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NATIONAL SCIENCE OLYMPIAD

CLASS

5 Years (2014-2018)
Solved Papers 10

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CLASS 10

Contents
ÂÂ NSO 2014 - SET A

ÂÂ NSO 2014 - SET B

ÂÂ NSO 2015 - SET 1

ÂÂ NSO 2015 - SET 2

ÂÂ NSO 2016 - SET A

ÂÂ NSO 2016 - SET B

ÂÂ NSO 2017 - SET A

ÂÂ NSO 2017 - SET B

ÂÂ NSO 2018 - SET A

ÂÂ NSO 2018 - SET B


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Set A

Year 2014
17th NSO - SET A 2

Logical reasoning

1. If yesterday was Saturday’s tomorrow and tomorrow A. 4 B. 5


is Wednesday’s yesterday, then what day would it be C. 6 D. 2
today?
6. There are seven figures, the first and last of which
A. Sunday B. Monday
are unmarked, and the remaining are marked as
C. Tuesday D. Friday
P, Q, R, S and T. These seven figures form a series.
2. In the following letter series, some of the letters are However, one of the five marked figures does not
missing which are given in that order as one of the fit into the series. Identify that figure in the given
options below it. Select the correct option. options.
ba cb b bab
A. acbb B. bacc
C. bcab D. cabb

3. Study the following information and answer the A. P B. Q


question given below. C. R D. S
I. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row 7. A large cube is dipped into a tub filled with colour.
facing North. When the cube is taken out, it is observed that all its
II. B is not a neighbour of G. sides are painted. This large cube is now cut into 125
III. F is at the immediate right of G and neighbour of E. small but identical cubes. How many of the smaller
IV. G is not at the extreme end. cubes have exactly three faces painted?
V. A is sixth to the left of E. A. 4 B. 8
VI. H is sixth to the right of C. C. 9 D. None of these
After making the linear arrangement, we join them
to form a circular arrangement by joining A and H. 8. Select the mirror image of given combination, if the
Which of the following is the odd one out? mirror is placed vertically to the left.
A. B-D B. E-F
C. A-C D. H-G A. B.
C. D.
4. The positions of four policemen A, B, C and D is
given in a circular park. The park is divided into 9. Following two figures show the expenditure on various
sixteen plots. P, Q, R and K are the offenders whom items by families A and B. Which of the conclusions
they have to catch after given moves. The given given below is not correct?
figure shows their positions. (Note that the by-lanes
are North-South and East-West.)

If A, B, C and D were to move clockwise four plots A. A spends more on food than B.
and P, Q, R and K were to move anti-clockwise six B. B spends more on clothing than A.
plots, then out of the given options, who two would C. B spends equal amounts on food and clothing.
be North and South respectively? D. A spends more on rent than on any other item.
A. P and A B. R and D
10. In a certain code language, the letters immediate next
C. Q and B D. P and C
to vowels are replaced with D, all other consonants
5. In the following number series, how many 4s are with preceding letters and the vowels are replaced
there, which are immediately preceded by a pair of with Z. How will the word STANDING be written
numbers whose product is more than the product of in that code language?
the pair of numbers immediately following 4? A. RSZMCZMF B. TSZMCZFM
534648947645748448023431472 C. RSZMCZDF D. RSZDCZDF
17th NSO - SET A 3
11. In the following question, a related pair of figures is
followed by four other pairs of figures. Out of the four
pairs, select the pair that has a relationship similar
to that in the question pair. The best answer is to
be selected from a group of fairly close choices.
A. B.

C. D.

A.
14. P is the son of Q while Q and R are sisters to one
another. T is the mother of R. If S is the son of T,
which of the following statements is correct?
B. A. T is the brother of Q.
B. S is the cousin of P.
C. Q and S are sisters.
D. S is the maternal uncle of P.
C.
15. Figures P, Q and R shows a sequence of folding of a
piece of paper. Figure R shows the manner in which
the folded paper has been cut. Select a figure from
D. the options which would most closely resemble the
unfolded form of figure R.

12. A set of figures carrying certain characters is given.


Assuming that the characters in each set follow a
similar pattern, find the missing character.
A. 13
A. B.
B. 15
C. 17
D. 19
C. D.
13. Select the figure from the options which will replace
the question mark (?) in the given series.

Science

16. A body is suspended from a spring balance kept in B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
a satellite. The reading of the balance is W1 when is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
the satellite goes in an orbit of radius R and is W2 C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
when it goes in an orbit of radius 2R. Then D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
A. W1 = W2 B. W1 < W2
C. W1 > W2 D. W1 ≠ W2 18. Three identical resistors are connected across a voltage
source V such that one of them is in parallel with
17. Read the given statements and mark the correct other two, which are connected in series as shown.
option. The power dissipated through the first one, compared
Statement 1 : Magnetic field is not associated with to the power dissipated by each of the other two is
a stationary charge. _______.
Statement 2 : Magnetic field can be detected by means A. The same
of its effect on a current carrying conductor. B. Half as much
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 C. Twice as much
is the correct explanation of statement 1. D. Four times as much
V
17th NSO - SET A 4
19. A coordinate axis as shown in figure is kept in front −13 7
C. m D. m
of a converging lens at a distance 2f from it, where 7 13
f is the focal length of the lens. Y
Which of the following shows 24. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to its initial direction, travelling in air.
the approximate shape of the
X The particle is seen to follow the path as shown in
image? Assume that X-axis is the
the figure.
principal axis of the lens.
Z (i) The magnetic field Entry
Y strength may have been
Z
increased while the particle
was travelling in air. B
A. X B. X (ii) The particle lost energy by ionising the air.
(iii) The particle lost charge by ionising the air.
Z Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Y A. (ii) only B. (i) and (ii)
Z Y C. (ii) and (iii) D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

C. X D. 25. The height of mercury in a barometer at sea level


X is higher than that at the top of a hill. Which of
the following inferences about this observation is
Y Z correct?
A. The air molecules at sea level have higher mass
20. A box of mass 2 kg has an initial speed of 10 m s–1 than that of at the top of a hill.
at the foot of the ramp. B. The air molecules at sea level experience less
Given that the friction gravitational force than that of at the top of a
along the ramp is 2 N, –1 hill.
find the height h that s
m h C. The air molecules per unit volume at sea level are
the box reaches when its 10 greater than that of at the top of a hill.
speed is 5 m s–1. 2 kg 60° D. The speed of air molecules at sea level is lower
(Take g = 10 N kg ) –1
than that of at the top of a hill.
A. 2.5 m B. 3.4 m
C. 4.0 m D. 6.0 m 26. Nandita mixed two solutions X and Y. She recorded
the following observations and conclusions in her
21. A boy stands between two vertical walls. After making notebook.
a loud clap, he hears two echoes at an interval of I. A yellow precipitate is formed.
1 s. If the distance between the two walls is 1000 m, II. It is a double displacement reaction.
what is his distance from the nearest wall? The solutions X and Y respectively are
(Take speed of sound = 300 m s–1). A. Pb(NO3)2 , KI B. AgNO3, NaCl
A. 425 m B. 215 m C. Na2SO4, BaCl2 D. FeCl3, NH4OH
C. 265 m D. 365 m
27. Which of the following is not an isotope of the other
22. Energy released in the fission of 1 kg of U-235 is three?
equivalent to energy obtained from burning of coal
weighing approximately ______. 7p 8p
A. 8n
B. 9n
A. 25 ton B. 250 ton
C. 2500 ton D. 25000 ton

7p 7p
23. A glass sphere of radius 1 m and refractive index C. D. 7n
6n
3
is silvered at its back. A point object is kept at
2
a distance of 1 m from the front face, as shown in 28. Compound X decolourises acidified potassium dichromate
figure. Find the position of the final image. to produce an acid with a pH value of 4.5. Which of
−5 the following could be the structure of X?
A. m 1m
7 A. CH3CH2COOH B. CH3CH2CH2OH
7
B. m 1m C. CH2 CH CH3 D. CH3CH2CH3
5
17th NSO - SET A 5
29. The positions of four elements K, L, M and N in the 33. Three hydrocarbons X, Y and Z are shown below:
periodic table are shown below : X : CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3; Y :
Group 13 Group 14 Group 15 Z : CH3CH2 CH CH CH3
K – – Identify the incorrect statements about these three
– L – hydrocarbons.
Ga M N I. X and Y both differ by a CH2 unit.
II. X and Z have the same boiling point.
Which of the following statements are correct?
III. All have different general formulae.
I. K, L, M and N are metalloids.
IV. Y and Z have different molecular masses.
II. K is a metal while L, M and N are non-metals.
A. I and II
III. Among these four elements, K is the smallest in
B. II and III
size.
C. I and IV
IV. K is a metal while L and M are metalloids and N
D. All the statements are incorrect.
is a non‑metal.
A. II and III B. I and III 34. Study the given graphs carefully.
C. III and IV D. None of these

30. Five students have different amounts of substances.


Nitika : 6.022 × 1024 atoms of Ca
Sagar : 2 g of C
Pooja : 0.5 g atom of Ag
Ranjan : 0.3 mole of H2SO4
Yash : 6.022 × 1025 atoms of CO2
[At. wts. of Ag = 108 u, S = 32 u, Ca = 40 u, C = 12 u, Graph-1 : The heating curve of substance P
H = 1 u, O = 16 u]
Arrange the students in decreasing order of masses of
the substances that they have.
A. Sagar > Ranjan > Pooja > Nitika > Yash
B. Yash > Nitika > Ranjan > Pooja > Sagar
C. Yash > Nitika > Pooja > Ranjan > Sagar
D. Pooja > Sagar > Yash > Ranjan > Nitika

31. Four solutions labelled as P, Q, R and S have pH


Graph-2 : The cooling curve of substance Q
values 1, 9, 3 and 13 respectively.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Which of the following statements about the given
A. The melting point of the substance P is 200°C.
solutions is incorrect?
B. The boiling point of the substance Q is 50°C.
A. Solution P has higher concentration of hydrogen
C. At point ‘b’, the substance P exists in both solid
ions than solution R.
and liquid states.
B. Solution Q has lower concentration of hydroxyl
D. At point ‘x’, the substance Q exists in both liquid
ions than solution S.
and gaseous states while at point ‘d’, the substance
C. Solutions P and Q will turn red litmus solution
P exists in both gaseous and liquid states.
blue.
D. Solution P is highly acidic while solution Q is 35. Aditya accidentally mixed copper sulphate crystals
weakly basic. with sand. How can he recover the copper sulphate
crystals?
32. The atomic numbers of some elements are given
1. Add water to the mixture and filter.
below : 2. Evaporate the filtrate to dryness.
Element M N O P Q 3. Heat the filtrate until it is saturated, and let it
Atomic number 15 9 3 18 12 cool.
4. Wash the residue, and dry it between sheets of
The number of valence electrons 8, 2, 1, 7 and 5
respectively are present in filter paper.
A. Q, P, O, N, M B. N, O, Q, M, P A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3
C. P, Q, O, N, M D. O, P, N, M, Q C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1 and 4
17th NSO - SET A 6
36. Identify the given organisms, match them with their 39. Given are different parts of respiratory tract.
peculiar features as shown in the table and select the P. Nasal cavity Q. Alveolar duct
option with all the correct matches. R. Larynx
S. Respiratory bronchioles
T. Epiglottis U. Terminal bronchioles
V. Lobular bronchioles W. Trachea
X. Bronchus

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Which path a molecule of carbon dioxide in the
alveolus of the inferior lobe of lung takes on its
P Unicellular T Cell wall present
journey to the outside?
Q Multicellular U Cell wall absent A. Q → U → S → V → X → W → R → T → P
R Prokaryotic V Autotrophic B. Q → S → U → V → X → W → T → R → P
S Eukaryotic W Heterotrophic C. Q → S → U → V → X → W → R → T → P
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) D. Q → S → U → X → V → W → R → T → P
A. P, R, U, V P, S, V P, S, W, U Q, S, V, W
40. A large forest area got burnt in a massive fire. The
B. P, R, V, T P, S, V P, S, U, W Q, S, U, W
species that would invade such bared area to rapidly
C. P, R, U, V P, S, V Q, S, W, U Q, S, T, W
colonize it have __________ , __________ and
D. P, R, V, T P, S, V P, S, W, U Q, S, T, W
__________ characteristics.
37. Albumin is the most abundant protein in blood plasma, Fill up the blanks from the given choices and select
accounting for approximately 60% of all plasma the correct option.
protein. A person was found to have reduced level of (i) Long lifespan (ii) Rapid reproduction
plasma albumin due to kidney damage. Which of the (iii) Fast growth
labelled part(s) would you expect to be the primary (iv) Strong dispersal ability
site of damage for this patient? (v) Strong defense against natural enemies or
predators.
(vi) Large sized individuals
A. (i), (ii), (iii) B. (ii), (iii), (iv)
C. (i), (iv), (vi) D. (iii), (iv), (vi)

41. (i) SER (ii) Golgi apparatus


(iii) Lysosome (iv) RER
(v) Ribosome (vi) ER
Using the words in the box complete the synthesis
process of digestive enzymes before their exocytosis
then select the option that will complete the following
passage correctly.
A. U, T B. P only
1. The (a) provides extensive surface on which (b)
C. R only D. P, Q, S
carry protein synthesis or synthesis of digestive
38. Four seedlings of equal size and length are taken and enzymes.
given different treatments: 2. Synthesized enzymes enter (c) and then (d)
Plant P : Tip not removed, nothing applied. for modification.
Plant Q : Tip removed, nothing applied. 3. The modified enzymes are stored in (e) which
Plant R : Tip removed, gelatin block was placed on pass outwardly and fuse with plasma membrane
cut edge. during exocytosis.
Plant S : Tip removed, gelatin block with auxin was (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
placed on cut edge. A. (iv) (v) (vi) (ii) (iii)
What would be the correct order of growth rates of B. (iv) (v) (vi) (iii) (ii)
the plants?
C. (i) (v) (vi) (ii) (iii)
A. S > P > R > Q B. S > R > P > Q
D. (i) (v) (vi) (iii) (ii)
C. P > R > Q > S D. P > S > Q > R
17th NSO - SET A 7
42. R is an organic compound containing only carbon, A. (i), (iii), (iv), (v) B. (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
chlorine and fluorine. It is produced as a volatile C. (ii), (iv), (vi) D. (ii), (iv), (v)
derivative of methane, ethane and propane. It has
44. The given graph shows the concentration of dissolved
been widely used as refrigerant, propellent and
oxygen along a river. At which point is sewage
solvent. Montreal protocol phased out manufacture
emptied into the river?
of such compounds because R contributes to S in the
atmosphere. A. P
Which of the following would not be a consequence
of S? B. Q
A. Increased incidence of severe sunburns
C. R
B. Increased incidence of cataracts
C. Increased incidence of premature skin aging D. S
D. Increased rates of lung cancer
45. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct
43. Rohan made the following statements option from the codes given below.
regarding the section of a tissue as Column-I Column-II
shown in the given figure. (a) Increased egg production (i) Viral disease
(i) It provides mechanical support (b) White leghorn (ii) Carp
to the plants. (c) Ranikhet (iii) Fish by-product
(ii) Its cell wall shows localized (d) Isinglass (iv) Layers
thickenings. (e) Silver carp (v) Exotic fish
(iii) Cells are dead. (f) Bombay duck (vi) Silver revolution
(iv) Cells are filled with protoplasm and have narrow (g) Rohu and Catla (vii) Marine fish
lumen. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g)
(v) Cells have hard secondary walls. A. (iv) (vi) (i) (iii) (v) (vii) (ii)
(vi) It is distributed in almost all parts of the plant B. (vi) (iv) (i) (iii) (vii) (v) (ii)
body. C. (vi) (iv) (i) (vii) (v) (iii) (ii)
Which among them are incorrect? D. (vi) (iv) (i) (iii) (v) (vii) (ii)

Achievers Section

Direction (Q. 46 & 47): Refer to the given passage and A. (a)-(v), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii), (e)-(i)
answer the following questions. B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii), (e)-(i)
Metals are extracted from their ores by different methods C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(i)
depending on their position in the activity series. D. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii), (e)-(iv)

47. Metals which are extracted by heating, electrolysis


and by reduction with carbon respectively are
A. Copper, magnesium, zinc
B. Mercury, aluminium, lead
C. Mercury, sodium, calcium
D. Both A and B

48. The dwarf variety of garden pea plants are now known
to have a mutation in a gene needed for synthesis
of gibberellin. F1 plant obtained by Mendel from the
tall (TT) × dwarf (tt) cross were tall.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn
from the given information?
46. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the (i) Gibberellin causes elongation of stems.
correct option from the codes given below. (ii) Heterozygous (Tt) plants produce the same amount
Column-I Column-II of gibberellin as homozygous dominant (TT)
(a) Highly reactive metals (i) S plants.
(b) Calcination (ii) T (iii) Gibberellin induces production of auxin.
(c) Electrolytic reduction (iii) P (iv) Mutation may have occurred in a gene producing
(d) Less reactive metals (iv) R an enzyme.
(e) Roasting (v) Q
17th NSO - SET A 8
A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii), (iii) and (iv) B. The hormone produced by structure ‘R’stimulates the
C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) D. (i), (ii) and (iv) pituitary gland to secrete luteinizing hormone.
C. The hormone produced by structure ‘S’ is
49. The given figure shows monthly changes in the
responsible for the development of female
human ovary during the reproductive cycle.
secondary sex characters.
D. The hormones produced by ‘P’ and ‘Q’ stimulate
the proliferation of the endometrial lining of the
uterine wall.

50. A particle starts from rest at time t = 0 and moves


in a straight line with acceleration as plotted in given
graph. The speed of the particle will be maximum at
time ____.

A. 1s

Which of the following statements is most accurate B. 2s


regarding the labelled structure(s)?
C. 3s
A. Before puberty, only structure ‘T’ undergoes
meiosis. D. 4s

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK


Class 10

Set B

Year 2014
17th NSO - SET B 2

Logical Reasoning

1. Some of the letters are missing which are given in 7. Mr. Sinha has six children – Pankaj, Ravi, Varun,
that order as one of the options below it. Select the Amit, Vikas and Prateek. They all were born on 13th
correct option. November, but each was born in a different year,
__ __ aba __ __ ba __ ab during six consecutive years. It is also known that
A. abbba B. abbab (i) Pankaj is elder to Varun.
C. baabb D. bbaba (ii) Ravi is elder to both Amit and Vikas.
(iii) Prateek is two years older than Amit.
2. In the given number series, how many 9s are there (iv) Pankaj was born either in the year 2002 or
which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers 2003.
whose product is more than the product of the pair (v) The oldest member of the group was born in the
of numbers immediately following 9? year 2000.
87 996845938492519226943925 (vi) Amit is elder to both Vikas and Varun.
89 37 Which of the following is the correct list of the group,
A. 4 B. 3 from the youngest to the oldest?
C. 6 D. 5 A. Varun, Pankaj, Ravi, Amit, Vikas, Prateek
B. Varun, Vikas, Pankaj, Amit, Prateek, Ravi
3. If A is coded as 5, L as 16, J as 14 and so on. C. Varun, Vikas, Amit, Prateek, Pankaj, Ravi
Following this code, STAR is coded as 296, which D. Varun, Vikas, Amit, Pankaj, Prateek, Ravi
of the following represents the code of JAILER ?
A. 316 B. 395 8. Select the pair that has a relationship similar to the
C. 237 D. 553 pair in Fig. (X). The best answer is to be selected
from a group of fairly close choices.
4. Abhishek said that he was born on 29 February 1900.
What birthday will he celebrate in the year 2000?
A. 99th B. 25th
th I II
C. 100 D. Abhishek is lying
Fig. (X)

5. If the image of a figure in water is seen as , then


A. B.
what is the actual figure? I II I II

A. B. C. D.
I II I II

9. A group of four policemen A, B, C and D is


C. D. combining a circular park divided into sixteen
plots. P, Q, R and K are the offenders who they
have to catch after given moves. The figure below
shows their positions. Note that the by-lanes are
6. Study the Venn diagram carefully and select the
North-South and East-West.
correct statement.
N
A B C D

W E

K R Q P

S
A. There are some postgraduates who are rural
If both A, B, C, D and P, Q, R, K moves clockwise
people.
three plots, then who would be positioned North-East and
B. No professor is urban.
South-West from the given options respectively?
C. All post-graduates are rural. A. A and P B. C and P
D. All post-graduates are urban. C. D and Q D. B and R
17th NSO - SET B 3
10. Find the missing number, if the given matrix follows 13. There are seven figures, the first and last of which
a certain rule row-wise or column-wise. are un-numbered and the remaining are numbered as
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series.
8 6 7 However, one of the five numbered figures does not
3 7 5 fit into the series. Select the figure which does not
14 12 13 fit into the series.
9 13 ?

A. 9 B. 7 1 2 3 4 5
C. 13 D. 11 A. 1 B. 3
11. Select a figure from the options which will continue the C. 4 D. 2
series as established by the five problem figures. 14. Which of the following figures will complete the
Problem Figures given figure matrix?

A.

B.
A. B.
?
C.

C. D.
D.
12. Six different faces of a cube are coloured in three
different colours – black, green and blue. This cube
15. A is the brother of B. B is the brother of C. D is
is now cut into 216 smaller but identical cubes. If
the father of A. Which of the following statements
N is the number of cubes that is not coloured on
cannot be definitely true?
any of its faces, then which of the following best
A. B is the brother of A.
describes the value of N ?
B. B is the son of D.
A. 125 < N < 130 B. 120 ≤ N ≤ 125
C. A is the brother of C.
C. 115 ≤ N ≤ 120 D. 50 < N < 100 D. C is the brother of A.

Science

16. A network is constructed using five resistors, each 17. A constant current flows N
of resistance R, and three switches K1, K 2 and K 3. in a horizontal wire in the
Which switch combination will give rise to maximum plane of the paper from
total resistance between points X and Y? west to east as shown in the W E
R given figure. The direction
of magnetic field will be
R K1 S
R north to south, at a point W E
Y
X ______.
K2
R K3
R
A. Directly above the wire
K1 K 2 K3 B. Directly below the wire
A. Open Closed Open C. Located in the plane of the paper, on the north
B. Open Closed Closed side of the wire
C. Closed Closed Closed D. Located in the plane of the paper, on the south
D. Closed Open Closed side of the wire.
17th NSO - SET B 4
18. Read the given statements and select the correct 22. A heater, a fan and a bulb are connected to the
option. 12 V battery as shown in the given diagram.
Statement 1 : A concave mirror and a convex lens
both have the same focal length in air. When they
are submerged in water, they will still have the same
focal length.
Statement 2 : The refractive index of water is greater
than the refractive index of air.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is
the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is The fan with a resistance of R has a potential difference
not the correct explanation of statement 1. of 6 V across it and a current of 1 A through it. The
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. bulb has a current of 2 A flowing through it. Which
D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. of the following statements is true?
A. The voltage across the bulb is 6 V and its resistance
19. An explosion takes place at a distance of 3200 m away is 2R.
from a sound detector that detects only the sound coming B. The voltage across the bulb is 6 V and its resistance
from the ground. 1
The sound detector detects Explosion is R.
Sound 2
two sound signals at detector
0.64 s and 0.80 s after the C. The voltage across the heater is 6 V and its
Air
explosion. Find the depth resistance is 2 R.
x of the soft ground. 3200 m x D. The voltage across the heater is 6 V and its
Soft ground 1
A. 1200 m resistance is R.
B. 2400 m Hard ground 2
C. 3600 m 23. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding
D. 4800 m a typical solar cell?
(i) It develops a voltage of 0.5 to 1 volt.
20. A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm is dipped in
(ii) It can produce only upto 0.5 W of electricity.
water as shown in the given figure.
Given that the refractive S
(iii) It is made from silicon.
10 cm
(iv) Efficiency of solar cell is low.
4 (v) It is used for many scientific and technological
index of water is and object
3 applications.
5 cm
S is placed on the principal 3 A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
axis of the concave mirror. B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
The final image formed by C. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
Concave mirror
the system is at D. All of these
85
A. cm from water surface 24. Two identical balls, P and Q are being dropped from
4 different levels of a building. If ball P takes twice the
85 time than ball Q to reach the ground, then ______.
B. cm from mirror surface
4 A. The distance travelled by ball P is half the distance
94 travelled by ball Q
C. cm from water surface
3 B. The distance travelled by ball P is twice the
94 distance travelled by ball Q
D. cm from mirror surface. C. The distance travelled by ball P is four times the
3
distance travelled by ball Q
21. An acrobat swings from point P to Q as shown in D. The distance travelled by ball P is eight times the
the given figure. The length of the swinging rod is distance travelled by ball Q
5 m. The minimum initial speed, the acrobat must
have, at point P is (Take g = 10 N kg–1) 25. A satellite moves in a circle around the Earth. The
radius of this circle is equal to one half of the radius
A. 10 m s–1 of the Moon's orbit. The satellite completes one
revolution in
B. 20 m s–1
1 2
A. lunar month B. lunar month
C. 50 m s–1 2 3
D. Cannot be determined C. 21/2 lunar month D. 2–3/2 lunar month
17th NSO - SET B 5
26. Oxide M is a colourless gas. It reacts with oxygen to 31. A compound P contains two hydrogen, one sulphur and
form a reddish-brown gas, oxide N. The solubility of four oxygen atoms. Another compound Q contains five
oxides M and N in various solvents is shown below : hydrogen, one oxygen and one nitrogen atoms. The
Solvent Oxide M Oxide N formula of a new compound formed by the divalent
anion of P and monovalent cation of Q is
Water Insoluble Soluble
A. NH4HSO4 B. (NH4)2SO3
Aqueous NaOH Insoluble Soluble C. NH4HSO3 D. (NH4)2SO4
Hydrochloric acid Insoluble Insoluble
32. A part of the periodic table is given below :
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Oxide M is an acidic oxide. Groups 1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
B. Oxide M is an amphoteric oxide.
C. Oxide N is a basic oxide. Periods
D. Oxide N is an acidic oxide. 2 Q L R H
3 M
27. The boiling points of some gases found in air are 4 N V
given below : 5 G
Element Krypton Neon Nitrogen Oxygen (The letters are not the actual chemical symbols
Boiling of the elements.)
–152 –246 –196 –183
point (°C) Choose the incorrect statement among the following.
If liquid mixture is fractionally distilled, the order A. Q and R combine together to form a compound,
of gases distilled out (starting from first) is _____. Q 2 R 3.
A. Krypton, neon, nitrogen, oxygen B. N is a metal with valency 2 and L is a non-metal
B. Neon, nitrogen, oxygen, krypton with valency 3.
C. Nitrogen, neon, oxygen, krypton C. G is the most reactive metal and H is the most
D. Oxygen, neon, nitrogen, krypton reactive non-metal.
D. M for ms ionic compou nds and V is ver y
28. How many of the total number of electrons in a molecule reactive.
of ethyne C2H2 are not involved in bonding?
A. 4 B. 10 33. Schematic atomic structures of four different
C. 6 D. 0 elements 199P, 2412Q 2+, 28
14
R and 147S 3– are I, II, III and IV
respectively.
29. Study the given graph carefully.

I II

I. c and d contain same number of protons.


II. Pairs (a, b), ( f, g) and (i, j) are isobars.
III. Pairs (c, d) and (g, h) are isotopes.
IV. e and f have different number of neutrons. III IV
The correct statements are The incorrect representations are
A. I, II and IV B. I, III and IV A. I, II and IV B. I, III and IV
C. I and III D. All of these C. III and IV D. I and III

Metal X 34. In the following reactions ethanol is either a reactant


30. Strips of metal X were
or product.
dipped into two solutions
I. Combustion of ethanol
as shown below :
II. Dehydration of ethanol to ethene
A greyish metallic III. Fermentation of glucose
deposit was found on Silver nitrate Zinc nitrate
solution solution IV. Oxidation of ethanol to ethanoic acid
both strips. The reactions in which water is also either a reactant
Which of the following could be metal X? or product are
A. Cu B. Mg A. I, III and IV B. II, III and IV
C. Pb D. Fe C. I, II and IV D. I and IV
17th NSO - SET B 6
35. The melting and boiling points of three pure substances 38. Cells without nucleoli die because they do not possess
X, Y and Z are given in the table. ______.
Substance Melting point Boiling point A. Centrioles and so are unable to undergo cell
(°C) (°C) division
B. Lysosomes and so are unable to destroy worn out
X 55 280
organelles
Y –6 65 C. Mitochondria and so are unable to obtain
Z – 100 – 34 energy
D. Ribosomes and so are unable to manufacture
At room temperature, 25°C
proteins.
A. Z is a gas
B. X is a volatile liquid 39. Pea plants can have smooth seeds or wrinkled seeds.
C. Y is a solid One of the phenotypes is completely dominant over
D. All are correct. the other. A farmer decides to pollinate one flower of
a plant with smooth seeds using pollen from a plant
36. Study carefully the key depicting the type of plant with wrinkled seeds. The resulting pea pod has all
tissues : smooth seeds. Which of the following conclusion(s)
Key : can be drawn?
Types of meristematic tissue – P, Q 1. The allele for smooth seeds is dominant over that
Types of permanent simple tissue – R, S for wrinkled seeds.
Types of parenchymatous tissue – T, U 2. The parent plant with smooth seeds is a
Identify these tissues (P to U) from the list of their homozygote.
3. The parent plant with wrinkled seeds is a
functions given below.
homozygote.
(i) It provides mechanical support, elasticity and
A. 1 only B. 2 only
tensile strength to the body.
C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
(ii) This tissue is responsible for linear growth of an
organ. Direction : Refer to the food web given below to answer
(iii) It provides a protective covering around seeds and questions 40 and 41.
nuts.
(iv) It provides buoyancy to aquatic plants to help
them float.
(v) It is responsible for growth of leaves and
internodes.
(vi) It performs the process of photosynthesis.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)
A. Q S T R U P
B. S Q R T P U
C. T U P Q S R
D. P Q T R U S
40. A non-biodegradable insecticide known as DDT
37. Refer to the diagramshowing was sprayed onto the pine trees. In which of the
the vascular tissue from a following organisms would most of the DDT eventually
dicotyledonous plant and accumulate?
answer the following A. Golden-crowned kinglet
question. B. Pine borer
Which of the following C. Salamander
statements correctly compares D. Snake
structures P and Q?
41. With reference to the given food web, which of the
A. P has cell wall made following statements is true?
of lignin, but Q has A. There is only one organism that makes organic
cell wall made of compounds from inorganic substances.
cellulose. B. There is no such one organism that converts organic
B. P transports substances only from roots to leaves, compounds into inorganic substances.
but Q transports substances in either direction. C. The inability of the oak tree to produce acorns
C. P comprises cells that largely lack cytoplasm, but would affect the red-tailed hawk more than the
Q comprises cells that possess cytoplasm. snake.
D. P contains water and mineral salts, while Q contains D. Removal of X would cause an increase in the
food substances in the form of starch. population of all the organisms.
17th NSO - SET B 7
42. The following data regarding two different plant C. (3)-Immunization, (4)-AIDS,
species was obtained. (5)-Tuberculosis
Plant Average Average Texture D. (3)-Vaccination, (4)-Syphilis, (5)-Jaundice
diameter mass of of pollen 44. Study the given flowchart. Which of the following
of pollen pollen grain are the correct examples of W, X, Y and Z?
grain/mm grain/mg
X 15 200 Smooth, dry
Y 45 1800 Spiky, sticky
What valid conclusion(s) can be drawn from the
data?
1. Plant Y is more likely to be wind-pollinated.
2. Plant Y is more likely to be self-pollinated than
plant X.
3. Since plant Y has larger and heavier pollen, a W X Y Z
larger mass of pollens must be produced by A. Ulothrix Marsilea Selaginella Cycas
plant Y per unit time to achieve the same efficiency B. Riccia Marsilea Cycas Ipomoea
of pollination as plant X. C. Lycopodium Marchantia Pinus Ipomoea
4. The stigma of plant X is likely to have a larger D. Spirogyra Dryopteris Funaria Pinus
surface area than those of plant Y.
A. 4 only B. 1 and 3 45. A student suggests that plant cells do not require
C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4 mitochondria since they have chloroplasts. Which of
the following statements would you use to convince
43. Read the following statements (a - c) and select the him otherwise?
option which correctly fills up the blanks in any two
A. Having both chloroplasts and mitochondria would
of the statements.
maximise the rate of photosynthesis.
(a) (1) is a bacterial disease, while (2) is a viral
disease. B. Having both chloroplasts and mitochondria would
(b) (3) is the mode of prevention of diseases. maximise the rate of energy production.
(c) (4) and (5) are diseases which spread through C. Mitochondria would be necessary at night
sexual act. when chloroplasts are no longer able to
A. (1)-Chicken pox, (2)-Typhoid, photosynthesize.
(4)-Syphilis, (5)-Cholera D. The chemical energy stored in glucose cannot
B. (1)-Cholera, (2)-Chicken pox, be efficiently utilized in the cell without
(3)-Prophylaxis mitochondria.

Achievers section

46. The plot represents 47. In the reaction, MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
the flow of current A. HCl is reduced to Cl2 whereas MnO2 is oxidised
through a wire at three to MnCl2
different times. The B. HCl is oxidised to H2O whereas MnO2 is reduced
ratio of charges flowing to MnCl2
through the wire at C. HCl is reduced to Cl2 whereas MnO2 is oxidised
different intervals is to H2O
A. 1 : 2 : 3 B. 1:1:1 D. HCl is oxidised to Cl2 whereas MnO2 is reduced
C. 3 : 2 : 2 D. 2:3:3 to MnCl2.
Direction (Q. No. 47 & 48): Refer to the given passage
48. Which of the following statements about the given
and answer the following questions.
reaction are not correct?
Redox reactions are those in which oxidation and reduction
Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2
take place simultaneously. Oxidation is the gain of oxygen
or loss of hydrogen while reduction is the loss of oxygen I. Fe2O3 is getting oxidised to Fe.
or gain of hydrogen. II. Fe2O3 is acting as a reducing agent.
Those given off in the oxidation are taken on by another III. CO is acting as a reducing agent.
species in the reduction reaction. IV. CO is getting reduced to CO2.
A substance which helps the other substance to undergo A. III only
oxidation is called an oxidising agent. Similarly, a substance B. I, II and IV
which helps the other substance to undergo reduction is C. II and IV
called a reducing agent. D. I and III
17th NSO - SET B 8
49. Refer to the diagram of the human digestive system 50. The graph below shows the hormonal changes during
to answer the following question. a normal menstrual cycle. What would be a likely
consequence if the hormone represented by graph Q
is lacking in an adult female?

What would be the likely consequence of swapping S


and T i.e., from the stomach, food will pass through
T to S? A. The uterine lining might not be sufficiently stable
A. The digestive enzymes would be denatured. to support an implanted embryo.
B. The intestinal contents would be highly alkaline B. Levels of the hormone represented by graph P
and would damage the wall of T. would be higher than normal.
C. The intestinal contents would be too dry and unable C. Fertilization of ovum would fail to occur.
to pass through S properly. D. There would be no significant effect since the
D. Water absorption would be highly reduced. functions of the hormones overlap.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Class 10

Set 1

Year 2015
logical reasoning

1. In a certain code language, ‘si po re’ means ‘book is Which area is cultivated by rice and maize only?
thick’, ‘ti ma re’ means ‘bag is heavy’, ‘ka si’ means A. 9 B. 8
‘interesting book’ and ‘de ti’ means ‘that bag’. Which C. 2 D. 7
of the following means ‘that is interesting’ in that
code language? 6. Find the correct water image of the given Fig. (X).
A. ka de re
B. ti po ka
C. de si re
D. ka re ma Fig. (X)
2. Select a figure from the options which will continue the
same series as established by the Problem Figures. A. B.
Problem Figures

C. D.

A. B. 7. Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed


in all the three figures.
A. 600
21 5 54 6 60 10
C. D. B. 640
80 612 ?
C. 680
17 4 20 3 30 2
D. 630
3. If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’; ‘A – B’
means ‘A is the sister of B’; ‘A ∅ B’ means ‘A is 8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the given
the wife of B’ and ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the father of word each of which has as many letters between them
B’, then which of the following options indicate X in the word as in the English alphabet?
is son of Y ? ENTERTAINMENT
A. Y ∅ Q # R + X – T A. Three B. Four
B. Y ∅ Q # X – R – T C. Five D. More than five
C. Y ∅ Q # R – X + T
D. Y ∅ Q # R – T + X 9. A square transparent sheet (X) with a pattern is given.
Find out from the options as to how the pattern would
4. In which of the following options, Fig. (X) is exactly appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the
embedded as one of its part? dotted line.

Fig. (X)
Sheet (X)
A. B. A. B.

C. D. C. D.

10. Two different positions of a dice are shown. What


5. In the given figure,
3 1 is the number of dots at the top, if 5 dots are at the
rectangle, square, circle
and triangle represents 4 8 2 bottom?
the regions of 5 7 9 A. 2
wheat, gram, maize 6 10 B. 4
and rice cultivation C. 6
11
respectively. D. 3

2 | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1


Science

11. Two cars, A and B are moving with a constant speed 16. A satellite is orbiting around the earth. The centripetal
of 10 m s–1. Car A is moving on a circular path of force on the satellite is F. The gravitational force of
radius r and car B is moving on a straight road. the earth on the satellite is also F. The net force on
Which of the following statements is correct? the satellite is
A. Both cars are moving with uniform velocity. A. Zero B. F
B. Distance moved and magnitude of displacement F 2F
C. D.
are equal for car A, at any time. 2
C. Motion of car B is not accelerated.
D. Motion of car A is non-uniform circular motion. 17. The variation of resistance of a wire at room temperature
with increase in its length is tabulated here.
12. In an X-ray machine, an electron is subjected to a Length of wire (m) Resistance of wire (W)
force of 10–23 N. Time taken by the electron (initially
200 2.5
at rest) to cover a distance of 10 cm is x × 10 y s. 400 5.0
Then _____. (Take mass of the electron = 10–30 kg) 600 7.5
A. x = 1, y = – 7 B. x = 2, y = – 4 800 10.0
C. x = 4, y = – 6 D. x = 2 , y = – 8 1000 12.5

13. A convex mirror of radius of curvature R produces If the resistivity of the material of wire is 2 × 10–7 W m,
th then the area of cross-section of the wire is
 1  A. 1 × 10–6 m2 B. 2 × 10–6 m2
an image  of the size of the object.
 2 N + 1  C. 4 × 10 m –6 2
D. 16 × 10–6 m2
The distance of the object from the mirror is
A. NR B. 2 NR 18. The given figure shows the phenomenon of
NR recombination of the spectrum of white light using
C. NR D.
2( 2 N + 1) two prisms.
( 2 N + 1)
White
14. Two men, A and B, are facing light 1 3 5
Flat and hard wall
a flat and hard wall as shown White
in the given figure. When man 2
light
600 m 900 m
A makes a clap, man B hears
two claps. The speed of sound 6
A 1200 m 4
in air is 320 m s–1. What is
the interval between the two B If V, I, B, Y, O and R denote violet, indigo, blue,
claps heard by man B? yellow, orange and red colours respectively, then which
A. 2.14 s B. 2.78 s of the following options correctly lists the colour of
C. 3.16 s D. 3.75 s marked rays?
15. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the 1 2 3 4 5 6
magnetic field lines produced by a current carrying A. R V B Y I O
circular loop? B. R V Y B O I
C. V R B Y I O
D. V R Y B O I
A. B. 19. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Biomass is the waste of living things and the dead
parts of the living things.
B. The energy obtained from biomass is called the
bioenergy and it is a non-renewable source of
energy.
C. The main constituent of biogas is methane which
C. D. has a higher calorific value than that of petrol.
D. Biogas is produced by anaerobic degradation of
biomass in the presence of water but in the absence
of oxygen.

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1 | 3


20. Read the given statements and select the correct 24. Observe the given figures carefully.
P Glass tube
option. Cork
Statement 1 : An alpha particle projected towards Air
west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field
which is directed out of the plane of the paper.
Statement 2 : If we stretch the thumb, fore finger Clamp stand
Burner
and middle finger of our left hand such that they are
mutually perpendicular, and the fore finger points in
the direction of magnetic field and the middle finger in Figure 1
Q
the direction of current, then the thumb will point in
Hydrogen
the direction of the force acting on the conductor.
Water
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 vapours
is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
Figure 2
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
P is (i) and Q is (ii) . Q acts as the (iii) agent
21. A boy of mass 50 kg, runs up a flight of 120 stairs, while H2 acts as the (iv) agent.
each measuring a height of 25 cm, in one minute and (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
40 seconds. If g = 10 m s–2 , then the power of the A. Copper Copper Reducing Oxidising
boy is oxide
A. 150 W B. 750 W B. Copper Copper Reducing Oxidising
C. 500 W D. 250 W hydroxide carbonate
C. Copper Copper Oxidising Reducing
22. The given figure shows a ray diagram for the image oxide
formation of an object AB by a convex lens. D. Copper Copper Oxidising Reducing
oxide

25. In the given reactions sequence,


Acidified K2Cr2O7 X
X Y C4H8O2
heat acid catalyst
(C2H6O) (Used in making
(Obtained by perfumes)
fermentation)
If A′B′ < AB, then 443 K conc. H2SO4
A. BX = B′X B. XY > YB′ Ni/H2
C. 2XY = BX D. BY < 3YB′ Z C2H6
X, Y and Z are respectively
23. The graph shows the change in temperature with time A. CH3CH2OH, CH3COOCH3 and CH CH
when ice at –20°C is heated to 120°C. B. CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2COOH and CH2 CH2
120 U C. CH3OCH3, CH3COCH2OH and CH2 CH2
S T
D. CH3CH2OH, CH3COOH and CH2 CH2
Temperature/°C

100
80
60 26. Match the metals given in column I with the methods
40 of extraction given in column II and select the correct
20
Q R option from the given codes.
0
–20 P Column I Column II
Time P. Mercury (i) Heating with coke
Which entry in the options shows the correct change Q. Zinc (ii) Electrolytic reduction
taking place between the points? R. Iron (iii) Thermite reaction
Points Changes S. Aluminium (iv) Heating alone
A. P to Q Average energy of particles remains P Q R S
constant A. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
B. Q to R Ice melting B. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
C. R to S The volume of steam is increasing C. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
D. T to U Water boiling D. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

4 | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1


27. To write a letter with a graphite pencil, 0.001 g of 32. The positions of four elements P, Q, R and S are
carbon is required. The total number of carbon atoms shown on the outline of a part of the periodic table.
used in writing the letter is Element X has a high melting point and is a good
A. 6.023 × 1023 B. 1 conductor of electricity. It forms chlorides XCl2 and
C. 5 × 1017 D. 5.02 × 1019 XCl3. Which element is X?

28. Sodium hydroxide solution is added to each of the


following test tubes and heated. S
P Q R
Sodium Sodium
Zinc carbonate bicarbonate Aluminium A. P B. Q
C. R D. S
I II III IV
33. Steam at 100°C is a more effective heating agent than
In which test tube, the reaction will not occur?
water at the same temperature because
A. I B. II
A. Steam is a form of hot vapours and water is hot
C. III D. IV
liquid
29. Observe the given flowchart carefully. B. 1 kg of water at 100°C has 22.6 × 105 joules
more energy than 1 kg of steam at the same
Gunpowder temperature
Dissolve in carbon C. 1 kg of steam at 100°C has 22.6 × 10 5 joules
disulphide and filter
more energy than 1 kg of water at the same
Filtrate Residue temperature
(X) (Y and Z) D. None of these.
Evaporate
34. Find the incorrect match.
Crystals of X are obtained. Let it dry up
A. Cs and Ga – High melting point
Dissolve in water
and filter B. Cu – No reaction with dil. HCl
C. Pb and Hg – Poor conductors of heat
Filtrate Residue D. Mg and Mn – React with very dil. HNO3
(Y) (Z)
Evaporate, concentrate 35. The given flow chart shows one of the pathways of
and crystallise
glucose breakdown. Identify ‘P’ and ‘Q’.
Crystals of Y are obtained. By drying in Glucose
In cytoplasm
P
In muscle cells
Q + Energy
air, Z is obtained. A. Ethanol and carbon dioxide
X, Y and Z are respectively
B. Pyruvate and carbon dioxide
A. Sulphur, Charcoal and potassium nitrate
C. Pyruvate and lactate
B. Potassium nitrate, charcoal and sulphur
D. Ethanol and pyruvate
C. Sulphur, potassium nitrate and charcoal
D. Charcoal, potassium nitrate and sulphur. 36. Read the following statements about the transmission
of nerve impulse and select the correct ones.
30. Which of the following reactions are exothermic in (i) In a neuron, nerve impulse travels from the axonal
nature? end to the dendritic end as:
(i) Evaporation of water Axonal end Axon Cell body
(ii) Dissolution of sodium hydroxide in water Dendritic end
(iii) Dilution of sulphuric acid (ii) The chemicals released from the axonal end of
(iv) Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water one neuron cross the synapse and generate a
(v) Combustion of methane gas similar electrical impulse in the dendrite of another
A. (i), (iv) and (v) neuron.
B. (ii), (iii) and (v) (iii) A neuron transmits the nerve impulses not only
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) to another neuron but also to the muscle cells and
D. (i), (iii) and (iv) gland cells.
(iv) The neurotransmitter released at the post-synaptic
31. The atoms 30 31 32
14 Si, 15P and 16 S have the same membrane, diffuses across the synapse and comes
A. Nucleon number into contact with the chemoreceptor sites in the
B. Number of electrons pre-synaptic membrane.
C. Number of neutrons A. (i) and (ii) only B. (ii) and (iii) only
D. Number of protons. C. (iii) and (iv) only D. (i) and (iv) only

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1 | 5


37. Study the given concept map of the cell and select the A. (i) and (ii) only
option which is correct regarding E, F, G and H. B. (iii), (iv) and (v) only
Type of cell C. (iii) and (iv) only
D. Both A and C
Has a cell wall Has no cell wall
41. In pea plants, round seeds (R) are dominant over
Contains Does not Contains Does not wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y ) are dominant
chloroplast contain nucleus contain over green seeds (y) . When a cross is made between
chloroplast nucleus a pea plant having round and yellow seeds (RrYy)
E G
F H with a pea plant having round and green seeds (Rryy),
what fraction of the progeny will have wrinkled and
A. E can be an onion skin cell and G can be an animal
green seeds?
nerve cell.
1
B. F can be a root cell of a plant and H can be a A.
mature mammalian RBC. 2
C. E can be a leaf cell of a plant and H can be an 1
B.
onion skin cell. 4
D. F can be a mature mammalian RBC and G can 3
C.
be an animal nerve cell. 8
1
38. Which of the following options is incorrect regarding D.
8
the part labelled as P in the given figure?
42. Given table gives some information about the trophic
levels of a food chain.
P Trophic Biomass of Energy in the
level organisms trophic level
(In kg m–2) (In calories)
W 14 1000
A. It is a paired structure present in human male X 2 10
reproductive system. Y 20 10,000
B. Its duct joins with the vas deferens. Z 9 100
C. It secretes slightly acidic fluid, which increases
Which of the following food chains is correct with
sperm motility.
respect to the given information?
D. Its secretion is rich in fructose sugar.
A. W Y Z X
39. Select the correct match out of the following. B. Y Z W X
A. Vegetative propagation – Ginger, Garlic C. X Z W Y
through rhizome D. Y W Z X
B. Asexual reproduction by – Sugarcane, 43. The epithelial tissue that lines the stomach and the
spore formation Rhizopus intestine is
C. Sexual reproduction by – Pea, Hibiscus
gamete formation A.
D. Asexual reproduction by – Spirogyra,
fragmentation Yeast
B.
40. Given figures represent certain parts/structures (i),
(ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) of plants and animals. Identify
the pairs of structures that are homologous to each
other and select the correct option. C.

D.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

6 | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1


44. Which of the following is an incorrect match of 45. Match column I with column II and select the correct
phylum, type of coelom present in it and a characteristic option from the given codes.
feature? Column I Column II
Phylum Coelom Feature (a) Sleeping (i) A water-borne bacterial
(i) Chordata Coelomate Dorsal hollow sickness disease
nerve cord (b) Hepatitis (ii) Caused by a protozoan
(ii) Echinodermata Pseudocoelomate Water vascular (c) Tuberculosis (iii) A viral disease that affects
system
liver
(iii) Arthropoda Coelomate Chitinous
(d) Dengue (iv) Prevented by BCG vaccine
exoskeleton
(iv) Platyhelminthes Acoelomate Flame cells (e) Cholera (v) A viral disease transmitted
by mosquito
A. (ii) only A. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (v), (e) – (i)
B. (iv) only B. (a) – (v), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii), (e) – (i)
C. (i) and (iii) only C. (a) – (ii), (b) – (v), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii), (e) – (iv)
D. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only D. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii), (e) – (v)

Achievers Section

46. Nine identical resistors of resistance 1 W each are Direction: Refer to the given paragraph and answer the
connected as shown in the given figure. questions 47 and 48.
Akshita has arranged the following sets of experiments to
observe the reactivity of different metals.
Metal X Fe Metal X

AgNO3 XSO4 ZnSO4


solution solution solution
Experiment 1 Experiment 2 Experiment 3

She recorded her observations in the given table.


Which of the following bar graphs best shows the
Experiment Initially Finally
equivalent resistance between terminals A and B,
between terminals B and C, between terminals Colour of metal p Silver-grey
1.
C and A? Colour of solution Colourless Blue
Colour of metal Grey Reddish‑brown
2.
Equivalent resistance ()
Equivalent resistance ()

0.8 0.8 Colour of solution q Green


0.6 B. 0.6 Colour of metal r Reddish-brown
A. 3.
0.4 0.4 Colour of solution Colourless s
0.2 0.2
47. Identify X, p, q, r and s.
A-B B-C C-A A-B B-C C-A A. X-Mg, p-Grey, q-Colourless, r-Greenish-yellow,
Terminals Terminals s-Colourless
B. X-Al, p-Grey, q-Colourless, r-Grey, s-Green
C. X-Au, p -Golden, q-Green, r -Silver-grey,
Equivalent resistance ()

Equivalent resistance ()

0.8 0.8 s-Yellow


0.6 0.6
D. X-Cu, p-Reddish-brown, q-Blue, r-Reddish-brown,
C. D. s-Colourless
0.4 0.4

0.2 0.2 48. Decreasing order of reactivity of given metals is


A. Zn > X > Fe > Ag
A-B B-C C-A A-B B-C C-A B. X > Zn > Fe > Ag
Terminals Terminals
C. Zn > Fe > X > Ag
D. Zn > Fe > Ag > X

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1 | 7


49. Study the given figure of the chloroplast and select D. The photosynthetic reactions that take place in the
the correct statement regarding it. part labelled as Q are the enzymatic reactions which
P require the presence of light for their occurence.
R
50. P and Q in the given graph are the action spectra of
the two enzymes. The two enzymes are
P Q
Q

Activity of enzyme
A. The processes involving photolysis of water and
evolution of molecular oxygen take place in the
part labelled as P.
B. Synthesis of assimilatory power (ATP + NADPH) 2 pH 8
takes place in the part labelled as Q.
A. P : Amylase Q : Trypsin
C. Excess of glucose molecules synthesised during
B. P : Pepsin Q : Trypsin
photosynthesis are stored mainly in the form of
C. P : Sucrase Q : Rennin
glycogen represented as R in the given figure.
D. P : Lactase Q : Amylase

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8 | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-1 | Level 1


Class 10

Set 2

Year 2015
Logical reasoning

1. Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed 5. There is a certain relationship between the figures
in all the three figures. (1) and (2). Establish the same relationship between
the figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure
3 5 3 4 5 ? from the options which will replace the (?) in
256 289 361 figure (4).
2 2 2 3 2 3

A. 1 B. 2 ?
C. 5 D. 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2. Select a figure from the options which will complete
the pattern in Fig. (X).
A. B.

C. D.
?

Fig. (X) 6. A word arrangement machine, when given an input


line of words, rearranges them in a particular rule in
A. B. each step. The following is an illustration of input
and the steps of rearrangement.
Input : quick heat 51 82 39 war 91 green
C. D. Step I : green quick heat 51 82 39 war 91
Step II : green 39 quick heat 51 82 war 91
Step III : green 39 quick 51 heat 82 war 91
3. Find the correct mirror image of Fig. (X), if the
Step III is the last step of this input.
mirror is placed vertically to the left.
Which of the following is the last step of the given
3C09M6PE3TE
input?
A.
Input : down 52 24 81 plank wood home 43.
B.
C. A. V B. VI
D. C. IV D. VII

4. Study the following information carefully. 7. If ‘–’ stands for ‘division’, ‘+’ for ‘multiplication’,
‘÷’ for ‘subtraction’ and ‘×’ for ‘addition’, then which
(i) A, B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line
of the following options is correct?
facing to South – while M, N, O, P and Q are five
ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first A. 6 + 20 – 12 ÷ 7 – 1 = 38
line and are facing to North. B. 6 – 20 ÷ 12 × 7 + 1 = 57
(ii) B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to C. 6 + 20 – 12 ÷ 7 × 1 = 62
Q. D. 6 ÷ 20 × 12 + 7 – 1 = 70
(iii) C and N are diagonally opposite to each other.
(iv) E is opposite to O who is just next right of M. 8. In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly
(v) P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D. embedded as one of its part?
(vi) M is at one end of the line.
Who is sitting just opposite to N?
A. B B. A
C. D D. E

2 | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1


10. Study the given figure carefully.
A. B.

C. D.

What is represented by the number 7?


9. How many pairs of letters are there in the word
DIPLOMACY which have the same number of letters A. Married doctors in the hospital
between them as in English alphabet ? B. Doctors having clinics
A. Three B. Four C. Unmarried doctors having clinics
C. Five D. Six D. Married doctors having clinics

Science

11. A particle moves on a one-dimensional path. If motion 15. The given figure shows
of the particle is described by x(t) = t 2 – 3t + 2, then the motion of a planet
which of the following statements is correct? around the sun in an
elliptical orbit with the
A. x(t) > 0 and a(t) > 0 for all t > 0
sun at the focus. The
B. v(t) > 0 and a(t) > 0 for all t > 0 shaded areas A1 and
C. x(t) > 0 and v(t) > 0 for all t > 0 A2 shown in figure are such that A1 > A2 . If t 1 and
D. None of these t 2 represent the time taken by the planet to move
from P to Q and R to S respectively, then
12. Mr. Tiwari, who cannot see objects nearer than
A. t1 = t 2 B. t1 < t 2
1 m from his eyes, wants to read a book placed at a
C. t1 > t 2 D. Data insufficient
distance of 25 cm clearly. The nature and the power
of lens required by Mr. Tiwari are 16. The given figure shows primary and secondary
Nature of the lens Power of the lens rainbows.
A. Convex +5 D
B. Concave –5 D
C. Convex +3 D
D. Concave –3 D

13. Aditya weighing 50 kg runs along the rails with a


velocity of 13.5 km h–1 and jumps into a trolley of Which of the following options correctly lists the
mass 1 quintal, standing on the rails. The velocity with colours of marked rays?
which the trolley starts moving along the rails, is
1 2 3 4
A. 12.5 × 102 cm s–1 B. 12.5 × 10–2 dm s–1 A. Violet Red Red Violet
C. 12.5 × 103 mm s–1 D. 12.5 × 10–1 m s–1 B. Violet Red Violet Red
C. Red Violet Violet Red
14. A bat produces ultrasound and audible sound at the D. Red Violet Red Violet
same time. Which of the following statements is
true? 17. Seven identical resistors of
resistance R each are connected
A. Ultrasound travels faster than the audible sound.
as shown in the given figure.
B. Ultrasound and audible sound have the same If R1, R 2 and R 3 are equivalent
frequency. resistances between terminals A
C. The wavelength of the ultrasound is longer than and B, between terminals C and
the wavelength of the audible sound. D, and between terminals A and C respectively, then
D. Ultrasound and audible sound will reach the same A. R1 = R2 > R3 B. R1 = R2 < R3
distance at the same time. C. R1 < R2 > R3 D. R1 > R2 < R3

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1 | 3


18. Four identical resistors are connected to a constant A. Positive ions deflect towards north and negative
voltage supply as shown in the given figure. ions deflect towards south
B. Positive ions deflect towards south and negative
ions deflect towards north
C. All ions deflect towards south
D. All ions deflect towards north.

If the maximum power consumed by each resistor is 23. Four students P, Q, R and S noted the initial colour
P when connected individually to the same voltage of the solutions kept in beakers I, II, III and IV. After
supply then the maximum power consumed by the inserting zinc rod in each solution and leaving them
combination will be undisturbed for two hours, the colour of each solution
was again noted in the given table.
A. Zero B. P Zn Zn Zn Zn
4 3
C. P D. P
3 4

19. An electric current passes through a straight wire. Al2(SO4)3 ZnSO4 FeSO4 CuSO4
Magnetic compass are placed at the points X and Y. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
Student Colour I II III IV
Initial Light green Colourless Light green Blue
P
A. Their needles will not deflect. Final Colourless Colourless Dark green Colourless
B. Only one of the needles will deflect. Initial Colourless Light yellow Light green Blue
Q
Final Colourless Colourless Light green Colourless
C. The needles will deflect in the same direction.
Initial Colourless Colourless Light green Blue
D. The needles will deflect in the opposite directions. R
Final Light blue Colourless Colourless Light blue
Initial Colourless Colourless Light green Blue
20. Read the given statements and mark the correct S
Final Colourless Colourless Colourless Colourless
option. Which student observed the colour change in all the
Statement 1 : Work done by the centripetal force in four beakers correctly?
moving a body along a circle is always zero. A. P B. Q
Statement 2 : While moving in a circle, displacement of C. R D. S
the body is along the centripetal force at each instant.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 24. Which of the following organic compounds does not
is the correct explanation of statement 1. have the same chemical properties as methanol?
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 A. C2H6O B. C5H10O
is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. C4H10O D. C7H16O
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
25. If 20 g of each of the following substances is
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. taken then, which one of them will contain the
21. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? greatest number of atoms? (Atomic mass of C = 12 u,
Na = 23 u, H = 1 u, F = 19 u)
(i) Energy received from the Sun in the form of
radiation is called solar energy. A. Methane B. Sodium
C. Hydrogen fluoride D. Carbon
(ii) Sun is radiating energy at the rate of 4.5 × 1023 kJ s–1
approximately. 26. The given apparatus shows the reaction of steam with
(iii) Solar energy is available in abundance without heated solid ‘X’.
any cost. Mineral wool
soaked in water X
(iv) Solar energy is the cause of wind, storm, rain and Z
snowfall.
(v) Solar energy is pollution free.
Water
A. (ii) only Heat
B. (ii) and (iv) only
C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) only The equation for the reaction is
D. None of these. Steam + Solid ‘X’ Solid ‘Y’ + Gas ‘Z’
X, Y and Z are respectively
22. An ionized gas contains both positive and negative A. Copper, Copper oxide, Oxygen
ions. It is projected towards east to a region having B. Lead, Lead oxide, Hydrogen
uniform magnetic field directed into the plane of C. Silver, Silver oxide, Oxygen
paper, then D. Iron, Iron oxide, Hydrogen.

4 | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1


27. Melting and boiling points of five different substances Identify p, q, r and s.
are given in the table. A. p-5, q-10, r-oxidation, s-reduction
Substance Melting point (°C) Boiling point (°C) B. p-8, q-4, r-reduction, s-oxidation
P –219 –183 C. p-6, q-3, r-oxidation, s-reduction
Q –38 357 D. p-10, q-5, r-reduction, s-oxidation
R –23 77 31. Observe the given figure carefully.
S –17 179 Flow of electrons

T 113 445

Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.


Substance (i) will have the least ordered
arrangement of particles at room temperature. Metal X Metal Y
Substances (ii) , (iii) and (iv) have a fixed
volume but no fixed shape at room temperature. Electrolyte
Substance (v) is solid at 100°C and is liquid For which pair of metals would electrons flow in the
at 200°C. direction shown?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Metal X Metal Y
A. Q S P T R A. Copper Zinc
B. P Q R T S B. Iron Aluminium
C. P Q R S T C. Iron Magnesium
D. R P Q T S D. Zinc Silver
28. Element M forms an ion, M2+ and element X forms 32. A mixture consists of four substances. The properties
an ion, X2–. The electronic arrangements of these ions of each of these substances are shown in the table.
are shown as
Substance Solubility Solubility Reaction with
in water in ethanol dilute nitric
acid
Naphthalene Insoluble Soluble No reaction
Ammonium Soluble Insoluble No reaction
chloride
M 2+ ion X 2– ion Calcium Soluble Insoluble No reaction
Which of the following statements about the elements chloride
M and X is/are incorrect? Magnesium Insoluble Insoluble Dissolves
I. M is in group 2 and period 4 of the periodic table. oxide to form
II. M is a non-metal and X is a metal. magnesium
III. X is in group 15 and period 2 of the periodic table. nitrate
IV. M and X form MX type compound. Magnesium nitrate decomposes on heating to form
V. On moving from M towards X in the periodic table, solid magnesium oxide, oxygen gas and nitrogen
electronegativity decreases. dioxide gas.
A. II, III and V B. I and IV To obtain a pure dry sample of magnesium oxide
C. Only II D. II and III from the mixture
A. First dissolve the mixture in water, then add
29. 0.1 mol of a basic substance (X ) requires 25 cm3 of dilute nitric acid to the filtrate and finally, heat it
8.0 mol/dm 3 hydrochloric acid for complete to dryness.
neutralisation. X could be
B. First dissolve the mixture in ethanol, then heat the
1. Al(OH)3 2. CuO filtrate to dryness.
3. K2O 4. NaOH C. First dissolve the mixture in ethanol, then dissolve
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 the residue in dilute nitric acid and finally, heat
C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 4 the filtrate to dryness.
D. None of these.
30. For the given redox reaction :
r 33. Mark the correct statement.
2KMnO4 + 8H2SO4 + pFeSO4 qFe2(SO4)3 + 2MnSO4 A. Latent heat of vaporisation is used to overcome
+ K2SO4 + 8H2O the forces of attraction between molecules in solid
s state.

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1 | 5


B. During the phase change, from solid to liquid and 37. Which of the following statements about Spongilla,
from liquid to gas, the temperature increases. leech, dolphin and penguin is correct?
C. Incandescent light bulb is an example of plasma. A. Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining
D. If a few spoons of salt are dissolved in pure water three are poikilothermic.
then its boiling point becomes more than 100°C. B. Leech is a freshwater form while all others are
marine.
34. The schematic atomic structures of four elements are C. Spongilla has special collared cells called
shown as choanocytes, not found in the remaining three.
D. All are bilaterally symmetrical.

38. In a plant, smooth seeds (S) are dominant over wrinkled


seeds(s) and green seeds (G) are dominant over orange
seeds (g). A plant homozygous for smooth and green
W X seeds is crossed with a plant having wrinkled and
orange seeds. The F1 offspring are self-crossed to
produce F2 generation. If a total of 144 offspring are
produced, how many plants are expected to be having
wrinkled and green seeds in F2 generation, according
to a typical Mendelian cross?
A. 9 B. 18
Y Z
C. 27 D. 81
These elements can combine with each other to form
different compounds. The possible compounds are 39. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
A. XW3, W2Z3, ZY2, YX4 B. W2Y3, XZ2, YZ2, XY4 Statement 1 : A person who has already suffered from
C. WX3, W2Z3, YZ2, YX4 D. WX3, Z2W3, XY4, YZ2 diseases like measles, small pox or chicken pox, becomes
immune to subsequent attacks of these diseases.
35. Match column I with column II and select the correct Statement 2 : When a particular microbe invades the
option from the given codes. same person for the second time, the immune system
Column I Column II responds rapidly with greater vigour and eliminates
a. Plasma (i) C entrally located in animal the infection more quickly than the first time.
membrane cells A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
b. Cell wall (ii) Permeable is the correct explanation of statement 1.
c. Lysosomes (iii) S
 electively permeable B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
d. Nucleus (iv) U ncommon in plant cells is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
a b c d C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
A. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) D. Statement 2 is true but statement 1 is false.
B. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 40. New plants may be grown from P
C. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) groups of cells that are taken from Q
D. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) same/other plants. The given diagram
shows a part of plant X.
36. Read the following statements regarding epithelial Cell samples obtained from which R
tissues and select which of them are true and which of the labelled structures will grow
of them are false. into new plants that are genetically
(i) Epithelial tissue is protective tissue in animal body. identical to plant X? S
(ii) The lining of blood vessels, alveoli and kidney A. P B. Q
tubules are all made up of epithelial tissue. C. R D. S
(iii) Epithelial cells have a lot of intercellular spaces.
41. The pea plant develops tendrils which help it to climb
(iv) Epithelial tissues usually have no blood vessels.
up a support. Which of the following statements is not
(v) Epithelial tissues usually rest on a thin cellular true regarding the movement of tendrils in pea plant?
basement membrane.
A. As the tendrils come in contact with a support,
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) the part of tendril away from the support grows
A. F F T T F faster than the part in contact with the support.
B. T F F F F B. More auxin is diffused from its site of synthesis
C. T T F T T towards the side of tendril in contact with the
D. T T F T F support than the side away from the support.

6 | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1


C. The side of the tendril having more auxin grows
faster than the side having less auxin. C. D.
D. The tendrils exhibit directional movement due to
growth in response to touch.
44. Which of the following contraceptive methods does
42. Read the given paragraph carefully. not correctly match with its mode of action?
Red-coloured beetles are living on green leaves Contraceptive Mode of action
of bushes. These beetles increase in numbers by method
sexual reproduction. Crows, being their predators,
A. Vasectomy – Blocks sperm transport
consume beetles and regulate their population. During
reproduction, few beetles develop green colour instead B. Intrauterine – Prevent implantation
of red colour. This variation in body colour gives contraceptive
green coloured beetles an advantage and over the devices (IUCDs)
years, the number of green beetles in the population C. Oral pills – Kill
 the sperms
will increase generation after generation. D. Condoms – Prevent deposition of
Which of the following statements are correct regarding semen in vagina
the given paragraph.
(i) The given paragraph depicts an example of 45. Refer to the given diagram of
ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny. human digestive system. 1
(ii) Artificial selection is exerted by crows. Digestive juices P, Q and
(iii) Natural selection is exerted by crows. R were collected from
(iv) More red-coloured beetles will be eaten up. structures labelled as 1, 2
(v) The given paragraph depicts an example of 2 and 3 respectively. The
convergent evolution.
digestive juices were then 3
A. (i), (iv) and (v) only B. (iii) and (iv) only mixed with a buffer solution
C. (i), (ii) and (iii) only D. (ii) and (v) only of pH = 2.
43. In a grassland, a large population of grass supports a Small drops of these juices were then put on a strip
fewer number of grasshoppers that support a smaller of film coated with protein. Which of the following
number of frogs. The latter support still smaller digestive juices will be able to digest the protein
number of snakes and the snakes support very few coat?
falcons. Which of the following correctly represents A. Digestive juice P only
the pyramid of numbers in this grassland?
B. Digestive juice Q only
C. Digestive juice R only
A. B.
D. Both digestive juices Q and R

Achievers Section

46. Two v – u graphs u solution is called pH scale. The p in pH stands for ‘potenz’
are plotted using the in German, meaning power. On the pH scale we can
new Cartesian sign measure pH generally from 0 to 14. pH should be thought
conventions. Here v of simply as a number which indicates the acidic or basic
v
v and u denote the u nature of a solution.
distance of image and (i) (ii)
distance of object from pole (or optical centre) 47. pH of different solutions are given in the table.
respectively. Solution pH
The graphs correspond to P 2.2–2.4
   (i) (ii) Q 13.8–14.0
A. Convex mirror Convex lens R 6.5–7.5
B. Convex mirror Concave lens
C. Concave mirror Convex lens S 8.0–9.0
D. Concave mirror Concave lens Arrange these solutions in the increasing order of
Direction : Refer to the given paragraph and answer the OH– ion concentration.
questions 47 and 48. A. S < R < Q < P B. P < R < S < Q
A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a C. R < S < Q < P D. Q < S < R < P

18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1 | 7


48. Which of the following graphs shows the change in B. (1)-Hypothalamus, (2)-Posterior lobe of pituitary
pH when zinc carbonate is added to hydrochloric acid gland, (3)-Lesser, (4)-Stimulatory, (5)-More,
until it is in excess? (6)-Increase, (7)-Positive
C. (1)-Hypothalamus, (2)-Anterior lobe of pituitary
14 14 gland, (3)-High, (4)-Inhibitory, (5)-Lesser,
pH pH
A. 7 B. 7 (6)-Decrease, (7)-Negative
0 0 D. (1)-Anterior lobe of pituitary gland,
Mass of ZnCO 3 Mass of ZnCO 3 (2) Hypothalamus, (3)-High, (4)-Stimulatory,
added added
(5)-More, (6)-Increase, (7)-Positive
14 14
pH pH 50. Embryology refers to the
C. 7 D. 7
study of development
0 0 of an embryo of an
Mass of ZnCO 3 Mass of ZnCO 3
added added organism from fertilised
egg to young one. Given
49. The thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) from the figures represent the Fish Reptile Bird Human
(1) stimulates the (2) to secrete the thyroid
early embryos of certain organisms (fish, reptile, bird
stimulating hormone (TSH), which in turn stimulates
and human).
the thyroid gland to secrete thyroxine. A (3) amount
Select the correct inference drawn from these figures.
of thyroxine in the blood exerts (4) effect on (1)
so that (5) TRH and TSH are produced. This A. An organism repeats its ancestral history during
eventually results in a (6) in thyroxine. It is called its embryonic development.
(7) feed back control. B. Early embryos of all vertebrates exemplify
homologous structures and divergent evolution.
Select the option that correctly fills up the blanks in
C. Dissimilarity in the embryos of different vertebrates
the above passage.
shows that all the vertebrates have evolved from
A. (1)-Posterior lobe of pituitary gland, different ancestors.
(2)-Hypothalamus, (3)-Low, (4)-Inhibitory, D. The complex body structures of embryos gave rise
(5)-Lesser, (6)-Decrease, (7)-Negative to simple body structures of adults.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8 | 18th NSO | Class-10 | Set-2 | Level 1


Class 10

Set A

Year 2016
logical reasoning

1. A word-number arrangement machine, when given a 6. A set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence
particular input, rearranges it following a particular of folding of a piece of paper is given. Fig. (Z) shows
rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut.
the steps of arrangement. Select a figure from the options which would most
Input: huge elephant 39 dog 57 42 small 23 closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig. (Z).
Step I: small huge elephant 39 dog 57 42 23
Step II: small 23 huge elephant 39 dog 57 42
Step III: small 23 huge 39 elephant dog 57 42
Step IV: small 23 huge 39 elephant 42 dog 57
Step IV is the last step of the given input.
As per the rule followed in the above steps which is A. B.
the last step for the given below input?
Input: Mission impossible 2 13 7 Oscar winner 19.
A. IV B. V C. D.
C. VI D. VII

2. How many pairs of letters are there in the word 7. The six faces of a cube are colored black, brown,
COMPENSATION which have the same number of green, red, white and blue, such that
letters between them as in English alphabets? (i) Red is opposite to black.
A. Five B. Four (ii) Green is between red and black.
C. Six D. Seven (iii) Blue is adjacent to white.
(iv) Brown is adjacent to blue.
3. Choose the correct mirror image of Fig. (X), if mirror Which of the following colors is opposite to white?
is placed vertically to the left. A. Black B. Blue
C. Brown D. Green

8. Two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number


in each row is to be worked out separately based on
the following rules and the question below the rows
F 2 of numbers is to be answered. The operations on
3 numbers progress from left to right.
A. B.
G Rules:

2 F (i) If an odd number is followed by another composite


3 G odd number, they are to be multiplied.
C. D. (ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number,
G 3
2 F they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which
4. M is sister of K. D is brother of K. F is mother of M. is a perfect square, then even number is to be
How is K related to F? subtracted from the perfect square.
A. Son B. Daughter (iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd
C. Son or Daughter D. Wife number, the first number is to be divided by the
second number.
5. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number,
table facing the centre. A sits second to the left of
the second one is to be subtracted from the first
D, who is third to the left of E. C sits third to the
one.
right of G, who is not an immediate neighbour of E.
10  15  5
H sits third to the right of B, who sits second to the
14  11  p
right of G.
If p is the resultant of the first row, what will be the
What is the position of A with respect to E? resultant of the second row?
A. Third to the left B. Third to the right
A. 6 B. 81
C. Second to the left D. Second to the right
C. 5 D. 24

2 | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


9. The following letters are coded as follows : 10. In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly
Letter: FPMREKDAIHTU J W embedded as one of its part?
Digit/Symbol: 6 5 4 * 8 1 2 © 7 3 $ @ % 9
While coding the given letters following conditions
are also to be observed.
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter
is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both
are to be coded as the code for the last letter. A. B.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants,
both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.
HMUIWA
A. 34@79© B. 34@793 C. D.
C. ©4@79© D. ©4@793

Science

11. The given figure shows a P 14. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at some
converging lens. The Q angle. A ray of light is incident on one of them at an
focal length and centre of C1 F1
angle of 35°. The light after reflection falls on the
R F2 C2
curvature of the lens are S
second mirror and gets reversed. The angle between
marked along with four the mirrors is
random points, P, Q, R and S. A. 17.5° B. 35°
Which of the following set of points correctly represents C. 52.5° D. 70°
the position of object and corresponding position of
image? 15. Two identical spheres of radius R, made of a material
Position of object Position of image of density r, are in contact with each other. If the
gravitational attraction between them is F, then
A. P R
B. Q S r2
A. F∝ B. F ∝ r2 R 4
C. P S R2
D. Q P r4 F ∝ r4 R 4
C. F∝ 6 D.
R
12. Two resistance wires of the same material and of equal
lengths and equal diameters are connected in series in 16. A bar magnet is rotated on a shaft near to a coil which
a simple electric circuit consisting of a voltage source is connected to a resistor of resistance R as shown in
of voltage V. Now, the same wires are connected in the figure.
parallel in the same circuit for the same time but S N
voltage source is replaced by another voltage source
of voltage 2V. The ratio of heat produced in the two
cases is
A. 1:1 B. 1:4 Which of the following changes does not increase the
C. 1:8 D. 1 : 16 induced current in the coil?
13. A train starting from rest at one station, accelerates A. Moving the magnet closer to the coil.
uniformly and attains a speed v after sometime. B. Turning the magnet in the opposite direction at
After travelling at this speed for sometime, it retards the same speed.
uniformly and stops at the next station. If R be the C. Turning the magnet in the opposite direction at a
uniform resistance of the given track and the duration greater speed.
of the uniform motion is just half the total journey D. Using a coil with more turns.
time, the average power supplied by the train engine
is 17. Read the given statements and select the correct
vR 3vR option.
A. B.
2 2 Statement 1 : 1 atomic mass unit is equivalent to about
3vR vR 931 mega electron volts of energy.
C. D. Statement 2 : 1 electron volt = 1.602 × 10–13 joule
4 4

19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 | 3


A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and 23. The given diagram shows
statement 2 is the correct explanation of the energy levels of the Reactants
statement 1. reactants and products for Energy
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but a particular reaction :
statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Products
Which of the following
statement 1. processes can be related to Progress of reaction
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. the given diagram?
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. A. Ethyne gas burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide
and water along with evolution of heat.
18. A body is thrown vertically upward in air and air
B. When solid mercury (II) oxide is heated liquid
resistance is taken into account. The time of ascent is
mercury and oxygen gas are produced.
t1 and time of descent is t2 , then which of the following
is true ? C. Hydrogen gas combines with chlorine gas in
the presence of light to form hydrogen chloride gas.
A. t1 = t2 D. Potassium chlorate decomposes in presence of
B. t1 > t2 heat to form potassium chloride and oxygen.
C. t1 < t2
24. Which of the following statements are correct?
D. Cannot be predicted
I. Solubility of solids in liquids usually decreases
19. A dish of mass 10 g is kept floating horizontally in with decrease in temperature and the extra amount
air by firing bullets, each of mass 5 g, with the same of solute crystallises out.
velocity, at the rate of 10 bullets per second and II. The solubility of gases in liquids increases on
the bullets rebound with the same speed in opposite increasing the temperature.
directions. The velocity of each bullet at the time III. Solubility of gases in liquids increases on increasing
of impact is (Take g = 10 m s–2) the pressure.
A. 1 m s–1 B. 5 m s–1 IV. While expressing the solubility of a substance
C. 10 m s–1 D. 100 m s–1 temperature is not specified.
A. I and III only B. II and III only
20. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? C. I, II and IV only D. III and IV only
(i) The ratio of the speed of light to the speed of sound
is called the Mach number. 25. The given table shows a part of the periodic table.
(ii) Speed of sound increases with increase in Groups → 1 2 3 13 14 15 16 17 18
temperature. Periods ↓ to
(iii) For hearing a distinct echo, the minimum distance 12
of the obstacle from the source of sound should 2 Q R
be 34.4 m.
3 P S T U
(iv) Wavelength of sound audible to human lies between
17 mm to 17 m. P, Q, R, T and U are respectively
A. (iii) only B. (ii) and (iv) only A. Mg, S, Ar, Al, and Ne
C. (i), (iii) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) B. O, Mg, Ar, P and Ne
C. Mg, O, Ne, P and Ar
21. In the given circuit, the total current supplied by the D. O, Mg, Ne, P and Ar
battery is
26. Observe the given graph carefully and find the relative
atomic mass of the isotopes.
6
3
3 100 (98.89%) (99.6%)

4 80
(% abundance)

60
6V
A. 1 A B. 2A 40
C. 3 A D. 6A (19.9%)
20
22. A long-sighted person cannot see objects clearly (0.37%)
at a distance less than 40 cm from his eye. n = 5, n = 6, n = 7, n = 8,
The power of the lens needed to read an object at p=5 p=6 p=7 p=7
25 cm is Atomic mass (u)

A. –2.5 D B. +2.5 D A. 27.86 u B. 13.99 u


C. – 6.25 D D. +1.5 D C. 14.86 u D. 15.98 u

4 | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


27. Daivik, a class 10 student studied the reaction between 32. Some properties of substances P, Q, R and S are given
a carbonate and an acid ,in the lab. His results are in the table :
shown in the given graph : Sub- M. pt. (°C) B.pt. (°C) Electrical
stance conductivity
Volume of gas (cm3) Experiment 1 P 44 280 Good
Q –7.2 59 Poor
R –101 –35 Poor
Experiment 2
S –39 357 Good
Time(s)
Which of the given substances represents a gaseous
Which of the following experimental conditions did
non-metal at room temperature?
he use? A. P B. R
Experiment 1 Experiment 2 C. Q D. S
A. (i) Excess acid, 5 g Excess acid, 5 g 33. Match column I with column II and select the correct
carbonate, 20°C carbonate, 40°C option using the given codes.
B. (ii) Excess acid, 4 g Excess acid, 1 g Column I Column II
carbonate carbonate P. A metal that forms (i) Cu
two types of oxides
C. (iii) 200 cm3 of 0.5 mol/dm3 100 cm3 of 1 mol/dm3 Q. A metal used in hot (ii) Ag
acid, excess carbonate acid, excess carbonate
water apparatus
D. (iv) 150 cm3 of 0.1 mol/dm3 50 cm3 of 0.5 mol/dm3 R. A metal which can (iii) Fe
acid, excess carbonate acid, excess carbonate displace hydrogen
from steam only
28. 8 g of E2O3 contains 5.6 g of ‘E’. How many moles S. A metal that does (iv) Zn
of E does 16.8 g of the element ‘E’ contain? not react with air
A. 0.1 B. 0.2 even at high
C. 0.3 D. 0.75 temperature
A. P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv)
29. In an experiment, 5 cm3 of 1.0 mol/dm3 NaOH solution B. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iii), (iv), S-(ii)
is gradually added to C. P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(i)
10 cm3 of 1.0 mol/dm3 stirrer
D. P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iv), (ii)
HCl solution containing
methyl orange 34. Ms. Neelam, a class 10 teacher took Cu, Al, Pb and
indicator.
5 cm3 of Zn strips respectively in four test tubes labelled as
1.0 mol/dm3 I, II, III and IV and added 10 mL of freshly prepared
Which of the following NaOH 10 cm3 of 1.0 mol/dm3
HCl and methyl orange ferrous sulphate solution to each test tube as shown
changes will occur in the in the figure :
mixture?
A. pH of the resultant solution increases.
B. The methyl orange indicator changes colour from
red to yellow.
C. Number of moles of water decreases and beaker
gets warmed up. Black residue would be obtained in test tubes
D. A precipitate is formed. A. I and II only B. I and III only
30. The electronic configuration of an ion Z 2– is 2, 8. C. II and III only D. II and IV only.
If the number of neutrons present in the parent atom 35. Refer to the given table and select the incorrect
‘Z’ is 11 then the nucleon number of ‘Z’ is statement regarding organelles X and Y.
A. 16 B. 19
C. 20 D. 21 Cell organelle Function
X Helps in intracellular digestion
31. The given diagram shows the and autophagy
Z
arrangement of valence electrons
Y Modifies, sorts and packages the
in organic compound Q, having X Y Z X
materials coming from ER
molecular formula X2YZ 2.
What could be the compound Q? A. Organelle X arises from joint activity of endoplasmic
A. Methanol B. Ethanol reticulum and organelle Y.
C. Methanoic acid D. Ethanoic acid B. The membrane and hydrolytic enzymes of X are
synthesised in Y.

19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 | 5


C. Organelle X is abundant in leucocytes and (ii) Organisms P and R are diploblastic whereas
macrophages whereas it is absent in mammalian organism Q is triploblastic.
red blood corpuscles. (iii) Bodies of organisms P and Q are metamerically
D. If organelle Y is absent in tadpole of frog then it segmented.
will never metamorphose into an adult frog.
(iv) Organism Q bears special paired locomotory
36. Shown below is the diagrammatic representation of appendages called parapodia however in organism
an animal tissue, X. R tube feet helps in locomotion.
(v) Excretion in organisms P and Q takes place by
flame cells and nephridia respectively.
A. (ii) and (iii) only B. (v) only
C. (iv) and (v) only D. (i) only
Tissue X 39. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g i s t r u e i n c a s e o f
Which of the following holds true regarding this tissue? intercropping?
A. Tissue X is abundantly present in fat bodies of frog (i) Crops are grown in definite pattern of rows.
and blubber of whale.
(ii) Fertilisers cannot be applied easily to different crops.
B. Tissue X is a type of dense connective tissue.
C. Tissue X fills the spaces inside many organs and (iii)
Crops can be harvested and threshed separately.
is commonly called packaging tissue of body. (iv) Spraying of pesticides for separate crops is not
D. Tissue X is very strong and non-flexible vertebrate possible.
tissue. (v) Seeds are mixed before sowing.
A. (i), (iv) and (v) only
37. Ritu was suffering from high fever for many days. B. (i) and (iii) only
Doctor advised her some antipyretic which she took
C. (iii) and (v) only
according to the prescribed doses. Her temperature
went down to normal but reoccurrence of fever D. (iv) and (v) only
continued.
40. Which of the following statements are incorrect about
Doctor then advised Ritu to get her blood test done
to rule out the presence of some antibodies and then vegetative propagation in plants?
gave her medications accordingly. She recovered soon. (i) It makes possible the propagation of some seedless
The given graphs show the result of her blood tests fruit plants like banana, etc.
during illness (graph I) and after recovery (graph II). (ii) It is the means to produce genetically identical
offspring.
(iii) It makes plants more adaptable to the changing
environmental conditions.
(iv) Vegetative propagation by plant tissue culture can
be used for the production of disease-free plants.
(v) It brings adequate dispersal of vegetative propagules
and thus reduces over-crowding.
A. (ii) and (iv) only
What could be inferred from the given graphs? B. (ii), (iv) and (v) only
A. Ritu suffered from three kinds of pathogenic
C. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
infections simultaneously.
D. (iii) and (v) only
B. This time Ritu suffered only from that pathogenic
infection for which her body produced antibody Q. 41. Some humans are able to roll their tongue, while others
C. Ritu might be vaccinated or had contracted the are not. Two parents (both tongue-rollers) have four
actual diseases in her life for which her body children, all of whom are not tongue-rollers. Which of
produced antibodies P and R. the following statements hold true regarding this?
D. Both B and C
(i) The allele for tongue-rolling is dominant.
38. Refer to the given figure (ii) The probability that their next child will be a
showing three different tongue-roller is 0.5.
organisms P, Q and R. (iii) The probability that their next child will not be a
Select the correct tongue roller is 0.75.
statement(s) regarding (iv) Both parents have one allele for tongue-rolling
these organisms. and one allele for non-tongue-rolling.
(i) Organism Q has true coelom whereas organisms A. (i) and (iii) only B. (i) and (iv) only
P and R are pseudocoelomates. C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (ii) and (iv) only

6 | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


42. Refer to the given illustration. Select the correct statement regarding this.
A. The hormone secreted in large amounts in phase
III is also responsible for maintaining pregnancy
in human females.
B. Primary follicle of ovary matures into Graafian
follicle in phase II.
C. Corpus luteum secretes progesterone in phase I
however it degenerates completely in phase III.
D. Both A and B

44. Read the given paragraph.


Photosynthesis in plants consists of two phases:
X and Y. Phase X requires light energy and occurs
in granum of chloroplast whereas phase Y is light
independent and occurs in stroma of chloroplast.
Which of the following holds true regarding phases
X and Y of photosynthesis?
What could be inferred from the process illustrated
above? A. In phase X, light energy is used up in photolysis
of water and molecular oxygen is evolved.
A. The given process illustrates speciation through
B. In phase Y, electrons and protons are used up in
genetic drift.
synthesis of assimilatory power.
B. The given process illustrates speciation through
C. Assimilatory power generated in phase Y is used up
reproductive isolation.
in phase X to convert CO2 into carbohydrates.
C. The given process depicts an example of natural
D. Phase X utilises carbon dioxide gas of atmosphere
selection.
whereas phase Y evolves oxygen gas that escapes
D. The given process depicts an example of artificial into atmosphere.
selection.
45. Refer to the given food chain operating in an aquatic
43. The given diagram shows a normal 28 day menstrual ecosystem.
cycle in a human female.

When a new species X was introduced into this


community, the population of platy fish rose and
population of catfish fell over subsequent two weeks.
Species X is most likely to be
A. Another herbivore like platy fish
B. A predator of Daphnia only
C. A predator of catfish only
D. A predator of platy fish and prey of shark .

Achievers Section
46. The given figure shows the I-V curve (i) for a nichrome Direction: Refer to the given paragraph and answer the
wire of fixed length and cross-section. questions 47 and 48.
I(A) (ii) An organic compound ‘A’ on heating with concentrated
(i) H2SO 4 forms a compound ‘B’ which on addition of one
mole of hydrogen in presence of Ni forms a compound ‘C’.
One mole of compound ‘C’ on combustion forms two moles
of CO2 and three moles of H2O.
V(V)
47. Which of the following represents the compound ‘C’?
Which of the following will yield the curve (ii)?
A. Increase the length of nichrome wire. A. C2H6, a saturated hydrocarbon
B. C2H4, an unsaturated hydrocarbon
B. Decrease the thickness of nichrome wire.
C. HCOOH, an unsaturated acid
C. Replace the nichrome wire with a similar copper wire.
D. C2H5OH, a saturated alcohol
D. None of these.

19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 | 7


48. When ‘B’ and ‘C’ are added separately to the test tubes C. A reduction in the amount of oxygen brought to
containing orange-brown liquid ‘X’, the colour disappears body cells
in case of ‘B’ but remains same in case of ‘C’. The D. A reduction in the pressure of blood entering the
name of the liquid ‘X’ and the substance responsible lungs.
for colour change are respectively
50. Read the given statements each with one, two or three
A. Alkaline KMnO4 solution and ethanoic acid blanks and select the option that correctly fills any
B. Alkaline KMnO4 and ethanol
four of these.
C. Bromine water and 1, 2-dibromoethane
(i) An ecological pyramid of numbers is upright
D. Bromine water and 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrabromoethane.
in P ecosystem and inverted in Q food
49. The given diagram shows a congenital defect in which chain.
the ventricular septum of the human heart fails to (ii) Pyramid of biomass is upright in R and
form fully resulting in a 'hole in the heart'. inverted in S ecosystem.
(iii) Gases like CO 2 allow the T wave heat
radiations of sun to reach the earth's surface
but do not allow the U wave heat radiations
reemitted by earth to escape, thereby causing
V flux.
(iv) Large amount of W is added to the
atmosphere by marshes, paddy fields and biogas
Ventricular
plants.
septal defect A. P-Grassland, Q-Aquatic, T-Long,
Which of the following would not be a likely consequence W-Sulphur dioxide
of this disease? B. Q-Parasitic, S-Pond, U-Long, W-Methane
A. A reduction in the pressure of blood leaving through C. Q-Detritus, R-Pond, V-Greenhouse,
the aorta W-Chlorofluorocarbon
B. A reduction in the percentage of oxygenated blood D. P-Parasitic, T-Short, U-Long,
in the aorta W-Carbon monoxide

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8 | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


Class 10

Set B

Year 2016
logical reasoning

1. There are seven figures, the first and the last of which
are un-numbered and the remaining are numbered as
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series. However, A. B.
one of the five numbered figures does not fit into the
series. The number of that figure is the answer.
C. D.

A. 3 B. 4 6. How many such 5's are there in the given below


C. 5 D. 1 arrangement each of which is immediately preceded
as well as followed by an even digit?
2. If ‘ ’ denotes ‘square’, ‘×’ denotes ‘+’, ‘–’ denotes 949232595858543181747652126
‘×’ and ‘+’ denotes ‘÷’, then 20 + 25 × 5 − 3 = ? 132462
A. 63 B. 10 A. None B. One
C. 31 D. 1015 C. Two D. Three

3. Study the following information carefully and answer 7. If ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is father of B’, ‘A # B’ means ‘A
the question given below: is daughter of B’, ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is sister of B’,
Eight friends Q, R, S, T, V, W, Y and Z are sitting then how is K related to M in H @ K $ L # M ?
around a circular table, facing the centre. There are A. Husband
three males and five females in the group of friends. No B. Uncle
two males are immediate neighbours of each other. C. Father
(i) V sits second to the right of his wife. D. Can't be determined
(ii) S sits third to the right of V.
(iii) W sits second to the right of her husband Z. Z is 8. Which of the following options show the face opposite
not an immediate neighbour of V's wife. to the face having + in the given net?
(iv) T is a male and Y is not an immediate neighbour A. D
of V. +
B. M
(v) R sits second to the right of Q. C. D
Which of the following statements regarding S is D. A A M
definitely correct?
A. S is one of the male members of the group. 9. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English
B. Both the immediate neighbours of S are females. word with the second, the seventh, the eighth and the
C. S sits third to the left of T. ninth letters of the word HOARDINGS which of the
D. W is an immediate neighbour of S. following will be the third letter of that word? If no
such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and
4. Sunil walks towards the East from point A, turns
if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as
right at point B and walks the same distance as he
the answer.
walked towards the East. He now turns left, walks the
A. N B. S
same distance again and finally makes a left turn and
stops at point C after walking the same distance. The C. Y D. X
distance between A and C is how many times as that of 10. In the given Venn diagram, the triangle represents
A and B? the houses having scooter, the square represents the
A. Four houses having bike, the rectangle represents the houses
B. Two having car and the circle represents the houses having
C. Three washing machines.
D. Can't be determined How many houses have scooter and car only ?
5. There is a certain relationship between figures
(1) and (2). Establish a similar relationship between
figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the
given options that would replace the (?) in fig. (4).

A. 18 B. 22
C. 10 D. 14

2 | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1


SCIENCE

11. The given diagram shows a ray of light travelling 15. The given diagram shows an electric motor.
from medium X to medium Y. B C

60° N S
Medium X D
A
45° Split rings
45° 30° Brushes
Axle

Medium Y K

Which of the following statements is not correct ? State the direction of movement of sides AB and CD
when the key is switched on.
A. The refractive index of medium Y with respect to
Movement of AB Movement of CD
medium X is 2.
A. Upwards Upwards
B. The speed of light ray is slower in medium X than B. Upwards Downwards
that in medium Y. C. Downwards Upwards
C. Optical density of medium Y is greater than that D. Downwards Downwards
of medium X.
D. Frequency of light ray remains same in both media 16. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
X and Y. A. The minimum wind velocity for a windmill to
function is 15 km h–1.
12. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recast into a wire B. For the operation of the ocean thermal energy
2 th conversion plants, the temperature difference
of its original length, then resistance of the new
5 between the water at the surface and water at depth
wire will be upto 2 km should be 2°C.
2 C. The value of solar constant is approximately
A. R B. R
5 1.4 kW m–2.
2
2 2 D. Nuclear energy is expressed in electron volts where
C. R D.   R .
5 5 1 electron volt = 1.6 × 10–19 joules.

13. A force of magnitude F1 accelerates a body of mass 17. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of
masses m1 and m 2 . When the toy carts are released,
m from rest to a speed v. Another force F2 accelerates
then spring exerts equal and opposite average force
a body of mass 2m from rest to a speed 2v. The ratio
for the same time on both the toy carts. If there is no
of work done by force F2 to that by force F1 is
friction between the toy carts and the ground, then the
A. 1 : 16 B. 16 : 1 velocity of toy carts are
C. 1 : 8 D. 8 : 1.
A. In opposite directions but in inverse ratio of
14. Two rays of light are incident normally on water. Both masses
the rays pass through glass slabs of different heights, B. In opposite directions but in direct ratio of
as shown in the figure. Refractive indices of water and masses
glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If c is the speed of C. Equal but in opposite directions
light in vacuum, then the time difference between the D. Equal but in same direction.
rays of light to reach the bottom is 18. A given ray of light suffers
minimum deviation in an P Q R S T
equilateral prism P.
Additional prisms Q, R, S and T of identical shape and
h1 H of the same material as P are now added as shown in
the given figure. The same ray will now suffer
h2
A. Greater deviation B. Lesser deviation
C. No deviation D. Same deviation.
H 8H 19. A raft of wood of density 0.8 × 103 kg m–3 and mass
A. B.
2c 9c 120 kg floats in water. How much weight should be
put on the raft to make it just sink?
H − h1 − h2 h1 − h2
C. D. . A. 20 kg B. 30 kg
3c 6c
C. 40 kg D. 80 kg

19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 | 3


20. Read the given statements and select the correct Substances which exist in state 1 and 3 at room
option. temperature are respectively
Statement 1 : For a given time interval, average A. X and Y B. X and Z
velocity has single value while average speed can C. Z and Y D. None of these.
have many values.
Statement 2 : Velocity is the speed of an object moving 25. Rahul, a class 10 student performed the following
in a definite direction. experiments in lab :
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
is the correct explanation of statement 1.
Anhydrous
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 CuSO4
is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Green
vitriol Residue from
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
experiment 1 Bunsen burner for
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. Spirit lamp for strong heating
slow heating
21. Match the column I with column II and select the
(1) (2)
correct option.
Column I Column II Which of the given observations are incorrect?
P. Inner ear 1. Hammer I. Colour of CuSO4 changes from white to blue in
Q. Outer ear 2. Auditory canal experiment 1.
R. Middle ear 3. Pinna II. Colour of green vitriol changes from green to blue
4. Anvil in experiment 1.
5. Auditory nerve III. A mixture of SO 2 and CO 2 is evolved in
6. Cochlea experiment 2.
  P   Q   R IV. White residue is left behind in test tube in
A. (1, 2) (3, 4) (5, 6) experiment 2.
B. (2, 6) (3, 5) (1, 4)
A. I and IV only B. I, II and III only
C. (5, 6) (2, 3) (1, 4)
C. III and IV only D. II, III and IV only
D. (2, 6) (1, 5) (3, 4)
26. The given table shows the number of electrons, neutrons
22. The equivalent resistance 3
and protons in some atoms or ions of elements :
of the given network of X
resistances between points 20  30  60  Atom or ion Electron Neutron Proton
X and Y is P 10 12 11
A. 4 W 24  8
B. 14 W Q 17 20 17
Y
C. 20 W 1 R 10 10 8
D. 68 W. S 10 10 10
23. Which of the following statements is correct? T 17 18 17
A. When a salt is dissolved in water, neutralisation Which of the following statements is incorrect?
reaction takes place. A. P is a cation while R is an anion.
B. KNO3 when dissolved in water will give solution B. Q and T are atoms of different elements.
having pH < 7. C. S has a nucleon number 20 and it is a noble gas.
C. When CuSO 4 is dissolved in water, it gives a D. None of these.
solution having pH < 7.
D. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 has pH = 7. 27. Observe the rate of evolution of hydrogen gas with
five metals P, Q, R, S and T at room temperature.
24. Three different states of matter are shown in figures
1, 2 and 3.
Bubbles of dil. HCl
hydrogen gas dil. HCl
dil. HCl

Metal P Metal Q Metal R Metal S Metal T


(1) (2) (3)
Melting and boiling points of three substances are Identify metals P, Q, R, S and T.
given in the table : P Q R S T
Substance m.pt.(°C) b.pt.(°C) A. Zn Al Mg Cu Fe
X – 40 60 B. Mg Al Zn Fe Cu
Y 613 1214 C. Al Zn Mg Fe Cu
Z –180 –160 D. Fe Zn Mg Al Cu

4 | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1


28. In the given Venn diagram, 33. Excess of sodium hydroxide

Temperature (°C)
points 1, 2 and 3 represent pellets are added to dilute Y
Solid 1 Liquid
different colloidal systems : hydrochloric acid and the
2 3
Which of the following temperature change of the Z
best represents points Gas mixture was measured over a
1, 2 and 3? period of time. The given graph W X
1   2 3 shows the temperature change Time (s)
A. Boot polish Smoke Mist with time.
B. Whipped cream Dust fumes Hair cream What can be inferred from the graph?
C. Coloured glasses Fog Soap lather A. Bonds are broken only during XY, so the temperature
D. Milk Pumice stone Paints rises.
B. Bonds are formed only during YZ, so the temperature
29. A compound ‘P’ having molecular formula, C3H6O2 drops.
reacts with Na metal to form a compound ‘Q’ and C. The reaction is exothermic as the temperature
evolves a gas which burns with a pop sound. Compound increases from X to Y.
‘P’ on treatment with an alcohol ‘R’ in presence of D. Both A and B.
an acid forms a sweet smelling compound ‘S’ having
molecular formula, C5H 10 O 2 . On addition of NaOH 34. The given set-up was arranged by Sachita to find the
to ‘P’, it gives ‘Q’ and water. ‘S’ on treatment with reactivity order of metals :
NaOH solution gives back ‘Q’ and ‘R’.
Copper Metal X Metal Y
Identify P, Q, R and S.
   P   Q   R   S
Y nitrate Copper
A. Ethanoic Ethanol Sodium Ethyl X nitrate
solution nitrate
solution
acid ethanoate ethanoate solution
(1) (2) (3)
B. Propanoic Sodium Methanol Methyl
acid propanoate propanoate She recorded her observations as follows :
C. Propanoic Sodium Ethanol Ethyl 1. Clean copper metal did not react with 1 molar
acid propanoate propanoate solution of metal X nitrate.
D. Ethanoic Sodium Ethanol Ethyl
2. Clean metal X dissolved in 1 molar solution of
acid ethanoate ethanoate
metal Y nitrate and metal Y was deposited.
30. The number of atoms of Mg, S and O present in 3. Clean metal Y did not react with 1 molar copper
0.5 moles of MgSO4 are respectively nitrate solution.
(Given : Atomic mass of O = 16 u, Mg = 24 u, Metals X and Y could be respectively
S = 32 u) A. Gold and aluminium B. Zinc and iron
A. 3.01 × 1023, 3.01 × 1023 and 12.04 × 1023 C. Lead and silver D. Gold and silver.
B. 3 × 1023, 3 × 1023 and 1.2 × 1023
35. Which of the following comparisons of the two birth
C. 3.01 × 1023, 2.05 × 1023 and 12.04 × 1023
control methods used by women are correct?
D. 3 × 1023, 12.05 × 1023 and 12.04 × 1023
Contraceptive pills Tubal ligation
31. X, Y and Z are elements of the same period in the A. No implantation Implantation of
periodic table. ‘X’ forms an acidic oxide, ‘Y’ forms of embryo embryo occurs
a basic oxide and ‘Z’ forms an amphoteric oxide. B. No menstruation Menstruation occurs
Which of the following represents the correct order
C. Reversible Reversibility is
of increasing atomic numbers?
A. X, Y, Z B. X, Z, Y very poor
C. Y, X, Z D. Y, Z, X D. Ovulation occurs No ovulation

32. The given chromatogram was prepared using spots 36. Read the given statements that refer to natural
of five different inks : selection.
(i) Competition between organisms alters their
genes.
Starting line (ii) Parent organisms transmit useful and adaptable
Solvent characteristics to the next generation.
flow (iii) Organisms vary in their adaptations.
How many different types of dyes were used to make (iv) Only one species can occupy an ecological
these five inks? niche.
A. 3 B. 5 (v) Well-adapted organisms survive and reproduce.
C. 4 D. 10

19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 | 5


Which statements summarise the theory of evolution Identify hormones P and Q.
by natural selection? P Q
A. (i),(ii),(iii) and (v) only A. Oxytocin Thyroxine
B. (i),(ii),(iv) and (v) only B. Insulin Thymosin
C. (ii),(iii) and (v) only C. Adrenaline Oxytocin
D. (ii),(iii),(iv) and (v) only D. Glucagon Vasopressin
37. Refer to the given figures and select the correct 40. Refer to the diagram showing an overview of the human
option. nervous system.
Q System P System Q
Leaf

Brain
Leaf Stem E
P
A
A. Structures P and Q provide morphological Spinal F
and anatomical evidence to trace evolutionary cord
relationships. B
B. P and Q are analogous organs as they have similar G
basic structural design and origin but perform Based on the diagram which of the following observations
different functions. is incorrect?
C. Structures P and Q depict convergent evolution in A. The flow of nerve impulse through a reflex arc will
plants. be from A → E → F → G → B.
D. P and Q are homologous organs as they are quite B. Pain receptor could be an example of structure A.
different in fundamental structure and origin but C. System P is central nervous system and system
perform similar function. Q is peripheral nervous system.
D. E is motor neuron, F is sensory neuron and G is
38. Refer to the given food web operating in an relay neuron.
ecosystem.
Large fish Frog 41. Refer to the given Venn diagram of types of muscles and
select the correct option regarding their characteristics
X P, Q and R.
Tadpole
Water beetle

Aquatic plants Insect larvae


A new species Y was introduced in this community which
exclusively drove away species X from this area.
What could be correctly assumed about species X
and Y?
A. Species Y could be a competitor of species X and
competitively excluded the latter.
B. Species Y could be a predator of species X and A. P – Presence of light and dark bands,
exclusively preyed upon it. Q – Unbranched, R – Uninucleate and involuntary
C. Species X is a carnivore but species Y is an omnivore B. P – Multinucleate and voluntary,
therefore is exposed to more food options. Q – Branched, R – Never get fatigued
D. Both A and B C. P – Branched, Q – Presence of light and dark
bands, R – Uninucleate and involuntary
39. Shown here are feedback control mechanisms of two D. P – Unbranched, Q – Never get fatigued,
hormones P and Q. R – Multinucleate and involuntary
Hypothalamus
Releasing
Pituitary 42. In cats, the allele for short hair is dominant to that
Inhibitory effect

factor
Stimulatory effect
Stimulatory

Releases
Pituitary for long hair. A long-haired male cat mates with a
effect

Hormone P Releases homozygous short-haired female cat. What is the


Hormone Q
Accumulation expected appearance of hair in their progeny?
Mechanism I Level rises A. 100% short-haired
than normal
Level falls
B. 100% long-haired
than normal C. 50% long-haired and 50% short-haired
Mechanism II D. 75% short-haired and 25% long-haired

6 | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1


43. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct Which of the following statements regarding the
option regarding V, W, X, Y and Z. experiment is true?
No
Seed bearing plants V A. The amount of solute in each Visking tubing will
Yes change at the end of experiment.
Seeds enclosed in ovary No
W B. Solution X is hypotonic to solution Y and hypertonic
Yes to solution Z.
Seeds have two cotyledons No
X C. The concentration of solute is highest in solution
Yes Z followed by X and Y.
Leguminous plants No
Y
D. Both B and C
Yes
45. Refer to the given dichotomous key and identify P, Q,
Z R, S, T and U.
A. Species V consists of male and female cones formed
I. (a) It is a communicable disease. – Go to II
by aggregation of micro and megasporophylls.
(b) It is a non-communicable disease. – Go to V
B. In W, xylem consists of only vessels and tracheids
are absent, however phloem consists of only II. (a) Direct transmission – Go to III
companion cells. (b) Indirect transmission – Go to IV
C. Species X may show parallel venation in leaves and III. (a) Spreads through sexual contact – P
scattered vascular bundles in stem. (b) Spreads through physical contact and
D. Y could be pea or beans whereas Z could be rice or use of infected articles – Q
wheat. IV. (a) Transmitted through vectors – R
44. 10 cm3 each of solution X was poured into two separate (b) Spreads through contaminated – S
Visking tubings. One Visking tubing was then placed food and water
in a test tube filled with 20 cm3 of solution Y, while V. (a) Uncontrolled proliferation of cells – T
other was placed in a boiling tube filled with 20 cm3 (b) Hypersensitivity to certain – U
of solution Z. It may be assumed that the solutes in antigens such as dust, pollen, etc.
the solutions are too large to pass through the Visking
tubing. The diagram shows the appearance of the A. P – Gonorrhoea, Q – Measles, R – Malaria,
Visking tubings after 20 minutes. S – Cholera, T – Cancer, U – Hay fever
B. P – Syphilis, Q – Small pox, R – Elephantiasis,
S –Tetanus, T – Cancer, U – AIDS
Visking tubing Visking tubing C. P – Hepatitis – B, Q – Syphilis, R – Tuberculosis,
Solution X Solution X S –Kala azar, T – Plague, U – Cretinism
D. P – AIDS, Q – Rabies, R – Sleeping sickness,
Solution Y Solution Z S – Dengue, T – Yellow fever, U – Conjunctivitis
Setup P Setup Q

Achievers Section
Direction: Refer to the given paragraph and answer questions 47. 0.2 mol of the chloride of element U reacts with excess
46 and 47. of silver nitrate to form 57.4 g of silver chloride. The
The table shows the melting points and boiling points of formula of chloride is
six elements P, Q, R, S, T and U. These elements represent (Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, O = 16 u,
consecutive members of periods 3 and 4 of the periodic Cl = 35.5 u, Ag = 108 u)
table. A. UCl B. UCl2
Element Melting point (°C) Boiling point (°C) C. UCl3 D. UCl5
P 44 280 48. Which of the following graphs correctly represents
Q 120 445 the variation of magnetic field (B) produced by a
R –101 –35 current carrying straight wire with the distance (r)
S –189 –186 from it ?
T 64 760 B B
U 851 1494
A. B.
46. If S is a noble gas, then the bond formed between
T and R is r r
A. Ionic B B
B. Covalent
C. D.
C. Coordinate
D. No bond is formed between T and R. r r

19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 | 7


49. Refer to the given diagram of a part of human male 50. Refer to the given flow chart which summarises the
reproductive system and select the correct option process of formation of blood clot. Identify P, Q, R,
regarding structures W, X, Y and Z. S and T.
Injury
W Y
In the region of injury,
platelets rupture
Releases

P
Z Ca2+, Proteins

Q
X
Converts
R Thrombin
Ca2+ Catalyses
Formed in
the liver in Fibrinogen T
the presence
A. During vasectomy a small portion of Z is cut to of S
Polymerisation
and clot formation
prevent transport of sperms.
B. W carries urine at the time of urination and semen A. P – Prothrombin, Q –Thromboplastin,
at the time of ejaculation. R – Prothrombinase, S – Vitamin K, T – Fibrin
C. Y and Z are paired structures which secrete an B. P – Thromboplastin, Q –Prothrombinase,
alkaline fluid that helps in lubrication of penis. R – Prothrombin, S – Vitamin K, T – Fibrin
D. If X is absent in a male then fructose sugar will C. P – Thromboplastin, Q –Prothrombin,
be absent in his semen and sperms will not get R – Prothrombinase, S – Vitamin B, T – Fibrin
sufficient energy to move in the female reproductive D. P – Prothrombin, Q –Prothrombinase,
tract. R – Thromboplastin, S – Vitamin K, T – Fibrin

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8 | 19th NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1


Class 10

Set A

Year 2017
LOGICAL REASONING

1. How many pairs of letters are there in the word 6. In the given Venn diagram, square represents graduates,
SUPPOSITION which have as many letters between triangle represents self-employed people and circle
them in the word as in the English alphabet? represents the females.
A. 4 B. 6 Which of the following numbers 1
3
C. 7 D. More than 7 represent males who are graduates
and self-employed? 7 5 6
2. Which of the following figures will complete the 4
given figure matrix? A. 4 B. 5 2
C. 1 D. 7
7. There are seven figures, the first and last of which are
unnumbered and the remaining five are numbered as
?
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series.
However, one of the five numbered figures does not
fit into the series. Select the figure that does not fit
into the series.
A. B. C. D.

3. Which of the following options satisfies the same 1 2 3 4 5


conditions of placement of dots as in Fig. (X)? A.
1 B.
4 C. 5 D. 2
8. Study the given information and answer the following
question.
Fig. (X) (i) 'P × Q' means 'P is father of Q'.
(ii) 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is daughter of Q'.
A. B. C. D. (iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.
(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is husband of Q'.
Which of the following indicates X is mother of W?
4. Read the following information and answer the question
A. W – Y ÷ X + Z B. W ÷ Y – X ÷ Z
that follows.
C. W + Y ÷ X – Z D. W – Y ÷ X – Z
(i) Four persons P, Q, R and S eat mango, apple, orange
or guava from Monday to Thursday. No two persons 9. Count the number of triangles and rectangles respectively
eat the same fruit on a day. Each of them eats only in the given figure.
one fruit on a day and does not repeat it any other day. A. 22 and 8
(ii) Neither R nor S eats orange or guava on Tuesday. B. 20 and 9
(iii) Q eats apple on Wednesday. C. 21 and 9
(iv) P eats guava on Monday.
D. None of these
(v) R does not eat mango on Thursday.
(vi) S eats apple on Monday. 10. Select the correct water image of Fig. (X).
Which fruit does R eat on Monday?
A. Apple B. Mango C. Guava D. Orange
5. Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed Fig. (X)
Fig. (X)
either row wise or column wise.
14 12 84 B.
A. 16 B. 21 11 ? 88
A. C. D.
C. 24 D. 8 18 9 81

SCIENCE
12 V
11. The diagram shows a circuit containing three A. 1 A
light bulbs. The circuit is connected to a 12 V B. 2A
battery. What is the current I flowing across 4W 6W
C. 0.67 A W
3
6 W light bulb? D. 0.92 A I

2 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


12. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. (iii) The hydrogen bomb is based on thermonuclear
If the separation between the earth and the satellite fission reaction.
is increased to 4 times the previous value, then the (iv) Solar cells are less expensive and highly efficient.
new time period will become (v) India receives solar energy equivalent to
A. 10 hours B. 80 hours C. 40 hours D. 20 hours. 500 trillion kWh per year.
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (iii) and (iv) only
13. An ultrasound is used to measure the distance from C. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only D. (ii), (iv) and (v) only
the ship to the sea bed. A cathode ray oscilloscope
(c.r.o.) placed in the ship traces a pulse sent from 18. An apartment block receives water from a nearby
the ship and reflected pulse that returns. The reservoir. A pump is necessary to lift the water into a
time-base setting for the x-axis is 50 ms per division. storage tank at the top of the building. The acceleration
The speed of ultrasound in water is 1500 m s–1. Find due to gravity is 10 m s–2 .
Tank
the distance from the ship to the sea bed.
A. 450 m Pulse sent from ship Reflected pulse Reservoir 10 m
from sea bed
B. 600 m 50 m
Pump
C. 900 m
One division
D. 750 m = 50 ms

14. Let the refractive index of a denser medium with How much energy does the pump supply to lift each
respect to a rarer medium be µ 12 and its critical kilogram of water into the tank?
angle qC . At an angle of incidence A when light is A. 50 J B. 100 J C. 400 J D. 500 J
travelling from denser medium to rarer medium, a
19. Figure shows PQ, QR, RS and SP, the P
part of the light is reflected and the rest is refracted Q
walls of room PQRS, each measuring
and the angle between reflected and refracted rays
8 m. The wall PQ has a full length
is 90°. What is the relation between angle A and qC?
plane mirror. A camera is placed at
A. tan A = sin qC B. sec A = cos qC M the mid point of wall SR. In order
C. sin A = tan qC D. cos A= sec qC to take clear image of the point R, S M R
the camera should be focused at
15. A variable force F acting on F (N)
A. 4 m B. 8 m
a particle of mass m kg is 6
C. 16 m D. More than 16 m.
indicated by the force-time 3
graph as shown. The change 0 20. A man in a lift ascending with an acceleration throws
2 4 6 t (s)
in momentum of the particle –3 a ball vertically up with a velocity u and catches it
over the time interval from –6 after time t1. Afterwards when the lift is descending
0 to 6 s is with the same acceleration, the man again throws a
A. 4 kg m s–1 B. 6 kg m s–1 ball vertically up with the same velocity and catches
–1
C. 10 kg m s D. 12 kg m s–1. it after time t2 . The velocity of projection of ball is
16. Read the given statements and select the correct option. gt1t2 gt1t2 gt1t2 gt1t2
A. B. C. D.
Statement 1 : Focal length of a spherical mirror
 (t1 − t2 ) (t1 + t2 ) 2(t1 − t2 ) 2(t1 + t2 )
depends on distances of object and image from the
21. Which of the following statements are correct?
mirror.
(i) A metallic wire carrying an electric current has
Statement 2 : Focal length of a spherical mirror is equal

associated with it a magnetic field whose direction
to the radius of curvature of spherical mirror.
is given by Maxwell's corkscrew rule.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
(ii) The pupil of eye acts like a variable aperture whose
is the correct explanation of statement 1.
size can be varied with the help of cornea.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is
(iii) A dc motor is a device which works on the basis
not the correct explanation of statement 1.
of electromagnetic induction.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (iv) Earth wire is used as a safety measure to ensure
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. that any leakage of current to a metallic body does
17. Which of the following statements are incorrect? not give any severe shock to a user.
(i) A typical solar cell can produce about 0.5 W (v) Hypermetropia is an eye defect which arises due to
electricity when exposed to the Sun. elongation of eye ball.
(ii) One atomic mass unit (u) is equivalent to about A. (i), (iii) and (iv) only B. (ii), (iii) and (v) only
931 MeV of energy. C. (i) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) only

NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 | 3


22. The masses of the wires of copper are in the ratio of

Volume of H2/cm3
I
1:3:5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5:3:1. The
ratio of their electrical resistance is A. II B.
A. 1:2:3 B. 1:3:5 C. 125:15:1 D. 1:25:125 III

Time/s
23. The given reaction occurs in a car battery when it is

Volume of H2/cm3

Volume of H2/cm3
used to produce electricity. I II

Pb + PbO2 + 2H2SO4 2PbSO4 + 2H2O C.


II III
D. I III

Which of the following statements are incorrect about


this reaction? Time/s Time/s
I. Pb is acting as an oxidising agent.
II. H2SO4 is acting as a reducing agent. 27. The melting and boiling points of four different
III. The reaction is a precipitation reaction. substances are given in the table.
IV. PbO2 oxidises Pb to PbSO4. Substance M.pt. (°C) B.pt.(°C)
A. III and IV only B. I and II only P 35 120
C. I and III only D. I, II, III and IV Q – 45 55
R 104 240
24. A few chemical properties of three metals X, Y and S –24 –4
Z are summarised in the given table. All the substances are heated from 0 °C to 100 °C.
Metal Chemical properties The substance which will change from solid to liquid
X Reacts with hot water and starts floating on the and the substance which will change from liquid to
surface of water gas are respectively
Y Reacts with steam A. Q and P B. P and Q
Z Does not react with dilute acids as well as steam C. R and S D. P and S.
The methods which can be used to extract X, Y and 28. Titanium chloride (TiCl 3) is used as a catalyst in
Z from their ores are respectively plastic industry. How many chlorine atoms are there
A. Electrolysis, reduction with carbon and heating alone in 38.6 g of TiCl3?
B. Heating with carbon, aluminothermy and electrolysis
[Given : Atomic mass of Ti = 48 u, Cl = 35.5 u]
C. Calcination, aluminothermy and roasting
A. 18.06 × 1023 B. 3.12 × 1023
D. Heating the metal oxide, heating with carbon and
C. 4.5 × 1023 D. 1.5 × 1023
electrolysis.
25. Which of the following options shows the correct 29. The given part of the modern periodic table shows
arrangement of different substances with increasing positions of elements a to j.
pH values?
A. Ammonium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, lactic a b c d
acid and sulphuric acid e f g
B. Sulphuric acid, lactic acid, sodium hydroxide and h i j
ammonium hydroxide Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.
C. Potassium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide, acetic Element i resembles sodium in properties and element
acid and hydrochloric acid ii belongs to the same group as nitrogen. The
D. Hydrochloric acid, acetic acid, ammonium hydroxide formula of the hydride of g is iii . The formula of
and potassium hydroxide compound formed between b and c is iv while the
formula of compound formed between e and g is v .
26. Mitaali, a class 10 student wanted to study the speed
i ii iii iv v
of reactions of different acids with zinc metal. For
A. h g Hg bc2 e2g
this, she conducted the following experiments using
B. a j H2g bc3 eg
zinc metal in excess.
C. b j Hg b2c eg2
Experiment Acid used D. h i Hg2 bc eg
I. 100 mL of 0.2 mol/L HCl
II. 100 mL of 0.2 mol/L H2SO4 30. Match column I with column II and select the correct
III. 100 mL of 0.2 mol/L CH3COOH option from the given codes.
She measured the volume of H 2 gas produced at Column I Column II
regular time intervals and summarised her results in (a) C2H5OH → CH3COOH (i) Conc. H2SO4, 170 °C
a graphical form. (b) C2H5OH → CH2 CH2 (ii) H2, Ni
Which of the following graphs best represents the (c) CH4 → CH3Cl (iii) Alk. KMnO4
results obtained in experiments I, II and III? (d) CH2 CH2 → CH3CH3 (iv) Cl2, sunlight

4 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


A. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) 34. The given apparatus is used to study the diffusion of a
B. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) number of gases at the same temperature and pressure.
C. (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) Which of the following pairs Porous barrier
D. (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) of gases would diffuse into the Gas X Vacuum
vacuum at the same speed?
31. Rohit and Mayuri conducted two experiments to [Given : Atomic mass of H = 1 u, C = 12 u, N = 14 u,
study the types of chemical reactions as shown S = 32 u, O = 16 u]
in the given figures. A. NH3 and H2 B. CO and SO2
C. CO and N2 D. NH3 and N2
Y Z
35. Refer to the given figures showing bones of wings of
two animals X and Y. These wings are Z structures.
Select the option that correctly identifies X, Y and Z.
X Y Z
A. Bat Bird Analogous
They recorded their observations as : X
B. Bat Insect Homologous
I. In experiment 1, yellow residue is left behind X Y

while in experiment 2 reddish brown solid is C. Bird Bat Homologous


left behind. D. Bird Insect Analogous Y
Y
X
II. In both experiments, two different gases were given 36. Refer to the given diagram.
Q R S T
out. Identify Q, R, S and T and Mammary Feathers
III. The colourless gas evolved in experiment 1 select the correct option. glands
extinguishes the glowing splint while the gas evolved A. R has hollow bones and Eggs with
in experiment 2 turns green solution of acidified possesses hair whereas S has amniotic membrane
KMnO4 orange. cartilaginous endoskeleton Four limbs
IV. X is reddish brown gas while gases Y and Z both and lacks hair.
have burning sulphur smell. B. The skin of Q is non-glandular and keratinised while
The incorrect observation(s) is/are the skin of T is glandular and non-keratinised.
A. IV only B. III only C. In R, muscular partition called diaphragm is present
C. I and III only D. II and III only. between thorax and abdomen while in S, diaphragm
is absent.
32. Schematic representation of three atoms X, Y and
D. Both Q and T have four chambered heart with two
Z is given as
L
atria and two ventricles.
N M
Shell Shell
p p p
Shell
37. What does the given flow chart represent?
n n n Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores
20 units 2 units 0.2 units
X Y Z
Which of the following statements is/are correct? A. Unidirectional energy flow
I. X, Y and Z are isotopes. B. Lindeman’s law C. Biomagnification
II. X and Z have the same valency. D. Both A and B
III. The increasing order of atomic numbers is 38. Refer to the given graph
X < Z < Y. depicting reaction velocity
IV. X, Y and Z have stable electronic configurations. of two enzymes X and Y.
A. II and III only B. I and II only Identify enzymes X and
C. II and IV only D. None of these Y and select the correct
33. Study the given Venn diagram statement regarding them.
carefully. Liquid 1 Solid Y converts fats to fatty acid and glycerol while
A.
Which of the following colloidal 3 2 X protects the lining of stomach from the
systems correctly represents 1, 2 Gas action of HCl.
and 3? X converts proteins into peptones while Y converts
B.
1 2 3 proteins into dipeptides.
A. Fog Soap lather Smoke X kills the bacteria present in the food and
C.
B. Hair cream Milk Foam converts inactive propepsin into active pepsin.
C. Starch solution Dust fumes Mist X converts starch into maltose while Y converts fat
D.
D. Pearls Coloured glasses Cheese into fatty acid and glycerol.

NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 | 5


39. Neha set-up an experiment 2M glucose 43. Refer to the given figures representing requirement
solution
as shown here. Fresh of duration of light ( ) and dark ( ) periods by
She left the set-up undisturbed Distilled
water potato tuber plants X and Y for flowering. Select the correct option
for some time. Which of regarding them.
the following statements A. X could be lettuce while
correctly describes the Y could be Dahlia.
appearance of the potato
B. Plant Y can flower
tuber after 3 hours? Petri dish
in complete darkness
A. The bottom half would be flaccid while the top half
if supplied with
would be turgid.
exogenous nutrients.
B. The bottom half would be turgid while the top half
C. Interruption of light periods by dark periods inhibits
would be flaccid.
flowering in plant X.
C. It would have uniform turgidity.
D. None of these D. X could be sugarcane while Y could be wheat.

40. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 44. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct
statement regarding W, X, Y and Z.
A. A pyramid of energy can never be inverted.
No
B. Use of high temperature for waste disposal is called It is a communicable disease. Z
land filling. Yes
Yes It shows Yes
C. Food chain shows unidirectional flow of energy and It shows direct transmission. transplacental W
proceeds in a progressive straight line. No transmission
D. All of these It is a vector Yes No
borne disease. Y
X
41. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
W could be syphilis whereas Z could be chicken pox.
A.
A. Placenta allows exchange of materials between W could be AIDS whereas Y could be dengue.
B.
mother and fetus.
Y could be kala azar whereas Z could be sleeping
C.
B. The fetal part of the placenta consists of the cells
sickness.
of the chorion which produce projections called
chorionic villi. X could be gonorrhoea whereas Y could be diabetes.
D.
C. Antibody cannot cross the placenta from mother to 45. Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the
fetus. correct option regarding P, Q, R, S and T.
D. Placenta secretes pregnancy hormones required for
I.
(a) Genetic material is not enclosed in nucleus.
supporting fetal growth and metabolic changes in
mother during pregnancy. – Go to II
(b) Genetic material is enclosed in nucleus.
42. Refer to the given pedigree chart showing inheritance – Go to III
of fused ear lobe trait in three generations of a family.
II. (a) Lacks cell wall. – P
Select the option that correctly depicts the genotypes
of I-2, II-4 and III-2. (b) Possesses cell wall. – Q
Key : III. (a) Unicellular organism – R
I. - Male (b) Multicellular organism – Go to IV
1 2
- Female IV. (a) Plant body is sporophytic and water is required
II. - Affected for fertilisation. – S
1 2 3 4 male (b) Plant body is sporophytic and water is not
III. - Affected
female
required for fertilisation. – T
1 2 3 4 5
I-2 II-4 III-2 A. P is motile whereas Q is non-motile.
A. PP PP Pp B. R could be yeast or Chlamydomonas.
B. Pp Pp Pp C. Both S and T produce seeds for propagation of their
C. pp Pp Pp species.
D. PP Pp Pp D. S could be Adiantum whereas T could be Riccia.

ACHIEVERS SECTION
46. Refer to the given paragraph where few words/phrases blood (except pulmonary artery) away from heart.
have been italicised. Veins are thin walled, vessels that bring oxygenated
There are three kinds of blood vessels in humans. blood (except pulmonary vein) back to the heart.
Arteries are thick walled vessels that carry deoxygenated Capillaries are thin walled vessels that are permeable

6 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


to water and dissolved substances. C. Ethyl butanoate, CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3
Select the correct option regarding it. D. Ethyl ethanoate, CH3COOCH2CH3.
A. Thick and thin should be interchanged.
49. C2H5OH on oxidation with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives
B. Oxygenated and deoxygenated should be interchanged.
CH3COOH. Which of the following statements is/are
C. Pulmonary artery should be replaced with carotid correct regarding these two compounds?
artery whereas pulmonary vein should not be
I. They both react with sodium metal to evolve a
replaced as it is correctly mentioned.
combustible gas.
D. Permeable should be replaced with impermeable.
II. They both react with NaHCO3 to evolve a gas which
47. Refer to the given graph representing hormonal levels turns lime water milky.
during a normal menstrual cycle in a female. Identify III. They both turn blue litmus red.
the ovarian hormones X and Y and select the correct A. I and II only B. II only
statement regarding them. C. I only D. I, II and III
50. Column I shows certain current distribution and
column II shows the variation of magnitude of
magnetic field B with distance x as one moves along
x-axis from point O. Match column I with column II
and select the correct option.
A. If hormone Y is insufficiently produced in a female
then uterine lining might not be sufficiently stable Column I Column II
to support an implanted embryo. I. Long straight current carrying P. B
wire
B. Level of hormone Y is very high during menstrual
phase of menstrual cycle in a female.
C. Hormone X is secreted by corpus luteum under the O x
x
influence of follicle stimulating hormone of anterior Perpendicular to wire
pituitary gland. I

D. Hormone X stimulates transformation of a primary


II. Circular current carrying wire Q. B
follicle of ovary into Graafian follicle.
I
O x
Direction (Q. No. 48 and 49) : Refer to the given passage I Axis of wire
and answer the following questions.
x
When alcohols react with carboxylic acids in the presence
III. A current carrying ideal R. B
of concentrated sulphuric acid, compounds with fruity smell
solenoid
called esters are formed. Also, alcohols on oxidation in
I
the presence of acidified K2Cr2O7 form carboxylic acids.
O
Axis of x
48. If third member of alcohol family (homologous solenoid
series) undergoes esterification reaction with second I II III
member of carboxylic acid family then, the name of A. Q P R
ester formed and its formula will be respectively B. Q R P
A. Ethyl propanoate, CH3CH2COOCH2CH3 C. R Q P
B. Propyl ethanoate, CH3COOCH2CH2CH3 D. P Q R

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 | 7


Class 10

Set B

Year 2017
LOGICAL REASONING

1. Find the missing term in the given series. 7. There is a certain relationship between figures (1) and
APZ, BRY, DTW, GVT, KXP, ___ ?__ (2). Establish the similar relationship between figures
A. PZK B. PZL (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the given
C. OZK D. OYL options which will replace the (?) in figure (4).

2. In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly


embedded as one of its parts?

A. B.

=
=

+
+
=
A. B. C. D. =
+ +

C. D. 8.
In a certain code language,
1. pod na joc means very bright boy;
2. tam nu pod means the boy comes;
3. Two positions of a dice are shown. Find the number 3. nu per ton means keep the doll;
opposite to number 3. 4. joc ton su means very good doll.
A. 6 Which of the following means good in that language?
6 1 A. su B. joc
B. 5
C. 2 4 2 4 3 C. ton D. pod
D. 1
9. A word arrangement machine, when given a particular
4. If > stands for +, < stands for –, + stands for ÷, input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The
∧ stands for ×, – stands for =, × stands for > and following is the illustration of the input and the steps
= stands for <, then which of the following options of arrangement:
is correct? Input : top the name good for is there
A. 18 > 12 + 4 × 7 > 8 ∧ 2 Step I : is top the name good for there
B. 31 > 1 < 2 = 4 > 6 ∧ 7 Step II : is for top the name good there
C. 29 < 18 + 6 = 36 + 6 ∧ 4 Step III : is for the top name good there
Step IV : is for the top good name there
D. 32 > 6 + 2 = 6 < 7 ∧ 2
Step IV is the last step for this input.
5. How many 2's are there in the given arrangement, each As per the rules followed in the above steps, which
of which is not immediately preceded by a perfect of the following is the last step of the given input?
square and followed by an odd number? Input : if there was no good man
642528292138621258612425 A. V
A. 4 B. 3 B. III
C. IV
C. 2 D. 5
D. Cannot be determined
6. A set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence
of folding of a piece of paper is given. Fig. (Z) shows 10. Which of the following options will complete the
the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. pattern given in Fig. (X)?
Select a figure from the options which would most
closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig. (Z). A.

B.
X Y Z

A. B. C.

C. D. D.

2 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1


SCIENCE

11. A constant force is acted on a body which is initially Statement 2 : Process of nuclear fusion is involved

at rest on a smooth track. The force acts for a short time in atomic bomb.
interval t, and causes the body to move at a certain A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
final speed. What is the time interval required to move is the correct explanation of statement 1.
the same body when the force is reduced by half so B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
that the body can move at the same final speed? is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
A. t B. 2t C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
C. t/2 D. 4t D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
12. Five coils, each having the same resistance are joined 17. Two students X and Y perform experiments on series
according to the given circuit diagram. The equivalent and parallel combination of two given resistors
resistance between points P and Q is 1 W. Then the R1 and R 2 and plot the graphs as shown here. Which
resistance of each coil will be of the following options is true about the graphs
obtained by the students?
P
Q (V is potential difference and I is current)
Graph by student X Graph by student Y
A. 1 W B. 4 W V I
I III
1 7
C. W D. W
7 4
II IV
13. A cube of side 1 m has a mass
of 7500 kg before a through hole I V
of diameter 50 cm is drilled on 1m
Series Parallel
it. The hole is then completely
A. I, III II, IV
filled with cement of density
3.2 g cm–3. What is the density of B. I, IV II, III
the composite object? C. II, III I, IV
A. 4320 kg m–3 D. II, IV I, III
B. 5355 kg m–3 50 cm 18. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for
C. 6655 kg m–3 some time after which it decelerates at a constant
D. 8130 kg m–3 rate b and comes to rest. If total time elapsed is t,
then the maximum displacement of the car will be
14. A slide with an image 4 cm × 2 cm is placed at a
distance of 10 cm behind a converging lens and a α+β
A. 2 B.
(α 2
)
− β2 t 2
clear image is formed on a screen 1.1 m from the αβt αβ
slide. The size of the image on the screen is
A. 40 cm × 20 cm B. 36 cm × 18 cm
C.
α βt 2
D.
(α + β) t 2
C. 20 cm × 40 cm D. 10 cm × 50 cm 2 (α + β) αβ
15. A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string 19. A uniform magnetic field exists
of length l. A horizontal force is applied to displace in the plane of paper pointing
it slowly until the string makes an angle of 30º with from left to right as shown in
the initial vertical direction. What is the work done figure. In the field, an electron
by the applied force? and a proton move as shown.
 3  1 The electron and the proton
A. Mgl 1− Mgl 1 − 
B.
 2   2 experience
A. Forces both pointing into the plane of paper
l 3 Mgl
C. Mg D. B. Forces both pointing out of the plane of paper
2 4
C. Forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of
16. Read the given statements and select the correct option. the plane of paper respectively
Statement
 1 : Thermonuclear bombs can be more D. Forces pointing opposite and along the direction
devastating than the atomic bombs. of the uniform magnetic field respectively.

NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 | 3


20. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different 25. Read the given passage and fill in the blanks by
orientations. A narrow beam of white light is incident choosing an appropriate option.
on the prism as shown in figure. In which of the Bleaching powder is a (i) powder. When exposed
following cases, after dispersion, the third colour to air, it reacts with (ii) of the air to liberate Cl2
from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky? gas. It is (iii) in cold water and milkiness of the
solution is due to the presence of unreacted (iv) .
It reacts with HCl and H2SO4 liberating (v) gas.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
A. Blue crystalline Moisture Soluble CO2 SO2
B. Yellowish white CO2 Soluble Lime Cl2
A. (i) B. (ii) C. White O2 Insoluble Lime Cl2
C. (iii) D. (iv) D. Yellow Moisture Soluble CO2 Cl2

21. There are two walls X and Y which are 120 m apart 26. The ratio of the number of molecules in 4 g of
from each other. A boy standing 40 m away from wall hydrogen to the number of molecules in 5.6 dm 3
X claps his hands once. If the speed of sound in air of oxygen at standard temperature and pressure is
is 330 m s–1, then what is the time interval between [Given: Atomic mass of H = 1 u and O = 16 u]
the first and the second echo that he hears? A. 2 : 1 B. 3 : 4
A. 0.05 s B. 0.24 s C. 1 : 4 D. 8 : 1
C. 1 s D. 2 s
27. Rohan added different substances P, Q and R to three
22. A ray of light enters a water filled glass tank from
beakers each containing 30 mL of water as shown in
a glass face making a nonzero angle (< 90°) to the
the figure.
normal. The emergent ray from the opposite face will
follow the path which is
A. Deviated to the right from incident ray
B. Deviated to the left from incident ray
C. Same as incident ray He observed that the temperature of beakers I and II
D. Parallel but not along the incident ray. increases while that of beaker III decreases. Substances P,
Q and R could be respectively
23. Fill in the blanks in the given table by choosing an A. NH4NO3, KOH and Na2CO3.H2O
appropriate option. B. NH4Cl , CuSO4 and NaCl
S. Salt Parent Parent pH of C. Na2SO4, CaO, CuSO4.5H2O
No. acid base aq. salt
solution D. NaNO3, KCl and K2SO4.
1. NaClO HClO NaOH i 28. The boiling points of some Gas B.pt. (°C)
2. ii HCl Cu(OH)2 iii gases are given in the table.
Kr –153
3. NH4HCO3 iv v ≈7 If their liquid mixture is subjected Ne –246
4. CH3COOK CH3COOH KOH vi to fractional distillation, the order N –196
in which gases will distil over is O –183
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) A. Kr, O, N, Ne B. O, N, Kr, Ne
A. 7 CuCl2 >7 NH3 CO2 7 C. Ne, N, Kr, O D. Ne, N, O, Kr
B. >7 CuCl2 <7 H2CO3 NH4OH >7
C. <7 CuO >7 NH4OH H2CO3 7 29. Study the given flow chart carefully and identify
D. >7 CuCl2 >7 NH3 HCl >7 V, W, X, Y and Z.
24. If melting point and boiling point of substance X are Steam White Gas
Zn solid (V ) + (W )
–82 °C and –60 °C respectively then, which of the
following is correct for the substance X?
Sulphide Concentrated Extracted by (Z )
X at –70 °C X at –50 °C ore (X ) by (Y )
followed by reduction
A. Particles are tightly Particles are loosely with carbon
packed and not moving packed and randomly V W X Y Z
moving A. Zn(OH)2 H2 Cinnabar Leaching Roasting
B. Has definite volume but Neither has definite vol- B. ZnO H2 Zinc Froth Roasting
no definite shape ume nor definite shape blende floatation
C. Possesses fluidity Possesses rigidity C. Zn2O3 H2 O Galena Froth Calcination
D. Is almost incompressible Is completely floatation
incompressible D. ZnO H2 Calamine Calcination Roasting

4 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1


30. Kunal, a class 10 student studied 35. Refer to the given dichotomous key. Identify K, L,

Mass of CaCO3
the reaction between marble chips M, N, O and P and select the incorrect statement
and dilute HCl. He took 50 g of regarding them.
marble chips and 100 mL of 0.1 I. (a) The cells of tissue have wall. – Go to II
P Q
molar HCl solution. The given (b) The cells of tissue lack wall. – Go to V
graph shows how the total mass Time (min)
II. (a) Tissue is made up of similar or only one type
of marble chips varies with time as the reaction proceeds. of cells. – Go to III
Which of the following statements are incorrect? (b) Tissue is made up of more than one type
I. More and more CO2 gas is evolved along PQ. of cells.  – Go to IV
II. CaCO3 remains unreacted after point P. III. (a) Wall thickening in tissue cells is uniform. – K
III. Reaction gets completed at point P. (b) Wall thickening in tissue cells is not uniform.
IV. Dilute HCl remains unreacted after point P. – L
A. I and IV only B. II and III only
IV. (a) Conducting elements are of two types. – M
C. I, II and IV only D. II, III and IV only (b) Conducting element is of one type. – N
31. A part of the periodic table is represented as : V. (a) It helps in gamete formation. – O
H He (b) It helps in absorption of water from digested
P R food. – P
Q S T A. O could be cuboidal epithelium while P could be
columnar epithelium.
In the given section of the periodic table, the most
B. In M conduction occurs only in one direction,
metallic element, the most non-metallic element, the
i.e., upward while in N, conduction occurs in both
smallest atom and the atom which has complete octet
directions, i.e., upward and downward.
in M shell are respectively
C. L provides mechanical support and flexibility to
A. Q, R, R and T B. R, P, P and S the plant body.
C. Q, R, P and T D. P, R, S and T. D. K could be parenchyma that occurs chiefly in leaf
stalks, leaf midribs and herbaceous dicotyledonous
32. Atomic structures stems but is usually absent in monocots.
of elements P and
Q are schematically p p 36. Refer to the given pedigree showing a case study
represented as : n n of an autosomal dominant disease. Key:
Male
Which of the following I
Female
statements is/are P Q Affected
correct? II individuals
I. P and Q will form the compound P2Q3.
II. P will form phosphide with formula PP3. III
III. Q exists as a divalent cation. The genetic make-up of the first generation (female
IV. P can form P5– anion to attain the noble gas and male respectively) is
configuration. A. AA, aa B. AA, Aa
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. Aa, AA D. Aa, Aa.
C. III and IV only D. I only
37. In a study, water samples of
33. Consider the following reactions : Ganga river were collected
I. Ethanol is oxidised by acidified K2Cr2O7. from four different cities
II. Methane undergoes complete combustion. (P, Q, R and S) to check
III. Ethanoic acid reacts with anhyd.Na2CO3. the presence of Coliform
IV. Ethanol reacts with sodium metal. bacteria. The result obtained
Reaction(s) in which water is one of the products is/are was plotted in the given
A. I and II only B. I, II and III only graph.
C. III and IV only D. II only. Select the correct option regarding this.
A. People living in city Q are more prone to water-
34. The percentage by mass of water of crystallisation in borne diseases like typhoid, cholera, etc.
hydrated copper sulphate is B. The river water of city P is most suitable for
[Given: Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 u, H = 1 u, agriculture.
O = 16 u and S = 32 u] C. The biological oxygen demand in river of city
R is more than that found in city S.
A. 42% B. 36%
D. Dissolved oxygen content of river Q will be more
C. 63% D. 24% than that of river R.

NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 | 5


38. Study the given experimental setup. P Q R S
A. (vi), (vii), (ix) (i), (iv) (ii), (viii), (x) (iii), (v)
B. (vi), (vii), (ix) (i), (iv), (x) (ii), (viii) (iii), (v)
C. (vi), (vii) (i), (iv), (ix) (ii), (viii), (x) (iii), (v)
D. (i), (vi), (vii) (iv), (ix) (ii), (v), (x) (iii), (viii)
42. Ruby crossed a tall pea plant with white flowers and
a dwarf pea plant with violet flowers. She performed
a __________ .
By measuring the movement of oil drop in the A. Test cross B. Dihybrid cross
apparatus, what can be investigated? C. Natural selection D. Monohybrid cross
A. Carbon dioxide released during germination 43. Refer to the given graph 60
B. Heat released during germination showing different types
C. Oxygen used during germination of white blood corpuscles in 50

D. Water produced during germination a normal man.

% in leucocytes
40
Identify P, Q, R and S
39. Refer to the given figure of a bryophyte. and select the incorrect
30

Identify the labelled parts P, Q, R and S P statement regarding them. 20


and select the option which represents the Q A. P produces antibodies 10
correct number of chromosome in these parts. to destroy microbes
R 0
Note : [For the given plant, 2n = 24] and their toxins, P Q R S
rejects grafts and kills Different types of
P Q R S white blood corpuscles
tumour cells.
A. 12 24 12 24 B. Q could be phagocytic in nature and is able to
B. 24 24 12 12 engulf bacteria and cellular debris.
C. 24 24 8 8 C. Nucleus of R is many lobed whereas nucleus of
D. 8 24 24 12 S S is usually two lobed.
40. Refer to the given figure. D. Cytoplasm of P does not contain granules whereas
that of R contains granules.
Identify labelled parts P
P-S and select the correct 44. Read the given paragraph where few words have been
option regarding them. R italicised.
A. When nerve impulse Q Cytokinins are the natural substances which enhance
reaches presynaptic growth of stem but in same concentration are incapable
knob, R releases of causing growth of intact root. Naphthalene acetic
a chemical called S acid is natural whereas indole-3 acetic acid is synthetic
neurotransmitter. auxin. Gibberellins inhibit growth and cause bolting
in rosette plants. Abscisic acid stimulates growth
B. P contains Nissl's granules and neurofibrils and and causes abscission of flowers and fruits. Ethylene
conducts impulses away from the cell body. induces ripening of climacteric fruits and formation
C. Q is a narrow fluid filled space that lies between of root hair.
presynaptic and postsynaptic knobs formed by Select the correct option regarding it.
dendrite terminal of both neurons. A. Cytokinins should be replaced with ethylene.
D. S are chemoreceptors present on axon terminal B. Cytokinins should be replaced with auxins whereas
of postsynaptic membrane. napthalene acetic acid and indole-3 acetic acid
should be interchanged.
41. Refer to the given flow chart Disease can spread C. Inhibit and stimulates should not be interchanged
and the following list of from a diseased to No P as they are correctly mentioned.
a healthy person.
diseases. Yes D. Ethylene should be replaced with cytokinin.
(i) Polio  (ii) Cholera Its infectious Yes 45. Refer to the given figure. Identify P P
agent is a virus. Q
(iii) Kala azar  (iv) Influenza - T and select the correct statements S Q
(v) Malaria (vi) Kwashiorkor No
regarding them.
(vii) Goitre (viii) Diphtheria Its infectious agent Yes
(i) Gland P secretes a hormone T R
is a bacterium. R
(ix) Pellagra which plays role in the
(x) Whooping cough No
development of immune
Now, select the option that correctly S system of body.
categorises these diseases into (ii) Gland Q transmits messages in the form of electrical
P, Q, R and S. impulses.

6 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1


(iii) Hormone released by gland S, enhances blood (v) Hormones secreted by gland T regulate the calcium
pressure by stimulating contraction of smooth and phosphate levels in blood.
muscles of arterioles. A. (i) and (iv) only
(iv) Hypersecretion of a hormone by gland R causes B. (iii) and (v) only
myxedema whereas its hyposecretion causes C. (i), (ii) and (v) only
Graves’ disease. D. (iii), (iv) and (v) only

ACHIEVERS SECTION

46. The variation of induced emf (e) with time (t) in a coil 49. Refer to the given graph showing levels of different
if a short bar magnet is moved along its axis with a hormones (P-S) during menstrual cycle in a normal woman.
constant velocity is best represented as

A. B.

Identify the hormones P-S and select the incorrect


statement regarding them.
C. D.
A. R stimulates the ovarian follicles to produce estrogen
during proliferative phase while Q stimulates the
corpus luteum of the ovary to secrete progesterone.
Direction (Q. No. 47 and 48) : Read the given passage and B. Menstrual phase is caused by the reduction of
answer the following questions. P and S.
When an alcohol is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4 at C. Proliferative phase is characterised by increased
about 170 °C, it gets dehydrated to form alkene(s). In this production of S whereas secretory phase is
reaction, conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent. characterised by increased production of P.
47. Which of the following statements is/are correct when D. In males, Q causes spermatogenesis whereas R
2-butanol undergoes dehydration? stimulates Leydig’s cells to secrete testosterone.
I. Only one alkene having same number of carbon 50. Read the given statements each with one or two
atoms as in 2-butanol is formed. blanks. Select the option that correctly fills the blanks
II. Two alkenes having different structural formulae in any two statements.
but same molecular formula are formed. (a) (i) is the process of aerobic burning whereas (ii)
III. Only one alkene having one carbon atom less than is anaerobic burning of combustible constituent
2- butanol is formed. of solid waste at high temperature.
IV. Two alkenes are formed out of which one is (b) (i) secretes mucus and watery alkaline fluid that
terminal and other is non-terminal. contains fructose.
V. Two alkenes having the same percentage composition (c) Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea
by mass are formed. are (i) organs while wings of birds and insects
are (ii) organs.
A. II, IV and V only B. III only
(d) Rate of heart beat and breathing movements of
C. II and IV only D. I only human body are controlled by (i) .
48. If boiling point of an alkene formed in a dehydration A. (b) - (i) - Seminal vesicles;
(c) - (i) - Analogous, (ii) - Homologous
reaction of an alcohol is –6°C then, which of the
B. (c) - (i) - Homologous, (ii) - Analogous;
following could be the boiling points of succeeding and (d) - (i) - Medulla oblongata
preceding members of this alkene in its homologous C. (a) - (i) - Pyrolysis, (ii) - Incineration;
series respectively? (b) - (i) - Cowper's gland
A. –48 °C and –104 °C B. 30 °C and 64 °C D. (a) - (i) - Incineration, (ii) Pyrolysis;
C. –104 °C and –48 °C D. 30 °C and –48 °C (d) - (i) - Diencephalon

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 | 7


Class 10

Set A

Year 2018
LOGICAL REASONING

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English Who are the neighbours of G?
word with the 1st, 6th, 9th and 11th letters of the word A. C and A B. A and F
‘QUALIFICATION’, then which of the following will C. D and C D. D and F
be the 3rd letter of that word? If more than one such
word can be formed, give ‘M’ as the answer and if no 8. In the question, two rows of numbers are given. The
such word can be formed, give ‘N’ as the answer. resultant number in each row is to be worked out
separately based on the following rules and the question
A. A B. I C. N D. M
below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The
2. Find the number of triangles formed in the given figure. operations on numbers progress from left to right.
A. 28 Rules:
(i) If a two-digit even number is followed by another
B. 32
even number, the first one is to be divided by the
C. 26 second one.
D. None of these (ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number,
the two are to be multiplied.
3. Some letters are coded as given below.
(iii) If an odd number is followed by another odd number,
Letters W P J Q E T I A U F D B V M H the two are to be added.
Codes 5 6 9 1 2 3 @ 4 © 8 % ( 7 # $ (iv) If a three-digit number is followed by a two-digit
What is the code for AEIMVH? number which is a perfect square, the second number
A. 42@#7$ B. 42@47$ is to be subtracted from the first number.
C. #2@47$ D. 48@#78 (v) If a three-digit number is followed by a two-digit
number which is not a perfect square, the first
4. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure. number is to be divided by the second one.
24 7 81
x 27 57
If ‘x’ and ‘y’ are the resultant of the first row and
second row respectively, then y × y = _______ .
Mirror A. 4 B. 2
C. 6 D. 8
A. B.
9. Select the box that is similar to the box formed, when
the given sheet is folded.

I. II. 
C. D.

5. Find the odd one out. III. IV.


A. NQUZ B. FIMR C. HKOT D. BEIO
A. I and II B. II and III
6. Select a figure from the options which is exactly C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV
embedded in the given figure as one of its parts.
10. In the given Venn diagram, which of the following
A. B.  represents the uneducated women, who are government
employees but not urban?

Urban 7 Government
C. D. 8 10 employees
12 6 13
4 Women
7. Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting 9
in a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the 11
same order. D sits third to the left of A. E sits to the 5 Educated persons
immediate right of A. B is third to the left of D. G
is second to the right of B. C is neighbour of B. C is A. 9 B. 10
third to the left of H. C. 6 D. 13

2 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


SCIENCE

11. Three identical bulbs connected in series across a source A. 2B P R


consume 20 W power. If the bulbs are connected in 2A 1A
B. B
parallel to the same source, the power consumed is
B M
A. 20 W B. 60 W C. 90 W D. 180 W C.
2
D. 3B Q S
12. Which of the following
statements is/are correct 2 kW R2 17. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
regarding the given I
I. During nuclear fission, mass is transformed into
figure? 24 V 6 kW R1 RL 1.5 kW
energy.
I. Current I drawn from II. Propane is important constituent of natural gas.
the battery is 7.5 mA. III. The main component of LPG is butane.
II. The potential difference across R L is 18 V. A. I only B. III only
A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only
C. I and II D. None of these
18. A shell of mass 5M, acted upon by no external force
13. A ray of light is incident at an angle i on a glass slab and initially at rest, bursts into three fragments of
of refractive index m. If the angle between reflected masses M, 2M and 2M respectively. The first two
and refracted light is 90°, then the relationship between fragments move in opposite directions with velocities
i and m is of magnitudes 2v and v respectively. The third fragment
 1 will
A. i = tan −1   B. tan i = m
 µ A. Move with a velocity v in a direction perpendicular
C. sin i = m D. cos i = m to the other two
B. Move with a velocity 2v in the direction of velocity
14. A light ray travels in a liquid, through gas bubble and of the first fragment
goes into the liquid again as shown in the figure. C. Be at rest
D. Move with a velocity v in the direction of velocity
Light ray of the second fragment.

19. A car covers one-third of its journey with speed v1,


Which of the following situations is possible when
next one third with speed v 2 and the last one-third
the torch is shifted higher?
with speed v 3. The average speed of the body during
Light ray the entire journey is
Light ray
A. B. 2v v v 3v v v
A. 1 2 3 B. 1 2 3
v1v2 + v2 v3 + v1v3 v1v2 + v2 v3 + v1v3
Light ray v1v2 v3
Light ray (v1 + v2 + v3 )
C. D. C. D.
v1v2 + v2 v3 + v1v3 3
20. At a place, value of acceleration due to gravity g is
15. A person needs a lens of power 2.5 D for correction reduced by 2% of its value on the surface of the earth
of her vision. Then (Radius of earth = 6400 km). The place is
(i) focal length of the lens is 40 cm.
A. 64 km below the surface of the earth
(ii) focal length of the lens is – 40 cm.
B. 64 km above the surface of the earth
(iii) nature of the lens is concave. C. 32 km above the surface of the earth
(iv) nature of the lens is convex. D. 32 km below the surface of the earth.
(v) she is suffering from myopia.
A. Only (i) and (iv) are correct. 21. A boy stands between the two walls and claps his
B. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct. hands as shown in the figure. If x is less than 60 m
C. Only (i), (iii) and (v) are correct. and the time between the first and the second echo is
D. Only (i) and (v) are correct. 0.25 s, then find the value of x. Velocity of sound in
air is 344 m s–1. x 60 m
16. PQ and RS are long parallel current carrying conductors
separated by a certain distance. M is the midpoint A. 17 m
between them (see the figure). The net magnetic field B. 25 m
at M is B. Now, the current in the wire PQ is switched C. 29 m
off. The magnitude of magnetic field at M becomes D. 35 m

NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 | 3


22. Read the given statements and select the correct option. A.
P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iii)
Statement 1 : If a light body and a heavy body possess B.
P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iv)
the same kinetic energy, then the heavy body will C.
P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iv)
possess more momentum. P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)
D.
Statement 2 : Work done by all the forces on a body
26. Ankur has 32 g of ozone, Nishant has 0.5 mole of
is equal to change in its kinetic energy.
P4 while Rashmi has 6.023 × 1023 molecules of N2.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
is the correct explanation of statement 1. Which of the following is the correct order of number
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is of electrons they have?
not the correct explanation of statement 1. A. Rashmi < Ankur < Nishant
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. B. Nishant > Rashmi > Ankur
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. C. Rashmi > Ankur > Nishant
D. Ankur < Nishant < Rashmi
23. Geetika took four test tubes I, II, III and IV, each
containing 10 mL of different solutions. Then different 27. Read the given flow chart carefully.
substances are added to each test tube as shown in heat
Metal nitrate → Metal oxide + ‘P’ + ‘Q’
the figure and shaken well. ‘X’ ‘Y’ (Colourless (Brown
Added Added Added Added 10 mL H 2O gas) gas)

→
10 mL 10 mL 10 mL of of 1 M +
of water of water potassium caustic soda KI(aq.)
hydroxide
solution
‘W’
Battery 1M Washing 1M (Yellow ppt.)
acid ammonia soda hydrochloric
solution Select the correct statement.
solution acid
(I) (II) (III) (IV) A. An alloy of metal present in ‘X’ is used for soldering
Read the given statements carefully and select the purposes.
incorrect one. B. Colourless gas ‘P’ is nitric oxide.
A. The order of pH of the given solutions is C. Metal oxide ‘Y’ produced is of yellowish brown
III > IV > II > I. colour.
B. Drops of phenolphthalein remain colourless in test D. Both A and C
tubes I and IV.
C. Methyl orange indicator turns red in test tubes II 28. Solubility of two substances, I and II at 45°C and 80°C
and III. is given in the following table :
D. Both A and C. Temperature Solubility of
24. The given apparatus is used to study the diffusion of a (°C) Substance I Substance II
few gases at the same temperature and pressure. 45 45 50
Porous barrier 80 80 90
Gas X Vacuum Two solutions, X and Y are given as :
In which of the following pairs, gases would diffuse 200 g
into the vacuum with different speeds? 120 g of water 90 g
of I at 80°C of II
I. CO and SO2 II. CO and N2

III. NH3 and N2 IV. CO2 and CH4 Solution X Solution Y

(Given : Atomic mass of H = 1 u, C = 12 u, N = 14 u, If the temperature of solutions X and Y is dropped to
S = 32 u, O = 16 u) 45°C, then amount of substance I and substance II
A. I, III and IV only B. I and IV only crystallised out will be respectively
C. II only D. I, II, III and IV A. 120 g and 90 g B. 30 g and 10 g
C. 30 g and 0 g D. 10 g and 30 g
25. Match column I with column II and select the correct
option from the given codes. 29. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Column I Column II Statement 1 : Reactivity of aluminium decreases when
P. Chlorination in presence (i) Alcohols it is dipped in nitric acid.
of sunlight Statement 2 : A protective layer of aluminium nitrate
Q. Addition of H 2 to give (ii) Carboxylic acids gets formed on the surface of aluminium which stops
saturated compounds the further reaction.
R. Formation of alkene by (iii) Alkenes
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
heating with conc. H2SO4
is the correct explanation of statement 1.
S. Reaction with alcohols to (iv) Alkanes
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
give esters
is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

4 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. 34. Observe the given reaction carefully and identify
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
(ii)
30. Schematic atomic structures of four different elements
16 20 35 23 CuO + H2 Cu + H 2O
8
W 2–, 10 X, 17Y – and 11Z + are given as I, II, III and IV (i) (iv)
respectively as follows : (iii)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
n=8
A. Undergoes Oxidation Reduction Undergoes
oxidation reduction
n = 10
p=8 p = 10

B. Reducing Reduction Oxidation Oxidising


agent agent
I II C. Oxidising Oxidation Reduction Reducing
agent agent
D. Undergoes Reduction Oxidation Undergoes
n = 17 reduction oxidation
p = 15 n = 12

35. Which of the following events do not occur during


p = 11

the light reaction of photosynthesis?



I. Photolysis of water
III IV
II. Reduction of NADPH to NADP+
The correct representations are III. Evolution of molecular oxygen
A. I, II and IV only B. I, III and IV only IV. Synthesis of assimilatory power
C. III and IV only D. I and IV only V. Conversion of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates

31. Which of the following is not correctly matched? A. I and II only B. II and V only
C. II, III and V only D. I, III and IV only
A. Non-metallic character : F > N > C > B > Si
B. Electronegativity : Si > P > C > N 36. Which of the following is correct regarding the effects
C. Atomic radius : F < O < C < Cl < Br of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
D. None of these as shown in the given table?
Organ Sympathetic Parasympathetic
32. Three students Renu, Manish and Raj were given three nervous system nervous system
unknown liquids P, Q and R respectively during the I. Heart Increases the rate Decreases the rate
lab activity. of heartbeat of heartbeat
Property II. Arteries Constriction of Dilation of
Substance Boiling point (°C) Solubility in water arteries arteries
III. Lungs Constricts bronchi Dilates bronchi
P 56 Soluble
and bronchioles and bronchioles
Q 45 Insoluble IV. Eyes Constricts pupil Dilates pupil
R 90 Soluble
V. Urinary Relaxation Contraction
On the basis of these properties, which student has bladder
chosen the correct separation technique to separate
A. I, III and V only B. III and IV only
the substance from substance‑water mixture? C. I, IV and V only D. I, II and V only
A. Renu – Simple distillation
B. Manish – Separating funnel 37. Identify the plant hormone ‘X’ from the given statements
and select the correct option regarding it.
C. Raj – Fractional distillation
D. All of these I. It promotes cell division in plants.
II. It helps in breaking dormancy of seeds.
33. One mole of a hydrocarbon ‘P’ on complete combustion III. It delays the ageing in leaves.
produces CO2 and H2O in the molar ratio 1 : 1. The IV. It brings about morphogenesis along with
succeeding homologue of ‘P’ is ‘Q’ while preceding auxin during tissue culture.
homologue is ‘O’. The name of the homologous series A. ‘X’ could be gibberellin that also causes bolting in
is ‘R’. Identify O, P, Q and R. rosette plants.
O P Q R B. ‘X’ could be ethylene that also promotes yellowing
A. Ethane Propane Butane Alkane of leaves.
B. Hexene Pentene Butene Alkene C. ‘X’ could be abscisic acid that causes closure of
C. Ethyne Propyne Butyne Alkyne stomata during desiccation and other stresses.
D. Ethene Propene Butene Alkene D. ‘X’ could be cytokinin that increases shelf life of
vegetables.

NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 | 5


38. The genotype for the height of an organism is Tt. What X Y
conclusion can be drawn from this? A. Detoxification Digestion of foreign particles
A. The allele for height has at least two different genes. B. Cellular respiration Carbohydrate synthesis
B. There are at least two different alleles for the gene C. Protein synthesis Glycolipid formation
controlling height. D. Osmoregulation Storage of reserve food
C. There are two different genes for height, each having
a single allele. 43. Which statement is incorrect for the tissue shown in
D. There is one allele for height with two different the given figure?
forms.
39. Which of the following options shows a likely food
chain represented by the given pyramid of number?

A. The tissue is usually covered by tough fibrous


A. Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Shellfish → Fish membrane called perichondrium.
→ Shark B. The cell embedded in the matrix of this tissue are
B. Maize → Rat → Snake → Meerkat → Lion called chondroblasts.
C. Tree → Aphid → Ladybug → Bird → Hawk C. It is found in nose tip, ear pinna, etc.
D. Cyanobacteria → Shrimp → Fish → Kingfisher → D. The matrix is highly calcified and is richly supplied
Snake with nerves and blood vessels.

40. Which of the following activities will help to sustain 44. Identify incorrect differences between dicots and
environmental balance? monocots from the given table.
(i) Usage of platinum jewellery as it will reduce the Dicots Monocots
load on gold mines. I. Taproot system Fibrous root system
(ii) Farming as it helps to ensure that man does not eat II. In stem, vascular In stem, vascular bundles
up all the food producers. bundles are arranged are scattered throughout
in ring ground tissue
(iii) Use of jute bags instead of polybags.
III. Mostly parallel Mostly reticulate venation
(iv) Using solar energy as it provides an alternative to
venation in leaf in leaf
fossil fuels.
IV. Flowers are mostly Flowers are mostly
A. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only B. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
trimerous pentamerous
C. (ii) and (iv) only D. (iii) only
V. In root, pith is In root, pith is present
41. Which among the following are the artificial ecosystems? greatly reduced or
absent
(i) Estuaries (ii) Mountains
(iii) Crop fields (iv) Grasslands A. I, II and III only B. II, III and V only
(v) Coral reefs (vi) Parks C. III and IV only D. I, III and V only
(vii) Mangroves (viii) Aquariums
45. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct
A. (i), (ii) and (v) only B. (ii), (iv) and (vi) only option regarding P and Q.
C. (iii), (vi) and (viii) only D. (ii), (vi) and (vii) only
42. Refer to the given figure and select the correct option Disease Successful Disease
vaccine is caused by
regarding functions of X and Y. caused by
P made and is Q
virus bacteria
commercially
available
X A.
P could be small pox whereas Q could be diphtheria.
B.
P could be AIDS whereas Q could be malaria.
Y C.
P could be common cold whereas Q could be
whooping cough.
D.
P could be typhoid whereas Q could be plague.

6 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1


ACHIEVERS SECTION

Direction (Q. No. 46 and 47) : Read the given passage and C.
R could be oral pills that contain LH and FSH to
answer the following questions. prevent ovulation.
The electronic arrangements of four atoms of elements P, Q, R D.
S could be tubectomy that involves removal of a
and S are given as follows : small portion of sperm duct surgically.

49. A time varying current I is passed through a resistance


P Q R S R as shown in figure.
I

3I0
46. The elements that belong to same period (i) and the
elements that belong to same group (ii) of the periodic
I0
table are
(i) (ii) 0 t
t0 2t0 3t0
A. Q and S R and S Which of the following statements is/are correct?
B. P and Q R and S I. Average current through the resistance is 11 I 0.
C. R and S Q and S 2
D. Q and R P and S II. The heat generated in the resistance during time
interval t 0 to 3t 0 is 10I 02 Rt 0.
47. Select the correct statement from the following. III. Total charge flown through the resistance is
A. Element P has least metallic character. 11 I t .
B. The atomic size of S is greater than that of P. 2 0 0
A. I only B. II only
C. Element S is more electronegative than Q.
C. II and III only D. I, II and III.
D. R is a reactive gas.
50. Refer to the given figure and
48. Identify P, Q, R and S in the given flow chart and select the incorrect option L
select the correct option regarding them. regarding L-O.
Method of
contraception A. Secretion of L helps in
lubrication and swallowing
Yes
of food, while exocrine part
Inserted into Yes
P
of N secretes alkaline juice O
the uterus with pH value around 8. M N
No B. Juice stored in M contains
Can be fitted in vagina Yes no enzyme but activates
Q the enzyme lipase, while
by females
No
O converts some toxic
substances into harmless
Taken orally Yes R substances.
No C. If N is removed surgically in a person, it will not
S affect the digestion process as digestive juices from
O and M will compensate for the same.
A.
P could be copper-T that prevents ovulation and
implantation in the uterus. D. Enzyme of L helps in digestion of carbohydrates,
B.
Q could be femidom which is used by females just while secretion of N helps in the digestion of
before coitus. carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-10 | Set-A | Level 1 | 7


Class 10

Set B

Year 2018
LOGICAL REASONING

1. If in a certain code language, ‘WON’ is written as (ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number,
‘VXNPMO’, then how will ‘SOUTH’ be written in the they are to be added.
same language? (iii) If an even number is followed by a number which
A. IGUSVTPNTR B. RTNPTVSUGI is the perfect square, the even number is to be
C. RTNPTVSVGI D. RTNPTVRUGI subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number,
2. Select a figure from the options which will complete
the first number is to be divided by the second
the series as established by the Problem Figures.
Problem Figures number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the
? second one is to be subtracted from the first number.
36 15 3
12 3  n
A. B. C. D. If ‘n’ and ‘m’ are the resultants of the first row and
second row respectively, then 17 × m is _______.
A. 5 B. 17 C. 15 D. 36
3. Z is the father of Q. A is the daughter of Y and Y is the
son of Z. If P is the son of Y and B is the brother of P, 7. Puneet travels 5 m in North direction, then he turns
then which of the following options is definitely correct? right and travels 10 m. Again he turns towards right and
A. B and Y are brothers B. A is the sister of B travels 20 m . Then he turns towards left and travels
C. Z is the uncle of B D. Q and  Y are brothers 10 m. In which direction and how far is Puneet from
his original position?
4. In which of the following options, the given figure is A. 35 m, East B. 10 m, West
exactly embedded as one of its parts?
C. 25 m, East D. None of these
8. Which of the following options satisfies
the same conditions of placement of
A. B. C. D. dots as in the given figure?

A. B.
5. There is a set of four figures P, Q, R and S showing a
sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Figure (S) shows
the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Select a
figure from the options which would most closely resemble
the unfolded form of fig. (S). C. D.

9. Three positions of a dice are shown below. Which number


P Q R S is on the face opposite to the face having number 2?
A. 6
A. B. C. D.
B. 3 6 2 3
C. 4 2 4 3 4 5 4
6.
In the given question, two rows of numbers are given. D. 5
The resultant number in each row is to be worked out
separately based on the following rules and the question 10. Find the missing number.
below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The 7
A. 38 286 16
operations on numbers progress from left to right.
B. 66
Rules:
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite C. 68 142 34
odd number, they are to be added. D. 70 ?

SCIENCE

11. A hollow metal of mass 180.6 g contains cavity of volume A. 7.6 B. 8.4
3
2.5 cm . This metal when placed in water displaces
24 cc of water. Find the specific gravity of metal. C. 10.5 D. 7.2

2 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1


12. In the given circuit, R1 = R2 and V is applied voltage. 17. The square in the diagram
The values of V and R1 are respectively outlines the points where a
A. 180 V and 60 W beam of electrons, moving N S

B. 120 V and 60 W into the plane of paper, enters


V a magnetic field. What will
C. 180 V and 10 W
happen to the particles?
D. 120 V and 10 W
A. Deflect to the left B. Deflect to the right
13. An electric current is passed through a straight wire C. Deflect upwards D. Deflect downwards
as shown. If two magnetic compasses are placed at
the points X and Y, then 18. The velocity-time (v - t) graph for v( m s–1)
a particle moving on a straight
X I 10
line is shown here. Which of the 5
Y following statements is correct? t(s)
0
A. Their needles will not deflect A. The particle has a variable –5
5 10 15

B. Only one of the needles will deflect acceleration. –10

C. The needles will deflect in the same direction B. The particle has never turned
D. The needles will deflect in the opposite directions. around.
C. The particle has zero displacement.
14. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
D. The average speed in the interval 0 to 5 s is the
I. A person suffering from hypermetropia cannot see
same as the average speed in the interval 5 to 10 s.
the distant objects clearly.
II. When eye muscles are relaxed and lens becomes 19. Initially, four identical uniform blocks, each of
thinner, then the focal length of the eye lens mass m and thickness h, are placed on a table as shown
increases. in figure (i). How much work is done on the blocks
III. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric refraction in stacking them on top of one another as shown in
of light by different layers of varying refractive figure (ii)?
indices. A. 2 mgh
IV. The change in focal length of the eye lens is caused B. 3 mgh
by the action of iris. C. 4 mgh h h
A. I only B. IV only D. 6 mgh (i) (ii)

C. II and III only D. I and IV only 20. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
15. The diagrams show the relative motion between a Statement 1 : Loudness is the characteristic of a musical
magnet and a solenoid. A galvanometer is connected sound by which a loud sound can be distinguished
to the solenoid to detect the induced current. Which from a faint sound.
diagram shows no deflection in the galvanometer? Statement 2 : Echo is always produced when sound
1 m s–1 is incident on hard and polished surface.
Stationary
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
Towards
solenoid 1m s–1
A. B. is the correct explanation of statement 1.
S N S N
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
G G is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
Stationary
1 m s–1 C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
Rotated
about O 1 m s–1 D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
C. N D.
S O
S N 21. A battery of 6 V is connected
10 
G G in series to a 10 W resistor 0.5 A 6 V
6
and a parallel combination
16. A beam of light reflects of resistors of resistance 6 W
and refracts at point and R. The battery delivers I
P, as shown in the a current of 0.5 A to circuit as shown. What are the
diagram. Find the angle P values of the unknown current I and the resistance R?
of refraction at point P. I (A) R(W)
n1 and n2 are refractive A. 0.17 9
indices of media. B. 0.25 4
A. 60° B. 45° C. 0.25 6
C. 30° D. None of these D. 0.33 3

NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 | 3


22. A spherical planet has a mass Mp and diameter Dp. The correct statement(s) is/are
A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface A. I only B. I, II and IV only
of this planet will experience an acceleration due to C. I and II only D. III and IV only.
gravity equal to
26. Three different states of matter are shown in figures
4GM GM p m GM p 4GM p m
A. p B. C. D. 1, 2 and 3.
D 2p D 2p D 2p D 2p

23. Four students Shristi, Preeti, Abhishek and Sidh


performed the experiment to study the reactions of (1) (2) (3)
dilute hydrochloric acid and solution of sodium hydroxide Melting and boiling points of three substances P, Q
with zinc metal and solid sodium carbonate separately. and R are given in the table :
They tabulated their observations in the given table : Substance Melting point Boiling point
Set 1 Set 2 Set 3 Set 4 (°C) (°C)
HCl HCl NaOH NaOH P –52 80
Student
+ + + + Q 409 1105
Zn Na2CO3 Zn Na2CO3
R –195 –175
Shristi     Read the given passage carefully and fill in the blanks
Preeti     by selecting an appropriate option.
Abhishek     The substance(s) which exist(s) in state (3) at room
temperature is/are (i) . The substance(s) which
Sidh    
exist(s) in state (1) at 100°C is/are (ii) . The
The correct observations in all the four sets are shown by substance(s) which exist(s) in state (2) at 15°C is/are
A. Shristi only B. Sidh only (iii) .
C. Abhishek only D. Preeti only. (i) (ii) (iii)
24. In the given Venn diagram, points A. Q P, R P
1, 2 and 3 represent different Solid 1 Liquid
B. P Q Q, R
colloidal systems. 2
C. P, R P Q
3
Which of the following best D. Q P, R R
Gas
represents points 1, 2 and 3? 27. Study the given flow chart carefully.
Conc. H2SO4, 443 K H2 / Ni
1 2 3 P Q R
A. Cheese Milk Fog (C3H8O)
B. Paint Sponge Shaving cream K2Cr2O7 / H2SO4
C. Bread Milk of magnesia Froth heat

D. Curd Gold sol Cheese Na2CO3


S T + U(g)
25. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six consecutive elements of Which of the following statements is/are correct?
the periodic table. The given table shows the formulae I. P is propanol and it liberates hydrogen gas on
of the oxides of these elements. reaction with sodium metal.
II. Q is a saturated hydrocarbon which decolourises
Element Formula of oxide
Br2-water.
P PO2 III. P and S react together in presence of conc. H2SO4
Q Q 2 O5 to give a sweet smelling compound.
R RO3 IV. U when passed through lime water, turns it milky.
S S 2 O7 A. I, III and IV only B. I and IV only
C. II only D. I, II, III and IV
T does not form any oxide
U U2 O 28. The number of atoms of Na, H, S and O in 0.5 mole
Read the given statements carefully. of sodium bisulphite are respectively
I. Element Q belongs to group 15 and period 3. (Given : Atomic mass of Na = 23 u, H = 1 u, S = 32 u
and O = 16 u)
II. The elements P and S form a covalent compound 23 23 23 23
of type PS4. A. 3.01 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 and 9.03 × 10
23 23 23 22
B. 9.03 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 , 6.023 × 10 and 1.5 × 10
III. Element R belongs to group 14 and period 2. 21 23 22 21
C. 3.01 × 10 , 9.03 × 10 , 4.5 × 10 and 3.0 × 10
IV. The elements U and S form an ionic compound of 23 23 23 23
D. 3.01 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 , 3.01 × 10 and 3.01 × 10
type U2S.
4 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1
29. Baking powder is a mixture of X and a mild edible 33. A few redox reactions are given as follows :
acid such as Y. When it is heated, Z is produced which I. Cu + 2AgNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag
makes bread and cake soft and spongy. X, Y and Z are II. 3MnO2 + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al2O3
respectively III. 2HI + Cl2 → 2HCl + I2
A. Sodium hydrogen carbonate, tartaric acid, CO2 IV. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2
B. Sodium carbonate, acetic acid, CO2 Select the correct option.
C. Sodium hydroxide, acetic acid, H2 A. In reaction I, copper is an oxidising agent.
D. Sodium chloride, oxalic acid, H2. B. In reaction II, MnO2 is oxidised.
C. In reaction III, HI is the reducing agent.
30. Abhiruchi, a class 10 student took clean small pieces
of magnesium, aluminium, zinc, iron and copper in D. In reaction IV, CO is reduced.
separate test tubes. She added about 10 mL of dilute 34. The composition of five particles U, V, W, X and Y is
hydrochloric acid to each of them. given in the table :
Substance No. of No. of No. of
protons neutrons electrons
U 27 30 27
V 15 15 15
W 15 16 15
Mg Al Zn Fe Cu X 11 12 11
Y 11 12 10
Identify the incorrect statement(s). Identify atoms, ions and isotopes.
A. The rate of evolution of hydrogen gas bubbles is Atoms Ions Isotopes
same in all the test tubes as all are metals. A. U, V, W, X Y X and Y
B. The reactivity decreases in the order : B. W, Y U, V, X V and W
Mg > Zn > Al > Fe > Cu C. U, V, W, X Y V and W
C. In case of copper, no bubbles are seen and the D. V, W U, Y X and Y
temperature also remains unchanged. 35. Refer to the given graph.

Rate of transpiration
P
D. Both A and B. Identify factors P and Q from
the given graph and select the
31. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
correct option regarding it.
Statement 1 : The components of azeotropes cannot
A. P could be temperature
be separated by fractional distillation. Q
whereas Q could be light
Statement 2 : The components of azeotropes form a intensity. Factor
constant boiling mixture. B. P could be relative humidity whereas Q could be
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 air movement.
is the correct explanation of statement 1. C. P could be light intensity whereas Q could be relative
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is humidity.
not the correct explanation of statement 1. D. P could be light intensity whereas Q could be
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. temperature.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 36. Identify figures (i)-(iv) and select the correct option
32. Match column I with column II and select the correct regarding them.
option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
(Methods of extraction) (Metals)
P. Reduction with aluminium (i) Mercury
Q. By electrolysis (ii) Calcium (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
R. Reduction with carbon (iii) Manganese A. Both (i) and (iv) exhibit cellular level of body
S. By heating alone (iv) Zinc organisation.
A. P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i) B. (ii) is acoelomate whereas (iii) is coelomate.
C. (i) and (ii) are diploblastic whereas (iii) and (iv) are
B. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)
triploblastic.
C. P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii) D. Symmetry is radial in (i) and adult form of (iv)
D. P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv) whereas bilateral in (ii) and (iii).

NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 | 5


37. Which of the following statements is incorrect? C. Speciation leads to the formation of species due to
A. Placenta allows exchange of materials between reproductive isolation.
mother and fetus. D. Genetic drift leads to elimination of genes of certain
B. The fetal part of the placenta consists of the cells traits from a small population when a section of the
of the chorion which produce projections called species population dies of natural calamity.
chorionic villi. 42. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect
C. Antibody cannot cross the placenta from mother to regarding connective tissues?
fetus.
(i) They are the most abundant and widely distributed
D. Placenta secretes pregnancy hormones required for
in the body of complex animals.
supporting fetal growth and metabolic changes in
(ii) They connect and support other tissues.
mother during pregnancy.
(iii) They include diverse tissues such as bones, cartilage,
38. Which of the following statements is incorrect? tendons, adipose and other loose connective tissues.
A. Mitochondria, unless specifically stained are not (iv) They form the internal and external lining of many
easily visible under the microscope. organs.
B. Physiological activity of cells determines the number A. (iv) only B. (ii) only
of mitochondria per cell. C. (i) and (ii) only D. (iii) and (iv) only
C. Mitochondrion, a power house of cell has DNA,
RNA, ribosomes and enzymes, so it can survive 43. Refer to the given table of differences between cerebrum
outside the cell. and cerebellum.
D. Mitochondria divide by fission. Cerebrum Cerebellum

39. Select the correct statement. I. It is the part of It is the part of hindbrain.
forebrain.
A. Amount of greenhouse gases i.e., CO, CO2, CFCs
and CH4 is decreasing due to harmful activities in II. It forms the front, It lies in the posterior
atmosphere. superior and lateral region of the brain.
B. Increase in average global temperature could lead sides of the brain.
to melting of polar ice caps. III. It has two cerebral It has two cerebellar
C. Ozone layer present in mesosphere, protects earth hemispheres. hemispheres and one
from harmful effects of solar radiations. central vermis.
D. Putrefying bacteria help to convert ammonia into IV. Cavity is nearly It has two cavities called
nitrites and then into nitrates. absent. lateral ventricles.
40. Select the incorrect statement. V. It is the seat of It coordinates muscular
A. Economic development is linked to environmental intelligence and activity.
conservation. memory.
B. Sustainable development encourages development VI. It maintains posture It controls sight, smell,
for current generation and conservation of resources equilibrium of the taste, hearing, etc.
for future generations. body.
C. Sustainable development does not consider the view
Identify the correct pair of differences.
points of stakeholders.
A. I, II, III and V only
D. Sustainable development is a long, planned and
B. II, III and V only
persistent development.
C. I, III and IV only
41. Study the given situation. D. II, III, IV and VI only
Plants that beetles feed upon suffered from a disease
and died. Due to reduced food, beetles are poorly 44. Which of the following organisms are secondary
nourished and show reduced weight. But there is consumers in the given food web?
T
no genetic change. After few years plant disease is
eliminated. Now abundance of leaf food causes weight
S U
gain in next beetle generations.
Which of the following statements best explains the Q
given situation? R V
A. Natural selection is the phenomenon where nature
selects organism having traits favourable to the Producer
environment. V, U and S
A. B. V, T and S
B. Acquired trait does not bring any change in the
V and T
C. D. Q and R
DNA and therefore this trait is not inherited.

6 | NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1


45. Refer to the given diagram of a human heart. Which of the following options correctly identifies
the vessels which carry oxygenated and deoxygenated
Y blood?
X Z Oxygenated blood Deoxygenated blood
A. X and Z Y
B. X and Y Z
C. Y and Z X
D. Y X and Z

ACHIEVERS SECTION

46. Which of the following correctly represents the variation B. Element P is a metal having valency 2.
of heat energy (H) produced in a metallic conductor C. Elements S and Q combine to form S2Q type of
in a given time as a function of potential difference compound.
(V) across the conductor? D. Elements T and Q combine to form T3Q type of
(Assume resistance of the conductor is constant.) compound.
H H 49. Read the following statements about
A. B. the given diagram carefully and P
select the correct ones? R
O V O V Q
(i) P carries urine and sperms.
(ii) Q secretes a fluid that helps in
H H the lubrication of penis. S
C. D.
(iii) S produces testosterone but not
O V O V sperms.
(iv) R secretes fluid that contains nutrients like fructose.
Direction (Q. No. 47 and 48) : Read the given passage and
answer the following questions. A. (i) and (ii) only B. (ii) and (iii) only
C. (ii) and (iv) only D. (i) and (iv) only
The given table shows the positions of six elements P, Q, R,
S, T and U in the periodic table : 50. Refer to the given paragraph where few words have
been italicised and select the correct option.
Group →
1 2 3-12 13 14 15 16 17 18 When food is masticated in mouth it turns into chyme
Period ↓ which is then passed on to the stomach where it is
churned by strong muscles of stomach. Stomach secretes
2 P Q R gastric juice which contains hydrochloric acid, mucus,
3 S T U pepsin and trypsin. Churning by stomach helps to mix
food components with gastric secretion. Then, food
47. Identify the elements which form ionic compounds (i) changes into bolus. Pepsin helps to convert proteins
and the elements which form covalent compounds (ii). into amino acids. HCl helps to kill bacteria and makes
(i) (ii) (i) (ii) the medium acidic for activation of trypsin.
S
A. T B. T   S A. Both mucus and trypsin should not be replaced as
R
C. T D. P   U they are correctly mentioned.
B. Amino acids should be replaced with fatty acids.
48. Select the incorrect statement. C. Trypsin should be replaced with ptyalin.
A. Element Q is a non-metal having valency 2. D. Positions of chyme and bolus should be interchanged.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-10 | Set-B | Level 1 | 7


ANSWER KEYS

NSO 2014
SET A
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B)

SET B

1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (B)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (D)
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (A)

NSO 2015
SET 1
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
SET 2
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (D)
41. (B) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (B)

NSO 2016
SET A
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (B)
31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (B)

SET B
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (B)

NSO 2017
SET A
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (B)

SET B
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (B)

NSO 2018
SET A
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (C)

SET B
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (D)