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1.

If the potential created by a chemical reaction is used to move a current, the cell created is called
a. concentrated cell b. electrolytic cell c. galvanic cell d. mercury cell
2. Which among the following conditions of a system DOES NOT satisfy that U = q
a. when the opposing pressure is constant c. when the volume is constant
b. when the opposing pressure is zero d. if W = 0
3. Genetic information is stored in the structure of the DNA molecule. Which of the following obtains the code for protein
synthesis from DNA and serves as the template for peptide formation?
a. rRNA b. tRNA c. mRNA d. DNA
4. What is the most common electron acceptor in the Krebs Cycle?
a. ADP b. NAD c. NADH d. ATP
5. This organelle stores the DNA in the cell
a. vacuole b. chloroplast c. nucleus d. NOTG
6. In the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, the genetic material is complexed with protein and organized into linear structures called
a. ribosomes b. chloroplast c. nucleus d. centriole
7. To release energy from the energy nutrients such as carbohydrates, fats and proteins, vitamins functions
a. as precursors b. the antioxidants c. as coenzymes d. as modifiers
8. Lysosomes are formed by budding from which cellular organelle?
a. nucleus b. SER c. golgi apparatus d. RER
9. What is the most economical way to produce aluminum metal?
a. recycling aluminum drink cans c. electrolysis of pure molten Al2O3
b. electrolysis of Al2O3 in molten cryolite d. the Alcoa chlorine process
10. Sodium cyanide is an important reagent in the metallurgy of ______.
a. Mg b. Fe c. Cu d. Au
11. Which of the following water contaminants causes methemoglobinemia or “blue baby” syndrome in infants below six
months old?
a. copper b. sulfate c. phosphates d. nitrates
12. The reduction of a ketone produces a(an) ____.
a. primary alcohol b. aldehyde c. secondary alcohol d. tertiary alcohol
13. The conversion of solar energy to chemical energy occurs during
a. glycolysis b. fermentation c. photosynthesis d. respiration
14. All but which of the following are good barriers to invasion by microbes?
a. broken skin b. urine c. eye secretions d. mucous membranes
15. The overlap of the 2p atomic orbitals produces ____ sigma molecular orbitals and ____ pi molecular orbitals.
a. 2,4 b. 2,2 c. 1,2 d. 4,2
16. Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot formula for H2S?

a.
b. c. d.
17. Chemosynthetic bacteria may use which element as a hydrogen donor instead of water?
a. hydrogen chloride b. sulfur c. hydrogen sulfate d. KH2SO4
18. Give the IUPAC name of the product formed from the reaction between isopropyl alcohol and acetyl chloride.
a. methylcyclobutene b. methylcyclobutanol c. ethylcyclopropene d. ethylcyclopropanol
19. Whys is rainwater acidic even when there is no sulfur trioxide present?
a. automobile emissions cause the increase in acidity c. water is always acidic
b. dissolved HCs cause the acidity d. dissolved CO2 causes the acidity
20. In a periodic table:
a. electronegativity decreases from left to right c. electronegativity increases from top to bottom
b. atomic sizes increases from left to right d. atomic size increases from top to bottom
21. Which chemical test is used to detect the presence of amino acids and proteins?
a. Ninhydrin Test b. Molisch Test c. Benedicts Test d. Biuret Test
22. Semi-metallic element discovered in 1817 by the Swedish Chemist Baron Jakob Berzelius in a sulfuric acid residue.
a. sulfur b. selenium c. arsenic d. nickel
23. Its common name is cryolite
a. sodium aluminum fluoride b. acetylene c. silicon carbide d. calcium fluoride
24. Some solids can be converted directly to the vapor phase by heating. The process is called ____.
a. fusion b. condensation c. vaporization d. sublimation
25. Which compound will be almost completely deprotonated by NaOH
a. phenol b. ethanol c. water d. acetic acid
26. In the process of ozone depletion, it is the element that gets recycled thus rendering its long lifetime in the atmosphere.
a. carbon b. chlorine c. oxygen d. fluorine
27. Cadmium is mainly emitted from
a. textiles b. electroplating c. printing d. batteries
28. A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents from entering
the clotting process.
a. potassium citrate b. Vitamin K c. sodium ion d. calcium ion
29. Ferromagnetism is due to the large scale alignment of the magnetic moments of
a. atoms b. neutrons c. protons d. electrons
30. Energy is required to break the hydrogen bonds holding the bases together. The pair most difficult to separate is
a. A-T b. C-G c. A-C d. G-T
31. Lindlar’s catalyst is used to make?
a. alkanes from alkynes c. trans-alkenes from alkynes
b. cis-alkenes from alkynes d. alcohols from alkynes
32. Ethanol can be oxidized stepwise. What is the first stable intermediate product when ethanol is oxidized with a mild
oxidation agent?
a. CH3COOH b. CH3CHO c. CH3OCH3 d. CH3CO
33. The standard free energy of formation of HCl(g) at 25 °C is – 22, 770 cal/mole. Calculate the thermodynamic equilibrium
constant for the dissociation of HCl into its elements at 25°C.
a. 2.00 x 10-17 b. 3.02 x 1016 c. 1.89 x 10-17 d. 5.02 x 1016
34. Iridium has a face-centered cubic unit cell with an edge length of 383.3 pm. Calculate the density (g/cm3) of solid iridium.
a. 12.26 b. 22.68 c. 32.88 d. 41.34
35. Suppose you have eaten a piece of chocolate cake which is about 300 nutritional calories. How many 7-in. high steps must
a 150-lb man climb to expend the 300 calories from the cake?
a. 8500 b. 9500 c. 10500 d. 11500
36. A gas mixture consists of 325 mg of methane, 175 mg of argon, and 225 mg of neon. The partial pressure of neon at 300K
is 66.5 Torr. Calculate the volume of the mixture.
a. 32 L b. 3.16 L c. 4.25 L d. 3.75 L
37. Linear inhibition is sometimes called as
a. complete inhibition b. incomplete inhibition c. partial inhibition d. mixed inhibition
38. A fermentation system has a kLa of 3/s and a C*O of 5 ppm of O2. If the bulk liquid is saturated with oxygen then the
oxygen transfer rate will equal
a. 15 mg/L-s b. 5 mg/L-s c. 3 mg/L-s d. 0 mg/L-s
39. The oxygen uptake requirements of a microbial population is characertized by the following parameters: μm = 0.2 h-1
KO = 0.2 mg O2/L YO = 0.5 mg dry weight. mgO2 CO,crit = 0.8 mg/L. The required concentration of cells is 1000
mg/L and the saturation oxygen concentration of the medium is 5.8 mg/L. The required kLa must be greater than:
a. 64 /hr b. 32 /hr c. 16 /hr d. 8 /hr
40. In the "Methode Champenoise," strawberry juice is fermented in a 825-mL wine bottle to produce sparkling wine.
Fermentation of 719 mL aqueous strawberry juice is allowed to take place in the bottle until 12% by volume is ethyl
alcohol. Calculate the pressure of CO2 inside the wine bottle at 29°C? (The density of ethanol is 0.79 g/cm3.)
a. 150 atm b. 250 atm c. 350 atm d. 450 atm
41. A ketogenic amino acid is an amino acid that can be converted into ketone bodies through ketogenesis. In humans, two
amino acids are exclusively ketogenic, one of them is
a. methionine b. phenylalanine c. leucine d. tyrosine
42. A solution of 2.0 g of (+)-glyceraldehyde in 10.0 mL of water was placed in a 100-mm polarimeter tube. Using the sodium
D line, a rotation of 1.74o was observed at 25oC. (+)-glyceraldehyde was then mixed with some quantity of (-)-
glyceraldehyde and the resulting mixture had a specific rotation of +6.9o. What percentage of the mixture was (-)-
glyceraldehyde?
a. 8.7% b. 10.35% c. 20.69% d. 79.31%
43. 1.18One hundred ml of river water sample is analyzed for its chloride content. If the sample required 5.10 ml of 0.0100M
AgNO3 for titration, what is the ppm Cl in the sample?
a. 1.18 b. 3.61 c. 18.08 d. 36.36
44. Five kilograms of Ice at -10°C is heated to melt it into water; then additional heat is added to vaporize the water into steam.
The saturated vapors exit at 100°C. Specific heat of ice is 2.05 KJ/kg-K. specific heat of water is 4.182 Kj/kg-K. What is the
latent heat of fusion of ice at 0°C?
a. 333 b. 1325 c. 3568 d. 1339
45. An Oswald viscometer was calibrated using water at 250C (=8.9 x 10-4 Pa-s and density = 1 x 103 kg/m3). The same
viscometer was used at -1930C to determine the viscosity (in Pa-s) of liquid air (density = 0.92 x 103 kg/m3). Assuming that
the time ratio of water to liquid air is 0.193 and neglecting volume changes, find the abovementioned quantity.
a. 4.30 x 10-3 b. 2.15 x 10-3 c. 1.6 x 10-3 d. 2.19 x 10-3
46. Two adiabatic tanks contain air at different temperatures and pressures and are connected by a valve. Tank A holds 3 ft3
of air at 5000R and 100 psia and tank B holds 2 lbm of air at 750 0R and 50 psia. The valve is opened and the pressure and
temperature reach equilibrium values. What are these values?
a. 323.50R, 60.7 psia b. 423.50R, 45.6 psia c. 638.10R, 45.6 psia d. 638.10R, 60.7 psia
47. Assume the following, the ionization potential of C3 = 3.89 eV, h = 6.63 x 10-34/sec and C3 metal is sensitive to real light of
700 nm. What number of electrons that can be removed from metallic cesium with the energy required to remove one
electron from an isolated cesium atom
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 7
48. A liquid is observed to boil at 120°C under a pressure of 725 mmHg. Its heat of vaporization is 8200 cal/mol. Calculate the
normal boiling point of the liquid.
a. 98 oC b. 100 oC c. 118 oC d. 115 oC
0
49. The water sample from a sewage plant had a 20-day BOD of 400 mg/L at 20 C. What was the expected 5-day demand?
a. 404 ppm b. 304 ppm c. 276 ppm d. 196 ppm
50. At a specified temperature, a solution of eugenol, C10H12O2, if ethanol has a freezing point of -116.58oC and a vapor pressure
of 41.50 torr. If pure ethanol has a freezing point of -114.6oC and a Kf of 1.20oC/m, what would its vapor pressure (torr) be
at the specified temperature?
a. 40.6 b. 44.6 c. 46.4 d. 48.6
51. At a certain temperature, 2.00-L sample of O2 was collected over water at a total pressure of 785 torr. When the O 2 was
dried, the gas had a volume of 1.94 L at 785 torr while temperature was kept constant. Calculate the vapor pressure of
water at this temperature.
a. 20 torr b. 22 torr c. 24 torr d. 26 torr
52. The single largest use of phosphoric acid is in the production of fertilizer. How many grams of phosphoric acid (with excess
NH3) are required to produce 800 g of (NH4)2HPO4, a common fertilizer?
a. 1186 g b. 686 g c. 593 g d. 391 g
53. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the unit cell
a. 1/8 b. 1/4 c. 1/2 d. 1/3
54. The time taken for a certain volume of gas to steam through a small hole was 1.44 minutes. Under exactly the same
condition equal volume of oxygen took 1.80 minutes to pass. The approximate density of the gas relative to oxygen (ρ oxygen
= 1.43 g/L) is:
a. 2.23 b. 1.79 c. 0.92 d. 0.60
55. Zinc in a 565.75 mg sample of a foot powder was titrated with 27.27 ml of 0.01690 EDTA. Calculate the %Zn in the sample.
a. 5.33% b. 10.65% c. 12.0% d. 15.5%
56. The main fate of amino acids is the synthesis of
a. alkaloids b. coenzymes c. hormones d. proteins
57. These devices are used to break or cut solids to a size that can be returned to the waste water without danger of clogging
pipes or devices.
a. bar screens b. communitors c. grit chamber d. clarifiers
58. Law/Decree issued in 1990 governing the control of toxic substances and hazardous nuclear wastes.
a. RA 984 b. PD 1152 c. RA 6969 d. PD 1151
59. 2.48 g of silver metal is deposited when a constant current of 1.50 A is passed through an electrolytic cell containing 0.10
M solution of silver nitrate. The cell contains a silver anode and a platinum cathode. Calculate the time of the current flow
to obtain this deposit?
a. 14 min b. 25 min c. 37 min d. 48 min
60. Common name of organic compound in bee stings.
a. methanoic acid b. formic acid c. ethanoic acid d. acetic acid
-
61. What is the [Cl ] when 1.50 g of NaCl is dissolved in enough water to make 1000 mL of solution?
a. 0.0150 M b. 0.0390 M c. 0.0256 M d. 0.390 M
62. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
63. This law states a fixed amount of gas under isobaric conditions the absolute temperature is directly proportional to its
volume.
a. Boyle’s Law b. Amagat’s Law c. Avogadros Law d. Charles Law
64. In how many days will a 12-gram sample of decay, leaving a total of 1.5 grams of the original isotope? (The half-life of
131
I
53
is 8.07 days).
a. 8 b. 16 c. 20 d. 24
65. The rate of effusion of a particular gas was measured to be 24.0 mL/min. Under the same conditions the rate of effusion
of pure methane gas is 47.8 mL/min. Calculate the molar mass of the unknown gas.
a. 44 b. 56.1 c. 63.7 d. 72
66. For nitrogen gas at 227oC. Calculate the mean velocity.
a. 545 m/s b. 615 m/s c. 667 m/s d. 700 m/s
67. At a rate of 5000 cm3/s, an unknown gas flows through a 3-mm diameter capillary tube. The pressure head under which
the gas flows is 0.95 atm. Calculate the length of the tube if the gas viscosity is 400 μP.
a. 75.68 cm b. 85.65 cm c. 95.68 cm d. 105.68 cm
68. A 0.12 g sample of calcite is treated with 36.82 ml of 0.08132 HCl and the excess is found to require 6.2 ml of 0.09677 N
NaOH for back titration. Calculate the percentage purity of calcite.
a. 99.8% b. 98.3% c. 89.3% d. 99.2%
69. Consider two reaction vessels A and B, where [A]o = [B]o at t=0. A and B decompose by 1st order reaction with reaction
constants of 4.50 x 10-4 s-1 and 3.70 x 10-3 s-1 respectively. Calculate the time that must pass to reach the condition such
that [A]t = 6.58 [B]t.
a. 394 s b. 453 s c. 580 s d. 637 s
70. 0.180 g of metal upon reaction with excess hydrochloric acid produced 24.6 ml of hydrogen gas at 27 0C and 1 atmospheric
pressure. What is the equivalent weight of the metal?
a. 36 b. 45 c. 90 d. 180
71. A 347.5 mg sample of meat was analyzed for its nitrogen content. Upon digestion, the ammonia liberated was colleted in
150 mL of 0.6 M H3BO3 solution. The resulting solution was titrated with 45.5 mL of 0.0122 MHCl using mixed indicator.
Determine the percentage of protein in the sample using 6.25 as factor for meat products.
a. 1.12% b. 2.24% c. 13.98% d. 27.96%
72. A sample of steel weighing 1.50 g was analyzed for Ni by the cyanide volumetric method. In the titration of the properly
prepared solution, 12.00 mL KCN (0.0140 g per milliliter) and 0.65 mL of AgNO3 (0.0125 g per milliliter) were used. Calculate
the percentage of Ni present.
a. 1.42% b. 2.42 % c. 3.42% d. 4.24%
73. Glycine is the smallest of the 20 amino acids found in proteins. At which pH will its structure have an overall charge of –1.
a. pH 1 b. pH 2.2 c. pH 9.6 d. pH 12
74. Brown spots in fabrics will be caused by washing with water containing large amount of
a. iodine b. bromine c. zinc d. iron
75. A 4.971-g sample containing the mineral tellurite was dissolved and then treated with 50.00 mL of 0.03114 M K 2Cr2O7:
3 TeO2 + Cr2O72- + 8 H+ → 3 H2TeO4 + 2 Cr3+ + H2O
When the reaction is complete, the excess Cr2O72- required a 10.05-mL back-titration with 0.1135 M Fe2+. Calculate the
percentage of TeO2 in the sample.
a. 9.14% b. 13.17% c. 17.78% d. 21.98%
76. Exposure to gamma or X – ray radiation equal to a unit quantity of electrical charge produced in air. This measure is
purely physical quantity, has nothing to do with absorption or effect of the radiation.
a. Sievert b. Roentgen c. REM d. Gray
77. Which of the following is the most efficient for removal of very finely divided suspended solids and colloidal matter from
the polluted water stream?
a. sedimentation tank b. mechanical flocculation c. circular clarifier d. chemical coagulation
78. The portion of the rainfall that flows on the ground surface is
a. yield b. water table c. spring d. run-off
79. Fireproofing material which is now banned due to slow disintegration that produces pollution.
a. carpet b. vinyl floors c. asbestos d. aerosol cans
80. Secondary treatment method using both microbial activity and facilitated aeration processes
a. activated sludge b. RBC c. trickling filter d. oxidation ditch
81. This organelle is found in animal cells and is used in cell division; the spindle fibers attach to it.
a. ribosome b. centriole c. nucleus d. chloroplast
82. Classical noncompetitive inhibition is obtained only under conditions
a. slow equilibrium b. rapid equilibrium c. moderate equilibrium d. non-equilibrium
83. What is the most common electron acceptor in Krebs Cycle?
a. ADP b. ATP c. NADH d. NAD
84. The steroid adrenaline is produced in glands located above the:
a. gall bladder b. kidney c. pancreas d. spleen
85. The chemical family that steroids belong to
a. ester b. terpenoid c. alkaloid d. amino
86. The dilution rate, D is defined as(where F = volumetric flow rate, VR = total volume of culture in the reactor and μ specific
growth rate)
a. F/VR b. VR/F c. μ/F d. F/μ
87. This organelle stores the DNA in the cell.
a. vacuole b. chloroplast c. nucleus d. NOTA
88. How many ATP's will be produced by the metabolism of a single molecule of glutamate in the Krebs Cycle?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
89. The number of baffles in a standard stirred tank bioreactor is
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
90. To measure the amount of glocuamylase in a crude enzyme preparation, 1 mL of the crude enzyme preparation
containing 8 mg protein is added to 9 mL of a 4.44% starch solution. Initial rate experiments show that the reaction
produces 6 mole of glucose/mL-min. What is the specific activity of the crude enzyme preparation?
a. 0.75 U b. 0.75 IU c. 6 U d. 6 IU

91. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?


a. cellobiose b. sucrose c. lactose d. maltose
92. An enzyme is assayed at an initial substrate concentration of 2 x 10 -5M. In 6 minute, half of the substrate is used. The Km
for the substrate is 2 x 10-3 M. The value of k in minute is
a. 0.115 b. 0.093 c. 0.042 d. 0.963
93. Ethanol is produced in a bioreactor at a rate of 50,000 L/h. If the dilution rate is 0.5, what is the volume (liter) of the
fermenter?
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 100,000 d. 125,000
94. For an enzyme that displays Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the reaction velocity (as a fraction of Vmax) observed at [S] = 2 KM will
be
a. 0.66 b. 0.33 c. 0.91 d. 0.09
95. Ingested glucose is phosphorylated in the liver by both hexokinase and glucokinase. Hexokinase has a K m for glucose of
about 1 x 10-5 M and glucokinase has a Km for glucose of about 1.5 x 10-2 M. The glucose concentration available to liver
cells is approximately equal to the concentration in the blood, and this value is about 0.75 x 10 -2 M. Assuming that the
ATP concentration and other factors are optimal, the velocity of the glucokinase reaction will be about.
a. 0.75 Vmax b. 0.66 Vmax c. 0.33 Vmax d. 0.25 Vmax
96. Which of the following alkanes is gas at room temperature?
a. octane b. propane c. eicosane d. undecane
97. An ester that gives an orange flavor is octyl ethanoate, its common name is:
a. octyl captylate b. ethyl caprylate c. ethyl octanoate d. octyl acetate
98. Acid derivative with two moles of carboxylic acid combine
a. acid anhydride b. acid amide c. acid halide d. esters
99. Common name of 2-methyl propanoic acid
a. butyric acid b. valeric acid c. isobutyric acid d. isovaleric acid
100. A supermoon is the coincidence of a Full moon or a New moon with the closest approach the Moon makes to the Earth on
its elliptical orbit, resulting in the largest apparent size of the lunar disk as seen from Earth. Technically, it is known as
a. the pirate-syzygy of the Earth–Sun–Moon system c. the pirate-syzygy of the Earth–Moon–Sun system
b. the perigee-syzygy of the Earth–Moon–Sun system d. the perigee-syzygy of the Earth–Sun–Moon system
1. Which one of the following metals is most likely to be purified by electrolysis?
a. silver b. lead c. iron d. manganese
2. Sodium cyanide is an important reagent in the metallurgy of ______________.
a. manganese b. iron c. copper d. gold
3. If a cell did not have ribosomes, it would be unable to
a. extract energy from b. form proteins c. store food in the form d. synthesize glucose
glucose
4. Which of the following salts is expected to have the lowest solubility in water?
a. NaCl b. NaI c. NaF d. NaBr
5. The vapour pressure of pure water at 26oC is 25.21 torr. What is the vapour pressure of solution which contains 20g glucose in
70g water?
a. 24.5 torr b. 99.3 torr c. 65.2 torr d. 31.13 torr
6. What is the molecular weight, Ma, of a solute, A, if the osmotic pressure of a solution containing 10 g/L is 10 torr at 27˚C?
a. 1165 g/mol b. 18700 g/mol c. 15600 g/mol d. 12800 g/mol
7. 18F is found to undergo 90% radioactive decay in 366 min. What is its computed half-life from this observation?
a. 25 min b. 55 min c. 80 min d. 110 min
8. The easiest fusion reaction to initiate is between the nuclei of deuterium and tritium to produce an alpha particle. How much
energy is released for every formation of an alpha particle? (deuterium = 2.01410 amu, protium = 3.01605 amu, alpha
particle = 4.00460 amu).
a. -1.889 x 10-5 J b. -2.820 x 10-12 J c. -1.680 x 10-10 J d. -4.569 x 10-5 J
9. The average molar mass of one base pair of nucleotides in DNA is approximately 600 g/mol. The spacing between successive
base pairs is about 0.34 nm, and a complete turn in the helical structure of DNA occurs every 3.4 nm. If a DNA molecule has a
molar mass of 4.5 x 109 g/mol, approximately, how many complete turns in the DNA α-helix structure?
a. 6 x 105 b. 7 x 105 c. 8 x 105 d. 9 x 105
10. In the "Methode Champenoise," strawberry juice is fermented in a 825-mL wine bottle to produce sparkling wine.
Fermentation of 719 mL aqueous strawberry juice is allowed to take place in the bottle until 12% by volume is ethyl alcohol.
Calculate the pressure of CO2 inside the wine bottle at 29°C? (The density of ethanol is 0.79 g/cm3.)
a. 150 atm b. 250 atm c. 350 atm d. 450 atm
11. Histidine, an essential α-amino acid present in our body can transform into histamine under enzymatic activity of histidine
decarboxylase. When the reaction velocity is 2.6 mM/s, 1.67 mM of histamine is formed. Assuming 15 mM of the decarboxylase
(Kcat = 30 s-1) is used, determine the Michaelis-Menten constant KM.
a. 0.19 M b. 0.29 M c. 0.39 M d. 0.49 M
12. Calculate the energy released per mole of a helium nucleus produced from the fusion reaction of deuterium with tritium. The
atomic masses of deuterium, tritium and helium are 2.01410 amu, 3.01605 amu and 4.00260 amu, respectively.
a. -2.82 x 10-12 J b. -1.70 x 10-12 J c. -2.82 x 1012 J d. -1.70 x 1012 J
13. Determine the “third-life” for a nuclide that has a half life of 31.4 years. Hint: “Third-life” is defined in a similar way to “half-
life”.
a. 10.5 yr b. 20.9 yr c. 42.8 yr d. 49.7 yr
14. It has a brownish hue and is the compound that gives feces their characteristic odor.
a. Biliverdin b. Stercobilin c. Bilirubin d. Urobilin
15. A 1.0 L buffer solution initially contains 0.25 mol NH3 and 0.25 mol NH4Cl. In order to adjust the buffer to a pH of 8.75, you
should add
a. 4.80g NaOH b. 18.6g NaOH c. 4.80g HCl d. 18.6g HCl
16. Consider two solutions A and B. [H+] in solution A is 470 times greater than that in solution B. What is the difference in the pH
values of the two solutions?
a. 3 x 10-12 b. 4 x 10-15 c. 1 x 10-14 d. 5 x 10-16
17. Consider a piece of gold jewelry that has a mass of 9.45 g and a volume of 0.685 cm 3. The jewelry contains gold and silver,
which have densities of 19.3 g/cm3 and 10.5 g/cm3, respectively. If the total volume of the jewelry is the sum of the volumes
of the gold and the silver that it contains, state the purity of the gold jewelry in karats.
a. 10.6 b. 12.6 c. 16.2 d. 19.6
18. What weight of magnetite should be taken for analysis in order that, after converting all the Fe to a precipitate of Fe2O3 .xH2O,
the percentage of Fe3O4 in the sample can be found by multiplying the weight in grams of the ignited precipitate by 100?
a. 0.4666g b. 0.6666g c. 0.86666g d. 0.9666g
19. A sample of steel weighing 1.50 g was analyzed for Ni by the cyanide volumetric method. In the titration of the properly
prepared solution, 12.00 mL KCN (0.0140 g per milliliter) and 0.65 mL of AgNO 3 (0.0125 g per milliliter) were used. Calculate
the percentage of Ni present.
a. 1.42% b. 2.42% c. 3.42% d. 4.24%
20. A sample of milk weighing 5.00 g is analyzed for protein by the Kjeldahl method. The digested material is treated with excess
NaOH and the liberated NH3 is caught in 25.0 mL H2SO4. The excess acid then requires 28.2 mL of NaOH (25.8 mL acid  31.0
mL NaOH). The NaOH used was standardized using 1.00 g sample of pure NH4Cl as a primary standard and the liberated NH3 is
caught in 25.0 mL of the above H2SO4. The excess acid requires 11.3 mL of the above standard NaOH. Calculate the percentage
of protein in the milk.
a. 2.05% b. 3.30% c. 4.60% d. 5.89%
21. What is the normality of a nitric acid solution to be used as an oxidizing agent (reduced to NO) if it contains 55.50% by mass
HNO3 and has a specific gravity of 1.350?
a. 11.89 N b. 23.79 N c. 35.68 N d. 40.00 N
22. What [I-] should be maintained in an aqueous KI solution to produce a solubility of 1.8 x 10-5 mol PbI2 per liter of solution when
PbI2 is added? Ksp of PbI2 = 6.5 x 10-9.
a. 0.0120 M b. 0.0080 M c. 0.0040 M d. 0.0190 M
23. Two moles of Acetaldehyde are produced when one mole of a starting hydrocarbon undergoes ozonolysis. What could this
hydrocarbon be?
a. 2-Methyl-2-butene b. 2-Butene c. Butene d. 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene
24. Part of a certain DNA sequence is GGTCTATAC. What is the complementary sequence?
a. CCAGATATG b. TTGAGCGCA c. AAGTGTTAC d. CCGTGTCAG
25. 3-Methyl-3-hexanol can be prepared by reacting propyl magnesium bromide with what?
a. ester b. ether c. ketone d. carboxylic acid
26. In humans, this chemical compound is released during hugging and touching in both genders.
a. oxytocin b. adrenaline c. G-Proteins d. serotonin
27. Which of the following compounds is AROMATIC?

a. b. c. d.
28. An atom of a particular element is travelling at 1% of the speed of light. The wavelength is found to be 3.31 x 10 -3 pm. The
element is
a. Be b. Mg c. Ca d. Sr
29. Which of the following exhibits H-bonding?
a. HCl b. HF c. CH4 d. CHCl3
30. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
a. N b. Ni c. Te d. Ba
31. Which of the following molecules/ compounds is formed by covalent bonds?
a. LiF b. MgO c. NO2 d. PbS
32. When 2.86g of a mixture of 1-butene and butane was burned in excess oxygen, 8.80g of carbon dioxide and 4.14g of water
were obtained. Calculate the percentage by mass of butane in the original mixture.
a. 12.3% b. 95.2% c. 60.8% d. 30.6%
33. A 10L cylinder of oxygen at 4.00 atm pressure and 17°C developed a leak. When the leak was repaired, 2.50 atm of oxygen
remained in the cylinder, still at 17°C. How many moles of gas escaped?
a. 0.621 moles b. 0.630 moles c. 0.389 moles d. 0.397 moles
34. A 516.7-mg sample containing a mixture of K2SO4 and (NH4)2SO4 was dissolved in water and treated with BaCl2, precipitating
the SO42– as BaSO4. The resulting precipitate was isolated by filtration, rinsed free of impurities, and dried to a constant
weight, yielding 863.5 mg of BaSO4. What is the %w/w K2SO4 in the sample?
a. 65.34% b. 45.56% c. 34.45% d. 22.22%
35. A 50.00-mL aliquot of a solution containing iron(III) required 13.73 mL of 0.01200 M EDTA . The solution contains how much
iron?
a. 134 ppm b. 184 ppm c. 213 ppm d. 245 ppm
36. A mixture is reported as 15% water and 85% ethanol. Should the percentages be deemed to by
a. mass b. mole c. volume d. all of the given
37. A mole of water and a mole of oxygen
a. have the same mass c. have a mass of one gram each
b. contain one molecule each d. contain the same number of molecules
38. Pure chlorine gas enters a process. By measurement it is found that 2.4 kg of chlorine pass into the process every 3.1 minutes.
Calculate the molar flow rate of the chlorine in kg mol/hr.
a. 0.132 kgmol/hr b. 0.654 kgmol/hr c. 0.870 kgmol/hr d. 0.794 kgmol/hr
39. Do ppm denote a concentration that is a mole ratio?
a. for gases only b. for solids only c. for liquids only d. for solids and liquids
40. A 30% H2SO4 solution at 20oC has a specific gravity of 1.2185. What is the oBe’ of the acid solution?
a. 31 b. 45 c. 26 d. 37
41. The following are acid salts except,
a. ammonium acetate b. ethyl propionate c. calcium formate d. sodium butyrate
42. Which statement about resonance structures is false?
a. Third period atoms may have up to 12 electrons around them
b. The position of nuclei may change
c. All contributing structures must obey the rules of covalent bonding
d. All contributing resonance structures must have the same number of valence electrons
43. Which of the following describes a hydride ion?
a. a negatively charged hydrogen ion containing a pair of electrons
b. a positively charged hydrogen ion
c. a hydrogen ion containing a single electron
d. a proton containing an extra electron
44. Which of the following describes a triple bond?
a. two sigma bonds and two pi bonds c. two sigma bonds and one pi bond
b. one sigma bond and two pi bonds d. three pi bonds
45. A(An) ____ is a region of space in which there is a high probability of finding an electron in an atom.
a. shell b. major energy level c. core d. atomic orbital
46. Which of the following is used for making the explosive 'TNT'?
a. Benzol b. Toluene c. Pyridine d. Cetosote
47. The Lucas test is used to determine the types of
a. alcohols b. amines c. phenols d. amino acids
48. How many milligrams of BaCrO4 are dissolved in 200 ml of saturated solution? (Ksp of BaCrO4 is 8.5 x 10-11)
a. 4.67 x 10-4 mg b. 1.84 x 10-4 mg c. 0.467 mg d. 0.822 mg
49. 0.180 g of metal upon reaction with excess hydrochloric acid produced 24.6 ml of hydrogen gas at 270C and 1 atmospheric
pressure. What is the equivalent weight of the metal?
a. 36 b. 45 c. 90 d. 180
50. Zinc in a 565.75 mg sample of a foot powder was titrated with 27.27 ml of 0.01690 EDTA. Calculate the %Zn in the sample.
a. 5.33% b. 10.65% c. 12.0% d. 15.5%
51. A specific brand of liquor is rated 75 proof. One shot of the liquor having a volume of 35 ml contains
a. 37.5 mL isopropyl alcohol b. 13.1 mL isopropyl alcohol c. 37.5 mL ethyl alcohol d. 13.1 mL ethyl alcohol
52. The half-life of Cs-137 is 30 years. How much of a 1.0 gram sample is left after 15 years?
a. 0.56g b. 0.71g c. 0.85g d. 0.96g
53. Conversion of solar energy to chemical energy occurs during
a. respiration b. glycolysis c. fermentation d. photosynthesis
54. Determine the 1 day BOD of a sample wastewater if its BOD5 is 135 mg/L with a rate constant of 0.23/day.
a. 197.5 ppm b. 51.1 ppm c. 40.6 ppm d. 32.1 ppm
55. A radial flow impeller with six flat-blades mounted on a disk is called
a. Rushton turbine b. propeller c. aerator d. paddle
56. A 35 ml sample of wastewater is diluted to a volume of 300 ml, after which a 5 day incubation resulted to a dissolved oxygen
content of 4.55 mg/L. Calculate the initial DO of the diluted sample if the 5 day BOD is 30 ppm.
a. 5 mg/L b. 8 mg/L c. 12 mg/L d. 15 mg/L
57. The sanitary and industrial waste from a community consists of domestic wastewater from several population of 10,000
persons; meat processing waste of 180 m3/day containing 1500 mg/L of 5-day BOD; plastic industry wastewater flow of
515m3/day with a 5-day BOD concentration of 950 ppm and cooking oil wastewater flow of 350 m 3/day with a 5-day BOD
concentration of 450 ppm. What is the 5-day BOD concentration of the combined wastewater in mg/L?
a. 877 b. 966 c. 1500 d. 2900
58. The odor and presence of this chemical should be controlled due to the toxicity attributed to it
a. CH3 b. H2S c. F d. Cl
59. Given: HCN(aq)  H (aq) + CN (aq). What is the pH of an HCN solution that is 0.135M initially? The Ka of HCN is 4.9 x 10-10.
+ -

a. 9.31 b. 4.69 c. 5.09 d. 0.87


60. Calculate the pH that results when the following solutions are mixed: 35 ml of 0.20 M formic acid, 55 ml of 0.10 M sodium
formate, 110 ml of water
a. 4.58 b. 3.64 c. 3.39 d. 4.41
61. Classify the following reaction by giving the reaction type that applies.

2NiS(s) + 3O2(g) 2NiO(s) + 2SO2(g)


a. redox b. combination c. decomposition d. displacement
62. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the unit cell
a. 1/3 b. 1/2 c. 1/8 d. 1/4
63. Consider the reaction: 2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g) ∆H=92.4kJ Adding N2 to the reaction will
a. decrease the concentration of NH3(g) at equilibrium
b. decrease the concentration of H2(g) at equilibrium
c. increase the value of the equilibrium constant
d. cause the reaction to shift to the right
64. The time taken for a certain volume of gas to steam through a small hole was 1.44 minutes. Under exactly the same condition
equal volume of oxygen took 1.80 minutes to pass. The approximate density of the gas relative to oxygen (ρoxygen = 1.43 g/L) is:
a. 2.23 b. 1.79 c. 0.92 d. 0.60
65. If X represents an element in Group IIIA. The general formula for its oxide is
a. X2O3 b. X3O2 c. XO d. XO3
66. Soap is dissolved in hot water and the solution is cooled and neutralized with HCl. The resulting precipitate is probably
a. sodium chloride b. benzoic acid c. sodium benzoate d. sodium stearate
67. When a solution of weak electrolyte is altered by adding one of its ions from another source, the ionization of the weak
electrolyte is suppressed. This behavior is termed the ____.
a. equivalence point b. common ion effect c. buffer effect d. titration curve
68. Analytical methods taking 1-10 mg. Size samples for analysis maybe referred to as
methods
a. meso b. micro c. macro d. ultra micro
69. Which of the following is NOT a reason on why we need to add lime in lime-soda softening?
a. remove NCH b. remove CO2 c. raise pH d. destroy H2CO3
70. Solid particle frequently metallic, formed by the condensation of vapors by sublimation or other chemical processes.
a. spray b. fog c. fume d. dust
71. Reingleman chart is used for the evaluation of __________ pollution.
a. air b. water c. noise d. radioactive
72. Which one of the following metals is most likely to be purified by electrolysis?
a. Mn b. Fe c. Pb d. Ag
73. Evaluate S0 (J/K)for the reaction below at 25°C and 1 atm.
NO2(g) + H2O( ) HNO3(aq) + NO(g)
S0 (J/mol•K) 240 69.91 146 210.7
a. -287.2 b. 46.79 c. -46.79 d. 1.37 x 103
0 0 0
74. The temperature of three different liquids are maintained at 15 C, 20 C and 25 C respectively. When equal masses of the first
two liquids are mixed, the final temperature is 180C and when equal masses of the last two liquids are mixed, the final
temperature is 240C. What temperature will be achieved by mixing equal masses of the first and last liquid?
a. 8.65 oC b. 10.30 oC c. 15.83 oC d. 23.57 oC
75. A constant direct current flows through an iodine coulometer for a period of 2 hours. At the end of this time, it is found that
the coulometer contains 0.0020 equivalent of liberated I2. What was the current passing through the coulometer?
a. 0.058A b. 0.048A c. 0.034A d. 0.027A
76. The average person generates about 2500 kcal of heat a day. Walking briskly dissipates energy at 500W. What fraction of the
day’s energy does walking for an hour represents.
a. 0.172 b. 0.200 c. 0.430 d. 0.117
77. What weight of ice could be melted at 00C by the heat liberated by condensing 100g steam at 1000C to liquid?
Heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g Heat of fusion = 80 cal/g
a. 345 g b. 675 g c. 660 g d. 378 g
78. A water treatment plant has 4 clarifiers treated 4 MGD of water. Each clarifier is 16 ft wide, 80 ft long and 15 ft deep.
Determine the detention time in hours.
a. 28 min b. 52 min c. 3.35 hrs d. 4.12 hrs
79. Calculate the mass of 95%w NH4Cl salt necessary to prepare two liters of buffer solution of pH =8 with 500 mL of 0.1M NH3 (Kb
= 1.8 x 10-5)
a. 50.64 g b. 48.11 g c. 1.48 g d. 1.56 g
80. The organic reaction represented by equation
CH3 - CH = O + H2NOH gives CH3 - CH - NH + H2O is an example of reaction
a. addition b. oxidation c. condensation d. elimination
81. The overlap of the 2p atomic orbitals produces ____ sigma molecular orbitals and ____ pi molecular orbitals.
a. 2,4 b. 2,2 c. 1,2 d. 4,2
82. Functional group which causes vanilla odor.
a. ketone b. aldehyde c. carboxylic acid d. ester
83. The saponification no. of a triglyceride is 200. The average MW of the triglyceride is
a. 200 b. 280 c. 600 d. 840
84. ROSO2ONa is a general formula for
a. soap b. wax c. fatty acid salt d. synthetic detergent
85. What is the total number of completely or partially filled p-orbitals in 33As atom in its ground state configuration?
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12
86. Whose rule delineates the placement of additional electrons in the unfilled orbital of lowest energy?
a. Aufbau b. Avogadro c. Hund d. Pauli
87. What is the mean MW of a sample of fat with a saponification number of 100.
a. 160 b. 167 c. 168 d. 169
88. A line in Pfund series (nlo = 5) occurs at 3.74 x 10-6m. What is nhi for this transition? Rydberg constant equals 2.18 x 10-18 J.
a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
89. 206Pb has a relative abundance of 23.6%. What size of Pb will contain 8.34 x 10 21 atoms of 206Pb if the density of Pb is 11.35
g/cm3?
a. 0.25 cm2 b. 1.07 cm2 c. 7.01 cm2 d. 10.7 cm2
90. An atom of a particular element is travelling at 1% of the speed of light. The wavelength is found to be 3.31 x 10 -3 pm. The
element is
a. Be b. Mg c. Ca d. Sr
91. Consider two reaction vessels A and B, where [A]o = [B]o at t=0. A and B decompose by 1st order reaction with reaction constants
of 4.50 x 10-4 s-1 and 3.70 x 10-3 s-1 respectively. Calculate the time that must pass to reach the condition such that [A] t = 6.58
[B]t.
a. 339 s b. 580s c. 673s d. 890s
92. At a certain temperature, 2.00-L sample of O2 was collected over water at a total pressure of 785 torr. When the O2 was dried,
the gas had a volume of 1.94 L at 785 torr while temperature was kept constant. Calculate the vapor pressure of water at this
temperature.
a. 20 torr b. 22 torr c. 24 torr d. 26 torr
93. Measured at the same conditions, 5.0 L of NH3 is reacted with 5.0 L Cl2 in a closed container. Calculate the ratio of pressures
in the container (Pfinal : Pinitial).
NH3 (g) + Cl2 (g)  N2 (g) + HCl (g)
a. 3:4 b. 4:3 c. 1:1 d. 3:2
94. The water sample from a sewage plant had a 20-day BOD of 400 mg/L at 200C. What was the expected 5-day demand?
a. 404 ppm b. 304 ppm c. 276 ppm d. 196 ppm
95. Based from the preceding problem, if the sample had been incubated at 15oC, what would the 20-day demand have been
a. 318 mg/L b. 334 mg/L c. 369 mg/L d. 381 mg/L
96. Based from the preceding problem, if the water were polluted and had an ultimate BOD of 431 mg/L between 20-30oC, what
exactly was the temperature in which the sample might have been incubated?
a. 21 oC b. 25 oC c. 27 oC d. 29 oC
97. A 5 amp current is passing for 3 hours and 30 minutes through this electrolytic cell in which iron metal is deposited on the
cathode. If the efficiency of the process is 68%, how many grams of iron are deposited?
a. 1.66 b. 2.44 c. 8.26 d. 12.19
98. Assume the following, the ionization potential of C3 = 3.89 eV, h = 6.63 x 10-34/sec and C3 metal is sensitive to real light of
700 nm. What number of electrons that can be removed from metallic cesium with the energy required to remove one electron
from an isolated cesium atom
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 13
99. A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents from
entering the clotting process.
a. potassium citrate b. Vitamin K c. sodium ion d. calcium ion
100.Which organ is especially sensitive to a vitamin deficiency?
a. skin b. liver c. heart d. lungs
1. Which concept best explains the fact that o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol?
a. resonance b. hydrogen bonding c. hyper conjugation d. Steric hindrance
2. A liquid hydrocarbon is converted into a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by
a. cracking b. oxidation c. hydrolysis d. reduction
3. The biological oxidation of benzene carried out in the body of dog produces
a. maleic acid b. cinnamic acid c. muconic acid d. acrylic acid
4. For substitution reactions, nuclear halogen atoms are
a. more reactive than alkyl halides c. less reactive than alkyl halides
b. as reactive as alkyl halides d. none of the given
5. Isomers must have the same
a. molecular formula b. chemical properties c. structural formula d. physical properties
6. What is the oxidation number of carbon in the oxalate radical?
a. +6 b. +2 c. +4 d. +3
7. Which equation represents a redox reaction?
a. Pb2+ + 2Cl- → PbCl2 b. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2 c. CaO + CO2 → CaCO3 d. HCl + NaOH → NaCl +
H2
8. Which of the following salt solutions is acidic?
a. NaBr b. FeCl3 c. LiCN d. NaHCO3
9. A strong oxidizing agent has a
a. weak attraction for electrons c. strong attraction for electrons
b. weak ability to become reduced d. strong ability to become oxidized
10. In the preparation of standard potassium iodate solution containing excess iodine, the gram equivalence of iodine
per mole of potassium iodate is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6
11. The addition of a crystal of NaClO3 to a solution of NaClO3 causes additional crystals to precipitate. The original
solution was
a. saturated b. unsaturated c. concentrated d. supersaturated
12. Consider two beakers, beaker A containing 50 mL of liquid U and beaker B 50 mL of liquid U and R. The boiling
point of A is 90OC and that of B is 102OC. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. A will evaporate faster than B c. B will evaporate faster than A
b. Both A and B will evaporate at the same time d. Insufficient data to answer the question
13. Calculate the molar concentration of a solution that is 30% by wt ammonium nitrate and has a specific gravity of
1.1252.
a. 4.22 M b. 6.85 M c. 5.27 M d. 3.08 M
14. Calculate the pH of 3.5 x 10-3 M HNO3.
a. 2.46 b. 0.54 c. 3.00 d. 3.56
15. When 0.02 mole of a monoprotic acid is dissolved in 350 mL of water, the pH is 3.05. What is the ionization
constant of this acid?
a. 1.4 x 10-4 b. 1.4 x 10-5 c. 1.4 x 10-6 d. 1.4 x 10-8
16. A 1.500 g sample of impure AlCl3 was dissolved in water and treated with 45.32 mL of 0.1000 M AgNO 3 using
Mohr method. Determine its purity.
a. 40.28% b. 4.48% c. 13.43% d. 27.36%
17. How much 0.600 N base must be added to 750 mL of a 0.200 N base in order for the solution to be 0.300 N?
a. 300 mL b. 250 mL c. 225 mL d. 190 mL
18. In an airlift bioreactor, the spent gases released from the liquid are called
a. downcomer b. disengagement zone c. air riser d. flotsam
19. Biomass concentrations during fermentation is
a. diluting the samples to optical density less than 0.3
b. monitored by controlling the changes in biomass concentrations
c. considering that optical density is proportional to the surface area of the biomass in the sample
d. all of the above
20. Which of the following is taken as an assumption in the distributed model?
a. The reaction occurs at every position and the kinetics of the reaction are of the same form as observed for free
enzyme.
b. Mass transfer through the immobilized enzyme occurs via molecular diffusion
c. There is no mass transfer limitation at the outside surface of the spherical immobilized enzyme
d. All of the above
21. The immobilized enzyme produced by micro encapsulation technique provides
a. an extremely large surface area c. high amount of solvent
b. smaller surface area d. relatively smaller surface area
22. For a steady state condition, the change of substrate concentration (dC s/dt) is
a. zero b. 1 c. >1 d. <1
23. Doesn’t depend on the size of the system.
a. intensive b. extensive c. isolated d. bound system
24. What is the enthalpy change at 358K? (Refer data below)
Constant Pressure Heat Capacities at 1atm and 25 oC.
COMPOUND Cp (J/mol/K)
Fe2O3(s) 103.8
H2(g) 28.8
Fe(s) 25.1
H2O(l) 75.3
a. – 33.29 b. – 31.89 c. – 28.10 d. – 22.89
25. The entropy of all perfect crystalline solids at absolute zero is ________.
a. 1 b. <1 c. >1 d. 0
26. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true except
a. The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.
b. The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.
c. Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.
d. The carbonyl group is planar
27. Methyl tertiary butyl ether produced by an acid catalyzed reaction of methanol with isobutene is
a. octane improver of gasoline c. plasticizer
b. defoaming reagent d. liquid detergent
28. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the unit cell
a. 1/8 b. 1/4 c. 1/2 d. 1/3
29. A solution was prepared by mixing 5 mL of an unknown solution containing Fe 3+ with 5 mL of standard K2Cr2O7
containing 9.5 ppm Cr and diluting to 50 mL. When the light absorbed by the Cr present and the light absorbed by
the Fe present were measured with an atomic absorption instrument, the light absorbed by Fe was recorded as
1.15 and the Cr was recorded as 0.93. Because the iron was being analyzed by adding an internal standard, a
second experiment was required where known quantities of Fe and Cr were analyzed. In this experiment, it was
found that the ratio of Fe light absorbed to Cr light absorbed was 0.86. The ratio of the Fe concentration to Cr
concentration was 1.34. Find the concentration of Fe in the unknown.
a. 1.43 ppm b. 2.86 ppm c. 18.3 ppm d. 36.6 ppm
30. Calculate the exact alkalinity (in mg/L) of water that contains 0.658ppm of bicarbonate, as the ion, at a pH of 5.66?
a. 0.4302 b. 0.7854 c. 1.2378 d. 2.3009
31. Which of the following is NOT a reason on why we need to add lime in lime-soda softening?
a. remove NCH b. raise pH c. remove CO2 d. destroy H2CO2
32. A glass electrode with an internal pH of 7 is dipped into a solution whose pH is 10.4. If the factor b (factor accounting
for the difference in the activity of the analyte and the internal solution) is 0.98, how much voltage is generated by
the pH gradient?
a. 0.197 V b. 0.201 V c. 0.406 V d. 0.603 V
33. Which of the following compounds is AROMATIC?
a. b. c. d.
34. Part of a certain DNA sequence is GGTCTATAC. What is the complementary sequence?
a. CCAGATATG b. TTGAGCGCA c. AAGTGTTAC d. CCGTGTCAG
35. The average person generates about 2500 kcal of heat a day. Walking briskly dissipates energy at 500W. What
fraction of the day’s energy does walking for an hour represents.
a. 0.172 b. 0.200 c. 0.430 d. 0.117
36. A water treatment plant has 4 clarifiers treated 4 MGD of water. Each clarifier is 16 ft wide, 80 ft long and 15 ft
deep. Determine the detention time in hours.
a. 28 min b. 52 min c. 3.35 hrs d. 4.12 hrs
37. A 0.02M solution of sodium salt(NaA) has a pH of 8. Calculate the Ka of the acid HA.
a. 1 x 10-6 b. 2 x 10-4 c. 5 x 10-11 d. 1.5 x 10-4
38. Reingleman chart is used for the evaluation of __________ pollution.
a. air b. water c. noise d. radioactive
39. Evaluate S0 (J/K)for the reaction below at 25°C and 1 atm.
NO2(g) + H2O( ) HNO3(aq) + NO(g)
S0 240 69.91 146 210.7
(J/mol•K)
a. 136.2 b. -287.2 c. 46.79 d. -46.79
40. Zinc in a 565.75 mg sample of a foot powder was titrated with 27.27 ml of 0.01690 EDTA. Calculate the %Zn in
the sample.
a. 5.33% b. 10.65% c. 12.0% d. 15.5%
41. When [S] = 0.1 *KM, the velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is about:
a. 0.1 * Vmax b. 0.3 * Vmax c. 0.5 * Vmax d. 0.7 * Vmax
42. The oxygen uptake requirements of a microbial population is characertized by the following parameters:
μm = 0.2 h-1 KO=0.2 mg O2/L YO = 0.5 mg dry weight.
mgO2 CO,crit =0.8 mg/L. The required concentration of cells is 1000 mg/L and the saturation oxygen concentration
of the medium is 5.8 mg/L. The required kLa must be greater than:
a. 8/hr b. 16/hr c. 32/hr d. 64/hr
43. The single largest use of phosphoric acid is in the production of fertilizer. How many grams of phosphoric acid (with
excess NH3) are required to produce 800 g of (NH4)2HPO4, a common fertilizer?
a. 1186 g b. 787 g c. 593 g d. 415 g
44. The Dumas method is used
a. in the determination of the molecular weight of a gas
b. to correct for buoyancy in the analytical; balance
c. to determine relative humidity
d. in X-ray diffraction studies
45. The time taken for a certain volume of gas to steam through a small hole was 1.44 minutes. Under exactly the same
condition equal volume of oxygen took 1.80 minutes to pass. The approximate density of the gas relative to oxygen
(ρoxygen = 1.43 g/L) is:
a. 2.23 b. 1.79 c. 0.92 d. 0.60
46. All of the following alloying elements of steel increases hardness but sacrifice ductility, except
a. nickel b. vanadium c. molybdenum d. chromium
47. Fog is an example of colloidal system of
a. solid dispersed in gas c. liquid dispersed in gas
b. solid dispersed in liquid d. gas dispersed in liquid
48. A solar cell converts the sunlight directly into __________ energy.
a. thermal b. electrical c. mechanical d. chemical
49. If a nuclear reactor produces more fissile nuclear fuel than it consumes, then it is called a __________ reactor.
a. critical b. breeder c. fertile d. heterogenous
50. Cobalt-60 is used as a source of _____ in medical therapy and industrial radiography.
a. x-rays b. γ-rays c. α-rays d. β-rays
51. If the isotopic mass of deuterium is 2.01474, how much energy could be obtained from the nuclear fusion of 1 lb
of deuterium into helium?
a. 25.0253 cal b. 17.8901 cal c. 6.48 x 1013 cal d. 2.56 x 1013 cal
52. Calculate the most probable velocity per unit velocity interval of a thermal neutron at 300K.
a. 0.0258 eV b. 1.9021 eV c. 0.0555 eV d. 1.0192 eV
53. A 1000-W radio transmitter operates at a frequency of 880 kHz. How many photons per second does it emit?
a. 2.11 x 1030 b. 1.89 x 1030 c. 1.71 x 1030 d. 3.01 x 1030
54. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission in tungsten is 2,300 A. What wavelength of light must be
used in order for electrons with a maximum energy of 1.5 eV to be ejected?
a. 5.4 Ao b. 6.9 Ao c. 1600 Ao d. 1800 Ao
55. What is the wavelength of a gamma photon having an energy of 1 MeV?
a. 1.2300 Ao b. 0.0124 Ao c. 1.0021 Ao d. 0.0891 Ao
56. Mass of an electron in an atom
a. 1.00898 amu b. 1.00759 amu c. 0.00055 amu d. NOTA
57. The energy which was emitted in the formation of the nuclide from its fundamental particles.
a. valence b. electron capture c. binding energy d. kinetic energy
58. Occurs whenever a nucleus is in an excited state.
a. alpha emission b. gamma emission c. (-) beta emission d. (+) beta emission
59. Other name for natural alkalinity
a. buffering capacity b. exchange capacity c. base capacity d. acid capacity
60. A step wherein rinse water flows at the same flow rate as the service flow rate to remove any remaining
regenerating solution.
a. backwash b. regeneration c. slow rinse d. fast rinse
61. A wall with perforations common to the flocculation basin and the sedimentation basin for even flow distribution
a. cross baffle b. diffuser c. hopper d. weir
62. The following can be removed via nanofiltration EXCEPT
a. bacteria b. dissolved organic matter c. viruses d. monovalent species
63. Ethyl Bromide and methyl bromide are mixed and reacted via the Wurtz method. The products of the reaction
contains:
a. 2 and 4 C, respectively b. 3 C only c. 2 C only d. 2 and 3 C, respectively
64. Following Markownikoff’s Rule, when 1-butene is reacted with HOCl, the main product is;
a. 1-chloro-2-butanol b. 2-chloro-3-butanol c. 2-butanol d. n-butane
65. Which among the following is the strongest acid?
a. CH2BrCOOH b. CHBr2COOH c. CH3COOH d. CHCl2COOH
66. The following are polymers, except
a. natural rubber b. PVC c. dynamite d. protein
67. An unsaturated fatty acid with one double bond in the chain:
a. stearic b. oleic c. linoleic d. linolenic
68. For thorough mixing up coagulant with the water, violent agitation is done in
a. Sedimentation tank b. Clari-flocculator c. Flash mixer d. Pressure filter
69. It is a measure of dissolved oxygen required by microorganisms to stabilize the organic matter in 5-day.
a. 5-day BOD b. BOD5 c. BODu d. Oxygen Deficit
70. Removal of the soluble organics that escape the primary treatment and to provide further removal of suspended
solids.
a. biological treatment b. advanced treatment c. tertiary treatment d. AOTA
71. A 4.971-g sample containing the mineral tellurite was dissolved and then treated with 50.00 mL of 0.03114 M
K2Cr2O7:
3 TeO2 + Cr2O72- + 8 H+ → 3 H2TeO4 + 2 Cr3+ + H2O
When the reaction is complete, the excess Cr2O72- required a 10.05-mL back-titration with 0.1135 M Fe2+. Calculate
the percentage of TeO2 in the sample.
a. 9.14% b. 13.17% c. 17.78% d. 21.98%
72. The solubility product of silver sulfate if the solubility of the salt is 5.7 x 10 -3 g/ml?
a. 2.4 x 10-5 b. 3.3 x 10-5 c. 7.8 x 10-4 d. 4.5 x 10-4
73. 0.180 g of metal upon reaction with excess hydrochloric acid produced 24.6 ml of hydrogen gas at 270C and 1
atmospheric pressure. What is the equivalent weight of the metal?
a. 36 b. 45 c. 90 d. 180
74. One hundred ml of river water sample is analyzed for its chloride content. If the sample required 5.10 ml of 0.0100M
AgNO3 for titration, what is the ppm Cl in the sample?
a. 1.18 b. 3.61 c. 18.08 d. 36.16
75. Naturally the purest form of water is water
a. rain b. river c. glacier d. sea
76. Determine the 1 day BOD of a sample wastewater if its BOD5 is 135 mg/L with a rate constant of 0.23/day.
a. 197.5 b. 51.1 c. 40.6 d. 23.89
77. A 35 ml sample of wastewater is diluted to a volume of 300 ml, after which a 5 day incubation resulted to a dissolved
oxygen content of 4.55 mg/L. Calculate the initial DO of the diluted sample if the 5 day BOD is 30 ppm.
a. 5 b. 8 c. 12 d. 15
78. The rate of effusion of a particular gas was measured to be 24.0 mL/min. Under the same conditions the rate of
effusion of pure methane gas is 47.8 mL/min. Calculate the molar mass of the unknown gas.
a. 63.7 b. 44 c. 56.1 d. 72
79. What weight of ice could be melted at 00C by the heat liberated by condensing 100g steam at 1000C to liquid?
Heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g Heat of fusion = 80 cal/g
a. -675 g b. 675 g c. -660 g d. 660 g
80. A 5 amp current is passing for 3 hours and 30 minutes through this electrolytic cell in which iron metal is
deposited on the cathode. If the efficiency of the process is 68%, how many grams of iron are deposited?
a. 1.66 b. 2.44 c. 8.26 d. 12.19
81. What is the actual emf (EACTUAL) of the cell :
Cu0/ Cu+2// Ag+/Ag0 at 250C if [Cu+2]=0.1M and [Ag+]=0.1M? The standard reduction potentials of Cu and Ag
are as follows: Cu+2 + 2e  Cu0, Ag+ + 1e  Ag0
a. 0.40 V b. 0.43 V c. 0.46 V d. 1.14 V
82. The odor and presence of this chemical should be controlled due to the toxicity attributed to it
a. methane b. chlorine c. fluorine d. hydrogen sulfide
83. A 25 gram sample of oils is dissolved in 50 ml of ethyl alcohol. The sample was titrated with 12 ml of 0.08M KOH
using phenolphthalein indicator. Find the acid number.
a. 4.80 b. 4.30 c. 2.15 d. 1.89
84. Given: HCN(aq)  H+(aq) + CN-(aq). What is the pH of an HCN solution that is 0.135M initially? The K a of HCN is 4.9
x 10-10.
a. 9.31 b. 5.09 c. 4.66 d. 0.87
85. Calculate the exact alkalinity (in mg/L) of water that contains 0.658ppm of bicarbonate, as the ion, at a pH of 5.66?
a. 0.4302 b. 0.8789 c. 1.4357 d. 2.3008
86. Zinc in a 565.75 mg sample of a foot powder was titrated with 27.27 ml of 0.01690 EDTA. Calculate the %Zn in
the sample.
a. 5.33% b. 10.65% c. 12.0% d. 15.5%
87. Charcoal samples taken from holes dug at Stonehenge have a carbon-14 specific activity of 9.50 dpm per gram
carbon. Living wood has a specific activity of 15.3 dpm per gram of carbon. Given the half-life of carbon 14 is
5730 years. How long ago (in years) was the wood part of a living plant?
a. 3550 b. 3940 c. 5700 d. 9230
88. Oxidation of secondary alcohols yields
a. acids b. aldehyde c. ketone d. anhydride
89. Common equipment for direct measure of turbidity.
a. Imhoff cone b. NTU c. Spectrophotometer d. Secchi disk
90. The turbine in a hydraulic plant is fed by water falling from a height of 30 m. Assuming 95% efficiency of
converting potential energy to electrical energy and 10% loss of resulting power in transmission, how many MT of
water per hr are needed to keep a 100W light bulb burning?
a. 1.29 b. 1.43 c. 1.65 d. 1.77
91. The densities of liquid and solid mercury are 13.7 and 14.19 g/cc respectively at a melting point of –38.87C. The
heat of fusion of Hg is 566 cal/g-atom. The change in melting point per atmosphere change in pressure is
a. 0.505 K b. 0.013 K c. 0.0051 K d. 0.231 K
92. A sphere of radius 0.35 cm and a density of 1.37 g/mL falls at a constant velocity through a liquid of density 0.758
g/mL and a viscosity of 1.05 poise. What is the velocity of the falling sphere in cm/sec?
a. 11.14 b. 15.55 c. 18.63 d. 21.04
93. Parameter which will indicate the affinity of the enzyme for a given substrate
a. Vo b. Km c. Vmax d. [E]
94. Amino acid that is considered as “brain food” that improves mental capacity or memory
a. histidine b. lysine c. glycine d. glutamic acid
95. Which of the following metabolic pathways results in a net gain of two ATP and zero NADH molecules per
glucose molecule?
a. glycolysis b. fermentation c. krebs cycle d. ETC
96. Given the following substrate concentrations with the corresponding enzyme velocity reactions, estimate the K M
value using Lineweaver-Burke plot.
[S], mM 0.50 1 2 4
V, mM s-1 2 4 6.67 10
a. 2.60 mM b. 4.0 mM c. 6.40 mM d. 8.50 mM
97. Which sequence shows the “central dogma” of molecular biology?
a. DNAproteinamino b. RNAproteinDNA c. RNADNAprotein d. DNARNAprotein
acids
98. Silver crystallizes with a face-centered cubic unit cell. The radius of a silver atom is 0.144 nm. Calculate the
density (g/mL) of solid silver.
a. 24.8 b. 21.2 c. 15.7 d. 10.6
99. Which of the following organic compounds has the highest boiling point?
a. pentone b. diethyl ether c. butanol d. butanal
100.Calculate the BOD of a wastewater sample if 10 mL sample are mixed with dilution water containing 9.50 mg/L of
DO. The DO content of the mixture is 6.7 mg/L after a 5-day incubation at 20oC. Assume that the initial DO of
wastewater sample is zero.
a. 102 b. 91 c. 87 d. 75