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The workability of a bituminous mix is dependent on the:

a. Gradation of aggregates

b. Temperature of mix

c. Asphalt content

d. Shape and texture of aggregates

2. The most basic criteria than can be applied for rejection of asphalt mixture delivered to the site is:

a. Asphalt content

b. Grading of Mixture

c. Temperature of Mixture

d. All of the above

3. The following are the measurements (in cm) of the concrete core taken for thickness determination of
Sta 0+100:28.5 28 28.5 28 28.8 29 28.5 29. Actual measurement of the core at the center is
28cm. the designed thickness is 28cm. What is the average thickness of the core?

a. 28.23

b. 28.33

c. 28.38

d. 28.48

4. The upper limit of grain used for determining the Atterberg limits of soils is:

a. No. 10 sieve

b. No. 40 sieve

c. No. 100 sieve

d. No. 200 sieve

5. What test determines the silt clay content of soil?

a. Liquid limit test

b. Plastic limit test

c. Shrinkage limit test

d. Hydrometer

6. What is the function of emulsifiers in liquid asphalt?

a. To increase mixing ability with aggregates

b. To retain water in asphalt for linger periods

c. To prevent asphalt from hardening

d. To enable asphalt and water to mix

7. What test is used to determine the index of retained strength of a bituminous mix?

a. Marshall stability

b. Immersion-compression test

c. Extraction and grading tests

d. Stability test

8. What differentiates the composition of Item 201-Aggregate Base Course form Item 200- Aggregate
subbase Course?

a. Item 201 contains less binder and smaller size of gravel than item 200

b. item 201 contains more binder and bigger size of gravel that item 200

c. item 201 contains sand and gravel only

d. item 201 contains san and fine-grained soils ony

9. It is a single test procedure to determine the suitability of an asphaltic concrete mix.

a. Penetration

b. Extraction

c. Marshall stability

d. Immersion-Compression

10. The California Ration (CBR) value indicates:

a. The relative east at which the subgrade or base materials can be compacted

b. The relative strength of a subgrade soil, subbase, or base course materials

c. All of the above

d. None of the above

11. Which of the following is not a duty of the asphalt plant inspector?

a. Knowing the procedure for property calibrating asphalt meters and aggregate feeders

b. Monitoring plant operations to ensure uniform production of mix meeting specifications

c. Adjusting any plant control, setting any dial, gauges or meters

d. Maintaining complete and accurate formal records

12. The extraction test on asphalt mixes is made to determine:

a. The amount of coarse and fine aggregates in the mix

b. The amount of mineral filler in the mix

c. The amount of asphalt in the mix

d. All of the above

13. If the bulk specific gravity of a bituminous mix is 2.243, and the dry stability is 3,100 lbs. What will
the approximate wet stability if its Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is 82%?

a. 2,542 lbs

b. 3,780 lbs

c. 5,702 lbs

d. 6,953 lbs

14. Cement which has been in storage for so long a period that there is already doubt as to its quality

a. Not be used

b. Be allowed to be used

c. Be retested prior to use

d. Be reprocessed prior to used

15. Specimens for compressive or flexural strength tests shall be removed from the molds at the end of
24 hours and stored in a moist condition at a temperature range of ______ until the time of test.

a. 22° C to 28° C
b. 22° C to 26° C

c. 18° C to 26° C

d. 18° C to 48° C

16. The test that determine the purity of asphalt cement is called:

a. Ductility

b. Specific gravity

c. Viscosity

d. Solubility

17. What is the best temperature to begin rolling (compaction) of the bituminous mix?

a. Maximum temperature at which the mix will support the roller without moving horizontally

b. Maximum temperature at which the mix can be compacted without watering the roller

c. The minimum temperature at which densification can take place

d. The minimum temperature at which the mix can be compacted without cracking

18. What is used to measure pavement deflection?

a. Falling weight deflectometer equipment

b. Profile deflectometer

c. Dynamic cone penetrometer apparatus

d. 3-meter straight edge

19. What is the significance of the loss on ignition of cement?

a. It is a measure of the heat generated when cement is mixed with water

b. It signifies pre-hydration of moisture uptake of cement while it is shelved

c. It is a measure of the resistance of cement when exposed to fire

d. None of the above

20. Accurate sampling of aggregates in pits or quarry and stockpiles require skill and judgement. The sample/s to be
of any value must therefore be:

a. Of no considerable variation in the size of grain

b. Consisting of loosely arrange bundles of particles

c. Free from other impurities

21. A concrete core sample having a maximum height of less than ______ of its diameter before capping or a height
less that its diameter after capping shall not be tested.

a. 93%

b. 94%

c. 95%

d. 96%

22. Which of the following are the qualitative requirements for reflective thermoplastic stripping materials (solid form)
intended for pavement markings under the DPWH Standard Specifications?

a. Specific gravity and drying time

b. Bond strength to Portland Cement Concrete after heating

c. Cracking resistance at low temperature after heating

d. All of the above

23. In the field density test, the volume of the hole is equal to:

a. The dry unit weight divided by the maximum dry density

b. The wet unit weight divided by the moisture content

c. The total materials taken from the hole divided by the wet unit weight

d. The weight of sand to fill the hole divided by the unit weight of the dry sand

24. A subgrade with a CBR value of 2 or less considered as:

a. Weak

b. Normal

c. Stable

d. Very Stable

25. From the materials point of view, subgrade construction consists mainly of:

a. Identification and treatment on unsuitable material

b. Compaction of the top layer is cuts

c. Compaction of the whole depth of material in embankments

d. All of the above

26. Before an asphalt pavement or asphalt surface treatment is placed on a newly prepared granular base. What is

a. Seal Coat

b. Tack Coat

c. Prime Coat

d. Bituminous surface treatment

27. The frequency of sampling and testing for compacting subbase material is:

a. 1 per 300 cubic meter

b. 1 per 500 cubic meter

c. 1 per 1,500 cubic meter

d. 1 per 2,500 cubic meter

28. In which DPWH Item is emulsified asphalt not suitable?

a. Item 301, Bituminous Prime Coat

b. Item 302, Bituminous Tack Coat

c. Item 304, Bituminous Surface Treatment

d. Item 308, Bituminous Plant-Mix Course, Cold Laid

29. The aggregate component contributes internal friction to shear strength and stability of the bituminous mixture
The desirable shape and surface texture of aggregates particles are:

a. Round and smooth aggregate particles

b. Angular and smooth aggregate particles

c. Round and rough-textured particles

d. Angular and rough-texture particles

30. In in-situ soil CBR strength determination, DCP means:

a. Dynamic Cone Profiler

b. Dynamic Compressive Performance

c. Dynamic Cone Penetrometer

d. Dynamic Compressive Penetrometer

31. ASTM C-150 requires that the 28-day strength of mortar made from Type I Portland Cements be at least 27.6
MPa. Three specimens were tested: Two passed but one failed by more than 20%. As Materials Engineer, what will
be your conclusion?

a. Discard the failed result and conclude that the particular cement passed the specification

b. Perform a re-test since the data is inclusive

c. Get the average of the three and if the average is more than 27,6 MPa, conclude that the particular cement passed
the specification

d. Conclude that the cement did not pass the specification since it failed to give consistent result

32. A transit mixer for road construction was found to have a 6-inches slump of fresh concrete instead of the required
3-inches slump. What will you recommend if you are assigned as Materials Engineer?

a. Add Portland cement to attain the required 3-inches slump

b. Add Portland cement and fine aggregate to attain the required 3-inches slump

c. Reject the cement mixture

d. Let the concrete mix diverted for pouring on a prepared column for retaining wall of the same project

33. A concrete core specimen for the thickness determination shall have a diameter of at least:

a. 75mm

b. 100mm

c. 125mm

d, 150mm

34. If two concrete cylinders A and B are tested in uniaxial compression, and if cylinder A is completely saturated
while cylinder B. is dry, which of the following is true?

a. Both cylinders will yield the same compressive strength provided that all other factors are the same

b. Whether cylinder A will yield a higher compressive strength over cylinder B (or Cylinder B over Cylinder A) is

c. Cylinder A will yield a higher compressive strength

d. Cylinder B will yield a higher compressive strength

35. How many pipes should be tested for strength, absorption and dimension on 300 pieces of reinforced concrete
culvert pipe?

a. one

b. two

c. four

d. six
36. In testing bituminous mix sample for Immersion-compression Stability the specimen for wet stability is soaked in a
water bath for ______ hours prior to testing.

a. 24

b. 48

c. 72

d. 96

37. The moisture-density curve is different for each soil. Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. Granular, well-grade soils generally have fairly high maximum densities at low optimum moisture content (OMC)

b. Clay soils have lower densities at OMC than granular, well-graded soils

c. Granular, well-graded soils have higher densities than uniform soils at OMC

d. All of the above

38. What apparatus measures the specific gravity of hydraulic Portland cement?

a. Blaine-aire Permeability apparatus

b. La Chatelier flask apparatus

c. Autoclave expansion apparatus

d. Vicat apparatus

39. As material engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing of aggregate base course material?

a. Once the materials is delivered and stockpiled

b. As construction work progresses

c. Once the source is identified

d. After the material was incorporated in the work

49. Why are undisturbed samples used primarily for determining the properties of foundation materials?


b. Because it is easier to obtain undisturbed sample than disturbed sample

c. Because it is easier to test undisturbed samples that disturbed sample

d. Because it represents the relative of the soil strata when subjected to compression test

50. Test reports on thirteen (13) concrete beam samples indicate that loading was stopped after reaching the
required flexural strength of 550 psi. This practice is:

a. Improper because test procedure provides that the test should be carried out to failure

b. Improper because test procedure was stopped without basis

c. Proper because the strength specification for concrete pavement is 550 psi

d. Proper because the test should not be carried out to failure since the machine maybe damaged

51. Which of the following test determine the optimum moisture content of soil?

a. Tri-axial test

b. Proctor tests

c. Sand-cone test

d. Field Density Test

52. As percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability test, the air voids:

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Remains constant

d. Either a or b

53. When the strength test results of concrete beam samples are not acceptable, how many representative core/s
shall be taken from each member or area of concrete in-place considered deficient in the newly completed concrete

a. At least 4 cores

b. At least 3 cores

c. At least 2 cores

d. Only 1 core

54. Soil classification is determine by __________________.

a. Atterberg limit test

b. Sieve analysis test

c. Hydrometer test

d. a and b

55. Penetration test for asphalt, cement is a measure of:

a. Consistency

b. Solubility

c. Ductility

d. Fluidity
56. Newly fabricated bridging materials/ panels (UK, Austria, Spain) were delivered to DPWH depot. Aside from the
Mill Certificate, what sample should be taken to check the integrity of bridge panels?

a. Whole panel assembly

b. Reduced section of base metal used in the fabrication

c. Any bracing frame from the panel assembly

d. Any transom from the panel assembly

57. The test which combines a load-deformation test performed in the laboratory with an empirical design char to
determine the thickness of pavement base and other layers is known as:

a. Plate Bearing Test

b. Moisture-Density Determination

c. California Bearing Ratio

d. Standard Penetration Test

58. Suppose you have a sack of aggregate sample weighing 20kg. But you only need 5kg for certain test. In the
absence of sample splitter, what will be the best way to get a 5 kg sample?

a. Get a 5kg sample from the middle of the sack

b. Remove the aggregate from the sack and lay it a pile on a clean floor then get the 5kg

c. Perform the quartering procedure

d. Get a 5kg sample direct from the sack

59. In compacted asphalt pavement, the small air spaces between coated aggregates are:

a. Mineral Fillers

b. Mineral spacers

c. Voids

d. Porosity

60. A one-lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 meters and shoulder width of 0.5 meter on each side of the
pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined thick of 300mm. If the thickness of the
subbase is 125mm, the spreading and compaction of the subbase and base courses shall be carried out in:

a. 3 layers over the full width of 4,5m

b. 2 layers over the full width of 4.5m

c. 3 layers over the full width of 3.5m

d. 2 layers over the full width of 3.5m

61. When the top surface of a concrete specimen is rough and not truly plane, stress concentrations are introduced
and the strength of the concrete is reduced by about:

a. ½

b. 1/3

c. ¼

d. 1/5

62. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 6,200 cu.m. How many compaction test are
required based on the DPWH minimum testing requirement?

a. 4

b. 5

c. 20

d. 21

63. Cutback asphalt or emulsified asphalt is usually used for:

a. Prime Coating

b. Tack Coating

c. Seal Coating

d. Either a or b

64. Under what climatic condition(s) do we use the higher penetration grade or soft asphalts?

a. Cold Climate

b. Hot climate

c. Both cold and hot climate

d. Rainy Weather

65. What will possibly be the result of using different brands of cement in concrete paving?

a. Different strength

b. Different texture

c. Different color after it has hardened

d. No effect

66. What is the basis for acceptance or rejection of any construction materials?

a. Minimum Testing Requirement

b. Certification of Materials Availability

c. Certificate of Acceptance

d. Materials Reports

67. The index of the retained strength of the compacted bituminous mixtures is the ration of the compressive strength
of immersed and dry bituminous mixtures. What is the minimum index of the retained strength required for bituminous

a. 40%

b. 50%

c. 60%

d. 70%

68. What is the specification range for asphalt content in a bituminous concrete mix for surface course paving?

a. 4 to 10percent of the total dry aggregates mass weight

b. 5 to 8 percent of the total dry aggregates mass weight

c. 3.5 to 7.5 percent of the total dry aggregates mass weight

d. 4 to 8 percent of the total dry aggregates mass weight

69. Undersized reinforcing steel bars that satisfy the tensile and elongation requirements may be accepted provided
that its underweight does not exceed:

a. 3%

b. 5%

c. 6%

d. 10%

70. Which of the following is not a purpose of the trail sections for subbase construction?

a. To check the suitability of the materials

b. To check the efficiency of the equipment to be used

c. To check the effectiveness of the proposed construction method

d. To check the quantity of the subbase materials

71. Universal Testing Machines should be calibrated at least:

a. Every three months

b. Every six Months

c. Every year

d. Every two years

72. Three cores taken from a pavement section poured on a single day were tested to have strengths as follows:

Core – Strength(psi) 1 – 3650 2-300(86% of 3500psi) 3-2450(70% of 3500psi) Average-3033(87% of 3500psi).

If the required strength is 3500 psi, concrete in the area represented by these cores:

a. May be accepted, subject to price adjustment

b. Is considered adequate

c. Is considered inadequate

d. May be record at the initiative of the DPWH

73. The selection by a standard method of a representative portion of a material for the purpose of ascertaining its
characteristics is called:

a. Batching

b. Sampling

c. Quarrying

d. Quartering

74. Which of the following does not fall under the primary responsibility of the materials engineer?

a. Sampling

b. Testing

c. Inspection

d. Lineal measurements

75. What other type of cement is allowed to be used from Item 311 and 405 in the absence of Portland cement?

a. Portland Cement Type 1

b, Pozzolan Cement

c. Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P

d. Hydraulic Cement

76. A soil compacted dry will reach a certain dry density. If compacted again with the same compactive effort, but this
time with water in the soil, the dry density will be higher because:

a. The water lubricates the grains and allows them to slide in a denser structure

b. Air is forced out of the soil

c. More space if left for the soil solids

d. All of the above

77. Emulsified asphalt applied as tack coat prior to laying of bituminous mix is completely cured once it turns to what

a. Brown

b. Gray

c. Black

d. None of the above

78. If one of the measurements of a core specimen taken from a concrete pavement is 23.6cm. What is the corrected
measurement to be used in calculating the average thickness of the pavement if the design thickness is 23 cm?

a. 23.6cm

b. 23cm

c. 23.5cm

d. 24cm

79. An inspection report can be issued as basis for acceptance for the following except:

a. Water

b. Topsoil

c. Pavement Marking

d. Sodding

80. The purpose of conducting laboratory CBR test on the fill materials for embankment is to check:

a. Permeability pf the compacted subgrade material

b. Swelling characteristics of the subgrade material

c. Bearing capacity of subgrade material

d. All of the above

81. Which of the following bituminous materials is best recommended for sealing weakened plane joints?

a. Asphalt Cement

b. Emulsified Asphalt

c. Cutback Asphalt

d. Joint Filler Asphalt

82. When testing cement samples, the lead time required to test them should be considered to prevent delays in
project implementation. How long does it normally take to test cement samples?

a. 15 days
b. 21 days

c. 28 days

d. 35 days

83. Quality of factory-produced reinforced concrete pipes may be best established through:

a. Engineer’s Certification

b. Inspection Report

c. Test of concrete cylinder samples

d. Test of concrete pipe samples

84. As materials engineer, what is the area of the trial section that you would recommend to check the suitability of
the materials and efficiency of the equipment to be used for Item 310, Bituminous Concrete Surface Course?

a. About 100 sq.m.

b. About 400 sq.m.

c. About 500 sq.m.

d. About 1000 sq.m.

85. A well-graded aggregate for base course has proper proportioning of:

a. Sand and gravel

b. Sand-gravel and silty-clay

c. Sand-silt-clay

d. Sand-gravel and deleterious material

86. What chemical admixture is needed to produce a concrete mix with improved slump without additional water?

a. Set accelerating admixture

b. Set retarding admixture

c. Water reducing admixture

d. Fly ash

87. In slip-form construction, what is the slump of concrete used?

a. Not more than 3 inches

b. 3 to 4 inches

c. Almost Zero

d. Any of the above

88. In order to facilitate the acceptance of cement to be used in the implementation of various DPWH projects, the
compressive strength of mortar samples tested at 3 days and 7 days can be considered for acceptance provided that
the strength of the samples at 7 days is not less than ______ of the compressive strength requirement for 28 days.

a. 80%

b. 75%

c. 85%

d. 90%

89. A set of three (3) beam samples representing a particular section of the concrete pavement failed to meet the
flexural strength requirement. As materials engineer, what would you recommend?

a. Monitor the pavement section with strength deficiency

b. Adjust payment corresponding to the strength deficiency of the beam samples

c. Conduct core test for strength determination on section represented by the failed samples to determine the actual
strength of the in-placed concrete

d. Submit new beam samples for testing

90. For each full day’s operation, how any asphalt core samples must be taken for thickness determination?

a. At least one but not more than three core samples

b. At least two but not more than four core samples

c. At least three but not more than six core samples

d. Depends on the total area to be paved

91. Which of the following is the frequency of sampling of concrete beams required by DPWH specification

a. At least one set of 3 concrete beams every 50cu.m. or fraction thereof

b. At least one set of 3 concrete beams every 500cu.m. or fraction thereof

c. At least one set of 3 concrete beams every 75cu.m. or fraction thereof

d. At least one set of 3 concrete beams every 750cu.m. or fraction thereof

92. Measurement of concrete materials for Item 405 – Structural Concrete shall be by: