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MCAT

Practice Test 8

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Physical Sciences
Time: 70 minutes

Questions: 1-52

Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.

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H
1
Periodic Table of the Elements 2
He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
Fr Ra Ac† Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub Uuq Uuh
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (266) (264) (277) (268) (281) (272) (285) (289) (289)

58
*
Ce
140.1
59
Pr
140.9
60
Nd
144.2
61
Pm

i
(145)

b ut
Sm

e
62

150.4
63
Eu
152.0
64
Gd
157.3
65
Tb
158.9
66
Dy
162.5
67
Ho
164.9
68
Er
167.3
69
Tm
168.9
70
Yb
173.0
71
Lu
175.0

r
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

Th
232.0
Pa
(231)
U
238.0

D is t
Np
(237)
Pu
(244)
Am
(243)
Cm
(247)
Bk
(247)
Cf
(251)
Es
(252)
Fm
(257)
Md
(258)
No
(259)
Lr
(260)

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Passage I
2. Where are nonmetals found in the periodic table?
Chemical bonds are commonly classified as ionic
or covalent. Virtually all compounds that are A) Right side
characterized as ionic are solids at room temperature. B) Left side
Some covalent compounds are solids, but many are
C) Top half
liquids or gases. The vast majority of covalent
compounds are comprised exclusively of nonmetallic D) Bottom half
elements, whereas binary ionic compounds are made
up of a metal and a nonmetal. The aqueous solutions 3. Which of the following pairs of compounds
of ionic compounds conduct electricity, whereas those provides an example of ionic and covalent
of covalent compounds do not. The ionization bonding, respectively?
energies, electron affinities and electronegativities of
bonded atoms provide information about the nature of A) HBr(g) and NaCl(s)
a chemical bond. Table 1 shows the B) NaCl(s) and NaI(s)
electronegativities of certain main-group elements.
C) NaI(s) and NaCl(s)
Table 1 Electronegativities of Selected Elements D) NaCl(s) and HBr(g)

I II III IV V VI VII 4. Which of the following compounds has the most

e
ionic character?

t
Li Be B C N O F

u
1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 A) KBr(s)
Na
0.9
K
Mg
1.2
Ca
Al
1.5
Ga
Si
2.8
Ge
P
2.1
As
S
2.5
Se

is t ri
Cl

b
3.0
Br
B) CsCl(s)
C) NaI(s)

D
0.8 1.0 1.6 1.8 2.0 2.4 2.8 D) RbBr(s)

N
Rb
0.8
Sr
1.0
In
1.7
Sn
1.8
Sb
1.9

ot Te
2.1
I
2.5
5. Which of the following statements is consistent

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with the incorrect conclusion that HCl is an ionic
compound?
1. With respect to bonding and electrical
conductivity, respectively, sulfur hexafluoride, A) It is a gas at room temperature.

SF6(g), would be described as: B) A 1 M solution freezes below 0°C.

A) covalent and a nonconductor.


C) A 1 M solution conducts electricity.

B) ionic and a nonconductor.


D) It is composed of two nonmetals.

C) covalent and a conductor.

D) ionic and a conductor.

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6. According to the passage, the magnitude of B3 at


Passage II the position of a given hydrogen nucleus is
determined by the:
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) provides a
less invasive alternative to X rays as a diagnostic tool. A) chemical environment of the nucleus.

B) mass of the nucleus.

C) radius of the nucleus.

Contrast (differences in brightness between


different locations) in X-ray images, usually a few D) charge of the nucleus.

percent, results from differences in the attenuation


(absorption and scattering) of X rays in tissue. 7. Consider an H nucleus with µ pointing in a
Attenuation coefficients are roughly proportional to direction 180° from a magnetic field. When the
the atomic numbers of elements contained in the nucleus relaxes, which of the following most likely
tissue. To enhance contrasts in images, dyes often will result?
must be injected into the tissue being examined.
A) The magnitude of µ will decrease to zero.
B) The magnitude of the magnetic field will decrease
MRI uses magnetic fields to produce high- to zero.
contrast images of human tissue. Human tissue
C) The nucleus will emit a photon.
contains H atoms; each H atom has a nonzero nuclear

e
magnetic dipole moment, µ. (Note: Atomic nuclei D) The nucleus will absorb a photon.
with a net spin of zero have µ = 0.) In MRI, the
nucleus of a hydrogen atom is affected by 3 magnetic
fields: B1, B2, and B3. B1 and B2 are fields produced

ri b ut 8. X-ray imaging sometimes requires the use of

t
contrast dyes. In MRI, dyes are:

s
by the MRI device that are always perpendicular to

nuclei in the vicinity of the H atom.

ot i
each other; B1 is static and B2 rotates. B3 is the vector
sum of the magnetic fields of electrons and other

D
A) less toxic.
B) not always needed, but sometimes helpful.
C) needed but not always used.

Do N If µ is parallel to B1 when B2 begins rotating, the


H nucleus will precess at an angular frequency ωd
around the direction of B1. (Note: ωd = 4πµB1/h,
where h is Planck’s constant.) If the rotational
D) always used.

9. Human proteins are composed mostly of the


elements C, H, O, N, and S. Without dyes, X-ray
images of tissue containing different proteins do
frequency of B2 equals ωd (a condition called NOT have high contrasts, most likely because:
resonance), the nucleus can become antiparallel to
(make a 180° angle with) B1. In MRI applications, A) dyes do not bind well to proteins.
resonance occurs at radio frequencies. B) protein bonds are broken by the radiation,
resulting in the formation of free radicals.
C) the differences in the atomic numbers of the
If µ is antiparallel to B1, the H nucleus eventually
elements are not large enough.
will relax (become parallel to the field) and emit
energy that is used to produce an image. A hydrogen D) proteins are opaque to X rays.
atom’s chemical environment largely determines the
relaxation time. In human tissue, adjacent locations
with different chemical compositions can produce
images with contrasts of several hundred percent.

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10. For a given magnitude of B1, the nucleus with the 11. To adjust ωd of H nuclei, a diagnostician is most
nonzero precession frequency will be which of likely to vary which of the following?
the following?
A) B1
A) 4 He
2 B) B3
B) 16 O C) h
8
D) µ
C) 19F
9
12. According to the passage, at resonance, B2 rotates
D) 208 Pb an H nucleus through an angle of:
82
A) 45°.
B) 90°.
C) 180°.
D) 270°.

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Passage III 13. The results in Table 1 would most likely NOT be
affected if the students had added excess:
A group of students measured the relative rate of
Reaction 1 under various conditions. A) KI(aq) to Solution A.

2I–(aq) + S2O82–(aq) → I2(aq) + 2SO42–(aq) B) Na2S2O3(aq) to Solution A.


Reaction 1 (slow step) C) (NH4)2S2O8(aq) to Solution B.
The students measured the amount of time that passed D) starch to Solution B.
until a fraction (X moles) of the I–(aq) was converted
into I2(aq) by adding the corresponding amount of 14. In Tube 6, what is the most likely function of
Na2S2O3(aq) to react with the I2(aq), as shown in CuSO4(aq)?
Reaction 2.
A) Reactant
2– – 2–
I2 (aq) + 2S2O3 (aq) → 2I (aq) + S4O6 (aq)
B) Indicator
Reaction 2 (fast step)

C) Inhibitor
They used starch as an indicator to detect the excess
D) Catalyst
I2(aq) that accumulated when the S2O32–(aq) was used
up. The solution turned dark blue when starch and
I2(aq) combined. 15. The solution in Tube 1 turned dark blue more
rapidly than did the solution in Tube 4, because

e
The students prepared two solutions. the:
• Solution A contained KI(aq) and Na2S2O3(aq).
• Solution B contained (NH4)2S2O8(aq) and starch.

ri b ut A) rate of Reaction 2 was slower in Tube 1 than in


Tube 4.
They combined Solutions A and B and measured the
length of time for the combined solution to turn dark
blue. They varied the volumes of Solution A, Solution

D is t B) average kinetic energies of I–(aq) and S2O8–(aq)


were greater in Tube 1 than in Tube 4.
B, and H2O (Tubes 1, 2, and 3) and the temperature

o
(Tubes 4 and 5). The students added 1 drop of 0.1 M

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CuSO4(aq) to Tube 6. The results are summarized in
t C) concentrations of I–(aq) and S2O8–(aq) were
greater in Tube 1 than in Tube 4.
D) concentration of starch was greater in Tube 1 than

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Table 1. in Tube 4.
Table 1 The Effect of Various Conditions on the
Rate of Reaction 1

Volume (mL)
Solution Solution H2O Temperature Time
Tube A B (°C) (sec)
1 20 20 0 22 29
2 20 10 10 22 71
3 10 20 10 22 72
4 20 20 0 12 58
5 20 20 0 32 18
*
6 20 20 0 22 19

* Note: CuSO4 was added to Tube 6.

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16. Which of the following graphs best shows the


number of moles of S4O62–(aq) in Tube 6 as time
passes?
A)

B)

C)

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Passage IV 19. When designing his experiment, Galileo could


have allowed spheres to drop from a height of 10
Aristotle believed that the time it takes for an m rather than using the 10-m inclined plane
object to fall a given distance is inversely described in the passage. The main advantage to
proportional to its weight. According to Aristotle’s using the inclined plane is that on the inclined
theory of natural motion, an object in motion is plane the:
propelled at a constant velocity by the air which is
pushed aside by the object, filling the space behind it. A) final velocity of a sphere is smaller.
When an object is acted upon by a force outside the B) final velocity of a sphere is larger.
object, the object undergoes violent motion, according
C) spheres take longer to reach the bottom.
to Aristotle. Once the outside force abates, he
believed, the object resumes natural motion. D) spheres take less time to reach the bottom.
However, Aristotelian theories do not satisfactorily
explain why an object moving upward through the air 20. Spheres A, B, C, and D have identical radii and
slows, stops, and falls to Earth. masses of 10 g, 40 g, 20 g, and 30 g,
respectively. According to Aristotle’s theory, if
To study free-falling objects, Galileo conducted the spheres are dropped to the ground from the
experiments with spheres on a nearly frictionless same height, which object will have the highest
inclined plane. Starting from rest, a sphere moved terminal velocity?

e
down the plane a distance d in a time t. Galileo found

t
that the ratio of d to t2 was a constant. He also found A) Object A
that the value of the constant increased as the angle of
inclination increased.

s t ri b u B) Object B
C) Object C
17. According to the results of Galileo’s experiments
described in the passage, the ratio of d to t2
attained its maximum value when:

ot D i D) Object D

21. Object A has 2 times the density and ½ the

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A) the inclined plane was horizontal. volume of Object B. According to Aristotle’s

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theory, if A and B are dropped to Earth from the
B) the inclined plane was vertical. same height, which object will reach Earth first?
C) natural motion began. (Note: Ignore the effects of friction.)
D) v iolent motion ceased. A) Object A, because it is denser than object B
B) Object A, because it is heavier than object B
18. As described in the passage, Aristotle’s theories C) Object B, because it is heavier than object A
of motion do NOT deal with which of the
following observations? D) The objects will reach Earth at the same time.
A) An object in a vacuum can move with constant
velocity.
B) An object in free fall can reach a constant
velocity.
C) A mass on a spring undergoes violent motion.
D) A
heavy body falls with a greater velocity than a
light one.

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 24. An astronaut on Earth notes that in her soft drink
passage and are independent of each other. an ice cube floats with 9/10 of its volume
submerged. If she were instead in a lunar module
22. A sparingly soluble metal hydroxide, M(OH)2 parked on the Moon where the gravitation force
has a molar solubility of S mol/L at 25°C. Its Ksp is 1/6 that of Earth, the ice in the same soft drink
value is: would float:
A) S2. A) with more than 9/10 submerged.
B) 2S2. B) with 9/10 submerged.
C) 2S3. C) with 6/10 submerged.
D) 4S3. D) totally submerged.

23. If the quantity of gas remains unchanged while its 25. A glass fiber carries a light digital signal long
temperature increases, the volume of the gas will: distances with a minimum loss of amplitude.
A) always increase, because volume is directly What optical property of glass allows this
phenomenon?
proportional to temperature.
A) Dispersion

e
B) always decrease, because volume is inversely
proportional to temperature.
C) increase if pressure remains constant.

ri b ut B) Refraction
C) Reflection
D) decrease if pressure remains constant.

D is t D) Diffraction

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Passage V 27. Which of the following items of information


would NOT help in predicting the results shown
A large cylindrical concrete tank filled with water in Figure 1?
is used to study the effects of pressure on gases. The
tank is 10 m deep and has an inside diameter of 5 m. A) The number of air molecules inside the balloon
The temperature of the water is kept uniform B) The thermal conductivity of the rubber
throughout the tank by a series of thermostats and
C) The variation with depth in the speed of the
electrical heaters. A drain pipe projecting horizontally
balloon
from the bottom of the tank side has a valve that can
be opened to rapidly empty the tank. The pipe has D) The total mass of the water in the tank
length L and is tapered, with a cross section of 0.2 m2
next to the tank and 0.1 m2 at the other end. Air-filled 28. Which of the following statements best explains
rubber balloons, with small lead weights tied to them the temperature change shown in Figure 1?
by pieces of string, are used in the experiments.
Figure 1 shows the temperature of the air inside a A) The work done on the gas by the water pressure
balloon as a function of its depth when it is cut loose decreases its temperature.
from the bottom of the tank and allowed to rise freely B) The work done by the gas in expanding decreases
to the surface. (Note: The densities of water and lead its internal energy.
are 103 kg/m3 and 1.13 × 104 kg/m3, respectively, and
C) The balloon and water exchange heat, increasing
the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2.)

i b ut e the temperature of the gas.


D) The compression of the gas decreases its

r
temperature.

D is t 29. Air-filled, thin-walled steel spheres were

t
suggested for experiments in the tank instead of

o
rubber balloons. The most likely reason that this

N
idea was rejected is that steel spheres would:

Do
A) not be sufficiently flexible.

B) be too heavy.

C) not be airtight.

D) rust too quickly.

Figure 1 Air temperature inside balloon as a


function of its depth in the tank 30. What vertical forces are acting on a balloon as it
ascends?
26. Each lead weight has a volume of 4 × 10–6 m3. A) Weight only
What buoyancy force does the water exert on a
B) Buoyancy force only
lead weight?
C) Weight and buoyancy force only
A) 4.0 × 10–2 N
D) Water pressure and buoyancy force only
B) 4.5 × 10–2 N
C) 4.1 × 10–1 N
D) 4.5 × 10–1 N

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31. If the valve is opened to drain the tank, where is 32. A balloon is attached to a weight that keeps it
the speed of the flowing water the greatest? from ascending quickly enough for the air in the
balloon to change temperature. When the volume
A) At the top of the tank
of the balloon has doubled, how has the pressure
B) At the bottom of the tank of the air inside changed?
C) At the wide end of the pipe A) It has been reduced to one-quarter the original
D) At the narrow end of the pipe pressure.
B) It has been reduced to one-half the original
pressure.
C) It has remained at the original pressure.
D) It has been increased to twice the original
pressure.

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 34. Which of the following statements best
passage and are independent of each other. characterizes a material that is a good insulator
but a poor conductor?
33. Consider the phase diagram of water below. A) The material contains no electrons.
B) The magnitude of the electric field inside the
material is always equal to zero.
C) The atoms in the material can easily move from
one lattice site to another.
D) Electrons in the material cannot easily move from
one atom to another.

35. At a given temperature, the resistance of a wire to


direct current depends only on the:
A) voltage applied across the wire.
The arrow proceeding from Point A to Point B B) resistivity, length, and cross-sectional area.
represents: C) inductance, length, and cross-sectional area.
A) melting.
B) sublimation.

i b ut e D) resistivity, length, and capacitance.

C) condensation.
D) vaporization.

D is t r 36. Which of the following electron configurations of


nitrogen is the most stable?
A) 1s22s12p4

N ot B) 1s22s22p3
C) 1s12s22p4

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D) 1s22s22p23s1

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39. What is the maximum number of moles of nickel


Passage VI carbonate (NiCO3) that can form during the
precipitation reaction?
A class is given a demonstration of solution
chemistry and solubility equilibria. A) 0.025 mol
B) 0.25 mol
C) 1.00 mol
A 6.57-g sample of NiSO4•6H2O (molar mass
262.84) is dissolved in enough water to make 50.00 D) 2.25 mol
mL of a green solution, and 7.15 g of Na2CO3•10H2O
(molar mass 286.14) is dissolved in enough water to 40. According to the information in the passage, the
make 50.00 mL of a colorless solution. The two gas that evolves is:
solutions are mixed, and a green precipitate forms.
The resulting slurry is divided into two equal A) sulfur dioxide.
portions. To one portion is added an excess of 6 M B) sulfur trioxide.
HCl, which results in the disappearance of the
C) carbon dioxide.
precipitate and a rapid evolution of a gas. To the
second portion is added a few milliliters of 6 M NH3. D) carbon monoxide.
The precipitate dissolves, and a blue solution forms.
41. The ion responsible for the color of the solutions

e
37. How many sodium ions are in the initial 50.00­ is:
mL solution of Na2CO3?
A) 1.50 × 1022

ri b ut A) sulfate, because sulfur has s and p orbitals.


B) nickel(II), because it has a charge of +2.
B) 3.00 × 1022
C) 6.02 × 1023

D is t C) nickel(II), because it has unfilled d orbitals.

D) sulfate, because it is a resonance-stabilized anion.

D) 12.0 × 10

N
23

ot
Do
38. If red litmus paper is dipped into the Na2CO3
solution, it will:
A) remain red, because carbonate is an acidic salt.
B) remain red, because sodium carbonate is neutral.
C) turn blue, because carbonate reacts with water to
produce OH–.
D) t urn blue, because sodium ions form sodium
hydroxide in water.

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Passage VII 42. If Solution A contains Ag+, the anion component


must be:
Table 1 shows the results of mixing aqueous
solutions of the various cations with aqueous A) CrO42–.
solutions of the various anions. The solutions B) Cl–.
containing CrO42– or Fe3+ were yellow before mixing,
and the solution containing Cu2+ was blue before C) F–.
mixing. D) S2–.
Table 1 Results of Mixing Aqueous Solutions of
Cations and Anions 43. When aqueous solutions of the various anions
and cations were mixed, precipitates formed
Ag+ Ca2+ Cu2+ Fe3+ because:

F * white * * A) few aqueous solutions can contain more than one
ppt cation or anion.
Cl– white * * * B) the anions precipitated as solid metals.
ppt
C) the solubilities of cations were decreased by the
CrO42– red * brown brown
other cations.
ppt ppt ppt
S2– black * black brown D) the solubility product of a compound was

e
ppt ppt ppt exceeded.

* = no reaction

ri b ut 44. All of the precipitation reactions in Table 1 can

t
ppt = precipitate be classified as:
Aqueous Solutions A, B, and C each contained a
different ionic compound. The three ionic compounds
were completely soluble in water. The cation in

t D is A) metathesis reactions.
B) decomposition reactions.

N o
Solutions A, B, and C was either Ag+, Ca2+, Cu2+, or
Fe3+. The anion in Solutions A, B, and C was either
C) hydrolysis reactions.
D) oxidation reactions.

Do
F–, Cl–, CrO42–, or S2–. Solution A was colorless,
Solution B was yellow, and Solution C was blue. It
45. In Table 1, which cation allowed for the greatest
was determined that Solution B contained CaCrO4
number of soluble compounds?
and that Solution C contained CuCl2.
A) Ag+
Mixing equal volumes of Solutions A, B, or C
resulted in the formation of precipitates, as shown in B) Ca2+
Table 2. C) Cu2+

Table 2 Results of Mixing Solutions A, B, and C D) Fe3+


Solutions mixed Result
A+B red ppt
A+C white ppt
B+C brown ppt
ppt = precipitate

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46. Ba2+(aq) is an ion that is very toxic to mammals 47. Which one of the following cations or anions
when taken internally. Which of the following would be useful in differentiating between a
compounds, mixed in water, would be the safest solution containing FeCl3 and one containing
if accidentally swallowed? FeF3?
A) BaSO4, Ksp = 1.1 × 10–10 A) CrO42–

B) BaCO3, Ksp = 8.1 × 10–9 B) Ca2+

C) BaSO3, Ksp = 8.0 × 10–7 C) S2–

D) BaF2, Ksp = 1.7 × 10–6 D) Cu2+

i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 50. Sound of a known frequency, wavelength,
passage and are independent of each other. intensity, and speed travels through air and
bounces off an imperfect reflector which is
48. A battery in a circuit has an electromotive force moving toward the source. Which of the
given by and an internal resistance of r. The following properties of the sound remains the
battery provides a current i to the circuit. What is same before and after reflection?
the terminal voltage of the battery? A) Speed
A) B) Intensity
B) – ir C) Frequency
C) + ir
D) Wavelength
D) + i2r
51. In order to determine the relative speed of
49. approach of a sound source by Doppler
measurements, three of the following items of
data are necessary. Which one is NOT required?
A) The speed of sound in the medium

e
B) The frequency of the emitted sound

ri b ut C) The frequency of the observed sound


D) The distance between source and observer

A beam of light shines into a transparent

D is t 52. Which of the following is equal to a change in

t
medium with parallel surfaces. Part of the beam momentum of an object?

N o
is reflected back into the air as diagrammed
above. (The figure is NOT to scale.) The index
A) Force
B) Acceleration

Do
of refraction of the medium is 1.5. Which of the
following is true? C) Velocity
A) θ < θ ′ and θ < α D) Impulse
B) θ = θ ′ and θ > α
C) θ = θ ′ and θ < α
D) θ > θ ′ and θ > α

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Verbal Reasoning
Time: 60 minutes

Questions: 53-92

There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed
by several questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each
question. If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to
be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives. Indicate your
selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.

i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The
AAMC and its Section for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this
Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or reproduction of materials from the
Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are any questions
about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT
Information Line (202-828-0690).

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and when, and in what tone of voice, when serious


Passage I discourse dissolves into giggles? What is the antidote
to a culture’s being drained by laughter?
There are two ways by which the spirit of a
culture may be shriveled. In the first—the . . . What is happening in America is not the
Orwellian—culture becomes a prison. In the design of an articulated ideology. . . . But it is an
second—the Huxleyan—culture becomes a burlesque. ideology nonetheless, for it imposes a way of life, a
No one needs to be reminded that our world [has set of relations among people and ideas, about which
been] marred by many prison cultures whose structure there has been no consensus, no discussion, and no
Orwell described accurately in his parables. If one opposition—only compliance. Public consciousness
were to read both 1984 and Animal Farm . . . one has not yet assimilated the point that technology is
would have a fairly precise blueprint of the machinery ideology. . . .
of thought control as it [recently operated] in scores
of countries and on millions of people. . . . To be unaware that a technology comes equipped
with a program for social change, to maintain that
What Huxley teaches [in his novel Brave New technology is neutral, to make the assumption that
World] is that in the age of advanced technology, technology is always a friend to culture is, at this late
spiritual devastation is more likely to come from an hour, stupidity plain and simple. . . . Introduce the
enemy with a smiling face than from one whose alphabet to a culture and you change its cognitive
countenance exudes suspicion and hate. In the habits, its social relations, its notions of community,

e
Huxleyan prophecy, Big Brother does not watch us, history, and religion. Introduce the printing press with
by his choice. We watch him, by ours. . . . When, in
short, a people become an audience and their public
business a vaudeville act, then a nation finds itself at

ri b ut movable type and you do the same. Introduce speed­


of-light transmission of images and you make a
cultural revolution. Without a vote; without polemics;
risk; culture death is a clear possibility.

D
In [the United States], Orwell’s prophecies are of
is t without guerilla resistance—here is ideology, pure if
not serene. Here is ideology without words, and all
the more powerful for their absence. All that is
small relevance, but Huxley’s are well under way

N ot
toward being realized. For [the U.S.] is engaged in the
world’s most ambitious experiment to accommodate
required to make it stick is a population that devoutly
believes in the inevitability of progress. . . .

Do
itself to the technological distractions made possible [Huxley] believed . . . that we are in a race
by the electric plug. This is an experiment that . . . between education and disaster, and he wrote
[has] reached a perverse maturity in America’s continuously about the necessity of our understanding
consuming love affair with television. . . . By the politics and epistemology of media. For in the
ushering in the Age of Television, America has given end, he was trying to tell us that what afflicted the
the world the clearest available glimpse of the people in Brave New World was not that they were
Huxleyan future. laughing instead of thinking but that they did not
know what they were laughing about and why they
Those who speak about this matter must often had stopped thinking.
raise their voices to a near-hysterical pitch, inviting
the charge that they are everything from wimps to Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
public nuisances to Jeremiahs. But they do so because following source:
N. Postman, Amusing Ourselves to Death: Public Discourse in
what they want others to see appears benign, when it the Age of Show Business. ©1985 by N. Postman.
is not invisible altogether. An Orwellian world is
much easier to recognize, and to oppose, than a
Huxleyan. Everything in our background has prepared
us to know and resist a prison when the gates begin to
close around us. . . . [But] to whom do we complain,

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53. The assertion that the introduction of an alphabet 56. One can justifiably infer from the author’s
changes cognitive habits is: argument that if a presidential election
campaign in the U.S. involved trivial
A) t rue, on the basis of the low literacy rate in the
candidates and discussion, the public would:
U.S.
A) vote for the candidates they found to be most
B) s upported by objective data in the passage.
trivial.
C) p erhaps true but not explicitly supported by
B) vote for the candidates they found to be least
passage information.
trivial.
D) contradicted by the assertion that television
C) denounce the entire campaign.
watching is pervasive in the U.S.
D) not even notice the triviality.
54. Which of the following findings would most
weaken the author’s argument about the extent to 57. The author sees the U.S. “consuming love affair”
which U.S. society has fulfilled the Huxleyan with television as relevant to Huxley’s warning
prophecy? because:
I. television discusses vital matters.
A) A
high percentage of the U.S. adults who watch
II. television is changing people’s way of
television regularly have a good understanding of
thinking.
the politics and validity of the media.
III. technology can cause negative social

e
B) A
high percentage of the U.S. adults who watch changes.
television regularly failed to vote in the last
presidential election.

ri b ut A) I only
B) II only

t
C) M
ore U.S. adults are able to name the judge on
the television show “The People’s Court” than are
able to name the U.S. chief justice.

t D is C) I and II only
D) II and III only

o
D) More U.S. adults have read 1984 than have read

N
Brave New World. 58. A study concluding that political experts consider

Do
the U.S. presidential election a personality
55. The passage suggests that if a news commentator contest rather than a clash of issues would:
presented an editorial agreeing with the A) support the author’s point that public business has
Huxleyan warning, many viewers would: become another aspect of entertainment.
A) take whatever action was necessary to combat the B) support the author’s point that no one is warning
danger. the U.S. public of the Huxleyan nightmare.
B) listen carefully to the commentator and then C) suggest that Orwell was right in saying that Big
explain the ideas to others. Brother is watching people.
C) charge that the commentator was irrational or D) suggest that people believe in the inevitability of
needlessly alarming viewers. progress.
D) be receptive to learning more about the danger.

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Passage II with which it was made originally. . . . There is, no


doubt, a large field in which the methodologies of
We must first make a distinction between science and literary study contact or even overlap.
literature and literary study. The two are distinct Such fundamental methods as induction and
activities: One is creative, an art; the other, if not deduction, analysis, synthesis, and comparison are
precisely a science, is a species of knowledge or of common to all types of systematic knowledge. But
learning. There have been attempts, of course, to patently the other solution commends itself: Literary
obliterate this distinction. For instance, it has been scholarship has its own valid methods, which are not
argued that one cannot understand literature unless always those of the natural sciences but are
one writes it, that one cannot and should not study nevertheless intellectual methods.
Pope without trying one’s own hand at heroic
couplets or an Elizabethan drama without writing a Only a very narrow conception of truth can
drama in blank verse. exclude the achievements of the humanities from the
realm of knowledge. Long before modern scientific
Yet useful as the experience of literary creation is, development, philosophy, history, jurisprudence,
the task of the student is completely distinct. The theology, and even philology had worked out valid
student must translate the experience of literature into methods of knowing. Their achievements may have
intellectual terms, assimilate it to a coherent scheme become obscured by the theoretical and practical
which must be rational if it is to be knowledge. It may triumphs of the modern physical sciences, but they
be true that the subject matter is irrational, or at least are nevertheless real and permanent and can,

e
contains strongly unrational elements; but the student sometimes with some modifications, easily be
of literature will not be therefore in any other position
than the historian of painting or the musicologist or,
for that matter, the sociologist or the anatomist. . . .

ri b ut resuscitated or renovated. It should be simply


recognized that there is this difference between the
methods and aims of the natural sciences and the

The problem is one of how intellectually to deal

D i
with art, and with literary art specifically. Can it be
s t humanities.

t
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the

o
done? And how can it be done? One answer has been: following source:
R. Wellek & A. Warren, Theory of Literature. ©1977 by R.

N
It can be done with the methods developed by the Wellek and A. Warren.
natural sciences, which need only be transferred to the

Do
study of literature. Several kinds of such transfer can
59. What is the main idea of the passage?
be distinguished. One is the attempt to emulate the
general scientific ideals of objectivity, impersonality, A) Those who create literature understand it more
and certainty, an attempt which on the whole supports completely than do those who only study it.
the collecting of neutral facts. Another is the effort to B) The methodologies of science and the study of
imitate the methods of natural science through the literature have many features in common.
study of causal antecedents and origins. . . . Scientific
causality is used to explain literary phenomena by the C) There are valid methods for studying literature
assignment of determining causes to economic, that differ from the methods of science.
social, and political conditions. Again, there is the D) The achievements of the humanistic disciplines
introduction of the quantitative methods appropriately have been obscured by the achievements of the
used in some sciences—i.e., statistics, charts, and physical sciences.
graphs. And finally there is the attempt to use
biological concepts in the tracing of the evolution of
literature.

Today there would be almost general recognition


that this transfer has not fulfilled the expectations

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60. According to the passage, the job of the student 63. The passage suggests that the author believes the
of literature is to: study of literature to be important because it:
I. discover ways to approach literature A) shows that the scientific method can be applied to
intellectually. a wide variety of disciplines.
II. separate the rational from the irrational
elements in literary works. B) helps the student to become more creative.
III. integrate the experience of literature as art C) teaches that the truth can be discovered by
and the analysis of literature as nonscientific means.
knowledge.
D) offers a type of knowledge unavailable from other
A) I only disciplines.
B) II only
C) I II only 64. Assume that contemporary literary studies
involving a systematic analysis of text have
D) I and II only yielded evidence of underlying attitudes that
traditional literary criticism had not detected.
61. Assume that a scholar is planning an extensive How does this assumption relate to assertions
study of the children’s story, Red Riding Hood. made in the passage?
The author of the passage probably would say I. It is consistent with the assertion that the
that the most important task to be performed is: transfer of the methods of the natural

e
sciences to art has not fulfilled

t
A) examining the social context in which the story

u
was written. expectations.

b
II. It constitutes evidence for the assertion
B) c omparing the occurrence of words indicating
various concepts (family relationships, food,
emotional states, etc.).

is t ri that there is a field in which the


methodologies of science and literary
study overlap.

N
the story and its influence on later works.
D) isolating the story elements that explain its
t D
C) tracing prior literary influences on the structure of

o
III. It is inconsistent with the assertion that
philosophy, history, and theology have
worked out valid methods of knowing that

Do
can be modified to apply to the
enduring popularity. humanities.
A) I only
62. How could the author best clarify the statement
that literature is “irrational, or at least contains B) II only
strongly unrational elements”? C) I and III only
A) B
y providing definitions of both irrational and D) II and III only
unrational
B) B
y giving an example of an unrational element in
a specific work of literature
C) B
y discussing the irrationality of the creative
process
D) By adding the explanation, “Human behavior is
irrational; therefore stories depicting the truth of
human behavior are likely to seem unrealistic.”

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65. Elsewhere, the author says that “literature is no


substitute for sociology or politics,” nor is it
“substitute philosophy.” This statement agrees
most closely with the passage assertion that:
A) literary works are sometimes studied in relation to
economic, social, and political conditions.
B) l iterary study has its own unique justifications and
aims.
C) u nlike sociology, politics, or philosophy,
literature is an artistic pursuit.
D) t he methodologies of science and literary study
often overlap.

i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

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Passage III [Whales] would have received continual doses of


toxin as they fed. . . . [During] a dive, the mammalian
Late in 1987 . . . fourteen humpback whales died diving reflex channels blood and oxygen
in Cape Cod Bay . . . during a five-week period. This predominantly to the heart and brain. . . . Each dive
die-off . . . was not a stranding, in which healthy then would expose the most sensitive organs to the
whales beach themselves. Instead the cetaceans died toxin, which would bypass the liver and kidney,
at sea . . . and then washed ashore. Postmortem where it could be metabolized and excreted. . . . The
examinations showed that the whales had been well exact cause will never be known, but the evidence
immediately before their deaths and that many of strongly suggests that these magnificent creatures
them had abundant blubber and fish in their stomachs, died from a natural toxin originating in microscopic
evidence of recent feeding. Alarmed and saddened, algae. . . .
the public and press blamed pollution or a chemical
spill for the mysterious deaths. . . . Problems from harmful red tides have grown
worse over [recent] decades. The causes, however,
We now know that [this event was] caused, either are multiple, and only some relate to pollution or
directly or indirectly, by toxic single-celled algae. . . . other human activities. For example, the global
Certain blooms of algae are termed red tides when the expansion in aquaculture means that more areas are
tiny pigmented plants grow in such abundance that monitored closely, and more fisheries’ products that
they change the color of the seawater to red, brown, can be killed or take up toxins are in the water.
or even green. The name is misleading, however, Likewise, our discovery of toxins in algal species

e
because many toxic events are called red tides even formerly considered nontoxic reflects the maturation
when the waters show no discoloration. Likewise, an
accumulation of nontoxic, harmless algae can change
the color of ocean water. . . .

ri b ut of this field of science, now profiting from more


investigators, better analytical techniques and
chemical instrumentation, and more efficient

Of the thousands of living phytoplankton species


that make up the base of the marine food web, only a

D is t communication among workers.

Long-term studies . . . do show that red tides . . .


few dozen are known to be toxic. . . . A bloom

N
develops when these single-celled algae

ot
photosynthesize and multiply. . . . Barring a shortage
are increasing as coastal pollution worsens. . . . [The]
data demonstrate what should be an obvious
relationship: Coastal waters receiving industrial,

Do
of nutrients or light, or heavy grazing by tiny agricultural, and domestic waste, frequently rich in
zooplankton that consume the algae, the population’s plant nutrients, should experience a general increase
size can increase rapidly. In some cases, a milliliter of in algal growth. . . . [All] phytoplankton species, toxic
seawater can contain tens or hundreds of thousands of and nontoxic, benefit, but we notice the enrichment of
algal cells. Spread over large areas, the phenomenon toxic ones more. Fertilize your lawn, and you get
can be both visually spectacular and catastrophic. . . . more grass—and more dandelions.

Algal toxins . . . cause mortalities as they move Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
through the marine food web. . . . From the human following source:
D. M. Anderson, Red tides. ©1994 by Scientific American.
health standpoint, it is fortunate that herring, cod,
salmon, and other commercial fish are sensitive to
these toxins and, unlike shellfish, die before toxins
reach dangerous levels in their flesh. Some toxin,
however, accumulates in the liver and other organs of
certain fish, and so animals such as other fish, marine
mammals, and birds that consume whole fish . . . are
at risk. . . .

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66. The author implies that the reason red tides are 69. Assume that a worldwide epidemic, especially
difficult to control is that: severe among people in countries with a
seacoast, is traced to poisoning by red-tide
A) p hytoplankton can multiply rapidly, covering
toxins. What is the most reasonable explanation
extensive areas.
of this phenomenon?
B) the presence of toxicity in seawater is likely to
A) Public anxiety in countries bordering oceans has
remain undetected.
increased their demand for medical attention.
C) t he toxins increase to dangerous levels within the
B) Contamination has spread to coastal areas in
bodies of small fish.
which people swim.
D) human pollution of seawater is not adequately
C) Food fish have developed increased resistance to
monitored.
the toxins.

67. Assume that a committee of environmentalists D) Whales and other marine mammals are avoiding
who are aware of the information in the passage the toxic algae.
is appointed to advise Congress on ways to
reduce the problem of red tides. The members 70. Which of the following findings would suggest
would probably recommend that: that the author’s concern about the danger of red
tides is exaggerated?
A) fisheries release their products only in areas that
are free of algae. A) The whales that died in 1987 succumbed to
B) w
hales and other important marine life be driven
away from affected areas.

i b ut e dramatic fluctuations in water temperature.


B) Chemical spills in the vicinity of the dead whales

r
had caused an extreme level of contamination.

t
C) herbicides be used to destroy all toxic species of
algae.
D) p lant nutrients be removed from wastewater

t D is C) Red tides occur rarely, are easily identified, and


grow slowly.

o
before it is released into waterways. D) A readily available substance is an effective
antidote to red-tide poisoning.

Do N
68. If the author’s information is correct, and if the

A) T
trends mentioned continue, which of the
following changes can be expected?
he consumption of fish will become increasingly
dangerous to humans.
B) T
he prevalence of large-scale die-offs of fish will
increase.
C) The relative number of algal species that are
harmless will decrease.
D) T
he number of shellfish in coastal waters will
decrease.

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Passage IV An increasing number of individuals and


communities in the U.S. are shifting to the soft
It is not in the American experience to think about path. . . . A more rapid spread of this approach is
limits on energy. . . . Yet by the late 1960s and early being hindered by government (taxpayer) subsidies of
1970s, limits on the energy base in [the United States] the hard-path approach, outdated building codes that
began to surface. . . . Environmentalism made its discourage energy conservation and sometimes
influence felt in a large number of ways: in such require unnecessary backup [by] conventional heating
legislation as the National Environmental Policy Act, systems, inadequate access to capital for development
the Clean Air Act, the Clean Water Act, and the of solar energy resources, and the false belief that it
Endangered Species Act; in the establishment of will be a long time before solar energy can provide a
environmental impact statements; in the creation of significant fraction of primary energy. In 1984, for
the federal Environmental Protection Agency; and in example, about 18% of all primary energy used in the
the development of the significant new industry of world and 8.5% of that used in the U.S. came from
pollution control. renewable solar energy resources. . . .

As far as energy was concerned, Diversification into solar energy is a primary


environmentalism had its major [effect] on the reason for the dramatic acquisition of copper mines
burning of coal. Concern about air pollution led to by oil companies. Each solar collector for heating and
fuel switching, especially by electric utilities, away cooling systems requires about a pound of copper,
from domestically produced coal to low-sulfur oil, and oil companies now control almost 60% of

e
which had to be imported. Although not particularly domestic copper production in the U.S. . . . Until
noticeable at the time, this change led to a significant
increase in the demand for oil. Between 1968 and
1973, oil consumption by electric utilities more than

ri b ut recently, energy and high technology companies


disparaged solar energy. . . . Worried that every
rooftop could become its own power plant and
tripled. Another limitation on [the U.S.] energy base
was [that the] U.S. was an aging producer. It was
outrunning its geological base. But this highly

D is t sensing that the cry for solar energy was a revolt


against huge companies, utilities, and staggering
electric bills, large corporations spent a share of their
relevant fact was not represented in either the

N o
consumption pattern or in prices. . . . The turning
t
point came in 1970, when U.S. oil production reached
public relations budget playing down the solar
“messiahs.” At the same time, they began buying up
solar technology companies.

Do
its peak and then began to decline. . . .
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
In terms of solving the supply side of the energy following source:
L. G. Brewster, The Public Agenda: Issues in American Politics.
equation, the choices most talked about can be ©1987 by St. Martin’s Press.
classified into two categories: hard versus soft energy
paths. . . . The usual proposed hard-path solution is
71. Which of the following statements is
the rapid expansion of three sectors: coal (mainly
inconsistent with information in the passage?
strip-mined, then made into electricity and synthetic
fluid fuels); oil and gas (increasingly from Arctic and A) Most people believe that the U.S. energy supply
offshore wells); and nuclear fission (eventually in is nearly depleted.
fast-breeder reactors). Soft technologies, on the other B) Environmentalism has caused fundamental
hand, use to the greatest possible extent nondepletable changes in the U.S. energy policy.
resources like sun, wind, and vegetation. They
emphasize diversification and dispersal of energy C) The use of domestic oil has been declining in the
sources so as to avoid in the future the sort of U.S. in recent years.
dependence we now have on fossil fuels. . . . D) Since the 1970s, the U.S. government has
consistently supported the soft-energy approach.

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72. The author of the passage probably most 75. Assume that the soft-energy path is fully
strongly supports: implemented in the U.S. by the year 2025.
Which of the following phenomena will be
A) t he acquisition of solar technology companies by
considered most outdated at that time?
large corporations.
A) Rows of windmills along the seacoasts
B) i ncreased utilization of low-sulfur oil by utility
companies. B) Houses designed and insulated to conserve energy
C) a switch to nuclear reactors as the primary energy C) Automobiles powered by liquid fuel distilled
source. from corn
D) s ubstantial federal subsidies for solar energy D) Antipollution devices on the smokestacks of
research. factories

73. Which of the following forms of legislation 76. Suppose that an inventor has perfected a solar
would an advocate of the soft-energy path battery that would allow U.S. homeowners to
probably support? convert rapidly and inexpensively from
I. Tax credits for corporations that install traditional electricity to solar power. The passage
solar panels in office buildings suggests which of the following scenarios as
II. A mandate to increase the ratio of soft- to most probable?
hard-energy sources by a specified A) Utility companies attempt to purchase the patent

e
amount within ten years

t
on the battery.

u
III. Cash incentives to homeowners who

b
convert their heating systems from oil to B) The government provides business grants to

A) I only
natural gas

is t ri encourage mass production of the battery.


C) Hard-path energy corporations publicly praise the

D
invention.
B) I and II only
C) I and III only

N
D) I I and III only
ot D) The nuclear power industry lobbies for reduced
taxes for customers who do not convert to solar
power.

Do74. Which of the following inferences is justified by

A) T
information in the passage?
he U.S. leads the world in the use of solar
energy.
B) The burning of imported oil pollutes the air less
77. Information in the passage suggests that which
of the following changes would be most likely to
accelerate U.S. progress along the soft-energy
path?
A) The price per barrel of imported oil rises from
than does the burning of coal. $25 to $50 within a few months.

C) Oil companies have a global monopoly on copper B) An improved design for nuclear power plants
production. makes radioactive leakage virtually impossible.

D) T
he consumption of natural gas has declined in C) Coal-burning plants install furnaces that eliminate
the U.S. since the 1970s. the emission of air pollutants.
D) Domestic oil production increases to the point
that the U.S. is no longer dependent on imported
oil.

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participation in the rhythms and tides of nature itself.


Passage V
Sports, in the second place, are organized and
The institutions of the state generate a civil dramatized in a religious way. Not only do the origins
religion; so do the institutions of sport. The ancient of sports, like the origins of drama, lie in religious
Olympic games used to be both festivals in honor of celebrations; not only are the rituals, vestments, and
the gods and festivals in honor of the state—and that tremor of anticipation involved in sports events like
has been the classical position of sports ever since. those of religions—even in our own secular age and
The ceremonies of sports overlap those of the state on for quite sophisticated and agnostic persons, the
one side and those of [religion] on the other. At the rituals of sports really work. They do serve a religious
Super Bowl in 1970, clouds of military jets flew in function: They feed a deep human hunger, place
formation, [U.S.] flags and patriotic bunting flapped humans in touch with certain dimly perceived features
in the wind, ceremonies honored prisoners of war, of human life within this cosmos, and provide an
[clergy] solemnly prayed, thousands sang the national experience of at least a pagan sense of godliness.
anthem. Going to a stadium is half like going to a
political rally, half like going to [a religious Among the godward signs in contemporary life,
gathering]. Even today, the Olympics are constructed sports may be the single most powerful manifestation.
around high ceremonies, rituals, and symbols. The I don’t mean that participation in sports, as athlete or
Olympics are not bare-bones athletic events but fan, makes one a believer in “God,” under whatever
religion and politics as well. concept, image, experience, or drive to which one

e
attaches the name. Rather, sports drive one in some
Most men and women don’t separate the sections
of their mind. They honor their country, go to [a place
of worship], and also enjoy sports. All parts of their

ri b ut dark and generic sense “godward.” In the language of


Paul Tillich, sports are manifestations of concern, of
will and intellect and passion. In fidelity to that
lives meld together. [Nearly] every writer about
sports lapses into watery religious metaphor. So do
writers on politics and sex. Larry Merchant says

D is t concern, one submits oneself to great bodily dangers,


even to the danger of death. Symbolically, too, to lose
is a kind of death.

solemn High Mass.” Words like sacred, devotion,

ot
television treated the Super Bowl “as though it were a

N
faith, ritual, immortality, and love figure often in the
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
following source:

Do
M. Novak, The Joy of Sports. ©1976 by M. Novak.
language of sports. Cries like “You gotta believe!”
and “life or death” and “sacrifice” are frequently
heard. . . . 78. The primary message of the passage is that one
should:
I am arguing a considerably stronger point. I am A) understand the profound importance of sports.
saying that sports flow outward into action from a
B) appreciate the religious history of sports.
deep natural impulse that is radically religious: an
impulse of freedom, respect for ritual limits, a zest for C) recognize the patriotic impulses in sports.
symbolic meaning, and a longing for perfection. The D) distinguish between the ceremony and the
athlete may of course be pagan, but sports are, as it excitement of sports.
were, natural religions. There are many ways to
express this radical impulse: by the asceticism and
dedication of preparation; by a sense of respect for the
mysteries of one’s own body and soul and for powers
not in one’s own control; by a sense of awe for the
place and time of competition; by a sense of fate; by a
felt sense of comradeship and destiny; by a sense of

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79. A probable reason for the use of the word 81. Which of the following findings would most
“godward” is the author’s: weaken the author’s assertions about the value of
sports in the U.S. culture?
A) faith in a divine presence that is apparent in daily
life. A) People would rather attend religious ceremonies
than sporting events.
B) wish to use language that includes all persons,
whatever their views on religion. B) Sports fans fail to recognize the religious impulse
in their enthusiasm.
C) a wareness of the similarity of popular spiritual
movements to conventional religions. C) Only the conventionally religious experience the
spiritual dimension of sports.
D) opinion that attendance at sporting events will
lead to a religious revival. D) Players on a team have stronger feelings about the
sport than do fans of the team.
80. The reference to “the classical position” of sports
suggests that the author: 82. The statement “to lose is a kind of death” is an
example of the author’s emphasis on the:
A) respects the devoutness and patriotism of athletes.
A) extent of the emotional investment in sports.
B) admires the skill of the athletes of ancient Greece.
B) importance of honoring losers as well as winners.
C) understands the historical function of athletics.
C) unacceptability of losing a sporting competition.

e
D) accepts the domination of athletics by religion
and politics.

ri b ut D) consequences of an exaggerated concern with


sports.

D is t
N ot
Do

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of C-fibers in people and a different event in other


Passage VI creatures. Functionalism holds that mental events of a
certain sort are to be identified as those underlying
It is widely believed that mental phenomena are a events, whatever they are, that function in the relevant
special kind of physical phenomena. [Behaviorism] way. . . . According to functionalism, it does not
represents one form this opinion can take, holding matter what mental states and processes are made of,
that mental phenomena are behavioral dispositions or any more than it matters what a carburetor or heart or
tendencies. In this view, a pain in the big toe consists chess king is made of. . . .
of a set of dispositions to favor the big toe in certain
ways, including the disposition to act in ways that An important aspect of functional notions is that
might remove the toe from extremes of temperature they are defined in relation to a whole system of
or pressure and the disposition to complain about the interdependent functions. To understand . . . a
big toe. Similarly, the belief that it is going to rain heart . . . you have to understand its function as a
consists of dispositions to act as if it was going to pump, which requires understanding . . . the function
rain. . . . of the circulation of blood . . . in relation to other
functional processes. . . . Similarly, to understand [the
[The analyses suggested by] behaviorism of this way] beliefs function, you have to understand [the
simple sort . . . do not work. You may have a pain in way] beliefs function in relation to desires, intentions,
your toe without having a disposition to complain or perception, emotion, and inference. . . .
move your toe because you may be a super Spartan

e
who does not want to give any sign of what you are This is one reason [that] crude behaviorism must
feeling. Many critics would object more
controversially that behaviorism takes too external a
view of the mental. According to these critics, mental

ri b ut fail. A particular belief taken by itself cannot be


identified with particular behavioral dispositions
because the relevant behavioral dispositions are
states and processes are not behavioral dispositions;
they are the internal states and processes that are
responsible for relevant behavioral dispositions.

D is t determined by various beliefs taken together plus


various desires and other mental states. Whether you
are disposed to take your umbrella with you depends

N ot
Now it seems clear that states and processes [of]
the brain are responsible for behavioral dispositions.
not just on your belief that it will rain but also your
desire not to get wet, your perception of the umbrella
in the corner, your further belief that umbrellas are

Do
So the only way in which mental states and processes good for keeping rain off, and so on.
can be responsible for behavioral dispositions is for
them to be the very same as the underlying physical Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
states and processes that are responsible for those following source:
G. Harman, Some philosophical issues in cognitive science:
behavioral dispositions. . . . If pain equals what is Qualia, intentionality, and the mind-body problem. ©1989 by
responsible for pain behavior and (to oversimplify MIT.
matters) the firing of C-fibers equals what is
responsible for pain behavior, then pain equals the
firing of C-fibers.

A type-type identity theory holds that every type


of mental [experience], such as pain, is identical to a
corresponding type of physical [event], such as the
firing of C-fibers. It is controversial whether this is an
overly strong thesis because of its implication that the
physical basis for any type of mental [experience]
must be the same in different creatures. A [weak form
of] functionalism allows that pain might be the firing

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83. The passage suggests that behaviorism and type­ 86. Suppose that a mountain climber is offered a
type identity theory share which of the following replacement for the rope by which the climber is
weaknesses? suspended. If the climber accepts the
replacement rope, with which of the following
A) T
hey oversimplify mental states by reducing them
conclusions about this acceptance would the
to physiological states.
author be LEAST apt to agree?
B) T
hey provide no reason for the existence of pain
A) It constitutes evidence of a belief in the weakness
or other mental states.
of the original rope.
C) T
hey ignore the context provided by associated
beliefs and feelings. B) It is one of many possible results of a belief in the
weakness of the original rope.
D) They assume that all mental events are
C) It is probably influenced by beliefs other than a
determined by external physical events.
belief in the weakness of the original rope.

84. In 1979, opioid peptides, which produce pain D) It indicates the operation of brain processes
relief in humans, were found in earthworms. associated with changing ropes while climbing.
According to passage information, someone who
argues on the basis of this evidence that 87. If asked, most adults would affirm that giraffes
earthworms may be capable of feeling pain is do not wear hats in the wild. Such beliefs are
most likely to be a: apparently constructed from relevant general

e
knowledge rather than stored as explicit

t
A) behaviorist.

u
information. Is the conclusion that certain beliefs

b
B) t ype-type identity theorist. are only implicit consistent with functionalism as
C) f unctionalist.
D) nonscientist.

is t ri the author explains it?


A) Yes, because implicit beliefs come into existence

D
when there is a need for them
85. The author apparently believes that “crude

N
behaviorism”:

ot B) Yes, because implicit beliefs are underlying


physical events rather than dispositions to behave

Do
A) does not take internal context sufficiently into C) No, because implicit beliefs are irrelevant to
account. desires, intentions, perceptions, and feelings
B) should be replaced by type-type identity theory. D) No, because implicit beliefs have no function
C) can explain only actions that are predictable.
D) assumes that beliefs and feelings do not exist.

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Krashen claims that the monitor theory also


Passage VII accounts for the tremendous variation in grammatical
accuracy among adults. There are “underusers,” those
Available research in second-language study who rarely use their learned competence or perhaps
strongly supports the hypothesis that the processes those whose learned competence is low.
Krashen and others have called acquisition (the (“Underusers” might still achieve very high levels of
unconscious formulation of grammatical principles) communicative accuracy entirely through
and learning (the conscious cognitive-based study of acquisition.) “Overusers” spend so much time and
grammar) represent two systems for internalizing effort on correctness that it often seriously interferes
knowledge about language. . . . [Activities] promoting with communication. “Optimal users” are those who
acquisition are indispensable for all students. are able to monitor their speech and improve their
Learning activities are more limited in their level of grammatical accuracy, but not to such an
usefulness to beginners. . . . extent that it interferes with smooth communication.
Overwhelming research evidence and informal A fourth category was suggested by Carlos
reports point out that students who wish to Yorio . . . “superusers,” those who are consciously
communicate must acquire this ability in much the able to apply learned rules quickly and efficiently so
same way that speakers, adults or children, acquire it that a listener would not notice the monitoring at all.
in natural situations. Krashen provides strong Many language instructors fall into this category, and
evidence that learned, rather than acquired, rules are although most have acquired the relevant rules
of limited use to the student; for some, they serve as a

e
through subsequent experience and no longer need to

t
monitor—i.e., primarily an “editor” to make minor monitor their speech consciously, they often feel that
changes or corrections in utterances which for the
most part are initiated by acquired knowledge.
Research supports Krashen’s hypothesis that this

s t ri b u this mode of production (supermonitoring) is the most


efficient way to learn another language.
Unfortunately, many, perhaps most, students are not

i
monitor can be activated only under restricted capable of performing with the mental gymnastics of

D
circumstances. The speakers must: (1) know the rule; their supermonitor instructors. . . .
and (3) have time to apply the rule.

N t
(2) be focused on the form of what they are saying;

o Fortunately, a conscious understanding of


grammar rules is not a prerequisite to their

Do
Most speakers meet conditions for monitoring acquisition. Most adults are not very good at learning
regularly and systematically only on cognitive grammar, but they acquire rules readily, although
grammar tests. Most of us are not able to monitor to usually imperfectly, given the chance to interact in
an appreciable degree in normal communicative communicative situations with native speakers of the
situations. Thus, even if rules are learned by students target language.
through explanation, drill, and practice, and even if
they demonstrate that they can produce correct forms Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
and syntax on grammar exams, such (cognitively following source:
based) knowledge is usually not very helpful in T. D. Terell, The Natural Approach to Language Teaching: An
normal communicative situations, particularly in the Update. ©1983 by Newbury House Publishers.
beginning stages. Krashen’s monitor theory thus
explains that oral proficiency in communication is not
necessarily related to the ability to achieve high
scores on standard grammar tests, a fact usually
overlooked by language teachers who claim to have
communicative competence as a goal but continue to
evaluate progress only in the learning of grammar
rules.

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88. According to the author’s description of the 91. The author states that underusers might “achieve
monitor theory, learned rules are most useful very high levels of communicative accuracy
when a student of a second language is: entirely through acquisition.” Which of the
following items of information provided
A) showing the habits of an underuser.

elsewhere in the passage most helps to clarify


B) beginning to study the language.
this statement?
C) taking a grammar test.
A) Children develop their ability to speak in informal
D) attempting to engage in conversation.
situations.
B) Learned rules of grammar have limited usefulness
89. According to the author, Krashen would classify for language students.
people who frequently correct their own C) Some people can apply learned rules so
grammar while speaking as: efficiently that their monitoring is not noticeable.
A) superusers.
D) Modifications of utterances are usually initiated
B) overusers.
by prior knowledge.
C) optimal users.

92. The passage suggests that an effective way for


D) underusers.
second-language learners to improve their
fluency would be to:

e
90. Which of the following findings about the value

t
A) drill themselves repeatedly on everyday

u
of grammar tests would be most troublesome for vocabulary.

b
the monitor theory?
A) T
he scores of beginning language students are
good predictors of their oral proficiency.

is t ri B) use audiotapes to learn grammar while sleeping.


C) use the second language to request information.
B) T

N
he scores of beginning language students are
poor predictors of their oral proficiency.
C) T
he scores of language instructors are good
ot D D) perform mental exercises to increase their
memory.

Do
predictors of their oral proficiency.
D) T
he scores of language instructors are poor
predictors of their oral proficiency.

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Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes

2 Prompts, separately timed:

30 minutes each

This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully
to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your
response to each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly
written as you can make it in the time allotted.

i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The
AAMC and its Section for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice
Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or reproduction of materials from the Practice
Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are any questions about the
use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line (202­
828-0690).

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93. Consider this statement:

In a democracy, the successful politician resembles the ordinary citizen.

Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which the successful politician in a democracy does
not resemble the ordinary citizen. Discuss what you think determines whether or not the successful
politician resembles the ordinary citizen.

i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

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94. Consider this statement:

Advancements in communication technology have reduced the quality of human interaction.

Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which advancements in communication technology
have not reduced the quality of human interaction. Discuss what you think determines whether or not
advancements in communication technology have reduced the quality of human interaction.

i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

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Biological Sciences
Time: 70 minutes

Questions: 95 - 146

Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.

i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC
and its Section for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore,
there can be no sharing or reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form
(electronic, voice, or other means). If there are any questions about the use of the material in the
Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line (202-828-0690).

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H
1
Periodic Table of the Elements 2
He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
Fr Ra Ac† Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub Uuq Uuh
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (266) (264) (277) (268) (281) (272) (285) (289) (289)

58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71

t e
*
Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu

u
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0

b
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

i

Th

r
Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr

t
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)

t D is
N o
Do

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Passage I activity promotes bone mass increase, and lack of


activity causes bone loss.
Bone consists of a hard mineral portion (mostly
calcium), together with an organic, collagen-like
matrix. Bone tissue contains about 99% of the 95. Which of the following conditions could
body’s calcium. Throughout life, bone is produce

continuously resorbed and reformed—a process rickets?

intimately related to the maintenance of an adequate I. Metabolic deficiency of parathyroid


level of calcium in the blood plasma. Some hormone
important agents that affect this process are: II. Impairment of conversion of vitamin D
to its active form
Parathyroid hormone, which acts on bone tissue III. Inability of the active form of vitamin
to encourage the formation and activity of D to act on its target tissue
osteoclasts (which break down bone cells) and to A) I only
impair new bone formation.
B) I and II only
Vitamin D, which in its activated form functions C) I and III only
like a hormone. This nonpolar compound acts on
D) II and III only
the small intestine to stimulate absorption of
calcium and also on bone tissue to enhance the
effect of parathyroid hormone. It can be obtained 96. Why do calcium supplements often include
from the diet or by the action of ultraviolet light
on the skin.

i b ut e vitamin D?
A) Vitamin D is needed to prevent rickets.
Calcitonin, which decreases bone resorption;
however, its effect is small (more like fine-
tuning).

D is t r B) The activated form of vitamin D stimulates the


absorption of calcium into the blood.
C) The activated form of vitamin D enhances the

N ot
Vitamin C, which is required for the synthesis of
bone matrix and is therefore needed for bone
action of calcitonin.
D) The activated form of vitamin D enhances the

Do
formation. uptake of calcium by bone tissue.

97. A low level of calcium in the plasma will


Two common diseases affect bone metabolism: trigger an increase of:
1. Rickets affects children, causing inadequate I. osteoclast activity.
mineralization of new bone matrix. The ratio of II. parathyroid hormone.
mineral to organic matter is lower than normal. III. vitamin C.
This abnormality can result in distortion of the A) I only
bones, especially long bones, leading to bowed
legs. It is caused by insufficient vitamin D B) I and II only
activity. C) I and III only
D) II and III only
2. Osteoporosis usually affects older people, most
often postmenopausal women. There is more
bone resorption than bone formation, resulting in
a reduction of bone mass but a normal ratio of
mineral to organic matter. The causes are not
definitely known, although weight-bearing

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98. Under what condition would the level of 100. What would be the result of complete removal
calcitonin tend to increase? of the parathyroid glands?
A) W
hen there is a dietary deficiency of calcium A) Severe neural and muscular problems due to
deficiency of calcium in the plasma
B) When there is a dietary deficiency of vitamin D
B) An increase in calcitonin production to
C) W
hen the level of calcium in the plasma is high compensate for calcium deficiency in the plasma
D) When the level of parathyroid hormone is too C) A drastic change in the ratio of mineral to matrix
low tissue in bones

99. Which of the following persons would be most D) Calcification of some organs due to
likely to have rickets? accumulation of calcium in the plasma

A) A child with a dietary deficiency in fat-soluble


vitamins living in a tropical climate
B) A child with a dietary deficiency in fat-soluble
vitamins living in a northern climate
C) A child with a dietary deficiency in water-
soluble
vitamins living in a tropical climate
D) A child with a dietary deficiency in water-
soluble

i b ut e
r
vitamins living in a northern climate

D is t
N ot
Do

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Passage II
101. Which of the following rationales explains
Students conducted two experiments to study the
which compound is the product of kinetic
reactivities of cyclohexanone and 2-furaldehyde. The
control?
rates of formation of their semicarbazones from
semicarbazide at three temperatures were studied in A) Its semicarbazone has the lower melting point.
Experiment 1. The stability of the respective B) It forms faster at all temperatures because its rate
semicarbazones was studied in Experiment 2. The of formation is independent of its path.
products of kinetic and thermodynamic control were
determined. C) Its reaction profile has the lower energy of
activation.
Experiment 1
Three flasks containing equimolar amounts of D) Its reaction profile has the higher energy of
cyclohexanone and 2-furaldehyde in aqueous ethanol activation.
were maintained at 0°C, 25°C, and 85°C, and labeled
A, B, and C, respectively. An aqueous, colorless 102. Which semicarbazone is the product of
solution of semicarbazide hydrochloride was thermodynamic control?
prepared. One-third of the semicarbazide was added A) Cyclohexanone’s, because the more stable
to each labeled flask to make Sample 1A at 0°C, product forms faster
Sample 1B at 25°C, and Sample 1C at 85°C. After 20
minutes, the samples were allowed to come to room B) Cyclohexanone’s, because it contains more alkyl

e
temperature. Then, the crystals from each sample substituents to a double bond than does the other
were collected, allowed to dry overnight, and the
melting point of each crystalline product was

ri b ut product
C) 2-Furaldehyde’s, because it is produced under

t
obtained. equilibrium conditions and is more stable than the
Experiment 2
A pure sample of the semicarbazone of

t D is other product
D) 2-Furaldehyde’s, because its potential energy is

o
cyclohexanone was mixed with a pure sample of 2­ higher

N
furaldehyde in one flask labeled 2D, and a pure
sample of the semicarbazone of 2-furaldehyde was

Do
103. Based on its structure (shown below), the
mixed with a pure sample of cyclohexanone in a aldehydic proton in 2-furaldehyde should
second flask labeled 2E. Each flask was warmed and appear in its 1H NMR spectrum as a:
kept at 85°C for 20 minutes. Crystals were collected
from the cooled flasks, dried overnight, and the
melting point of each crystalline product was
obtained. Table 1 shows the recorded melting point
data. A) singlet.
B) doublet.
Table 1 Melting Point Data
C) triplet.
Semicarbazone crystals Melting point (°C) D) quartet.
Cyclohexanone (white) 166 (lit)
2-Furaldehyde (yellow) 202 (lit)
Expt 1A 158–164
Expt 1B 172–180
Expt 1C 197–201
Expt 2D 197–201
Expt 2E 197–202

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104. In each experiment, the crystals are collected 105. What is the hybridization of the carbonyl
on a Hirsch funnel and washed with two carbon in cyclohexanone?
portions of cold water in order to: A) s
A) recrystallize the product. B) sp
B) remove soluble impurities. C) sp2
C) remove insoluble impurities.
D) sp3
D) spread the crystals evenly over the surface of the

funnel.

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106. Assuming Hypothesis B to be correct, which of


Passage III the following endocrine disorders would cause
hypertension that could NOT be rectified by
A person has hypertension (high blood pressure) physiologically normal kidneys?
when his or her systemic arterial pressure exceeds the
upper end of the normal range. Usually, hypertension A) An excess of aldosterone
includes pressures that are greater than 140/90 B) An excess of glucagon
mmHg. A shortened life expectancy is associated
C) A shortage of thyroxine
with hypertension; thus, people with hypertension
should be identified and treated. Unfortunately, most D) A shortage of insulin
cases of hypertension have unknown causes and are
described as essential hypertension. However, several 107. What mechanism probably would be
hypotheses that account for essential causes of responsible for the increased urine output
hypertension have been proposed. Two hypotheses induced by hypertension according to
are given here: Hypothesis B?

Hypothesis A A) Increased blood flow to the bladder


B) Increased renal tubular reabsorption of solutes
An analog of Ohm’s Law applied to the and water
cardiovascular system illustrates the basic relationship
C) Increased collecting duct permeability to water

e
between blood pressure (P), flow rate of blood from
the heart (cardiac output or CO), and vascular
resistance to the flow of blood (VR): P = CO × VR.
Vascular resistance is predominantly a function of

ri b ut D) Increased glomerular filtration rate

t
108. If restriction of blood flow to the kidneys (by

s
blood vessel radius. Therefore, an increase in

i
placing clamps on the renal arteries) resulted in
systemic vascular resistance caused by factors such as an immediate but small increase in blood
vessel disease or enhanced muscle tone in the vessel
walls (vasoconstriction) may be the major cause of

N
systemic hypertension.

ot D pressure, followed by the gradual development


of severe hypertension, which hypothesis
would these results best support?

Do
Hypothesis B A) Hypothesis A, because the clamps increased the
vascular resistance to blood flow
Although increases in resistance to blood flow can B) Hypothesis A, because the clamps caused the
quickly increase blood pressure, increased pressure kidneys to receive less blood
should presently act to initiate an effective corrective
reflex involving the kidneys. The increased pressure C) Hypothesis B, because the kidneys were
should cause the kidneys to increase their output of responding to decreased glomerular blood
fluid, and this should bring the pressure back to pressure
normal despite the persistent elevation in vascular D) Hypothesis B, because the volume of body fluids
resistance. The nervous system is probably not was probably decreasing
involved in this reflex. Failure of this reflex function
may cause systemic hypertension.

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109. If blood pressure doubled and the resistance to 110. According to Hypothesis A, enhanced activity
blood flow increased by 50%, the amount of of which of the following basic muscle types
blood pumped by the heart would have: would be most likely to cause hypertension?
A) increased by 1/3. A) Striated
B) increased by 1/2. B) Smooth
C) decreased by 1/3. C) Cardiac
D) decreased by 1/2. D) Multinucleate

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 113.

passage and are independent of each other.

111. Synthesis of antibody proteins in eukaryotic


cells is associated with what organelle?
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondrion
C) Endoplasmic reticulum Compound 1
D) Golgi apparatus What is the orientation of the tert-butyl and
chloro substituents, respectively, in the
112. The most effective way to remove predominant conformation of Compound 1?
triethylamine during the workup of an organic
A) Axial, axial
reaction would be to extract the reaction
mixture with aqueous: B) Axial, equatorial
A) sodium bicarbonate.
C) Equatorial, axial
B) sodium bisulfite.
D) Equatorial, equatorial
C) sodium sulfate.

D) hydrochloric acid.

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Passage IV 114. Uric acid enters the urine both through filtration
and secretion in the kidney. The process of
In gout, an inflammatory reaction occurs in filtration of uric acid in the kidney takes place
response to the deposition of solid uric acid in joints. in the:
Uric acid crystals form due to increased concentration
of circulating uric acid. Phagocytosis of the uric acid A) glomerulus.

crystals by infiltrating leukocytes leads to B) loop of Henle.

hyperactivation of the inflammatory cells. Joint


C) distal convoluted tubule.

damage occurs from the subsequent release of


inflammatory agents from the leukocytes. Gout can D) proximal convoluted tubule.

be one of the sequelae of starvation, pneumonia, and


leukemia, conditions characterized by increased 115. Colchicine most likely relieves gout symptoms
breakdown of cells. through what mechanism?

Humans excrete small amounts of uric acid in the A) Prevention of uric acid diffusion through cell
urine, but in most other mammals, uric acid is further membranes
oxidized to allantoin before excretion. Uric acid is B) Inhibition of leukocyte phagocytosis of uric acid
formed by the breakdown of purines to xanthine, a crystals
uric acid precursor, and by direct synthesis from 5­
C) Inhibition of uric acid crystal formation

e
phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (5-PRPP) and
glutamine. Allopurinol, an inhibitor of the enzyme
xanthine oxidase, is one drug that is used to treat
gout. Allopurinol’s effectiveness is inversely related

ri b ut D) Maintenance of the pH optimum for PRPP


synthetase

to substrate concentration, but the drug does not


directly alter the xanthine oxidase turnover rate
(maximum possible rate of the reaction when

D is t 116. What nitrogenous base would promote the


formation of uric acid crystals in gout?

N
used to treat gout is olchicines, an inhibitor of
microtubule reorganization.
ot
substrate concentration is not limited). Another drug A) Cytosine
B) Uracil

Do
C) Guanine
In one patient with recurrent gout, excreted uric D) Thymine
acid levels were found to be three times normal
levels. The patient’s red blood cells exhibited 117. In the patient described in the passage, the
markedly increased levels of 5-PRPP. Assays likely genetic basis of the increased levels of
revealed that the patient had normal levels of PRPP uric acid is a mutation:
synthetase, but the enzyme activity was three times
normal levels in cultured cells. The pH optimum and A) affecting an allosteric site of PRPP synthetase.
the enzyme activity of the purified enzyme were B) affecting the active site of PRPP synthetase.
normal. The patient was treated with olchicines,
which alleviated some pain. C) in a promotor gene regulating the rate of
transcription of the PRPP synthetase gene.
D) in a gene coding for a transcription factor for the
PRPP synthetase gene.

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118. Some animals have developed the ability to


excrete nitrogenous waste largely in the form of
uric acid, which is nontoxic and does not
require large amounts of water for its excretion.
Considering its lifestyle, what animal would
excrete nitrogen primarily in the form of uric
acid?
A) Wild pig
B) Flying bird
C) Carnivorous shark
D) Herbivorous bony fish

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121. Which of the following is the most plausible


Passage V explanation for the fact that the saponification
of the triacylglycerol in the passage resulted in
Saponification is a procedure that involves the four different fatty acid salts?
basic hydrolysis of esters. For example, when a
triacylglycerol is saponified with NaOH, the products A) The triacylglycerol molecule consisted of four
are glycerol (1,2,3-trihydroxypropane) and the salts of different fatty acid units.
fatty acids (soaps), as shown in Reaction 1. B) Glycerol was transformed into a fatty acid salt
under the reaction conditions.
C) One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and it
completely isomerized under the reaction
conditions.
D) One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and a
small percentage isomerized under the reaction
Reaction 1 conditions.

Researchers saponified a pure triacylglycerol and


122. How much sodium hydroxide is needed to
discovered that four fatty acid salts were produced
completely saponify a triacylglycerol?
instead of three. In order to identify the four salts, the
researchers converted the salts into a mixture of fatty A) A catalytic amount, because OH– is continuously
acid esters and analyzed the resulting mixture by gas
chromatography.

i b ut e being regenerated during saponification


B) One-third of an equivalent, because each OH– ion

r
reacts to form three fatty acid salts

119. When glycerol reacts with three different fatty


acids, how many stereogenic centers does the

D is t –
C) One equivalent, because each OH ion reacts to
produce one molecule of glycerol

N
A) 0
product triacylglycerol contain?

ot D) Three equivalents, because one OH– ion is


required to saponify each of the three fatty acid
groups

Do
B) 1
C) 2 123. Which of the following statements most
D) 3 accurately describes the solubility properties of
fatty acid salts?
120. Which of the following formulas represents a A) They are soluble in polar media only.
general structure of a fatty acid salt produced in B) They are soluble in nonpolar media only.
Reaction 1? (Note: Rn = R1, R2, or R3.)
C) They can partially dissolve in both polar and
A) Rn—CH2– Na+ nonpolar media.
n—CH2O– Na+
B) R D) They are completely insoluble in both polar and
C) R
n—C(O) Na – + nonpolar media.
D) Rn—CO2– Na+

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 127. From which germ layer(s) do the tissues of the
passage and are independent of each other. heart and blood vessels differentiate?
I. Ectoderm
124. The pancreas produces which of the following II. Mesoderm
substances for the digestive system? III. Endoderm
A) Bile salts A) II only
B) Emulsifier B) III only
C) Gastric juices C) I and II only
D) Proteolytic enzymes D) I and III only

125. Which of the following characteristics clearly 128. The most effective method for producing an
marks fungi as eukaryotes? increase in the total amount of water lost
through the skin during a certain period would
A) They have cell walls.
be:
B) They contain ribosomes.
A) inhibiting kidney function.

C) They contain mitochondria.

B) decreasing salt consumption.

e
D) They exhibit sexual reproduction.

t
C) increasing water consumption.

126. If the ester shown below were hydrolyzed in


acidic H218O, which product would be expected
to contain 18O?

s t ri b u D) raising the environmental temperature.

ot D i
Do N
A) CH3CO2H
B) CH3OH
C)

D)

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Passage VI
129. To determine the significance of UV
During a study on visual communication in five
reflectance by the dewlap, it would be most
species of lizards in the genus Anolis, investigators
useful to compare the behavior of:
discovered ultraviolet (UV) photoreceptors in the
eyes of all five species. Additional studies were done A) sighted and sightless lizards, in response to
to determine what role, if any, the ability to detect UV flashing of the dewlap.
light plays in intraspecific communication. B) lizards responding to flashing of normal dewlaps
The five species are closely related and live in versus treated dewlaps that absorb UV.
Puerto Rico. Three species (A, B, and C) live in open C) the five lizard species, when they are placed
unshaded fields, and the other two species (D and E) together in the same habitat.
live in the understory of a closed canopy forest. Male
lizards have a dewlap, a large fold of skin under the D) the five lizard species under illumination by red
throat that they can fan out like a flag. Flashing the light only.
dewlap plays an important role in lizard
communication such as territorial displays, warning 130. If these lizards use UV light in communication,
signals, and courtship. a mutation that eliminated UV photoreceptors
would probably cause the LEAST disadvantage
The investigators used specially enhanced to:
cameras to measure the degree to which the dewlaps
A) species A.

e
of the five species reflected UV light (defined as
wavelengths around 360 nm). The dewlaps of two
species exhibited high reflectance of UV light; two
others showed low reflectance; and one species was

ri b ut B) species B.
C) species D.
intermediate. The investigators concluded that there
was a relationship between dewlap UV reflectance
and habitat. A summary of the data is shown in Figure

D is t D) species E.

t
131. If Anolis lizards have X-Y chromosomal sex

o
1. determination, the locus of a gene for the UV

N
reflectance pigment:

Do
A) must be on the X chromosome.

B) must be on the Y chromosome.

C) must be on an autosome.

D) could be on a sex chromosome or on an

autosome.

132. Two neighboring lizard populations would be


considered separate species if:
A) one population inhabited the forest and the other
lived in a field.
B) one population had a UV-reflective dewlap and
the other did not.
Figure 1 Reflectance spectra (percent reflectance C) they did not communicate with each other.
compared to that from a magnesium
carbonate white standard) from the D) they did not interbreed and produce fertile
dewlaps of five Anolis species offspring.

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134. Dewlaps that reflect UV light would evolve by


133. Which of the following conclusions about natural selection only if:
dewlap reflectance is supported by information A) individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps produced
in the passage? more offspring than did individuals without them.
A) L
izard habitat is determined by dewlap B) individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps were
reflectance for each species. better able to communicate than individuals
B) High UV dewlap reflectance is most important in without them.
brightly lit habitats. C) individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps were less
C) H
igh dewlap reflectance is most important in subject to predation than individuals without
dimly lit habitats. them.
D) Dewlap reflectance is highest at the blue end of D) individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps mated
the visible spectrum. more frequently than did individuals without
them.

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Passage VII Some natural poisons also affect microfilament


metabolism: the cytochalasins bind to the + end of a
Microfilaments were first identified as the actin­ microfilament and prevent the addition of actin
containing thin filaments of muscle cells. All subunits to that end, and phalloidin blocks subunit
eukaryotic cells are thought to contain loss from either end.
microfilaments. Researchers suspect that
microfilaments can generate force, even in the
absence of myosin, by elongating and pushing against 135. At what concentration of free actin will the +
a structure such as the plasma membrane. end of the microfilament grow faster than the –
end?
A microfilament has two ends, each of which can
either gain or lose actin subunits. During A) Exactly at 1 µM
microfilament growth, the plus (+) end of the B) Only between 1 µM and 4 µM
microfilament grows faster than the minus (–) end. At
C) At any concentration greater than 1 µM
a particular concentration of actin subunits, the rate of
subunit addition (polymerization) is exactly balanced D) At any concentration
by the rate of subunit loss (depolymerization). This
critical concentration is different for the + and – ends 136. Below is a diagram of a muscle sarcomere. Based
of the microfilament (Figure 1). When the rate of on the passage, which statement best explains
subunit addition at the + end equals the rate of subunit why the microfilament lengths do NOT change

e
loss at the – end, the microfilament is undergoing a when the sarcomere shortens in a muscle
process called treadmilling.

ri b ut contraction?

D is t
N ot
DoFigure 1 Changes in the + and – ends of a
A) The – ends of the microfilaments are capped by Z
lines, and the actin subunit concentration is kept
above 1 µM in muscle cells.
microfilament as a function of actin B) The – ends of the microfilaments are capped by Z
concentration lines, and the + ends are capped by another protein.
C) The actin subunit concentration is kept above 4 µM
Figure adapted from Alberts et al., Molecular Biology of the Cell. ©1989
by Garland Publishing Company.
in muscle cells.
D) The – ends polymerize and the + ends
Researchers believe that regulation of depolymerize at the same rate.
microfilament growth helps determine the shape of
cells and the stability of their microfilaments. Within
the cell, the addition or loss of subunits at each end of
a microfilament can be controlled by capping
proteins, which bind selectively to one of the ends.

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137. The theory of force generation proposed in the 140. Which of the following observations supports
passage is best supported by which of the the hypothesis that microfilaments are involved
following observations about Amoeba in the release of viral particles?
locomotion? A) Exocytosis of viral particles from an infected cell
A) A
moeboid movement stops upon exposure to is proportional to the rate of microfilament
cytochalasins. polymerization.
B) A
moeboid movement cannot occur if mitosis is B) Treatment with phalloidin does not prevent the
blocked. exocytosis of virus particles from the infected
cell.
C) Moving Amoeba cells produce more troponin than
do stationary ones. C) No known virus carries genes coding for actin
subunits.
D) The rate of movement is inversely proportional to
the viscosity of the medium in which the Amoeba D) Some viruses have capsules composed of myosin.
moves.
141. Assuming that Amoeba uses microfilament-
138. Based on Figure 1, at what free actin subunit generated forces for locomotion, which of the
concentration (or range of concentrations) will Amoebas pictured below will move from left to
the microfilament treadmill? right?
A) 0.25 µM A)
B) 1 .0 µM
C) 1 .5 µM

i b ut e
D) A
ny concentration between 1.0 µM and 4.0 µM

D is t r
t
139. Based on Figure 1, at what free actin subunit B)

o
concentration (or range of concentrations) will

N
both the + and – ends of the microfilament

Do
experience a net loss of subunits?
A) A
t any concentration below 1 µM
B) Exactly at 1 µM
C)

C) A
t any concentration above 1 µM
D) Only between 1 µM and 4 µM

D)

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 145. In a particular species of plant, tall vine
passage and are independent of each other. depends on a dominant gene (T), and a pink
flower is the result of the heterozygous
142. The discovery that the amount of thymine condition of the genes for red and white flowers
equals that of adenine and the amount of (Rr). What fraction of the offspring from the
guanine equals that of cytosine in a given cell cross of a tall, pink plant (heterozygous for
provides supporting evidence that: height) with a short, pink plant would be
expected to be pink AND tall?
A) the Watson and Crick model of DNA is correct.
A) 3/4
B) DNA is the genetic material.
B) 1/2
C) t he genetic code is universal.
D) t he code for one amino acid must be a triplet of C) 3/8
bases. D) 1/4

143. Consider an organism that has three pairs of 146. During prokaryotic protein synthesis,
chromosomes, AaBbCc, in its diploid cells. translation begins as soon as the newly
How many genotypically different kinds of synthesized mRNA strand begins to extend
haploid cells can it produce? from the DNA strand. This situation differs
from that in eukaryotes, because eukaryotes:
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16

i b ut e A) carry out translation without using ribosomes.


B) transcribe mRNA molecules without using DNA.

D) 32

D is t r C) destroy most mRNA as soon as it is synthesized.


D) localize the processes of transcription and
translation in the nucleus and cytoplasm,

t
144. In mammals, which of the following events

o
occurs during mitosis but does NOT occur respectively.

N
during meiosis I?

Do
A) Synapsis
B) The splitting of centromeres
C) The pairing of homologous chromosomes
D) The breaking down of the nuclear membrane

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Physical Sciences 51 (A) (B) (C) (D) 96 (A) (B) (C) (D)
1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 52 (A) (B) (C) (D) 97 (A) (B) (C) (D)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D) 98 (A) (B) (C) (D)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D) Verbal Reasoning 99 (A) (B) (C) (D)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D) 53 (A) (B) (C) (D) 100 (A) (B) (C) (D)
5 (A) (B) (C) (D) 54 (A) (B) (C) (D) 101 (A) (B) (C) (D)
6 (A) (B) (C) (D) 55 (A) (B) (C) (D) 102 (A) (B) (C) (D)
7 (A) (B) (C) (D) 56 (A) (B) (C) (D) 103 (A) (B) (C) (D)
8 (A) (B) (C) (D) 57 (A) (B) (C) (D) 104 (A) (B) (C) (D)
9 (A) (B) (C) (D) 58 (A) (B) (C) (D) 105 (A) (B) (C) (D)
10 (A) (B) (C) (D) 59 (A) (B) (C) (D) 106 (A) (B) (C) (D)
11 (A) (B) (C) (D) 60 (A) (B) (C) (D) 107 (A) (B) (C) (D)
12 (A) (B) (C) (D) 61 (A) (B) (C) (D) 108 (A) (B) (C) (D)
13 (A) (B) (C) (D) 62 (A) (B) (C) (D) 109 (A) (B) (C) (D)
14 (A) (B) (C) (D) 63 (A) (B) (C) (D) 110 (A) (B) (C) (D)
15 (A) (B) (C) (D) 64 (A) (B) (C) (D) 111 (A) (B) (C) (D)
16 (A) (B) (C) (D) 65 (A) (B) (C) (D) 112 (A) (B) (C) (D)
17 (A) (B) (C) (D) 66 (A) (B) (C) (D) 113 (A) (B) (C) (D)
18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 67 (A) (B) (C) (D) 114 (A) (B) (C) (D)
19 (A) (B) (C) (D) 68 (A) (B) (C) (D) 115 (A) (B) (C) (D)
20 (A) (B) (C) (D) 69 (A) (B) (C) (D) 116 (A) (B) (C) (D)
21 (A) (B) (C) (D) 70 (A) (B) (C) (D) 117 (A) (B) (C) (D)

e
22 (A) (B) (C) (D) 71 (A) (B) (C) (D) 118 (A) (B) (C) (D)
23 (A) (B) (C)

t
(D) 72 (A) (B) (C) (D) 119 (A) (B) (C) (D)
24 (A) (B) (C)
25 (A) (B) (C)
26 (A) (B) (C)
(D)
(D)
(D)

s t ri b u 73 (A) (B) (C) (D)


74 (A) (B) (C) (D)
75 (A) (B) (C) (D)
120
121
122
(A)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(D)

i
27 (A) (B) (C) (D) 76 (A) (B) (C) (D) 123 (A) (B) (C) (D)
28 (A) (B) (C) (D) 77 (A) (B) (C) (D) 124 (A) (B) (C) (D)

N
29 (A) (B) (C)
30 (A) (B) (C)
31 (A) (B) (C)
32 (A) (B) (C)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(D)

ot D 78 (A) (B) (C) (D)


79 (A) (B) (C) (D)
80 (A) (B) (C) (D)
81 (A) (B) (C) (D)
125
126
127
128
(A)
(A)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(D)

Do
33 (A) (B) (C) (D) 82 (A) (B) (C) (D) 129 (A) (B) (C) (D)
34 (A) (B) (C) (D) 83 (A) (B) (C) (D) 130 (A) (B) (C) (D)
35 (A) (B) (C) (D) 84 (A) (B) (C) (D) 131 (A) (B) (C) (D)
36 (A) (B) (C) (D) 85 (A) (B) (C) (D) 132 (A) (B) (C) (D)
37 (A) (B) (C) (D) 86 (A) (B) (C) (D) 133 (A) (B) (C) (D)
38 (A) (B) (C) (D) 87 (A) (B) (C) (D) 134 (A) (B) (C) (D)
39 (A) (B) (C) (D) 88 (A) (B) (C) (D) 135 (A) (B) (C) (D)
40 (A) (B) (C) (D) 89 (A) (B) (C) (D) 136 (A) (B) (C) (D)
41 (A) (B) (C) (D) 90 (A) (B) (C) (D) 137 (A) (B) (C) (D)
42 (A) (B) (C) (D) 91 (A) (B) (C) (D) 138 (A) (B) (C) (D)
43 (A) (B) (C) (D) 92 (A) (B) (C) (D) 139 (A) (B) (C) (D)
44 (A) (B) (C) (D) 140 (A) (B) (C) (D)
45 (A) (B) (C) (D) Writing Sample 141 (A) (B) (C) (D)
46 (A) (B) (C) (D) 93 142 (A) (B) (C) (D)
47 (A) (B) (C) (D) 94 143 (A) (B) (C) (D)
48 (A) (B) (C) (D) 144 (A) (B) (C) (D)
49 (A) (B) (C) (D) Biological Sciences 145 (A) (B) (C) (D)
50 (A) (B) (C) (D) 95 (A) (B) (C) (D) 146 (A) (B) (C) (D)

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Purchased by: Yuri Brito On: 7/18/2012