A perfect jee mains paper

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A perfect jee mains paper

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Q.P CODE :

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is

strictly prohibited.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the

Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30

questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.

6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question. ¼ (one

fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score

will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be

treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.

8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the

Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any

electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room /

Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–2

ITY157_PRACTICE

S

SEEC

CTTIIO

ONN –– A

A :: P

PHHY

YSSIIC

CSS

1. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/h in still water crosses a rover of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in

15 min. The velocity of the river water in km/h is

(A) 1 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 41

cot θ on the horizontal plane. The apparent weight of the man of mass 10 kg

W

measured by the weighing machine in the box is W

(A) zero (B) 400 N gcotθ

(C) 200√2 N (D) 400√2 N

θ

3. In the arrangement shown in the figure, if v1 and v2 are the instantaneous velocities of

masses m1 and m2, respectively, and angle ACB is 2θ at the instant, then A 0 B

−1

v −1

v

(A) θ = cos 1 (B) θ = cos 2 2θ

2v 2 2v1

C m2

−1

v −1

v m1

(C) θ = tan 1 (D) θ = 5 sin 1

2v 2 v2

4 m/s2

4. Assuming the surfaces to be frictionless, acceleration 3 m/s2

of the block C shown in the figure is A B

(A) 5 m/s2

(B) 7 m/s2

(C) 3.5 m/s2

a

(D) 4 m/s2 c

1 2kg F1= 2N

two blocks is µ = . The force of friction acting between the two blocks is F2= 20N

2 4kg

(A) 8 N (B) 10 N

(C) 6 N (D) 4 N

m

6. Two vehicles of equal masses are moving with same speed v on two roads inclined at

an angle 2θ as shown. They collide inelastically at the junction and then move

θ v

together. The speed of the combination is

(A) v cos θ (B) 2v cos θ v

(C) v/2 cos θ (D) v/2 cos θ/2

m

7. A ball is allowed to fall from a height of 10 m. If there is 40% loss of energy due to impact, then after one impact

ball will go upto

(A) 10 m (B) 8 m

(C) 4 m (D) 6 m

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–3

ITY157_PRACTICE

8. Keeping view the law of conservation of momentum, which of the following figures is correct ?

m1 m2 m1

(a) (b)

α1

α α2

m2

m2 m2

m1

m1

(c) m2 (d) m2

90− θ 1 α2

θ1 α1

m1 m1

m2 m2

m1

m1

9. The value of force F such that normal reaction between the block of mass ‘m’

and wedge of mass M is zero is m

F

(A) Mg tan θ (B) Mg cot θ M

(C) Mg sin θ (D) Mg cos θ

θ

10. If the kinetic energy of a body is directly proportional to time ‘t’, the magnitude of the force acting on the body is

(A) directly proportional to t

(B) inversely proportional to t

(C) directly proportional to the speed of the body

(D) inversely proportional to the square speed of the body

11. Let ar and at represent radial and tangential acceleration the motion of a particle may be circular if

(A) ar = at = 0 (B) ar = 0 and at < 0

(C) ar ≠ 0 and at = 0 (D) ar ≠ and at > 0

12. The elevator shown in figure is descending with an acceleration of 3 m/s 2 . The

mass of the block A = 1 kg. The force exerted by the block B on A is

(A) 3 N (B) 4 N 3 m / s2

(C) 6 N (D) 7 N A

13. The maximum error in the measurement of mass and density of the cube are 3% and 9% respectively. The

maximum error in the measurement of length will be

(A) 9% (B) 3%

(C) 64% (D) 2%

14. On the basis of dimensional equation, the maximum number of unknown that can be found is

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) Four

15. A body falling freely from a given height H hits an inclined plane in its path at a height ‘h’. As a result of this

impact the direction of the velocity of the body becomes horizontal. Find the total time the body will take to

reach the ground.

2

(A) ( h + H −h) (B) 2 gh

g

2

(C) ( H −h) (D) none of the above

g

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–4

ITY157_PRACTICE

16. Two particles A and B move with constant velocities v1 and v2 along two mutually perpendicular straight lines

towards the intersection point O. At moment t = 0, the particles were located at distances l1 and l2 from O,

respectively. The shortest distance between A & B is

| l1 v 2 − l 2 v 1 | | l1 v 2 − l 2 v 1 |

(A) (B)

v +v

2

1

2

2 v 12 − v 22

| l1 v 2 + l 2 v 1 | ℓ 1v 2 v 1

(C) (D)

v 12 + v 22 v 12 + v 22

17: A block of mass 10kg is pulled by a force F having magnitude 20N. Find work done by force F if body moves

5mt in right direction. Given that l0 = 1 mt. and x = 25mt initially. F

A

F l0

θ

(C) = F 646 − 401 J (D) = F 696 − 401 J

x

supplying on the particle then find displacement of particle as a function of time.

3/2 3/2

1 3c 1/ 3 5 3c 1/ 3

(A) x = t (B) x = t

3 m 3 m

3/2 3/2

2 3c 1/ 3 10 3c 1/ 3

(C) x = t (D) x = t

3 m 3 m

19. In the system shown, the acceleration of the wedge of mass 5M is (there is no friction

anywhere) M

(A) zero (B) g/2 2M

(C) g/3 (D) g/4 5M

600

20. An inclined plane makes an angle 30° with the horizontal. A groove

cylinder

OA = 5m cut in the plane makes an angle 30° with OX. A short smooth A

cylinder is free to slide down the influence of gravity. The time taken

by the cylinder to reach from A to O is (g = 10 m/s2)

0

30

(A) 4s (B) 2s 300

O X

(C) 2 2s (D) 1s

21. Three rods of the same mass are placed as shown in the figure. What will Y

be the co-ordinate of centre of mass of the system?

(A) (a/2, a/2) (B) (a/√2, a/√2)

(0, a)

(C) (√2a, √2a) (D) (0, √2a)

O X

(a, 0)

massless spring natural length and spring constant k. The m m m

blocks are initially resting on a smooth horizontal floor with the

spring at its natural length as shown in figure. A third identical

block C also of mass m moves on the floor with a speed v

along the line joining A and B collides with A then

(A) the KE of the AB system at maximum compress of the spring is zero.

1 2

(B) the KE of the AB system at maximum compression of the spring is mv & of C is zero

4

(C) The total KE of A+B+C system is (1/4) mv2 at maximum compression

1

(D) (PEspring ) = KE of (A + B) system at maximum compression.

2

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–5

ITY157_PRACTICE

23. The two particles of a system move under the influence of mutual gravitational attraction. Which of the

following statements is correct ?

(a) ∆P1 + ∆P2 = 0 and ∆J1 + ∆J2 ≠ 0 (b) ∆P1 + ∆P2 = 0 and ∆J1 + ∆J2 = 0

(c) ∆P1 + ∆P2 ≠ 0 and ∆J1 + ∆J2 ≠ 0 (d) ∆P1 + ∆P2 ≠ 0 and ∆J1 + ∆J2 = 0

24. A ball moving with a velocity u strikes a wall moving towards the ball with a velocity v as shown in the figure. An

elastic impact occurs. Then work done by wall during collision is........... Consider the mass of the wall to be infinitely.

25. Two blocks A(3kg) and B(6kg) are connected by a spring of stiffness 512 N/m and placed on a smooth horizontal

surface. Initially the spring has its equilibrium length. Velocities 1.8m/s and 2.2 m/s are imparted to A and B in

opposite direction. The maximum extension in the spring will be –

B

A

1.8 m/s K 6 kg 2.2 m/s

3kg

26. A flat car is given an acceleration a0 = 2m/s2 starting from rest. A cable is connected to a crate A of weight 50kg

as shown. Neglect friction between the floor and the car wheels and also the mass of the pulley. Calculate

corresponding tension in the cable if µ = 0.30 between the crate and the floor of the car –

a0

50 kg

27. A body is moving down inclined plane of slope 37º. The coefficient of friction between the body and plane varies

as µ = 0.3 x, where x is distance traveled down the plane. The body will have maximum speed –

3

(sin 37º = and g = 10 m/s2)

5

(A) at x = 1.16 m (B) at x = 2 m (C) at bottom of plane (D) at x = 2.5 m

28. A board is balanced on a rough horizontal semicircular log. Equilibrium is obtained with the help of addition of a

weight to one of the ends of the board when the board makes an angle θ with the horizontal. Coefficient of friction

between the log and the board is –

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–6

ITY157_PRACTICE

29. A stationary body of mass m is slowly lowered onto a massive platform of mass M (M>>m) moving at a speed V0

= 4 m/s as shown in fig. How far will the body slide along the platform ? (µ = 0.2 and g = 10 m/s2)

m

M V0 = 4m/s

(A) 4 m (B) 6 m (C) 12 m (D) 8 m

(A) 10N; 10N; 30 N (B) 10N; 20N; 30N; 40N

(C) 5N; 10N; 20N; 40N (D) none of these

S

SEEC

CTTIIO

ONN –– B

B :: C

CHHE

EMMIIS

STTR

RYY

1. The electronic configuration of the Mn4+ ion is

(a) 3d4 4s0 (b) 3d2 4s1 (c) 3d1 4s2 (d) 3d3 4s0

(a) n (b) l (c) m (d) s

(a) 1, 1, 1, +1/2 (b) 1, 0, 0, +1/2 (c) 1, 0, 0, -1/2 (d) 2, 0, 0, +1/2

(a) 12.3 m (b) 0.123 nm (c) 0.0123 nm (d) 1.23 Å

5. If the wavelength of a photon is 2.2 × 10-11 m and h = 6.6 × 10-34 J s, its momentum is

(a) 3.00 × 10-23 kg m s-1 (b) 3.33 × 1022 kg m s-1

-44 -1

(c) 1.45 × 10 kg m s (d) 6.90 × 1043 kg m s-1

(a) N3- (b) O2- (c) F- (d) Na+

7. Among the following elements, which one has the highest first ionization energy ?

(a) Boron (b) Carbon (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen

(a)Al2O3 (b) P4O10 (c) Sb4O6 (d) (SiO2)x

(a) 6.02 × 1023 (b) 6.02 × 1024 (c) 6.02 × 1022 (d) 6.02 × 1025

(a) MnO4– (b) Cr(CN)63– (c) NiF62– (d) CrO2Cl2

11. A solution contained Na2CO3 and NaHCO3, 25 mL of the solution required 5 mL of N/10 HCl for neutralization

using phenolphthalein as an indicator. Addition of methyl orange required a further 15 mL of the acid for

neutralization. The amount of Na2CO3 present in the solution is

(a) 21.2 g (b) 2.12 g (c) 0.212 g (d) 4.24 g

12. 25 mL of a solution of KMnO4 containing 3.16 g permanganate per litre of the solution oxidizes 20 mL of a

solution of FeSO4. Calculate the weight of the crystalline FeSO4 in 500 mL of the solution

(a) 8.74 g (b) 7.375 g (c) 17.375 g (d) 1.734 g

(a) Angular and non-zero (b) Angular and zero

(c) Linear and non-zero (d) Linear and zero

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–7

ITY157_PRACTICE

(a) sp, sp 3 and sp 2 respectively (b) sp, sp 2 and sp 3 respectively

(c) sp 2 , sp and sp 3 respectively (d) sp 2 , sp 3 and sp respectively

(a) Bonding π-orbital (b) Antibonding π-orbital

(c) 2 p z orbital (d) 2 p x orbital

16. Density of 3M Na2CO3 solution in water is 1.2 g mL–1. The percentage by weight and ppm of Na2CO3 are

respectively -

(A) 26.5 and 2.65 × 105 (B) 2.65 and 2.65 × 104

(C) 265 and 2.65 × 103 (D) 5.23 and 2.65 × 106

17. 100 ml of CH4 and C2H2 were exploded with excess of O2. After explosion and cooling, the mixture was treated

with KOH, where a reduction of 165 ml was observed. Therefore the composition of the mixture is -

(A) CH4 = 35 ml ; C2H2 = 65 ml (B) CH4 = 65 ml ; C2H2 = 35 ml

(C) CH4 = 75 ml ; C2H2 = 25 ml (D) CH4 = 25 ml ; C2H2 = 75 ml

18. The mass of 70% H2SO4 required for neutralisation of 1 mol of NaOH

(A) 49 gm (B) 98 gm (C) 70 gm (D) 34.3 gm

(A) 36 g of water (B) 28 g of CO2 (C) 46 g of CH3OH (D) 58 g of N2O5

(A) These are generally in solid state at room temperature

(B) The force of attraction between ions is non directional

(C) Ionic compounds are soluble in all solvents

(D)They conduct electricity in molten and solution state

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

22. N2 and O2 are converted to monocations N +2 and O +2 respectively, which is wrong statement-

(A) In N +2 , the NN bond weakens (B) In O +2 , the OO bond order increases

(C) In O +2 , the paramagnetism decreases (D) N +2 becomes diamagnetic

23. Which of the following conditions is not correct for resonating structures ?

(A) The contributing structures must have the same number of unpaired electrons

(B) The contributing structures may have different energies

(C) The contributing structures should be so written that unlike charges reside on atoms that are far apart

(D)The positive charge should be present on the electropositive element and the negative charge on the

electronegative element

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–8

ITY157_PRACTICE

24. Among NO3¯ , CO32–, ClO3¯ , SO32– and BO3¯ the non-planar species are -

(A) Bond order is less than O2 and O2+ is paramagnetic

26. The correct order of increasing C–O bond length of CO, CO32–, CO2 is -

(A) CO32– < CO2 < CO (B) CO2 < CO32– < CO

(C) CO < CO32– < CO2 (D) CO < CO2 < CO32–

27. 1.0 mole of an ideal gas undergoes the reversible processes 1 → 2, 2 → 3, 3 → 4 and 4 → 1 as -

3.0 2 3

P atm

1.0 1 4

1.0 2.0

V (litre)

Work done by gas in complete cycle is -

(1 atm-L = 101 J)

(A) 202 J (B)101 J (C) 303 J (D) 404 J

3

28. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas C v.m. = R , initially present in an insulated piston at 500 K is expanded

2

reversibly from 10 L to 80 L, then change in internal energy is-

(A) 4676.6 J (B) – 4676 J (C) 3766 J (D) – 3766 J

29. If S + O2 → SO2,

∆H = – 298.2 kJ mole–1

SO2 + 1/2 O2 → SO3,

∆H = – 98.7kJ mole–1

SO3 + H2O → H2SO4 ,

∆H = – 130.2 kJ mole–1

H2 + 1/2 O2 → H2O,

∆H = – 287.3 kJ mole–1

the enthalpy of formation of H2SO4 at 298 K will be -

(A) – 814.4 kJ mole–1 (B) + 814.4 kJ mole–1 (C) – 650.3 kJ mole–1 (D) – 433.7 kJ mole–1

30. For mono atomic ideal gas. Express molar specific heat in terms of R, given that P/ V at any instant is constant and is

equal to 1

3 5 4

(A) R (B) R (C) R (D) 0

2 2 2

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–9

ITY157_PRACTICE

S

SEEC

CTTIIO

ONN –– C

C :: M

MAATTH

HSS

1. The least value of | a | for which sin θ and cosec θ are the roots of the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 is

(A) 2 (B) 1

(C) 1/2 (D) 0

2. If x2 + 5 = 2x – 4cos(a + bx), where a, b ∈ (0, 5), is satisfied for atleast one real x, then the maximum value of a +

b is equal to

(A) 3π (B) 2π

(C) π (D) none of these

9c

3. If a + b + c > and equation ax2 + 2bx – 5c = 0 has non–real complex roots, then

4

(A) a > 0, c > 0 (B) a > 0, c < 0

(C) a < 0, c < 0 (D) a < 0, c > 0

4. If a, b, c ∈ R, a ≠ 0 and (b – 1)2 < 4ac, then the number of real roots of the system of equation (in three unknowns

x1, x2, x3)

2 2 2

a x1 + bx1 + c = x2, a x 2 + bx2 + c = x3, a x 3 + bx3 + c = x1 is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 3

5. √3 cosec20° - sec20° =

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

5

π

6. The value of ∑ cos (2r − 1) 11 is :

r =1

1 1

(A) (B)

2 3

1 1

(C) (D)

4 6

3π

7. If π < 2θ < , then 2 + 2 + 2 cos 4θ equals to

2

(A) –2cosθ (B) –2sinθ

(C) 2cosθ (D) 2sinθ

8. If sinα, sinβ and cosα are in G.P, then roots of the equation x2 + 2x cot β+ 1 = 0 are always.

(A) equal (B) real

(C) imaginary (D) greater than 1

(A)

n(n + 1)(n + 2 )

(B)

n n2 + 1 ( )

6 6

(C)

(

n n2 − 1 ) (D)

n (n − 1)

6 6

+

10. If a,b,c,d ∈ R and a, b, c d are in H.P., then

(A) a+d>b+c (B) a+b>c+d

(C) a+c>b+d (D) None of these

(A) a positive integer (B) divisible by n

(C) equal to n +1/n (D) never less than n.

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–10

ITY157_PRACTICE

3 5 7

12. The sum of infinitely many terms of the series + 2 + 2 + ....... is:

1 1 +2

2 2

1 + 22 + 3 2

(A) 0 (B) 4

(C) 6 (D) Can't be determined

13. If the algebraic sum of distances of points (2, 1) (3, 2) and (-4, 7) from the line y = mx + c is zero, then this line

will always pass through a fixed point whose coordinate is

(A) (1, 10) (B) (1, 3)

(C) (1, 6) (D) (1/3, 10/3)

14. The equation of the bisector of the acute angle between the lines 2x – y + 4 = 0 and x – 2y = 1

(A) x + y + 5 = 0 (B) x – y + 1 = 0

(C) x – y = 5 (D) x + y + 1 = 0

15. If the line y – 2 = m (x – 1) cuts the circle x2 + y2 = 9 at two real point, then the number of possible values of m is

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) infinite (d) 0

16. Radius of smaller circle that touches the line y = x at (1, 1) and also touches the x–axis is :

(a) 2– 2 (b) 2+ 2

(c) 2 –1 (d) 1+ 2

17. Length of the common chord of circles x2 + y2 –2x –4y +1 =0 and x2 + y2 –4x –2y +1 =0 is

(a) 14 (b) 15

(c) 4 (d) 17

18. The equation of the circle of radius 2 which touches the line x + y = 1 at (2, –1) is

(a) x2 + y2 – 4x +2y+ 3= 0 (b) x2 + y2 + 6x +7= 0

(c) x2 + y2 – 2x +4y+ 3= 0 (d) none of these

19. If a normal chord to the parabola y2 = 4x is drawn at (1, 2), then the chord meets the parabola again at:

(A) (9, 6) (B) (9, –6)

(B) (6, 6) (D) none of these

20. If AFB is a focal chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax and AF = 4, FB = 5, then the latus-rectum of the parabola is

equal to

80 9

(A) (B)

9 80

(C) 9 (D) 80

2 2 2

21. Minimum distance between the curve y = 4x and x + y -12x + 31 = 0 is equal to

(A) 21 (B) 26 − 5

(C) 5 (D) 28 − 5

2

22. If the lines (y – b) = m1 (x + a) and (y – b) = m2 (x + a) are the tangents of y = 4ax, then

(A) m1 + m2 = 0 (B) m1m2 = 1

(C) m1m2 = −1 (D) m1 + m2 = 1

dy

23. x = a(θ – sin θ), y = a(1 – cos θ), then is

dx

θ θ

(A) tan (B) cot

2 2

(C) tan θ (D) cot θ

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ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–11

ITY157_PRACTICE

1/ x

1

24. Solution of 3 x + 2 > is

9

(A) x ∈ (0, ∞) (B) x ∈ (-∞, ∞)

(C) x ∈ (1, ∞) (D) none of these

x +1

25. ∫x 2

+1

dx is

1

(B) tan−1 x + c

2

(C) log ( x 2 + 1) + c (D) none of these

sin( π cos 2 x )

26. lim is equal to

x →0 x2

(A) – π (B) π

π

(C) (D) 1

2

27. If |x – 1| + |x – 2| + |x – 3| ≥ 6 then.

(A) 0 ≤ x ≤ 4 (B) x ≤ – 2 or x ≥ 4 (C) x ≤ 0 or x ≥ 4 (D) None of these

x 2 + 1

28. The solution of the inequation log0.1 log 2 < 0 lies in the interval -

| x − 1 |

(A) (1, ∞) (B) (–∞, 1) (C) [1, ∞) (D) None of these

π π

29. The maximum value of 1 + sin + θ + 2 cos − θ , θ ∈ R, equals

4 4

(A) 3 (B) 5

(C) 4 (D) none of these

30. If 3 a + 4 b + 2 c = 0, then the point of concurrent of the family of lines a x + b y + c = 0 and (1, 2) are

(A) on the same sides of the line 4 x − y + 1 = 0

(B) on the opposite side of the line 4 x − y + 1 = 0

(C) are at equal distances from the origin.

(D) None of these

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455

ITY157_PRACTICE RESHUFFLING TEST - 1(Mains)–12

ITY157_PRACTICE

ANSWERS :

PHYSICS

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. D

8. B 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. C

15. A 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. B 21. ?

22. B 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. D 28. A

29. A 30. B

CHEMISTRY :

1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. D

8. B 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. B

15. B 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. C 21. B

22. D 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B

29. A 30. C

MATHS

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. D

8. B 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. C 13. D 14. B

15. C 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. C

22. C 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A

29. C 30. A

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455

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