want it as soon as possible" is considered to be A. A.
address B. fixed price D. project's C. letter. A. and probability of impact C. risk probability. client's B. assign D. frequency. cost-plus C. no-fault. cost-plus. risk event. and the amount at stake D. no-obligation E. fixed price. formal B. budget E. A. severity of impact. project's E. and cost E. corporation's PMgroup Planning Que # 134 Que Contingency planning is a means to ________ risks to the project through a formal process and provide the resources to meet the risk events. A. type of risk category. schedule D. A. new work PMgroup Planning Que # 131 Que The three factors that characterize project risk are ________. improving. decreasing. and cost of impact B. variable. Since both are attempting to avoid any risk. decreasing. sponsor's D. schedule. while the subcontractor would like to sign only a ________ contract. detriment C. A. This integration of the data protocols has never been accomplished before. mitigation and deflection are both means of ________ the risk to the ________ objectives. classify C. and quality PMgroup Controlling Que # 132 Que Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the ________ of the project. uncertain occurrences E. eliminate PMgroup Planning Que # 135 Que Suppose a project manager is negotiating with a subcontractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer system with data links. lump-sum PMgroup Planning Que # 136 . manager B. identification.D. the project manager would like to award a ________ contract. duration of impact. occurrence. cost. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a common data communication. decreasing. length PMgroup Planning Que # 133 Que In the risk management context. resolve E. increasing.
the project manager should ________. C. ignore the situation because no one has said the antenna can't be built to the specification C. B. A. there is no identifiable problem PMgroup Planning Que # 139 Que Suppose the project budget is set at $2. personnel training program. which are integrated at the vendors site. management reserve B. The project manager submits the following Component A . This represents a major weight reduction over current systems.300. price. personnel skills. To avoid the most risk. E. price. experience. and delivery means E. Each vendor offers to sell similar electronic components. experience. attempt to cancel the cost-plus contract because the antenna just can't be built to the specification B. and profit margin B. contingency reserve C. Before starting the project.Que Suppose a project manager of a research and development contract is charged with building a new radar antenna for an aircraft. assess the probability of failing to meet the specification D. The most appropriate source of funds to cover this work is the ________. A. personnel policies. The assessment is to be made for each component of a new electronics system. delay and perform a risk assessment until the project is better defined through building experience PMgroup Planning Que # 137 Que Suppose the project manager is evaluating the bids of two vendors. promised delivery.000 for the total project.Median Risk The problem with the project manager's risk assessment is that ________.Medium Risk Component C . sales volume. start work immediately to get most of the hardware fabricated so it can be weighed to determine the actual weight of the completed antenna. The weight is limited to 12 pounds in the specification. the project risk has a full range of risk values the project risk is normally distributed the project risk has one high risk assessment that could cause problems the project risk assessment does not have a uniform evaluation criteria for the middle risk category E. and price D. the project manager views items such as the vendor's ________. sinking fund E. and material control procedures PMgroup Planning Que # 138 Que Suppose the project manager must submit a summary risk assessment to the director of project managers.Low Risk Component B . which weigh in excess of 26 pounds. Some work that must be accomplished has not been identified in the initial planning. D.High Risk Component E . slush fund reserve D. price. A. corporate profit PMgroup Planning Que # 140 . A. and inspection schedule C.Moderate Risk Component D .
not acknowledging the potential for injury PMgroup Controlling Que # 142 Que The primary characteristic that distinguishes external and internal risk areas is the ________. technical nature of the project D. Examples of external risk areas are ________. A. regulatory. and social impact E. establishing a contingency fund D. regulatory. abandoning the project B. and changes in technology B.800 with a probability of 0. A.667 when the probability is factored into the decision D. Senior management has directed that risk be considered. inflation rates. there are two reasons for licensing of projects. while the other is for ________. performance. Course A because it has an expected value of $36. A decision tree is used as a valid means for selecting the most profitable option. and design D. The project manager should consider ________ as a means of deflecting the risk. monitoring of the project schedule E.90 success. establishing a management reserve E. natural disasters. and taxation C. A. buying insurance for personal bodily injury C. identification of the project manager PMgroup Controlling Que # 145 . currency rates. Course A because it has a higher profit potential B. harassment of the project manager B. The course of action that should be selected is ________. project manager's ability to influence the risk PMgroup Controlling Que # 143 Que There are two general categories of risk areas. project completion. project manager's perception of risk C. Course A because it has an expected value of $1. use of more or fewer subcontractors E. One reason is for revenue generation by the community.500 with a probability of 0. design. and schedule delays PMgroup Controlling Que # 144 Que In the area of legal risks. public safety of the product D. A. Course B because it has a higher probability of success C.Que Suppose the project manager is planning courses of action to develop the strategy for the project.905 more than Course B E. Either course because there is no difference in expected value PMgroup Planning Que # 141 Que Suppose the project has many hazards that could easily injure one or more persons and there is no method of avoiding the potential for damages. A. magnitude of the impact on the project B. internal and external. bureaucratic interest in the project C. Courses "A" and "B" are both feasible options and can be implemented. cost overruns. but there is a need to maximize the profit on this project.75 success. Course A has a potential profit of $27. Course B has a potential profit of $20. schedule delays.
07 of occurrence and a potential loss of $15. within or outside the scope of B. play down the risk because the team will find a means of overcoming any failure . if it occurs. cannot be determined from the available data PMgroup Planning Que # 148 Que The assigned values of risk for a project is best accomplished through a structured methodology that ensures all project elements are evaluated. work breakdown structure E. A. cause a law suit to be initiated for damages B. This represents an expected negative value of ________. planning E. linear programming diagram PMgroup Planning Que # 149 Que During the assessment of the risk to attempt to quantify the probability of failure and the amount of potential loss. engineering B.Que Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright have value to the owner. A. The project tool that is best suited for the structured analysis of the project risk is the ________. the individual performs screening. project PMgroup Planning Que # 150 Que Suppose during the risk analysis process that one identified risk event cannot be avoided. realistic and treatable during implementation of E. cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights C. Screening is for the purpose of determining whether the risk is ________ the project. The best option for the project manager is to ________. experienced D. A. A.500 B. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a project can ________. significant enough to adversely affect D. A. $1.000 E. statement of work D.050 C. the project manager uses the ________ personnel to make the estimates. all of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 147 Que Suppose a project of $1. marketing C.000. contract B.5 million has an adverse event that has the probability of 0. a contingency item for C. diminish the reputation of the project's parent corporation E. cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent D. A. $15. This risk event is a critical item that. $105 D. mitigated. $10. all of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 146 Que During the conduct of impact analysis for any risk. or insured. could cause the project to fail. specification C.
The risk model identifies the risk events and assigns probabilities of occurrence. nothing-the model is complete B. The money for this rework is covered by the ________. To effectively manage the project. change B. certainty associated with cost estimates D. In the context of risk. what is missing from this risk model is ________. that the risk events must be labeled as internal or external risks D.B. A. budget. certainty associated with schedule estimates PMgroup Controlling Que # 153 Que Suppose the project manager establishes a risk model that will be used on the CALTRON Project. uncertainty associated with schedule estimates E. logic associated with cost estimates B. contingency funds B. the budget for one work package has cost more than estimated because of an error that required reworking the task. obtaining additional resources E. overhead charges D. However. resources. PERT is better than CPM (Critical Path Method) because it deals with the ________. obligations. A. ignore the risk assessment because any assigned value is a point estimate that is never precisely the expected state of nature PMgroup Planning Que # 151 Que Suppose during project implementation on a fixed price contract. place special emphasis on the risk event to intensely manage that item and all interfacing items C. profit margin E. managing D. A. conducting tradeoffs PMgroup Planning Que # 155 . management reserve C. logic associated with schedule estimates C. The cost of materials and labor to rework the task required $3. the project manager should establish with the top management a charter that calls for his/her ________ and the basis for ________ without prior consultation. responsibilities. change C. that the impact of the risk on the project's objectives has not been assessed and assigned PMgroup Planning Que # 154 Que A high-risk project usually receives the highest priority by the top management. have the risk assessment team continue to analyze the risk event until it reduces the expected negative value D. continue to search for an insurance company that will assume the risk E. that the risk events do not address the technology used by the CALTRON Project E. that the risk probabilities need to be summed to determine the total project risk C. A.117 more than the budget. schedule. G&A charges PMgroup Planning Que # 152 Que The PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is a method of scheduling projects.
High-risk projects are always of concern to senior management and will receive the most scrutiny. The major concern of the project manager of a high-risk project is the tendency for senior management to often ________.
A. interrupt or intervene in the project's management B. avoid or deny the project's potential risk C. give low priority to resource allocation D. stay informed as to the project's progress E. give support to the project when additional resources are requested PMgroup Planning Que # 156 Que Risk may be transferred from the owner (buyer) to the contractor (seller) through a contractual vehicle. This risk transfer is usually accomplished by the owner awarding a fixed price contract where the contractor agrees to perform for a single price. For the owner this simple solution has hidden costs that include all but ________. A. conservatism in design and fabrication B. conservatism in scheduling C. a focus on the avoidance of liability, rather than the important project issues D. an unclear assignment of work because the contractor accepts no performance criteria E. loss of productivity through excessive checking (inspection) PMgroup Planning Que # 157 Que Guarantees in a project agreement give some degree of assurance to the owner (buyer) that the end product will meet the specified requirements, but they also represent potential future costs to the contractor (seller), or cost risk, if the system fails. The four express (as compared to implied) guarantee categories are ________. A. scope, cost, schedule, and quality B. design, safety, fabrication, and functional C. mechanical, electrical, software, and physical D. operational, functional, maintainability, and reparability E. design, workmanship, equipment, and performance (process) PMgroup Planning Que # 158 Que A project may have an implied warranty that is not specifically detailed in the contract. This implied warranty represents potential future costs for failure to meet the requirements and is a risk to the project. Implied warranties are usually those associated with ________ , which are spelled out in the Uniform Commercial Code. A. conformance to requirements and safety of use B. regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution C. lawful use of the product and safety of use D. merchantability and fitness for purpose E. operability and durability PMgroup Controlling Que # 159 Que Performance of a contract can bring liabilities that have implications of risk but are perhaps not as visible as the stated and implied warranty and guarantee. Two of these liabilities are ________ infringements. A. trade secret and technology B. process secret and advanced technology C. patent and copyright D. trade name and trade secret E. design and fabrication PMgroup Controlling Que # 160
Project risk through liability comes in two forms breach of contract and a tort. Breach of contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product, while a tort is a personal wrong such as ________.
A. an automobile accident B. an accident on commercial premises C. slander or libel D. assault and battery E. all of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 161 Que Risk of loss may be transferred to an insurance underwriter by means of an insurance policy. Such policies state the monetary value of property damage that will be given for sustained losses. To make an informed decision about buying insurance, the project manager needs to determine the ratio of insurance cost and the expected value of the loss. For example, if the cost of insurance is $10,000, the value of the property is $200,000, and the probability of loss is 0.05 (or five percent), the insurance is ________. A. desirable because it will costs less than the probable losses B. undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses C. indeterminable because of insufficient data D. the same as the cost of the probable loss and there is no advantage E. none of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 162 Que Lease, rental, and hire of equipment for short periods of time to perform specified project work is a common practice. The equipment poses ________ unless the contractor (lessor) ________. A. no risk; abuses the equipment beyond fair usage B. no risk; assumes title to the equipment during the use period C. risk; insures for damage or loss D. risk; denies liability during the use period E. risk; is insured for the cost of lease, rental, or hire PMgroup Planning Que # 163 Que The owner (buyer) of a project usually has the right to direct changes to the scope of work while the project work is being accomplished. Often, the owner will orally request a change and insist that the change be initiated immediately without the normal documentation (e.g., a change order). When the change is initiated without documentation, ________. A. the owner assumes all responsibility for paying for the change although s/he may at a later date not want the change B. the owner assumes responsibility for one-half of the cost of the change until the documentation is completed and then assumes all at that time C. the project manager assumes all risk for the change, if initiated, until the documentation is received D. the project manager assumes only the risk of misinterpreting the owner's oral change directive, while the owner assumes responsibility for paying for the requested change E. it cannot be determined who is responsible for payment and risk without further information PMgroup Planning Que # 164
The probability of failure for a project element is often called exposure to risk, or risk exposure. This exposure may be mitigated by taking measures to avoid a particular approach or use of specific technologies. When the risk exposure cannot be reduced through selection of another alternative, the project manager should ________. A. conduct further studies and analyses until a more attractive alternative is found B. disregard the exposure to risk because nothing can be done C. not perform the activities with risk exposure and save the money that would have beenspent on them D. hire an independent consultant to manage the risk exposure through extensive investigations and new technologies E. establish a contingency plan to overcome any adverse activity, which may include a contingency allowance
PMgroup Controlling Que # 165 Que Project risk should be identified and assessed prior to project initiation during the planning phase. Once the implementation starts, there is less time to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives. During the implementation there may be indications of risk (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives) such as ________. A. numerous change orders pending approval B. instability of project progress information C. conflict between the project manager and customer D. loss of focus on the work by line supervisors E. all of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 166 Que The project manager may realize that some terms of the contract and project objectives will not be met. It would be costly and time consuming to meet some specifications. The project has a high degree of exposure to risk at this point. Negotiation with the customer to reduce the risk exposure is a means that ________. A. B. C. D. could eliminate all risk to the project and customer at no cost to either party could redefine the risk exposure to one of opportunities for both the project and customer could result in reduced scope for the project and an improved product for the customer may cost less to pay penalties and meet a modified specification to meet the minimum customer requirements
E. all of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 167 Que Demonstration and performance tests are used to prove the functional and operating characteristics of a deliverable to the customer. The tests pose a risk when the ________ criteria are selected to demonstrate the capabilities because ________. A. low end; the system will be stressed to meet the minimum requirements and meet all the customer's requirements B. more stringent; the system may meet the requirements but fail the testing C. standard; the system will always pass the testing and not fully stress the functions D. manufacturer's; the system will always pass the testing and not fully stress the functions E. none of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 168 Que Uncertainty is often used in conjunction with the term risk, implying that uncertainty is risk. Uncertainty is an unknown situation that may result from a lack of information to sufficiently quantify the probability of occurrence of an event and to determine the most likely outcome. Therefore, any uncertainty that has a potential for a major impact on a project should be ________.
A. B. C. D. E.
assigned a risk exposure index of >=.8 pending further resolution of the risk exposure ignored until additional information can be obtained to resolve the actual risk exposure studied to determine alternatives that may have a high-risk index but are fully understood resolved before project implementation but must be resolved before starting that area of work resolved before project implementation or the project must be delayed pending a better understanding of the situation
PMgroup Planning Que # 433 Que The categories of risk response development include I. Interpretation II. Acceptance III. Mitigation Avoidance
A. II and III B. I, II, and III only C. I, II, and IV only D. I, III, and IV only E. II, III, and IV only PMgroup Controlling Que # 434 Que Risk mitigation could involve A. Buying insurance B. Policies and procedures for a response system C. Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun D. Licensing and intellectual property rights E. Eliminating risk through beta testing PMgroup Planning Que # 435 Que Risk Identification should be done A. Just before a meeting with the client B. Ona regular basis throughout the project C. As soon as time and cost estimates are ready D. Early in the execution phase E. When preparing the project plan PMgroup Planning Que # 436 Que What is "risk event probability"? A. An estimate of teh probebility that an uncontrollable event will occur B. The value used in mitigation and deflection C. An estimate of teh risk value at loss D. The probability of the risk not occurring at this time E. An estimate of teh probability that a given risk will occur PMgroup Planning Que # 437 Que The major processes of project risk management are A. Plan, identify, document, and assess B. Identify, mitigate, and plan C. Respond, evaluate, and document D. Identify, quantify, develop, and control E. Identify, respond, assess, adn document PMgroup Controlling Que # 438 Que Outputs from response development could include all of the following EXCEPT A. Corrective actions B. Risk management plan
historical results. scheudle simulations. Identification B. and decision trees PMgroup Planning Que # 440 Que Response development is sometimes called risk A. opportunities to accept C. and interviewing E. and decision trees E. Contingency plans PMgroup Planning Que # 439 Que The tools and techniques for risk quantification are A. Direction. threats to respond to B. Accept the consequences E. Quantification E. Are the same for all stakeholdesr PMgroup Planning Que # 442 Que The outputs from risk quantification include A. and costs PMgroup Controlling Que # 443 Que Acceptance means to A. Provide a screen or filter to help determine staffing levels C. alternative strategies. Checklists. Threats to ignore. Alternate strategies D. Expected monetary value. and insurance B. Insurance policies D. Provide a screen or filter to help determine which project risks to quantify D. Work arounds and additional response development C. Management reserves E. Checklists. The plan for mitigation .C. standards allowances. corrective actions. Potential risk events B. Provide a mathematical technique that can be used to create a false impression of precision and reliability B. Checklists. Control D. Mitigation C. Purchase the insurance PMgroup Planning Que # 444 Que One of the outputs of risk identification is A. and inspection D. Expected monetary value of the risk events C. threats to accept D. Agree with the project manager B. Ignore the consequences C. contingency planning. Is important because different organizations and different individuals have thesame tolerances for risk E. damage control reports. resources. Threats to respond to. Eliminate a specific thgreat D. Opportunities to pursue. Action analysis PMgroup Planning Que # 441 Que 1996 PMBOK GUIDE Stakeholder risk tolerances A. Corrective ations E. staistical sums. Contracting.
Anticipated mitigation strategy E. more risk B. The project's change control system C. Event probability B. Contingency plan E. Contracting B. The project's mission statement D. Risk event probability and beta C. Work-around plan D. Risk event value and beta PMgroup Planning Que # 450 Que Risk response development will utilize which of the following tools A. Less risk D. Cost and duration estimates PMgroup Planning Que # 448 Que A risk event description should include all of the following EXCEPT A. involve _________ than products or projects using proven technologies A. Historical data from the project manager's experience PMgroup Planning Que # 447 Que All of the following are inputs to the risk identification process EXCEPT A. Risk Management Plan C. Corrective action PMgroup Planning Que # 451 Que A risk management plan should include all of the following EXCEPT . all other things being equal. Alternative outcomes PMgroup Planning Que # 449 Que Expected monetary value is the mathematical product of the A. Event frequency C. Work-arounds D. Risk event probability and the risk event value B. 1996 PMBOK GUIDE staffing plan C. Procurement plan E. WBS B. The project's budget E.PMgroup Controlling Que # 445 Que Products or projects that use unproven technologies will. Historical results of similar projects B. The same risk C. Twice the risk PMgroup Controlling Que # 446 Que A thorough review of ___________ will help identify potential opportunities and threats to the project A. Half the risk E. Risk event value and sigma D. Risk event probability and the standard deviation E. Expected timing D.
50 min D. Quality management plan PMgroup Controlling Que # 501 Que A project manager has the option of proposing one of the three systems to a client A. Who is responsible for managing various areas of risks B. Project team members who are trained in risk and understand its causes to help construct and implment risk mitigation strategies E. $9. A WBS C. Appointment of the project manager early in the process to manage the identified risks D. $45K D. best case.9K B. What is the standard deviation based on the estimates? A. Ownership of the risks that are identified C.A. $44K C. she estimates that the trip could take as little as 45 minutes. it will" B. Decision trees . Procurement plan D. A project sponsor who requires a risk management plan PMgroup Planning Que # 503 Que A person estimates that a commute home will most likely take 1 hour. 65 min PMgroup Planning Que # 504 Que Projects are particularly susceptible to risk because A. How contingency plans will be implemented PMgroup Planning Que # 452 Que The risk management plan is a major component of the A. Communication plan C. On further questioning. Project plan B. or 1 hour 45 minutes worst case. 15 min C. Clewar visibility of the information needed for decision making B. $60K PMgroup Planning Que # 502 Que The first requirement for effective risk management is A. Contingency plan E. There are never enough resources to do the job PMgroup Planning Que # 505 Que Which of the following tools is the most appropriate for measuring schedule risk? A. Murphy's law states that "if something can go wrong. Each project is unique in some measure C. RRisk identificaiton and risk quantification processes E. $48K E. Project management tools are generally unavailable at teh project team level E. Matrix management has not yet gained wide acceptance in organizations D. 10 min B. CPM B. How reserves will be allocated D. 60 min E.
10% B. WBS D. Random number generation (normal. Cumulative EMV of teh most critical risks D. Explicit attention to technical risk. Decision-tree analysis C. Planned procedures B. not just to schedule or cost risk with consideration of technicalo risk implied C. schedule. Formalize management's attitude toward risk PMgroup Planning Que # 508 Que Most statistical simulations of budgets. 150% PMgroup Planning Que # 510 Que All of the following criteria are considered essential to the assessment of technical risk except A. Define the probability of occurrence of specific variables C. Risk data assembled for the management of the project PMgroup Planning Que # 507 Que The Delphi method is a particularly useful risk quantification technique to A. Risks and opportunties ranked in order of bottom-line importance .C. in the path convergence example below. and so on) PMgroup Planning Que # 509 Que If. what are the changes of starting activiy 4 on day 6? A. triangular. Present value analysis D. 40% D. Identified scheudle and cost risks C. and reosurce allocations use which of the following approaches? A. uniform. Critical path analysis D. beta. PERT E. Mathematical probability that a cost overrun will occur B. Amount of financial exposure C. PDM PMgroup Planning Que # 506 Que The term RISK PORTFOLIO refers to A.2 and 3 are 50%. 13% C. Documentation of procedures and results E. Risk quantification strategies B. Reassessment to detect changes in risk during a system's development PMgroup Planning Que # 511 Que Range estimating identifies the A. Help take into account the attitude toward risk of teh decision maker E. the odds of completing activities 1. and 50% respectively. 50% E. NMonte Carlo techniques E. Present a sesqunce of decision choices graphically to decision makers B. Determine probability assessments relating to future events D. Risk mitigation strategies E. PERT B.
Focuses on eliminating the elements that are creating the risk B. Accepts the consequences of the risk event should it occur D. Should be applied primarily during the concept and closeout phases and to some extent during the implementation and planning phases B. Contingency required for a given level of confidence E. Identifies work packages. Should include assembly of certain stakeholders to identify risks and develop mitigation strategies D. Should focus on those risks that senior management finds most critical PMgroup Planning Que # 516 Que The simplest form of risk analysis is A. None of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 514 Que The WBS is a key input to the risk identification process because it A. 6% B. All of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 512 Que Each of the following statements about risk avoidance is true except that it A. Provides a basis for cost estimating E. Must be separated from the project management process by assigning a risk manager to the project E. and event 2 is 70%. 24% D. Delphi method E. how likely is it that both events will occur A. Includes making the decision not to bid on a project in which the risk exposure is believed to be too high C. Identifies all the work that must be done and. Decision-tree analysis D. Should be applied throughout the project and at all levels of system decomposition and project organization C. lower-risk technology path E. Includes leaving the risk with the customer when the customer is in the best position to mitigate the risk PMgroup Controlling Que # 513 Que If the probability of event 1 is 80%. Helps to organize all the work that must be done on teh project D. includes all the risks on teh project C. 56% E. Utility theory PMgroup Controlling Que # 517 . 15% C. therefore. helps to identify potential sources of risk B. Includes adopting an alternative. therefore. the risk management process A.D. Identifies all the work that must be done and. Probability analysis B. and they are independent events. which enables specific resonsibility to be assigned PMgroup Planning Que # 515 Que To be effective. Sensitivity analysis C.
Monte Carlo method E. Decision theory PMgroup Planning Que # 521 Que Risk exposure measures the A.2M PMgroup Controlling Que # 518 Que Categories of responses to threats are A. marketing. retention. which makes decision making difficult D. Variability of the estimate B. and retention PMgroup Planning Que # 519 Que All of the following are disadvantages of using statistical approaches to quantify risk except A. and deflection E. Impresses upon management that there is a range of possible outcomes and shows the relative importance of each variable examined C. Avoidance. Reduced monetary value of the risk event E. Technical. Product of the probability and impact of the risk C. $300K) C. Range of schedule and cost outcomes D. Decision-tree analysis B. Sensitivity anlysis C. B and D Que # 522 PMgroup Planning Que The primary advantage of using decision-tree analysis in project risk management is that it A. response development. Helps to identify and postulate risk scenarios for teh project . Input data are inaccurate and incomplete B. what is the expected monetary value of the venture? A. and human B. which one considers the attitude of the decision maker toward risk A. $500K) D. Managers sometimes rely on computer-produced results that are detailed and impressive but inaccurate. financial. control. and response control C. mitigation. Identification. and difficult to accomplish C. $900K E. time-consuming. Considers the attitude of teh decision maker toward risk B.5M. Statistical techniques are considered too theoretical when applied to risk PMgroup Planning Que # 520 Que Of the following risk quantification approaches. Forces consideration of teh probability of each outcome D. quantification. $1.Que If a business venture has a 60% chance to earn $2M and a 20% chance to lose $1. Avoidnace. Risk specialists may understand the statistical copmlexities but fail in communicating what they know E. ($50K) B. Avoidance. Accurate processing of poor-quality data is expensive. Utility theory D. mitigation and acceptance D.
Avoiding the schedule risk inherent in the project D. Establishing a management reserve to cover unplanned expenditures C. Regulatory considerations B. During the implementation phase E. the amount of a contingency reserve should be based on A. Natural hazards C. The sum total of teh most likely probability and impact of the various risk items D. Reducing the expected monetary value of a risk event by reducing the probability of occurance PMgroup Planning Que # 526 Que On a typical project. Determining needed adjustments to make during the implementation phase of a project E. Using performance and payment bonds B. Defining the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur B. Assigning the risk to a subcontractor E. Percentages based on past experience C.E. A set amount allocated to each item proportionately E. During the concept phase C. Implementation and closeout E. An allowance of 10% for each phase in the project life cycle PMgroup Controlling Que # 525 Que Risk mitigation involves A. Shows how risks can occur in combination PMgroup Planning Que # 523 Que Contingency planning involves A. When the project manager is replaced PMgroup Controlling Que # 527 Que All of the following are examples of external risks except A. Preparing a stand-alone document that is separate from the overall project plan D. Inflation D. Taxation PMgroup Planning Que # 528 Que The highest risk impact generally occurs during which of the following project life-cycle phases? A. Concept and closeout PMgroup Planning . Concept and implementation C. When the resource histogram peaks B. Eliminating a specific threat by eliminating the cause C. when are risks highest and impacts lowest? A. Concept and planning B. Determining what risks to avoid on a project PMgroup Planning Que # 524 Que In a proactive approach to project risk management. Contract type E. Planning and implementation D. At or near completion of the project D. Standard allowances B.
quality. but it could take 180 weeks in the worst case. risk assessment. The buyer should bear more risk than the seller. risk response development. Deflection. Risk identification.m risk quantification. Quality risk E. and risk response control B. of those risks B. which one will have the most lasting effect from the customer's perspective if not managed well? A. time. 90 weeks D. Schedule risk C. Causes . Quantifying the expected impact of each factor PMgroup Planning Que # 534 Que The most important aspects of a risk from a management point of view are its A. because the buyer has more knowledge of how risk relates to its operations PMgroup Planning Que # 533 Que All the following are purposes of project risk management except A. Cost risk D. What is the PERT estimate for the expected duration of the work package? A. 70 weeks C. The party who has the most knowledge of certain risks and is in the best position to minimize those risks should bear most. 140 weeks E. The party who can gain whatever competitive advantage exists as a result of certain risks not occurring should bear most if not all of those risks C. and risk quantification D. and cost B. and data applications E. Risk identification. because the seller is the party to the contract who is being reimbursed for the work performed E. Developing response strategies for all identified risks C. Scope risk B. if not all. Providing a baseline for project factors that cannot be controlled D. Risk mitigation. risk identification. None of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 532 Que Which of the following statements best describes the principle of fairness in risk allocation regarding contracts? A. Procurement risk PMgroup Controlling Que # 531 Que Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to complete.Que # Que 529 The major processes in project risk management are A. Identifyting factors that are likely to affect the project scope. 45 weeks B. impact analysis. risk assessment. response planning. Mitigating impacts by influencing project factors that can be controlled E. contingency planning. response system. The seller should bear more risk than the buyer. and risk management C. and impact analysis PMgroup Planning Que # 530 Que Of the four types of risk inherent in project management. The greater the number of risks. the better it is to share them among all contractual parties D. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well. Risk analysis.
E. Confirm that risk management has been practices throughout the project life cycle B. Reduce the ambiguities in describing risks when using qualitative criteria B. Contractor's guarantor. Project team knowledge D. if a performance bond is required D. A symptom of a risk C. Lessons learned databases PMgroup Planning Que # 538 Que A business risk A.Effects Costs Exposure value Probability of occurrence Que # 535 PMgroup Planning Que What are risk triggers? A. Project team E. Help identify the deterioration of teh project's profit potential in its early stages E. Determine which risk events warrant responses E. An output of the risk identification process D. Project manager and project sponsor PMgroup Planning Que # 540 Que The primary objective of risk quantification is to A. An event that indicates that a risk event may occur E. Cannot be identified with any accuracy in the concept phase of teh project life cycle PMgroup Planning Que # 539 Que The ultimate responsibility for identifying and managing project risks rests with the A. Indirect manifestations of actual risk events B. Compare the cost of risk response development to the risk's expected monetary value D. Improve the accuracy of risk assessment B. Has only a loss associated with it B. Has the potential for both gain and loss E. Project sponsor B. Project manager C. Project files B. Has only a gain associated with it C. Confirm that the project is well managed and that the risks are being controlled C. Can be mitigated through insurance D. All of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 537 Que Of the following types of historical information that serve as input to risk identification. All of the above Que # 536 PMgroup Controlling Que The objectives of a risk audit are to A. Previous project results E. Verify the effectiveness of project reporting and project management D. which one is the least reliable? A. Take the guesswork out of the risk response management process C. C. D. . Commercial databases C.
117 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 118 119 120 121 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 D B A B C C E A C C E D A E C D C A A A C B B A E B A D B D C B D A B C E D B D B E B C E A B D C .
150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 D B D E C A D E D C E E C C E E D B D E A B E D A E B C A D A A A C D A D B A B A A B D E C D B C E C D A .
515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 B B D C E C B C A C E B D D A D B A B A E E C D A D .
B. -25 D. the decoder uses skills and credibility to challenge the encoder E. +10. the decoder interprets based on his or her frame of reference B. Diane has sent a status report to the CEO of her company. E. D. C. +75.PROJECT COMMUNICATION MANAGEMENT 100 Que # Que 100 Due to the cost overruns. +50. The sender is the one who transmits the signals. C. accepts mixes rejects interprets [PMBOK p. -5 PMgroup Executing Que # 104 Que In a simple. interactive. A. one-on-one communication process. while the receiver ________ the signals. H-2] 103 104 . uses assumptions and self-interest while the receiver sees or hears D. D. there are the sender and receiver of information. she can expect him to remember what percent of the report? 73% to 77% 23% to 27% -25% to 75% 85% 50% A. D. Assuming he reads it. -10 E. +50. B. 101 PMgroup Planning Que # 101 Que Which of the following methods to resolve conflict is most likely to create a "wounded warrior"? A. the decoder is not a position on the team C. C. a and c PMgroup Executing Que # 103 Que People generally remember __ % of the spoken word in 1-2 days and __ % in 2 months. A. +75 B. the decoder evaluates. B. +25 C. Forcing Compromising Accommodation Avoidance Coercion 102 PMgroup Executing Que # 102 Que "Decoder" is not synonymous with "receiver" because A. E. +25.
and signalized visual. A. intercepts 105 PMgroup Executing Que # 105 Que The communication process must have a medium to convey information between two or more parties. sincere. s/he is ________ . D. C. able to motivate and to press for the best and fairest solution. A. C. E. written. a wall between desks and a difference in language skills a third party injecting comments and a fourth party attempting to change the subject an attitude of hostility by the receiver or sender and a ringing telephone nearby a confrontation over schedules and a lack of a scheduling tool an excessive spatial distance between the individuals and one of the individuals has a hearing loss 107 PMgroup Planning Que # 107 Que Of the five basic approaches to conflict resolution that characterize an individual's human resource management style. talking. A. When a project manager is judicial in his/her management style. E. the one that produces a "winlose" outcome whereby the project manager uses his/her power to overrule the participant in the conflict is ________. peers. C. confrontation compromise smoothing forcing withdrawal 108 PMgroup Planning Que # 108 Que Management styles affect the confidence level given a project manager by subordinates. D. B. B. and superiors. B. audio. E. spoken. A. An example of a barrier between the parties involved in verbal communications and an example of a disruptive influence could be ________. D. E.E. cultivates team spirit. PMgroup honest. and listening seeing. and touching none of the above 106 PMgroup Planning Que # 106 Que Communications between two individuals can be affected by either the attitude of either party or an external source disrupting the flow of information. The three common media are ________. C. B. and tactile seeing. and lets subordinates know that good work will be rewarded one who tends to break apart the unity of the group by agitating and causing disorder on a project one who exercises sound judgment in most areas of the project Planning . D. listening. and one who generally goes "by the books" marked by an eagerness to fight or be disagreeable over any given situation encouraging subordinates to realize their full potential.
The communication medium/media used in the project can be a ________. D. B. A. or body language. poised. as the key to successfully implementing a project. C. B. is reflected in many forms and styles. E.109 Que # Que 109 Communications between individuals while talking may also involve nonverbal communications. C. The use of ________ is a means of giving feedback to the speaker by rephrasing the speaker's words to ensure there is a level of understanding. Body language is most commonly associated with ________. C. A. memorandum announcing a meeting of the team letter of commendation to a team member performance appraisal for a team member newsletter article reviewing the project's progress . E. D. D. D. E. 110 PMgroup Executing Que # 110 Que Communication. D. B. there are always ongoing communications in an attempt to reach a position that is mutually agreeable to all parties. twisting and shrugging gestures and facial expressions toe tapping and foot shuffling dancing and waltzing pointing and smiling A. One means (facilitator) of communication during the negotiation phase is to ________. obtain written concurrence at the end of each session be calm. A. C. E. but it would not include a ________. A. C. budget schedule configuration management plan meeting agenda all of the above 111 PMgroup Executing Que # 111 Que In negotiations. and patient use surprise as required not be afraid to say no all of the above 112 PMgroup Executing Que # 112 Que Communication includes understanding the other person and reaching a consensus as to what was said. B. give-back active listening double talk double speak double entendre 113 PMgroup Planning Que # 113 Que Communications between the project manager and a team member take many forms. B.
D. or absolute words differences in frames of reference lack of credibility or trust an overly technical approach to communicating perceived status difference 116 PMgroup Controlling Que # 116 Que Team members may "filter" information to the project manager for several reasons. C. does not believe the information to be important receives an adverse reaction when "bad news" is given fails to understand the information in the context given summarizes to save reporting time takes too long in obtaining the correct information 117 PMgroup Controlling Que # 117 Que The factors of the structural environment can be manipulated (positively and negatively) to improve or degrade the effective communications within a project team. E. counseling session for a team member 114 PMgroup Executing Que # 114 Que In face-to-face communications. B. mobility opportunity status organizational climate autonomy security 118 PMgroup Executing Que # 118 . D. B. B. individuals send two messages when they speak. E. Of the following factors. D. A. barriers do not include ________. C. B. and the second contains ________. A. C. E. A. C. that portion that is intentionally meant to be misunderstood that portion that imposes behavior and the relationship between the parties inferences as to future messages to be sent reinforcement of prior messages random information that does not contribute to the message content 115 PMgroup Planning Que # 115 Que Barriers to communication can be invisible to the casual observer but can often be greater obstacles than physical barriers. D. The first contains that part of the message about which two or more persons can agree. Filtering. The two message aspects are content and command. A. E. is promoted through all of the following except when the team member ________. the one that can be manipulated the most to change the level of communications is ________.E. a selective reduction in the quantity and quality of information. semantic ordinates. However.
A.Que Project managers must strive to improve communications within the project team as well as with external elements. B. nonverbal. obtaining feedback and evaluating the end result of the work restating the directive and asking for a commitment restating the directive and using active listening using active listening and obtaining feedback . and message common language. there are four general categories of communication formal written. C. E. B. and information processor verbal. formal verbal. A. and informal verbal. waste. and redundancy pushing. informal written. A. the one that is not an example of formal written communication is a ________. C. C. distortion. and barriers filtering. culture behavior language traditional way of doing things loud talking 121 PMgroup Planning Que # 121 Que In the project environment. D. "noise" is the word used to describe factors and forces inhibiting the exchange of information between two or more parties. and physical sender. B. C. Noise includes all of the following but ________. pulling. delays. When these three elements are present. receiver. and common understanding 120 PMgroup Planning Que # 120 Que In the communication process. A. communication may result. D. E. 119 PMgroup Planning Que # 119 Que The most basic model for the communication process consists of three basic elements ________. and blockage haste. B. E. Of the following. B. physical means. words. D. C. the project manager may be more assured of the effectiveness of his/her communication by ________. E. D. impediments. D. transmission medium. and mathematics people. The project manager can improve communications by removing ________ of the information. illustrations. project charter project budget project management plan project engineer's notes project schedule 122 PMgroup Executing Que # 122 Que To ensure a team member understands the work to be accomplished. and putting aside none of the above A.
and the project sponsor the telephone. A. schedule data. and telephonic exchanges one-time reports. emphasizing the importance of the work and restating the directive 123 PMgroup Planning Que # 123 Que Communication to a group in a meeting multiplies the potential for misunderstanding unless the structure is maintained. D. C. E. These are the ________. D. B. C. C. C. periodic visits to the customer. customer. D. financial department. E. project team members. E. E. and prime contractors 126 PMgroup Planning Que # 126 Que The project manager must maintain an effective communication link with the customer to ensure the customer's satisfaction with the progress of the project. objectives may not be realistic starting the meeting before all participants arrive ensures some people do not have all the information asking for additional comments on a subject only increases the amount of information to be processed silence on a matter does not ensure communication addressing only one item at a time does not provide all related information to be processed 124 PMgroup Executing Que # 124 Que Meeting management facilitates the communication of information between individuals. project matrix workers. B. and project team client. facsimile. and data transmission periodic project reports. project team. impressing everyone with the project manager's power providing an opportunity for individuals to discuss personal grievances presenting project information and making a decision on project direction giving the team a chance to talk about its experience forcing a decision out of the team because any outcome is going to be unfavorable 125 PMgroup Planning Que # 125 Que The project manager has three primary interests who need information and are involved in the project's success. D. and monthly reports cost data. A.E. and subcontractors vendors. and project sponsor/boss customer. weekly reports. One major communication consideration in obtaining an understanding and commitment is that ________. and functional departments project team. A. B. client. B. subordinates. and performance data 127 PMgroup Controlling Que # 127 . A. subcontractors. A legitimate reason for assembling the project team in a meeting includes ________. The project manager maintains this link through ________.
A. schedule. the project manager himself/herself team members knowledgeable of the areas the customer the functional departments none of the above A. and the time frame for work personally talk to each team member to determine what he/she would like to do on the project and how that can be accommodated call a briefing session to set objectives of the management and direct how these objectives will be met call a kickoff meeting to present the objectives and open the floor for discussion on how the objectives will be achieved prepare a work assignment list and send a copy to each individual tasked with accomplishing a planning task 129 PMgroup Planning Que # 129 Que In the project environment. D. A. B. and technical aspects of the project that should be presented by ________. B. The best method of initiating the communication process with the team and to establish the expectations of the project team is to ________. B. A. B. limit the authority of staff members on matters that are the prerogative of the project manager define who can talk to whom within the project so effective communications can be conducted prevent senior management from "legally" asking questions of the lower-level staff members define the project manager's communication authority and responsibilities protect staff members from extraneous requests and directions 130 PMgroup Executing Que # 130 Que The project environment is always in need of effective communication for individuals to exchange and understand information. C. 128 PMgroup Planning Que # 128 Que Suppose the project manager is appointed to manage a new project that has just been given approval to start the planning requirements. The project manager is new to the organization and has inherited a project team previously selected by top management. This document's greatest contribution to the project is to ________. E. can take the shortest route from the sender to the person needing the information is lost in many informal discussions and most often is never delivered to the intended receiver . therequirements of the team. C. essential communication ________. E. The project manager plans a series of briefings on the cost. C.Que The project manager schedules a quarterly technical review with the customer to assure him/her that the project is progressing as planned. D. D. send a formal memorandum to each team member to outline the objectives. it is helpful to publish a formal document showing the chain of communications. When everyone is permitted to talk to anyone. E.
The most important aspect of the project manager's correspondence is to ensure ________. the customer is always right in defining the contract the customer doesn't understand project management and must be continually tutored in the practices the words in the contract often do not convey the precise meaning of the requirements the project manager's performance evaluation is based on the relationship with the customer none of the above 132 PMgroup Executing Que # 132 Que The project manager must communicate with several different people in the course of managing the project. C. the formal letter to the customer the meeting or conference the technical specification update the contract modification the one-on-one counseling .C. E. E. D. D. A. E. B. E. takes as much as three times longer than when formal communication channels are followed changes the context in which complex issues are delivered as compared to formal written communications becomes nonessential communication because of the lack of emphasis given to the verbal message 131 PMgroup Planning Que # 131 Que The customer-project manager relations are perhaps the most important aspect to the successful implementation of the project work because ________. C. D. D. A. A. C. impress upon the receiver the importance of the project manager convey words that have a motivating impact on the receiver convey information or an action convey an image of positive progress for the project convey a desire or want for the project 133 PMgroup Executing Que # 133 Que Project managers must write correspondence to many individual parties who are project stakeholders. C. B. the grammar is correct the format is correct for the message the message is clearly conveyed the delivery of the message is made within 24 hours the completeness of the sentences 134 PMgroup Executing Que # 134 Que The most difficult and costly type of communication performed by the project manager is ________. A. E. D. B. His/her sole purpose for sending a message is to ________. B.
B. E. B. The types of meetings may be classified as information sharing.135 PMgroup Planning Que # 135 Que Meetings may be held for a number of different purposes and may involve different parties. D. A. D. the one that is not a form of project communications is ________. A. correspondence photographs handwritten memos to file professional magazines telephone logs . decision making. organized exchange of data and information selection of a course of action from options and alternatives future options and alternatives options and alternatives reviewed results achieved reviewed 136 PMgroup Executing Que # 136 Que Suppose the project manager is called to an information meeting with the customer and a problem is raised. ready and willing to give an immediate response sensitive to all the nuances of the issues but have a well-considered answer before responding to the customer ready to deflect the issues through persuasion and argument ready to put up a good argument before giving in sensitive to the customer's issues but refuse to respond unless each is codified and formally endorsed to him/her 138 PMgroup Executing Que # 138 Que Project communications are vital to the success of the project meeting's objectives. E. The project manager should ________. and evaluation. A. A. planning. B. This problem has major implications for the project manager's company. The definition of a problem solving meeting might be ________. D. but the customer wants to pursue a solution at the meeting. Of the following. B. E. C. D. give the customer a range of solutions that might be acceptable to his/her company give the customer an interim solution that must be approved by his/her boss collect as much information on the problem without committing his/her company to a solution tell the customer that he/she will not address any problems because this is only an information exchange meeting tell the customer that the problem is not sufficiently defined to determine the appropriate action 137 PMgroup Planning Que # 137 Que Customers often attempt to resolve issues in meetings with the project manager. C. C. E. The project manager should anticipate the raising of issues and be ________. C. problem solving. Documentation is a form of this communication and is often not recognized as a part of the project.
E. C. A. B. subcontractor. record data for post-project evaluations state a position that is a "minority opinion" .139 PMgroup Planning Que # 139 Que The project manager's time is limited. C. B. A. D. and other suppliers of goods the interrelationships within the project team the lines of communication and interfaces the project manager's role and responsibility to promote information exchange 141 PMgroup Planning Que # 141 Que Communicating requirements to project participants is the key to establishing the basis for building a product to "conform to the requirements. Latent communication is often used to ________. or implementation team will be working on." Poor communication is often the cause of imprecise specifications that a vendor. D. D. B. the project manager must balance his/her time for communications by ________. during the planning phase when little is fully understood about the project's requirements the interface between the project team and suppliers of services or products during close-out when all parties are attempting to terminate operations and move all assets at meetings and conferences when the agenda limits the subjects to be discussed all of the above 142 PMgroup Controlling Que # 142 Que The documentation of a project is a form of communication even when the document is completed and placed in a file for future reference. and the opportunity to discuss the project elements with the team is also limited if the project is to be properly managed. B. the project team and the functional departments the vendors. communication planning focuses primarily on ________. E. A. C. The most critical point at which the communications have the chance for being misinterpreted is ________. A. being reasonably available to key team members without having an unrestricted open-door policy showing his/her interest and concern for work progress through random discussions with groups at their work sites causing relevant documents to be prepared and issued following any meetings maintaining a written record of all pertinent project information and description for use by the team all of the above 140 PMgroup Planning Que # 140 Que Effective communications between elements of a large project improves the probability of success for the project through better information exchanges. subcontractors. Therefore. E. In addition to the communication skills required for effective communication. This latent form of communication serves a purpose by recording the facts for future use.
C. project records. E. and administrative procedures B. record actions of project participants to establish a trail of actions collect bits of information that will subsequently be aggregated for decision making all of the above 143 PMgroup Closing Que # 143 Que Closing out a project's contract is both an intellectual (cognitive) issue and an emotional (affective) issue dealing with details and attitude. C. Therefore. E. information distribution. attitude changes toward the project loss of interest in the project implementation assigning new people to the project having key people unavailable for consultation all of the above 410 PMgroup Planning Que # 410 Que The major processes of project communications management are A. andadministrative closure Communications planning. Verbal. C. and informal documentation E. oral. D. and electronic D. and acceptance 411 PMgroup Planning Que # 411 Que The three major types of communication are A. Communications requirements. Verbal. the project manager's job is to communicate with the customer to confirm the deliverables. schedule reportring. information distribution. respectively. information distribution. performance reporting. D. Verbal. Written. A. performance reporting. andresponse planning Communications planning. written. and visual C. and computerized PMgroup Executing Que # 412 Que Communication barriers are a more frequent source of conflict in matrix and projectized environments than functional organizations for all the following reasons EXCEPT A. D. oral. andstakeholder analysis Communications planning. The communication needed to effectively complete the contract must deal with both issues. change reporting. progress reporting. Communication is the prime focus of an expediter type of project manager Team members are often physically separated in a matrix or project environment There are increased numbers of levels of authority in a matrix or projectized environment Team members are often separated in teh timing of their contributions to a matrix or project environment 412 . and graphic B. B. project records. D. E. and obtain certifications while managing the customer's emotional side in ________. information distribution. Written. formal documentation. C. meet the specification or negotiate a settlement. B. Communications planning.
Team members with differing skills and backgrounds can be asked to contribute to proejct results 413 PMgroup Planning Que # 413 Que A communication plan details all of the following EXCEPT A. collection of performance appraisal data. andd procedureal documentation Security. C. and what methods will be used to distribute various typesof information B. and documents related to the project from all personnel Production schedules showing when each type of communication will be produced 414 PMgroup Controlling Que # 414 Que The three principal reasons for maintaining good document control are A. providing feedback D. E. To whom information will flow. Focusing on concepts and ideas B. Timely communcation. Environment circumstances PMgroup Executing Que # 417 Que Statements such as "It's never been done before" or "It will cost a fortune" are examples of A. Performing other activiteis while the speaker is talking E. Listening to feedback C. E. Cultural differences B. Unclear expectations D. D. and how often it will begathered Methods for accessing information between scheduled communcations All memos. Differences in motivation C. and assuringproper disposal of sensitive documents B. change management. reports. Shared assumptions E. What information will be gathered. maintaining propoer approvals. Feedback Communication blockers 416 417 . and optimizing paperwork flow 415 PMgroup Executing Que # 415 Que Ways to improve listening ability include all of the following EXCEPT A. Allowing the speaker to complete the entire message PMgroup Executing Que # 416 Que Communication barriers between the sender and receiver can include all of the following EXCEPT A. B. D. maintaining proper approvals. and historicalvalue Security. correspondence. C. Timely communication. and communication cost control Effective communication.E. ability to reconstruct why decisions were made. how it will be gathered.
RAM. A project secretary E. or averaging D. C. constraints. Stakeholder requirements. communication barriers. E. Avoiding voting.C. project organization chart. Body Language D. Communications technology C. Verbal circulation of a rumor PMgroup Executing Que # 422 Que Manual filing systems. D. Information retrieval systems E. Avoiding self-oriented behavior E. and organization structure Communication requirements. and assumptions B. Communications requirements. not each other C. Maintaining a focus on the problem. and adminstrative procedures 419 420 421 PMgroup Planning Que # 421 Que All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT A. WBS. electronic text databases. project logistics. The project client PMgroup Executing Que # 419 Que All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPT A. trading. Information distribution systems B. Conflict generators Forcing Facilitation 418 PMgroup Executing Que # 418 Que The communicaiton "expediter" of a project team is A. D. Project records 422 . Avoiding conflict B. and project management software are examples of A. A database manager D. Inputting data into a spreadsheet E. A project manager C. and communication technology Stakeholder survey. Seeking facts PMgroup Planning Que # 420 Que Inputs to communication planning include A. The MIS subject matter expert B. E. and project schedule Stakeholder analysis. Memos B. communication technology. Videos C. Internal communications systems D.
In which project partidcipants act as a coordinated team In which a functional level of management exists 425 426 PMgroup Executing Que # 426 Que Communication is the PRIME responsibilty of a Project A. Coordinator C. E. Manager in a weak matrix environment D.423 PMgroup Executing Que # 423 Que Most project managers spend about ___________ of their work time engaged in some form of communications A. Manager in a strong matrix environment E. Executive requirements D. Expediter B. Immediacy of the need for information PMgroup Executing Que # 428 Que The best overall effective method of resolving conflict in a project environment is 427 428 . 10% 30% 50% 70% 90% 424 PMgroup Executing Que # 424 Que All of the following are important if the project manager is to effectively manage communications within the project team EXCEPT A. Formalizing and controlling communication between team members B. In which all team members are brought together in one location B. Manager in a projectized environment PMgroup Executing Que # 427 Que Communications technology factors include all of the following EXCEPT A. Between a weak matrix and a strong matrix C. Project length C. Recognizing the importance of the interpersonal cmomunication network E. E. Availability of technology E. In which functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to boththeir own departments and to the project manager D. B. Understanding that communication involves both sending and receiving messages PMgroup Planning Que # 425 Que A "tight matrix" is an organizational option A. C. D. Promoting harmony and trust between team members C. Ensuring that feedback occurs in both directions D. Expected staffing levels B.
Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships Logistics of how many individuals will be involved with the project and at which locations External information needs. and specialties involved in the project The availability of technology in place at the project location Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationship 431 432 PMgroup Controlling Que # 432 Que Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the product of the proejct should be prepared and distributed ______________. D. project team. D. A. Trend analysis Decision tree analysis Earned value analysis Performance reviews Information distribution tools and techniques 430 PMgroup Executing Que # 430 Que The sender is responsible for A. C. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message C. C. Smoothing Withdrawal Problem solving Compromise Confrontation 429 PMgroup Controlling Que # 429 Que Tools and techniques for performance reporting include all of the following EXCEPT A. Presenting the message in the most favorable manner E. B. C. E. customer. Senior managers. senior managers. disciplines. D. departments. and customer . C. Project manager.A. sponsor. B. As part of Administrative Closure Following the plan as outlined in Quality Management As requested by uppoer management As part of contract close-out As the last step in project management 501 PMgroup Planning Que # 501 Que The four key stakeholders on every project are A. B. E. B. E. and functional managers B. E. D. Interpreting the message correctly PMgroup Executing Que # 431 Que Information required to determine project communications requirements typically includes all of the following EXCEPT A. Confirming message is understood D. Scheduling communication exchange B.
C. senior managers. A project manager in this situation should A. determining the master schedule. providing performance appraisals to project team members. typically all the following information is needed except A. departments. and specialities involved in the project C. D. developing the project scope statement. customer. Plan a presentation strategy E. Developing the WBS. Project audit requirements PMgroup Planning Que # 504 Que The first step in preparing a presentation is to A. and managing project changes Developing the project team. working with functional managers. working with functional managers to ensure that resources are available to support the project. and customer Suppliers. E. Assess the environment in which the presentation will be delivered PMgroup Planning Que # 505 Que The three project situations that require the most negotiation skills are A. B. D. and managing changes after the project is underway Securing uppoer management support for the project. and sponsors 502 PMgroup Executing Que # 502 Que Miscommunication. Disciplines. performing organizatoin and sponsor Project manager. C. and scope statement Using subcontractors. Define the audience B. External communication requirements E. customers. WBS. disparities in information. The number of individuals involved in the project and their locations D. Determine the objective C. C. functional managers. Project manager. contractors. E. and developing the WBS B. Be extremely clear when communicating with team members Develop a communication plan to ensure that team members are kept informed of team issues Keep communication flowing to conteract the isolation of individuals on distributed teams Facilitate clear communication by encouraging the technique of having one person repeat what was heard to ensure understanding All of the above 503 PMgroup Planning Que # 503 Que To determine project communication requirements. E. and unequal access to information are significant trust inhibitors on teams that are not collocated. and building the project team Planning 504 505 PMgroup . Stakeholders' responsibilities and relationships with the project organization B. Decide on the general form of the presentation D. D.
D. Earned value analysis E. C. and C 507 PMgroup Planning Que # 507 Que Of the following qualifications. E. Setting team goals and objectives C. Variance analysis C. Performance reviews B. 506 The purpose of the communication management plan is to provide Detailed information on the methods that will be used to gather and store informatoin A description of the information to be distributed. which one integrates cost and schedule information as a key element of its approach? A. content. a project manager should A. Establishing working relationships and lines of communication B. C. Trend analysis D. Information distribution tools and techniques PMgroup Controlling Que # 511 Que The 50-50 rule of progress reporting is used to 511 . B. Discussing specific legal issues regarding the contract PMgroup Planning Que # 509 Que When communicating with a process-oriented person. D. Reviewing project plans D.506 Que # Que A. including its format. B. C. Establishing individual and group responsibilities and accountabilities E. which one is the most important for a project manager? A. B. Remain patient when the other person digresses on arcane topics Emphasize the practicality of his or her ideas Present ideas in a logical. step-by-step manner Allow for small talk. E. D. B. focusing on procedural details Reference his or her recomendations to TQM practices 509 510 PMgroup Controlling Que # 510 Que Of the five tools and techniques for performance reporting. E. Has supervisory experience Is a qualified negotiator Is profit oriented Is educated in a technical field Works well with others 508 PMgroup Planning Que # 508 Que All the following are objectives of the kickoff meeting except A. and level of detail and the conventions and definitions to be used A procedure to update the communication management plan as the project progresses A and B A.
ETC PMgroup Executing Que All the following are barriers to communication except A. BCWS B. C. B. ACWS E. BCWP C. Liquiated damages provisions in fixed-price contracts B. Detrimental attitudes associated with low compensation D. Working interfaces E.A. Lack of clear communication channels Que # 514 PMgroup Closing Que During the project closeout phase. Personality conflicts PMgroup Que A. D. Que # Executing In general. Cost overruns C. most conflict arises from Que # 515 A. disagreements among stakeholders should be resolved in favor of the Sponsor Customer Performing organization Senior management None of the above 516 514 515 516 . BCQP/ACWP BCWS/BCWP ACWS/BCWS BCWP/BCWS BCWP . D. B. E. Calculate the exact BCWP Provide a good statistical approximation of BCWP Determine schedule variance Determine schedule variance in monetary terms Control very large projects 512 PMgroup Controlling Que # 512 Que The SPI. is calculated by using which formula? A. C. B. Technical problems D.BCWS 513 PMgroup Controlling Que # 513 Que The performance measurement baseline is the A. E. Difficulties with technical language C. D. C. E. Schedule problems B. ACWP D. which is used to forecast project completion date. Distracting environmental factors E.
Communication skills C. E. To exhibit empathetic listening skills. B. D. Que # PMgroup Que A. D. Information distribution systems E. B. Information retrieval systems D. Que # PMgroup Que A. establishing a way to help team members communicate quickly and frequently is essential. C. E. Que # 517 518 519 PMgroup Planning Que The tool or technique used for communication planning is A. D. B. then evaluate the content Evaluate the cotent. C.PMgroup Que Executing When the project team is not collocated. D. B. a project manager should Mimic the content of the message Probe. Que # Executing Which of the following terms describes the strong pressures within a group to conform to group norms at the expense of critical and innovative thinking? Group oppression Groupspeak Groupthink Groupthought Groupgrope 520 Executing Empathetic listening entails understanding another person's frame of reference. None of the above Que # 519 PMgroup Que A. Stakeholder analysis B. then advise Rephrase the content and reflect the feeling None of the above 521 520 521 . One practical approach is to Bring everyone together frequently for meetings Conduct informal audioconference meetings regularly Hold a project kickoff meeting Set up an electronic yearbook that lists each team member's accomplishments and background All of the above 517 Planning A project manager who wants to create a receptive atmosphere for communicating should Ensure that all communication is clear and understood Speak or write as he/she would like to be spoken or written to Have the project team prepare a project communication plan Ensure that team members have the information needed to do their work Ensure that team membes have the tools available to facilitate communication 518 A. C. E. E. C.
C. Increased hostility C. Increased stress Que # 522 PMgroup Que Closing As a project communication management process. D. D. C. B. B. Increased conflict E. project records. and lessons learned Change requests. C. Reduced productivity B. formal acceptance. a project manager should Be as brief as possible and emphasize the practicality of his or her ideas Provide options. C. B.522 PMgroup Executing Que The presence of communication barriers is most likely to lead to A. including the pros and cons Stress the relationships between his/her proposals and the people concerned Remain patient if the other person goes off on tangents Speak as quickly as possible to ensure that all the information is conveyed 524 Planning The project manager can enhance project communication and team building by doing all the following except Having a war room Using a tight matrix Being a good communication blocker Being a communication expeditor Holding effective meetings 525 Planning Of the following factors. Que # PMgroup Que A. change requests. E. performance reports. and lessons learned Lessons learned. E. PMgroup Que A. Que # PMgroup Que A. D. The output generated from administrative closeout activities consists of 523 Project archives. and change requests Communication management plans. administrative closeout consists of verifying and documenting project results to formalize acceptance of the project product by the customer. E. E. Que # PMgroup 524 525 526 . B. and project archives None of the above Planning When communicating with an action-oriented person. D. Low morale D. which one has the greatest effect on the project's communication requirements? Stakeholder responsibility relationships External information needs Availability of technology The project's organizational structure Expected project staffing 526 Controlling 523 Que # A.
C. D. B. schedule. Que # PMgroup Que Paraphrasing can be achieved by restatement In different terms From general to specific terms From specific to general terms In opposite terms All of the above 527 Executing The most common communication problem that occurs during negotiation is that Each side may misinterpret what theother side has said Each side may give up on the other side One side may try to confuse the other side One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said Either side may not be paying attention 528 Executing Which of the following is true regarding communication within a project environment? The project manager must assume the primary burden of responsibility to ensure that messages sent have been received Effective meetings. E. D. which describe accomplishments. which predit future status and progress Performance reporting focuses on examining earned value analysis to determine whether cost overruns will require budget revisions Performance reporting includes histograms flow charts. C. D. and forecasts. C. D. Que # PMgroup Que A.527 Que A. C. progress reports. which detail where the project is now. and a tight matrix promote effective communication If a project consists of 12 people. a war room. B. which helps the project team adhere to the zero variance principle 530 Executing The project manager who adopts the shareholder manager leadership style Solicits little or no information from his or her team and makes decisions alone Solicits input fro the team and makes decisions alone Invites team members to share in project decision deliberations 528 529 A. and quality. Which statement most accurately describes this process? The configuration control board receives performance reports and generates change requests to modify aspects of the project Performance reporting includes status reports. C. E. . 48 potential channels of communication exist Most project managers spend 30% of their working hours engaged in communication All of the above 529 Controlling Performance reports are used to provide information to stakeholders on project scope. B. and bar charts to show network dependencies and relationships Performance reporting provides variance analysis information. E. cost. 530 Que # PMgroup Que A. B. Que # PMgroup Que A. E. B.
C. Planning Communication planning is a process for dtermining the information and communmication needs of the Stakeholders Planners Contractors Customer Team members 533 Controlling The LOB technique is best suited as a performance reporting technique to Display a future job to facilitate analysis of the work involved Show the customer how various activities relate to one another in the production or development process Determine which work sequences wil take the longest to complete the project Assure the customer that the articles it is buying will be available when needed Determine which sequences of the effort have been positive and which have been negative to focus attention on areas for improvement 534 Executing In person-to-person communication. e-Mail messages C. and performance reports 533 534 Que # PMgroup Que 535 A. Nonverbal communication can involve the use of Physical attributes Aesthetic attributes Signs Symbols All of the above 535 Executing Which of the following tools or techniques are used in the information distribution process? Communication management plan. The management plan D. Que # PMgroup Que A. . and information distribution system Information distribution system. B. C. E. If nonverbal cues and the spoken message are incongruous. Memos to team members E. B. messages are sent on verbal levels and nonverbal levels simultaneously. E. B. B. Que # Delegates decision making to the team without much information exchange Lets the project team assume as much leadership responsibility as it will accept 531 532 PMgroup Controlling Que All the following are examples of informal written communication except A. Post-it notes messages Que # 532 PMgroup Que A. project plan. Que # PMgroup Que A. D. E. Entineers' notes B. the flow of comnication is hindered. D. E. C. D. information retrieval system.531 D.
Que # Controlling When communicating with a people-oriented person. Adjust the resource allocation Improve budget estimating Follow the communication plan . C. E. Recipient E. C. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business Que # 537 PMgroup Que A. a project manager should Stress the uniqueness of the idea or topic at hand Stress the relationships between his/her proposals and the people concerned Be precise about the value of teh ideas to overall organizational goals Focus on personnel performance issues first Describe the ideas using anecdotal evidence to support recommendations 538 538 539 PMgroup Planning Que The communication process consists of the following components A. B. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep E. information retrieval system. Function D. Stirve to develop a friendly. D. Message C. E. The project is now over budget. and open relationship C. work results.C. D. E. Medium Que # 539 PMgroup Que A. peformance reports. Communicator B. D. B. honest. Que # Communication skills. Be hones to the extent that th eproject organization is protected from litigation D. and status reports Performance reviews. C. Que # Executing The process of conferring with others to come to terms or reach an agreement is called Win-win Getting to yes Negotiation Arbitration Confrontation 540 540 600 Que # 600 PMgroup Executing Que The project manager has changed the scope without communicating the change to the rest of the project team. and information distribution system` Communication skills. What action would prevent this from happening in the future? A. B. the project manager should A. and poejct plan 536 536 537 PMgroup Controlling Que In dealing with the customer. Disclose information only at regular intervals to maintain consistency B.
B. review and implement contingency plans Call a team meeting.D. E. apologize and get a quick agreement on a solution ANSWERS 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 A D E B D B C D E B E E B D B D E C B D E D A D C A C B D E A C C C B D . The project is now over budget. E. C. What should the project manager do now? A. Call the customer immediately Analyze the impact and request more budget Analyze impact to cost and schedule. 601 Hold more meetings Que # 601 PMgroup Executing Que The project manager has changed the scope without communicating the change to the rest of the project team. D.
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 C B D E B B E E B C A D C D D B B A A D D E A A A C C B C D A C E E B D E E E C D B D A A A B B B A C D .
522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 600 601 D A A C D E A B B D C A D E C B B C C C C .
are customer based and not project based do not appear on the project schedule do not occur frequently enough to avoid surprises must be reviewed by a central project authority before being forwarded to the customer and top management 100 101 E. a sharing of accountability C. the functional manger C. c or d PMgroup Executing Que # 104 Que Project management is an effective and powerful strategy and should be implemented in every organization. the project manager is likely to experience A. False C. True B. implementation throughout the organization E. all of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 103 Que Priorities in a matrix organization are ultimately set by A. B. none of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 101 Que If more than several departments must be involved in a decision. will undermine the authority and power of the project manager C. upper management D. D. A. E. objectives set by the employee C. all of the above E. PMgroup Planning Que # 102 Que MBO usually involves A. use of a task force A. PMgroup Planning Que # 105 Que In a matrix organization. measurable and verifiable objectives B. the project manager B.PROJECT HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT PMgroup Executing Que # 100 Que Formal reporting and reviews violate the basic principles of project management because they A. D. conflict and difficult team building B. a super project manager E. good customer relations 102 103 104 105 . should be considered B. can work as long as those on the task force are experts on the issue D. self-appraisals by the employee D. C.
team leader D. expert and referent power C. the effectiveness of the project manager in making his project successful B. legimate and reward power PMgroup Planning Que # 109 Que You have just been assigned as the project manager of a 15 year 200 trillion dollar project to marry the first couple on Mars. budgeting cost control PMgroup Executing Que # 107 Que The key to achieving and maintaining success in the role of a project manager is the use of A. Catering E. reward and expert power E. b and c E. project coordinator E. climate creator PMgroup Executing Que # 112 Que Which of the following are appropriate motivation factors or reward systems? A. integrator B. difficulty in getting the best workers assigned to the project E. establishment of a lead division B. communicator C. you will probably want to describe which type of project organization in your management plan? A. Matrix D. very clear definition of responsibility and authority D. Functional B. c and d PMgroup Planning Que # 106 Que Which of the following should not be considered as an effective and viable alternative to project management? A. all of the above PMgroup Executing Que # 111 Que Which of the following roles is not appropriate for the project manager? A. Projectized PMgroup Planning Que # 110 Que The difference between a strong and weak matrix is best described as A. legimate and coercive power D. the project vs. functional balance in power and authority D. technical consultant E. the project vs. formal and legitimate power B. achievement 107 109 110 111 112 . direct control by top management C.106 D. Expeditor C. functional influence in decision making C. a. In addition to buying a wedding present.
project team C. filtered listener. and reviewing B. Project Manager C. doing. leading. B. acting. This permits the project manager to participate in the ________ conducted by the ________. planning. planning. personal aspirations E. Task Force Leader D. planning. controlling. limited experience in interfacing. E. functional staff B. organizing. good at developing techniques and operates well in the management hierarchy. the level of the project manager should be at A. Project Coordinator B. implementation. specialty focused. functional staff PMgroup Planning Que # 117 Que The project manager leads a project team that is comprised of many different skills and disciplines. is expected to discuss all facts of the technical parameters of the project will be leading individuals without having direct control over them 114 115 116 117 . S/he must use an exceptional number of negotiating skills because s/he ________. Project Specialist E. strong technical background. and a level above that in a strong matrix PMgroup Executing Que # 115 Que As for any manager. thinking.113 B. least equal to the highest level of functional manager to be dealt with the same level as a functional manager the very top of the organization the level of a super project manager the level of a functional manager in a weak matrix. and monitoring C. implementation. consist of the four basic functions of ________. A. D. project team D. tracking. thinking. planning. A. subcontractors E. planning. avoids conflict. planning. responsibility C. and acting D. briefing. recognition PMgroup Executing Que # 113 Que An employee evaluation appears on your desk that includes the following descriptions skilled. Your first thought is to consider this person for a position as a A. directing. feasibility study. and controlling PMgroup Planning Que # 116 Que The project manager should be assigned to a project in its early stages. B. the project manager's responsibilities. salary D. A. and reviewing E. C. controlling. Technical Consultant PMgroup Planning Que # 114 Que For an effective matrix organization.
the project integration process must be maintained through continuous. effective ________ across interfaces. will be using these skills to keep from accepting additional work E. and liaison C. technical fields D. will encounter the shoptalk of each unique discipline D. The three forms of legitimate power are ________. spiritual and emotional C. A. direct. hardware. documented. reward. and material B. monitoring activities C. communication links B. The three types of interfaces to be managed are ________. mental and emotional PMgroup Planning Que # 123 120 121 122 123 . mechanical. expert and referent E. These two forms of power are ________. and human E. formal. coordination. and indirect B. formal. administrative offices B. undocumented. human. reward. labor pool PMgroup Planning Que # 119 Que The project manager is responsible for the project's interface management. software. personal. A. electrical. conflict resolution PMgroup Planning Que # 121 Que When appointed. financial offices C. expert and assumed D. A. informal. organizational. functional areas E. and other PMgroup Planning Que # 120 Que Once established. direction. and system D. machine. bonding E. formal. physical and mental B. a project manager has the inherent forms of legitimate power conveyed to him/her. A. and fluid C. absolute. report flow D. A. is the chief contract negotiator for all project subcontracts PMgroup Executing Que # 118 Que Most project managers are promoted to from the ________ without having prior education and training in managerial functions.118 119 C. and direct E. and persuasive D. the project manager may possess two forms of power that are obtained through other than a formal appointment (legitimate power). and penalty PMgroup Planning Que # 122 Que To further the objectives of the project.
field sites. and quality/performance D. implementation E. timing. performance. schedule. and assurance E. planning phase. construction. vendor. and scheduling issues C. quality/performance. the project manager should keep the customer informed of the status of the project's ________ progress. and rework B. project priorities. some supervisory experience PMgroup Executing Que # 127 Que The process of getting a group of diverse individuals to work effectively together as a team is the definition of ________. The most common areas in which conflict will be realized are ________. functional divisions. withdrawal PMgroup Executing Que # 126 Que Although the desirable traits and characteristics for a project manager may vary slightly between industries. and customer coordination E. In this regard. cost. schedule. individual. project management C. rebuild. leadership B. well-liked by project team E.Que The project manager is the primary interface with the customer for all projects and must be an effective communicator to convey the project's status. and the project manager must be an effective manager of that conflict. and subcontractor management PMgroup Executing Que # 125 Que The five types of conflict resolution are listed below and represent. team building. control. A. and close-out phase D. testing. a good negotiator D. experienced in his/her technical field C. The one used most often by project managers to resolve conflict is ________. a few common ones are universal. A. in the general order of importance. team building PMgroup Executing Que # 128 125 126 127 128 . 124 A. A. works well with others B. team integration. technical issues. and deliver C. implementation phase. the methods a project manager should use to manage conflict. team. compromise C. confrontation B. the project manager's responsibilities D. execution phase. and corporate offices B. smoothing D. A. forcing E. and delivery PMgroup Executing Que # 124 Que The project usually has a high degree of conflict during its life cycle. functional coordination. personnel resources. project office. but one that is not universally desirable is ________.
A. clear organizational structure B. project's technical director C. leader B. project advisor E. prestige. and personal autonomy. Two such conditions are ________. but one role that is not considered one of the responsibilities of a project manager is ________. Of the following characteristics. with all of its success orientation. lack of trust/confidence in the project manager E. A. lack of top management support and an inept project manager D. shortage of funds for bonuses and overly trained personnel on project team PMgroup Planning Que # 132 Que The role of the project manager has several different elements. but never unity of purpose. clear aims/goals D. lack of top management support and too much supervision by top management C. must pursue individual interests B. project planner PMgroup Executing Que # 133 130 131 132 133 . recognition.Que Team building focuses on getting all members to contribute toward common goals to achieve synergism. all of the above PMgroup Executing Que # 130 Que In addition to improving the success rate for goal achievements. must be interdependent C. may have some limitations under certain identified conditions. team building has many benefits for individuals. The collection of people who are not a team is frequently characterized by ________. team member frustration B. system integrator D. unproductive meetings D. implying that s/he is responsible for many activities. fewer people-problems PMgroup Executing Que # 131 Que Team building. 129 A. must have a reason to work together D. unproductive people on the project team and an inept project manager E. excessive conflict and individual competition C. A. the one that is not compatible with team building is ________. poor project tools and lack of project planning B. but one characteristic that is not a benefit of team building is ________. must be committed to working together E. improved individual creativity E. improved monetary rewards C. A. must have a moderate level of competition and conflict PMgroup Executing Que # 129 Que A team is often a collection of individuals vying with others for power.
all of the above PMgroup Executing Que # 134 Que In building team confidence in himself/herself. The major consumer of time. unambiguous goals as to where the project is headed that top management will not be interfering with this project as it usually does with other projects 135 136 E. setting goals and objectives for the team D. There is a general agreement that all the professional time is not used as efficiently as possible. keep promises. B. The most important information for the project manager to convey to the team is ________. B. that key decisions have been made and how the key decisions impact the team PMgroup Executing Que # 136 Que The project manager is the leader of the project team and needs to be forwardreaching in obtaining a consensus on an issue. C. it would be counterproductive to an attempted resolution of an issue if the project manager said. Do we have some better information? C. practice what s/he preaches. introducing team members to one another B. a project manager should ________ with team members and avoid ________. I believe we are saying . I feel we can now come to agreement on this issue PMgroup Executing Que # 137 Que Project managers often work 10 or more hours per day to fit the many activities into their professional schedule. A. 134 A. making promises E. A. . talking to top management visiting the customer attending project meetings writing reports visiting site locations 137 . being too open PMgroup Executing Que # 135 Que Conflict within a project team can be avoided with prior planning and by maintaining effective communications between the project manager and the team. C. . D. encourage frank discussions. D. . D. I have another subject to address if this is too difficult to solve now E. "________.Que A kickoff meeting is one of the best methods to get the project team started on the right path toward becoming an integrated group. However. identifying project problem areas E. is ________. nearly two hours per day." A. A. . Let's do this . Objectives of the kickoff meeting include ________. E. the schedule of paydays and holidays to permit planning for rest and relaxation the system of rewards that permits recognition of team members through monetary or nonmonetary awards clear. establishing working relationships within the team C. social contacts D. set limited times and opportunities for discussions. social contacts B. encourage open conversations. politics C. B.
but they also indicated that their most serious cause of time conflicts was ________. attitude toward risk. type of staffing. and system determines how to use (27. changes. conducting a meeting E. resolving conflict D. reduces 139 140 141 142 . communications channels. ________. A. failing to organize sufficiently B. The use of a matrix organization ________ the apparent capabilities for marketing purposes and ________ the overall manpower fluctuations as the project progresses.4%).7%). "I can do it better" E. and type of project B. "My subordinates aren't sufficiently qualified" D. difficulty in saying no to people D. The six major factors that should influence the development of a project management organization are type of structure. delegating and coordinating group activities B. project manager-client relations. A. all of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 140 Que Theories of motivation and leadership give project managers a conceptual framework in which to operate. all of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 141 Que Project management organizations are designed to perform specific functions in the most efficient manner.138 PMgroup Planning Que # 138 Que According to a 1981 survey. people available. "Subjects are too confidential to involve others" C. Skills most easily learned through group assignments and practical exercises include ________. To avoid delegating work. poor planning C. there are three categories (with average percentages) of a projects manager's use of professional time self-determined use (46. project manager's desires. "I already delegate enough work" B. reaching a group decision C. others determine how to use (25. spending too much time delegating and following up E. project manager's expectations. many project managers use the excuse ________. Project managers indicated a strong tendency to allocate time by self-determination. type of industry. A. and top management's desires D. and client's wishes C. A.9%). and top management's expectations PMgroup Planning Que # 142 Que The project is often implemented by a matrix organization because the required specialists cannot be justified on a full-time basis. but practical skills are important in applying this knowledge. A. and expectations of stakeholders E. the requirement to supervise inept project team members PMgroup Planning Que # 139 Que Delegation of work to subordinates in a project gives the project manager more time to accomplish other tasks and plan the work for the future.
minimizes D. A. Two major contributors to the definition of a highly structured project organization are ________. B. none of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 143 Que The matrix organization reduces the part-time (functional) employee's anxiety about job security. and full-time staff are assigned to the project individuals know what is expected of them. A. C. having anxieties regarding their next assignment after the project is completed PMgroup Planning Que # 146 Que A project organization may be highly structured to achieve benefits of efficiency. and individual names are assigned to the chart the project manager is experienced. enhances. performing their assigned jobs well and improving individual skills keeping the functional staff out of the project to preclude interference with the progress minimizing the amount of work accomplished so the project will be extended ensuring the budget is spent so the project will not have any residue of funds for reallocation 146 E. additional work without the resources to accomplish it PMgroup Planning Que # 144 Que The independent project organization is useful in having a dedicated staff reporting to the project manager and performing all functions for the project.143 B. reduces. train the individuals in new skill areas to ensure that work is accomplished PMgroup Planning Que # 145 Que The independent project organization provides stability for the staff during execution of the project. C. D. stabilizes E. two supervisors with possible conflicting requirements E. From a personal viewpoint. A. A. and standards are well defined and understood the project manager is dictatorial. and the staff works to only well-defined specifications communications are handled only by the supervisory chain. unstable tasking at the functional area C. PMgroup the organization chart is detailed. C. conflicting skill requirements B. additional work hours commuting between jobs D. The adverse side of this dedicated staff is that the project manager must ________. make "busy" work for the staff during idle time make use of the full-time staff for efficiency and productivity loan the individuals to the functional organization during slack periods frequently hire and fire people to maintain the correct skill balance for the required work 144 145 E. the major concern of the staff is ________. B. minimizes. E. maximizes C. D. but it has the adverse effect of giving the employee ________. D. B. and the liaison with thirdparties is conducted by formal correspondence Planning .
routine work and with a new staff C. better match the skill requirements than those being replaced E. or budget in the plan PMgroup Executing Que # 151 Que There is a long-term need to develop individuals within a company to assume positions of leadership and greater responsibility. Therefore. and the project manager should look for replacement people who ________. ability and resources B. C. will stay with the project until completion. A. it is most likely that s/he will ________. 148 A. when a project manager reports to a senior officer of the company. this organization should be used for ________. are eager to please management and easy to please C. From a practical standpoint. the project manager then has access to an individual with the ________ to resolve interproject conflicts. D. planning operations and with the functional staff E. A.147 Que # Que 147 The open or loosely structured project organization does not rely on welldefined standards and procedures for guiding the work efforts. Comparing the functional and project organization. power and authority C. When the project manager is not involved in the planning. none of the above PMgroup Executing Que # 148 Que The level of the reporting superior for the project manager is viewed as critical because it also implies the amount of interest and emphasis that the corporation places on the project. regardless of their qualifications D. are more mature in the industry and understand the need to complete projects PMgroup Planning Que # 150 Que Project planning is best accomplished by the project manager because s/he can be held completely responsible for executing the work. have problems with the technical approach. B. schedule. innovative or creative work and with high-level professionals B. production operations and with the construction industry D. the opportunity for personnel development ________. will and desire D. seniority and maturity E. Planning for staff changes can ease the turbulence. A. need time to adjust the plan to fit his/her concept of the project quickly grasp and agree with the planning if top management directs the immediateimplementation not like the plan under any circumstance because it is the project manager's prerogative to develop the budget and schedule not care whether the planning is flawed because s/he always has an excuse for anyfailure 149 150 151 E. . are new to a project environment and need to learn B. need and desire PMgroup Planning Que # 149 Que Changes to the project staff are necessary because of personal desires and the re-allocation of resources to more critical projects.
A. A. is greater in the project organization is greater in the functional organization cannot be determined between the two organizations is greater in the project organization during the planning phase only is greater in the functional organization when the individuals are allowed to matrix to a project 152 PMgroup Executing Que # 152 Que The title of project manager is universally used to identify the single person responsible for the accomplishment of work to meet a company's objectives for a defined area of work. and responsibility assignment Directing. ability to communicate and work with others D. E. team training. B. E. are similar but are met through different practices are similar and are met through similar practices are similar for major responsibilities but different for the detailed practices to meet the responsibilities are considerably different and follow the practices of the industry for meeting the responsibilities are somewhat different but generally follow the same practices for meeting the responsibilities 153 PMgroup Executing Que # 153 Que The role of the project manager will differ depending upon whether s/he works for the owner (buyer). PMgroup Disciplinary. all of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 154 Que The project manager's authority should be commensurate with the degree of assigned responsibility. the letter of appointment or the project charter D.A. performing contractor. a special letter to the project manager or the letter of appointment PMgroup Planning Que # 394 Que The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the proejct team and should move through successive steps in the following order A. are similar and include having ________. or supplier. and performance monitoring Planning 154 394 . B. A. Senior management should define the project manager's authorities and publicly announce them in either ________. and functional Team building. ability to obtain maximum input from team members E. B. D. C. supporting. coaching. Throughout the industries. D. matrix. C. recognized leadership skills with organizational ability B. The attributes and characteristics. D. the project policy manual or the project execution manual E. an informal meeting or the project kickoff meeting B. the project manager's responsibilities ________. however. E. team development. C. autocratic. and aprticipative Projectized. breadth of experience in related projects C. and delegating Staff planning. the organization's communication organ or the local newspaper C.
Phase I PMgroup Planning Que # 398 Que It is important that the staffing plan address how personnel will be released when no longer needed on the project for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A. Personal interest C. Open discussion of poor individual performance D. Availability B. To reduce uncertainty PMgroup Executing Que # 399 Que Motivation factors can be divided into two classes staisfiers and dissatisfiers. work satisfaction E. Work satisfaction. performance-based slaray raise D. assignment of a personal staff assistant B. To improve morale C. Projectized B. Examples of satisfiers are A. Project Manager PMgroup Planning Que # 397 Que A project coordinator may typically be found in a ____________ environment A. Previous experience PMgroup Planning Que # 396 Que Human resource administration is the primary responsibility of the A. Executive Manager D. fringe benefits C. Commitment from top level management B. Vacation time. Plush office space. Weak matrix D. all of the following characteristics should be evaluated EXCEPT A. Funding for staff development activities E. Project Management Team B. major recognition events PMgroup Executing Que # 400 Que A mandatory prerequisite for team building is A. Shared work ethics among members of teh team PMgroup Executing Que # 401 399 400 401 . Political philosophy E. To reduce costs B. Line Managers E. Stron matrix C. To control material resources needed E.395 Que # Que 396 397 398 395 In selecting from the pool for team assignments. Balance matrix E. Human Resources Department C. To aid in staffing teh next project D. A bonus for completion on time. Personal characteristics D. Collocation of team members C. A sense of personal achievement.
I. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the project II. PMgroup Que # Que A. B. staff acquisition. II. and negotiation Recruitment. E. B. complex project ____________ is best for handling crossfunctional project needs A. C. PMgroup Que # Que A. and III PMgroup Planning Que # 402 Que For a large. B. C. labor relations. III. D. B. E. and labor relations Organizational planning. communication. D. D. I and III only E. PMgroup Que # Que A. D. and team development Planning 404 Aids in staff acquisition include all of the following EXCEPT Staffing management plan Procurement Team directory Training Negotiation Planning 405 All of the following are outputs of Organizational Planning EXCEPT Project organization charg Staffing management plan Project template Supporting detail Project interfaces Executing 406 A key barrier to team development is A strong matrix management structure When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets When teaam members are accountable to both functional and project managers When formal training plans cannot be implemented When members cannot be collocated Planning 407 403 404 405 406 407 . t4eam building. C. staff acquisition. A "war room" is established where team membesr can meet periodically 402 A. B. C. and performance appraisal Leadershiop. III only D. II only C. and personnel administration Team building. PMgroup Que # Que A. E. C. I only B. D. Most team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the project. E.Que Collocation can mean that I. PMgroup Que # A strong matrix organization A project coordinator A project expediter A functional organization Direct executive involvement Planning 403 Project Human Resource Management is divided into Organizational planning. E.
PMgroup Que # Que A. Monitoring performance A. C. PMgroup Que # I only II and IV only I. D. B. functional managers are responsible for I. III. It is determined by senior management D. Assignment of personnel III. and IV only II. General administrative philosophy II. Developing standards IV. III. B. II. It is weak in a strong matrix organization E. E. Weak matrix C. D. B. E. Departmentalized PMgroup Planning Que # 409 Que In a typical matrix organization. B. Functional E. C. D. C. E. It depends on the project manager's philosophy or style PMgroup Planning Que # 408 Que The project manager has the highest level of direct authority in a _____________ environment. It is dependent on corporate policies C. E. and IV Executing 501 All of the following are examples of team-building techniques except Off-site activities to improve interpersonal relationships among team members Reward and recognition systems Location of the team in one work area The kickoff meeting Smoothing over of team conflicts by the project manager Planning 502 Output per person per hour of input describes Economies of scale Value marginal product Producivity The learning curve Say's law Executing 503 According to the expectancy theory of motivation Poor performance is the natural outcome of poor training Managers should not expect too much of workers Motivation to act is linked to an outcome that is expected to have value Downsizing companies can expect to have motivation problems Managers should expect that employees who are paid more will work harder Executing 504 409 501 502 503 504 . PMgroup Que # Que A. C. D. It varies considerably from company to company B. and IV only I. PMgroup Que # Que A. Projectized D.Que All of the following statements about the level of authority of the project manager are true EXCEPT 408 A. A. III. Strong matrix B.
To rectify such a situation. Physical distances between the people involved in the project D. needing to be watched and closely managed at all times C. a project manager should A. PERT diagram C. A and B E. Very productive when first given an assignment D. Team members know they are accountable for achieving project deliverables C. Two basic types "dragons" and "drones" PMgroup Planning Que # 505 Que A chart that shows the level of all project resources by time period is known as a A. and C PMgroup Executing Que # 508 Que Which of the following factors affects team building the least? A. Support provided to the project and functional managers from top management C.505 Que According to McGregor. Compensation of project team members PMgroup Executing Que # 509 Que Project team members who work in different locations tend not to see themselves as a team or unified group. Unproductive at first. A. Highly motivated. All of the above PMgroup Executing Que # 507 Que Which of the following is considered an advantage of empowerment for project teams? A. Levels at which the project and the participating functional managers report B. Synergy will likely result from team interaction D. the balance of power may be shifted to either the project manager or functional manager by changing the A. Amount of time spent on the project by the respective managers E. B. A faulty project concept B. Ensure that eery member of the project team uses e-mail as a form of communication Recognize that this is a lose-lose situation because people at distant sites are more drawn to staff and events at the local level . Time-line analysis matrix D. Resource spreadsheet E. followed by periods of high productivity E. and reliable B. Resource Gantt chart B. willing to take responsibility. Highly untrustworthy. It encourages team members to find better ways of doing things to meet project objectives 506 507 508 509 B. Leveling chart PMgroup Planning Que # 506 Que In the strong and weak matrix structures. Unsupportive top management C. B. a manager who uses Theory X sees workers as A. A project in trouble D. Unproductive members E.
Autocratic D. Use group facilitators C. Project expeditor E. Strong matrix B.C. Frustration B. Enforce strict rules about arguing E. Limit communications among team members PMgroup Planning Que # 515 513 514 515 . Directive E. Create symbols and structures that solidify the unity of the dispersed work group E. Antipodal PMgroup Planning Que # 511 Que All the following are disadvantages of the matrix form of project organization except A. Projectized C. Lack of trust or confidence in the projrect mamager D. Hold periodic group meetings B. Democratic C. Provide team members with the latest in communication technology PMgroup Executing Que # 510 Que Which of the following is an appropriate management style to use when the project manager wants to encourage the staff to pool its knowledge to make the best decision possible? A. Laissez-faire B. Project coordinator D. C. Project personnel must report to more than one boss Matrix structure is complex to monitor and control Tendency toward duplication of effort is great Project personnel experience conflicting priorities in work assignments Experience gained in the matrix organiztaion can be readily applied to other forms of project organization 511 512 PMgroup Planning Que # 512 Que In which form of project organization would the project manager be likely to exercise themost control over project resources? A. Unproductive meetings PMgroup Executing Que # 514 Que The primary method of reducing conflict in projects is to A. Weak matrix PMgroup Executing Que # 513 Que All the following are symptoms of bad teamwork in the project team except A. Excessive meetings C. E. Unhealthy competition E. Perform careful project planning D. D. Mandate that the team follow the vision and mission statement of his or her organization 510 D. B.
Show critical interfaces between units that may require special managerial coordination C. and assumptions D. D. There is flexibility in the use of staff Specialists in the functional unit can be used by different projects and can share knowledge and expertise The functional unit serves as a base for technological continuity when people choose to leave the project The customer is the focus of activity and concern The functional unit contains the normal career path for advancement for individuals whose expertise is in the functional area 517 PMgroup Planning Que # 517 Que The input to organizatoinal planning consists of A. Organizational interfaces. E. Overall resource requirements. Resource leveling PMgroup Executing Que # 516 Que One alternative to dedicating office space for project team members to call "home" is to assign responsibility for the project to the functional unit that has the most interest in ensuring its success or can be the most helpful in implementing it. Solicit and promote team member ideas E. Schedule juggling C. technical interfaces. Pairwise trade-off D. All of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 519 Que A responsibility assignment matrix is used to A. Conduct periodic face-to-face team meetings C. C. All of the above . Project interfaces. Organizational structure of teh performing organization. Help the project manager keep track of who must approve what D. and constraints B.Que Adjusting the timing of tasks so that resources are not over committed is called 516 A. staffing requirements. B. All the following are advantages of this alternative except A. expected staff assignments. and staffing requirements 518 PMgroup Executing Que # 518 Que When members of a project team are not collocated they have limited interaction and limited knowledge of each other. constraints. E. and preferences of the project management team Human resource practices of the performing organization. Assign pairs of people to work together on parts of the project D. The Multiattribute Utility Theory E. Help the project manager keep track of who must report to whom E. Resource infringement B. collective bargaining agreements. Show who is responsible for what B. and interpersonal interfaces C. Establish ways for team members to learn more about each other professionally and personally 519 B. A project manager in this situation should A.
A resource matrix A Branson diagram A responsibility index An analytical engine A resource Gantt chart 523 524 PMgroup Planning Que # 524 Que The three types of power available to the project manager based solely on his or her position in the organization include A. C. D. formal Individual. C. E. C. group. E. The level of authority of the project manager Conflicts over the relative priorities of different projects in competition for limited resources Project team members who are focused on their functional specialty rather than on the project The grouping of people by specialty area rather than as a team to support the project The need for the project manager to use interpersonal skills to resolve conflicts informally 521 PMgroup Planning Que # 521 Que A project manager who has a low concern for personal goals and a high concern for relationships is practicing which style of conflict resolution? A. Reducing the workload of matrixed employees E. referent. Involving the implementors of a project in the design phase D. referent .520 PMgroup Planning Que # 520 Que Major dificulties arise when multiple projects need to be managed in the functional organizational structure because of A. E. penalty Reward. formal Reward. D. formal Expert. B. D. B. B. Creating teams that have representatives from different project phases C. Eliminating the need for tesing personnel PMgroup Planning Que # 523 Que A chart that shows who is assigned to do a task without regard to when it will be done is called A. reward. B. C. Placing all work under the control of a functional manager B. E. Win-lose Yield-lose Lose-leave Compromise Integrative 522 PMgroup Planning Que # 522 Que A key component of concurrent engineering is A. expert. Formal. D. referent.
Politically sensitive to top management's needs D. D. smoothly running team D. B. E. An understanding by project team members that the porject manager is ultimately responsible for project performance E. Forcing E. Input to peformance appraisals C. Discipline oriented C. interests. Problem oriented B.525 PMgroup Planning Que # 525 Que In both the weak and strong matrix organizatoinal structures. D. the primary condition leading to conflict is A. Smoothing D. None of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 530 530 . An effective. Compromise C. C. B. Differing priorities. E. All of the above PMgroup Executing Que # 527 Que All of the following have been found to be major barriers to building effective project teams except A. Focused on individual project activities E. Enhancement of the ability of stakeholders to contribute as individuals and team mebers 529 PMgroup Executing Que # 529 Que The method most often used by project managers to solve conflict is A. C. Improved project performance B. and judgements of team mambers Role conflicts Lack of team member commitment Amount of physical office space allotted to each team member Communication problems 527 528 PMgroup Executing Que # 528 Que The primary result of effective team development is A. Confrontation B. Communication barriers Conflicting interests Ambiguous jurisdictions Need for consensus Dependence on one party 526 PMgroup Planning Que # 526 Que The chances for succesful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased if project team members are A.
D. Which statement is true regarding conflict in projects? A. Topic jumper D. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers Sources of conflict include project priorities.Que A. because they can dictate their needs to functional managers 532 B. Laissez-faire B. D. Gate keeper E. C. and type of contract Conflict is to be avoided whenever possible By the closeout phase. Megalomaniacal E. C. 533 PMgroup Executing Que # 533 Que Each of the following is a destructive role on a project team except A. contract administrative procedures. a project manager must deal with conflict. E. The terms strong matrix and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure in project organization refer to the Ability of the organization to achieve its goals Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager Degree of authority the project manage has over team resources Degree to which team members bond together Size of the project team 531 PMgroup Executing Que # 531 Que A manager who makes decisions without considering the information provided by project team members is using which management style? A. conflicts regarding schedules and human resources are resolved. such as project priorities and cost Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts. Build trust Exercise his/her power and authority Establish a reward and recognition system Obtain the support of the functional managers in the other locations Exercise his/her right to control all aspects of the project 534 . B. Recognition seeker C. D. Judicious PMgroup Planning Que # 532 Que In organizing a project. Autocratic C. E. E. Dominator PMgroup Executing Que # 534 Que The key way for a project manager to promote optimum team performance in project teams whose members are not collocated is to A. B. PERT/CPM schedules. Bureaucratic D. C. Withdrawer B. but new conflicts arise.
Physiological. love. Expected team assignments E. Recognition. project priorities. and reward C. and cost objectives 537 PMgroup Planning Que # 537 Que A constraining factor that may affect the organization of the project team is A. and schedules Schedules. advancement or promotion. Collective bargaining agreements C. All of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 538 Que According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene Theory of Motivation. E. esteem. health. C. B. and laughter PMgroup Planning Que # 540 540 . E. B. employees will A. D. C. Preferences of the project team D. and schedules Schedules.535 PMgroup Executing Que # 535 Que A management style characterized by little or no information flowing up or down between the project manager and project team is called A. responsibility. administrative procedures. project priorities. The organizational structure of the performing organizatoin B. B. Self-actualization. and prosperity E. and social D. if achievement. E. don't tell Laissez-faire Participative Democratic 536 PMgroup Executing Que # 536 Que Conflicts in which of the following three areas represent over 50% of all project conflicts? A. recognition. D. Become alienated with the organization and leave Lack motivation but will not be dissatisfied with their work Lack motivation and become dissatisfied with their work Become dissatisfied only if they do not receive salary increases Use the workplace as a means to fulfill social needs more than professional ones 538 539 PMgroup Planning Que # 539 Que What are Maslow's three highest levels of human needs? A. technical opinions. and social B. Happiness. C. and personnel resources Personalities. Personalities. D. cost objectives. Egocentric Don't ask. responsibility. and positive supervisor attitude are not present. and project priorities Cost objectives. safety. Life.
Que A. C. B. E. The major difference between the project coordinator and project expeditor forms of organization is that Strong commitment to the project usually does not exist in the project expeditor form of organization The project coordinator cannot personally make or enforce decisions The project coordinator reports to a higher level manager in the organization The project expeditor acts only as an intermediary between management and the project team The project expeditor form of organization is used only on less costly projects ANSWERS 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 E A E E B E E D E D D E D A E B B C C A E D C B A D E A E B D D E B C D C C E . D.
140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 E D C D B E C A B D E A D E C D D B C D D A E A E D E C D C D E C C B D E E E D B E B B C E D A E E B B .
522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 C A A C A D A A C B A D A C D E C C C .
the process is said to be out of control. B. What is the probability that a run of seven on either side of the Process mean is due to random variation? A. E. respectively.24 inch and 0. 14. what answer should the QC manager calculate for the total standard deviation of the length of the hex bolts? A.30% B. PMgroup Differences among machines Differences among workers Differences among materials Differences in each of these factors over time None of the above (all are examples) Controlling 102 103 . Assuming that there are no other significant sources of error.56% E. 1. Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots.34 inch D. D. 0. Acceptance sampling plans are never as effective at rejecting nonconforming units as 100 percent inspection. Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspection is high and the resulting loss of passing nonconforming units is not great B. they instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of custommade products 101 PMgroup Executing Que # 101 Que A quality control (QC) manager for a manufacturing firm is calculating the expected standard deviation (s) for the length of hex bolts being produced on the assembly line. All of the following are examples of assignable causes except A. E. 2. There are two sources of variation in the length of the hex bolts production variation and measurement error.PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT 100 PMgroup Executing Que # 100 Que All of the following statements about acceptance sampling plans are true except A.49 inch E. even when the inspection process is very tedious D. C. If a run of seven or more samples lays on one side of the process mean. 0. 0.78% PMgroup Controlling Que # 103 Que Control chart theory is based on the differentiation of the causes of variations in quality.67 inch PMgroup Controlling Que # 102 Que The rule of seven is used by quality control engineers to determine whether a process is out of control. Variations in quality may be produced by assignable causes. 3. 0. 0.19 inch C.10 inch B. Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are required C.12% C. 0. The QC manager knows that the standard deviations from these two sources is 0.43 inch.73% D.
All data points outside the control chart limits are variations explained by D. C.104 Que # Que 105 104 The same quality control manager decides to increase his daily sample size from three to six. Not determinable from given data E. A and C E. The use of quality control circles B. The use of quality control charts E. Control charts are used to determine acceptance limits when no limits are stipulated by the product specification. B and C PMgroup Executing Que # 108 Que Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true? A. C. The size of the control band will A. otherwise. The use of worker suggestion systems D. . Increase B. The costs of quality are mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are manufacturing the product Quality control programs should only be implemented when the costs of quality are excessive 106 107 108 109 D. Is a performance standard for management B. Conformance to requirements/specifications B. Decrease C. Control charts can be used to establish as well as maintain process control B. a and B E. Small. one should use the limits dictated by the specification. None of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 105 Que All of the following statements about control charts are true except A. b and C PMgroup Controlling Que # 106 Que Japanese quality control has improved dramatically in the last 30 years for all of the following reasons except A. a and B E. Is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time". Satisfying the needs of the customer C. Remain unchanged D. continuous improvements in quality control C. a and C PMgroup Controlling Que # 109 Que The zero defects concept A. The cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications B. Focusing quality control efforts on production output PMgroup Planning Que # 107 Que Quality management deals with all of the following topics except A. Making Products more desirable and luxurious D.
Theory Y management D. The project manager who has ultimately responsibility for the entire project E. A and C PMgroup Executing Que # 114 Que The majority of product defects could be prevented in most processes if manufacturers would do the following . Is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should do things right the first time. Theory X management C. A and C PMgroup Controlling Que # 112 Que In the project environment. The line workers who must strive "to do things right the first time' to avoid quality problems B. C. B and C PMgroup Executing Que # 110 Que Quality assurance A. When the engineering tolerance on a dimension greatly exceeds the natural dispersion of the manufacturing process When the number of samples outside the current control chart limits become too costly and Cumbersome to investigate 114 C. the individual ultimately responsible for quality control is A. Is the technical process that includes the construction of control charts which specify acceptability limits for conforming output D. Zero Defects program B. Quality Control Circles E. Under which of the following circumstance should a QC manager consider using an acceptance control chart? A. The company's quality control manager who must work with the project members to ensure the quality control program is effective The head of the production department who retains ultimate quality control responsibility for all the company's projects 111 112 113 D. A and B E. A and B E. Is an auditing function that provides feedback to the project team and Client about the quality of output being produced C. When a process is subject to constant but stable tool wear D. A and C E. The customer who must ensure that he is receiving a quality product from the vendor PMgroup Controlling Que # 113 Que An acceptance control chart has limits that are based on the specification limits for the product rather than limits which differentiate between random and assignable causes. 110 D. b and C PMgroup Planning Que # 111 Que Financial compensation is the primary motivational tool for which of the following management theories or programs? A. B. Refers to the prevention of product defects B.C.
118 E. including those which do not have a direct financial cost. In order to achieve zero defects. Increase the use of acceptance control charts instead of standard three-sigma control charts Make a concerted effort to eliminate the potential for product defects in the design stage 115 116 117 C. C. management must do the following 119 . Financial incentives D. B. Are specific quality characteristics for which a product is designed. Self-improvement C. PMgroup Controlling Que # 119 Que In order to achieve long-term quality improvements. Originate on the shop floor because of waste and product rework C. A and d PMgroup Executing Que # 118 Que The Japanese Quality Control (QC) Circle movement motivated its participants in many ways. Recognition among co-workers E. A and B E. Could be eliminated if shop supervisors monitored their workers more closely E.A. Which of the following statements best represents the philosophy employed by this principle? A. Create a quality control department D. Originate in the quality department where the ultimate responsibility for quality rests B. Are used to determine how effectively the organization accomplishes its goals B. Strengthening of relationships between co-workers. D. The majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of the identifiable problems. and tested D. 80% of the quality control problems are justifiable for correction via costbenefit analysis. The remaining 20% are not financially worthy of improvement efforts. Generally. A and C PMgroup Planning Que # 115 Que Quality attributes A. Improving the performance of the company B. In order to minimize financial losses from quality control problems. built. should be corrected. A and B PMgroup Executing Que # 117 Que The Pareto Principle is a technique used by quality managers to determine which quality control problems concerning a particular service or manufacturing process should be corrected. B and C PMgroup Planning Que # 116 Que Most quality problems A. Improvement efforts should be reserved for these few vital problems. all problems which have a measurable cost associated with them should be corrected. Are the result of management inattention to potential quality improvement ideas D. B. A and B E. all quality control problems. Which of the following represents the most important motivation for the QC circle participant A. Can be objective or subjective in nature C.
C. PMgroup Que # Que A. C. PMgroup Que # Que A. D.A. B. contests. C. E. this means that 30% of all lots must be tested 30% of all lots must pass the test any given lot must have 30% or fewer defects a sample of a given lot must have 30% or fewer defects to pass the entire lot c and d Planning 124 The pillar(s) of quality is (are) Quality is free Doing it right the first time Zero defects Process improvement B and C Planning 125 When a product or service completely meets a customer's requirements quality is achieved. D. PMgroup Que # Que A. B. E. D. c and d Controlling 122 Which are the best two charts to show trends in a process? Pareto and Control Control and Run Histogram and Run Gantt and Pert Gantt and CPM Executing 123 If the acceptance sampling attribute for a lot is 30%. E. C. PMgroup Que # Que A. E. D. Motivate the employees with seminars. and institution of programs such as "Quality Improvement" day Create a quality control department and give the head of the department ultimate responsibility for quality improvement Implement of a formal quality control program with worker and management involvement Establish financial incentive packages for workers A and D Executing 120 Quality assurance is top management's intention regarding quality functions determining implementation of the quality policy actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements responsibilities and processes which implement quality management all of the above Initiating 121 Quality is zero defects a problem a specification a cost a. B. E. B. PMgroup Que # Que A. D. C. B. D. 120 121 122 123 124 125 . C. E. B. PMgroup Que # Que A.
E. Design B. D. control. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them. PMgroup Planning Que # 130 Que Quality planning is A. cost of quality is low. D. B. PMgroup Controlling Que # 129 Que Quality control is A. C. C. PMgroup Controlling Que # 128 Que The process of determining that technical processes and procedures are being performed in conformance with scope requirements and quality plans is called quality A. where should corrective action focus? Origin of problem % of problems Design 80 Development 2 Prototype 9 Testing 6 Fabrication 3 A. None of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 127 Que Cost of quality is a concept that includes A. D. management.126 127 128 B. Design. the life cycle cost of the project. E. B. and given the data in the following table. a and b. assuring the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer. Development. and fabrication E. 129 130 E. a and b. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality) standards. B. prototype. the cost necessary for ensuring conformance to requirements. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them. PMgroup Executing Que # 126 Que Using Pareto's Rule. and prototype C. C. B. Design and prototype D. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance. C. . the customer pays the minimum price. assurance. process review. checks. D. all research and development costs related to the project. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance. cost of quality is high. only the cost of the quality control function E. development.
PMgroup Executing Que # 131 Que Quality management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve a qualitative goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in A. E. standard quality analysis. PMgroup Executing Que # 132 Que According to current quality management thinking. and decreased cost risk. increased inspection B. conformance analysis. B. Reduced productivity and an increase in overall product or service cost. Recognition of key actions required of each team member is necessary to meet quality objectives. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer. D. E.C. increased productivity and cost-effectiveness. E. increased productivity. an innovative project that establishes the qualifications of the project team. B. decreased cost-effectiveness and increased cost risk. D. Quality improvement depends upon better definition and increased awareness of the requirements specifications. PMgroup Executing Que # 135 Que Which of the following statements regarding quality is false? A. B. 133 134 135 . Statistical quality control E. A and C. a product or service that conforms to the requirement specification. Use of worker suggestion systems PMgroup Executing Que # 133 Que The concept that states "the optimal quality level is reached at the point where the incremental revenue from product improvement equals the incremental cost to secure it" comes from A. increased productivity. Future gains in quality will often rely on advanced technology. Reduced productivity and no change to cost-effectiveness or cost risk. quality control analysis. D. an award-winning product that brings public recognition to the project. assuring the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury. which of the following approaches to quality improvement is least likely to produce positive results ? A. marginal analysis. D. C. C. increased cost-effectiveness. C. systems analysis. D. B. C. a project completed in the shortest possible time. Quality circles D. Computer-aided design systems can improve quality. but only at the expense of an increase in the cost of design. 131 132 E. E. B and C. Continuous improvement C. PMgroup Executing Que # 134 Que Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality*? A.
ours use of quality circles is inadequate. producing excellent products that are superior to other similar items. D. or changed methods. an increase in the number of projects being worked. our equipment is becoming obsolete. then increase it. C. B. the required cost of monitoring is likely to A. D. b and d. remain the same. schedule variances will be reduced. maintaining uniformity of design E. decrease. C. increase as well. . PMgroup Executing Que # 140 Que An assignable variance tells us A. B. then decrease it. First decrease it. Decrease it. PMgroup Planning Que # 141 Que From a high level perspective. decrease initially then increase slightly. top management should initiate increased worker training. the prevalence of media reports on quality!. PMgroup Executing Que # 137 Que If the level of conformance directly increases as a result of new processes. How will an increase in the number of items in the sample affect the value of the standard deviation used to set the control limit? A. there is an identifiable problem that must he fixed. No effect on it. C. increase it. First increase it. D. 137 138 139 140 141 E. quality A. B. B. E.136 PMgroup Executing Que # 136 Que You are sampling items from a batch and plotting the results on a control chart. is ensured by having inspectors. meeting luxury goods standards. a and c. E. B.circles and other quality improvement techniques the need to both reduce costs and ensure consistency in the performance of products and services. PMgroup Planning Que # 139 Que The concept of quality is based on A. the government cost improvement reports that have created widespread public interest in quality. C. conforming to the requirements specifications D. increase then tend to level off PMgroup Executing Que # 138 Que The primary driver(s) behind the demand for continual quality improvement is/are A. D. C. different resources. E.
C. E. D. Fishbone diagram B. B. making use of run charts. inspection D. PMgroup Planning Que # 144 Que The___ of a product or service most affects its reliability and maintenance characteristics. However. E. These variances are most likely caused by random factors. None of the above (all are commonly used) PMgroup Executing Que # 143 Que Quality is often influenced by all of the following except A. E. C. design B. concept C. improving the overall system of production B. Control chart E. fabrication D. PMgroup Executing Que # 147 Que The project management team's for quality should 145 146 147 . The project manager should apply the "rule of seven. C. C. Quality management practice offers us what guidance in dealing with this situation? A. cost PMgroup Controlling Que # 145 Que Random variance in a process. cost of materials. most of the measurements are below the midpoint (negative variance). making better use of Pareto charts. design. cannot be quantitatively measured. Pareto chart D. Negative variance indicates a problem which should be remedied. problems are usually caused by unmotivated employees. CSSR report C. identifying patterns of variance using control charts." B. can be directly reduced by A. as measured by the standard deviation. There is no problem as long as the variances lie within the control band. D.142 143 144 B. PMgroup Controlling Que # 146 Que A project manager notices that all the measurements recorded on a control chart lie within the control band range. performance E. A. is primarily (85-95%) a management problem. increasing the number of quality inspectors. PMgroup Controlling Que # 142 Que Which is not a commonly used quality management tool? A. increased worker ownership should be encouraged. E. and productivity are inconsistent objectives. supervision. fabrication processes and methods. D.
A. extend beyond the completion of the project. B. stop at the point of delivery. . C. be significantly reduced by a good warranty.. D. be ignored by the project manager. E. a and c. PMgroup Planning Que # 148 Que On a project, quality should generally be of A. equal priority with cost and schedule. B. lower priority than cost and schedule. C. equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule. D. equal priority with schedule. but higher priority than cost. E. higher priority than cost and schedule. PMgroup Executing Que # 149 Que 100% inspection for defects may be neither possible nor desirable. When is sampling for defects likely to be most useful? A. When destructive testing is required B. When the cost of 100% inspection is high. C. When we believe there are not many defects. D. a, b, and c. E. a and b. PMgroup Planning Que # 150 Que A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved A. by planning it into the project. B. by developing careful mechanisms to inspect for quality C. by developing prestigious products and processes. D. by striving to do the best job possible. E. by conducting quality circle activities. PMgroup Planning Que # 151 Que Poor quality in a design project is likely to directly affect ________________ costs. A. manufacturing/building B. advertising C. overhead D. post-completion support E. a and d PMgroup Planning Que # 152 Que From the project perspective, quality attributes A. are used to determine how effectively the performing organization supports the project B. can be objective or subjective in nature. C. are specific characteristics for which a product is designed, built. and tested D. b and c. E. a and b. PMgroup Executing Que # 153 Que From the project manager's viewpoint, quality assurance involves A. conducting studies to determine if design methods will support quality requirements.
identifying applicable laws, ordinances and regulations that the project must comply with.
C. monitoring inspection activities to ensure that the work is performed as specified. D. a, b, and c. E. a and c. PMgroup Executing Que # 154 Que Just-in-time (JIT) is the concept of reducing inventories to A. 25% of former stock. B. Less than half of former stock. C. 75% of peak stock. D. zero stock. E. 15% of the cost of the product for a planned stock. PMgroup Executing Que # 155 Que Of the following statements, which one(s) is/are true? A. Quality is the usual result when skilled designers and skilled implementors work on the project. B. Quality is 10% skill and 90% luck. C. Quality can be achieved with the proper combination of personnel, materials, methods and time to do the work. D. None of the above. E. a and c. PMgroup Controlling Que # 156 Que Some organizations today are using "six sigma", to set the upper and lower limits on control charts rather than the traditional sigmas, which are? A. two B. threes C. four D. five E. twelve PMgroup Controlling Que # 157 Que The quality management tool that can be described as "a diagram that ranks and displays defects in order of frequency of occurrence (from left to right)" is a A. control control B. vertical bar chart. C. histograms. D. Pareto chant. E. run chant. PMgroup Executing Que # 158 Que From the project manager's perspective, quality management is ______________ limited to assessing the attributes of the tools provided to do the work. A. always B. usually C. not D. seldom E. intermittently PMgroup Planning Que # 159
The primary responsibility for establishing design and test specifications should rest with
A. senior management. B. procurement or purchasing. C. engineering. D. manufacturing. E. quality control. PMgroup Planning Que # 160 Que Which of the following is least likely to contribute to developing an effective project team supportive of quality? A. B. C. D. E. PMgroup Que # Que A. B. C. D. E. PMgroup Que # Que A. B. C. D. E. PMgroup Que # Que A. B. C. D. E. PMgroup Que # Que A. B. C. D. E. PMgroup Que Commitment to the project Team member flexibility Frequent turnover of personnel Team interest in workmanship Clearly defined goals Planning 161 Primary responsibility for quality management in the project rests with the project engineer. purchasing agent. quality manager. project manager. company president. Planning 162 The ISO 9000 series is a set of instructions for preparing control charts. a set of guidelines for quality.! a set of forms and procedures to ensure quality. . an international standard that describes a recommended quality system. intended to be applied only to manufactured products. Initiating 163 Unless evidence indicates otherwise, a process is assumed to be in control. out of control. working at full capacity. working at less than full capacity. operating within required engineering tolerances. Executing 164 Which of the following statements best characterizes the quality management practice called benchmarking? The ISO term for progress measurement Comparing planned project practices to those of other projects. A technique used to test certain types of electronic equipment. The difference between grade'' and quality. The measurement of customer satisfaction. Planning Quality management is defined as the process of ensuring that a project meets the ________ of the project's clients, participants, and shareholders.
Que # 165 A. specifications and statements of work B. legal and financial obligations C. expectations and desires D. needs and expectations E. legal and moral requirements PMgroup Initiating Que # 166 Que The primary components of quality management are quality ________. A. inspections, certifications, and validations B. philosophy, assurance, and control C. form, fit, and function D. reliability, maintainability, and availability E. insurance, assurance, and warranty PMgroup Executing Que # 167 Que Quality assurance is defined as the managerial process that determines ________ that provide the customers with performance standards and feedback on the performance. A. time, scope, cost, and resources B. human resources, dollars, materials, and duration C. time, location, duration, and completion D. organization, design, objectives, and resources E. management, staff, workers, and contractors PMgroup Controlling Que # 168 Que Quality control is the technical processes that ________ the project's progress against the performance standards. A. inspect, certify, and verify B. examine, analyze, and report C. inspect, examine, and determine D. identify, measure, and report E. reveal, establish, and record PMgroup Executing Que # 169 Que Responsibility within the project for quality must be defined and promulgated to everyone contributing to the end product. First and foremost, the ________ has the ultimate responsibility for conformance to requirements when provided with the tools, skills, knowledge, and opportunities. A. corporate president B. director of project management C. quality assurance manager D. project manager E. individual PMgroup Executing Que # 170 Que Self-inspection by the individual performing the work is used to achieve quality in a product. The advantages of self-inspection include ________. A. B. C. D. immediate feedback to permit adjustments to the process early identification of errors prior to further integration minimization of end product repairs and material waste reduction in the number of end product inspections and tests
The process uses ________ to permit accurate monitoring of the operation.000 172 173 174 E. B-2] C. standard. slogan. during critical operations PMgroup Controlling Que # 172 Que Statistical Process Control is used in quality programs to determine whether repetitive operations meet predictable standards. counts errors or failures to determine the added cost of all operations that do not meet the requirements D. most of the time C.171 E. B. A. random sampling and corrective procedures E. A. C." These charts depict horizontal. B. is a method of rejecting errors or variances from standards following self-inspection B. whenever possible B. does not require an expenditure of resources is accurate enough with a sampling of less than one percent does not require 100 percent sampling of the elements to achieve a satisfactory inference of the population needs to be conducted only when there is a problem discovered with the end product or when the customer has some rejects 175 E. 100 percent inspection and random rejection B. six five four three . slogan. compares the error rate of individuals to determine the compensation for bonuses PMgroup Executing Que # 174 Que Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirement for some element or product of a project. parallel lines to represent ________ standard deviations. is a good tool to gain customer confidence during a period of high rejects PMgroup Controlling Que # 175 Que Statistical Process Control uses diagrams called "Control Charts. acceptance sampling and automatic rejection C. whenever possible E. standard. The advantage of statistical sampling is that it ________. continuous sampling and error detection methods D. standard. A. D. all of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 171 Que Zero Defects is an element of the quality management philosophy that is a ________ for all workers to be achieved ________. at all times D. Pareto Analysis ________. compares the error rate with the pass rate to determine the allowable number of errors per 1. is a procedure for ranking the errors to identify those contributing the most to failures [PMBOK p. A. A. C. statistical sampling and control procedures PMgroup Controlling Que # 173 Que Statistical Decision Making includes Pareto Analysis as a means of reducing errors in the total project process. D.
the data is of two types R and X-bar. 75 C. late correction E. defined as the dollar value associated with ________. nonconformance to the requiremenT C. statistics provide a basis for customer acceptance of the projects PMgroup Planning Que # 179 Que A quality program within a project should be based on ________ of errors to improve productivity along with quality levels. projects rely on external vendors for products that must meet contractual specifications to conform to the requirements B. 85 B. continuous sampling PMgroup Executing Que # 177 Que The cost of quality has been argued as being primarily driven by the workers. A. A. all extra efforts to implement a quality program PMgroup Planning Que # 181 177 178 179 180 181 . any cost for quality personnel and tools D. the workers were "found" to be at fault. A. therefore. services are amenable to statistical sampling even for small lots D. it looks good to the customer when there is a mathematical approach to quality E. random sample. 65 D. two PMgroup Controlling Que # 176 Que When data is plotted on the control charts. The cost of quality is. 100 percent sampling. real sample. early detection B. 55 E. The R data represent points of a ________ while the X-bar data represent points of a(n) ________.176 E. prevention PMgroup Planning Que # 180 Que The cost of quality is needed to identify opportunities for improvement. simulated sample C. A. early correction C. cross-matrix sample B. regardless of the lack of repetitive processes. purchased materials will never meet the requirements of the project C. late detection D. sampling run. Current thinking is that management has at least ________ percent of the responsibility for the cost of quality. any extra cost to hire a quality consultant E. 10 percent sampling D. because ________. 50 PMgroup Executing Que # 178 Que Statistical sampling methods are valid for most projects. producing a product that meets the requirement B. random sampling. average of several runs E. A. When items were produced that did not meet the customers' expectations.
C. identify the specific error B. realize that customers ask for too much and to change their perceptions about the product or service requirements PMgroup Planning Que # 185 Que In computing the cost of producing a quality product. second behind cost but ahead of schedule C. 183 184 185 186 . The ratio of the ________ costs determine whether an effective quality program is fully implemented. and variable C. schedule. avoid commitment to correction on an "out of warranty" item talk to them until they see the reason the complaints are trivial give them something more than they contracted to receive to suppress any feelings of dissatisfaction D. A. appraisal. indirect. the procedure to improve the situation should be to ________. In relationship to the others. equal to cost and schedule E. second behind schedule but ahead of cost D. The 14-steps do not include ________. prevention. third behind cost and schedule PMgroup Executing Que # 182 Que When errors that affect quality are discovered. correct the root cause of the error E. For a project that is starting a quality improvement program. A. quality should be ranked ________. and quality. repair. variable. B. evaluate the quality audit's effectiveness in identifying errors PMgroup Executing Que # 184 Que Customers are the driving force in any project and determine the requirements to be met. direct. the common parameters are cost. In dealing with customers' complaints. the major areas of costs contribute to the sale price of the product. one-time. and overhead B. correct the specific error C. determine the quality baseline from which improvements will be made E. first as the prime driver for a project B. A. determine the single most urgent area for improvement D. identify all the faulty work that has been completed B. A. and test PMgroup Planning Que # 186 Que The 14-step process to quality improvement is a progressive approach to total involvement of everyone in a company toward the production of quality products and services. build.Que In a project. identify all the work that has been correctly accomplished C. it is important to ________. 182 A. all of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 183 Que A quality audit is a powerful tool in any quality improvement program. and semi-fixed D. recurring. provide them with the full scope of the contracted product or service E. determine the root cause of the error D. and failure E. the initial audit is used to ________. fixed.
setting standards and goals for acceptable levels of quality E. warranty. Trend charts are effective means of ________. C. but the criterion is pass or fail are always artificial and present only false indications of progress can be established based on customer expectations and the responsibility assigned to individuals 188 189 D. poor workmanship D. an immediate cash award that is commensurate with the deed C. an annual bonus increase paid at the end of the year B. poor service after product sale PMgroup Planning Que # 191 Que As one of its goals the project organization has quality to specified performance measures. are not applicable if the service is to an internal function of the project E. materials. quality measurement D. pricing. A. a nonmonetary award presented in a public forum as soon as the deed is identified D. management commitment B. the end product is a "service" that does not have physical characteristics and attributes to be measured to ensure conformance to the requirement. gold plating C. identifying to customers the failure rates of products D. reflecting the precise status of quality failures C. A. goal achievement measures E. a nonmonetary award presented in private E. measurements ________. showing that all goals have been achieved PMgroup Planning Que # 188 Que In many projects. relate only to the actual expenditures of funds or receipt or revenues PMgroup Executing Que # 189 Que Recognition of personnel achievements is an important building block to the attainment of a superior quality program. B. To ensure that the customer perceives a quality product. A. a combination of monetary and nonmonetary award presented in private PMgroup Planning Que # 190 Que Quality in a project's product is essential for the enhancement of the project manager and the selling organization. When compared with the functional organization. 190 191 . gouging E. visibly reinforcing the growth of quality improvements to the workers B.187 A. the project manager must inform the customer of the ________ to be used so the customer will not have a perception of ________. the project organization ________. inferior fabrication B. supervisor training PMgroup Controlling Que # 187 Que Trend charts reflect the relative status of a program. A. practices. The form of recognition should be ________. standards. When service is the end product of a project. do not apply to the service. quality improvement team C.
the documentation requirements for actions (testing. public. As a minimum. visual and aural. the inspection plan C.192 A. is less disciplined in the implementation of quality D. processes and materials C. the quality program plan addresses ________. In developing such an information system. is always tailored to meet the specific quality goals C. Inspection includes ________ examination of ________. inspections. there is a need to collect data and format such data into an information output that is useful to the project manager. aural and tactile. and operating C. processes and procedures PMgroup Controlling Que # 194 Que Quality control methods extend beyond the external characteristics of the product or components of the product. all of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 193 Que Quality control includes inspection to ensure that standards of performance are being met. B. fabrication. aural and tactile. there is never enough information collected the system is incapable of processing all the required information 193 194 195 196 . the required processes and procedures B. it is good to remember that an optimum system doesn't supply all the information because ________. etc. A. the types of test to be conducted D. materials and end products D. is more disciplined in the implementation of quality E. processes and components B. visual and nonvisual. destructive. A. laboratory. materials and end products E.) E. and nondestructive E. A. Quality control is one part of the quality program that ________. measures results of operations C. laboratory. and private D. all of the above PMgroup Executing Que # 196 Que In a quality management information system. visual and technical. in-house. achieves higher levels of quality B. A. destructive. defines requirements and performance standards B. none of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 192 Que The technical performance of the project is derived from the quality program instituted by the project manager. compares measured results to performance standards D. maintainer. and product PMgroup Planning Que # 195 Que Each project needs a quality program plan to define the parameters of the overall approach to meeting quality requirements. initiates corrective actions for variances E. stress. A. operator. and environmental B. The types of testing of the product or components include ________.
collect information on the relative performance standards of the process so the output can be enhanced through continuous adjustments to the input functions validate the controlling function as performing correctly and provide information on equipment servicing intervals provide the historical records for production lots as to the specifications and actual measurements of a product generate the control charts to determine the variances in the product and the number of nonconforming products ensure the products are within tolerances and to identify those products that require reworking or scrapping 199 200 PMgroup Executing Que # 200 Que In the area of quality. The control of a process is divided into controlling temperatures. E. either in the planning or actual work. distances C. and levels in terms of rates and time. project managers are struggling with the training and indoctrination of individuals in the need to do the work right the first time to conform to the requirement. speeds (velocities). directions. the project manager will discover an individual. elasticities B. Occasionally. When the quality in a project exceeds the specifications. that is called ________. flows. some information is not available for collection and input E. A. some information costs more to collect than it is worth D. volumes D. most information relies on related data to generate thE proper output PMgroup Executing Que # 197 Que Quality is one part of the three major parameters of a project. A. the extra value given to the customer is not recognized or needed to complete the project the increases to the system specifications place that portion out of balance with the other system components it leads to increased customer requirements for other parts of the system . While process control regulates the functions. ________ . distances. superior quality C. process control is becoming an important element of the manufacturing to rigorous specifications to provide a consistently uniform output.197 198 C. data gathering is used to ________. doing more than is called for in the specification. B. speeds (velocities) E. C. excellence B. These individuals need training to reduce the level of "over building" because ________. pressures. D. lengths. volumes. widths PMgroup Controlling Que # 199 Que Process control is distinct and separate from the data gathering function in a quality program. A. B. silver plating PMgroup Planning Que # 198 Que In the quality area. deviation plus quality D. gold plating E. C. A.
all of the above PMgroup Executing Que # 204 Que The quality program may include the requirement for "witnessed inspections" of critical items for the project. improved updating of designs over the former manual methods D. the CAD is being used to control other computers and machines to manufacture basic components of equipment. or subassemblies. A. The areas for the audit should include ________. organization and quality of work in process E. witnessing destructive and nondestructive tests PMgroup Executing Que # 203 Que The inspection of the project throughout the implementation phase is critical to ensure that quality standards are being met. to conduct inspections at critical junctures in the assembly process to ensure defective items are identified prior to making a costly interface or concealing a physical attribute that cannot be inspected at a later time. The use of vendors is most often required to obtain critical materials. materials. testing personnel skills D. examining the vendor's quality procedures B. There is a need. An inspection plan will identify the points at which examinations of processes. a "shop survey" or audit of the vendor may be required. When a subcontractor or vendor is to conduct a destructive test. In some cases. To determine a vendor's capabilities to produce a product to the specifications. The purchase order or contract should contain a statement that requires the subcontractor or vendor performing the test to ________. all of the above PMgroup Executing Que # 202 Que The key to quality is to design and build to the requirements and avoid attempts to inspect quality into the product. or assemblies are required. inspection plans normally do not include ________. facilities and shop space B. checking dimensions E. there has been ________. more timely posting of changes to designs E. components. quality assurance and control procedures D. a significant reduction in engineering errors B. 202 203 204 . A. Because the CAD software has the capability to perform checks of the design and make changes to designs as they are approved. A. however. less rework required because of design errors C. However. experience and capability with similar work C. examining surfaces C. E.D. exceeding the specified requirement is wasting time and money at no value added to the project the project must be reworked in other areas to increase the level of "goodness" to the same as the "over build" 201 PMgroup Executing Que # 201 Que The use of CAD (computer-aided design) is emerging as a new technology with the goal of reducing the time and money spent to produce and update design drawings. the project manager must ensure the test is validated (witnessed) by a qualified member of his/her team.
Outweigh C. benefits ____________ costs. Specifications PMgroup Executing Que All of the following are primary benefit(s) of meeting quality requirements EXCEPT Que # 381 A. of the date and time for witnessing the test retain the residue of the item destroyed for a period of one year following completion of the project have present at the test at least three independent sources (individuals) who are qualified in destructive testing procedures report the results of the testing to an independent laboratory for confirmation and validation of the procedures 378 379 380 PMgroup Controlling Que Inputs to quality control are all of the following EXCEPT Que # 378 A. E. Cannot be evaluated in relation to E.A. Exceeds client expectations B. Equal B. Is assured through careful planning E. Checklists E. The scope statement C. Quality management plan C. Work results B. in writing. Upper management D. Process adjustments PMgroup Planning Que One of the fundamental tenets of quality management is that quality Que # 379 A. Less rework B. Que # 382 A. Is planned in. Functional requirements E. give a 30-day notice of when the test will be conducted and to provide a certificate of completion within seven days following the test notify the project manager. Stakeholder staisfaction E. C. Customer requirements B. Lower costs D. Does not cost C. D. Are substantiated by PMgroup Planning Que "Design of experiements" is an analytical technique that helps 381 382 . Operational definition D. Are less than D. B. Requires constant monitoring PMgroup Executing Que Standards for products and services are critical to the process of satisfying Que # 380 A. higher productivity C. Fewer change orders PMgroup Planning Que In the quality management discipline. not inspected in D.
Is a managerial process that defines the organization. Bar chart C. Que # 384 A. Standards and Guidelines PMgroup Executing Que Project quality assurance Que # 385 A. The cost of ensuring conformance to requirements D. Implementation D. Compare actual or planned project practices to those of other projects PMgroup Planning Que The quality management plan provides input to ___________ and addresses quality control. Anticipate what and where quality problems might occur C. The cost of meeting project objectives E. Planning C. The life-cycle cost of the project C. Establish a standard by which to measure performance E. Communication planning PMgroup Planning Que Major cost categories of quality include all of the following EXCEPT . design. Critical path E. The project scope D.383 Que # 383 A. by which the project performance is measured C. Reduces the probability of project completion on schedule PMgroup Executing Que What does "cost of quality" mean? Que # 386 A. The sacrifice of unessential project objectives to meet essential quality standards B. and objectives of quality management 384 385 386 387 388 D. Includes policing the conformance of thr project team to specifications B. Pareto diagram B. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome D. Network diagram D. Provides confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standards E. The overall project plan B. The budgeted allowance for Quality Management Activities PMgroup Controlling Que The diagram that ranks defects in teh order of frequency of occurrence using a Histogram to depict 100% of the defects is called a Que # 387 A. The WBS C. Que # 388 A. resources. Provides the project team and stakeholders with standards. Conceptual B. Pie chart PMgroup Planning Que Quality standards and criteria should be defined in the ____________ phase. and quality improvement. Determine how various elements of a system interrelate B. External stakeholdersr E. Risk identification E. quality assurance.
The performing organization B. Planning B. External failure D. Assurance D. Trend analysis PMgroup Executing Que The use of quality management tools is essential to provide the greatest degree of Que # 392 A. The project management team C. E. Capability C. Contol charts D. Performance E. Satisfaction B. Benchmarking PMgroup Initiating Que # 501 Que The primary purpose of ISO 9000 is to A. Pareto diagrams C. The project E. Que # 393 A. Appraisal B. Estimates of control tendency E. Computer operations PMgroup Planning Que Investment in defect prevention and appraisal (product quality improvement) must often be borne by Que # 390 A. Control C. Prevention C. Identify the quality standards that are relevant to a project and determine how to meet them C. Improvement E. Measurement and test equipment E. Flowcharting B.389 Que # 389 A. Provide a basis for the quality policy of an organization Plan and implement activities to ensure that a project will satisfy relevant quality standards Provide for leading-edge quality 390 391 392 393 501 . Improvement D. Executive management D. Overhead costs PMgroup Controlling Que Staistical quality control tools include all of the following EXCEPT Que # 391 A. Establish a basic set of quality system standards B. D. All of the above PMgroup Executing Que Quality ______________ is evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
ready for use C. Provide better product definition and product development B. and others) on quality performance standards held that error is Que # 502 A. Help identify processes underway in other organizations that should be emulated E. More a result of management than of the person performing the job D. Unlikely if a sufficitne number of inspectors is used in the process E. An input to the quality control process B. Juran. An adjustment made that is based on quality control measurements E. Support production planning and the just-in-time approach PMgroup Executing Que Kaoru Ishikawa led the Japanese Union of Scientists and Engineers in its efforts to introduce methods for quality control. Quality assurance using quality circles B. All of the above PMgroup Executing Que The quality function deployment process is used to Que # 504 A. he concentrated on seven tools. Satisfying the needs of the project E. Manage resources. PERT chart E. Which item is NOT one of the seven tools he popularized? Que # 505 A. Meeting the requirements of ISO 9000 D. An output of the quality assurance process C. More costly than the sophisticated design owrk required to prevent it PMgroup Executing Que Rework is Que # 503 A. requirements. Scatter diagram PMgroup Planning Que The principal objective of project quality management is Que # 506 A. Use statistical techniques to compute a "loss function" to determine the cost of producing products that fail to achieve a target value 505 506 507 . Manage the flow of material for better visibility and control B. Help products succeed in the marketplace C. Control chart D. Quality control through design inspections C. and production so that the right material arrives at the rightplace at the right time. Beneficial because we all learn from our mistakes B. Establish a customer complaint and feedback system D. Educating employees about the importance of quality PMgroup Executing Que The purpose of the Taguchi method is to Que # 507 A. Inevitable C. In simplifying techniques so workers could understand and apply them. Deming.PMgroup Que 502 503 504 Initiating Traditional thinking (before Crosby. Cause-and-effect diagram C. Action taken to bring a nonconforming item into compliance D. Pareto chart B.
vision. goals. such as low quality and low grade Concepts used as part of a total quality management program Not applicable to project quality management because they are oriented toward the manufacturing environment PMgroup Executing Que Opportunities for improvement are identified by measuring quality. B. Design. which is defined as the monetary value associated with . Cause-and-effect diagrams B. External C. D. D. All of the above PMgroup Executing Que The two components of product availability are Que # 510 A. Operability and usability PMgroup Executing Que Constancy of purpose is a core concept for contuous improvement. C. Producibility and maintainability C. Baseline D. Usability and maintainability B. A quality assurance and control department reporting to senior management PMgroup Planning Que Quality and grade are Que # 512 A. and objectives and their roles in achieving them 511 512 E. and manage production operations as self-contained flexible cells capable ofstart-to-finish processing of a family of items 508 509 510 E. Reliability and maintainability E. All of the above PMgroup Executing Que Commonly used root-cuase analysis techniques in quality management are Que # 509 A. group. Different concepts because grade pertains to entities with the same functional use but different quality requirements C. Usability and reliability D. System E. 511 Documented and well-disseminated statements of purpose and vision A set of goals and objectives linked to the purpose and vision A set of strategic and tactical plans An awareness by all members of the organization of the purpose. Ishikawa diagrams D. Similar concepts showing the characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs B. Regulate coordination and communication among process stages PMgroup Executing Que Which term describes a type of quality audit? Que # 508 A. Fishbone diagrams C. An organization displaying consistency of purpose must have all the following elements except Que # A. Concepts signifying similar characeristics.D. Internal B. E. System or proecess flowcharts E.
Plan is prepared for individual products. Quality is the concern of middle management and the quality superivisor Customers require a documented and. projects. System is prepared for individual products. registered quality assurance system National and international standards and guidelines for quality assurance systems are available Audits of quality assurance systems have been developed Planning Which of the following is the primary objective of establishing a quality assurance process? 518 Completed checklists Process adjustments 515 516 517 Que # A. Any extra cost to hire quality assurance personnel E. B. B. services. In recent years. services. or contracts B. PMgroup Que Plan is not part of the management information system of the organization Executing In terms of statistical process control. Which statement is not representative of the new definition of quality management? 517 Quality is designed into the product or services. C. Understand and collect data on customer requirements to focus attention on meeting customer needs E. generally the quality assurance department E. Special causes and random causes C. System is used by a single organizational entity. E. D. services. Attribute sampling and variable sampliing E. System describes quality assurance project-by-project D. PMgroup Que 518 Que # A. and processes against those of other organizations D. PMgroup Que Determine performance targets Planning Project quality management was once thought to include only inspection or quality control. All extra efforts to implement a quality program PMgroup Planning Que The difference between the quality plan and the quality system is that the quality Que # 514 A. Tolerances and control limits D. project. or contracts C. All of the above PMgroup Executing Que The primary purpose of benchmarking is to Que # 516 A. . Any cost for quality personnel and tools D. Nonconformance to the requirement C. not inspected into it. Conduct industrial espionage B. in some cases. Measure products. the concept of project quality management has broadened. the project team should know the differences between Que # 515 A. Perform marketing research to forecast how well a particular product will sell C. Standard deviation and variance B. Producing a product that meets the requirements B.513 514 Que # 513 A.
C. Head of the organization B. Project contol officer PMgroup Executing Que The project manager should conduct reviews and audits to monitor and direct the quality level of the work. D. Provides incentives to vendors to make quality commitments B. Second. Provides incentives to vendors to reduce prices C. Second. Management reviews B. Competency center reviews D. Project manager C. behind cost and schedule PMgroup Planning Que Long-term contracting is an important aspect of project quality management because it Que # 520 A. Provides objective evidence about quality system performance C. Helps to meet regulatory requirements PMgroup Planning Que In quality planning. Equal to cost and schedule E. quality should be ranked Que # 519 A. Provides objective evidence about nonconformance E. Third. In relationship to the others. Peer reviews C. First. Provides opportunities to identify needed personnel improvements D. PMgroup Que 519 Quality improvement The Quality Management Plan Quality control measurements Planning Three important parameters of a project are cost. Functional managers E. E. Reduces buyer-related costs E. All of the above PMgroup Executing Que The primary feature of a quality audit is that it Que # 521 A. behind schedule but ahead of cost D. who should inform stakeholders of the quality policy? Que # 522 A. and quality. Project team D. All of the above PMgroup Planning Que The increasing emphasis on project quality management can be attributed to the Que # 524 520 521 522 523 524 . Helps an organization attain formal certification of its quality management program B. schedule. Key reviews and audits that help support the development of a quality project team are Que # 523 A. Fitness reviews and audits E. as the prime driver for a project B. Permits better planning D. behind cost but ahead of schedule C.
B. C. Which of the following project participants plays the most important role in the quality function? Que # 526 A.A. D. C. C. it should be directed by 525 Que # 525 A. Customer B. E. D. E. Project team PMgroup Executing Que Quality assurance consists of the Que # 527 A. Top management C. As such. D. PMgroup Que Formation of quality circles by employees dissatisfied with their company's quality practices Importance and prestige of obtaining ISO 9000 certification Power of top management as a stakeholder in the process Power of customers as stakeholders in the process Need to meet government requirements placed on organizations Executing The continuous improvement process provides a way for an organization to create and sustain a culture of continuous improvement. Analyze the product development cycle after product release to determine strengths and weakenesses B. Project manager C. E. Vendors and suppliers E. Senior management D. PMgroup Que Evaluate failure modes and causes associated with the design and manufacture of an existing product Detect and analyze failure-mode problems in manufacturing Evaluate failure modes and causes associated with the design and manufacture of an new product Help management set priorities in its existing manufacturing processes to avoid failures Planning Design of experiements is a technique used in quality planning to . Acivities in the quality system designed to provide confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standards B. Stakeholders E. Employees participating in quality circles D. The project manager B. Actions taken to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project to provide added benefits to the project stakeholders Methods to monitor project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards Identification of the quality standards that are relevant to the project and determination of ways to satisfy them Processes needed to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken 526 527 528 PMgroup Planning Que A failure-mode effects and criticality analysis is used to Que # 528 A. Customers PMgroup Executing Que The quality team for the project consists of several groups.
B. processes. E. Quality control. D. C. PMgroup Que Que # A. quality assurance. C. PMgroup Que Que # A. and resources needed to implement project quality management 535 B. B. procedures. PMgroup Que Que # A. E. Specific products produced by an organization B. PMgroup Que Que # A. E. B. E. C. Procedures used to conduct trade-off analyses among cost. B. C. D. Specific projects underway in an organization . responsibilities. E. schedule. Project quality system D. 529 Identify which variables have the most influence on overall outcomes Provide a comparison between project quality management practices Show how variious elements of a system relate Identify where less rework will be required All of the above Executing The Kanban technique is an approach that supports the 530 Taguchi method Just-in-time concept Use of control charts Development of Pareto diagrams Development of Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams Executing In attribute sampling the 531 Result does or does not conform Reesult is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity Emphasis is on normal process variation Emphasis is on determining whether a result falls within specific control limits Emphasis is on unusual or special causes Planning The ISO 9000 standards provide 532 A description of how products should be produced Specifics for the implementation of quality systems A framework for quality systems The maximum process requirements necessary to ensure customers a good product A list of all the activities that must be performed during the production of a product Executing Kaizen is an approach to continuous improvement that emphasizes 533 Customer satisfaction over cost Major advances Zero defects Incremental inmprovement Use of quality circles Planning The quality management plan describes all the following except the 534 Organizational structure.529 530 531 532 533 534 Que # A. and quality PMgroup Planning Que ISO 9000 registration is granted to Que # 535 A. Method for implementing the quality policy C. B. D. D. PMgroup Que Que # A. C. and quality improvement plans for the project E. D.
Processes within phases E. 539 Needs to be conducted only when a problem is discovered with the end-product or when the customer has some rejects. Determine whether results conform to requirements PMgroup Planning Que Modern quality management and modern project management are aligned with regard to Que # 540 A. Analyze how problems occur E. Seven consecutive points are ascending. The quality control group should measure the process at least seven times to validate it E. Forecast future outcomes based on historical results C. Specific procedures in an organization PMgroup Controlling Que A Pareto diagram is used to Que # 536 A. A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside the lower and upper control limits PMgroup Que Executing Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirements for some element or product of a project. Seven rejects typically occur per thousand inspections B. C. descending. B. E. All of the above Que # 603 PMgroup Controlling 540 603 . Prevention over inspection C. Management responsibility D. Determine whether results conform D. Customer satisfaction B. Services provided by an organization E.536 C. Show which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome E. Show the trade-offs between benefits and costs D. or the same C. Is a good tool to gain customer confidence during a period of high rejects PMgroup Controlling Que The statistical control chart is a tool used primarily to help Que # 539 A. Show how various causes and subcauses combine to create potential problems or effects PMgroup Controlling Que The "rule of seven" as applied to statistical process control charts means that Que # 537 A. D. Monitor process variation over time B. An organization as a whole D. Its greatest advantage is that it 538 Does not require an expenditure of resources Is accurate enough with a sampling of less than 1% Does not require 100% inspection of the elements to achieve a satisfactory inference of the population 537 538 Que # A. Measure the degree of conformity C. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees D. by type or category of identified cause B. Show how many results were generated.
Que A poured concrete footing has been tested to determine the compliance with applicable requirements. B. D. Quality planning D. PERT analysis Sensitivity analysis Pareto diagram Flowcharting ANSWERS 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 C D D E B E E C A D B B D E B E C B A C C C B D E A A A D B A B A . This is an example of 605 A. Quality Audit E. Que # 605 PMgroup Executing Que The number of defects has become unacceptable. C. Quality control B. E. Quality assurance C. What process should the project manager use to identify the cause? A.
133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 B A B B C E C C D E C A E A A A E A E D E D E B D C E C D D A B D B D B E E C E B C D D A A E B D E D D .
185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 D D A C C B C E C D E C D D B D E C E B E C A E B C A D C A B E A D A C A B C A D D C E E D E B B A E C .
517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 603 605 B C D E D C E D B A A D A B A C D E C A B C A E A D .
actual work completed and work planned will determine the A. D. Schedule estimate at completion B. cost/cost variance D. Here it was already Halloween and they were just finishing up work that was supposed to have been completed by Labor Day. our ACWP is 4 and our BCWS is 6. E. she confided to her friend. the base line plan B. Schedule Performance Index E. Cost estimate at completion C. C. New Year's Day St. our BCWP is 2. c and d PMgroup Planning 102 Que # 102 Que Earned value is A. completed work value C. at EAC time B. Her folks had been working on the project since Independence Day. a and b PMgroup Planning 103 Que # 103 Que You could tell Diane was worried about her project. "Oh dear". She thought to herself. Patrick's Day Easter Mother's Day the 4th of July PMgroup Planning 104 Que # 104 Que Diane was so concerned about her project that she woke up dreaming about it. when schedule variance is zero E. "Instead of completing by Christmas. B.PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT PMgroup Planning 100 Que # 100 Que The relationship between the budgeted actual cost. Cost Performance Index D. D. so that means A. "Well. B. percent over or under budget E. when BAC is equal to EAC C. our productivity was less than planned our cost estimate at completion is 6 our CPI and SPI are both positive our cost variance is negative . at this rate I expect we won't be done until A. both a and b PMgroup Planning 101 Que # 101 Que All work packages are complete A. C. when BCWP intersects BCWS D.
-10 C. $4.000. a. what is the cost estimate at completion? A. E.000 B. D. c and d PMgroup Planning 105 Que # 105 Que The measurement which best shows the difference between actual work and actual costs is A. +25.E. $2. C. +75.000. E.000. Cost variance Percent over or under Schedule variance CPI this is not a valid measurement PMgroup Planning 106 Que # 106 Que Rework costs ____ times budgeted costs. the BAC = $2. exceed the schedule estimate at completion E.000.000 D.500.000.000. C. $6. the best way to determine the value of those costs in today's dollars is A.000. decrease C. Cannot be determined without the EAC PMgroup Controlling 110 Que # 110 . depend on the BCWS D. B. B. the ACWP = $1. estimated project payout return on investment net present value discounted cash flow internal rate of return 85 PMgroup Planning 108 Que # 108 Que If the ACWP exceeds the BCWP. a and d PMgroup Planning 109 Que # 109 Que If the BCWS = $1. the cost estimate at completion will A. 10 to 15 E. $8.000.000 C. -25 B. A. 25 to 50 PMgroup Planning 107 Que # 107 Que If part of a project's costs will be paid in future years. D. D.000 and you're halfway through the project after two years. increase B.000. the BCWP = $500.000 E.
A. D. B. while the ________ is to accommodate costs for project work that were not included in the plan through error or oversight. A. management allowance management. and definitive PMgroup Planning 111 Que # 111 Que The cost estimate with the most precise estimate (i. D. contingency allowance management. budget. C. E. and contemporary order of magnitude. and design engineering. budget. classical. A. C. guestimate. B.e. capitalization costs. E. E. A. In the economic area. D. B. D. human resource skills depreciation costs prospective projects managers implementation of cost controls availability of cost accounting methods . and definitive concept. C. C.. present worth factors. and actual traditional. engineering budget concept definitive contingency PMgroup Planning 112 Que # 112 Que The cost estimate that has a range for error of minus 10 percent to plus 25 percent is the ________ estimate. budget overrun allowance engineering. The ________ reserve is for cost variances from the plan because of inaccurate estimates or pricing and costs overruns. A. budget definitive parametric analogy contingency PMgroup Controlling 113 Que # 113 Que There are usually two types of reserves in a project's budget. one would look at such items as interest rates. E. C. and ________. quoted. The three types of cost estimates through which project expenditures are made are ________. rough order of magnitude. B. project.Que Cost management requires a critical look at future expenditures and the controls exercised over those expenditures. mismanagement allowance planned. unplanned work allowance PMgroup Planning 114 Que # 114 Que Feasibility studies are evaluations of both the technical and economic aspects of a potential project. the smallest range of error) is the ________ estimate. D. E. B.
and equipment is the ________. A. lease. E. there are fewer costs at project initiation until the work force is fully staffed B. or contract performance measurement. C. procurement.PMgroup Planning 115 Que # 115 Que Project financing can be extremely complex and can come from a variety of sources. D. Life cycle cost categories include ________. and storage PMgroup Planning 117 Que # 117 Que The integration of cost and schedule to provide measures of the project's performance is the earned value system. E. D. there are more expenses to get a project started than are required on a normal operating basis D. operation. and disposal procurement. B. this approximation has proven to be nearly correct when all costs and expenditures have been accounted for at project completion PMgroup Planning 118 Que # 118 Que The pricing of a project can be extremely complex in the development of valid cost estimates and price quotes from vendors. and operation development. ________ is not a potential source of financing for a project. maintenance. PMgroup project management plan budget responsibility matrix configuration management plan work breakdown structure Planning . there are workers who have not been paid. and disposal operation. A. C. A. this is just a traditional method of plotting the costs and has no relationship to the actual expenditures E. A. material. The tool that facilitates the pricing of a project by a structured decomposition of the total into individual elements of labor. borrowing money from a bank selling stocks in the project or corporation selling bonds on the project selling lottery tickets on the project leasing or renting existing property to another PMgroup Planning 116 Que # 116 Que Life cycle costing is a concept whereby all costs for a system are computed to determine the total cost of ownership. The baseline for the earned value system is depicted as a slight "S" curve because ________. repair. E. D. purchase. However. so the expense is not shown on the chart C. B. and operation/maintenance procurement. B. C.
D. C. C. E. increased by the amount of added work B. The total dollars in the contingency allowance should be ________ as the project nears completion. C. and then the buyer requests some changes in the design. The changes do not affect completed work but add some new items and subtract some existing items. retained at the remaining dollar level increased to meet unidentified surprises decreased to reduce the accounting work spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget reduced to a percentage of the remaining work PMgroup Controlling 123 Que # 123 Que Suppose a contract has been in force for six months and the work is progressing. B. C. decreased because the work has not been started . D. A. B. customer historical records senior engineers top management independent consultants PMgroup Controlling 120 Que # 120 Que Setting up a cost control system requires matching the work packages to the cost accounting system. unchanged because the contract is in place C. A. E. The cost to the buyer to accomplish these changes is ________. B. E. The direct mapping of the work packages to the accounting is accomplished by establishing a ________. D. a change in contract scope delays in schedule lack of work force experience integration uncertainty for project elements contractor claims for out-of-scope work PMgroup Controlling 122 Que # 122 Que Suppose the contingency allowance established to cover unforeseen activities of a project has been set at eight percent of the total project cost. but ________ do(es) not necessarily contribute to cost overruns of a project budget. work package cost/price work breakdown structure element cost correlation matrix computer coded bar chart code of accounts PMgroup Controlling 121 Que # 121 Que Cost overruns on a project have major impacts on the profitability of operations. D. A. A. the best source of cost information can be obtained from the ________. E. 119 In estimating the cost of work.119 Que # Que A. B.
E. The project manager has the most control over direct costs such as ________. D. The formula "BCWP . A. D. The formula for CPI is ________. unknown because the cost of the changed work is not specified PMgroup Planning 124 Que # 124 Que In the earned values system. there are two indices Cost Performance Index (CPI) and Schedule Performance Index (SPI). A. and awards labor. ACWP = 110. This is further defined as "budgeted" and "actual" work. E. cost difference schedule variance overrun conditions schedule difference cost variance PMgroup Planning 125 Que # 125 Que Indices can provide an indication of the status of a project. B. facilities. G&A. bonuses.D. and transportation PMgroup Planning 129 Que # 129 ." which is divided into "scheduled" and "performed" work. and fees overhead. E. In the earned values system. B. C. C. D. unchanged because the buyer (customer) is always right E. fees. A. C. the status of the project is reported as BCWS = 100. The project is now ________. D. BCWP = 95. and fees G&A. supervision. A. E. materials. and equipment labor. B. underspent and behind schedule overspent and ahead of schedule underspent and ahead of schedule overspent and behind schedule cannot be determined from available data PMgroup Controlling 127 Que # 127 Que Projects have direct and indirect costs that the project manager must track to ensure the budget is not exceeded.BCWS" provides the ________. C. B. ACWP/BCWS ACWP/BCWP BCWP/ACWP BCWS/ACWP BCWS/BCWP PMgroup Planning 126 Que # 126 Que Suppose that in the earned value system. the focus is on "cost of work.
000. B. E. or first audit opportunity.000. The buyer has asked for two types of price first. start of the planning start of the implementation end of the planning end of the implementation middle of the implementation PMgroup Planning 133 Que # 133 . $10. $11. D. E. A. C. net 30" would provide a savings of ________. the total bid under each option (i. E..844.400.832. D. D.232.000. $10. $100 (x = 30) $200 (x = 30) $300 (x = 10) $200 (x = 10) cannot be determined from available data PMgroup Controlling 131 Que # 131 Que Project financial audits are used to determine the current status of the financial health of a project. C. A. $11. second. This is a two-year project that is being priced at $10. The first audit.000 $12. B. C.000 $10.000 $10. $10.412.000. C.000.Que A project is being advertised to solicit bidders. One method of encouraging early payment of invoices is to offer a discount for payment within a few days. if payment is made in total upon completion of the project.040. A.484. If an invoice for $10. $11.000 when the cost of money is not included. but ________ is/are not an area for financial audit.e.000 $11. payment at midpoint) is ________. a project budget system a project computer system a project change control a project status reporting cash-flow projections PMgroup Controlling 132 Que # 132 Que A project audit is often a three-step process using different skills to assess the condition of the health of the project.000 PMgroup Planning 130 Que # 130 Que The cost of money and cash flow can adversely affect the financial status of the project.400. D. B. payment at the end. A. E. If the interest rate over the two years is eight percent. if payment is made 50 percent at the midpoint of completion and 50 percent upon total completion.000.800. B.244. Assume money is borrowed in two equal increments-at the start of year 1 and year 2. is at the ________ phase. the method "two 10.000 was paid within (x) days (see each possible answer for value of x).
A. the credit at 100 percent completion is better because the accounting lags the work-in-process by 30 days in any type of payment schedule D. Of the following. D. B. either method is acceptable under an incremental payment schedule contract B. the credit at 50 percent completion is better because it improves the cash flow under an incremental payment schedule E. C. From the seller's point of view. the credit at 100 percent completion is better for either a lump-sum or incremental payment contract because the accounting is more accurate C. and the lack of understanding as to the full scope of work. B. the decision may be to ensure a high profitability. A second method is to allow full credit when 50 percent of the work package is complete to permit the performing contractor (seller) to receive credit for work-in-process. E. there are several methods of accepting credit for the completion of work. A. change orders to the contract expenditures to buy materials revised cost estimates made in-house changes to subcontractor's scope of work correction to the work breakdown structure to eliminate some tasks PMgroup Planning 134 Que # 134 Que In the earned value system for determining project status.Que The budget for a project is the baseline from which future expenditures are measured. making three estimates and taking the average continually making estimates as the project progresses also including the range of potential error for an estimated item using two or more cost estimating techniques to arrive at an average cost delaying estimates until all information is acquired PMgroup Planning 137 Que # 137 . C. the uncertainty regarding the future state of the economy. full credit is allowed after the work package is complete. B. capability at the beginning margin (rate) at the midpoint margin (rate) at the end goals at the beginning goals at the end PMgroup Planning 136 Que # 136 Que Estimating costs for a project is difficult because of the lack of historical cost records. E. A. In the most common method. senior management should agree on profit ________ of the project. the credit at 50 percent completion is better because it reduces the billing cycle PMgroup Planning 135 Que # 135 Que Because of the investment or risk associated with a project. A. D. When this is the case. E. D. ________. C. Successive estimating is one method of accounting for the uncertainty of cost estimating by ________. ________ do(es) not cause change to the budget baseline during project implementation.
C. E. quantities. D. E. B. D. accept them orally B. C. net worth. E. A. which is used to evaluate ________. document and authorize all changes E. use the earned value system PMgroup Planning 142 Que # 142 . A. risk factors. contract type. work breakdown structure PERT estimates earned value order of magnitude estimate BCWR PMgroup Controlling 140 Que # 140 Que The EAC is a forecasting technique based on past project performance. B. and alternatives price. and time of purchase risk factors. A. D. cumulative actuals + (ETC X CPI) cumulative actuals + new estimate for cost of work remaining cumulative actuals + remaining budget all of the above none of the above PMgroup Controlling 141 Que # 141 Que The best way to manage the costs of change requests is to ________. price. allow them to happen in ad hoc fashion C. and net present value alternative outcomes. and given quantities risk factors. E. It can be calculated using the formula ________.Que The degree of uncertainty (lack of information) in a project affects the ability of cost estimators to make precise estimates to determine the total cost. C. A. C. impose change unilaterally D. One method to resolve the uncertainty is influence diagramming. A. B. analogous estimates parametric estimates top-down estimates bottom-up estimates function point estimates PMgroup Planning 139 Que # 139 Que The ________ identifies the project elements that costs will be allocated to. D. price. and project duration PMgroup Planning 138 Que # 138 Que The most accurate estimates (and the most expensive to produce) are _______. B.
favorable tax write-off favorable tax write-off. a third party must provide the necessary capital. B. E. and shortage transportation. the participants' business reasons for the project the share of ownership to be retained the level of risk the participants are to share the project's anticipated cash flow and tax benefits. damage. A. and damage PMgroup Planning 143 Que # 143 Que Project financing is critical to large projects where neither the owner (buyer) or contractor (seller) has sufficient funds available to cover the costs incurred during project implementation. and loss quantities. The third party evaluates the feasibility of financing the project based on ________. new source of funds ownership without risk of operation. and deterioration transportation. which can transfer the ownership to the investors. The major advantage for the investors is ________ . storage. D. tax benefits are optimized. D. E. In such cases.Que Materials management is crucial to the success of the project when resources are needed at a specified time and place to ensure continued progress. if any all of the above PMgroup Planning 144 Que # 144 Que The financing plan for a project should detail the methods of obtaining and dispensing the capital over the full duration of the project. C. D. low risk for operation and maintenance high internal rate of return. and ________. management should ensure that participants' credit standing is preserved. B. deterioration. A. and the major advantage for the user of the system is ________. storage. C. A. A. In preparing the plan and considering risk and reward. D. C. E. E. control of a business. The system is then leased back for operation and use. additional tax relief is pursued lines of credit are opened accesses to sources of new capital are maintained maximum financing is used late receipt of funds is avoided PMgroup Planning 145 Que # 145 Que Investors are often used to obtain the necessary financing for major projects. storage. maximum leverage is used. An assessment of the materials costs should consider not only the cost of purchase but also ________. transportation. and storage storage. C. reduced cost risk PMgroup Planning 146 Que # 146 . B. flexibility is incorporated into ownership. B. favorable tax write-off reduced quality (performance) risk.
sales. and payables sales. set up a duplicate project accounting system. A. the owner has a lot at risk in terms of meeting his/her objectives. inventories. In a more global view. the expenditure rate will be viewed optimistically (underspent) and the project manager will attempt to increase expenditures C. B.Que Lending institutions are eager to finance projects that have an excellent potential for being successful and repaying the loans. C. receivables. receipts.e. and inventories cash. ensure that only fixed price contracts are awarded and that payment is only upon satisfactory completion of the project C. and receivables receipts. each year). receipts. One of the best methods of controlling contractor expenditure rates under any type of contract is to ________. and stock PMgroup Controlling 148 Que # 148 Que Under any type of contract.. E. savings. have an "owner's representative" monitor and track all expenditures and have power to disapprove any expenditure that is not justified to him/her D. the budget will always be greater than the rate of expenditure when delays are encountered in paying the billings B. to become a functioning entity the project must have working capital. and receivables cash. cash. A. D. B. inventories. which consists of ________. This poses a potential problem because _________ . track and pay the costs of the contract by phases or stages and evaluate the costs at each review/decision point E. Timely repayment of the debt depends largely on ________. compared to expenditures at the end of each accounting cycle (i. hold back a portion of the payment until all work is completed to the satisfaction of the technical inspectors B. A. A. C. Although the fixed price contract transfers much of the risk to the contractor. therefore. the owner (buyer) is always concerned with the cost of a project and the contractor's (seller's) expenditure rates. the budget is not representative of the expenditure rate when there is an increase to the scope of work . receivables. and validate the costs as being the best value for the owner PMgroup Planning 149 Que # 149 Que The budget for a major project lasting several years is usually prepared to reflect expenditures on an annual basis. sales. The budget is. the willingness of the owners to make payments future cash flows to be generated by the entity the debt-to-liquidity ratio the entity's internal rate of return on operations future ownership and operating cycles PMgroup Planning 147 Que # 147 Que The success of a project is usually considered its ability to meet the objectives established prior to the start of the project. inventories. D. E. track all costs.
Staff days A. BCWP = 100 E. ACWP = 110 D. B. Units of currency . BCWP = 110 C. I only II only III only I and II only I. II. which have been incurred on the project ot date C. D. The types of resources required D. Cost estimating D. Cost budgeting E. C. Salary schedules C. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date E. A method of measuring project performance D. Cost control PMgroup Planning 357 Que # 357 Que Which of the following choices indicates that your project was 10% under budget? A. BCWS = 100. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the data date B. Resource leveling C. Historical informaiton PMgroup Planning 360 Que # 360 Que Cost estimates may be expressed in II. BCWS = 110 PMgroup Planning 358 Que # 358 Que Earned value can best be defined as A.D. The sum of the labor costs. Staff hours III. BCWP = 110 B. E. ACWP = 110. the budget changes too frequently to permit a valid comparison of the plan versus the actual expenditures E. Analogous estimating E. BCWS = 100. schedule delays or restructuring of the workload will affect costs during the accounting periods and give false indications of expenditure rates PMgroup Planning 356 Que # 356 Que Project Cost Management includes all of the following functions EXCEPT A. and III I. Job descriptions B. BCWP = 100. The Actual Cost of Work Performed minus the Budgeted Cost of Work Performed PMgroup Planning 359 Que # 359 Que The output from resource planning includes A. Resource planning B. ACWP = 100.
Supplies D. Inflation allowances E. C. Less has been spent than planned III. The WBS . and the ACWP is $10K. or unauthorized changes from being included in the cost baseline PMgroup Planning 362 Que # 362 Que During the sixth monthly update on a ten month $30K project. The project will probably complete behind schedule. the analysis shows that the BCWS is $20K.g. E. D. and IV PMgroup Planning 363 Que # 363 Que Cost estimates include all of the following resource categories EXCEPT A. and IV only I. B. Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs E. Ensuring that all appropriate changes are recorded accurately in the cost baseline D. Defining the parameters of the project life cycle C. Materials C. Caldculating individual cost estimates for each work package D. II. use of contracting or internalstaffing. Labor B. What can be ascertained from these figures? I.PMgroup Controlling 361 Que # 361 Que All of the following are functions of cost control EXCEPT A. Preventing incorrect. but under budget A. The policies of the particular organization (e. To complete the project on schedule. or lease or purchase major equipment) B. costs will exceed budget IV. III. Using the WBS as the basis for estimating B. Monitoring cost performance to detect variances from the cost baseline C. inappropriate. Informing the appropriate project stakeholders of authorized changes in the cost baseline B. II. II only Ii and III only III and IV only I. Time allocations PMgroup Planning 364 Que # 364 Que Parametric cost estimating involves A. Using the actual cost of a similar project to extimate total proejct costs PMgroup Planning 365 Que # 365 Que All of the following choices represent inputs to the resource planning process EXCEPT A. Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages in order to establisha cost baseline E. The BCWP is also determined to be $15K. Less has been accomplished that was planned II.
E. BCWS . II.C.ACWP C. The actual final cost of the last project E. Determining that the cost baseline has changed III. E. Actual cost IV. C. B. Actual time to complete similar projects A. Descriptions of the available resources D.BCWS B. Managing cost changes when they occur A. B. BCWP . II. Uses bottom-estimating techniques B. D.BCWP PMgroup Planning 369 Que # 369 Que Earned value includes of work performed cost of work performed A. Percent complete III. E. I.BCWP D. III. and IV PMgroup Planning 368 Que # 368 Que In the earned value system. III. and IV only I. Influencing the factors that create change to the cost base line II. cost variance is computed as A. and IV only I. Commerial cost estimating databases IV. II. III. Budgeted PMgroup Planning 370 Que # 370 Que Analogous estimating A. The scope statement PMgroup Controlling 366 Que # 366 Que Cost control is concerned with I. II. and IV only I. III only I and II only II and III only I. ACWP . BCWP . Uses the actual costs from a previous. Project team knowledge II. C. I only III only I and III only II and III only I. II. similar project . and IV I. ACWP . III. Project files III. III. B. C. D. and III only PMgroup Planning 367 Que # 367 Que Historical results used in cost estimating may include I. Comleted work value II. D.BCWS E. and III only I. and IV only II.
Resource Planning and Cost Estimating Cost Estimating and Cost Budgeting Cost Budgeting and Cost Control Resource Planning and Cost Control Resource Planning. which of the following information is needed? A. The Scope statement C. the project is A. adn ACWP = 104. B. C.C. E. Ahead of schedule B. Resource requirements PMgroup Controlling 372 Que # 372 Que Of the following four major processes contained in Project Cost Mangement. The monthly Consumer Price Index on some commodities essential to the project has gone up by 1. E. D.6%. an increase of 46% over the 1. B. which are concerned with the Cost Baseline? A. The productivity in the Dratfting Department is lower than anticipated which has resulted in 1. The contractor's company has instituted a Quality Program in which it has pledged to spend $1M during the next year D. Summarizes estimates for individual work items PMgroup Planning 371 Que # 371 Que Inputs to resource planning include all of the following EXCEPT A. D. Operating at project cost projections D. The client has authorized a $10K addition to the scope of the project C.1% that had been budgeted B. Is used most frequently in the later stages of a project D. Organization policies E. Likely to come in under budget at completion E. A resource pool description D. Headed for a cost overrun C. BCWP and ACWP BCWP and CV CPI and CV ACWP and CPI ACWP and ETC PMgroup Planning 374 Que # 374 Que If BCWS = 100. Behind schedule PMgroup Controlling 375 Que # 375 Que Which is an acceptable cause for "re-baselining" a $10M project A. and Cost Control PMgroup Controlling 373 Que # 373 Que In order to determine the project's Estimate at Completion. The WBS B. Uses project characteristics in a mathematical model E. a 78% increase over what was budgeted . Cost Estimating. BCWP = 98. C.000 additional hours.
000 8.000 7. C. actual costs are less than planned costs 1.000 8. E.000 7.000 5 4 PMgroup Planning 501 Que # 501 Que According to earned value analysis.000 9. B. Item 1 Item 2 Item 3 Item 4 Item 5 BCWS 10. and what does it tell us about cost performance thus far?BCWS = $2.000 BCWP 10. E. actual costs have exceeded planned costs 1.000 11.000 3 8. D.5KBAC = $10K A.000 5.000 3 8.000 A.000 8.000 5.25. D.000 A. D. C. C.25.000 6. E.000 6. B.000 2 9.000 6. actual costs have exceeded planned costs 0. The engineering dpartment has converted to a new $200K CAD system PMgroup Planning 376 Que # 376 Que Which item is most over budget? Item BCWS 1 10. Item 1 Item 2 Item 3 Item 4 Item 5 ACWP 11. B.2KBCWP = $2KACWP = $2.000 7.000 7.000 5 6. C.000 7.E.000 4 7. actual costs are exactly as planned 0. the SV of the project described below is A. B.000 8.000 PMgroup Planning 377 Que # 377 Que Which item has the lowest SPI?Item ACWP BCWP 1 10.000 8. E.000 9.80. +$300 and the project is behind schedule -$300 and the project is ahead of schedule +$8K and the project is on schedule +$200 and the project is ahead of schedule -$200 and the project is behind schedule PMgroup Planning 502 Que # 502 Que What is the CPI for this project.80.000 8.20. actual costs are less than planned costs . 0. D.000 2 9.
None of the above PMgroup Planning 504 Que # 504 Que What is the EAC for this project. Acquisition costs only PMgroup Planning 506 Que # 506 Que Accelerated depreciation allows a company to write capital expenses off its taxes more quickly.500. Straight-line Double-declining balance Rapid capital deduction A and B All of the above PMgroup Planning 507 Que # 507 Que Experts contend that sunk costs should not be considered in making financial decisions about the future of a project. including the costs of operations and disposal D. B.5KBAC = $10K A.2KBCWP = $2KACWP = $2. $10K.PMgroup Planning 503 Que # 503 Que The CV is BCWS = $2.2KBCWP = $2KACWP = $2. measured by subtracting total costs from estimated gross revenues C.500. $12. E. the revised estimate for total project cost (based on performance thus far) C. Which of the following is a recognized method of accelerated depreciation? A. and what does it represent?BCWS = $2. the original project budget B. the revised estimate for total project cost (based on performance thus far) E. $10K. planning. ($300) C. None of the above PMgroup Planning 505 Que # 505 Que Life-cyle cost estimates consider the A. D. the original project budget D. $12. E. ($500) E. $300 B. Project cost at the time of customer acceptance E. Sunk costs are A. B. D. $500 D. Expected profits. The initial outlay to get a project started Costs that have been expended already The average cost per unit The marginal cost Total indirect and direct costs . and closeout phases B. Cost of ownership. Costs of the project for the concept. C.5KBAC = $10K A. C. implementation.
Involves using the cost of a previous. C. E. Has an accuracy rate of +/. E. Is a form of expert judgement C. Subcontractor expenses C. D. Is used to estimate total project costs when a limited amount of detailed projectinformation is available D. Electricity E. E.PMgroup Planning 508 Que # 508 Que All the following statements about analogous estimating are true except that it A. Production equipment that requires less operator training lowers unit costs Unit costs decrease as production rates increase Unit costs decrease in a regular pattern as more units are produced Costs of training increase as the level of automation increases None of the above PMgroup Planning 512 Que # 512 Que Which of the following is NOT an example of a direct cost? A. B. B and D PMgroup Planning . D. Use early start times for noncritical tasks use resource leveling to optimize the productivity of project resources Crash the tasks that have the longest duration Crash critical tasks for which cost of crashing is lowest Use late start times for noncritical tasks PMgroup Planning 511 Que # 511 Que According to learning curve theory. similar project as the basis for estimatingthe cost of teh current project E. B. C. C. Materials used by the project D. D. Salary of the project manager B. when many items are produced repetitively A. Order-of-magnitude Budget Definitive Initial Detailes PMgroup Controlling 510 Que # 510 Que If a project is running behind schedule and the project manager decides to crash the network to catch up. Supports top-down estimating B.10% of actual costs PMgroup Planning 509 Que # 509 Que Which of the following estimates would most closely predict the actual cost of a project? A. B. which of the following rules should he/she follow? A.
thereby reducing profit PMgroup Controlling 517 Que # 517 Que Which of the following is a tool for analyzing a design. Actual expenditures totaled $120K. determining its functions. Pareto diagram Kanban Configuration management Value analysis Management by objectives PMgroup Planning 518 Que # 518 Que The cost management plan A. C. If previous projects are similar in fact. E. D. Smaller production runs will increase unit costs. The project is ahead of schedule The project is in trouble because of a cost overrun Project costs are within a normal range The project will finish within the original budget Sufficient information is not available PMgroup Planning 514 Que # 514 Que In bottom-up cost estimating. Funds reserved for bid and proposal costs C. Using fewer resources will result in greater profit C. E. Using more resources will result in the projrect's taking less time E. D. Using more resources will result in proportionately more output B. accuracy is enhanced A. cumulative planned expenditures were $100K. If the individuals or groups preparing the estimates are fully qualified E. C. Funds set aside for unforeseen problems D. Current liabilities plus current assets E. Using more resources will result in proportionately less output D. Through the use of computerized toos PMgroup Planning 515 Que # 515 Que Working capital consists of A. Establishes the cost baseline C. Measures and monitors cost performance on the project . Current assets minus current liabilities B. and assessing how to provide those functions cost-effectively? A. By using accurate historical information C.513 Que # Que 513 As the fourth month on the Acme project. Current liabilities minus current assets PMgroup Planning 516 Que # 516 Que According to the law of dimishing returns A. not just in appearance D. Describes how CVs will be managed B. How is the Acme project doing? A. B. With smaller work items B. B.
The project manager is rewarded if only a few of the allocated resources are used E. Morale on the project may be increased . Provides another way to help measure and monitor cost performance D. Represent the basic level at which project performance is measured and reported E. Summarize project costs at level 2 of the WBS C. The project must be finished as soon as possible but without exceeding a specific level of resource usage B. Identify and track management reserves D. A just-in-time inventory policy may be used without worrying that the quantity delivered will be incorect C. Less management attention is required if the use of a given resource is nearly constant over time B. A and C E. D. B. Identifies the project elements so that costs can be allocated B.D. E. A. B. All of the above PMgroup Planning 522 Que # 522 Que Considering the project schedule during the cost budgeting process A. A. Are charge accounts for personnel time management B. Th eproject must be finished by a certain time using a few resources as possible D. A and B E. Functional managers do not allocate the required number of resources at the time required by the project manager C. and C PMgroup Planning 523 Que # 523 Que Resource leveling is an important tool for the project manager because A. After-tax profit reported to the government Average rate of return for the project EAC minus BAC CV percentage Ratio of discounted revenues over discounted costs PMgroup Controlling 521 Que # 521 Que A resource-limited project is one in which A. and C PMgroup Planning 519 Que # 519 Que Cost accounts A. B. All of the above PMgroup Planning 520 Que # 520 Que The internal rate of return is a measure of a project's expected profitability that can be thought of as the A. C. Allows costs to be assigned to the time period when they will be incurred C.
B. Total cost C. Determine the physical resources needed to perform project activities B.D. Fixed cost D. Assess the organizational policies concerning resources for use on the project PMgroup Planning 525 Que # 525 Que The cost of investing in a particular project and. Future value of present cash flow PMgroup Planning 528 Que # 528 Que Supporting detail for cost estimates should include A. After-tax value of working capital B. Bottom-up estimating Parametric modeling Analogous estimating Computerized tools Range estimating PMgroup Planning 527 Que # 527 Que Net present value is the A. forgoing the potential benefits of other projects is known as A. E. Indirect cost E. Approximate the costs of resources needed to complete project activities C. All of the above PMgroup Planning 524 Que # 524 Que The purpose of resource planning is to A. Total budget as of today plus management reserve E. D. Documentation of the basis of teh estimate C. Value today of future cash flow C. C. Determine the resources that are potentially available E. Stable labor levels will result in fewer problems with regard to administration of personnel and payroll E. A description of the scope of work B. Variable cost B. All of the above PMgroup Planning . Provide quantitative assessments of the costs of resources required to complete project activities D. therefore. An indication of teh range of results E. Documentation of any assumptions made D. Total budget as of today D. Opportunity cost PMgroup Planning 526 Que # 526 Que Which of the following techniques for cost estimating is considered the least accurate? A.
D. B. B. The cost of quality includes the A. Provide a quantitative assessment of the likely costs of the resources required to completeproject activities C. and C . Take actuals to date plus the remaining project budget modified by a performance factor B. Ratio of discounted revenues over discounted costs B. The number of people assigned to each task C. E. A method to minimize the period-by-period variations in resources by shifting tasks withintheir slace allowances B. Take actuals to date plus a new estimate for all remaining work Take actuals to date plus the remaining budget A and B A. D. the project manager can A. Point in time where costs exceed profit E. C. the project manager should consider the cost of quality in determining the project's budget. Allocate cost estimates to individual work items to establish a cost baseline againstwhich project performance can be measured E. The need to finish a project as soon as possible without exceeding a specified level of resource usate PMgroup Controlling 532 Que # 532 Que Anticipating the actios and resources required to satisfy customers is an investment in the future. and C PMgroup Planning 533 Que # 533 Que To determine EAC. Margin that has been earned PMgroup Planning 530 Que # 530 Que The purpose of cost budgeting is to A. All of the above PMgroup Planning 531 Que # 531 Que Resource loading describes A. Cost of conformance (doing it right the first time) Cost of nonconformance Cost of materials A and B A. The amount of materials needed for each task D. Determine the cost of the resources needed to complete project activities and allocate them to the proper chart of accounts for the organization B. Therefore. Monitor cost performance to detect variances from the plan D. E. Project that is expected to become profitable most quickly D. C. The amount of individual resources that an existing schedule requires during specific time periods E. B.529 Que # Que 529 Financial analysis of payback period identifies the A. Future value of money invested today C.
Implicitly. A basis for monitoring results according to the plan E. Current variances are viewed as typical of future variances B. present value. in advance of committing to the budget B. Management reserve B. to allow for a management reserve C. At the time the price is determined PMgroup Controlling 536 Que # 536 Que The process of cost control includes all the following actions except A. Selecting projects using IRR. Indirect pool of accounts E. A full-period projection that uses a top-down. A way to examine individual components of a budget so that management knows the project'sstatus at all times PMgroup Planning 538 Que # 538 Que The method of calculating the EAC by adding the remaining project budget (modified by a performance factor) to the actuals to date is used most often when the A. bottom-up budget for the njearest 6-month segment of the project C. Project management team believes that similar variances will not occur in the future . Performance measurement baseline C. or other techniques to ensure profitability D. Informing appropriate stakeholders of authorized changes E. A qualitative basis for measuring and rewarding individual and departmental performance D. General and administrative accounts PMgroup Planning 535 Que # 535 Que Contingencies should be justified A. Ensuring that all appropriate changes are recorded accurately in the cost baseline C. Level-of-effort cost accounts D. Explicitly.PMgroup Planning 534 Que # 534 Que The undistributed budget is part of the A. Monitoring cost performance to detect variancesa from the plan and determining the reasonsfor both positive and negative variances B. unsupported budget along with a fully supported. Preventing incorect. As needed during the project D. Maximum assurance that management's oals are reasonable and attainable because supporting details are included B. inappropriate. `At the time the budget is prepared E. or unauthorized changes from being includedin the cost baseline PMgroup Planning 537 Que # 537 Que A rolling-wave budget provides A.
B. A. and C ANSWERS 502 100 105 108 112 121 139 367 514 515 518 521 524 535 538 540 101 102 114 116 119 124 127 131 133 137 146 356 B. A. B. B. and a relaistic measure of performance is needed B. B. A. A. A. A. A. Helps to monitor project performance at a glance D. B. B. B.C. Is also knows as a S-curve C. B. B. B. B. A. A and C E. CVs are severe. . Original estimating assumptions are considered to be fundamentally flawed PMgroup Planning 539 Que # 539 Que The cumulative cost curve for planned and actual expenditures A. A. A. A. Shows the difference beeetween planned and actual expenditures E. Current variances are viewed as atypical ones E. A. Corrective action must be taken to bring expected future performance in linewith the project plan D. A. A. B. A. B. All of the above PMgroup Controlling 540 Que # 540 Que Rebaselining may be an output of cost control when A. Shows the cumulative expenditures for the project B. Original estimating assumptions are no longer reliable because conditions have changed D. Revised cost estimates are prepared and distributed to stakeholders C. A.
D. D. B. D. C. D. C. D. C. B. C. C. D. C. C. C. D. D. C. D. D. C. C. C. D. C. D. C. D. C. D. D. B. D. B. D. B. B. D. B. C. B. B. C.357 368 370 374 375 506 507 520 522 527 534 537 109 110 113 117 125 132 136 142 144 145 358 359 372 505 509 511 516 526 529 536 107 111 115 126 129 130 134 135 138 140 141 147 148 361 362 364 365 369 377 503 504 B. . D. D. B. C. C. D. B. C.
E. D. E. E. D. E. E. E. E. E. E. D. E. . E. D. D. E.510 512 517 519 530 531 532 103 104 106 118 120 122 123 143 149 360 363 366 371 373 376 501 508 513 523 525 528 533 539 D. E. E. E. D. E. E. E. E. E. E. E. E.
Easy to understand B.PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT PMgroup Executing 100 Que # 100 Que Middle (functional) managers have the greatest influence in the direction of the project in which type of organizational structure? A. C.. Identifying individual tasks for a project B. Developed in cooperation with the user E.. B.. Selection of personnel E. How task are related to each other D. Scheduling the start of tasks C. All of the above PMgroup Planning 104 Que # 104 Que A work breakdown structure is most useful for . A.. A communication tool between the user and the design team C. Developing a cost estimate D. D. A. A. Determining potential delays E. Typically describe physical dimensions and performance requirements PMgroup Planning 103 Que # 103 Que A Gantt chart is useful in determining . Termination decision PMgroup Planning 102 Que # 102 Que A technical requirement has which of these characteristics? A. The level of effort for a task B. Written in non-technical language D. When a task starts and stops C. Projectized Strong matrix Weak matrix Project coordinator Project expediter PMgroup Planning 101 Que # 101 Que A clear definition of the users' needs serves as the direct basis for the . Project cost estimate D. E. A and C PMgroup Executing 105 Que # 105 Que Scope Management A. Work breakdown structure B. Functional requirement C.. Entails managing the project's work content .. Who is assigned to do a task E.
A cost center structure of the project . A basis for future decisions about the project B. B and C PMgroup Planning 111 Que # 111 Que Customer influence in the project planning process is A. Best handled by the sales department E. Meddlesome and will slow down progress B. Is not a concern of the project manager E. Is a subset of configuration management and as such is performed by CM specialists C. Provides a means whereby various levels of authority can judge project performance C. b and C only PMgroup Planning 107 Que # 107 Que Utilization of a Work Breakdown Structure A. Subdivides the project into manageable segments C. All of the above E. Provides the project sponsor with a time-phase task summary D. Assures all work is identified B. Essential in accurately documenting the goals and objectives of the project C.B. None of the above PMgroup Planning 106 Que # 106 Que The scope statement provides A. All the above E. None of the above PMgroup Planning 113 Que # 113 Que The WBS is A. An organization oriented family tree of the project B. Are not necessary on small projects B. All of the above PMgroup Executing 110 Que # 110 Que The use of progress reports A. A and B E. A task oriented family tree of the project C. Is concerned with naming all activities performed. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes D. A minor consideration because the customer has difficulty in stating what he wants D. and theresources consumed D. Provides insight into project problem areas and the effectiveness of the controls systems D. the end products which result. A baseline to accomplish verification measures C.
Acquisition phase E. Is accomplished by selection of measurable variables against which performance can be judged C. Specifies the overall objectives and timeframes of the project E. A and B only PMgroup Planning 115 Que # 115 Que The Project Charter A. Provides the authority by which the project may proceed C. the reputation of the manufacturer D. Senior management B. The customer C. All of the above E. None of the above PMgroup Planning 114 Que # 114 Que Creation of project objectives A. the company's commitment to quality PMgroup Planning 122 Que # 122 .D. All of the above PMgroup Planning 117 Que # 117 Que The Project Charter is developed by A. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages are difficult to construct E. Both A and C E. activities in the Concept phase B. how well it is built C. Establishes the organizational structure within which the project will operate D. Concept phase B. A and/or B PMgroup Initiating 121 Que # 121 Que Reliability of a product is most directly affected by A. Implementation phase D. The project manager D. Allows for data collection and analysis and progress reporting against which standards of performance can be measured B. the project manager E. Expresses upper management commitment to the project B. Development phase C. None of the above PMgroup Planning 120 Que # 120 Que The design phase refers to the A. Is required before funding of the project by the project sponsor D.
+75%. B. contracts. the concept phase and management plan E. allocations. -5% impossible to determine from this information the risk tolerance of the project PMgroup Planning 129 Que # 129 Que Diane was thrilled to get her first assignment as project manager. D. she knew the organization style would be a strong matrix organization and this meant the greatest challenge would be A. all of the above PMgroup Executing 125 Que # 125 Que Earned person-hours refers to A. tomorrow morning. As you work all night adding up elements in your WBS.Que A. E. BCWP E. involves naming all activities to be performed C. b and c E. project plan. difficult team building . implementing Management by Objective B. the project organization B. actual value PMgroup Executing 126 Que # 126 Que The greatest potential cost savings in a project are found in A. all of the above PMgroup Executing 127 Que # 127 Que Your vice-president of projects wants a budget estimate on his desk by 7 am. -25% +25%. allocation and acquisition budgets. appropriations and allocation a and c a and b PMgroup Executing 123 Que # 123 Que Scope Management A. assigning and acquisition feasibility. earned cost D. prepares the project for progress reporting D. B. However. percent complete x budgeted days C. workers' quality suggestions during implementation D. -10% +10%. D. The Development phase is the phase that includes appropriations. percent complete x budgeted hours B. good contract negotiations C. E. C. involves controlling the project in terms of its goals B. you realize it must be accurate within A. C.
B.C. E. customer acceptance of project efforts PMgroup Planning 136 Que # 136 Que Detailed descriptions of work packages are commonly contained in . improved cost estimates B. the central role played by the purchasing department E. organizing her kickoff meeting D. schedule B. D. we can anticipate that the amount of project documentation and communication A. task-oriented family tree of activities E. the project manager C. upper management D. the logistics department E. will grow linearly will remain constant will grow more rapidly than linearly will decrease will be unaffected by project size PMgroup Planning 134 Que # 134 Que In general. the project workers would report to her as well as to a functional manager PMgroup Planning 130 Que # 130 Que Which of the following would you expect to see in a work package? A. all of the above PMgroup Planning 131 Que # 131 Que The WBS is best described as a A. organization D. product specifications are best developed by A. method C. the technical staff B. the central role played by the accounting department D. some of the functional managers preferred a hierarchical organization E. quality objectives E. improved schedule estimates C. process PMgroup Executing 133 Que # 133 Que As we deal with increasingly larger projects. cost C. duration B. C. the contracts department PMgroup Executing 135 Que # 135 Que A key attribute of scope verification is A. resource D.
to identify whether problems exist so that corrective action can be undertaken D. B. close-out E. a need to engage in bottom-up cost estimating E. implementation D. C. a desire to incorporate a newly emerged technology into the project effort D. B.A. parametric estimation scope definition feasability analysis market research benefit-cost analysis PMgroup Planning 139 Que # 139 Que Increasingly. in order to punish them B. scope definition efforts A. the project charter competitive analyses requests for tenders WBS dictionaries statements of work PMgroup Controlling 137 Que # 137 Que Which of the following is not an example of a source of scope change? A. C. to assist in the development of a scope statement E. a change of government regulations B. C. B. b and c PMgroup Planning 141 Que # 141 Que In what phase are the project's scope and objectives determined? A. E. more manageable components is called A. in order to increase the quality of project deliverables. E. are carried out by teams of developers working with customers employ quality control charts to establish better scope statements are carried out by the organization's leading technical staff are written in symbolic notation in order to reduce ambiguity are closely supervised by upper management PMgroup Executing 140 Que # 140 Que A fundamental role of progress measurement on projects should be A. D. D. D. conceptual B. development C. customers who change their minds about the desired nature of the deliverable PMgroup Planning 138 Que # 138 Que The subdivision of major project deliverables (as identified in the scope statement) into smaller. operations and maintenance . to identify poor performers. failure to include a required feature in the design of telecommunication system C. to determine whether the project is basically on target C. E.
PMgroup Executing 142 Que # 142 Que The Delphi technique can be used for information forecasting. functional matrix projectized decentralized hybridized PMgroup Controlling 144 Que # 144 Que As technology increases in complexity for a project. intuitive expert opinion D. to identify project goals . the marketing department E. the project team D. E. the analytical hierarchy process PMgroup Executing 143 Que # 143 Que Allocating human resources is most straightforward in what type of organization? A. what is the best way for it to structure its operations? A. D. matrix structure functional structure projectized structure ego less structure self-directed team stucture PMgroup Planning 148 Que # 148 Que By whom are project plans generally developed? A. C. simulation models B. Linear programming algorithms E. the engineering department PMgroup Planning 151 Que # 151 Que Which is not an important function of the kickoff meeting? A. E. decreases remains the same increases is unimportant decreases. the level of uncertainty in the work definition A. D. then increases PMgroup Executing 145 Que # 145 Que In general. B. D. The chief characteristic of this technique is that it employs A. the project General Manager B. B. the Director of Projects C. if a division's activities are focused on the achievement of a single major project. E. C. extrapolation from historical data C. C. B.
D. an engineering change proposal (ECP). service. . the project charter. D. a baseline. An ERB. B.B. C. or result for the purpose of purchase and/or implementation of an item or service" is called A. E. an RFP. project workers formulate it. coupled with a statement of management authorization. D. a specification. it employs numbers. A WBS. E. E. PPBS.. PMgroup Executing 158 Que # 158 Que "A precise description of a physical item. B. procedure. it is developed by the planning team. a status report. a sanity check. estimate the costs of WBS elements. a work package. PMgroup Planning 153 Que # 153 Que A WBS numbering system should allow project staff to A. monthly) detailing time. E.g. C. a project charter PMgroup Executing 156 Que # 156 Que A periodic document (e. identify configuration management milestones. identify the level at which individual WBS elements are found. a WBS element. D. a work authorization. biweekly. is called A. estimate project completion dates. D. and resource performance is called A. B. C. C. to introduce the players to present the project charter to present the detailed plan to get team buy-in PMgroup Planning 152 Que # 152 Que An objective is clear if A. traceability. B. C. cost. C. D. different people reading it hold a single view of its meaning. E. a and b PMgroup Planning 155 Que # 155 Que A general description of a project's objectives. top management proposes it B. E.
status. D. and financial audit. exception. and exception. D. C. Profitability. PMgroup Que concept development implementation termination B and C Executing Project control depends heavily on the utilization of an effective status reporting system. C. Status. The chief characteristic of a weak matrix is A. D. scoring sheets C. C. and exception. E. when cross functional solutions are needed to produce a deliverable. PMgroup Executing 162 Que # 162 Que The following actions characterize which phase of the project life-cycle motivate team. 167 166 Que # PMgroup Que 167 Que # . Balance sheet. when work is unique. Status. when a team is producing a one-of-a-kind deliverable. B. management reserve is rapidly being depleted. B. execute work packages. status. team members are not fully trained to do the job. variance. variance. the functional manager has relatively more influence in making decisions than the project manager. Which of the following are the most common categories of project reports? Status. 166 Executing Project management can be employed in a wide Variety of situations. 165 Planning Project mangement specialists frequently distinguish between weak and strong matrix structures. D. and trend. rebaselining occurs frequently. benefit-cost analysis B. E.PMgroup Planning 161 Que # 161 Que Which of the following is not a common project selection mechanism? A. B. 165 Que # PMgroup Que A. when a deliverable must be produced according to a defined deadline. and stock price. D. procure goods and services. The circumstance in which it is least necessary is A. E. trend. C. E. project objectives are poorly defined. B. when work is routine and repetitively performed by the organization. peer review. resolve problems? A. E. engineering review boards (ERBs). murder boards.
171 Que # PMgroup Que Executing In typical project situations. B. C. multi-objective programming algorithms. C. scoring models. E.. checklist comparisons of the alternatives. E. benefit-cost ratios. E. D. Cost Estimators 171 Initiating Projects are phased to provide controls over the work and to permit the measurement of progress. B. B. 170 Que # 170 PMgroup Que A.g. D. Budget tracking. 168 A. 173 Que # PMgroup . pre-close-out development. execution study. All of the above. 168 Que # PMgroup Planning Que Constrained optimization methods of project selection include A. E. ABT Project Workbench. Microsoft Project) carry out? schedule tracking with network diagrams and Gantt charts. D. The project objectives are first documented in the project's ________. D. The four phases of a project are conceptual.. D.PMgroup Que Controlling Which of the following functions do contemporary project management software packages (e. 172 Que # PMgroup Que A. charter budget appointment letter for the project manager execution plan/manual master schedule 173 Planning A. ________ . Export data to spreadsheet and database formats. engineers). Operations experts. execution study. C. C. and close-out/termination. execution. a and b only. E. subjective analyses. B. implementation implementation. build 172 Planning Project objectives provide the broad direction to the project. C.g. who among the following has the smallest role to play in selecting projects? Subject matter experts (e. Marketing/sales personnel. Purchasing experts. B.
B. 174 Que # PMgroup Que A. project plan. and skill requirements changes to the scope. materials. 175 Que # PMgroup Que Project objectives are used to describe the scope of a project and are expressed in terms of ________. 176 Que # PMgroup Que A. D. and resources budget. E. required resources. B. C. time. E. charter master schedule budget plan management plan directive system 177 Planning The work breakdown structure is a task-oriented "family tree" of activities that provides the basis for developing the ________. cost control system. This study would be conducted during the ________ phase of the project. B. The purpose of alternative analysis in the project planning is to ________. cost of financing. C. and resources outputs. and project charter project staff. conceptual planning implementation close-out any of the above 176 Planning The project ________ prescribes the guidelines within which a project is organized. cost of financing. administered. D. manpower. determine the most cost-effective method determine the easiest method determine the least risk method determine the safest method all or parts of A through D 175 Initiating Suppose a corporation executive directs that a feasibility study be conducted. desires. D. E. schedule.Que A. E. C. and schedule durations scope definition. and detail schedule project objectives. E. B. C. labor rates. and goals 174 Planning There are usually several alternatives available to perform tasks. 177 Que # PMgroup Que A. and money cost. and timing needs. C. B. D. D. scope volume. and labor rates 178 Executing A. 178 Que # PMgroup . and managed for the timely accomplishment of project objectives.
schedule. E. and budget 180 Executing The matrix organization is often used for a project because it offers advantages over a pure project organization for certain types of projects. 182 Que # PMgroup Que 183 Que # Planning The matrix organization has two forms the weak matrix and the strong matrix. C. B. status. The best organizational structure to use in this situation is the ________ form. D. materials. B. D. The criterion/criteria for selecting a matrix organization is/are ________. E. E. complex projects technically complex work the need for diverse skills on a short-term basis limited resources to implement the project all of the above 182 180 Que # PMgroup Que A. 185 Que # . schedule. cost. B. a weak matrix is used only to plan the project E. B. the number of permanent people assigned to the project B. 184 Que # PMgroup Que A. The primary difference between these two forms is that ________. weak matrix strong matrix project functional line and staff 184 Planning The responsibility chart (or matrix) is a useful tool for defining ________ areas of management. the organization always starts a weak and builds to strong D. variance. trend. and exception cost. and exception analysis. C. A. C. D. performance. time. the number of functional staff assigned to the project C. and performance cost. D. E. large. project and functional jurisdictional shared consulting all of the above 185 PMgroup Que A. A. and schedule price. Types of project reports include ________. trend. C. relative influence is exercised in the decision-making 183 Planning Suppose there is a great deal of uncertainty associated with a project because the work has not been defined because of the lack of information to develop structured plans.Que Planning and implementing a status reporting system for a project is important to effectively manage the rate of progress. quality.
D. accurate cost-schedule status on a daily basis accurate cost-schedule status on a weekly basis cost-schedule trends on a monthly basis baseline variances on a monthly basis baseline variances on a one-time basis A. when it is to be built characteristics/attributes. E. The differences between the two documents are primarily that the specification tells ________ and the statement of work tells ________. C. C. E. you initiate the earned value system. who is to perform the work how many items are to be built. B. build cycle planning element working interface work package price element 189 Planning In planning for the accomplishment of work. 187 Que # PMgroup Que A. D. D. B. E. C. E. 191 Que # PMgroup Que A. The tool that best meets this requirement is the ________. design engineering assembly operations planning operations level of effort tasks interrupted work operations 191 Planning In planning for the monitoring and tracking of cost and schedule as an integrated effort. PERT chart linear program chart bar chart flow chart tabular chart 188 Planning The work breakdown structure comprises several levels of decomposition of the total project. the physical attributes when the delivery is to be accomplished. The lowest level of definition is always the ________. C. D.PMgroup Que Executing The specification and the statement of work are key elements of the contract for a project. C. . D. The output of this system will provide ________. B. what is to be built. B. E. 189 Que # PMgroup Que A. the type of work that cannot be quantified as to the amount of time needed to produce an end product is ________. B. why the project is to be implemented 187 Executing There is a need to illustrate the sequence of activities for the project's feasibility study to permit a macro evaluation of the major tasks. how the work is to be accomplished what skills are to be used. 188 Que # PMgroup Que A.
as-built reviewed. D. quality revised. B. E. project accounting will be accomplished charges will be made against the project invoices will be processed bills will be paid labor charges will be paid 196 Executing Project management was born out of the need for a more efficient and effective means to accomplish goals for work of a defined time duration. B. E. C. working used. Documentation.192 Que # PMgroup Que A. but the planning would not normally include ________. C. preservation. B. A. E. C. predict trends and highlight problems analyze problems and establish contingency costs determine personnel shortfalls and planning problems determine successes and shortfalls identify and assign responsibilities 195 Closing The financial close-out of the project requires that a time be established when no further ________. E. C. The historical records can be used to ________ for future projects of a similar nature. spacing used. excellent 194 Planning The retention of project historical records must be planned during the early phases of the project. D. B. counted. The criteria for using a project management approach to perform work does not include ________. an ad hoc undertaking concerned with a single definable end product . 195 Que # PMgroup Que A. D. project termination contract changes earned value baseline changes project staffing level changes project material requirements 193 Closing Project close-out requires several actions to ensure the logical termination of the ongoing work and compliance with the terms of the contract. 193 Que # PMgroup Que 192 Planning The planning of the project must include all work to be performed to complete the project. and recording of information during the implementation. for example. D. must be ________ to reflect the ________ condition for the customer. which includes the collection. 196 Que # PMgroup Que A. 194 Que # PMgroup Que A.
control. an undertaking that is routine and frequently performed by the present organization C. E.B. B. an undertaking that is of greater complexity of scope than normal D. D. E. The degree to which project management techniques are utilized depends mainly on the project's ________. C. C.S. C. effective direction and change control guidance to the team and new project objectives a single point of responsibility and decision making planning for the budget and schedule new project controls and new baselines 198 Executing Various project management structures are used in industries. B. an undertaking requiring quick response to change and value of time E. C. organizations have formally appointed a ________ to plan. government as the most effective method of managing the acquisition of large systems. scheduling) has been accomplished by a loose conglomeration of independent parties. When the expertise is not resident in-house for the owner. D. As the complexity and size of the projects have increased. 199 Que # PMgroup Que A. the planning (design. require the seller to provide a bonded person delegate to the seller the responsibility hire a project management services representative become a project management expert hire an audit agency to provide trained auditors 197 Que # PMgroup Que A. 200 Que # PMgroup Que A. B. project manager project expediter functional manager logistic specialist planning engineer 200 Executing The owner (buyer) of the project may desire to monitor the progress of a company building the project (the seller). . budget and schedule quality requirements and schedule size and type of industry nature and size manager and team 199 Planning Traditionally. D. This effectiveness is enhanced by the project manager providing ________ throughout the life of the project. D. B. budgeting. s/he may ________ to perform these monitoring functions. an undertaking with a high degree of interdependence among the tasks 197 Executing Project management has long been recognized in the U. E. E. and coordinate the resources. 198 Que # PMgroup Que A.
planning and scheduling of work budget expenditures motivation of team members performance evaluation setting priorities and assigning resources 202 Executing Management information systems have grown over the past decade because of the need to provide project managers and others with more ________ information to support the decision-making process. detailed. C. C. and formatted accurate. 205 Que # PMgroup . E. timely. and rapid accurate. C. ensures the project will be successful in meeting both the ultimate and subgoals D. and relevant engineering. B. D. may conflict with the customer's needs and does not provide guidance for tradeoffs E. improved contract administration conflict reward systems cooperation and communication contract negotiations and changes dispute escalation procedures 205 Controlling 204 Que # PMgroup Que A. schedule. and as-built cost. and quality 203 Planning The project's ultimate goal is customer satisfaction while the subgoals for cost. The less defined the scope. 202 Que # PMgroup Que A. is precisely the effect desired to meet the project's ultimate goal B. D. ensures the project will be completed as planned and will meet the customer's needs C. detailed. 203 Que # PMgroup Que A. E. design. has no impact on the project because the project manager will decide what is important 204 Planning The degree of definition and the size of the project's scope affect the relationship between the project manager and the customer. schedule. and quality may be treated equally. D.201 Que # PMgroup Que 201 Executing Project management's use ranges from mature industries to research and development (R&D) activities exploring new technologies. A. This implied or stated equal treatment of the subgoals ________. B. B. volume. E. The difficulties in managing R&D work include all but ________. the more the need for customer-project manager ________.
the project manager's organization suing the design organization for lack of sufficient detail in the design drawings 206 Que # PMgroup Que 206 Executing From a top management perspective. The project manager is. quality. D. therefore. the more the designer is paid D. A. the progress of the project is measured in completion of blocks of work over time. project organization. schedule. an independent document that covers cost. the tradeoffs are usually made between ________. and implementation phases direct cost. the designer not having the incentive to ensure the designs are the most cost effective B. given designs over which s/he had no control or direction. a procedures document that covers procedures that are new and unique to the project D. Unlike selection of competing alternatives. planning. 208 Que # PMgroup Que A. the designs being incomplete for implementation of the project C. . the project manager blaming poor performance on the design and the designer blaming the project manager for lack of competency E. the designs being prepared on a cost-plus basis-i. A. E. C. C. risk. and engineering cost. E. schedule. The disadvantages of having a separate design contractor from the implementation contractor do not include ________.Que Many projects do not complete the full life cycle under a single contractor because the design work is accomplished by a third party. B. indirect cost. and escalation 209 Que # PMgroup Que A. an extension of corporate procedures that covers scope of work. the more the project costs. a brief statement of the overall project policy that covers policy statements of do's and don'ts for the project C. The project manager plans to report the progress using the ________ as the basis for the budget. and systems/procedures to be used E. there is often a need to conduct tradeoffs between several alternatives. and regulatory factors B.e. resource allocation. The project procedures manual is ________. and schedule technologies.. cost. B. D. design. schedule. a supplement to corporate procedures that covers roles and responsibilities of functional and project personnel 209 Executing During the planning and implementation phases. and scope definition. precedence diagramming method PERT or CPM project charter work breakdown schedule project management plan 208 Executing Each project should have a project procedures manual (also called a project execution manual) to set the standard practices to be used during all phases of the project. and quality conceptual.
E. B. III. E. assessment of the stability of the project scope. Higher project costs. E. B. Modification to the budget as agreed upon for the project. How changes will be integrated into the project. C. Change in project personnel. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS. III.210 Que # 210 PMgroup Controlling 313 Que # 313 Que A scope change is defined as a A. and IV only III. D. Economic models III. II. Rework C. and IV PMgroup Planning 317 Que # 317 Que Poor scope definition may cause all of the following EXCEPT A. A clear description of how scope changes will be identified and classified. and IV only I. B. Paperwork II. I only III only I and II only I. Comparative approaches II. Evaluation process A. II. PMgroup Executing 316 Que # 316 Que Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include I. B. II. Low morale . B. D. An PMgroup Controlling 315 Que # 315 Que The Scope Change Control System should include I. C. A. D. and III only I. I and II only I and IV only II and III only III and IV only I. II and III only I. and IV only II. and III II. C. D. Tracking system Approval levels IV. II. Change in technical specifications as defined in the WBS. Change in project authorization. Material failure D. Linear programming methods IV. III. III. E. Integer programming models A. C. PMgroup Planning 314 Que # 314 Que The Scope management plan includes I.
Charts elements of the WBS against the timeline E. Includes work packages. None of the above PMgroup Executing 321 Que # 321 Que Scope verification A. Managing actual changes when they occur A. Risk change control . Determining that a scope change has occurred III. E. Contract administration D. and IV PMgroup Planning 320 Que # 320 Que A code of accounts A. time. II. Is an organizational scheme to keep track of contracts D. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments A. Is not necessary if the project completes on time and on budget D. D. and III PMgroup Planning 319 Que # 319 Que Scope definition is necessary to I. Details how the cost estimate matches the element of the projects PMgroup Controlling 322 Que # 322 Que The change control process should include all of the following EXCEPT A. D. Scope change control B. II. Is the formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholders B. II only III only I and III only II. Evaluate the project at its completion II. Quality control E.E. Occurs only when revisions or change orders are made to the project E. Resource leveling C. Uniquely identifies each element of the WBS B. III. Refers to the final project report describing the project at completion C. III. Schedule delays PMgroup Controlling 318 Que # 318 Que Scope change control is the process concerned with I. C. Improve the accuracy of cost. Define a baseline for progress measurement and control IV. B. I only III only I and II only II and III only I. E. and IV only I. B. and resource estimates III. used to track phase completion C. Influencing factors which create scope change II. C.
A written scope statement that includes project justification. Starting point for contract negotiations PMgroup Planning 324 Que # 324 Que The project charter is used for all of the following purposes EXCEPT A. Recognizes that an existing project should continue into the next phase IV. The responsibility of the client to limit the possibility of change orders . Appoints the project manager III. The project charter E. The project management approach C. Recognizes that a new project exists II. The project specification that includes design principles and project objectives B. C. A three-level project work brewakdown structure C. Performance measure E. Organizational policy PMgroup Planning 328 Que # 328 Que Scope planning for a project is fully described as A. The record showing that all project deliverables are completed satisfactorily PMgroup Planning 329 Que # 329 Que Scope definition is A. To give the project manager authority to apply resources to a project PMgroup Initiating 326 Que # 326 Que Scope initiation is the process which formally I.PMgroup Planning 323 Que # 323 Que The scope baseline is the original A. D. To request bids for different phases of a project E. Project schedule and budget B. To recognize the existence of the project B. A detailed change management process E. Plan plus or minus approved changes D. Description in the project charter C. To refer to the business need C. E. Cost estimates D. major deliverables and the project objectives D. I only IV only I and II only I and III only III and IV only PMgroup Planning 327 Que # 327 Que The project plan should include all of the following except A. B. The project charter B. To describe the project D. Establishes and describes the need for a project A.
It is a task at the lowest level of any branch of the WBS B. Is a planning tool PMgroup Planning . It may be broken into steps as Activity Definition PMgroup Planning 335 Que # 335 Que What is the WBS typically used for? A. The WBS is an unstructured list of activities in chart form D. Provides a framework for organizing and ordering a project's activities B.B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor D. To define the level of reporting the seller provides to the buyer E. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller more manageable components C. Work breakdown structure templates E. Eah level represents an increasing level of detail C. The WBS is deliverable-oriented B. and controlled D. The scope statement D. The type of contract C. The WBS is the same as the Organizational Breakdown Structure E. It consists of manageable units of work that can be planned. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals PMgroup Planning 502 Que # 502 Que All the following statments about a WBS are true EXCEPT that it A. To define the project schedule C. A written statement identifying the quality standards relevant to the project PMgroup Planning 330 Que # 330 Que Which of the following statements is true of the WBS? A. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project B. Decomposition PMgroup Planning 334 Que # 334 Que All of the following are characteristics of a "work package" except A. The need for a work-around B. Analysis of activity sequence. Can be similar in appearance to an organizational chart C. Is a scheduling method E. scheduled. duration. and resource requirements E. budgeted. Determining the responses needed to perform project activities D. It usually contains no more than eighty work hours (effort) to complete E. It is a summary task at the top level of the WBS C. Breaks down a project into successively greater detail by level D. The WBS referes to the Bill of Material (BOM) PMgroup Planning 332 Que # 332 Que Input(s) to scope definition are A.
E. The deliverable for the concept phase of a project is the A. Always be viewed as a separate project PMgroup Planning 508 Que # 508 Que Each project phase is marked by completion of one or more deliverables. Flexibility Capability Realism Ease of use Cost PMgroup Controlling 505 Que # 505 Que Maintenance is crucially important to projects and should A. D. B. C. deliverables. Be included as an activity to be performed during the closeout phase B. such as debugging and making enhancements E. work content. E. the most important criterion is A. B. Have a separate phase in the lifecycle in information systems projects because 6070% of live-cycle costs of computer systems are generally devoted to maintenance C. C.503 Que # Que A. Project charter E. C. Not be viewed as part of the project life cycle D. B. Be specified in terms of the forms it can take. and end-product of a project is the Project charter Product description Decomposition document Scope statement WBS PMgroup Planning 504 Que # 504 Que When an organization chooses a project selection model. Benefit-cost ratio Payback period Economic value added Peer review Multiobjective programming PMgroup Planning 511 Que # 511 . Resource spreadsheet PMgroup Executing 509 Que # 509 Que All of the following are examples of benefit measurement methods of project selection EXCEPT A. 503 The document that describes the objectives. D. Project plan B. E. Contract terms and conditions C. Statement of work D. D.
Discuss the risks and constraints of the project Designate the organizatoinal structure of the project State the business goals of the performing organization Detail the project deliverables PMgroup Closing 516 Que # 516 Que The review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called a A. Develop a project schedule. Fit the structure to the contract task for greater cost control PMgroup Planning 519 Que # 519 Que During decomposition. A deliverable at the lowest level of the WBS B. time. A description of work procedures D. E. B. Which of the following is NOT an objective of scope definition? Improving the accuracy of cost. D. the first step is to A. A clear. C. A task with a unique identifier C. and identify the functional areas to perform each task E. Develop the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure B. C. C. the project charter should A. concise scope definition serves several purposes. D. and resource estimates Defining the baseline for performance measurement and control Developing the scope management plan Facilitating clear assignment of responsibility All of the above PMgroup Planning 514 Que # 514 Que A work package is A. An item that cannot be broken down further PMgroup Planning 515 Que # 515 Que At a minimum. A required level of reporting E. the project manager should A. E. Phase-end review Phase exit Stage gate Kill point All of the above PMgroup Planning 518 Que # 518 Que When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization. Develop an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task C. including a top-down flowchart. D. B. E.Que A. Refer to the project charter developed by top management D. Identify the major elements of the project . Describe the responsibilities and authority of the project manager and functional managers B.
No one should be assigned to the project unless able to work on it for at least 80 hours D. Is developed by functional managers during the concept phase of the project E. The activity durations of tasks should not be more than 80 hours B. Functional managers and the project manager E. A manager external to the project D. D. Identify constituent elements of the deliverable D. Requirements B. All of the above PMgroup Planning 520 Que # 520 Que The 80-hour rule states that A. Decide whether adequate cost and duration estimates can be developed at the level of detail for each element C. Project plan C. Goals and objectives of the project . Provides a documented basis for preparing the PERT/CPM network D. B. The head of the performing organization C. Performance should be measured on all tasks of at least 80 hours or more PMgroup Planning 521 Que # 521 Que The scope statement A. Does not include project objectives such as cost. Scope statement D. WBS matrix WBS index Project WBS Cost account matrix Work package assignment index PMgroup Executing 524 Que # 524 Que Completion of project scope activities is measured against the A. Each task should be broken down into work packages that require no more than 80 hours of work to complete C. E. The head of business development PMgroup Planning 523 Que # 523 Que To relate the functional organizations to the WBS elements. The project manager B. A budget should be established for any task of 80 hours or more E. schedule. or quality measures B. Customer's expectations E. Includes a description of project assumptions and constraints C.B. C. Verify the correctness of the decomposition E. Is the basis for the contract between the buyer and seller PMgroup Planning 522 Que # 522 Que The project charter should be issued by A. the project manager should use a A.
Concept Planning Execution Closeout All phases involve uncertainty to the same degree PMgroup Executing 529 Que # 529 Que Scope verification A. Projects with a formal configuration management system in place D. particularly on projects using innovative techniques or technology B. Leveling D.PMgroup Executing 527 Que # 527 Que The practice of overlapping project activities is known as A. C. Fast-tracking C. Are used by the project staff to target efforts C. Is the last activity performed on a project before handoff to the customer C. Projects for which the cost of a change control system can be justified PMgroup Controlling 534 Que # 534 . E. large and small B. Smoothing E. Are designed to ensure that customers know what they are getting from a project E. D. All of the above PMgroup Controlling 532 Que # 532 Que Written change orders should be required on A. Verifies that the WBS was prepared in accordance with the organization's project management methodology PMgroup Planning 530 Que # 530 Que Specifying the technical requirements is an important step because they A. Are useful to both the project staff and the customers D. Large projects C. Improves cost and schedule accuracy.of the work results E. Crashing PMgroup Initiating 528 Que # 528 Que The greatest degree of uncertainty is encountered during which phase of the project life cycle? A. Describe the characteristics of the deliverable in ordinary language B.not the correctness . Concurrent engineering B. All projects. Differs from quality control in that scope verification is concerned with the acceptance . Documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to create D. Projects with a configuration change board E. B.
B. and little communication with the customer until the project is delivered D. cost. and lack of leadership by the project manager C. poorly identified customer needs. poor scope definition. should be met C. B. D. needs must be tempered by schedule. including schedule and performance standards. the balance of power is shifted to the project manager In this strong matrix. the balance of power is shifted to the project manager The project manager will probably not be reassigned in times of crisis The project manager will probably not be challenged by project stakeholders PMgroup Executing 539 Que # 539 Que In all projects. and all customer wants should be satisfied without bureaucratic hassle . Organizational factors. None of the above PMgroup Executing 537 Que # 537 Que Project A is being administered using a matrix form of organization. E. C. The product or service should be usable as intended. The quality of the schedule and cost control analysis Customer satisfaction Customer compromise in defining its needs A and B B and C PMgroup Planning 540 Que # 540 Que A WBS is a product-oriented "family tree" of project components. In this scenario. Lack of commitment or support by top management. The chart of accounts The code of accounts Work packages WBS ID numbers The WBS dictionary PMgroup Planning 541 Que # 541 Que Which statement about customer expectations is NOT true? A. Changes should be made immediately. In this strong matrix the balance of power is shifted to the functional line managers In this tight matrix. which of the following statements best describes the relative power of the project manager? A. Contractual provisions. D. inadequately specified project requirements. `Poorly identified customer needs. The project manager reports to a senior vice president who provides visible support to the project. and resource constraints. B. D. Project success depends primarily on A. C. E.Que The principal sources of project failure are A. and poor planning and control E. Lack of a projectized or strong matrix structure. a geographically dispersed project team. and lack of a project plan B. these identifiers are known collectively as A. Each item in the WBS is generally assigned a unique identifier. E. disharmony on the project team. B. C.
C.D. B. What should the project manager do? A. The seller should serve the customer competently and graciosly 604 Que # 604 PMgroup Executing Que Senior management has found the solution to a problem with a new product. Cry to upper management about the short budget Rebaseline the project Revise the project charter Revise the WBS Answers 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 110 111 113 114 115 117 120 121 122 123 125 126 127 129 130 131 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 C B E B E C D D E B B E E D B A C A A D B E E D C A E D D B A E A C . They authorize funding for a new project to resolve it. The seller should assume the responsibility of understanding customer needs and wants and addressing them effectively E. E. D. After six months the new 2-year project is over budget and behind schedule.
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A C B C D E A E B A C C A A E D A C B A D E A D B A E E C E B D D D C C B A B B C D A C B C D C E D D C D
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D B E C E D A A B C D D E C B A C B A D D C C D E C A A E B E B B C D B B A D B A D C B B C B
PROJECT TIME MANAGEMENT PMgroup Planning 100 Que # 100 Que Fast-tracking is also known as A. overtime and contracting B. utilizing additional resources C. crashing D. concurrent engineering E. all of the above PMgroup Planning 101 Que # 101 Que In the network diagram for a completely unrealistic schedule, you would likely find A. B. C. D. E. no slack available for critical tasks late start dates earlier than early start dates negative total float b and c all of the above
PMgroup Planning 102 Que # 102 Que Time-limited scheduling is best used when A. there is negative total float B. resources can be better utilized by taking advantage of existing free float C. a finish-to-start relationship exists D. fast-tracking E. b and c PMgroup Planning 103 Que # 103 Que The major difference(s) between time-limited scheduling and resource leveling is (are) A. Time-limited scheduling reschedules based on late start dates, while resource leveling reschedules based on late finish dates B. C. D. E. Time-limited scheduling considers total float but resource leveling does not Time-limited scheduling reschedules activities according to resource availability while resource leveling attempts to smooth out resource requirements by rescheduling a and c all of the above
PMgroup Planning 104 Que # 104 Que Which relationship dependency is indicative of concurrency? A. Start-to-start B. Start-to-finish C. Finish-to-start D. Finish-to-finish E. a and d PMgroup Planning 105 Que # 105 Que Susie has just told Diane, the project manager, that she hasn't started working on her planned activity that was supposed to start a week ago. Which factors will influence Diane's decision whether to escalate to Susie's manager?
A. B. C. D. E.
If the delay is within the amount of free float If the activity has negative float If time-limited scheduling was used If Susie has a reputation for being undependable All of the above
PMgroup Planning 106 Que # 106 Que Susie's delays are getting worse and worse. All available slack time for her task has been used. Any additional delays would A. B. C. D. E. affect the slack available for subsequent tasks require a determination of the late finish date require crashing or fast-tracking a and b all of the above
PMgroup Planning 107 Que # 107 Que Which of the following is true about the critical path in a network diagram? A. The critical path represents the shortest single path through the network B. Activities on the critical path hold the greatest risk for the project C. Activities on the critical path have their early start date equal to their late start date if the shortest possible duration of the project is to be achieved D. E. Activities on the critical path have their early start date equal to their late finish date if the earliest end date of the project is to be achieved Activities on the critical path can never have float
PMgroup Planning 108 Que # 108 Que The affect of additional resources on the critical path A. is likely to reduce the project end date by creating parallel tasks B. is likely to require that a revised network diagram be created C. is negligible D. has the same effect as crashing this path E. a, b and d PMgroup Planning 109 Que # 109 Que If the Early Start Date = October 10th, the Late Start Date = October 12th, the Early Finish Date = October 12th and the Late Finish Date = October 14th, and all days that week are working days available to the project, compute the number of slack days for this task. A. B. C. D. E. 0 1 2 3 4
PMgroup Planning 111 Que # 111 Que If free float on a task is exceeded, it A. should be of concern to the project manager B. will impact the early start of the succeeding task C. could impact the late start of the succeeding task D. could jeopardize the success of the project E. all of the above
program evolution and review timing. critical path means. dummy activities to constrain events . precedence diagramming method critical plotting method. determine where there is float D. Respectively. C. B. a and c E.g. an arrow going from the start of one task to the finish of another C. determine the critical path B. C and D PMgroup Planning 113 Que # 113 Que A concurrent relationship is shown on a network diagram as A. B. C. program evaluation and review technique. and PDM. E. these three abbreviations stand for ________. an arrow going from the start of one task to the start of another B. A. weeks) PERT requires three time estimates to compute an average whereas CPM requires one point estimate PERT is primarily a time scheduling system whereas CPM also addresses cost and resources PERT requires less time to load the input information than does CPM PMgroup Planning 116 Que # 116 Que PDM differs from PERT and CPM primarily in its use of ________. PERT will only accept whole units of time whereas CPM will accept fractions/decimals of units of time (e. probabilistic decision method critical path method.PMgroup Planning 112 Que # 112 Que The purpose of performing a backward pass is to A. 2. b and c PMgroup Planning 114 Que # 114 Que The effective management of the use of time in a project is usually critical to the successful accomplishment of the project's objectives. probability design method critical planning method.1 hours) CPM requires that all time estimates are in hours whereas PERT will accept any unit of time (e. program evaluation review technique. program evaluation and repetitive technology. PERT. D. D. determine where there is slack C. B.. E. A. hours.g. 2 hours vs. precedence diagramming method PMgroup Planning 115 Que # 115 Que Scheduling networks are all similar in their functions and general approach to building a schedule. There are several types of time management tools (called scheduling systems or project management systems) that fall into three categories referred to by the abbreviations CPM. program evaluation and review technique. program detail method critical path method. The major difference between PERT and CPM network input information requirements is ________. an arrow going to the start of two or more tasks D. determine the late finish E. A. days..
E. In addition to time. and close-out feasibility. B. and close-out concept. E. E. C. E. but it does not include ________. B. B. implementation. planning. B. C. A. lag time connections to slow the project's progress arrows to represent work nodes/boxes to represent work nodes/boxes to represent slack time PMgroup Planning 117 Que # 117 Que PDM uses four different relationships between its nodes to reflect connectivity and lag time. B. positioning. execution. E. and implementation planning. start-to-finish finish-to-start finish-to-finish end-to-end start-to-start PMgroup Planning 118 Que # 118 Que The four distinct phases that are used to control the work during the project's life cycle are ________. implementation. C.B. a major contributor to the duration of a project is the ________. A. close-out. D. The lowest level of the work breakdown structure represents the ________ for the schedule network. C. D. D. A. D. time duration sequencing of work (or logic) responsibility for work execution task activity task timing by the calendar PMgroup Planning 120 Que # 120 Que The schedule duration of a project is dependent upon the available time until delivery of the system/product. concept. planning. E. A. D. skill of the scheduler cost of labor for planners type of automated scheduling system used frequency of updates to the schedule availability of resources for the project PMgroup Planning 121 Que # 121 Que The division of the work breakdown structure into smaller tasks is continued until the lowest level that represents a work package is no more than ________. planning. and post-project PMgroup Planning 119 Que # 119 Que The work breakdown structure is a critical tool for the project and the planning of the project. implementation. a cost of $900 for each day of work 80 hours of calendar duration 80 hours of total resource (labor) time what can be accomplished by one person in one week what can be accomplished by one team in three weeks . and execution concept. C. D. feasibility. A. C.
For a briefing requirement for senior management. B. up to six one. one. which makes it difficult to impute the effects of a delay on one activity. D. project budget project objectives responsibility of achieving project objectives organization of resources available/required information requirements of management PMgroup Planning 125 Que # 125 Que The rules of network logic state that. CPM and PERT could have only ________ start point(s) and ________ end point(s). C. but the current networks can have ________ start and end points. D. the best method of displaying the progress on the project (schedule vs. two PMgroup Planning 127 Que # 127 . A. A. A. bar chart of all activities on the summary schedule network of all activities on the summary schedule narrative description of the active tasks combination of the full (detail) network and the summary network histogram to show percent of work on the project that has been completed PMgroup Planning 123 Que # 123 Que The bar chart does not explicitly show the ________ between the activities. four one. an activity may not begin before ________. calendar) is by using a ________.PMgroup Planning 122 Que # 122 Que Suppose the summary network for a major project has 500 activities. one. factors that must be considered to ensure that the end product meets the needs of the project manager do not include ________. B. two. C. D. E. C. B. two. B. C. A. up to six one. E. completed work unfinished work duration timing dependency relationships PMgroup Planning 124 Que # 124 Que In the preparation of a network (schedule). B. E. C. all preceding activities are started most preceding activities are complete all preceding activities are complete resources are ordered resources are identified PMgroup Planning 126 Que # 126 Que As originally developed and employed. except for an independent or time phased start. one. one. D. E. A. several one. D. E.
D. The computation of the critical path will determine that the network has ________ longest (time) path(s). To develop a summary network from a detailed network. E. E. the nodes represent ________ and may also be ________. decision points connector points for events. a stopping point. These two functions result in ________. D. engineers who will be working on the project planners who are preparing the schedule knowledgeable supervisory personnel customer's representative experience of an independent contractor PMgroup Planning 129 Que # 129 Que Often the detailed network contains so many activities that it is difficult to follow the logic and track progress over relatively long periods of time. E. C. C. compressing any activities that exceed a specified duration sorting all activities into a forward group and a backward group generating new logic for the schedule if it exceeds the desired time duration generating the float (slack) on each activity and identifying the critical path separating the critical path from the noncritical path activities in the network PMgroup Planning 131 Que # 131 Que The critical path. D. C. D. E. major consumers of time PMgroup Planning 128 Que # 128 Que In preparing the time estimates for a project. In an "activity-on-the-arrow" (i-j) network. A summary network is used for this purpose. only one one or more always more than one always more than two never more than two PMgroup Planning 132 Que # 132 . B. B. B. A. transition points zero time usage. the general rule is to use the ________ to estimate each activity. is considered the longest track through the network. ________. D. C. A. A. milestones a use of one unit of time. by definition. B. develop a new logic network with fewer activities delete activities until the logic is no longer overwhelming eliminate the connecting nodes or lines to let the logic flow together group like activities in a series to a higher level of work group like events in a series to obtain summary events PMgroup Planning 130 Que # 130 Que The computation of the duration of the network after all logic is completed and all time estimates are included in the schedule requires a forward and backward pass (computation). B. E. duplicates of other nodes activities of importance. A.Que A. C.
B.Que A network can have minus float on the critical path but never positive float (under optimum scheduling). D. PMgroup Planning 133 Que # 133 Que Suppose a negative slack/float condition has been discovered in the schedule because of poor logic in the initial network. The method(s) to remove the negative slack is/are to ________. 99. a fixed end date for the project prohibits the schedule from moving beyond a set date fixed milestones in the schedule prohibit sliding of dates beyond a set date work may have been added on the critical path changes may have been made to either the fixed end date or a fixed milestone all of the above A. C. Therefore. 95 three. A. b = pessimistic) A.7 . C. A. D. (Note a = optimistic. C. C. the notation "SS6" on one of the connecting lines means ________. C. B. 99. B. but the schedule is now in a negative five-day condition. PERT estimates are assumed to have ________ standard deviations and that ________ percent of the estimates are within this distribution. E. E. B.7 five. The formula for computing the "PERT estimate" is ________. two. change the schedule logic to conduct parallel activities to condense the longest path add resources on the critical path until some activities are reduced a total of five days use a combination of added resources and change to network logic obtain authority to extend the schedule by five days all of the above PMgroup Planning 134 Que # 134 Que In a precedence diagram (PDM). start soonest after completion of activity six subtract six units of time from the path scheduled start on the sixth day of the month start-to-start slack of six units of time start-to-start with a delay of six units of time PMgroup Planning 135 Que # 135 Que PERT uses three time estimates to arrive at a single "best" estimate for each activity. m = most likely. (a+m+b)/4 = mean (a+4m+b)/4 = mean (a+4m+b)/6 = mean (a+5m+b)/6 = mean none of the above PMgroup Planning 136 Que # 136 Que For purposes of computing the mean and standard deviation. E. D. This is assumed to better account for uncertainty in the estimating process. E. The logic is corrected. B. Some common causes of negative float are that ________. 99. 95 four. D. it is assumed that the PERT distribution is similar to a normal curve. E. A. D.99 three.
a later date stabilizes. B. an earlier date increases. E. C. an earlier date PMgroup Planning 140 Que # 140 Que The trend in computerized scheduling systems is toward the use of the precedence diagramming method (activity on the node) as compared to the early systems (PERT and CPM) with activity on the arrow. A. E. that event triggers one activity) no rule-the node is not limited to a given number of inputs or outputs the rule that dummy activities are limited to one per node of either input or output the logic for preparing i-j networks. C. i-j) is analyzed and that it is noted that one node has six input arrows. In teaching new project personnel the scheduling system. D. D. C.PMgroup Planning 137 Que # 137 Que Suppose a network (activity-on-the-arrow..e. which can compute only a total of six inputs and outputs combined PMgroup Planning 138 Que # 138 Que In a precedence diagram (PDM). B. This is a violation of ________. E. including two dummy activities. increases. one of the four relationships of connectivity a dashed connectivity for dummy activities the duration of delay between the finish of one activity and the start of another the amount of work being accomplished when converted to a bar chart resources needed to complete the next activity PMgroup Planning 139 Que # 139 Que Fast-tracking requires more sophisticated schedule and control methods because it is a practice that ________ the schedule to place the system in operation at ________. D. B. E. A. it is helpful to teach both methods because ________. Determining whether a project will finish on time is best accomplished by ________. the nodes are the activities and each represents a discrete activity. the rule stating that no more than three inputs or outputs can be used on one node the rule that limits the output to one activity (i. B. the first opportunity compresses. comparing the baseline schedule with the current status comparing the current status with the expenditure rate . minimum cost moderates. A. and two output arrows. C. A. B. A. some of the activity on the arrow systems may need to be converted to activity on the node it provides a better basis for understanding networking techniques some activity on the node systems may need to be converted to activity on the arrow some systems use a mixture of both techniques in an individual network there is often a need to schedule in both methods for one project PMgroup Planning 141 Que # 141 Que The success of a project is often unknown until completion because there was little or no planned evaluation of the realistic progress and trends for the future. The placement of the connecting lines to other activities are significant because the lines show ________. D.
you direct the project control section leader to develop a schedule that ________. and you let the subcontractors develop their detail schedules for individual management of time includes the detailed activities of the subcontractors as well as the details of your work excludes any subcontractor schedule because the subcontractors are paid to manage to meet the critical interface dates includes only the subcontractors' schedules and their vendors' or subcontractors' detail schedules compresses all (yours and subcontractors') activity durations by 10 percent.C. D. E. B. C. C. In a few cases. A. "freezes" the start of all activities to identify when supervisors initiate late starts "freezes" the end point of all activities to identify when the supervisors initiate late starts converts the schedule to a "fixed" activity network so the supervisors have only a given time frame to complete activities informs the supervisors that any delays in the scheduled activities will result in dismissal of the responsible supervisor dismisses the most frequent abuser of the scheduling system as an example of the action that will be taken against supervisors for irregular practices Planning PMgroup . D. D. B. running several iterations of the network to conduct a "what if" exercise analyzing the work completed versus the work scheduled obtaining the opinions of several members of the project team PMgroup Planning 142 Que # 142 Que Suppose you are the project manager for a major project that has 14 subcontractors. To ensure the best control. A. E. review the contract to determine the subcontractor's obligation to meet the current schedule review the subcontractor's schedule to determine whether there is an actual two-week delay review the situation to determine why the subcontractor believes s/he is going to betwo-weeks late review the project master schedule to determine if there is going to be a two-week impact on the project if the subcontractor delays his/her schedule all of the above PMgroup Planning 144 Que # 144 Que The project manager identifies a potential problem with the schedule in that many of the supervisors are not starting work on schedule. but are waiting until all the float (slack) is consumed on an activity before starting. C. includes interface points for subcontractors. which will be used as a reserve PMgroup Planning 143 Que # 143 Que Suppose a subcontractor informs the project manager that there is a slippage on the schedule of his/her work by at least two weeks. E. E. The project manager directs that this practice stop and to ensure compliance ________. B. Managing the schedule is considered critical to the successful completion and activation of the system. The project manager should ________. D. This work is on the critical path and will negatively impact the project by two weeks if nothing is done. this practice is "pushing" following activities out and absorbing the float downstream. A.
The fallacy with this procedure is that ________. E. D. and subcontractors. B. one could compress the schedule to onehalf by doubling the work force. C. E. weeks. B. B. B. determine whether the Gantt chart has the most current information determine whether the supervisor is accurately reporting progress review the system of information inputs to determine the accuracy of the system discuss the late activities with the supervisor to determine why there are delays in the schedule all of the above A. the project manager identifies some tasks that have not been started and are more than two weeks late. the skills may not be available to double the work force the process may not facilitate the additional personnel (such as a sequential assembly operation) there may not be sufficient physical space to accommodate the larger work force the compression of work into fewer hours by more people may be inefficient all of the above PMgroup Planning 148 Que # 148 Que A project is scheduled to be completed in a set number of days. A. D. The ownership of float on a major contract may be questioned by the owner (buyer). The project manager should ________. the project management plan the contract(s) the project charter a separate agreement the master schedule PMgroup Planning 147 Que # 147 Que There is a belief that all task durations can be altered by increasing or reducing the work force. C. C. E. or months. A. float (slack) in a schedule provides some flexibility in a schedule.145 Que # Que 145 During a review of the Gantt (bar) chart. PMgroup Planning 146 Que # 146 Que When properly managed and used. E. The schedule can often be impacted to the extent that work activity must be accelerated by the increase of people and equipment. Following this belief. D. D. it is best to include the float ownership in ________. an increase or change in the scope of work must be completed within the original time frame the progress of work activities has been poor in the beginning of the project the project was started late and the schedule end date must be met an opportunity to place a system in service at an early date forces the owner to impose a new completion date the project manager believes that the original schedule was not valid and that acceleration is needed to meet the planned end date PMgroup Planning 149 Que # 149 . Therefore. All of these activities are the responsibility of one supervisor. A. The most frequent reason for acceleration is that ________. C. prime contractor.
report. implementation execution. C. monitor. practical. and report plan. engineers planners managers the scheduling team . C. computerized CPM CPM network. E. D. A. As such. computerized scheduling histogram. C. analyze. analyze. B. C. or reflect actual duration. computerized scheduling none of the above PMgroup Planning 153 Que # 153 Que The project schedule is the key to tracking progress in the project. and record promote. and forecast all of the above A. As such. Gantt chart. visualize. PMgroup Planning 150 Que # 150 Que The project schedule is a dynamic document that is maintained in computer systems and that initially reflects the baseline plan. control. D. and current because of their intended use by ________. D. simple project with few interdependencies. forecast. C. A. automated bar chart Pareto diagram. B. close-out none of the above PMgroup Planning 152 Que # 152 Que In scheduling. As the schedule is updated to correct errors. the schedule is used by the project management team to ________. planning implementation. A. measure. B. becomes the current schedule with all changes is maintained as the original baseline for post-project evaluations is deleted as being unusable and unneeded to manage the project is amended to remove any errors but maintained for post-project evaluations none of the above PMgroup Planning 151 Que # 151 Que The schedule is an important document to plan and control the use of time and to reflect progress on the project. efficiency demands that the least sophisticated scheduling system be used to save on resources and maintenance time.Que The project schedule is more than a document that lays out the activities over time to represent the time dimension of the project. A. D. highlight. E. and direct emphasize. monitor. D. A complex project with many interdependencies would require a ________ system that would facilitate ease of planning and updating as well as reporting progress. record. conceptualize. conceptual. E. the baseline schedule ________. execution planning. the most efficient means of graphically portraying the schedule would be by means of a ________. it is a management tool to be used for decision making. B. schedule. delay. pertinent. Schedule reports should be easily understood. it should be developed during the ________ phase and updated during the ________ phase. B. distribute. change the scope. In a small. report. E. control.
all of the above PMgroup Planning 336 Que # 336 Que The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the CPM of scheduling is the A. C. E. D. E. Weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration "Dummy" activities to represent logic ties "Free float" instead of "Total float" in the schedule calculations Bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule Segmented network logic PMgroup Planning 339 Que # 339 Que The "fast-tracking" method of schedule compression involves A. Using mandatory dependencies as constraints Using discretionary dependencies as constraints The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work Using the ADM insteady of the PDM of scheduling PMgroup Planning 338 Que # 338 Que The Program Evaluation and Review Technique method of schedule differs from the CPM because the PERT method uses A. B. Work package execution thereby increasing risk Going on a "mandatory overtime schedule" in order to compelte the project earlier Calculating the percentage of potential schedule overrun. C. PMgroup Planning 340 Que # 340 Que The project schedule is useful in the generation of many important documents during the life span of the project. B. placement of the activity on the logic diagram line ADM is a deterministic method whereas the PDM is a probabilistic method PDM is a deterministic method whereas the ADM is a probabilistic method PDM is a more accurate method ADM is a more accurate method PMgroup Planning 337 Que # 337 Que The overall duration of the project schedule is influenced by all of the following except A. and reducing each activity'sduration by that percentage in order to enable the project to complete on schedule Assigning "dedicated teams" to the critical path activities E. thereby finishing the project earlier than originally planned B. The use of industrial engineering technques to improve productivity. D. E. All of the following documents may be generated by a project schedule except A. C. PMgroup Resource Utilization Histograms Cash Flow Forecasts WBS Performance Measurement Baseline Purchase Order Curves Planning . D. B. D. D. C. C. E.E. B.
341 Que # Que A. B. C. D. E.
341 As of the data date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP, however, is 110. This tells you that your project is currently 10% Behind schedule Ahead of schedule Over budget Under budget Ahead of schedule and over budget
PMgroup Planning 342 Que # 342 Que In what way does free float differ from total float? A. Free float is the amount of Total float that does not affect the end date, whereas total float is the accumulated amount of Free float. B. C. D. E. There is no difference - the two terms are functionally equivalent Free float affects only the early start of any immediately following activities Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time", wehereas total float is commonlyreferred to as "float time". An activity's Free Float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's Total Float.
PMgroup Planning 343 Que # 343 Que An example of a "soft logic" dependency, as opposed to a "hard logic" depencency is A. Project A, the company's participatin in a Pump Industry Trade show, depends on the successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype punp that is going to be displayed To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling. To schedule all unloading of equipment weighing in excess of fifty tons becausethe daily rent on the crane with that lifiting capability is $10,000. For the shrink-wrapping on the finished box of software to depend on enclosing the manual and software first. To schedule the final testing activity of a computer to start seventy-two hours after the mandatory seventy-two hour "burn-in" period.
B. C. D. E.
PMgroup Planning 344 Que # 344 Que One way that the Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique differs from the Program Evaluation adn Review Techniques is that it A. B. C. D. E. Allows the relationships in the logic diagram to contain loops Represents the Project Baseline Chart in a superimposed fashion over both the logicdiagram and teh Gantt Charts Uses Object Oriented Programming techniques to allow resource histograms thatare attached to the project' sGantt Charts Represents the duration of the project activities in a probabilistic fashion Represents the duration of the proejct activities in a deterministic fashion
PMgroup Planning 345 Que # 345 Que Your schedule analysis has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much A. B. C. Higher than the ACWP Lower than the ACWP Higher than the BCWS
Lower than the BCWS Higher than the CPI
PMgroup Planning 346 Que # 346 Que The schedule shoud be "re-baselined" when A. A sequence of activities has taken longer than originally planned B. The scope has been increased by the client, with an associated approval of the increase C. D. E. The productivity within a certain discipline has been higher than originally planned A high-duration activity has been accomplished "out-of-sequence" Problem experience dictates, in order to justify changes to the client
PMgroup Planning 347 Que # 347 Que The key inputs into activity definition are A. Work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network diagram B. Project schedule, progress reports, and change requests C. Project network diagram, constraints, and durations D. Work breakdown structure, scope statement, and historical information that supports the applicable activity E. Scope statement, work breakdown structure, and changes required
PMgroup Planning 348 Que # 348 Que To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called A. Duration compresesion B. Crashing C. PERT D. ADM or PDM forward and backward pass to determine the critical path E. Fast Tracking PMgroup Planning 349 Que # 349 Que A Gantt chart is useful in determining A. The level of effort of a task B. When a task starts and stops C. How tasks are related to each other D. Who is assigned to do a task E. Relative priority of tasks PMgroup Planning 350 Que # 350 Que A network analysis technique that allows for conditional and probabilistic treatment of logical relationships is known as A. The WBS B. The Gantt Chart C. Time scaled network diagramming D. GERT E. CPM PMgroup Planning 351 Que # 351 Que PERT is used for A. Developing teh WBS B. Developing cost histograms
C. D. E.
Estimating project duration when there is a high degree of uncertainty with the individualactivity duration estimates Presenting project summary status to upper management Determining project duration when it is necessary to factor in the conditional probabilistictreatment of logical relationships
PMgroup Planning 352 Que # 352 Que The PDM provides project managers with knowledgte of A. All levels of the WBS B. Tasks likely to be involved in the project integration and resource allocation functions C. A graphical representation of the task interdependencies D. What the project completion date is E. Project duration analysis of which sequence of activities has the least flexibility PMgroup Planning 353 Que # 353 Que Analogous estimating is also called A. Bottom-up estimating B. Top-down estimating C. Multiple dureation estimating D. Deductive estimating E. Inductions estimating PMgroup Planning 354 Que # 354 Que The critical path is calculated by establishing the following dates A. Start to start, start to finish, finish to finish, finish to start B. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish C. Predecessor to successor, predecessor to predecessor, successor to successor D. Primary to secondary, primary to finish, secondary to secondary, finish to finish E. Planned start, actual start, planned finish, actual finish PMgroup Planning 355 Que # 355 Que Fast Tracking in time management is A. Doing some or all activities in parallel rather than in sequence B. Preparing progress reports on a quick turnaround basis C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path D. Reducing the time allowed for each project activity E. Minimizing float PMgroup Planning 501 Que # 501 Que The most important element necessary for project control is A. Upper management commitment B. Responsibility over resources C. A labor distribution reporting system D. Clear requirements E. Sufficient management reserve PMgroup Planning 502 Que # 502 Que A precedence diagram and an arrow diagram are both examples of networks. Which statement describes the primary difference between them? A. The arror diagram incorporates PERT in the activity duration
B. C. D. E.
The precedence diagram represents activities as nodes The arrow diagram does not indicate critical path The precedence diagram uses float as part of the activity duration None of the above; they are virtually identical
PMgroup Planning 503 Que # 503 Que Which term describes a modification of a logical relationship that delays a successor task? A. B. C. D. E. Lag Lead Float Slack None of the above
PMgroup Planning 504 Que # 504 Que In the earned value method of progress performance measurement, schedule variance is a measure of the time deviation between the actual progress and the planned progress that is measured in A. B. C. D. E. Workdays Calendar days Resource units Monetary units Monetary units and time units
PMgroup Planning 505 Que # 505 Que Milestones are not A. Activities of zero duration B. Significant events in the project life cycle C. Measures of achievement for expenditures of money or time D. Set by project stakeholders E. Best utilized when denoting start and finish of all activities PMgroup Planning 506 Que # 506 Que Many resource leveling algorithms are available to project schedulers. Which of the following is not used as a basis for resource leveling? A. B. C. D. E. Slack Early dates Late dates Critical path priority Resource production rate
PMgroup Planning 507 Que # 507 Que The network diagram A. Illustrates project team member communication B. Identifies the scheduled start and end dates of key activities and administrative tasks C. Displays the logical relationships between project activities D. Provides information on schedule performance E. None of the above PMgroup Planning 508 Que # 508
B. and C PMgroup Planning 511 Que # 511 Que Schedule control is concerned with A. What can be determined from these data? A. B. schedule control.Que A. C. E. and activity B has a duration of 4 days. activity scheduling. SPC analysis . Activity definition. B. and schedule development B. C. E. schedule development. and schedule control Schedule development. duration estimates. Influencing the factors that create schedule changes to ensure that the changes are beneficial B. Discretionary Soft Preferential Mandatory or hard Regulated PMgroup Planning 513 Que # 513 Que The schedule development technique that provides early and late start and finish dates for each acivity is A. activity sequencing. D. schedule development. D. The major components of time management are A. activity duration estimates. activity cost estimates. C. E. D. D. D. The total duration of both activities is 7 days Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days The finish date of B is Wednesday the 13th A and B A. and earned value assessments Activity definition. has a finish-to-start relationship with A. and schedule control Activity sequencing. B. Determining that the schedule has changed Managing the actual changes when and as they occur Working to integrate schedule control with other control processes All of the above PMgroup Planning 512 Que # 512 Que "I cannot test the software until I code the software. B. C. Activity definition." This expression describes which of the following dependencies? A. risk quantification. C. activity duration estimates. The goal of resource-constrained scheduling is to Organize time on construction projects Minimize the overall project duration given the available resources Minimize overtime expenses by assigning resources within normal work hours Maximize the efficiency of available resources based on activity sequences Increase productivity through fast-tracking and crashing procedures PMgroup Planning 509 Que # 509 Que Project time management includes the proceses to ensure timely completion of the project. and resource control PMgroup Planning 510 Que # 510 Que Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. E. The successor activity. The finish-to-start relationship has 3 days of lag. activity sequencing. E. Sunday is a nonworkday.
The tool or technique selected can be determined by several factors. Underscheduled resources PMgroup Planning 515 Que # 515 Que In project time management. B. is a measure of A. E. Extra float Free float Total float Expected float Stacked float PMgroup Planning 518 Que # 518 Que Decomposition is a technique used for both scope and activity definition. B. Scheduling constraint C. D. Free time B. C. The work is unique requiring special network diagrams at various stages The software that manages resources is available over an existing electronic network Several identical or nearly identical series of activities are repeated throughout the project A and B A and C PMgroup Planning 517 Que # 517 Que Several types of float are found in project networks. If the project manager decides to include SUBNETS or FRAGNETS as part of his or her scheduling technique. Coordinating efforts with other projects to reduce administrative friction E. Which statement best describes the role decomposition plays in activity definition as compared to scope definition? A. E. Reducing the duration of critical path activities to shorten project duration B. GERT CPM Monte Carlo simulation Expected value PMgroup Planning 514 Que # 514 Que Float.B. E. what would that decision say about the project? A. D. C. Using only the best resources to accomplish work as quickly as possible D. or slack. Final output is described in terms of work packages in the WBS Final output is described as deliverables or tangible items Final output is described as activities or action steps Final output is described in terms of objectives that relate to the scope statement Decomposition is used the same way in scope definition and activity definition . C. Using state-of-the-art software to measure project progress PMgroup Planning 516 Que # 516 Que Several tools and techniques are available for activity sequencing. D. Scheduling flexibility E. Resource availability D. Reducing project duration by redefining logical relationships C. E. fast-tracking means A. B. D. Float that is used by a particular activity and does not affect the float in later activities is called A. C.
finish-to-finish. AOA. B. AOA and PDM E. Cost and time slope for each activity that can be expedited Cost of additional resources to be added to the project Time that will be saved in the overall schedule when tasks are expedited Changes in technology that result from crashing the project Three probabilistic time estimates of PERT PMgroup Planning 522 Que # 522 Que Conditional diagramming methods such as GERT are used A. For a graphical representation of the network To show the four types of dependencies (finish-to-start. E. D. arrow.PMgroup Planning 519 Que # 519 Que Which of the following formulas provides the most accurate result for computing activity duration? A. Because PDM and ADM do not allow nonsequential activities. Precedence. ADM. Earliest time each activity in the network can start and finish Amount of resources required to complete the project . D. AON. D. and start-to-finish) To help expedite the preparattion of a project network diagram To easily display dummy activitites in a network PMgroup Planning 523 Que # 523 Que Which of the following is NOT an output from activity duration estimating? A. Basis of estimates C. and conditional D. Activity duration estimates B. start-to-start. PERT. AD = Work quantity divided by Production Rate AD = Work quantity divided by Number of Resources AD = Production rate divided by Work quantity AD = (Production rate times Work quantity) divided by Number of Resources None of the above PMgroup Planning 520 Que # 520 Que The three main types of diagramming methods are A. PERT. a project manager should first compute A. C. C. An indication of the range of possible results PMgroup Planning 524 Que # 524 Que The primary outcome of performing a forward pass on a network diagram is the determination of the A. CPM and GERT C. E. WBS updates E. E. Activity list updates D. such as loops or conditional branches B. B. and CPM B. B. C. PDM and AON PMgroup Planning 521 Que # 521 Que To assess the implications of crashing a project.
Productivity rates . Project network diagram with date informaton added C.C. B. D. Schedule baseline B. From the information given. Gantt chart PMgroup Planning 530 Que # 530 Que Although several factors should be considered when developing estimates. Project's total float A and B A. the primary basis for estimating activity time and cost estimates is A. Total float for the activity is 9 days The early finish date of the activity is the end of the day on the 13th The late finish date is the 25th The total calendar time to complete the activity is 4 days A and B PMgroup Planning 528 Que # 528 Que The basis for measuring and reporting schedule performance is the A. Scheduled start or completion of major deliverables and key events B. E. All of the above PMgroup Planning 526 Que # 526 Que Unlike bar charts. Need for duration compression techniques E. The activity also has a duration of 4 days. C. Master schedule E. Milestone chart D. WBS C. Difference between planned and actual events and activities D. and C PMgroup Planning 525 Que # 525 Que The project schedule may be presented graphically as a A. Activity start and end dates C. There are no nonworkdays. E. Number of change requests C. D. All of the above PMgroup Planning 529 Que # 529 Que Which tool provides a basis to identify the work that must be scheduled? A. milestone charts show A. Time-scaled network diagram E. Bar chart B. what can be concluded about the activity? A. B. Budget D. Dependencies E. Logical relationships and critical path PMgroup Planning 527 Que # 527 Que An activity has an early start date of the 10th and a late start date of the 19th. Kanban chart B. Expected durations D.
are often called A. An identifiable point in a project that denotes a reporting requirement or completion of an important activity A specific project task that requires resources and time to complete The last stage leading to project completion . C. Focuses on calculating float to determine which activities have the least scheduling flexibility D. E.26% 95. D. An intersection of two or more lines or arrows commonly used for depicting an event or activity C. Uses the distribution's mean (expected value) in computing the schedule B. What is the probability that activity A will be completed in 16 to 26 days? A. C. E.70% 68. Modifications Enhancements Refinements Alterations Permutations PMgroup Planning 535 Que # 535 Que A milestone is best described as A. a most likely (ML) estimate of 21 days. and an optimistic (O) estimate of 6 days. C. B. B. E. E. E. 55.B. Uses the most likely estimate to compute float C. which are most likely to occur when the project involves new or unproven technology.73% Cannot be determined PMgroup Planning 533 Que # 533 Que The major difference between PERT and CPM is that PERT A. D. Typical input to consider in developing an estimate includes which of the following? A. and C PMgroup Planning 534 Que # 534 Que Updates to the WBS.46% 99. B. E. D. Resource requirements Resource capabilities Project team knowledge Past project files All of the above PMgroup Planning 532 Que # 532 Que Activity A has a pessimistic (P) estimate of 36 days. C. B. D. A and C A. D. A combination of related activities and events B. Resource usage Resource availability A and B A and C PMgroup Planning 531 Que # 531 Que Determining activity durations require developing estimates.
None of the above PMgroup Planning 540 Que # 540 Que The following activities are in a network diagram activity Predecessors Duration (days) A. Pouring foundation A 2 C. Installing inside plumbing D 2 F. Does not require resources D. I II and III I and II . Reducing project duration by redefining logical relationships B. which statements are true? I. Randomly applying resources to critical path activities E. Crashing D. All of the above PMgroup Planning 538 Que # 538 Que Which term describes a modification of a logical relationship that accelerates a successor task? A. Incorporates risk as an element of the estimate B. Lag B. Has zero duration C.PMgroup Planning 536 Que # 536 Que In project time management. Uses only historical estimates to calculate standard deviations E. Reducing computer network downtime for schedule risk modeling C. Is used only in activity-on-arrow networks B. Wiring D 3 In the network outlined above. Can be used only in PDM D. Installing outside plumbing is on the critical path II. Pouring foundation is on the critical path A. Applying additional resources to critical path activities by priority PMgroup Planning 537 Que # 537 Que A dummy activity A. Can be used only for estimating level of effort C. Installing inside plumbing has a day of slack III. Framing B 8 E. Excavating none 5 B. Lead E. None of the above PMgroup Planning 539 Que # 539 Que PERT is an estimating tool that A. B. C. Leveling C. crashing means A. Applying additional resources to all project activities D. Indicates a precedence relationship E. Installing outside plumbing A 6 D.
and III 606 Que # 606 PMgroup Executing Que Which of the following would be used to present information to upper management? A. C. II. D. Gantt chart Network diagram Fish bone diagram Milestone chart Answers 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 D E B C A E A C E C E E A D C D D B D E C A E A C D B C D D B E E E C E C A E B A . I and III I. E. E.D. B.
142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 B E A E B E A D B C A A A E A B C B C B A D B D B B D C C B B A D B A D E E C B B D E D C D B C B C A C A A D A .
525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 606 E A E A B D E B A C C E E A A B A .
A means for communication of work activity between the project manager and the performing activities D. An undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that can be accomplished in less than one year D. WBS development and project termination D. Inform the project manager of changes . and project reporting E. project control. project planning. A and B only PMgroup Planning Que # 112 Que A project is defined as A. A. A unique undertaking having a definite time period C. Project planning. complex undertaking with many objectives.. project definition. Project planning. project execution. Generate Engineering Change Proposals E. A grouping of related tasks lasting one year or less B. Control change during production only D. A coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that has a finite period of performance B. work authorization.PROJECT INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT PMgroup Planning Que # 108 Que The project life-cycle can be described as A. Insure drawings are updated B. and project close-out B. All of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 109 Que Documented work authorizations provide A. multiple sources of funding and no discernable end point C. A large. An audit trail of all work authorized from project initiation to completion C. All the above E. Project concept. A grouping of similar projects having no definite end that supports the product(s) from cradle to grave D.. All of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 116 Que A Program is characterized as A. and project reporting C. A project with a cost over $1 million E. A group of activities headed by a project manager who has cradle-to-grave life cycle responsibility for the end product E. Project concept. None of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 118 Que The purpose of configuration management is to . A means for effective internal coordination of the project's activities B. Control change throughout the project C. project execution.
All of the above PMgroup Planning Que # 124 Que Configuration or baseline control refers to A. corporate vision B. D. D. E. Cost vs benefits B.. control over any effort that has been approved by a higher authority engineering tolerances acceptance control charts and their analysis a and d PMgroup Planning Que # 128 Que The nine categories in the PMI exam are skill areas most closely related to A.. C. operations E. specifications project design D. procedures monitoring work content and products against the original content and end product B.PMgroup Planning Que # 119 Que Selection criteria for project selection include . PMgroup Que # Que . E. corporate strategy C. C. Contribution towards organizational goals D. PMgroup Que # Que Planning 132 A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is called the project plan a statement of work an exception report a Pareto analysis a code of accounts Planning 146 The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives measuring their achievement. Risk C. product and customer PMgroup Que # Que A. E. Rate of return E. C. B. B. A. and adjusting performance in accordance with the results of the measurement is called strategic planning alternative objectives inventory management by objectives contingency planning goal tending Planning 147 During what phase are project feasibility studies carried out? A. D.
identify new areas of project work. a change control board (CCB). conduct a needs analysis. and specifications. E. C. D.. PMgroup Controlling Que # 157 Que A role of the change control board is to A. do not spare expenses in product/service development B. budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP) D. a means of monitoring and controlling emerging project scope against the scope baseline B. B. C. D. issue change requests. benefit-cost ratios. schedule changes into PERT networks. PMgroup Planning Que # 159 Que A key rule for achieving customer satisfaction is A. E. D. E. B. conceptual development implementation close-out post-monem PMgroup Planning Que # 149 Que Configuration management is A. C. the production of a scope statement the creation of the work breakdown stucture the set of procedures developed to assure that project design criteria are met a mechanism to track budget and schedule variances Executing 150 A review of historical data points (e. C. cost or schedule data) over time is most usefully used to predict trends summarize current project status compute earned value establish blame for project failures a and b PMgroup Planning Que # 154 Que A key component of any configuration management system is A. C. E. E. do not contradict the customer. always do what the customer suggests. represent top management interests in initiating innovation.g. estimate at completion (EAC) B. schedule. . D. C. D.A. E. PMgroup Que # Que A. review the impact of change requests on project costs. management reserve. b and c. B.
They are disruptive. several areas are considered for the establishment of mechanisms to guide the project. a redefinition of project requirements. They are resisted by those being evaluated. They are unnecessary. C. C. B. E. post-project evaluations should be used to A. percentage of project personnel in the professional category. E.PMgroup Que # Que Executing 163 Evaluations are carried out throughout the life of a project. E. and so on. What is not a common problem of evaluations? They are inherently threatening. PMgroup Closing Que # 164 Que The final steps in the close-out phase generally lead up to A. a kick-off meeting. PMgroup . learn lessons. C. B. PMgroup Controlling Que # 169 Que To be effective. D. D. All of the above. C. D. D. other times they focus on management audits. E. but the control system for the project does not include ________. punish the poor performers. B. E. PMgroup Que # Que A. B. a project selection decision. D. C. Sometimes they entail technical reviews. size of the budget level of uncertainty location of implementation type of scheduling system undefined objectives Planning A. customer acceptance. B. A. a final review of the deliverable by the engineering review board. B and C PMgroup Que # Que Controlling 179 During the development of the project control system. They can be arbitrary. develop historical data to establish baselines for future projects. document control procurement/acquisition control personnel hiring control specification control design control Planning 181 Selection of an organization to prosecute a project depends upon three key items degree of advanced technology in the project. and the ________ for the project.
E. A. PMgroup Que # Que A. C. distinct phases conceptual. and operational controlling development. give a personal assessment but be certain to include many caveats to show the uncertainty of the answer C. The primary purpose of phasing is to ________. The project manager should ________. implementation. PMgroup Que # Que A. implementing. master schedule budget project organization project management system none of the above Initiating 207 The project's life cycle consists of four recognized. D. The three stages in this planning evolution are ________. B. development. and measuring Planning 190 A project management plan encompasses several elements that are often considered separate parts of the project. D. PMgroup Que # Que A. C. implementation. and implementation conceptual. conceptual. and changes planning. give an interim answer that includes the qualifier "I believe" until a better answer can be obtained D. B. control and transition work budget and schedule work divide and initiate work allocate resources and authorize expenditures allocate responsibility and authority Executing 211 Many times throughout the project. C. and operational controlling planning. but should take time to respond to questions requiring precise answers PMgroup Que # Controlling 300 . never give a personal assessment but defer the question until the official answer can be obtained B. E. the project manager will be asked by his/her management or the customer to give his/her personal forecast for milestones or targets. B. tell the asking party that project policy precludes anyone from giving a personal assessment to avoid misunderstandings E. and close-out. D. be in a position to answer such questions in general at any time.Que # Que 186 The planning evolution is often depicted as a wheel where one action leads to another until the cycle brings a person back to an evaluation of the lower levels of the plans against the top level objectives. E. action. action. planning. but the plan does not include a ________.
Develop corrective actions E. Performance measurement. IV. Project management information system. IV. and IV only II. Change in order to keep the customer happy E. I and III only I and IV only II and III only II and IV only III and IV only A. D. Performance reports.Que Tools included in Overall Change Control are I. V. Are a management control. I. B. and V only PMgroup Planning Que # 301 Que The Project plan is used to A. B. Scope planning C. E. Configuration management. Remain the same throughout all phases of the project B. and III only I. E. Finalize budget cost estimates B. III. III. Change only when higher management directs them to be changed PMgroup Planning Que # 304 Que Which process is included in Project Integration Management? A. Change only intermittently and generally only in response to an approved scope change D. Scope definition D. PMgroup Planning Que # 303 Que Performance measurement baselines should A. A. Document relevant standards. D. Scope verification E. II. Procurement planning PMgroup Que # Que Controlling 305 Identify the Subsidiary Change Control process listed below . C. Provide a variable measurement progress D. Improve management's general skills PMgroup Que # Que Planning 302 The project performance measurement baselines I. Project plan updates. IV. II. Generally change only intermittently. C. and IV only II. Change frequently to accommodate current information about the project C. and V only III. Facilitate communication among stakeholders C. II. III. III. III. Project plan development B. Are equivalent to the project plan.
Management systems Risk change control Customer interface control systems Cost estimates Performance reporting Planning 306 Configuration Management is any documented procedure used to apply technical administrative direction and surveillance to Control cost increases Identify and correct problems arising in functional areas of project implementation Identify and document physical characteristics of an item Test new systems Estimate and control risk PMgroup Controlling Que # 307 Que A Change Control Board is A. D. An informal or formal group of team members responsible for changes to a project C. evaluating. B. closing. C. and an output. the process of developing a schedule is made up of A. An informal group which has oversight of project implementation D. E. Initiating. The project manager and several key tem members working to ensure cost and schedulecontrol during the life of the project PMgroup Initiating Que # 308 Que The five basic groups are A. and delivering E. executing. __________. and closing C. and activity duration B. Planning. planning. directing. Planning. activity sequencing. C. PMgroup Que # Que A. Initiating. executing. PMgroup Que # Que Initiating 309 The subprocesses of a project are defined by PMI as having an input. D. activity sequencing. Resolution and action Formatting and creation Tools and techniques Process integration Action and integration Planning 310 As a function of Project Time Managem.ent. monitoring. and ativity duration . monitoring. checking.A. and closing D. D. Activity definition. A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines E. E. and closing PMgroup Que # Que A. Activity definition. executing. directing. executing. E. controlling. monitoring. C. Planning. redirecting. activity execution. B. and recording B. A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a minimal amount of changes occur on the project B. B.
Individual or agency that conrols contingency funds D. PMgroup Que # Que INT 502 Overall change control is primarily concerned with . Activity determination. whether late or early D. The method used to measure project performance PMgroup Planning Que # 333 Que A program is characterized as a A. Vineyard field worker C. and activity results PMgroup Controlling Que # 311 Que A controlling process for a project's schedule typically will focus on activities A. That are only on the critical path E. activity execution. activity sequencing. Activity identification. A grouping of related projects D. A project with a cost over $1M E. and activity duration E.C. activity duration. A target completion date B. That vary from the plan. B. Organization's corporate attorney PMgroup Planning Que # 331 Que The following is an example of a process constraint A. Project engineer B. Define key project reports E. C. and activity resultes D. activity connection. Relationship with the seller E. Individual or organization affected by project activities E. Unique undertaking having a definite time period C. activity implementation. A business risk C. Starting earlier than scheduled. Document project assumptions and constraints C. The threat of a strike by a subcontractor D. That are difficult to carry out PMgroup Initiating Que # 325 Que A stakeholder is a(n) A. Activity identificaiton. Grouping of related tasks lasting one year or less B. Starting later than scheduled. Promote communication among stakeholders D. Sequence of steps constituting a project PMgroup INT Que # 501 Que The purpose of project plan development is to A. Create a document to guide project execution and control B.
PMgroup INT Que # 504 Que Most of the project's budget is expended during A. Integrating deliverables from different functional specialties on the project D. Thwart criticism of the project by developing a list of responses to known stakeholder concerns C. Overall change control D. C. 507 In project plan development. PMgroup INT Que # 503 Que The principal objective of project stakeholder management is to A. 506 All approved changes should be reflected in the A. D. determining that change has occurred. Performance measurement baseline B. Project initiation E. Maintaining integrity of baselines. integrating product and project scope. Change management plan C. which of the following is not an organizational policy whose effects on the project must be considered? A. Assumptions involve factors that are considered true. Be proactive in curtailing stakeholder activities that might adversely affect the project D. or certain E. Establishing a change control board that oversees the overall changes on the project E. Project plan E. and coordinating change across knowledge areas C. Historical information may not be available C. and managing actual changes as they occur B.A. Build goodwill in the case of schedule and cost overruns E. E. Project plan execution C. Influencing factors that cause change. Project plan development B. Que # Continuous improvement targets Status meetings Employee performance reviews Time reporting Que # Que Que # Que 508 . B. Assumptions are based on lessons learned B. Quality assurance plan D. Identify all potential users of the project to ensure complete requirements analysis B. real. Que # Que 505 Assumptions generally involve some risk because A. Assumptions are based on constraints D.
The policies and procedures to follow as the project is performed D. Oral or written B. Very productive when first given an assignment D. Que # Que 514 A change control board is . Understand and collect data on customer requirements to focus attention on meeting customer needs D. corrective action is also an input to project plan execution because it A. Formal or informal D. Highly motivated. E. a manager who uses Theory X sees workers as A. All the required reports to be prepared on the project. 512 Although an output of the various control processes. followed by periods of high productivity E. Highly untrustworthy. D. C. and processes against those of other organizations C. 511 According to McGregor. and disseminate the output of the other project management processes E. and reliable B. and the method of distribution C. Determine performance targets E. E. B. D. Unproductive at first.Que A. Que # Que 510 Change requests occur in all the following forms except A. Legally mandated or optional C. The tools and techniques used to gather. Any of the project management software used for schedule development B. services. needing to be watched and closely managed at all times C. Externally or internally initiated E. Measure products. Que # Que The output of project plan execution consists of Work results and change requests Project plan updates and corrective action Baseline changes and work authorization Additional planning and deliverables 509 The primary purpose of benchmarking is to A. Ensures that project objectives are met Expedites actions to ensure that activities are completed on time Completes the feedback loop needed to ensure effective project management Involves performing a planned response for a specific project risk event Que # Que Que # Que Que # Que 513 A project management information system comprises A. B. Perform marketing research to forecast how well a particular product will sell B. C. willing to take responsibilityt. who receives each one. integrate.
advance or promotion. B. B. C. E. A description of the functional and physical characteristics of an item or system E. E. One definition of managing is that it involves producing key results expected by stakeholders. C. if achievement. employees will A. which is an important activity on projects. 518 According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene Theory of Motivation. large or small Used as required to approve or reject change requests Managed by the project manager who serves as its secretary Composed of key members of the project team 515 The project plan should be distributed to A. Those people defined inf the communication management plan E. Que # Que Recommended for use on all projects. C. D. change control systems include automatic approval of certain types of changes. aligning people. All stakeholders in the performing organization B. and positive supervisor attitude are not present. D. E. recognition. Project team members and the project sponsor D. Become alienated with the organization and leave Lack motivation but will not be dissatisfied with their work Lack motivation and become dissatisfied with their work Become dissatisfied only if they do not receive salary increases Que # Que Que # Que A. 516 Leadership and management are both necessary on projects. C. D. Procedures to define how documents may be changed B. as appropriate. E. Specific change requests expected on the project and plans to respond to each one C. responsibility. B. Que # Que 519 Typically. D. All project stakeholders C. B.A. Establishing direction. Performance reports that forecast project changes D. An example of such a change is one that is Suggested by the project sponsor The result of an emergency Suggested by the customer Made mandatory by a new regulation 520 Problem solving. as motivational tools Que # Que Que # Que 517 The change control system includes A. and motivating and inspiring others Getting things done through other people Using charismatic power to motivate others to be productive Using all types of power. consists of . whereas leadership involves A.
Que # Que Influencing the organization to get things done Defining problems and making decisions Conferring with others to reach a decision Producing key results expected by stakeholders 521 Rolling wave planning provides information on the work to be done A. E. Projects can be canceled at any time E. B. The undertaking will end at an undetermined time in the future D. E. Which of the following tasks is not performed in configuration management? A. For successful completion of the current phase and subsequent phases of the project D. In the next phase of the project E. C. C. C. Every project has a definite begining and end C. E. D. Que # Que 522 Configuration management describes procedures to apply technical and administrative direction. temporary means that A. Identifying functional and physical characteristics of an item or system Controlling changes to characteristics Performing an audit to verify conformance to requirements Allowing automatic approval of changes Que # Que 523 As applied to projects. 524 All the following are examples of tools and techniques used in integration management except A. The work authorization system Organizational procedures Product skills and knowledge Organizational policies Que # Que Que # Que A. B. Que # 525 Which of the following is an example of a constraint in project plan development? Records of past performance Financial reports from similar projects A predefined budget Lessons learned from prior projects 526 .A. Throughout all phases of the project B. Projects are short in duration B. E. B. For successful completion of the current phase of the project C. D. D. B. D. C.
team building. Provide a structured approach to guide the project team in project plan development B. Que # Que Performance measurement techniques are useful in overall change control because they Help show the status of the project Measure overall project progress Summarize information on the project for reporting to stakeholders Help assess whether variances from the plan require corrective action 527 The management-by-objectives technique addresses all the following except A. and commitment to the project D.Que A. Show the causes of variances and the reasons certain corrective actions were selected C. Ensure that organizational policies and procedures are followed during the development and execution of the project plan D. Must be collected to meet requirements of organizational policies and procedures B. D. B. . Que # Que 530 Lessons learned from projects are significant because they A. Show why certain people were selected as project manager and team members over others E. Motivation to act is linked to an outcome that is expected to have value D. Que # Que Que # Que 529 The purpose of a project planning methodology is to A. Que # Que 531 According to the expectancy theory of motivation A. Formal procedures for sanctioning work so that it is done at the right time and in the proper sequence C. C. Show why certain projects were selected by the organization over others D. Ensure that all required forms are completed C. Work breakdown structure showing individual work elements B. E. Promoting participation. 528 A work authorization system is a A. Poor performance is the natural outcome of poor training B. System to help measure performance in terms of work completed versus work planned E. Serve as a repository of lessons learned that can be applied to the current project E. Establishing unambiguous and realistic objectives B. Managers should expect that employees who are paid more will work harder E. Establishing a specific career path for a project team member E. Method to ensure that each person on the project team knows the work elements that are his or her responsibility D. Managers should not expect too much of workers C. Periodically evaluating whether project objectives have been achieved C.
Overlap and interact throughout the project B. C. Are concerned with describing and organizing project work D. A continuous improvement target C. Official verification of project acceptance by the customer D. Official verification of contract completion E. Are similar for each applicaiton area E. D. Success criteria for the project to meet C. C. B. 534 Measuring project performance regularly is necessary to identify variances from the project plan. Is considered a project risk Becomes a lesson learned as a result of the corrective action selected Jeopardizes project objectives Requires corrective action Que # Que Que # Que Que # Que 535 Which of the following is an appropriate management style to use with the project manager wants to enxcourage the staff to pool its knowledge to make the best decision possible? A. Project management software B. B. Are defined by the project life cycle C. Cost accounting codes E.Que # Que 532 Work results are A. The project team members' compensation plan E. Laissez-faire Democratic Autocratic Directive Que # Que 536 A project management process and a product-oriented management process A. Outcomes of activities performed to accomplish the project B. Que # Que . A facilitated kickoff meeting D. E. 533 Which of the following is an example of a "soft" tool that could be part of a project management methodology? A. A variance is considered to be significant if it A. 537 Which of the following is not part of the project plan? A. The WBS C. Performance measurement baselines for schedule and cost D. The project charter B. E. D.
Management interfaces dealing with actions. responsibility. Contractual interfaces between more than one organization B. Self-actualization. Happiness. Discredit negative stakeholders so that their arguments and concerns will not have much credence E. PMgroup INT Que # 540 Que Organizational interfaces are primarily A. C. or approvals E. and social D.Que # Que 538 Controlling occurs A. D. decisions. and prosperity E. Personal interfaces addressing professional development programs D. B. On a continual basis throughout the executing process and as needed in the other processes E. Management decisions relating to the resolution of conflict C. health. Projects are short in duration . PMgroup Que # Que A. Que # Que 539 What are Maslow's three highest levels of human needs? A. Recognition. Build goodwill in the case of schedule and cost overruns PMgroup Planning Que # 544 Que As applied to projects. and reward C. Executing 542 A project is an ideal environment in which to use the technique of management by objectives because Project management involves setting organizational objectives Projects generally are handled through a matrix management environment Project managers' responsibilities are defined in terms of corporate objectives All projects should be strongly oriented toward goals and objectives Top management policy and goals should flow down through the management hierarchy PMgroup Planning Que # 543 Que The principal objective of project stakeholder management is to A. TEMPORARY means that A. and social B. Identify all potential users of the project to ensure complete requirements analysis B. Physiological. On a continual basis throughout the project B. esteem. safety. Thwart criticism of the project by developing a list of responses to known stakeholder concerns C. At the end of each planning process D. Be proactive in curtailing stakeholder activities that might adversely affect the project D. E. At the end of each phase of the project life cycle to assess its success in meeting project objectives C.
and approval levels necessary for authorizing changes D. and alternatives to requested changes Accepting or rejecting requested changes Documenting all actions and decisions Serving as a communication link for all actions between the project and the customer. Fosters commitment to the project E. . costs. B. Promotes participation and team building on the project D.B. Controlling 549 A configuration control board can be a significant part of a large project. Provides the baseline against which changes are managed B. C. tracking systems. Oral or written B. Helps to apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance to the change control process E. Paperwork. All of the above PMgroup Que # Que A. Provides information on project performance C. E. D. Establishes unambiguous and realistic objectives B. Procedures to handle changes that may be approved without prior review B. A description of the powers and responsibilities of the change control board E. Procedures for automatic approval of defined categories of change C. C. Externally or internally initiated D. Evaluating benefits. Direct or indirect C. Legally mandated or optional E. Which activity is NOT a function of the configuration control board? Reviewing all requested changes to the project and identifying all impacts. Is not expected to change throughout the project PMgroup Controlling Que # 548 Que A change request may be A. D. Periodically evaluates whether project objectives have been achieved C. Alerts the project team to issues that may cause problems in the future D. All of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 547 Que The project plan is important in change control because it A. Every project has a definite beginning and end The undertaking will end at an undetermined time in the future Projects can be canceled at any time All of the above PMgroup Controlling Que # 545 Que A change control system should include all the following except A. E. Procedures for conducting a midproject control system review PMgroup Planning Que # 546 Que The management-by-objectives technique A.
and equipment is available when needed and that budgeting is adequate E. D. Errors in the initial assessment of how to achieve the goal of the project. Unavailability of resources promised by the functional managers. C. new informatoin about the project deliverable. Replacement of the project manager or key project team members. The likely choice would be Matrix Tight matrix Functional Projectized None of the above A. PMgroup Controlling Que # 553 Que The three major causes of change on a project are A. The process of coordinating the various elements of the project so that they meet their joint goals of performance. and budget C. Changes in the relative importance of time. Introduction of new technology. Ensure that resources are available when needed and that the scope of work does not increase D. The project manager is considering the appropriate organizational structure for a new project. and changes in customer requirements PMgroup Controlling Que # 554 Que All the following statements are true about interface. cost overruns. Avoid quality or reliability problems through incorrect task sequencing PMgroup Que # Que Executing 551 A project manager's company operates in a high-technology area requiring the integration and sharing of several functional specialties. and contractual difficulties B. Considered to be the most difficult aspect of implementing the project plan B. resources. Primarily concerned with the technical issues associated with linking system components in a configuration PMgroup Que # Initiating 555 . and a new mandate D. Eliminate unexpected technical problems and technical difficulties that require more resources C. E. financial difficulties of the parent organization. changes in priorities by senior management. and lack of resources to commit to the project E. EXCEPT A. personnel. new knowledge about the deliverable. B. and technological uncertainty C. The responsibility of the project manager as part of the everyday task of managing the project D. schedule. or cost. Ensure that the required input of material.PMgroup Controlling Que # 550 Que Two fundamental objectives of project control are to A. Achieve results by altering activities and managing organizational assets B. Facilitated by use of the responsibility assignment matrix to display the ways people on the project interact and their duties and responsibilities E.
C. The input to project initiation consists of The product or service description The company's strategic plan The project selection criteria Historical data All of the above Answers 108 109 112 116 118 119 124 128 132 146 147 149 150 154 157 159 163 164 169 179 181 186 190 207 211 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 325 331 333 501 A D A C B E A C B C A A E B C B E C E C B C E A E A B C C A B C D B C B C D A C A .Que A. B. D. E.
502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 553 554 555 A C B D D B A B C B C D B D A A C B B C D B D C D D B A B C A C C B A D A C D D C B E E A E E A A C E E .
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