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# This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

“Elasticity”.

## 1. When too many people stand on a bridge it collapses, why?

a) Due to increase in stress
b) Due to overweight
c) Due to improper construction
d) Due to friction

Explanation: Stress is the force per unit area experienced by the body and strength is the
ability to withstand the stress. When stress becomes greater than strength, accidents happen.

2. For a constant force, a rope breaks due to stress. Which of the following is useful to reduce
the stress?
a) Increase the length of the rope
b) Apply small force
c) Increase the cross sectional area of the rope
d) Use a different material of rope

Explanation: Stress = Force/Area
For a constant force, if the area is small, stress is large. If the area is large, stress is small.
Therefore by increasing the cross sectional area stress can be reduced considerably.

3. When a rope is pulled on either side, what is the stress acting on it?
a) Compressive stress
b) Tensile stress
c) Normal stress
d) Tangential stress

Explanation: A tensile stress occurs when something is being pulled. A rope experiences
tensile stress because it is flexible. In other words, a rope cannot be pushed.

## 4. Fluids cannot resist sheer stress.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Fluids cannot resist sheer stress because they do not deform. Rather they flow.
Fluids are opaque to transverse waves therefore they have the inability to undergo sheering
stress.

5. What happens when the stress applied to the body is increased beyond the maximum value
and is removed after some time?
a) The body will come back to its original position
b) The body will oppose the stress
c) The body becomes hot

Explanation: When the applied stress exceeds the maximum value the body does not regain
its original position completely after removing external forces. It is said to have reached its
elastic limit.

6. A pendulum A oscillating continuously comes to rest after some time. Now make both
pendulums A and B to oscillate simultaneously. What will happen?
a) A comes to rest earlier than B
b) B comes to rest earlier than A
c) A and B comes to rest simultaneously
d) A and B oscillate forever

Explanation: If a body is subjected to stress or strain continuously if becomes weak due to
elastic fatigue. Therefore A comes to rest earlier than B.

7. What will happen to the elastic property of Gold when Potassium is added to gold?
a) The elastic property of gold decreases
b) The elastic property of gold remains unaltered
c) The elastic property of gold increases
d) Gold loses its elastic property

Explanation: The addition of impurities causes variation in the elastic property of materials.
Potassium when added to gold increases its elasticity thereby making it easy to be
electroplated.

8. A copper wire of length 3m and 1mm diameter is subjected to a tension of 5N. Calculate
the elongation produced, if the young’s modulus of copper is 120GPa
a) 15m
b) 1800m
c) 0.125 ×10-3 m
d) 15.9mm

Explanation: Young’s modulus = (Force ×Length)/(Area ×Elongation); Area=πr2
Elongation = (Force ×Length)/(Area ×Young’s modulus)
Elongation = 15.9mm.

9. The modulus of rigidity and Poisson’s ratio of the wire are 2.87 × 1010 N/m2 and 0.379
respectively. What is the value of young’s modulus of the material of the wire.
a) 1.08773 × 1010 N/m2
b) 7.915 × 1010 N/m2
c) 7.5725 × 1010 N/m2
d) 0.1403 × 1010 N/m2

Explanation: Poisson’s ratio = Y/2n – 1
Y=2n(1+Poisson’s ratio)
Y=7.915 × 1010 N/m2.

## 10. What is the effect of hammering on elasticity of materials?

a) Has no effect on elasticity
b) Decreases the elasticity
c) Increases the elasticity
d) Breaks the material

Explanation: While being hammered or rolled, crystals break into smaller units resulting in
increase of their elastic properties.

11. Calculate the Young’s modulus in the cantilever depression method. The length is 1m
which is suspended with a load of 150gm. The depression is found to be 4cm. The thickness
of the beam is 5mm and breadth is 3cm.
a) 3.92 × 1010 N/m2
b) 9000 × 1010 N/m2
c) 4000 × 1010 N/m2
d) 1.245 ×1010 N/m2

Explanation: Y = (4gl3)/(bd2 ) × M/y
Y = 3.92 × 1010 N/m2.

## 12. What is the effect of annealing on elasticity of materials?

a) Increases the elasticity
b) Decreases the elasticity
c) Has no effect on elasticity
d) Distorts the material

Explanation: Annealing is the process of heating a material and then gradually cooling it.
While annealing, constituent crystals are uniformly oriented and form larger crystal grains,
which results in decrease in their elastic properties.

13. A thick wire is suspended from a rigid support and no load is attached to its free end but
the wire is under stress.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: The wire is maybe suspended with no load but the wire will experience some
stress due to its own weight. Therefore the answer is true.

14. Which type of elasticity is involved in tangential push on the upper face of a block?
a) Bulk modulus
b) Young’s modulus
c) Rigidity modulus
d) Elastic limit

Explanation: Rigidity modulus is defined as the ration between tangential stress and shearing
strain. When a tangential stress is applied to the upper face of a block, the cube gets deformed
and there is relative displacement.

## 15. Air is more elastic than water.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Air can be compressed easily while water is incompressible and bulk modulus is
reciprocal of compressibility. Therefore, water is more elastic than air.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Thermal Conductivity”.

1. When one end of the rod is heated, the molecules at the hot end vibrate with higher
amplitude and transmit the heat from one particle to the adjacent particle and so on. What is
the process?
a) Convection
b) Conduction
d) Transmittance

Explanation: In the above condition, heat is transmitted by the vibration of particles.
Conduction is the process in which heat is transferred from hotter end to colder end without
the actual motion of particles. Therefore, it is conduction.

## 2. Solids with weekly bonded electrons are good conductors of heat.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Transmission of heat depends upon the outermost electrons. Therefore solids
with weekly bonded electrons are good conductors of heat.

3. When potassium is added to water, it is seen that the lower region becomes warm first and
becomes less dense. It then moves up and the more dense cold water comes down and the
process goes on. What is the process taking place?
b) Conduction
c) Convection
d) Purification

Explanation: Convection is the process in which heat is transmitted from hotter end to colder
end by actual movement of heated particles. Since the particles are actually moving in the
above process, it is convention.

## 4. Why is the roof of buildings painted white?

c) Because it is cheaper
d) Because it conducts heat

Explanation: Black objects are good absorbers and radiators while white surfaces are poor
absorbers and radiators. Therefore houses are painted white to keep the building cool during
summer.

## 5. What happens when a material is heated?

a) It contracts
b) It melts
c) It expands
d) It bursts

Explanation: Most materials expand on heating because the particles are moving about a
higher average speed and therefore have a higher energetic collision.

6. Why locations next to large water bodies tend to have a moderate climate than those
further inland?
a) Because of the latitude
b) Because of specific heat of water
c) Because of the heating effects of sun
d) Because of the water in clouds

Explanation: It takes a longer time to heat up or cool down a given mass of water than an
equal mass of aluminium or iron. This high specific heat of water makes it easy for cooling
and warming. This is why the locations next to larger water bodies tend to have a moderate
climate than those further inland.

7. The outer ends of two bars A and B are at 100°C and 50° respectively. Calculate the
temperature at the welded joint if they have the same cross-section and the same length and
their thermal conductivities are in the ratio of A:B = 7:5
a) 79.166°C
b) 80.548°C
c) 20.157°C
d) 58.147°C

Explanation: K1/K2 = (θ2-θ3)/(θ1-θ2)
θ2= 79.166℃

8. What happens when you heat a china having some dark paintings engraved on it at 1000°C
and then examine it in a dark room immediately?
a) The dark painting will appear much brighter
b) The whole china dish will be bright
c) The china dish doesn’t glow
d) The china dish will develop patterns

Explanation: According to Kirchhoff’s law, if a body strongly absorbs a radiation of a certain
wavelength, it must emit strongly the radiation of the same wavelength. The dark paintings
are better absorbers, and therefore, also better emitters.

9. A green glass heated in a furnace when taken out in dark glows red.
a) False
b) True

Explanation: Green glass, when cold, is a good absorber of red light and a good reflector of
green light. When heated, it becomes a good emitter of red light in accordance with
Kirchhoff’s law.

10. Two thermometers are constructed in the same way except that one has a spherical bulb
and the other an elongated cylindrical bulb. Which of the two will respond quickly to
temperature changes?
a) Spherical bulb
b) Elongated cylindrical bulb
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

Explanation: A cylindrical bulb has a greater surface area than a spherical bulb of the same
volume. Hence the thermometer with elongated cylindrical bulb will respond to temperature
changes more quickly than the one with a spherical bulb.

## 11. The temperature of a body can be negative on the Kelvin scale.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: The temperature of a body cannot be negative on a Kelvin scale because the
absolute zero on the Kelvin scale is the minimum possible temperature.

## 12. Which of the following is an effective coolant?

a) Oil
b) Mercury
c) Water
d) Acids

Explanation: The specific heat of water is very high. When it runs over hot parts of engine or
machinery, it absorbs a large amount of heat. This helps in maintaining the temperature of the
engine low.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Compton Effect”.

## 1. Which of the following is the characteristic of a black body?

a) A perfect absorber but an imperfect radiator
b) A perfect radiator but an imperfect absorber
c) A perfect radiator and a perfect absorber
d) A perfect conductor

Explanation: When the radiations are made to pass through a black body, it undergoes
multiple reflections and is completely absorbed. When it is placed in a temperature bath of
fixed temperature, the heat radiations will come out. Thus a black body is a perfect absorber
and a perfect reflector.

2. The energy distribution is not uniform for any given temperature in a perfect black body.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: At different temperatures, when a perfect black body is allowed to emit
radiations, then the distribution of energy for different wavelengths at various temperatures is
not uniform.

## 3. Rayleigh-Jean’s law holds good for which of the following?

a) Shorter wavelength
b) Longer wavelength
c) High temperature
d) High energy

Explanation: According to this law, the energy distribution is directly proportional to the
absolute temperature and is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the wavelength.
Therefore longer the wavelength, greater is the energy distribution.

## 4. Wien’s displacement law holds good only for shorter wavelength.

a) False
b) True

Explanation: This law states that, the product of the wavelength, corresponding to maximum
energy and the absolute temperature, is constant. If ʎ is less, then 1/ʎ will be great. Therefore
e(hc/ʎKT) will be great.

## 5. Which of the following does not affect the photon?

a) Magnetic or electric field
b) Light waves
c) Gravity
d) Current

Explanation: Photons have no charge. They can interact with charged particles but not with
themselves. This is why photons are neutral and not affected by magnetic or electric fields.

## 6. What is Compton shift?

a) Shift in frequency
b) Shift in charges
d) Shift in wavelength

Explanation: When a photon collides with an electron at rest, the photon gives its energy to
the electron. Therefore the scattered photon will have higher wavelength compared to the
wavelength of the incident photon. This shift in wavelength is called Compton shift.

## 7. Compton shift depends on which of the following?

b) Nature of scattering substance
c) Angle of scattering
d) Amplitude of frequency

Explanation: From the theory of Compton effect it is deducted that change in wavelength
Δʎ = h/mc (1-cosɵ). This equation shows that, the change in wavelength is independent of the
incident radiation as well as the nature of scattering substance. The shift depends only on the
angle of scattering.

## 8. Which of the following is called as non-mechanical waves?

a) Magnetic waves
b) Electromagnetic waves
c) Electrical waves
d) Matter waves

Explanation: The waves which travel in the form of oscillating electric and magnetic waves
are called electromagnetic waves. Such waves do not require any material for their
propagation and are called non-mechanical waves.

## 9. Which of the following is associated with an electron microscope?

a) Matter waves
b) Electrical waves
c) Magnetic waves
d) Electromagnetic waves

Explanation: The waves associated with microscopic particles when they are in motion are
called matter waves. Electron microscope makes use of the matter waves associated with fast
moving electrons.

10. A radio station broadcasts its programme at 219.3 metre wavelength. Determine the
frequency of radio waves if velocity of radio waves is 3×108 m/s.
a) 7.31×10-7 Hz
b) 1.954×10-6 Hz
c) 1.368×106 Hz
d) 6.579×1010 Hz

Explanation: ʎ = velocity/frequency
Frequency = velocity/ʎ
Therefore, frequency = 1.368×106 Hz.

11. Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron which has been accelerated from rest
on application of potential of 400volts.
a) 0.1653 Å
b) 0.5125 Å
c) 0.6135 Å
d) 0.2514 Å

Explanation: de-Broglie wavelength = h/√(2×m×e×V)
De-Broglie wavelength = (6.625×10-14)/√(2×9.11×10-31×1.6×10-17×400)
Wavelength = 0.6135 Å.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Waves”.

## 1. When a pebble is dropped into a pond of still water, what happens?

a) Particles move
b) Waves move
c) The pebble moves
d) Water moves

Explanation: When a pebble is thrown in still water, a circular pattern of alternate crests
spread out. The kinetic energy makes the particles to oscillate which comes in contact with it.
The energy gets transferred to the particles of the next layer which also begins to oscillate.
Thus it is the disturbance or waves that move forward and not the particles of the medium.

## 2. Mechanical waves are called elastic waves.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Waves which require a medium for their propagation are called mechanical
waves. They are also called elastic waves because they depend on the elastic properties of a
medium.

3. What are the essential properties a medium must possess for the propagation of mechanical
waves?
a) Stable pressure
b) Maximum friction
c) Constant temperature
d) Minimum friction
Explanation: The friction force amongst the particles of the medium should be negligibly
small so that they continue oscillating for a sufficiently long time and the wave travels a
sufficiently long distance through the medium

## 4. Transverse waves can be formed in fluids.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Transverse waves travel in the form of crests and troughs. They involve changes
in the shape of the medium. So they can be transmitted through media which have rigidity.
As fluids do not sustain shearing stress, transverse waves cannot be formed in them.

5. Which of the following waves can be transmitted through solids, liquids and gases?
a) Transverse waves
b) Electromagnetic waves
c) Mechanical waves
d) Longitudinal waves

Explanation: Longitudinal waves involve changes in volume and density of the medium.
Since all media can sustain compressive stress, longitudinal waves can be transmitted through
all the three types of media.

6. For an aluminium the modulus of rigidity is 2.1×1010 N/m2 and density is 2.7×103 kg/m3.
Find the speed of transverse waves in the medium.
a) 27.9×103 m/s
b) 2.79×103 m/s
c) 25.14×103 m/s
d) 24.1×103 m/s

Explanation: Speed = √(Ƞ/ƿ)
Speed = 2.79×103 m/s.

## 7. Sound travels through a gas under which of the following condition?

a) Isothermal condition
b) Non-isothermal condition
d) Transverse condition

Explanation: The compressions and rarefactions are formed so rapidly that the heat generated
in the regions of compressions does not get time to pass into the regions of rarefactions so as
to equalize the temperature. So when sound travels through gas, the temperature remains

## 8. What kind of wave is formed in organ pipes?

a) Transverse stationary waves
b) Electromagnetic waves
c) Mechanical waves
d) Longitudinal stationary waves

Explanation: When two identical longitudinal waves travelling in opposite directions overlap,
a longitudinal stationary wave is formed. Thus, the waves produced in organ pipes are
longitudinal stationary waves.

## 9. A wave transmits momentum. Can’t it transfer angular momentum?

a) Yes
b) No

Explanation: A wave transmitting momentum cannot transmit angular momentum because a
transfer of angular momentum means the action of a torque which causes rotator motion.

## 10. What is the most fundamental property of wave?

a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Frequency
d) Wavelength

Explanation: When a wave travels from one medium to other, its wavelength as well as
velocity may change. This is the reason that frequency is the fundamental property of a wave.

## 11. Which of the following is also known as pressure waves?

a) Transverse waves
b) Longitudinal waves
c) Mechanical waves
d) Stationary waves

Explanation: Longitudinal waves travel in a medium as series of alternate compressions and
rarefactions and hence are called pressure waves.

## 12. In which medium sound travels faster?

a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Water vapour

Explanation: Sound travels in solid with the highest speed because the coefficient of elasticity
of solids is much greater than the coefficient of elasticity of liquids and gases.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Reverberation I”.

## 1. How are sound waves with a frequency of 20Hz to 20,000Hz termed?

a) Inaudible sounds
b) Infrasonics
c) Ultrasonics
d) Audible sound

Explanation: Sound waves below the frequency of 20Hz are infrasonics. Sound waves above
20,000Hz are ultrasonics. Both are inaudible. Sound waves between 20Hz to 20,000Hz are
audible sounds.

## 2. Sound of mosquito produces high pitch than the sound of a lion.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Pitch depends directly on the frequency of incident sound waves. Though pitch
is directly related to frequency, they are not the same. In general, frequency is physical
quantity whereas the pitch is physiological quantity.

3. What is the quantity that helps us distinguish a particular voice of a singer from the voice
of many singers?
a) Timbre
b) Pitch
c) Intensity
d) Music

Explanation: The timbre or quality of sound is one which helps us to distinguish between
musical notes emitted by different musical instruments or voices, even though they have the
same pitch and loudness.

## 4. Sensitivity increases with a decrease in intensity.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: L = k log I
Differentiating the above equation,
dL/dI = k/I
Therefore sensitivity decreases with an increase in intensity.

## 5. What happens if the reverberation time is too large?

a) The sound becomes inaudible
b) Echoes are produced
c) Frequency becomes high
d) The sound becomes infrasonic

Explanation: Reverberation is the time taken for the sound to fall below the minimum
audibility measured from the instant when the source stopped sounding. Therefore if the
reverberation time becomes too large it produces echo.

## 6. What will happen when sound is focussed to a particular area?

a) Echoes are produced
b) Sound becomes inaudible
c) Interference occurs
d) Frequency of sound becomes high

Explanation: When sound waves are produced in a hall, it reaches the observer directly as
well as after reflections from walls, floors, ceilings etc. Thus when sound is focussed to a
particular area it is possible that interference is produced between the waves, which in turn
affect the originality of the sound.

7. Sound produced from equally spaced steps in a stair case at regular intervals is due to
which effect?
a) Reverberation effect
b) Noise effect
c) Absorption effect
d) Echelon effect

Explanation: If there is a regular repetition of the original sound to the observer then the
effect is called Echelon effect. Sound produced by equally spaced steps in stairs at regular
intervals produce echelon effect.

8. What happens when window panel sections of the wooden portions are thrown into
vibrations to produce new sounds?
a) Vibrations are produced
b) Resonance occurs
c) Echoes are produced
d) Absorption occurs

Explanation: Resonance occurs when a new sound not of frequency matches with standard
audio frequency. When window panel sections, of the wooden portions are thrown into
vibrations to produce new sounds it results in interference between original sound and created
sound. This will create a disturbance to the audience.

9. A cinema theatre has a volume of 750m2. What should be the total absorption in the theatre
if the reverberation time of 1.5seconds is to be maintained?
a) 835 open window units
b) 1125 open window units
c) 500 open window units
d) 750 open window units

Explanation: Reverberation time = 0.167/Σas
Total absorption Σas = 0.167V/T
Total absorption = 835 open window units.

This set of Engineering Physics Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Reverberation
II”.

1. The volume o an auditorium is 12,000m3. Its reverberation time is 1.5 seconds. If the
average absorption coefficient of interior surfaces is 0.4 Sabine/m2. Find the area of interior
surfaces.
a) 20,000m2
b) 3340m2
c) 4500m2
d) 450m2

Explanation: Reverberation time = 0.167V/aS
Total surface area S=3340m2.

## 2. The intensity of sound produced by roaring of a lion at a distance of 5m is 0.01W/m2.

Calculate the intensity level in decibel.
a) 1dB
b) 11dB
c) 100dB
d) 20dB
Explanation: Intensity level = 10log0.01/10-12
Intensity level = 100dB.

3. Calculate the intensity level of a plane just leaving the runway having sound intensity of
a) 0dB
b) 15dB
c) 5dB
d) 150dB

Explanation: Intensity level = 10log1000/10-12
Intensity level = 150dB.

## 4. Frequency is used for tuning musical instruments.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Musicians use the beat phenomenon in tuning their musical instruments. If an
instrument is sounded against a standard frequency and tuned until the beats disappear, then
the instrument is in tune with the standard frequency. Therefore beats are used for tuning
musical instruments.

5. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/s when sounded with a tuning fork of frequency 512Hz.
The same tuning fork, when sounded with a another tuning fork of frequency 514Hz,
produces 6 beats/s. Find the frequency of the tuning fork.
a) 500Hz
b) 1000Hz
c) 128Hz
d) 508Hz

Explanation: Let the frequency of tuning fork = v
The fork produces 4 beats/s with a tuning fork of frequency 512Hz
Therefore, v = 512±4 = 516Hz or 508Hz
The fork also produces 6 beats/s with a tuning fork of frequency 514Hz
Therefore, v = 514±6 = 520Hz or 508Hz
508Hz is common in both cases. Therefore, the frequency of the tuning fork is 508Hz.

6. When a train, blowing its whistle, approaches him, the pitch of the whistle appears to rise
and it appears to drop as the engine moves away from him. What is the effect observed here?
a) Doppler effect
b) Frequency effect
c) Beats
d) Echelon effect

Explanation: Whenever there is a relative motion between the source, the observer and the
medium, the frequency of sound emitted by the source as received by the observer is different
from the frequency of sound emitted by the source. The apparent change in frequency when
the source, the observer and the medium are in motion is called Doppler effect.

## 7. In which of the following is the Doppler Effect symmetric?

a) Water
b) Air
c) Liquid
d) Light

Explanation: Doppler effect is said to be asymmetric. However, Doppler effect in light is
symmetric. This is because sound or mechanical waves in general, have a velocity relative to
the medium through which they travel whereas light or electromagnetic waves travel quiet
and independent of it.

## 8. What will be the velocity of sound in a perfectly rigid rod?

a) Infinity
b) Finite
c) Zero
d) Constant

Explanation: The velocity of sound in a perfectly rigid body will be infinite because the value
of Young’s modulus of elasticity is infinite for a perfectly rigid rod.

9. The speed of sound in moist air is greater than that in dry air.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: The density of water vapour is less than that of air. So the density of air mixed
with water vapour is less than that of dry air. Hence the speed of sound in moist air is greater
than that in dry air.

10. The sound of a bomb explosion travels faster than the sound produced by a humming bee.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: The velocity of sound in a medium does not depend upon its loudness, pitch or
quality. Thus the sound of a bomb explosion and the sound produced by humming bee, even
though having entirely different characteristics, travel with the same speed.

## 11. When can sound be heard over long distances?

a) On a sunny day
b) On a humid day
c) When snowing
d) On a rainy day

Explanation: On a rainy day, the air contains a larger amount of water vapour. This decreases
the density of air. As a result, the sound travels faster in the air and can be heard over longer
distances.

12. A person riding on a merry-go round emits a sound wave of a certain frequency. Will the
person at centre observe Doppler Effect.
a) Yes
b) No

Explanation: The person does not experience the Doppler Effect because the source is
moving perpendicular to the line joining the source and the observer.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Magnetostriction Effect and Magnetostriction Generator”.

## 1. Which of the following effects can be used to produce ultrasonic waves?

a) Magnetostriction effect
b) Doppler Effect
c) Magnetic effect
d) Sound effect

Explanation: When an alternating magnetic field is applied to a ferromagnetic material, then
the rod is thrown into vibrations, thereby producing ultrasonic waves at resonance. Therefore
ultrasonic waves can be produced using magnetostriction effect.

## 2. It is not possible to get a constant single frequency using magnetostriction effect.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: It is not possible to get a constant single frequency using magnetostriction
method because it depends on the temperature.
3. When is ultrasonic waves produced using piezo electric oscillator?
a) At constant temperature
b) At resonance
c) At constant pressure
d) At constant voltage

Explanation: Piezo electric oscillators produce ultrasonic waves at resonance. That is When
the frequency of the oscillatory circuit is equal to the frequency of the vibrating crystal.

## 4. Which of the following causes acoustical grating?

a) Magnetic waves
b) Electric waves
c) Magnetostriction effect
d) Ultrasonic waves

Explanation: When ultrasonic waves are passed through a liquid, the density varies layer by
layer due to the variation in pressure and hence the liquid will act as a diffraction grating
called acoustical grating.

## 5. What is the principle for measurement of the velocity of ultrasonic waves?

a) Magnetostriction effect
b) Acoustical grating
c) Doppler Effect
d) Acceleration effect

Explanation: When ultrasonic waves are passed through a liquid, due to variation in pressure,
the liquid will act as diffraction grating called acoustical grating. Under this condition when a
monochromatic light is passed through the acoustical grating, the light gets diffracted. By
using this velocity can be determined.

## 6. What is cold welding?

a) Welding at very low temperature
b) Welding using ultrasonic waves
c) Welding under water
d) Welding at constant temperature

Explanation: Some materials cannot be welded at high temperature. In such cases, the
welding can be done at room temperature using ultrasonics and is called cold welding.

## 7. What is the other name for ultrasonic flaw detector?

a) Destructive testing
b) Magnetostrictive testing
c) Non-destructive testing
d) Echo testing

Explanation: Whenever there is a change in medium, then the ultrasonic waves will be
reflected. Thus, from the intensity of the reflected echoes, the flaws are detected without
destroying the material and hence this method is known as a non-destructive testing method.

## 8. Sonograms work under the principle of Doppler Effect.

a) False
b) True

Explanation: There is an apparent change is the frequency between the incident sound waves
on the foetus and the reflected sound waves from the foetus. Therefore it works on the
principle of Doppler Effect.

## 9. A quartz crystal of thickness 0.001m is vibrating at resonance. Calculate the fundamental

frequency. Density of quartz = 2.650×103 kg/m3 and Young’s modulus for quartz = 7.9×1010
N/m2.
a) 2.7299×106MHz
b) 26.50×103Hz
c) 2.093×106Hz
d) 2.7299×1010MHz

Explanation: Fundamental frequency = 1/(2×0.001) √((7.9×1010)/(2.650×10-3))
Fundamental frequency = 2.7299×106MHz.

## 10. An ultrasound pulse sent by a source in sea is reflected by a submerged target at a

distance 597.50m and reaches the source after 0.83seconds. Find the velocity of sound in sea
water.
a) 495.925m/s
b) 719.879m/s
c) 110m/s
d) 1439.75m/s

Explanation: Velocity = 2d/t
Velocity = 1439.75m/s.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Laser”.
1. Which of the following is a unique property of laser?
a) Directional
b) Speed
c) Coherence
d) Wavelength

Explanation: Coherence is an important characteristic of laser beam because in laser beams,
the wave trains of the same frequency are in phase/ Due to high coherence it results in an
extremely high power.

## 2. Which of the following is an example of optical pumping?

a) Ruby laser
b) Helium-Neon laser
c) Semiconductor laser
d) Dye laser

Explanation: The atoms of Ruby are excited with the help of photons emitted with the help of
photons emitted by an external optical source. The atoms absorb energy from photos and
raises to excited state. Therefore Ruby laser is an example of optical pumping.

3. When laser light is focussed on a particular area for a long time, then that particular area
alone will be heated.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: Laser beam has very high intensity, directional properties and coherence. When
it is focussed on a particular area for a long time, then the area alone will be heated and the
other area will remain as such. This is called thermal effect.

## 4. Calculate the wavelength of radiation emitted by an LED made up of a semiconducting

material with band gap energy 2.8eV.
a) 2.8 Å
b) 4.3308 Å
c) 5548.4 Å
d) 4430.8 Å

Explanation: E = hc/ʎ
Therefore, ʎ = hc/E
ʎ = 4430.8 Å.

5. Calculate the number of photons, from green light of mercury (ʎ = 4961 Å),
required to do one joule of work.
a) 4524.2×1018/m3
b) 2.4961×1018/m3
c) 2.4961/m3
d) 2.4961/m

Explanation: E = hc/ʎ
E = 4.006×10-19 Joules
Number of photons required = (1 Joule)/(4.006×10-19 )
N = 2.4961×1018/m3.

## 6. Which of the following can be used for generation of laser pulse?

a) Ruby laser
b) Carbon dioxide laser
c) Helium neon laser
d) Nd- YAG laser

Explanation: Since Nd YAG laser has a higher thermal conductivity than other solid state
lasers, it lends itself for generation of laser pulses at a higher pulse repetition rate or a quasi
continuous wave operation.

## 7. What is the need to achieve population inversion?

a) To excite most of the atoms
b) To bring most of the atoms to ground state
c) To achieve stable condition
d) To reduce the time of production of laser

Explanation: When population inversion is achieved, the majority of atoms are in the excited
state. This causes amplification of the incident beam by stimulated emission. Thus the laser
beam is produced.

## 8. Laser is called as a non-material knife.

a) False
b) True

Explanation: In laser surgery, without knife, bloodless operation, cutting tissues etc can be
called non-material knife.

## 9. DVD uses the laser.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: A DVD player contains a laser. By moving the lens longitudinally, different
depths can be reached in the disc. In order to make room for a lot of information on every
disc, the beam has to be focused on as small an area as possible. This cannot be done with
any other light source.

## 10. Which of the following is used in atomic clocks?

a) Laser
b) Quartz
c) Maser
d) Helium

Explanation: Before laser maser was used. It stood for microwave amplification by
stimulated emission of radiation. This was based on Albert Einstein’s principle of stimulated
emission. It was used in the atomic clock.

## 11. Which of the following can be used in a vibrational analysis of structure?

a) Maser
b) Quarts
c) Electrical waves
d) Laser

Explanation: Laser can be used in a vibrational analysis of structure. This is because when a
structure under test begins to vibrate a distinctive pattern begins to emerge.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Fibre”.

## 1. What is the principle of fibre optical communication?

a) Frequency modulation
b) Population inversion
c) Total internal reflection
d) Doppler Effect

Explanation: In optical fibres, the light entering the fibre does not encounter any new
surfaces, but repeatedly they hit the same surface. The reason for confining the light beam
inside the fibres is the total internal reflection.

## 2. What is the other name for a maximum external incident angle?

a) Optical angle
b) Total internal reflection angle
c) Refraction angle
d) Wave guide acceptance angle

Explanation: Only this rays which pass within the acceptance angle will be totally reflected.
Therefore, light incident on the core within the maximum external incident angle can be
coupled into the fibre to propagate. This angle is called as wave guide acceptance angle.

## 3. A single mode fibre has low intermodal dispersion than multimode.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: In both single and multimode fibres the refractive indices will be in step by step.
Since a single mode has less dispersion than multimode, the single mode step index fibre also
has low intermodal dispersion compared to multimode step index fibre.

## 4. How does the refractive index vary in Graded Index fibre?

a) Tangentially
c) Longitudinally
d) Transversely

Explanation: The refractive index of the core is maximum along the fibre axis and it
gradually decreases. Here the refractive index varies radially from the axis of the fibre. Hence
it is called graded index fibre.

## 5. Which of the following has more distortion?

a) Single step-index fibre
c) Multimode step-index fibre
d) Glass fibre

Explanation: When rays travel through longer distances there will be some difference in
reflected angles. Hence high angle rays arrive later than low angle rays. Therefore the signal
pulses are broadened thereby results in a distorted output.

## 6. In which of the following there is no distortion?

b) Multimode step-index fibre
c) Single step-index fibre
d) Glass fibre
Explanation: The light travels with different speeds in different paths because of the variation
in their refractive indices. At the outer edge it travels faster than near the centre But almost all
the rays reach the exit end at same time due to the helical path. Thus, there is no dispersion in
the pulses and hence the output is not a distorted output.

## 7. Which of the following loss occurs inside the fibre?

b) Scattering
c) Absorption
d) Attenuation

Explanation: Scattering is a wavelength dependent loss. Since the glass used in fabrication of
fibres, the disordered structure of glass will make some vibrations in the refractive index
inside the fibre. This causes Rayleigh scattering.

## 8. What causes microscopic bend?

a) Uniform pressure
b) Non-uniform volume
c) Uniform volume
d) Non-uniform pressure

Explanation: Micro-bends losses are caused due to non-uniformities inside the fibre. This
micro-bends in fibre appears due to non-uniform pressures created during the cabling of fibre.

## 9. When more than one mode is propagating, how is it dispersed?

a) Dispersion
b) Inter-modal dispersion
c) Material dispersion
d) Waveguide dispersion

Explanation: When more than one mode is propagating through a fibre, then inter modal
dispersion will occur. Since many modes are propagating, they will have different
wavelengths and will take different time to propagate through the fibre.

10. A fibre optic telephone transmission can handle more than thousands of voice channels.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: Optical fibre has larger bandwidth hence it can handle a large number of
channels for communication.
11. Which of the following is known as fibre optic back bone?
a) Telecommunication
b) Cable television
c) Delay lines
d) Bus topology

Explanation: Each computer on the network is connected to the rest of the computers by the
optical wiring scheme called bus topology, which is an application known as fibre optic back
bone.

12. Calculate the numerical aperture of an optical fibre whose core and cladding are made of
materials of refractive index 1.6 and 1.5 respectively.
a) 0.55677
b) 55.77
c) 0.2458
d) 0.647852

Explanation: Numerical aperture = √(n2-n22 )
Numerical aperture = 0.55677.

13. A step-index fibre has a numerical aperture of 0.26, a core refractive index of 1.5 and a
core diameter of 100micrometer. Calculate the acceptance angle.
a) 1.47°
b) 15.07°
c) 2.18°
d) 24.15°

Explanation: sin i = (Numerical aperture)/n
sin i = 15.07°.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Free Electron Theory”.

## 1. What does the conductivity of metals depend upon?

a) The nature of the material
b) Number of free electrons
c) Resistance of the metal
d) Number of electrons

Explanation: The conducting property of a solid is not a function of a total number of
electrons in the metal, but it is due to the number of valance electrons called free electrons.
2. The free electrons collide with the lattice elastically.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: The free electrons move randomly in all directions. The free electrons collide
with each other and also with the lattice Elastically, without loss in energy.

## 3. What happens to the free electrons when an electric field is applied?

a) They move randomly and collide with each other
b) They move in the direction of the field
c) They remain stable
d) They move in the direction opposite to that of the field

Explanation: The free electrons move in the direction opposite to that of field direction. Since
they are assumed to be a perfect gas as they obey classical kinetic theory of gases and the
electron velocities in the metal obey the Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics.

## 4. Thermal conductivity is due to photons.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Thermal conductivity is due to both photons and free electrons and not just
photons.

## 5. Which of the following theories cannot be explained by classical theory?

a) Electron theory
b) Lorentz theory
c) Photo-electric effect
d) Classical free electron theory

Explanation: Classical theory states that all free electrons will absorb energy. This theory
cannot explain the photo electric effect.

6. Which of the following theories can be adopted to rectify the drawbacks of classical
theory?
a) Compton theory
b) Quantum theory
c) Band theory
d) Electron theory
Explanation: In classical theory, the properties of metals, such as electrical and thermal
conductivities are well explained on the assumption that the electrons in the metal freely
moves like the particles of a gas. Hence it can be used to rectify the drawbacks of classical
theory.

7. What is the level that acts as a reference which separated the vacant and filled states at 0K?
a) Excited level
b) Ground level
c) Valance orbit
d) Fermi energy level

Explanation: Fermi energy level is the maximum energy level up to which the electrons can
be filled at 0K. Thus it acts as reference level which separated the vacant and filled states at
0K.

8. A uniform silver wire has a resistivity of 1.54×10-18 ohm/m at room temperature. For an
electric field along the wire of 1 volt/cm. Compute the mobility, assuming that there are
5.8×1028 conduction electrons/m3.
a) 1.54 m2/Vs
b) 6.9973m2/Vs
c) 6.9973×10-3 m2/Vs
d) 0.69973m/s

Explanation: Mobility of the electrons = 1/ƿne
Mobility = 6.9973×10-3 m2/Vs.

9. Calculate the drift velocity of the free electrons with mobility of 3.5×10-3 m2/Vs in copper
for an electric field strength of 0.5 V/m.
a) 3.5 m/s
b) 1.75×103 m/s
c) 11.5 m/s
d) 1.75×10-3 m/s

Explanation: Drift velocity = μE
Drift velocity = 3.5×10-3×0.5 = 1.75×10-3m/s.

10. The Fermi temperature of a metal is 24600K. Calculate the Fermi velocity.
a) 0.5m/s
b) 1.38m/s
c) 0.8633×106m/s
d) 9.11×10-3m/s
Explanation: EF = KB TF= ½ mv(F)2
vF = √((2×KB×TF/m)
vF = 0.8633×106m/s.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Properties of Semiconductors”.

## 1. How does a semiconductor behave at absolute zero?

a) Conductor
b) Insulator
c) Semiconductor
d) Protection device

Explanation: A semiconductor is a solid which has the energy band similar to that of the
insulator. It acts as an insulator at absolute zero.

## 2. Semiconductor acts as an insulator in the presence of impurities.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: When the temperature is raised or when an impurity is added, their conductivity
increases. Conductivity is inversely proportional to temperature.

## 3. How is the resistance of semiconductor classified?

a) High resistance
b) Positive temperature co-efficient
c) Negative temperature co-efficient
d) Low resistance

Explanation: Semiconductors have negative temperature co-efficient. The reason for this is,
when the temperature is increased, a large number of charge carriers are produced due to the
breaking of covalent bonds and hence these electrons move freely and gives rise to
conductivity.

## 4. What are the charge carriers in semiconductors?

a) Electrons and holes
b) Electrons
c) Holes
d) Charges
Explanation: In conductors, electrons are charge carriers. But in semiconductors, both
electrons and holes are charge carriers and will take part in conduction.

## 5. Which of the following is known as indirect band gap semiconductors?

a) Germanium
b) Nickel
c) Platinum
d) Carbon

Explanation: The elemental semiconductor is made up of a single element from the fourth
column elements such as Germanium. Here recombination takes place takes place via traps. It
is called indirect band gap semiconductors.

## 6. Which column elements are combined to make compound semiconductors?

a) First and fourth
b) Fifth and sixth
c) Second and fourth
d) Third and fifth

Explanation: The compound semiconductors are made by combining the third and fifth
column elements. Such as GaAs are made by combining third and fifth column elements.

## 7. Compound semiconductors are also known as direct band gap semiconductors.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: In compound semiconductors, recombination takes place directly and its energy
difference is emitted in the form of photons in the visible or infrared range. Hence the
compound semiconductors are also known as direct band gap semiconductors.

## 8. How is charge carriers produced in intrinsic semiconductors?

a) By pure atoms
b) By electrons
c) By impure atoms
d) By holes

Explanation: Impure semiconductors in which the charge carriers are produced due to
impurity atoms are called extrinsic semiconductors. They are obtained by doping an intrinsic
semiconductor with impurity atoms.
9. What type of material is obtained when an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with
pentavalent impurity?
a) N-type semiconductor
b) Extrinsic semiconductor
c) P-type semiconductor
d) Insulator

Explanation: N-type semiconductor is obtained by doping an intrinsic semiconductor with
pentavalent impurity atoms.

10. What type of material is obtained when an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with trivalent
impurity?
a) Extrinsic semiconductor
b) Insulator
c) N-type semiconductor
d) P-type semiconductor

Explanation: P-type semiconductor is obtained by doping an intrinsic semiconductor with
trivalent impurity.

This set of Engineering Physics Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Properties
of Semiconductors II”.

1. Which method can be used to distinguish between the two types of carriers?
a) Hall effect
b) Rayleigh method
c) Doppler effect
d) Fermi effect

Explanation: When a conductor carrying current is placed in a transverse magnetic field, an
electric field is produced inside the conductor in a direction normal to both the current and
the magnetic field. This phenomenon is known as the Hall Effect.

2. Find the resistance of an intrinsic Ge rod cm long, 1mm wide and 1mm thick at 300K.
a) 2.32 ohm
b) 5314 ohm
c) 4310 ohm
d) 431 ohm

Explanation: Conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor = nie(μe+μh)
Conductivity = 2.32
Resistance = ρl/A = l/(conductivy ×A)
Resistance = 4310 ohm.

3. A semiconducting crystal 12mm long, 5mm wide and 1mm thick has a magnetic flux
density of 0.5Wb/m2 applied from front to back perpendicular to largest faces. When a
current of 20mA flows length wise through the specimen, the voltage measured across its
width is found to be 37μV. What is the Hall coefficient of this semiconductor?
a) 37×10-6 m3/C
b) 3.7×10-6 m3/C
c) 3.7×106 m3/C
d) 0

Explanation: Hall coefficient = (VH b)/(IH B)
Hall coefficient = 3.7×10-6 m3/C.

4. The intrinsic carrier density at room temperature in Ge is 2.37×1019/m3. If the electron and
hole mobilities are 0.38 and 0.18 m2/Vs respectively. Calculate its resistivity.
a) 0.18ohm m
b) 0.460ohm m
c) 0.4587ohm m
d) 0.709ohm m

Explanation: Conductivity = nie(μe+μh)
Conductivity = 2.12352/ohm m
Resistivity = 1/Conductivity
Resistivity = 0.4709ohm m.

5. A silicon plate of thickness 1mm, breadth 10mm and length 100mm is placed in a
magnetic field of 0.5 Wb/m2 acting perpendicular to its thickness. If 10-3 A current flows
along its length, calculate the Hall voltage developed, if the Hall coefficient is 3.66×104
m3/Coulomb.
a) 1.83×10-3Volts
b) 3.66×10-4Volts
c) 0.5Volts
d) 25.150Volts

Explanation:VH = (RH IH B)/t
VH = 1.83×10-3 Volts.

## 6. The conductivity of germanium at 20°C is 2/ohm m. What is its conductivity at 40°C?

Eg=0.72eV
a) 1.38×10-23/Ohm m
b) 1.0002/ Ohm m
c) 293/ Ohm m
d) 313/ Ohm m

Explanation: σ = Ce(-E/2KT)
σ1/σ2 = e(-E/2KT)/e(-E/2KT)
σ2 = 1.0002/ Ohm m.

## 7. What is the Fermi energy of a n-type semiconductor?

a) E
b) E(F )= (Ec+ Ev)/2
c) EF = (Ec+ Ed)/2
d) EF = (Ev+ Ea)/2

Explanation: The Fermi energy level of n-type semiconductor lies exactly between the
acceptor energy level and the maximum energy level of valence band. Therefore the Fermi
energy level of n-type semiconductor is EF = (Ec+ Ed)/2.

8. EF = (Ec+ Ev)/2, this represents the Fermi energy level of which of the following?
a) Extrinsic semiconductor
b) N-type semiconductor
c) P-type semiconductor
d) Intrinsic semiconductor

Explanation: The Fermi energy of an intrinsic semiconductor is EF = (Ec+ Ev)/2. That is the
Fermi energy level exactly lies between the lowest energy level of conduction band and
highest energy level of valence band.

## 9. For semiconductors, the resistivity is inversely proportional to the temperature for

semiconducting materials.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: For semiconductors, the resistivity is inversely proportional to the temperature
of the material, that is, it has a negative temperature coefficient. When the temperature of the
semiconductor is increased, large numbers of charge carriers are produced due to the
breaking of covalent bonds. These charge carriers move freely, hence conductivity increases
and therefore the resistivity decreases.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Classification of Magnetic Material”.
1. What will happen with magnetic materials is kept in an external magnetic field?
a) They will move
b) They will develop magnetic lines of force
c) They will create a permanent magnetic moment
d) They will be unaffected

Explanation: Magnetic materials are the materials which can behave like magnets. When
these materials are kept in an external magnetic field, they will create a permanent magnetic
moment in it.

## 2. Magnetism originates due to rotational motion of charged particles.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Magnetism originates from a magnetic moment of the magnetic materials due to
the rotational motion of the charged particles. When an electron revolves around the positive
nucleus, orbital magnetic moment arises.

3. What is the name of the continuous curve in the magnetic field, the tangent of which gives
the direction of magnetic intensity?
a) Magnetic lines of force
b) Magnetic lines of induction
c) Magnetic force
d) Magnetic dipole moment

Explanation: Magnetic lines of force are defined as the continuous curve in a magnetic field.
The tangent drawn at any point on the curve gives the direction of the resultant magnetic field
at that point.

4. What is the name of the magnetic lines which forms a closed path?
a) Magnetic lines of force
b) Magnetic force between two poles
c) Magnetic field
d) Magnetic lines of induction

Explanation: The magnetic lines of force which originate from North Pole to South Pole
doesn’t end there itself. They are supposed to continue through the magnet and reach the
North Pole from where they started and forms a closed loop. Such lines are called magnetic
lines of induction.

## 5. How is the residual magnetism from a material removed?

a) Retentivity
b) Coercivity
c) Magneton
d) Switching off magnetic field

Explanation: The residual magnetism can be completely removed from the material by
applying a reverse magnetic field. Hence coercivity of magnetic material is the strength of the
reverse magnetic field which is used to completely demagnetise the material.

## 6. In which of the following magnetic moment is zero?

a) Dia-magnetic material
b) Parra-magnetic material
c) Ferromagnetic material
d) Ferrimagnetic material

Explanation: In a diamagnetic material, the electron orbits are more or less random, and
mostly all the magnetic moments are cancelled. Similarly all the spins are almost paired.
Hence the net magnetic moment in the diamagnetic material is zero.

## 7. Which of the following is a weak magnet?

a) Ferromagnetic material
b) Antiferromagnetic
c) Paramagnetic
d) Diamagnetic

Explanation: The diamagnets are called weak magnets because there is no permanent dipole
moment. Their net magnetic moment is zero.

## 8. When does a diamagnetic material become normal material?

a) At critical temperature
b) Above critical temperature
c) Never
d) Below critical temperature

Explanation: Critical temperature is the temperature at which properties like magnetism
changes. When the temperature is less than the critical temperature, diamagnetic material
becomes a normal magnet.

## 9. Magnetic susceptibility is negative for paramagnetic material.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: Magnetic susceptibility is positive for paramagnetic material. It is given by
Curie-Weiss law, Susceptibility = C/(T-θ)
Where, C = Curie constant
T = Absolute temperature
θ = Curie temperature.

## 10. When does a paramagnetic material become diamagnetic material?

a) At critical temperature
b) Above critical temperature
c) Below critical temperature
d) Never

Explanation: Critical temperature is the temperature at which properties like magnetism
changes. When the temperature is less than the critical temperature, the diamagnetic material
becomes a normal magnet.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Theory of Ferromagnetism”.

1. In which of the following the magnetic moments align themselves parallel to each other?
a) Paramagnetic material
b) Ferromagnetic material
c) Ferrimagnetic material
d) Diamagnetic material

Explanation: In a ferromagnetic material, the number of unpaired electrons is more. Most of
these spin magnetic moments point in one direction. Hence even in the absence of an external
field, the magnetic moments align themselves parallel to each other and give rise to a
magnetic field.

## 2. Which of the following is a strong magnet?

a) Diamagnetic material
b) Paramagnetic material
c) Antiferromagnetic material
d) Ferromagnetic material

Explanation: The ferromagnetic materials have a permanent dipole moment. So they act as
strong magnets.

## 3. Which of the following exhibits spontaneous magnetisation?

a) Paramagnetic material
b) Ferrimagnetic material
c) Diamagnetic material
d) Ferromagnetic material

Explanation: The ferromagnetic materials exhibit magnetisation even in the absence of an
external field. This property is called spontaneous magnetisation. Hence ferromagnets exhibit
spontaneous magnetisation.

## 4. When does a ferromagnetic material become paramagnetic material?

a) At Curie temperature
b) Below Curie temperature
c) Above Curies temperature
d) Never

Explanation: Curie temperature is the temperature at which the magnetic properties of a
material change. When the temperature is greater than curie temperature, ferromagnetic
material becomes paramagnetic material.

## 5. Which of the following materials have a permanent magnetic moment?

a) Ferromagnetic material
b) Ferrimagnetic material
c) Diamagnetic material
d) Paramagnetic material

Explanation: In ferromagnetic material, there will be a large number of unequal electron spins
and hence there exists an enormous amount of permanent magnetic moment.

## 6. In which of the following the increases and then decreases?

a) Ferromagnetic material
b) Antiferromagnetic material
c) Paramagnetic material
d) Diamagnetic material

Explanation: The susceptibility is very small and is positive. It is given by, susceptibility =
C/(T+θ) for T>TN. Where TN is the Neel temperature.
Initially the susceptibility increases slightly as the temperature increases and beyond a
particular temperature, known as Neel temperature, the susceptibility decreases with
temperature.

## 7. What is the material used in two port device?

a) Ferromagnets
b) Ferrites
c) Antiferromagnets
d) Paramagnets

Explanation: The ferrites have low hysteresis loss and eddy current loss. Hence they are used
in two port devices such as gyrator, circulator and isolator.

8. A paramagnetic material had a magnetic field intensity of 104 A/m. If the susceptibility of
the material at room temperature is 3.7×10-3, calculate the magnetisation.
a) 37A/m
b) 3.7A/m
c) 370A/m
d) 0

Explanation: Susceptibility = I/H
Intensity of magnetisation I = Susceptibility × H
Intensity of magnetisation = 37A/m.

9. A paramagnetic material had a magnetic field intensity of 104 A/m. If the susceptibility of
the material at room temperature is 3.7×10-3, calculate the flux density in the material.
a) 37Wb/m2
b) 3.725Wb/m2
c) 0.012612Wb/m2
d) 0

Explanation: Flux density B = μ0[H+I] B = 0.012612Wb/m2.

10. A piece of ferric oxide with magnetic field intensity 106 A/m and susceptibility is 1.5
×10-3. Find the magnetisation of the material.
a) 15A/m
b) 150A/m
c) 1.5A/m
d) 1500A/m

Explanation: I = Susceptibility × H
I = 1500A/m.

This set of Engineering Physics Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
“Hall Effect”.

## 1. When does a normal conductor become a superconductor?

a) At normal temperature
b) At Curie temperature
c) At critical temperature
d) Never

Explanation: The temperature at which a normal conductor loses its resistivity and becomes a
superconductor is known as transition temperature or critical temperature.

## 2. In which of the following does the residual resistivity exist?

a) Impure metal at high temperature
b) Pure metal at low temperature
c) Pure metal at high temperature
d) Impure metal at low temperature

Explanation: When the temperature is reduced to 0K, the resistivity of the impure metal
doesn’t become zero, because there exist some impurities which gives rise to minimum
resistivity known as residual resistivity.

## 3. Meissner effect occurs in superconductors due to which of the following properties?

a) Diamagnetic property
b) Magnetic property
c) Paramagnetic property
d) Ferromagnetic property

Explanation: A diamagnetic material has a tendency to expel magnetic lines of forces. Since
the superconductor also expels magnetic lines of force it behaves as a perfect diamagnet. This
behaviour is first observed by Meissner and is hence called Meissner effect.

4. What happens when a large value a.c. current is passed through superconductors?
a) Conductivity increases
b) Superconducting property is destroyed
c) It acts as a magnet
d) It becomes resistant

Explanation: When a large value of a.c. current is applied to a superconducting material it
induces some magnetic field in the material and because of this magnetic field, the
superconducting property of the material is destroyed.

## 5. How is persistent current produced in supermagnets?

a) By passing ac current
b) By magnetising it
c) By passing dc current
d) By increasing the resistance
Explanation: When dc current of large magnitude is once induced in a super conducting ring
then the current persists in the ring even after the removal of the field. This current is called
persistent current. This is due to diamagnetic property. The magnetic flux inside the ring will
be trapped in it and hence current persists.

## 6. Superconductors can be used as a memory or storage elements in computers.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Since the current in superconducting ring can flow without any change in its
value, it can be used as a memory or storage element in computers.

7. Superconducting tin has a critical temperature of 3.7K at zero magnetic field and a critical
field at 0.0306 Tesla at 0K. Find the critical field at 2K.
a) 0.0306 Tesla
b) 7.4 Tesla
c) 0.02166 Tesla
d) 0 Tesla

Explanation: Critical field, Hc = H0 [1-T2/(Tc)2 )] Critical college = 0.02166 Tesla.

8. Calculate the critical current for a wire of lead having a diameter of 1mm at 4.2 K.
Calculate temperature for lead is 7.18 K and Hc = 6.5×104 A/m. Critical field is 42.758×103
A/m.
a) 3.5593 A
b) 27.3 A
c) 46.67 A
d) 134.26 A

Explanation: Critical current Ic = 2πrHc
Ic = 134.26 A.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Properties of Dielectric Materials”.

1. What is the process of producing electric dipoles inside the dielectric by an external
electric field?
a) Polarisation
b) Dipole moment
c) Susceptibility
d) Magnetisation

Explanation: When an external magnetic field is applied to the dielectrics, the field exerts a
force on each positive charges in its own direction while negative charges are pushed in the
opposite direction. Consequently, an electric dipole is created in all the atoms. Thus the
process of producing electric dipoles inside the dielectrics by an external electric field is
called polarisation.

## 2. Which of the following easily adapt itself to store electrical energy?

a) Passive dielectric
b) Superconductor
c) Active dielectric
d) Polar molecules

Explanation: When a dielectric is subjected to an external electric field, if the dielectric
actively accepts electricity, then they are termed as active dielectrics. Thus active dielectrics
are the dielectrics which can easily adapt itself to store the electrical energy in it.

## 3. Which of the following restricts the flow of electrical energy?

a) Superconductors
b) Passive dielectrics
c) Polar molecules
d) Active dielectric

Explanation: Passive dielectric acts as an insulator; conduction will not take place through
this dielectrics. Thus passive dielectrics are the dielectrics which restrict the flow of electrical
energy in it.

## 4. For non-polar molecules, there is no absorption or emission in the range of infrared.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: These molecules possess centre of symmetry and hence the centres of positive
and negative charges coincide. Therefore the net charges and net dipole moment of these
molecules will be zero and hence these non-polar molecules will not posses any dipole
moment in it. Hence there is no absorption or emission in the range of infrared.

## 5. How does ionic polarisation occur?

a) Splitting of ions
b) Passing magnetic field
c) Displacement of cations and anions
d) Never occurs

Explanation: Ionic polarisation occurs due to the displacement of cations and anions from its
original position in the opposite directions, in the presence of an electric field.

6. Polar molecules have permanent dipole moments even in the absence of an electric field.
a) False
b) True

Explanation: In the absence of an electric field the polar molecules posses some dipole
moment. These dipoles are randomly arranged and they cancel each other. Hence the net
dipole moment is very less.

## 7. Which of the following polarisations is very rapid?

a) Electronic polarisation
b) Ionic polarisation
c) Space charge polarisation
d) Orientation polarisation

Explanation: Electronic polarisation is very rapid and will complete at the instant the voltage
is applied. The reason is that the electrons are very light particles. Therefore even for high
frequency this kind of polarisation occurs.

## 8. Which of the following is the slowest polarisation method?

a) Ionic polarisation
b) Orientation polarisation
c) Electronic polarisation
d) Space charge polarisation

Explanation: Space charge polarisation is very slow because in this case, the ions have to
diffuse over several interatomic distances. Also, this process occurs at a very low frequency.

## 9. When does a dielectric become a conductor?

a) At avalanche breakdown
b) At high temperature
c) At dielectric breakdown
d) In the presence of magnetic field

Explanation: When a dielectric is placed in an electric field and if the electric field is
increased, when the electric field exceeds the critical field, the dielectric loses its insulating
property and becomes conducting. This is called dielectric breakdown.

## 10. Which of the following breakdowns occur at a higher temperature?

a) Avalanche breakdown
b) Thermal breakdown
c) Electrochemical breakdown
d) Dielectric breakdown

Explanation: When a dielectric is subjected to an electric field, heat is generated. This
generated heat is dissipated by the dielectric. In some cases, the generated heat will be very
high compared to the heat dissipated. Under such conditions, the temperature inside the
dielectric increases and heat may produce breakdown. This is thermal breakdown.

11. When mobility increases, insulation resistance decreases and dielectric becomes
conducting.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: If the temperature is increased, mobility of ions increases and hence
electrochemical reaction may be induced to take place. Therefore when mobility of ions is
increased, insulation resistance decreases and hence dielectric becomes conducting.

## 12. Which of the following materials exhibit Ferro-electricity?

a) Iron
b) Platinum
c) Hydrogen
d) Rochelle salt

Explanation: When a dielectric exhibits electric polarisation even in the absence of an
external field, it is known as ferro-elecricity and these materials are termed as Ferro-electrics.
They are anisotropic crystals which exhibit spontaneous polarisation. Hence only Rochelle
salt exhibits Ferro-electricity.

13. Calculate the electronic polarizability of an argon atom whose ɛr = 1.0024 at NTP and N
= 2.7×1025 atoms/m3.
a) 0.0024 Fm2
b) 7.87 ×10-40 Fm2
c) 7.87 Fm2
d) 1.0024×10-40 Fm2
Explanation: Electronic polarisabilty αe = (ε0 (εr-1))/N
Electronic polarisability = 7.87 × 10-40 Fm2.

14. Calculate the dielectric constant of a material which when inserted in parallel condenser
of area 10mm × 10mm and distance of separation of 2mm, gives a capacitance of 10-9 F.
a) 8.854×10-12
b) 100
c) 2259
d) 5354

Explanation: C= (εr ε0 A)/d
εr = Cd/(ε0 A) = 2259.

15. Find the capacitance of layer of A13 O3 that is 0.5μm thick and 2000mm2 of square area εr
= 8.
a) 1000μF
b) 0.283μF
c) 16μF
d) 2.83μF

Explanation: C = (εr ε0 A)/d
Capacitance = 0.283μF.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Metallic Glasses”.

## 1. Which of the following is a metallic glass?

a) Argon
b) Crypton
c) Nickel
d) Gold

Explanation: Metallic glasses are amorphous metallic solids which have high strength, good
magnetic properties and better corrosion resistance and will posses both the properties of
metals and glasses. Of the following, only nickel is a metallic glass.

## 2. How are metallic glasses formed?

a) By increasing the rate of heating
b) By increasing the rate of cooling
c) By melting it
d) By rapidly heating and then cooling slowly
Explanation: Metals can be made into a glassy state by increasing the rate of cooling to a very
high level. At that state the atoms will not be able to arrange orderly because of its rapid
cooling rate. Thus, the atoms will not be allowed to go to crystalline state, rather it goes to
amorphous state and it will form a new type of material. Such materials are called metallic
glasses.

## 3. When does metal transform into the glass?

a) At Curie temperature
b) At critical temperature
c) At melting point of the metal
d) At glass transition temperature

Explanation: The temperature at which the metals in the molten form transforms into glasses
is known as glass transition temperature. It is found that the glass transition temperature for
metallic alloys varies from 20℃-300℃.

4. Which of the following is the most commonly used technique for the preparation of
metallic glass?
a) Melt spinning system
b) Twin roller system
c) Melt extraction system
d) Sputtering

Explanation: Molten alloy is made to impinge on a fast rotating roller to form metallic glasses
in melt spinning system. Whereas in other systems two or more steps are involved in the
process making it tedious.

## 5. Quenching results in formation of metallic glasses.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Quenching means rapid cooling. Actually atoms of any material move freely in
a liquid state. Atoms can be arranged regularly when a liquid is cooled slowly. Instead, when
a liquid is quenched, there will be an irregular pattern, which results in the formation of
metallic glasses.

## 6. Which of the following is true about metallic glasses?

a) Low electrical resistance
b) Hexagonal closely packed structure
c) Non-malleable
d) Low core loss
Explanation: Metallic glasses can be magnetised and demagnetised easily. They have very
narrow hysteresis loop. They therefore exhibit very low hysteresis loss and hence transformer
core loss is very less. They have high electrical resistance and Tetrahedral closely packed
structure.

## 7. Metallic glasses cannot be used in cores of high power transformers.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Since the metallic glasses possess low magnetic loss, high permeability,
saturation magnetisation and low coercivity, these materials are used in cores of high power
transformers.

## 8. When does a shape memory alloy return to its original shape?

a) At transition temperature
b) At Curie temperature
c) At memory transfer temperature
d) At normal temperature

Explanation: Shape memory alloys are those which change their shape from its original shape
to a new shape and while heating or cooling it will come back to its original shape. This
shape recovery process doesn’t happen at a single temperature but over a range of
temperature. Thus, the range at which the SMA switches from new shape to its original shape
is called transformation temperature or memory transfer temperature.

## 9. Why is NI-Ti alloy used in making eye frames?

a) Because they are hard
b) Because they are not flexible
c) Because they are hard to break
d) Because they are SMA

Explanation: NI-Ti alloys are shape memory alloys. Recently manufactured eye glass frames
can be bent back and forth and can retain its original shape within fraction of time. All these
materials are made up of NI-Ti alloys, which can withstand maximum deformation.

## 10. Can SMA be used to control and prevent fire?

a) No
b) Yes

Explanation: SMA is mainly used to control and prevent fire to a large extent. For example,
an SMA is placed in a fire safety valve, when a fire occurs, due to the change in temperature
the SMA changes its shape and shuts off fire.

11. Which of the following can be used to prepare nano-powder and nano-particles?
a) Sol-gel technique
b) Plasma arching
c) Chemical vapour deposition
d) Electro deposition

Explanation: Sol-gel process is based on hydrolysis of liquid precursors and formation of
colloidal solutions. In every other technique, either only nano-powder or nano-particles can
be formed. Only in sol-gel technique both nano-powder and nano-particles can be formed.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Nano Phase Materials”.

1. In which of the following the atoms do not move from each other?
a) Shape memory alloys
b) Nano materials
c) Dielectrics
d) Static materials

Explanation: There exists a special type of material in which the atoms do not move away
from each other and its size will be in the order of 1-100nanometers. These new materials are
called nano-materials.

## 2. Which of the following uses radio frequency to produce nano-particles?

a) Plasma arching
b) Chemical vapour deposition
c) Sol-gel technique
d) Electro deposition

Explanation: Nano particles are produced by generating plasma using Radio frequency
heating coils in plasma arching method. It consists of an evacuated chamber, wounded by
high voltage RF coils.

## 3. Which of the following methods can be used to produce nano-powders of oxides?

a) Plasma arching
b) Sol-gel technique
c) Chemical vapour deposition
d) Mechanical crushing
Explanation: Chemical vapour deposition is used to prepare nano-powder. In this technique,
initially, the material is heated to form a gas i=and is allowed to deposit on a solid surface
under vacuum condition, which forms nano-powders on the surface of the solid.

## 4. Which of the following is used to make both nano-particles and nano-powders?

a) Chemical vapour deposition
b) Sol-gel technique
c) Plasma arching
d) Electro deposition

Explanation: Sol-gel technique is based on hydrolysis of liquid precursors and formation of
colloidal solutions. Only this method can be used for the preparation of nano-particles and
nano-powders.

5. Which method can be used to prepare iron nitriles nano-crystals using ammonia gas?
a) Pulsed laser deposition
b) Sol-gel technique
c) Electro-deposition
d) Mechanical crushing

Explanation: Mechanical crushing is the method sued in the preparation of metal oxide nano
crystals. In this method, small balls are allowed to rotate inside a drum and are made to fall
on a solid with a high gravitational force which crushes the solid into nano-crystals. Thus iron
nitriles nano-crystal can be made by using mechanical crushing.

## 6. Nano-particles exhibit super plastic behaviour.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: The hardness of nano-phase materials varies from material to material. This
may be due to the phase transformation, stress relief, density and grain boundaries. Therefore
nano-particles exhibit super plastic behaviour.

7. Which of the following is used to modify the optical properties of a material system?
a) Electricity
b) Magnetic field
c) Pressure
d) Light

Explanation: In nonlinear optics, the modification of the optical properties of a material
system is made by light. This is because according to electro optic effects when the light is
passed through a material it changes the properties of the medium.

## 8. Find the odd one out.

a) Frequency mixing
b) Second-harmonic generation
c) Optical mixing
d) Raman and Rayleigh scattering

Explanation: The rest of the mentioned effects exhibit Bire fingence. When light passes
through a material the incident ray splits into two rays, one of the same wavelength and the
other of a different wavelength. This phenomenon is called double refraction. It is observed
in NLO materials. Whereas frequency mixing is a passive material.

## 9. Which of the following is used in electro optic modulators?

a) Lithium tantalite
b) Barium sodium niobate
c) Lithium niobate
d) Lithium sodium niobate

Explanation: When an ordinary light is passed through the lithium niobate crystal, it is
converted into polarised extraordinary light. Hence it is used in electro optic modulator.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Dimensional Analysis”.

1. What is the science that deals with every substance, its structure, its composition and
changes?
a) Botanical science
b) Zoological science
c) Chemistry
d) Physics

Explanation: Chemistry is the science that deals with every substance, its structure, its
composition and changes. Physics is the study of the natural world, matter, energy and
radiation, while biology is the science that deals with the behaviour of living things are called
biological sciences.

## 2. Quantum physics deals with macroscopic phenomena.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: Classical physics deals with macroscopic phenomena which may be at the
laboratory, terrestrial and astronomical. Quantum physics deals with microscopic phenomena
at the minute scales of atoms.

## 3. Which of the following use electromagnetic waves?

c) Detecting fractures
d) Electric motors

fractures are done by x-rays and electric motor comes under the electric appliance.

## 4. Which is the universal attractive force?

a) Electromagnetic force
b) Strong nuclear force
c) Weak nuclear force
d) Gravitational force

Explanation: Gravitational force is the force of mutual attraction between two bodies by
virtue of their masses. Every body attracts every other body in the universe with this force.
Hence it is the universal attractive force.

## 5. Gravitational force is the weakest force in nature.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Gravitational force is the weakest force in nature because it cannot be felt by us
on daily basis. Electromagnetic force is the strongest force in nature.

## 6. Which of the following is an example for electromagnetic force?

a) Motion of moon around earth
b) Evolution of stars
c) Evolution of galaxies
d) Compression of spring

Explanation: When a spring is compressed, it exerts a force of elasticity due to the net
repulsion/ attraction between the neighbouring atoms. This net repulsion or attraction is the
sum of the electrostatic forces between the electrons and nuclei of the atoms.
7. Why is climbing a lamp post harder than climbing up a tree?
a) Because of parallel friction force
b) Because of contact force between the bodies
c) Because of Van der Wall’s force
d) Because of rope force

Explanation: Sometimes, the electromagnetic contact force between two bodies may have a
component acting parallel to the surface of contact. This is called friction. When bodies are
placed with their smooth surfaces in contact, they provide only a small parallel component of
contact of force and hence friction between them is small. This is why climbing a metallic
lamp post is difficult than climbing up a tree.

8. Gravitational force, despite being a weak force, governs the large scale motion.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: Mass is only of one type. So the gravitational force is always attractive.
Between two neutral objects, the gravitational force goes on adding over all pairs of particles
of the two objects while the electromagnetic forces being equally attractive and repulsive, add
up to zero. That is why large scale motion in the universe is controlled by the weakest
gravitational force.

9. When a body is falling freely under gravity, the total mechanical energy remains constant
because of which of the following?
a) Law of conservation of energy
b) Unification of force
c) Electromagnetic force
d) Gravity

Explanation: According to the law of conservation of energy, energy can neither be created
nor can it be destroyed but it can be changed from one form to another. When a body falls
freely, under gravity, its potential energy gradually changes into kinetic energy. But its total
mechanical energy remains constant at any point of its motion.

## 10. What happens when a bullet is fired from rifle?

a) The rifle becomes weightless
b) We fall back
c) Rifle gives backward kick
d) Bullet doesn’t leave the rifle

Explanation: A rifle gives a backward kick on firing a bullet. Before firing, both the bullet
and rifle are at rest and initial momentum of the system is zero. As soon as the bullet is fired,
it moves forward with a large velocity. In order to conserve momentum, the rifle moves
backward with such a velocity that the final momentum of the system is zero.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Laws Governing Gravity”.

## 1. Which of the following is true about the universe?

a) It is an open system
b) It is a closed system
c) It is an isolated system
d) It is an international system

Explanation: In spite of all the violent phenomenon occurring in this universe all the time, the
total energy if the universe remains constant. The total energy remains constant only in an
isolated system. Thus the universe is an example of an isolated system.

## 2. Which of the following holds good in all natural processes?

a) The Doppler Effect
b) Newton’s law of gravitation
c) Electromagnetic law
d) Lenz’s law

Explanation: It states that every body in the universe is attracted to every other body with a
force directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the
square of the distance between them. Hence it holds good in all natural processes.

## 3. Strong nuclear force is independent of charge.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Nuclear forces between a proton and proton, a neutron and neutron are nearly
equally strong. This indicated that the strong nuclear force does not depend on the charge on
the charge of the nucleons.

## 4. Which of the following leads to the law of conservation of energy?

a) Gravity
b) Isotropy
c) Nuclear force
d) Homogeneity of time

Explanation: If we perform an experiment at a certain place today and repeat it after one yer
at the same place, we obtain the same results. This symmetry of nature with respect to
translation or displacement of time is called homogeneity of time and it leads to the law of
conservation of energy.

## 5. Which of the following leads to the law of conservation of angular momentum?

a) Isotropy of space
b) Homogeneity of time
c) Nuclear force
d) Gravity

Explanation: Law of nature take the same form everywhere in the universe. That is there is no
particular location in the universe. This symmetry of the laws of nature with respect to
translation in space id called homogeneity of space and gives rise to the law of conservation
of linear momentum.

## 6. Which of the following is the SI unit of luminous intensity?

a) Sterdian
c) Mole
d) Candela

Explanation: Candela is the SI unit of luminous intensity. One candela is the luminous
intensity, in a given direction, of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency
540×1012 hertz and that has a radiant intensity of 1/683 watt per sterdian in that direction.

## 7. Sterdian is the SI unit of which of the following?

a) Phase angle
b) Luminous intensity
c) Mass
d) Solid angle

Explanation: Sterdian is defined as the solid angle subtended at the centre of sphere by a
surface of the sphere equal in area to that of a square, having each side equal to the radius of
the sphere.

## 8. How many light years are there in one metre?

a) 9.46×1015ly
b) 1.057×10-16ly
c) 1ly
d) 1×10-16ly
Explanation: 1 light year = 9.46×1015m
1m = 1/(9.46×1015 )ly = 1.057×10-16ly.

## 9. The radius of gold nucleus is 41.3fermi. Express its volume in m3.

a) 41.3×10-15 m3
b) 2.95×10-40 m3
c) 4.19 m3
d) 29.33 m3

Explanation: Radius = 41.3 Fermi = 41.3×10-15m
V = 4/3 πr3 = 2.95×10-40 m3.

## 10. Convert an acceleration of 2km/h2 into cm/s2.

a) 2×105 cm/s2
b) 0.0027 cm/s2
c) 0.0154 cm/s2
d) 0.055 cm/s2

Explanation: a = 2 km/h2
a = 0.0154 cm/s2.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Units and Measurements”.

## 1. Which of the following is an inferior planet to earth?

a) Mercury
b) Saturn
c) Pluto
d) Neptune

Explanation: The planets which are closer to the sun than earth are called inferior planets.
Therefore Mercury and Venus are the inferior planets. The other planets are superior planets.

## 2. What is the method for determining the distance of an inferior planet?

a) Kepler’s third law of planetary motion
b) Triangulation method
c) Parallax method
d) Copernicus method

Explanation: Copernicus assumed circular orbits for the planets. The angle formed at the
earth between the earth-planet direction and earth-sun direction is called the planet’s
elongation.

## 3. What is the method for determining the distance of a superior planet?

a) Copernicus method
b) Kepler’s third law of planetary motion
c) Parallax method
d) Triangulation method

Explanation: The distance of a superior planet can be found using Kepler’s third law of
planetary motion. This law states the square of the period of revolution of a planet around the
sun is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of the orbit.

## 4. Which of the following is used to find the depth of the sea-bed?

a) Laser method
b) Sonar method
d) Reflection or echo method

Explanation: The word sonar stands for sound navigation and ranging. On a sonar ultrasonic
waves are transmitted through the ocean. They are reflected by the submerged rocks and
received by the receiver. By measuring the time delay of the receipt, the distance can be
determined.

5. The shadow of a tower standing on a level plane is found to be 50m longer when the sun’s
altitude is 30° that when it is 60°. Find the height if the tower.
a) 1.732 m
b) 43.3 m
c) 25 m
d) 25√3 m

Explanation: h = d/(cotθ2-cotθ1 )
Here, d = 50m
θ1 = 60°
θ2 = 30°
h = 43.3 m.

6. The moon is observed from two diametrically opposite points A and B on the earth. The
angle θ subtended at the moon by the two directions of observation is 1°54’. Given the
diameter of the earth to be 1.276×107 m, compute the distance of the moon from the earth.
a) 3.84×108 m
b) 1.276×107 m
c) 3.84m
d) 1.27m

Explanation: Here parallactic angle,
θ = 1°54’ = 114’ = (114×60)’’ = 114×60×4.85×10-6rad = 3.32×10-2 rad
Basic, b = AB = 1.276×107m
The distance of the moon from the earth, S=b/θ = 3.84×108m.

7. The angular diameter of the sun is 1920’’. If the distance of the sun from the earth is
1.5×1011 m, what is the linear diameter of the sun?
a) 4.85×10-6 m
b) 1.4×109m
c) 2.35×108 m
d) 1.4×108m

Explanation: Distance of the sun from the earth = 1.5×1011m
Angular diameter of the sun = 1920×4.85×10-6 rad
Linear diameter of the sun = 1.5×1011×1920×4.85×10-6 = 1.4×109 m.

8. In a submarine fitted with SONAR, the time interval between the generation of an
ultrasonic wave and the receipt of its echo is 200s. What is the distance of the enemy
submarine? The speed of the sound in water is 1.450km/s.
a) 2.811 km
b) 112.5 km
c) 145 km
d) 100 km

Explanation: The distance of the enemy submarine = (speed ×time)/2 = 145 km.

9. A 35mm wide slide with a 24mm×36mm picture is projected on a screen placed 12cm
from the slide. The image of the slide picture on the screen measures 1m×1.5m. What is the
linear magnification of the projector-screen arrangement?
a) 150.6
b) 1736
c) 1524
d) 41.67

Explanation: Areal magnification = (1×1.5)/(24×10-3)×36×10-3 ) = 1736
Linear magnification = √1736 = 41.67.

10. If the size of an atom ( ≅1A ) were enlarged to the tip of a sharp pin ( ≅10-5 ), how large
would the height of Mount Everest be?
a) 107m
b) 108m
c) 1010m
d) 109m

Explanation: Magnification = 105
Apparent height of Mount Everest = Actual height × magnification = 104 × 105 = 109m.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Dimensions of a Physical Quantity”.

## 1. Which of the following is used for measuring long time intervals?

a) Electrical oscillators
b) Atomic clocks
c) Decay of elementary particles

Explanation: Radioactive dating is used to measure long time intervals by finding the ratio of
the number of radioactive atoms that have undergone decay to the number of atoms left
undecayed. Carbon dating is used to estimate the age of fossils, uranium dating is used to
estimate the age of rocks.

2. The average life of an Indian is 56 years. Find the number of times the human heart beats
in the life of an Indian, if the heat beats once in 0.8 s.
a) 20.4×109 times
b) 2.5×109 times
c) 2.2×109 times
d) 6.1×109 times

Explanation:
Average life of an Indian = 56 years = 56×365.25×24×60×60 s
Period of heart beat = 0.8 s
Total number of heart beats in 56 years = (56×365.25×24×60×60)/0.8 = 2.2×109 times.

## 3. How many dimensions of the world is there?

a) 7
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4

Explanation: All the derived quantities can be expressed in terms of some combination of the
seven fundamental or base quantities. We call these seven fundamental quantities as the
seven dimensions of the world.

## 4. What is the dimensional formula for Gravitational constant?

a) ML2 T(-3)
b) ML(-1) T(-2)
c) ML(-1) T(-1)
d) M(-1) L3 T(-2)

Explanation: F = G(m1 m2)/r2
G = ([F][r2])/([m1 ][m2]) = (MLT(-2) L2)/MM = M(-1) L3 T(-2).

## 5. Which of the following is a dimensional constant?

a) e
b) Area
c) Specific gravity
d) Gravitational constant

Explanation: The physical quantities which posses dimensions and have constant values are
called dimensional constants. Hence Gravitational constant is a dimensional constant.

6. If the unit of force is 1kN, unit of length 1km and the unit of time is 100s, what will be the
unit of mass?
a) 1000 kg
b) 104 kg
c) 100 kg
d) 105 kg

Explanation: M = (MLT(-2) T2)/L = (FT2)/L
M = (1000 N ×104 s2)/(1000 m) =104 kg.

## 7. Which of the following is a systematic error?

a) Constant error
b) Least count error
c) Gross error
d) Personal error

Explanation: The errors which occur in one direction, either positive or negative, are called
systematic error. Personal errors arise due to improper setting of instruments. Hence it comes
under systematic error.
8. All physical quantities have dimensions.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: All physical quantities do not have dimensions. Like angle, strain and relative
density are examples for dimension less quantity.

## 9. An instrument cannot be precise without being accurate.

a) False
b) True

Explanation: An instrument can be precise without being accurate but the instrument cannot
be accurate without being precise.

## 10. Can the diameter of a thread be measure by using a scale?

a) Yes
b) No

Explanation: The thread is wound on a meter scale such that its turns are close together.
Thickness of the thread coil is measure and the number of turns made by the thread is
counted. Diameter is then given by dividing the thickness by a number of turns.

11. Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron which has been accelerated from rest
on application of potential of 400volts.
a) 0.1653 Amstrong
b) 0.5125 Amstrong
c) 0.6135 Amstrong
d) 0.2514 Amstrong

Explanation: de-Broglie wavelength = h/√(2×m×e×V)
De-Broglie wavelength = (6.625×10(-14))/√(2×9.11×10(-31)×1.6×10(-19)×400)
Wavelength = 0.6135 Amstrong.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Motion and Mechanics”.

## 1. Rest and motion are relative terms.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: A passenger sitting in a train is in rest with respect to his other passengers but is
in motion with respect to the things outside the train. Thus, an object maybe at rest with
respect to one object and, at the same time, in motion with respect to another object. Hence
rest and motion are relative terms.

## 2. A train is under a journey of several hundred kilometers. How can it be regarded?

a) An object in motion
b) An object under rest
c) An object under absolute motion
d) A point object

Explanation: If the position of an object changes by distances much greater than its own size
in a reasonable time, then the object maybe regarded as a point object.

3. A car is moving along a zigzag path on a level road. This is an example for which of the
following?
a) Point object
b) Two dimensional motion
c) Three dimensional motion
d) One dimensional motion

Explanation: The motion of an object is said to be two dimensional if only two of the three
coordinates specifying its position changes with time. Hence a car moving in a zigzag path on
a level road is an example for two dimensional motions.

4. Which of the following can be regarded as an example for three dimensional motions?
a) Motion of planets around the sun
b) Motion of a train along a straight track
c) Motion of a free falling body
d) A kite flying on a windy day

Explanation: The motion of an object is said to be three dimensional if all the three
coordinates specifying the position changes with respect time. Thus kite flying on a windy
day is an example for three dimensional motions.

## 5. Displacement is a scalar quantity.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Displacement is the change in potion of an object in a fixed direction. It has
both magnitude and direction. Thus displacement is a vector quantity.
6. A body travels from A to B at 40m/s and from B to A at 60m/s. Calculate the average
speed.
a) 0
b) 48m/s
c) 240m/s
d) 3.5m/s

Explanation: Total time taken by the body to travel from A to B and then from B to A,
t1+t2 = AB/40 + AB/60 = AB/24 s
Total distance covered = AB + BA = 2AB
Average speed = 2AB/(t1+t2 ) = 48m/s.

7. On a 60km track travels the first 30km with a uniform speed of 30km/h. How fast must the
train travel the next 30km so as to average 40km.h for the entire trip?
a) 60km.h
b) 90km/h
c) 120km/h
d) 30km/h

Explanation: vav = (2v1 v2)/(v1+v2 )
40 = (2×30×v2)/(30+v2 )
v2 = 60km/h.

## 8. What is the acceleration of a bus approaching a bus stop?

a) Uniform acceleration
b) Instantaneous acceleration
c) Average acceleration
d) Negative acceleration

Explanation: If the velocity of an object decreases with time, its acceleration is negative.
When a bus approaches its stop, its acceleration decreases, hence it has negative acceleration.

9. A jet plane starts from rest with an acceleration of 3m/s2 and makes a run for 35s before
taking off. What is the minimum length of the runway?
a) 105 m
b) 1837.5 m
c) 2451 m
d) 1204 m

Explanation: Minimum length of the driveway is given by s = ut + 1/2 at2 = 0 + 1/2 × 3 × 35
× 35 = 1837.5 m.
10. A driver takes 0.20 s to apply the brakes after he sees a need for it. This is called the
reaction time of the driver. If he is driving at a speed of 54km/h and the brakes cause a
deceleration of 6.0m/s2, find the distance travelled by the car after he sees the need to put the
brakes.
a) 18.75m
b) 225 m
c) 21.5 m
d) 12 m

Explanation: Distance covered in 0.20s = 15 × 0.20 = 3 m
For motion with deceleration:
U = 15m/s v = 0 a = -6 m/s2
As v2 – u2 = 2as
s = 18.75 m
Total distance travelled = 3.0 + 18.75 = 21.75 m.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Acceleration due to Gravity”.

1. Can earth be regarded as a point object when describing its yearly journey around the sun?
a) Yes
b) No

Explanation: Earth can be regarded as a point object when describing its yearly journey
around the sun because the size of the earth is much smaller than the distance from the sun.

## 2. Displacement can be greater than the distance travelled by an object.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: The displacement of an object can be either equal to or less than the distance
travelled by the object. This is because displacement is the shortest distance between the
initial and final positions of the object while distance travelled is the length of the actual path
traversed by the object.

3. Under what condition is the average velocity equal to the instantaneous velocity?
a) Varying velocity
b) Varying speed
c) Constant velocity
d) Constant speed
Explanation: When a body moves with a constant velocity, its average velocity over any time
interval is same as instantaneous velocity.

## 4. How is the speed related to the magnitude of velocity?

a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) Equal
d) Doesn’t vary

Explanation: Due to change in direction of motion, the length of the path traversed by a body
is generally greater than the magnitude of its displacement. So the speed is greater than the
magnitude of the velocity.

5. Two balls of different masses (one lighter and one heavier) are thrown vertically upward
with same initial speed. Which one will rise to a greater height?
a) The lighter one
b) The heavier one
c) Neither
d) Both the balls

Explanation: Both he balls will rise to the same height. It is because, for a body moving with
given initial velocity and acceleration, the distance covered by the body does not depend on
the mass of the body.

6. When rain falls vertically downwards, the front screen of a moving car gets wet while the
back screen remains dry.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: When the rain is falling vertically downwards, the front screen of a moving car
gets wet while back screen remains dry. This is because the rain strikes the car in a direction
of relative velocity of rain with respect to the car.

7. Two trains A and B of length 400m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a uniform
speed of 72km/h in the same direction, with A ahead of B. The driver of B decides to
overtake A and accelerates by 1m/s. If after 50s, the guard of B just brushes past the driver of
A, what is the original distance between them?
a) 50m
b) 150m
c) 125m
d) 1250m
Explanation: Let x be the distance between then driver of train A and the guard of train B.
Initially, both trains are moving in the same direction with the same speed of 72km/h. So
relative velocity of B with respect to A = vB-vA = 0. Hence the train B needs to cover a
distance with a= 1m/s, t= 50 s, u = 0
s = ut + 1/2at2 = 1250m.

8. A player throws a ball upwards with an initial speed of 29.4m/s. What is the direction of
acceleration during the upwards motion of the ball?
a) Upwards
b) Diagonal
c) Projectile motion
d) Vertically downwards

Explanation: The ball moves under the effect of gravity. The direction of acceleration due to
gravity is always vertically downwards.

9. A particle in one dimensional motion with zero speed may have non-zero velocity.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: Speed is a magnitude of velocity and the magnitude of non-zero velocity cannot
be zero.

10. For a particle in one dimensional motion, which of the following is true?
a) Zero speed at any instant may have zero acceleration at the instant
b) Zero speed may have non-zero velocity
c) Constant speed must have zero acceleration
d) Positive value of acceleration must be speeding up

Explanation: When a particle moves with a constant speed in the same direction, neither the
magnitude nor the direction of velocity changes and so acceleration is zero. In case a particle
rebounds instantly with the same speed, its acceleration will be infinite which is physically
not possible.

11. A bullet fired into a fixed target loss half of its velocity after penetrating 3cm. How much
further will it penetrate before coming to rest assuming that it faces constant resistance in
motion?
a) 1.5cm
b) 1cm
c) 3cm
d) 2cm
Explanation: If u is initial velocity then v=u/2 s=3cm
As v2-u2=2as
a= -u2/8
Now v=0
Initial velocity=u/2
s=1cm
Thus the bullet will penetrate a further distance of 1cm before coming to rest.

12. From a building 2 balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upward and B is
thrown downward. If vA and vB are their respective velocities on reaching the ground, then
a) vB is greater than vA
b) vB = vA
c) vB is lesser than vA
d) Their velocities depend on their masses.

Explanation: Suppose the ball A is thrown upward with velocity u and ball B is thrown
downward with same velocity u. After reaching the highest point the ball A comes back to its
position with the same velocity in downward direction. As the 2 balls fall from the same
position with the same velocity, both attain the same velocity on reaching the ground.

13. The displacement of the body is given to be proportional to the cube of time elapsed. The
magnitude of acceleration of body is
a) Increasing with time
b) Decreasing with time
c) Constant but not zero
d) Zero

Explanation: s=kt3
Velocity=ds/dt=3kt2
Acceleration=dv/dt=6kt
Clearly acceleration increases uniformly with time.

## 14. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, at the maximum height

a) The velocity is zero and therefore there is no acceleration acting in the particle
b) The acceleration is present and therefore the velocity is not zero
c) Acceleration depends on the velocity
d) Acceleration is independent of the velocity

Explanation: When a ball is thrown vertically upward, at the maximum height the
acceleration becomes independent of the velocity.
15. Tom and jerry are running forward with the same speed. They are following a rubber ball
at a constant speed v as seen by the thrower. According to Sam, who’s standing on the
ground, the speed of the ball is
a) Same as v
b) Greater than v
c) Less than v
d) Zero

Explanation: As they are moving in the same direction, the relative velocity of the ball with
respect to Tom or Jerry will be
vB=v+v(Tom or Jerry)
For Sam, the speed of the ball will be greater than v.

This set of Engineering Physics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Scalar and Vector”.

## 1. The quantity which has the only magnitude is called

a) A scalar quantity
b) A vector quantity
c) A chemical quantity
d) A magnitude quantity

Explanation: A quantity which has only magnitude and no direction is called scalar quantity.
Example: mass

## 2. Force is a vector quantity.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: Force has both magnitude and direction. A quantity which has both magnitude
and direction is called a vector quantity. Therefore, force is a vector quantity.

## 3. A polar vector is one which

a) Gives the position of an object
b) Tells how much and in which direction an object has changed its position
c) Represents rotational effect
d) Has a starting point of application

Explanation: The vector which has a starting point or a point of application is called a polar
vector. Velocity maybe regarded as a polar vector.
4. Which of the following acts in accordance with right hand screw rule?
a) Polar vector
b) Axial vector
c) Displacement vector
d) Position vector

Explanation: The vectors which represent rotational effect and act along the axis of rotation
in accordance with right hand screw rule are called axial vector. Axial vector will have its
direction along its axis of rotation depending on its anticlockwise or clockwise rotational
effect.

## 5. What is the magnitude of a unit vector?

a) It has no magnitude
b) Zero
c) Constant but not zero
d) Unity

Explanation: The magnitude of a unit vector is unity. It just gives the direction of a vector. A
unit vector has no units or dimensions.

## 6. Which have the following has zero magnitude?

a) Fixed vector
b) Zero vector
c) Modulus of a vector
d) Unit vector

Explanation: A zero or null vector is a vector that has zero magnitude and an arbitrary
direction. The velocity vector of a stationary object is a zero vector.

## 7. Flying a bird is an example of

a) Collinear vector
b) Multiplication of vector
d) Composition of vector

Explanation: When a bird flies, it pushes the air with force in the downward direction with its
wings. In accordance with Newton’s law of motion, the air exerts equal and opposite
reaction. According to the parallelogram law, the resultant of the reaction acts on the birds in
the upward direction and helps the bird to fly upwards.
8. Two forces whose magnitudes are in ratio of 3:5 give a resultant of 35N. If the angle of
inclination is 60°, calculate the magnitude of each force.
a) 15N and35N
b) 15N and 25N
c) 10N and 15N
d) 20N and 5N

Explanation: P = 3x and Q = 5x R = 35N θ = 120°
R = √(P2+ R2+ 2PQcosθ)
35 = 7x or x = 35/7 = 5
P = 15N Q = 25N.

## 9. Walking off a man is an example of

a) Resolution of forces