Professional Documents
Culture Documents
PART - A (PHYSICS)
1/14
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C)
g
(1) lg sin (2) l cos t
t cv cv
(1) 2l 2 (2)
4l 2
g g
(3) l cos t (4) l sin t
t t c c
(3) 2 2 (4)
2v l 4v 2 l 2
7. A source of sound emits a total power of 10 W in all
direction. The distance from the sound where the 11. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork
sound level is 100 dB is forming standing waves with five antinodes between
(1) 8.92 m (2) 10 m the two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended
from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a
(3) 7 m (4) 5 m
mass M the wire resonates with the same tuning fork
8. A train blowing its whistle moves with constant forming 3 antinodes for the same position of the
velocity u away from the observer on the ground. The bridges. The value of M is
ratio of the actual frequency of the whistle to that
(1) 25 kg (2) 5 kg
measured by the observer is found to be 1.2. If the
train is at rest and the observer moves away from it
⎛ 1 ⎞
at the same velocity, the ratio would be given by (3) 12.5 kg (4) ⎜ ⎟ kg
⎝ 25 ⎠
(1) 0.51 (2) 1.25
12. Given are three sets of values of the spring constant,
(3) 1.52 (4) 2.05
damping constant and mass for the damped
9. The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to oscillator given in the figure. Rank the sets according
that in helium gas at 300 K is to the time required for the mechanical energy to
decrease to one-fourth of its initial value.
2 1
(1) (2)
7 7
Set I 2k0 b0 m0 k
3 3 Set II k0 6b0 4m0
(3) (4) m
5 5
Set III 3k0 3b0 m0
10. An open pipe of sufficient length is dipping in water Damping b
with a speed v vertically. If at any instant l is length
of tube above water then the rate at which
(1) t1 > t2 > t3 (2) t1 t2 t3
fundamental frequency of pipe changes is (speed of
sound in air is c). (3) t1 t2 < t3 (4) t1 > t2 t3
2/14
Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
m1l 22 m2l12 m1l 22 m2l12 17. A string has a mass 10.0 g and a length L = 3 m, Its
(1) 2 (2) 2 two ends are tied to two walls at a distance D = 2 m
(m1l 2 m2l1)g (m1l1 m2l 2 )g
apart. Two blocks of mass m = 2 kg each are
suspended from the string. In what time will a wave
pulse sent from a point A reach point B?
m1l12 m2l 22 m1l12 m2l 22
(3) 2 (4) 2
(m1l 2 m2l1)g (m1l1 m2l 2 )g T1cos
L/4 D = 2 m L/4 T1
3
T1 L/2
B
L/4 = 4 m
14. Assuming that the atoms of a solid of gram atomic A T T2
2 T1cos
weight 24 behave like harmonic oscillators
1 (D – 1 ) = 0.25 m
of frequency 3 × 1015 Hz. Calculate their amplitude M M mg 2 2
of vibration if the energy of a kilomol of the solid is
1.7 × 104 joule. (1) 21.7 ms (2) 32.9 ms
3/14
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C)
20. Two loudspeakers are being compared, and one is 24. Time period of a simple pendulum of length L is T1
perceived to be 32 times louder than the other. What and time period of uniform rod of the same length L
will be the difference in intensity level between the pivoted about one end and oscillating in a vertical
two when measured in decibels?
plane is T2 . Amplitude of oscillations in both the
(1) 100 dB (2) 50 dB cases is small. Then T1/T2 is
(3) 25 dB (4) 15 dB
21. Two listeners are standing at different distance from 4
(1) (2) 1
the bed of a railway line. When a train passes them, 3
each hears how the frequency of the train whistle
change with the change occurring along curve 1 for 3 1
one observer and along curve 2 for the other. Which (3) (4)
2 3
of the two observers is standing closer to the railway
line?
25. A block of mass 0.2 kg, which slides without friction
f on 30° incline, is connected to the top of the incline
1
a massless spring of force constant 80 N/m as
2 shown in figure. The block is pulled slightly from its
t mean position. What is the period of oscillations?
O
(1) Observer 1
(2) Observer 2
M
(3) Both are at same distance
(4) There will not be any Doppler effect 30°
4/14
Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
26. Statement-1 : A pendulum clock cannot be used in (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
an earth satellite. Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
and Statement-1
Statement-2 : The value of acceleration due to (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
gravity in a satellite is zero.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
29. Statement-1 : The phenomenon of interference
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 disobeys conservation of energy.
Statement-2 : The resultant force on the particle is (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
zero at extreme positions. Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Statement-1
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for 30. Statement-1 : Quality of sound produced by an
Statement-1 open organ pipe is better than a closed pipe.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False and
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True Statement-2 : Open organ pipe produces all
28. Statement-1 : Consider motion for a spring mass harmonics but a closed pipe does not.
system under gravity, motion of M is not an S.H.M. (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
unless M is negligibly small. Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
and Statement-1
Statement-2 : For S.H.M., acceleration must be (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
proportional to the displacement and it must be Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
directed towards the mean position. Statement-1
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
5/14
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C)
PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
H H
SECTION - I (i) O3
Straight Objective Type Questions 33. Compound A
(ii) Zn - H2O
(1 mole) O O
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions (1 mole)
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. H CH2 H
C C
+
Cold alkaline KMnO4 O O .
A (1 mole)
OH
Hence (A) is
Conc. H3PO4 OH OH
32.
Major product. COOH Br COOH
(1) (2)
Br Br
(1) (2)
OH
OH Br Br
Br COOH
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
Br
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
35. Which statement among the following reaction is
true? CH2 CH CH2 Cl (i) BH3/THF
38. A – B
AlCl3 (ii) H2O2/OH
Na-Liq. NH3
CH3 C C CH3 A
B in the above reaction is
Anhydrous m-CPBA
B O OH
(1) A is trans alkene and B is cis epoxide
(2) A is cis alkene and B is cis epoxide H H
(3) A is trans alkene and B is trans epoxide (1) (2)
(4) A is cis alkene and B is trans epoxide
H
C C CH3 Cl
H2
36. A. C CH2
Pd-BaSO4
H
Compound A can be (3) (4)
CH2 CH2 CH3
Polymerisation X
(1) 39. CH3 C CH (major)
X may be
H H
C C
(2) CH3
(1) (2)
H CH3
C C
(3) H (3) (4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) All the above compounds will form 40. Which is the correct order for following group as
activator towards electrophilic aromatic chemistry?
37. Which among the following molecule is non-linear
and planar?
NH C CH3 , NH2 ,
(1) HC C C C H
O
(2) CH 3 CH 3
(A) (B) (C)
(3) H 2C C O (1) A < B < C (2) B < A < C
(4) CH CH (3) B > A > C (4) A > B > C
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C)
(3) (4)
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
(3) C C
CH2 CH2 44. Which of the following compound is an anti
CH2 CH2 aromatic?
(4) Both (1) & (2)
42. Most reactive compound towards electrophilic
aromatic substitution is (1) (2)
O CH3 F
COONa
O H O OH Electroysis (i) O3
C C 45. A B.
(ii) Zn - H2O
COONa
(3) (4)
B in the above reaction is
AlCl3
A + COCl2 B
(Excess)
H2O COOH CHO
(3) (4)
B in the above reaction is COOH CHO
8/14
Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
46. Which of the following shows highest acidic (1) CH3 CH C CH2
character?
D CH3
(1) CH 3 C CH (2) CH 3 C C CH 3
(2) CH3 C CH CH2
(3) CH3 CH3 (4) CH2 CH2
47. For the following reactions : D CH3
Br Br I Cl
(3) (4)
OH (1) (2)
50. Consider the following reaction :
Cl Cl
CH3 CH CH CH3 + Br X + HBr
D CH3 (3) (4)
Identify the structure of the major intermediate. I Cl
Space for Rough Work
9/14
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C)
53. One mole of unsaturated hydrocarbon on ozonolysis (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
gives 1 mole each of methanal, ethanal and 2-keto Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
propanal. The structure of the hydrocarbon is Statement-1
(1) (2) (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) (4) (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
54. For electrophilic aromatic substitution. (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1: Benzene does not decolourize
NO2 NHCOCH3
Br2-water.
and
Statement-2 : Benzene is a planar molecule.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
The correct order towards electrophilic aromatic Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
substitution is Statement-1
(1) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) (4) (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)
Statement-1
55. When benzene is treated with conc. HNO3 and conc.
H2SO4 to produce C6H5 NO 2 . Here HNO3 acts as (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(3) Reducing agent (4) Catalyst 58. Statement-1 : Propene reacts with HBr in presence
of (C6H5 — COO)2 to give 1-bromopropane.
SECTION - II and
Assertion – Reason Type Questions
Statement-2 : The reaction occurs through the
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion- formation of carbocation intermediate.
Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct Statement-1
answer. You have to select the correct choice. (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
56. Statement-1 : — CH3 group attached to the benzene Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
directs electrophile to ortho and para position. Statement-1
10/14
Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
59. Statement-1 : Addition of H2O to acetylene occurs 60. Statement-1 : Melting point of neopentane is greater
in presence of dil. H2SO4 and 1% HgSO4 to give than n-pentane but the boiling point of n-pentane is
acetaldehyde. greater than neopentane.
and and
Statement-2 : Here reaction proceeds through Statement-2 : Melting point depends upon packing
carbocation formation. of molecule in the crystal lattice. While boiling point
depends upon strength of intermolecular attraction.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
63. Variance of first n natural number is v1 when 5 is
SECTION - I added to each natural number, the new variance
Straight Objective Type Questions
3v1 v 2
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions become v2, Then the value of is equal to
v1 v 2
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (1) n + 5 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 2n + 5
61. Consider ordered pairs (x, y), x, y N; also sum of x
and y is 20. The probability that xy is less than 50, is 64. If a[–30, –10], then the probability that the graph
of the function y = 16x2 + 8(a + 5)x – 7a – 5 is
5 4 strictly above the x-axis is
(1) (2)
19 19
1 1
3 7 (1) (2)
(3) (4) 2 4
20 20
62. If , , are the angles which a ray makes with the 1 1
(3) (4)
direction of axes. Then the value of 8 16
(sin2 sin2 sin2 )2 2(cos2 cos2 cos2 ) 65. If p and q are two statements then the proposition
cos 2 cos 2 cos 2 3 p ( ∼ p q ) p is equivalent to
is
(1) [ p ( p q )] q (2) ( p q ) p
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) –1 (3) ∼ ( p q ) (4) p ( p q )
11/14
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C)
66. If 'Chandigarh is the capital of Haryana' then
5({ x } 2[ x ] 1) 5
Chandigarh is in India". Contrapositive of this 71. lim is equal to (where [] and
statement is x 0 2[ x ] { x }
(1) If Chandigarh is not in India, then Chandigarh is {} denote greatest integer function and fractional part
not the capital of Haryana of x)
(2) If Chandigarh is in India, then Chandigarh is the 4 5
(1) (2)
capital of Haryana 5 4
(3) If Chandigarh is not the capital of Haryana, then 1
Chandigarh is not in India (3) 4 (4)
4
(4) If Chandigarh is the capital of Haryana, then
2x2
Chandigarh is not in India.
⎛ 3 x 2 1⎞ x 1
67. If a, b R and a 0, then 72. lim ⎜ 2 ⎟ is equal to
x ⎝ 5 x 1⎠
⎛ 2b ⎞
lim (1 2a2 x )tan ⎜ ⎟ is equal to (1) (2) 0
x ⎝ 1 2a2 x ⎠
3 5
(1) 2a (2) 2b
(3) e 5 (4) e 3
(3) a (4) b
log 1/4 x 2
1)3
2 2
3log27 ( x 2x
73. Let f ( x ) and
ax 2 2b 7 4log49 x
x 1
68. Let f ( x ) , if lim f ( x ) 2 and
x2 1 x 0
f ( x ) ax b , then a + b is equal to
lim f ( x ) 2, then f(3) + f(– 3) is equal to (1) 3 (2) 2
x
(3) –2 (4) 0 74. Two numbers are selected from the set {1, 2, 3, 4,
.....18}. The probability that sum of both the numbers
is divisible by 3 is
ln(1 x 2 x 4 )
69. The value of lim is equal to
x 0 (e x 1)x 1 1
(1) (2)
3 2
(1) 0 (2) 1
1 2
1 (3) (4)
(3) 2 (4) 4 3
2 75. The mean of the number x, 5, 8, 10, y is 6 and
34
sin2 x cos2 x dy variance is . Then which of the following is
70. If y then at x is 5
1 cot x 1 tan x dx 4 possible?
(1) –1 (2) 1 (1) x = 3, y = 4 (2) x = 3, y = –4
(3) 0 (4) –2 (3) x = 4, y = 5 (4) x = 4, y = 6
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
76. If f(x) be a twice differentiable function and f(0) = 0,
25 5
f ( x ) 4f (2 x ) f (7 x ) (1) (2)
f (0) 5, then lim is equal to 9 3
x 0 x2
5 2
(1) 17 (2) 24 (3) (4)
9 3
(3) 34 (4) 85
83. A die is loaded in such a way that each odd number
77. If the direction ratios of a line are 1 + , 1 – , 2 and is twice as likely to occur as each even number.
it makes an angle of 60° with the y-axis, then sum
Then P(G), where G is the event that a number
of all possible values of is
greater than 3 occurs on a single roll, is
(1) 4 (2) 0
4 5
(3) 2 5 (4) 2 5 (1) (2)
5 9
78. If the points A(1, 2, 3), B(3, 4, 5) and C(, , 4) are
collinear then + is equal to 2 4
(3) (4)
(1) 2 (2) 3 3 9
(3) 4 (4) 5
a sin( x 1) b cos( x 1) 4
79. Coefficient of variance of two distributions are 4 and 84. If lim 2 , then
x 1 x2 1
5 and their standard deviations are 30 and 40, then
sum of their arithmetic means is a – b is equal to
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C)
86. Statement-1 : If ln(xy) + exy + sin(xy) – 5 = 0, (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
dy y
then . Statement-1
dx x
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
and
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
d dy y 89. Statement-1 : In a group of students mean weight
Statement-2 : ( xy ) 0 ⇒ .
dx dx x of boys is 80 kg and mean weight of girls is 50 kg.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; If the mean weight of all the students together is
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for 60 kg. Then ratio of the number of boys to that of
Statement-1 girl is 1 : 2 .
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; and
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-2 : If mean of the number 27 + x, 31 + x,
Statement-1 89 + x, 107 + x, 156 + x is 82. Then the mean of
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False 130 + x, 126 + x, 68 + x, 50 + x, 1 + x, is 75.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
tan(ln(1 2 x )) 1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
87. Statement-1 : lim .
x 0 ln(1 tan x ) 2 Statement-1
and (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
ln(1 x )
Statement-2 : lim 1. Statement-1
x 0 ln(1 tan x )
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 90. Statement-1 : If P(A) = 0.4, P(B) = 0.5 then
P ( A B )max 1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for and
Statement-1 Statement-2 : P ( A B )max 1 when A and B are
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False exhaustive events.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
88. Statement-1 : The proposition p ( p ∼ q ) is Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
tautology. Statement-1
and (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 : ∼ ( p q ) is equal to p ∼ q . Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (3) 31. (3) 61. (2)
2. (1) 32. (4) 62. (2)
3. (3) 33. (4) 63. (3)
4. (1) 34. (4) 64. (2)
5. (4) 35. (3) 65. (1)
6. (3) 36. (2) 66. (1)
7. (1) 37. (3) 67. (2)
8. (2) 38. (2) 68. (1)
9. (4) 39. (2) 69. (2)
10. (2) 40. (3) 70. (3)
11. (1) 41. (2) 71. (3)
12. (1) 42. (1) 72. (2)
13. (4) 43. (3) 73. (1)
14. (2) 44. (3) 74. (1)
15. (3) 45. (4) 75. (1)
16. (1) 46. (1) 76. (4)
17. (3) 47. (3) 77. (1)
18. (4) 48. (1) 78. (4)
19. (1) 49. (2) 79. (3)
20. (4) 50. (3) 80. (2)
21. (1) 51. (1) 81. (1)
22. (2) 52. (1) 82. (2)
23. (3) 53. (4) 83. (4)
24. (3) 54. (4) 84. (4)
25. (2) 55. (1) 85. (2)
26. (3) 56. (3) 86. (1)
27. (3) 57. (2) 87. (4)
28. (4) 58. (3) 88. (4)
29. (4) 59. (3) 89. (2)
30. (1) 60. (2) 90. (4)
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
PART - A (PHYSICS)
1. Answer (3)
In circular motion, there are to acceleration v/2. v
2fa
tangential and radial. The net acceleration points 10
along the resultant.
103
2. Answer (1) f Hz
2
Since x = A cost
v
1 2 10 2 m
So PE m 2 x 2 f
2
5. Answer (4)
at x = 0, PE = 0 Hence III graph is correct.
Frequency of fundamental mode
1
again PE = m 2 (A cost)2
2 1 T
f
2L m
at t = 0, PE is maximum
1 f1 m2
i.e., PE = m 2 A2 (Hence I graph is correct) 2
2 f2 m1
3. Answer (3)
M1 (2r )2 Lp
l Here m1 4r 2 p
T1 2 L L
g
M2 r 2 (2L )p
when pendulum is moving upward then geff = g + a m2 r 2 p
2L 2L
dv
Here a kt 6. Answer (3)
dt
7. Answer (1)
l 8. Answer (2)
T2 2
geff
VL f
f1
VLVs
T2 g
T1 geff
f (VL Vs )
f2
4. Answer (1) VL
VN MHe rN 4 7 3 3
dy
Particle velocity v VHe MN rHe 28 5 5 5
dt
So, Vmax = 2fa 10. Answer (2)
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
11. Answer (1) 14. Answer (2)
Let L = Length of wire between bridge
1
Energy of each atom = ma 2 2
m = mass unit length 2
5 1
For five antinodes L Energy of a 'kg mole' = N ma 2 2
2 1 2
2L 1
1 (Nm )a 22
5 2
v1 5 T1 1
So, f1 where T1 = M19 Ma22
1 2L m 2
(Where, N = Avogadro number and
Three antinodes on length L, M = atomic wt. in kg)
3
So, L 1
2
2 2 1.7 104 24a 2 2 3 1015
2
2L
2 2 1.7 104
3 a 2 10 15 m
24 4 2 9 1030
2 3 T2 15. Answer (3)
So, f2 where T2 M29
2 2L m0 The volume of dipped portion of the hydrometer is
d 2 m l m2l 2 m
or 2
1 21 g , when is small T 2
dt m1l1 m2l 22 pr 2 g
4m
T
m1l12 m2 l 2 2 pr 2 g
or T 2
(m1l1 m2 l 2 )g T = 2.5 sec
3/10
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
16. Answer (1)
y
Fy T sin T tan T T
Let x1 = a sin t and x2 = a sin(t + ) represent x
a Where T is the tension in the string. Asy = 0 at
the two simple harmonic motions. Here a sin t
2 x = 0 the string has a sinusoidal form
a 5 ⎡ ⎛ x⎞⎤
and a sin(t ) . Hence t or and y A sin ⎢ ⎜ t ⎟ ⎥
2 6 6
⎣ ⎝ v ⎠⎦
7 11
t or 2v 2v v
6 6 Where w , A 2cm
2l 80
Here v1 = a cos t and v2 = a cos(t + ).
⎡ x ⎤
y 2 sin ⎢ t ⎥ cm
Since the velocities are of the same sign, t ⎣ 80 ⎦
6
Hence at x = 0
11
and t are acceptable.
6 y 2 ⎛ x ⎞
cos ⎜ t ⎟
x 80 ⎝ 80 ⎠
11 5 5
Phase difference or 2
6 6 3 3 3 and at x = 0
T1 cos = Mg ...(1) T
Also, Fy max 0.785N
T1 sin = T2 ...(2) 40
From equation (1), 19. Answer (1)
T1 = Mg/cos , substituting it in equal We consider a small mass element dm of the string.
Wave velocity on a string with mass per unit length Similarly, dm performs work on the mass element
to its right, there by transferring energy along the
(10 103 / 3) kg/m, and string.
In S.H.M., Etotal = KEmax
⎡ 5⎤
tension T2 ⎢ 2 10 ⎥ is 1
⎣ 2 ⎦ mv 2 max
2
T2
V 1
m 2 A2
2
L The energy of small element dm which it transfers
t 20 ms
2v across distance dx to neighbouring element is
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
The rate at which energy is transferred along the 2 1
string is dE/df. The power d2
dE 1 dx 2 2 2 d1
P A
dt 2 dt
1 2 2 1
A v
2 Thus, the curve 1 is for the listener nearer to railway
The power transmitted by any mechanical line, For the listener near to moving train component
sinusoidal wave is always proportional to the square of velocity toward listener v2 cos 1 is almost same
of frequency and the square of the amplitude. as the velocity of train and it varies suddenly as
20. Answer (4) approaches T/2. Hence the fequency of the sound
In general for a change from I1 and I2, heard by the listener 1 varies suddenly. For the
observer at a large distance from the railway lines
= 2 – 1
the velocity component varies more gently, dropping
⎡I ⎤ ⎡I ⎤ to zero when the train is closest to the listener,
10log10 ⎢ 2 ⎥ 10log10 ⎢ 1 ⎥ therefore, the time taken for frequency change is
⎢⎣ I0 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ I0 ⎥⎦
greater.
⎡I ⎤ 22. Answer (2)
10log10 ⎢ 2 ⎥ in dB
⎣⎢ I1 ⎦⎥ As sound takes finite time to travel, so the sound
I2 wave received at t = 5 s must be emitted earlier. Let
Here, 32 t be the time at which the source emits a sound
I1
wave which is detected at t = 5 s. Then, the time for
B = 10lg 32 which the sound wavefronts move is t – t. Distance
L2 – L1 = 10 log 32 travelled by the wavefronts is v(t – t). Let the
distance moved by the detector be h, then.
= 10 log 25
= 50 log 2 1 2
h ut gt
= 50 log 2 2
= 15 dB
1 2
21. Answer (1) and H gt h c(t t )
2
When a source moves at an angle to the listener we
take the velocity component of source toward the
listener in the formula for Doppler frequency. or 505 1 gt 2 ⎡ut 1 gt 2 ⎤ c(t t )
2 ⎢ 2 ⎥
⎣ ⎦
f
L 1
fs
C
C v s cos 1 Substituting numerical values, t = 5 s,
f
L 2
f2
C
C v s cos 2
g = 10 ms–2, c = 300 ms–1, we have
1 < 2
c v0
d1 < d2 f f0
c vs
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
Where a
When x ,
vs = gt = (10)(4) = 40 ms–1 2
vo = u – gt = 50 – (10) (5) = 0 Fraction of total energy that is kinetic
1 ⎛ a2 ⎞
300 m 2 ⎜ a2 ⎟
f 1300 1500 Hz 2 ⎝ 4⎠ 3
300 40 =
1 4
23. Answer (3) m 2a3
2
Kinetic energy at a distance Fraction of energy that is potential
1 1 a2
x mv 2 m 2
2 2 4 1
= 1
4
m 2 a 2
1 2
m2 (a 2 x 2 )
2 24. Answer (3)
PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
31. Answer (3) 33. Answer (4)
OH H CH2 H
Alkaline KMNO4
O3 C C
Zn H2O
OH O O
H2O2 OH H CH2 H
+ C C
HCOOH
OH O O
+ CH3 H m - CPBA
CH3 H
C C C C
H CH3 H CH3
O
Trans
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
–
40. Answer (3) –Cl
H –ROH
NH2 strongly activating group
R O
NH C CH3 moderately activating group
49. Answer (2)
O
OH
Br2 / H2O
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 CH CH2
weakly activating group
Br
41. Answer (2) 50. Answer (3)
Reaction takes place by Wurtz reaction. 3° free radical is more stable.
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
:
HO S O H + H O N
Cl O
O Proton
52. Answer (1) Proton acceptor
donor
+ – + – Cl + O
I Cl: + AlCl3 I Cl Al Cl –
H O N
Cl
–H2SO 4 O
+
H2O + NO2
H
+ – Cl 56. Answer (3)
+ I Cl Al Cl I + AlCl–4
57. Answer (2)
Cl
I 58. Answer (3)
+ HCl + AlCl3 59. Answer (3)
60. Answer (2)
PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
50 15 a 2
x 20
x 10
x2 – 20x + 50 > 0 ∫ dx 5 1
p() 15
(x – 10)2 > 50 A = {1, 2, 18, 19} 10
20 4
n (A) = 4 30
∫ dx
4 65. Answer (1)
n(s) = 19 ⇒ P
19
62. Answer (2) p q p q ∼ pq p (∼ p q ) p (∼ p q ) p
T T T T T T
We know, cos2 cos2 cos2 1
F T F F F T
sin2 sin2 sin2 2 T F T T F T
T F F T F T
and cos 2 cos 2 cos 2 1
63. Answer (3) p ( p q ) q = T
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Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017
67. Answer (2)
dy
cos 2 x
2b dx
0 as x
1 2a 2 x
dy
at x is 0
dx 4
⎛ 2b ⎞
tan ⎜ 2 ⎟
lim ⎝ 12a x ⎠ 2b 1 2a 2 x 71. Answer (3)
x 2b 1 2a 2 x
5 ⎡5 x [ x ] 1⎤⎦
1 2a x lim ⎣
2
x 0 x [x]
= 1 × 2b
5 ⎡50 h 1 1⎤⎦
lim ⎣
= 2b
68. Answer (1)
h 0 0 h 1
4
ax 2 2b = 5
lim 2b 2 ⇒ b 1 5
x 0 x2 1
=4
ax 2 2b 72. Answer (2)
and lim a2
x x2 1 1
⎛ ⎞
⎜3 x2 ⎟ 2x
2x 2 2 lim ⎜ ⎟
f (x) 2 x
⎜⎜ 5 1 ⎟⎟ 1 1
x2 1 ⎝ x2 ⎠ x
⎜ ⎟
⎝5⎠
f (3) f ( 3) 4
=0
69. Answer (2)
73. Answer (1)
n(1 x x )
2 4
lim x 4 ( x 2 2 x 1)
x 0 (e x 1)x f (x) x2 x 1
x2 x 1
1 f ( x ) 2 x 1 ax b
lim n(1 x 2 x 4 ) x
2
x 0 a=2b=1
a+b=3
⎛ 1 x 2 x 4 1⎞
= n ⎜ n e ⎟ 74. Answer (1)
⎝ x 0 x2 ⎠
1 4 7 10 13 16
x2 x4 2 5 8 11 14 17
= lim 1
x 0 x2 3 6 9 12 15 18
6 6 6
70. Answer (3)
n(4) C 1 C 1 C 2
sin3 x cos3 x 18
y and n(s ) C 2
sin x cos x
18
P C2
y 1 sin x cos x
6 6 6
1 C 1 C 1 C 2 1
P
y 1 sin2 x 18
3
2 C2
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
75. Answer (1) Now G is the event greater than 3
Numbers are 4, 5, 6
x 5 8 10 y
6⇒ xy 7
5 ⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 2 ⎞ 4
P (G ) 2P (E ) P (O ) 2 ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
Variance = ⎝ 3 ⎠⎝ 3 ⎠ 9
( x 6)2 (5 6)2 (8 6)2 (10 6)2 ( y 6)2 84. Answer (4)
5
f (x)
34 = (x – 6)2 + 1 + 4 + 16 + (y – 6)2 Use definition lim a finite real no.
x a g( x )
⇒ x 2 y 2 25
and if lim g ( x ) 0 ⇒ lim f ( x ) must tends to 0.
x a x a
⇒ x (7 x ) 25
2 2
⇒ a b 4
⇒ x (7 x 12 0
2
85. Answer (2)
By solving a = 2, c = 0, b R ⇒ a c 2
⇒ x 3, 4
86. Answer (1)
76. Answer (4)
⎡ dy ⎤ ⎡ xy 1 ⎤
77. Answer (1) ⎢ x dx y ⎥ ⎢e xy cos xy ⎥ 0
⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦
1 dy I
y 0 and e cos( xy ) 0
xy
cos 60 ⇒ 2 5, 2 5 x
(1 ) (1 ) 2
2 2
dx xy
dy y
78. Answer (4)
dx x
DRs of AB = DRs of AC 2, 3 87. Answer (4)
79. Answer (3) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
88. Answer (4)
C.V. 100 Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
x
89. Answer (2)
80. Answer (2)
Statement 1 :
81. Answer (1)
Let n1 = Number of boys
82. Answer (2) n2 = Number of girls
5 80n1 50n2
By simultaneous solving cos cos cos 60 ⇒ n1 : n2 1: 2
3 n1 n2
83. Answer (4) Statement 2 :
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