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Assignment 1

1. The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is __________

a. To compare input signals
b. To amplify small signals those are riding on large common mode voltage
c. To reject unwanted signals
d. To trim small signals those are riding on large common mode voltage

2. In a series RLC circuit, what is the condition of the circuit if has is high impedance, low
current, and low reactance voltages?
a. ideal circuit b. percent circuit
c. resonant d. non-resonant

3. The most accurate type of test equipment used for measuring high power is the _______.
a. bolometer b. wavemeter
c. calometer d. wattmeter

4. The effect on the human body of 21-40 mill-amperes 60 Hz AC or 80 milli-ampere 1 D.C. is

a. respiratory failure b. mascular inhibition
c. reflex inhibition d. surprise

5. A straight line plot of collector current I and V for a transistor circuit is called the
a. Threshold line b. DC loadline
c. Loading limit d. Linear level

6. If a transformer has a turns ratio of 1:3; what is the current ratio?

a. 1:3 b. 1:9
c. 3:1 d. 9:1

7. There is a ______ degrees invention between gate and drain voltage an FET.
a. Zero b. 90
c. 180 d. 270

8. A differential circuit uses a ______.

a. Capacitor in its feedback circuit b. RLC in its feedback circuit
c. Inductor in its feedback circuit d. Resistor in its feedback circuit

9. Which of the following shells contain 2 electrons?

a. L b. N
c. M d. K

10. What amplifier is used when power from a conversion servo amplifier is too small to drive
large servomotors (Either A.C or D.C)?
a. Power b. Magnetic
c. Summing d. Output

11. An amplifier which is designed to be used with other circuit component to perform either
computing functions or some type of transfer operation?
a. Differential Amplifier b. RD Amplifier
c. Audio Amplifier d. Operational Amplifier

12. What type of LC oscillator is sometimes called a “tickler” oscillator in reference to the
transformer secondary or tickler coil that provides the feedback to keep the oscillator going?
a. Colpitts b. Clapp
c. Armstrong d. Hartley

13. The ratio of the Dc collector current Ic to the emitter current Ie is called the Dc____.
a. Delta b. Beta
c. Echo d. Alpha

14. The effect of 60 Hz AC over 100 mA or DC over 300 mA on the human body
a. Mascular Inhibition b. Respiratory Failure
c. Surprise d. Usually Fatal

15. The bit storage capacity of a Read Only Memory with a 512 organization is ______ bits.
a. 1024 b. 8192
c. 4096 d. 2048

16. The device used to produce a gradual change of impedance at the end of a waveguide is called
a _______.
a. Funnel b. Load
c. Dummy d. Horn
17. In a robot, the axis that allows rotation are often referred to as amplifier.
a. Revolving b. Revolute
c. Resolute d. Rotary

18. The most widely used combination bias system in basic transistor amplifier.
a. Limited Type b. Current Divider Type
c. Voltage-Divider Type d. Base Current Type

19. The open-loop gain of an op-am is given at 225,000. Find the gain in dB.
a. 53.52 b. 107
c. 535.2 d. 10.7

20. A _____ is a solid material formed by atoms bonding together in a fixed pattern.
a. Block b. Crystal
c. Lattice d. Pyramid

21. Elements with 5 or more valence electrons are called _________.

a. Semi-conductors b. Conductors
c. Molecule d. Insulators

22. When the resistance of the load is high with respect to the resistance of the source _____
in a circuit is achieved.
a. Maximum Power b. High Efficiency
c. Maximum Transfer d. High Voltage

23. As the input voltage varies within specified limits. The zener diode maintains a nearly
constant output voltage across its terminal. This is called _____.
a. Auto Regulation b. Specific Regulation
c. Line Regulation d. Load Regulation

24. The method of assigning more sectors to the outer disk tracks is referred to as _____
a. Random b. Zone
c. Sector d. System

25. _______ is the unit of electrical current flow.

a. Volt b. Ohm
c. Ampere d. Watt

26. According to Ohm’s Law, what happens to the circuit current if the circuit resistance
a. Current doubles b. Current Decreases
c. Current Increases d. Current remains constant

27. What is the 7’s complement of 157028.

a. 627058 b. 731868
c. 627068 d. 731648

28.DC biasing is used to establish a steady level of transistor current. This is called the
a. Operating Coordinates b. Threshold point
c. Range of Operation d. DC operating point

29. Arc blow can be avoided in electric welding by ______.

a. Increasing arc length b. Welding away from earth ground connection
c. Using bare electrodes d. Using AC welding machine

30. The distance covered or traveled by a waveform during the time interval of one complete
a. Frequency b. Wavelength
c. Time slot d. wave time

31. ______ is the non-linear distortion characterized by the appearance at the system output of
frequencies equal to the sums or differences of two or more frequencies at the input.
a. Differential distortion b. Inter modulation distortion
c. Mutual distortion d. Modulated distortion

32. Find the phase angle between the voltage across the current through the circuit when Xc is
25 ohms, R 100 ohms and Xl is 50 ohms.
a. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the b. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the
current current
c. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the d. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the
current current
33. If the resistance of a circuit is doubled and the applied voltage is kept constant, the
current will ______.
a. be quadrupled b. remain the same
c. be cut in half d. be doubled

34. Phanastron can be a ____________.

a. JK flipflop b. D flipflop
c. T flipflop d. RS flipflop

35. A computer crime in which money is embezzled in small amounts of overtime is

a. the salami technique b. Trojan Horse
c. blue collar crime d. data diddling

36. List the advantage of a voltage divider in DC biasing: _____and ______.

a. Unstable, uses two supply voltages b. Unstable. uses one supply voltage
c. Stable, uses one supply voltages d. Stable, uses two supply voltages

37. _____ is a kind of oscilloscope which consist of a narrowband if filter and a local
oscillator (receiver) capable of showing transmitter carriers, spacing, harmonics and sidebands.
a. Polygraph b. Harmonic analyzer
c. Spectrum analyzer d. Computerized tomography

38. One cycle is equal to how many degrees of rotation of a conductor is a magnetic field?
a. 270 b. 360
c. 180 d. 90

39. A measuring device which will result to full scale reading at shorted terminal condition.
a. Voltmeter b. Ammeter
c. Electrostatic meter d. Ohmmeter

40. Which of the following are the buses for information transfer internally and externally in a
a. Address line b. Data Bus
c. Control Bus

a. A and C only b. A and B only

c. B and C only d. A, B and C

41. If the voltage gain for each input of a summing amplifier with a 4.8 kilo-ohm feedback
resistor is unity, the input resistors must have a value of _____ kilo-ohm.
a.4.8 times the number of inputs b. 48
c. 4.8 divided by the number of inputs d. 4.8

42. Another name for an antivirus:

a. vaccine b. worm
c. drugs d. Trojan Horse

43. What is the generic term for utilities and programs needed to operate computer system?
a. Hardware b. Software
c. People ware d. Tupper ware

44. The computer worm the infected computer systems world-wide in 10 minutes, making it the
fastest computer virus ever known is called ______.
a. Claw Hammer b. Sledge Hammer
c. SLQ Hammer d. SARS virus

45. The channel of a JFET is between the _______.

a. Input and output b. Drain and source
c. Gate and drain d. Gate and source

46. What is the common use of a push-pull amplifier?

a. AN OPAM b. A Driver
c. Wideband Amplifier d. A Coupler

47. For a bipolar junction transition (BJT) to operate properly, the base-collector junction
should be _____ biased.
a. Positive b. Forward
c. Negative d. Reverse

48. Large centralized data-processing complexes like multi-national companies, departments and
corporation use which type of general-purpose computer that operates programs simultaneously?
a. Mini-computer b. Micro-computer
c. Main-Frame computer d. Super computer
49. In parallel resonant LC circuit, what is the impedance at resonant frequency?
a. Zero b. Maximum impedance value
c. Infinity d. determined solely by the dc resistance

50. The area in which the axis motion of a robot manipulator can operate without any obstruction
is called the _____.
a. Work area b. Range of operation
c. Range of motion d. Work envelope

51. Metals approach superconductivity conditions

a. near absolute zero
b. near critical temperature
c. at triple point
d. under the condition of high temperature and pressure

52. Thermionic emissions of electrons is due to

a. electromagnetic field b. electrostatic field
c. high temperature d. photo-electric effect

53. The bulk resistance of a diode is

a. the resistance of the N-material only
b. the resistance of the P-material only
c. the resistance of the junction
d. the resistance of the p and the n material

54.As the temperature of a semiconductor is reduced to absolute zero

a. all electrons become free
b. all electrons cease to move
c. all valence electrons tend to remain in the valence band
d. all valence electrons shift in the forbidden gap
55. What is the maximum number of electrons in the third orbit?
a. 3 b. 12
c. 18 d. 8
56. Which of the following is a donor impurity element?
a. Phosphorus b. Aluminum
c. Boron d. Indium
57. Thermal runaway of a transistor occurs when
a. heat dissipation from transistor is excessive
b. transistor joints melt due to high temperature
c. there is excessive leakage current due to temperature rise
d. the transistor is on fire
58. Which transistor configuration is preferred for high input impedance and low output
a. common emitter b. common collector
c. common base d. common gate
59. A quiescent state of a transistor implies
a. zero bias b. no distortion
c. no output d. no input signal
60. Which of the following is the fastest switching device?
c. BJT c. PBNO

61. What is the most efficient type of amplifiers?

a. Class A c. Class C
b. Class B d. Class AB

62. It is the ratio of dc collector current to the dc emitter current.

a. dc beta or hFE c. dc gamma
b. dc alpha d. dc current

63. It is a transistor application used as an interface between a circuit with a high output
resistance and a low-resistance load
a. isolator b. circulator
c. buffer d. amplifier

64. What is the disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier?

a. Components are expensive b. Diodes must have a power
c. Output is difficult to d. Uses transformer
65. What is the voltage across a reversed bias diode in series with a 10 V DC source and a 1 KΩ
a. 0 V b. 0.7 V
c. 0.3 V d. 10 V

66. A multiplier circuit has a 4 pairs of capacitor-diode, what is the output of the multiplier
if the input is 10 V p-p.
a. 10 Vp-p b. 30 Vp-p
c. 40Vp-p d. 80 Vp-p

67 Which class of amplifier has the most distortion?

a. Class A b. Class B
c. Class C d. Class D

68. Which of the statement is correct?

a. the product of VCE and IC must exceed the maximum power dissipation.
b. the product of VCE and IC must not exceed the maximum power dissipation.
c. the quotient of VCE and IC must exceed the maximum power dissipation.
d. the quotient of VCE and IC must not exceed the maximum power dissipation.

69. Determine the ac emitter resistance (r’e) of a transistor that operates with a dc emitter
current of 3.13mA.
a. 8 ohms b. 12 ohms
c. 10 ohms d. 14 ohms

70. Semiconductors whose electron and hole concentrations are equal

a. Doped semiconductor b. Extrinsic semiconductor
c. Intrinsic semiconductor d. Equal semiconductor

71 Monolithic IC wafers are typically of_____

a. 1/8 inch diameter b. 1 inch diameter
c. ¼ inch diameter d. 2-inch diameter

72. With the rise in temperature of a PN junction, which of the following will increase?
a. Width of the depletion b. Junction barrier voltage
c. Reverse leakage current d. All of the above

73. Which element is a dopant for an N-type semiconductor?

a. Boron b. Indium
c. Aluminum d. Arsenic

74. What happens to the width of the depletion region of a pn junction when the doping level is
a. increases b. Remains the same
c. decreases d. vanishes

75. A half-wave rectifier is utilized across the line frequency, what is the output frequency?
a. 60 Hz b. 0 Hz
c. 120 Hz d. 30 Hz

76 ________is a unipolar semiconductor device whose current is carried by the majority carriers
a. FET b. BJT
c. Point contact transistor d. Zener diode

77. The terminals of a filed effect transistor (whether MOS or junction type enhancement or
depletion type), corresponding r4espectively to the emitter, base and collector of bipolar
transistor are
a. Anode, gate and cathode b. Input, power supply and
c. Source, gate and drain d. Darin, channel and source

78.. What is the current carrying part of a field effect transistor?

a. source b. gate
c. channel d. drain

79. The JFET is

a. A unipolar design b. Current control device
c. A voltage control device d. A and c

80. The minimum value of VGS that will cause the drain current to drop to zero.
a. Pinch-off voltage b. Thermal voltage
c. 26 mV d. Gate-source cut-off voltage
81. The constant-current region of a FET lies between
a. Cut-off and saturation b. Cut-off and pinch-off
c. 0 and IDss d. Pinch-off and breakdown

82. The emission of electrons in vacuum tubes is achieved by

a. electrostatic field b. magnetic field
c. heating d. electron bombardment
83. What material is the anode of a vacuum tube usually made from?
a. tungsten b. nickel
c. carbon d. aluminum
84.In case of indirectly heated tubes, the filament of the vacuum tube is usually made from
a. nickel b. fin
c. tungsten d. foil
85. Vacuum tubes has fins and are usually found in the anode for what purpose?
a. collect maximum number of electrons
b. reduce escape electrons
c. eliminate rebounding of electrons
d. dissipate heat produced
86. The difference between the valence band and the conduction band of a semiconductor is called
a. Energy density b. vacon
c. Band gap d. Extrinsic effect

87. Amount of energy needed to liberate electrons from the surface of metals.
a. Ionic discharge b. corona
c. workfunction d. potential

88. _________is an excess property of P-type semiconductor.

a. neutron b. proton
c. hole d. electron

89. What do you call the bond that hold the crystal?
a. ionic b. valent
c. covalent d. James

90. What type of bonds are formed by sharing the valence electrons with neighboring atoms?
a. ionic b. valent
c. covalent d. James

91. Avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor diode occurs when

a. the potential barrier is reduced to zero
b. forward biased exceeds a certain value
c. reversed bias exceeds a certain value
d. forward current exceeds a certain value

92. Which of the following material finds application in light emitting diodes?
a. silicon b. sulphur
c. phosphorus d. gallium phosphide

93. Which of the following material is used for infrared LEDs?

a. gallium arsenide b. calcium phosphide
c. silicon d. H2O

94. Heaters for vacuum tubes normally take a voltage value of what?
a. 1V b. 6.3 V
c. 2.3 V d. 220 V

95. If the effective value of a half wave rectified sine wave is 20. The average value of the
wave will be
a. 27.7 b. 18.8
c. 23.3 d. 12.7

96. The quality of a power supply is judge by

a. size b. regulation
c. voltage d. power

97. In radio receivers, excessive ripple causes

a. hum b. change in frequency selection
c. reduced power consumption d. no effect

98. What is the typical speed of a cassette tape for a tape recorder?
a. 1 inch/sec b. 5 cm/sec
c. 1 7/8 inch /sec d. 2 2/3 inch / sec
99. What is the typical impedance of a loudspeaker?
a. 1 ohm b. 12 ohms
c. 100 ohms d. 10000 ohms
100. What will be the dB gain for an increase of power level from 13 to 26 W?
a. 2 b. 3
c. -3 d. 6