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THE INTERNATIONAL MEDICAL ADMISSIONS TEST

(IMAT) SPECIFICATION
In partnership with
Ministero dell'Istruzione, dell'Università e della Ricerca (MIUR),
the Italian Ministry of Higher Education and Research

September 2018
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© UCLES 2018
The International Medical Admission Test (IMAT)
The International Medical Admissions Test (IMAT) is a subject-specific admissions test in
English, designed by Cambridge Assessment, for applicants to Medicine and Surgery
courses at Italian International Medical Schools.

These courses are taught in English, with places open to both home and international
students. Cambridge Assessment works in conjunction with the Italian Ministry of Higher
Education and Research (MIUR) to develop and deliver IMAT, which is the English
language equivalent of the Italian admissions test used for entry to medical degrees taught
in Italian.

Test Specification

Test Format

IMAT is a pen-and-paper test, consisting of a total of 60 multiple-choice questions divided


into four sections. All questions have five options, of which only one is correct. Candidates
have 100 minutes to complete the test and the format is as follows:

Section 1
20 questions - Logical Reasoning
2 questions - General Knowledge

Section 2
18 questions - Biology

Section 3
12 questions - Chemistry

Section 4
8 questions - Physics and Mathematics

Scoring

A candidate’s total score is calculated using the following formula:

1.5 points for each correct answer;


-0.4 points for each wrong answer;
0 points for each question not answered.

An overall total score (maximum 90 points) will be reported, together with a score on each
of Logical Reasoning, General Knowledge, Biology, Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics.

Level of Difficulty

The level of difficulty of the test items will be targeted to discriminate effectively between
applicants, including those who may have achieved the highest possible grades in school
examinations.

© UCLES 2018
Section 1: General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning
Section 1 will assess general knowledge and the thinking skills that students must possess
in order to succeed in a course of study at the highest level. Such skills are basic to any
academic studies, which often require students to solve novel problems, or consider
arguments put forward to justify a conclusion, or to promote or defend a particular point of
view.

General Knowledge

General Knowledge questions may address a range of cultural topics, including aspects of
literary, historical, philosophical, social and political culture.

These questions are not based on any specific part of school curricula; rather their aim is to
test the candidates’ interest and knowledge in a wide variety of fields. Candidates with a
keen extra-curricular interest in current events who regularly keep up to date with national
and international news will be better prepared to answer this type of question.

Which country was governed by the Taliban’s theocratic regime from 1996 to 2001?

A Afghanistan
B Iran
C Iraq
D Saudi Arabia
E Syria

Here the correct answer is A.

Logical Reasoning

The questions in this section evaluate candidates’ thinking skills, reasoning skills and
analytical skills, especially the ability to follow the logical steps in different contexts, to
recognise fallacies in the argument, to solve problems, and to discern relevant from
irrelevant information.

More specifically, there are two types of logical reasoning questions:

• Critical thinking: questions that involve reasoning using everyday written language.
Questions focus on the skills involved in understanding and evaluating arguments.

• Problem Solving: questions that involve reasoning using numerical and spatial skills.

In order to successfully answer these questions, candidates must employ a logical


approach. No previous knowledge of any particular subject is necessary and all the
information required to answer them is included in the question. Candidates are strongly
encouraged to familiarize themselves with the different types of questions by reading this
guide.

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Critical Thinking
In this category there are 7 different specific types of questions that can appear in this
section of the test:

1. Summarising the main conclusion


2. Drawing a conclusion
3. Identifying an assumption
4. Assessing the impact of additional evidence
5. Detecting reasoning errors
6. Identifying parallel reasoning
7. Applying principles

1. Summarising the Main Conclusion

There has been a decline in the rate of many of the illnesses of old age. The causes of
this decline include such medical advances as new drugs and surgical techniques.
There is, however, another factor. The present generation of 60- and 70-year-olds had
much better nutrition as children than did their parents. Good nutrition in childhood is
important for good health in adulthood. Since improvements in nutrition have continued
over the past sixty years, we can expect that many of the illnesses of old age will
continue to decline.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

A We can expect that improvements in nutrition will continue.


B The rate of many of the illnesses of old age has declined.
C Medical advances have significantly reduced the rate of diseases of old age.
D The fall in the rate of many of the illnesses associated with old age will continue.
E Improvements in nutrition have been very important in maintaining good health in
old age.

In this type of question you have to judge which one of the statements A to E best
expresses the main conclusion of the argument. The conclusion can appear anywhere
within an argument - not necessarily at the end. What you are looking for is the statement
which follows from, or is supported by the rest of the passage.

In this case, D is the correct answer.

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2. Drawing a Conclusion

The demand for blood donors is increasing all over the world. In Western countries, in
particular, demand has been rising so rapidly that shortages have begun to appear. In
all such countries, demand is growing much faster than rates of growth in populations
aged 18–65, and it is this group who are the major blood donors. And, despite a
massive research effort to find alternatives, it remains true that in medicine there is no
substitute for human blood.

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the passage?
A As the demand for blood has increased, so has the supply fallen.
B The rate of growth of the blood-donor population has been slowing recently.
C The increase in the rate of demand for blood is mainly due to population growth.
D If more blood donors could be found, there would be no need to find a substitute
for human blood.
E The problem of the increase in demand for blood shows no sign of disappearing.

In this type of question you are asked which conclusion follows from the information given.
You need to consider each of the statements A to E, and to think about whether the
information in the passage gives you good reasons to accept the statement.

In this case, E is the correct answer.

3. Identifying an Assumption

Success in modern America is very much measured by the quantity of material


possessions one has. A lack of material possessions means one is judged to be
unsuccessful. Those people with few material possessions therefore must feel a strong
sense of failure.

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?

A Most modern Americans are successful.


B Success can be precisely measured.
C People in America with few material possessions want to be seen as successful.
D Excessive desire for material possessions is psychologically damaging.
E Over-emphasis on material possessions creates social problems.

An assumption is something which is not stated in the argument, but which is taken for
granted in order to draw the conclusion. So you need first to identify the conclusion of the
argument. Then look for the reasoning it gives to support this conclusion, and think about
any important point which is not actually stated in the reasoning.

In this case, C is the correct answer.

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4. Assessing the Impact of Additional Evidence

Zoos are entirely unsuitable places for animals. People visit zoos to learn about animal
behaviour but the animals they see are likely to be behaving in abnormal and neurotic
ways because of the cramped and unnatural conditions in which they are kept. Zoos
should be closed and the money saved should be used for the protection of natural
habitats.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?

A Humans living in cramped conditions can also become neurotic


B Zoos enable endangered species to survive by breeding them in captivity and
then re- introducing them to the wild
C Many of the animals at present in zoos would not be capable of living in the wild
D The protection of natural habitats is very costly
E Schoolchildren can learn a great deal about animals from visiting zoos

This type of question will typically ask you to consider what would weaken or strengthen an
argument. You need first to be clear about what the argument is trying to establish. Work
out what the conclusion is, and then consider what effect each of the possible answers
would have on the conclusion.

In this case, B is the correct answer.

5. Detecting Reasoning Errors

In order to succeed in academic examinations it is necessary to study. Therefore, if a


student works hard in a particular subject, he or she should do well when it comes to
the examination.

Which one of the following best describes the flaw in the argument?

A It assumes that it is necessary to study in order to succeed.


B It overestimates the value of studying in preparation for examinations.
C It ignores the fact that some subjects are more academic than others.
D It assumes that studying hard is a sufficient condition for academic success.
E It ignores the fact that some students do not need to study very much in order to
succeed.

This type of question asks you to identify the flaw in the argument, which means that you
must explain why the conclusion does not follow from the reasons which are given. So you
need to be clear about what the conclusion is, and what reasons are meant to support it.

In this case, D is the correct answer.

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6. Identifying parallel reasoning

If you want to earn a good salary these days, you have to gain considerable experience
of working abroad. Since I have always wanted to earn a huge salary, it’s obvious that
I’m going to have leave this country for some period of time.

Which one of the following most closely parallels the reasoning used in the above
argument?

A If I had more time to spend on this project, I know that it would be very
successful. I’ve been told that I’m not going to be given enough time, so the
project isn’t going to succeed.
B Sam knew that if he wanted to write a film script, he would have to learn the
special techniques needed for such scripts. He has enrolled on a course to learn
how to write them, so he’ll soon be writing his first script.
C If the Ambassador can bring the two sides together for talks, there’s a good
chance of peace. Peace is something that both sides want, so he’ll be talking to
both sides soon.
D If the doctor thinks that you should be allowed out of bed for a short while, then
you must be recovering well from your operation. You have recovered much
quicker than she thought you would, so you’ll be out of bed a lot from now on.
E Annie says that it she really wants to win the race, she‘ll have to train very hard
every day. She told me that she is determined to win the race, so that means
she’ll be working hard on her training programme every day from now on.

This type of question asks you to identify similar arguments, but not similarity of topic. You
need to look for similarity in the structure or pattern of the argument. So you must identify
the structure of the argument and then consider each option to identify an argument with the
same structure.

Here the correct answer is E.

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7. Applying Principles

Smokers who suffer from heart disease which is caused by their smoking should not be
allowed to get free health treatment. That is because this is an example of self-inflicted
illness. Those whose actions have caused illness or injury to themselves should make a
financial contribution to their treatment.

Which one of the following best illustrates the principle underlying the argument above?

A Children should get free dental treatment, even if they eat sweets which cause
dental decay.
B Motor cyclists whose head injuries are caused by not wearing a crash helmet
should make a financial contribution to their treatment.
C Smokers who cannot afford to pay for healthcare should be allowed free treatment
when they are ill.
D People who are injured in car accidents should receive free treatment regardless of
whether they were wearing a seat belt.
E Heart disease sufferers who can afford to pay for health treatment should not
receive free treatment.

This type of question asks you to identify which statement illustrates the principle underlying
the passage. A principle is a general recommendation, which in the passage will be applied
to just one particular case, but which could also be applied to other cases. In order to
answer this type of question, you must first identify this principle and then consider each of
the options to see which one follows from that principle.

The correct answer is B.

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Problem Solving

There are three kinds of problem solving questions:

1. Relevant Selection
2. Finding Procedures
3. Identifying Similarity

Although most questions fall into only one category, some questions fit into more than one
of the categories.

1. Relevant Selection

The following table gives figures for the percentage growth per year of labour productivity
per person per year in various countries during three periods.

Period 1 Period 2 Period 3


Japan 8.5 3.0 3.2
France 5.4 3.0 2.6
United Kingdom 3.6 1.5 2.4
Belgium 3.3 2.8 2.3
Sweden 4.1 1.5 1.8
Denmark 4.3 2.6 1.7
Italy 6.3 3.0 1.6
Netherlands 4.8 2.7 1.6
Germany 4.5 3.1 1.6
United States 2.2 0.0 0.8

Which country's percentage growth per year remained consistently greater than half of its
Period 1 level in the following periods?

A Belgium
B Denmark
C France
D Germany
E United Kingdom

Very often a real world problem will be overloaded with information, much of which is
unimportant. This kind of question demands Relevant Selection, in which the task is to
select only that information which is necessary and helpful in finding a solution.

In this case, A is the correct answer.

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2. Finding Procedures

A child's bus fare is cheaper than the adult fare but is more than half the adult fare. The
total cost of a single journey for an adult and two children is €1.20. Adult fares are all
multiples of 10 cents.

What is the adult fare?

A 30 cents
B 40 cents
C 50 cents
D 60 cents
E 70 cents

Sometimes you will find that even if you have selected all the relevant information, no
solution presents itself. For this type of question, you have to find a method or procedure
which you can use to generate a solution.

In this case, C is the correct answer.

3. Identifying Similarity

I wish to tile an area of wall 120 cm wide by 100 cm high. Tiles are 20 cm square. I will,
therefore, need 6 x 5 = 30 tiles.

Which one of the following uses the same method of calculation as that above?

A A staircase is 3 m high. Each step rises 0.25 m. Therefore, there are 12 steps.
B A room is 4.2 m by 2.0 m. Carpet costs €10.00 per square metre. Therefore, it will
cost €84.00 to carpet the room.
C A box containing sugar cubes is 10 cm x 10 cm x 5 cm . A sugar cube is 1cm on
each side. Therefore, the box contains 500 cubes.
D Using square tables 1.5 m on each side, I need to make up a conference table
6 m x 3 m. Therefore I will need 8 tables.
E I work 40 hours a week and earn €5.00 an hour. Therefore, in 4 weeks I will earn
€800.00.

In this type of question you will be presented with information and asked to identify the
same information presented in a different way, or a situation in which different information
has a similar structure.

Here the correct answer is D.

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Section 2: Biology
Topics covered:

The chemistry of living things


The biological importance of weak interactions. Organic molecules in organisms and their
respective functions. The role of enzymes.
The cell as the basis of life
Cell theory. Cell size. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, animal and plant cells.
Viruses.
The structure and function of the cell membrane and transport across the
membrane. Cellular structures and their specific functions. Cell cycle and cell
division: mitosis and meiosis - chromosomes and chromosome maps.
Bioenergetics
The energy currency of cells: ATP. Redox reactions in living things. Photosynthesis,
glycolysis, aerobic respiration and fermentation.
Reproduction and Inheritance
Life cycles. Sexual and asexual reproduction. Mendelian genetics: Mendel's laws and
their applications. Classical genetics: chromosomal theory of inheritance - inheritance
patterns. Molecular genetics: structure and replication of DNA, the genetic code,
protein synthesis. Prokaryotic DNA. Eukaryotic chromosome structure. Genes and
regulation of gene expression.
Human genetics: mono- and multifactorial character transmission; hereditary
diseases - autosomal and linked to chromosome X.
Biotechnology: recombinant DNA technology and its applications.
Inheritance and environment
Mutations. Natural and artificial selection. Evolutionary theories. The genetic basis of
evolution.
Anatomy and physiology of animals and humans
The animal tissues. Anatomy and physiology of systems in humans and their interactions.
Homeostasis.

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Section 3: Chemistry
Topics covered:

The composition of matter

States of matter; heterogeneous and homogeneous systems; compounds and


elements. Ideal Gas Laws.
Atomic structure
Elementary particles; atomic number and mass number, isotopes, electronic
structure of atoms of different elements.
The periodic table of the elements
Groups and periods; transition elements. Periodic properties of elements: atomic radius,
ionization potential, electron affinity, metallic character. The relationships between
electronic structure, position in the periodic table, and element properties.
The chemical bond
Ionic, covalent and metallic bonds. Binding energy. Polarity of bonds.
Electronegativity. Intermolecular bonds.
Fundamentals of inorganic chemistry
Nomenclature and main properties of inorganic compounds: oxides, hydroxides,
acids, salts.
Chemical reactions and stoichiometry
Atomic and molecular mass, Avogadro's number, mole concept and its application,
elementary stoichiometric calculations, balancing simple reactions, different types of
chemical reaction.
Solutions
Solvent properties of water, solubility, the main ways of expressing the concentration of
solutions. Equilibria in aqueous solution. Chemical kinetics and catalysis.
Oxidation and reduction
Oxidation number, concept of oxidizing and reducing. Balancing of simple reactions.
Acids and bases
The concept of acid and base. Acidity, neutrality and basicity of aqueous solutions. The
pH scale. Hydrolysis. Buffer solutions.
Fundamentals of organic chemistry
Bonds between carbon atoms, and crude formulas of structure, the concept of
isomerism. Aliphatic, alicyclic and aromatic hydrocarbons. Functional groups:
alcohols, ethers, amines, aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids, esters, amides.
Chemical nomenclature.

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Section 4: Physics & Mathematics
Physics

Topics covered:

Measures
Direct and indirect measures, fundamental and derived quantities, physical dimensions
of quantities, knowledge of the metric system and the CGS System of Units, Technical
(or practical) (ST) and International System (SI) units of measurement (names and
relationships between fundamental and derived units), multiples and sub-multiples
(names and values).
Kinematics
Kinematic quantities, various types of motion with particular regard to uniform and
uniformly accelerating rectilinear motion; uniform circular motion; harmonic motion (for
all motions: definition and relationships between quantities).
Dynamics
Vectors and vector operations. Forces, moments of forces about a point. Moment of a
force couple. Vector composition of forces. Definition of mass and weight. Acceleration
due to gravity. Density and specific gravity. The law of universal gravitation, 1st, 2nd and
3rd laws of motion. Work, kinetic energy, potential energy. Principle of conservation of
energy. Impulse and momentum. Principle of conservation of momentum.
Fluid mechanics
Pressure, and its unit of measure (not only in the SI system). Archimedes’ Principle.
Pascal's principle. Stevino's law.
Thermodynamics
Thermometry and calorimetry. Specific heat, heat capacity. Mechanisms of heat
propagation. Changes of state and latent heats. Ideal Gas Laws. First and second laws
of thermodynamics.
Electrostatic and electrodynamics
Coulomb's law. Electric field and potential. Dielectric constant. Capacitors.
Capacitors in series and in parallel. Direct current. Ohm’s Law. Kirchhoff’s Principles.
Electrical resistance and resistivity, electrical resistances in series and in parallel. Work,
Power, Joule effect. Generators. Electromagnetic induction and alternating currents.
Effects of electrical currents (thermal, chemical and magnetic).

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Mathematics

Topics covered:
Algebra and numerical sets
Natural numbers, integers, rational and real numbers. Sorting and comparison: scales
and scientific notation. Operations and their properties. Proportions and percentages.
Powers with integer and rational exponents, and their properties. Roots and their
properties. Logarithms (base 10 and base e) and their properties. Elements of
combinatorics. Algebraic and polynomial expressions. Major products and nth power of
binomial expansions, factorisation of polynomials. Algebraic fractions. Algebraic
equations and inequalities of the first and second order. Systems of equations.
Functions
Basic concepts of functions and their graphical representations (domain, codomain, sign,
maximum and minimum, increasing and decreasing, etc.). Elementary functions: whole
and fractional algebraic functions; exponential, logarithmic, and trigonometric functions.
Composite and inverse functions. Trigonometric equations and inequalities.
Geometry
Polygons and their properties. Circle and circumference. Measurements of lengths,
surfaces and volumes. Isometries, similarities and equivalences in the plane. Geometric
loci. Measurement of angles in degrees and radians. Sine, cosine, tangent of an angle
and their significant values. Trigonometric formulas. Solving triangles. Cartesian
reference system in a plane. Distance between two points and the midpoint of a
segment. Straight line equation. Conditions for parallel and perpendicular lines. Distance
of a point to a line. Equation of the circle, the parabola, the hyperbola, the ellipse and
their representation in the Cartesian plane. Pythagoras’ theorem. Euclid’s first and
second theorems.
Probability and statistics
Frequency distributions and their graphical representations. Concept of random
experiments and events. Probability and frequency.

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Specimen Biology, Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics Questions

The diagram below shows a family tree of a condition known as nail patella syndrome (NPS).

1 2

3 4 5 6

7 8 9

Key

female without NPS male without NPS

female with NPS male with NPS

Which of the following pairs of individuals must be heterozygous for NPS?

A 1 and 5
B 2 and 6
C 3 and 7
D 4 and 8
E 5 and 9

Here the correct answer is D.

An oxide of iron has the formula Fe3O4 and contains both Fe2+ and Fe3+ ions.

Which one of the following is the fraction of iron ions that are in the Fe2+ state?

1
A /4
1
B /3
1
C /2
2
D /3
3
E /4

Here the correct answer is B.

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Below are four statements about thermal (heat) energy.

1 A substance can lose heat energy without its temperature falling.


2 Heat energy can pass through a vacuum.
3 Steam at 100oC has more heat energy than the same mass of boiling water at 100oC
4 When a container of water is cooled near the top, a convection current is set up in the
w water.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 only
B 2, 3 and 4 only
C 1, 2 and 4 only
D 1, 3 and 4 only
E 1, 2, 3 and 4

Here the correct answer is E.

The longest side of a right angled triangle is 6 + 5 units.

One of the shorter sides is 3 + 2 5 units.

What is the length of the third side?

A 2 3

B 70 + 24 5

C 12

D 3− 5

E 14 + 7.5 5

Here the correct answer is A.

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Cambridge Assessment Admissions Testing offers a range of tests to support selection and
recruitment for higher education, professional organisations and governments around the
world. Underpinned by robust and rigorous research, our assessments include:

• assessments in thinking skills


• admissions tests for medicine and healthcare
• behavioural styles assessment
• subject-specific admissions tests.

We are part of a not-for-profit department of the University of Cambridge.

Cambridge Assessment
Admissions Testing
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU
United Kingdom

Admissions tests support:


www.admissionstesting.org/help
THE INTERNATIONAL MEDICAL ADMISSIONS TEST
(IMAT) PREPARATION GUIDE
In partnership with
Ministero dell'Istruzione, dell'Università e della Ricerca (MIUR),
the Italian Ministry of Higher Education and Research

2018
Table of Contents
Introduction ..................................................................................................................................... 2
The International Medical Admission Test (IMAT).......................................................................2
Purpose of the IMAT guide .....................................................................................................................2
General information and test specification .....................................................................................2
Practical advice on how to prepare for IMAT ..................................................................................4
Section 1: General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning ...................................................... 5
General Knowledge ...................................................................................................................................5
Logical Reasoning ......................................................................................................................................8
Problem Solving .........................................................................................................................................8
1. Relevant Selection ............................................................................................................................................ 9
2. Finding Procedures ...................................................................................................................................... 10
3. Identifying Similarity ................................................................................................................................... 10
The mathematical knowledge and skills needed .................................................................................. 11
Critical Thinking ..................................................................................................................................... 12
1. Summarising the Main Conclusion ..................................................................................................... 13
2. Drawing a Conclusion .................................................................................................................................. 14
3. Identifying an Assumption ....................................................................................................................... 15
4. Assessing the Impact of Additional Evidence ............................................................................... 16
5. Detecting Reasoning Errors ................................................................................................................... 18
6. Matching Arguments .................................................................................................................................. 19
7. Applying Principles ..................................................................................................................................... 21
Section 2: Biology......................................................................................................................... 22
Section 3: Chemistry ................................................................................................................... 24
Section 4: Mathematics and Physics ..................................................................................... 28
Mathematics ............................................................................................................................................. 28
Physics ........................................................................................................................................................ 32

© UCLES 2018
Introduction
The International Medical Admission Test (IMAT)

The International Medical Admissions Test (IMAT) is a subject-specific admissions test in


English, designed by Cambridge Assessment Admissions Testing for applicants to Medicine
and Surgery courses at Italian International Medical Schools.

These courses are taught in English, with places open to both home and international
students. Cambridge Assessment Admissions Testing was appointed by the Italian Ministry
of Higher Education and Research (MIUR) to specifically develop IMAT in 2011, a test
designed uniquely for admission to English-taught medical degrees at Italian universities.

Cambridge Assessment Admissions Testing (http://www.admissionstestingservice.org) is a


global leader in the development of university admissions tests with more than 10 years’
experience in the field, working with leading universities in the UK and worldwide to develop
and administer assessments as part of the admissions process. Their evidence-based
assessments are supported by rigorous and on-going research to ensure that they provide
useful and fit-for-purpose information to support university admissions decisions. They are
committed to ensuring that all our assessments are fair, have sound ethical underpinning
and operate according to the highest technical standards.

Cambridge Assessment Admissions Testing is part of Cambridge Assessment, a not-for-


profit department of the University of Cambridge. Cambridge Assessment is the University
of Cambridge’s international exams group, designing and delivering assessments to over 8
million learners in over 170 countries.

In conjunction with Admissions Testing, the Italian Ministry of Higher Education and
Research has a yearly review of IMAT’s design and format. The details of the review are
released near the test date by Ministerial Decree and are available on MIUR’s website:
http://accessoprogrammato.miur.it

Purpose of the IMAT guide

This guide sets out to provide candidates with the necessary information to prepare for
IMAT, the entrance examination for undergraduate courses to Medicine and Surgery
courses at Italian International Medical Schools. Many examples and detailed explanations
about each question type in the admission test are available here, enabling candidates to
become familiar with the style of questions and the format of the test.

Using this guide, candidates will be able to feel more confident that they have developed the
skills and knowledge needed to achieve the best possible result.

This guide is approved by MIUR and it provides the official specification of both the format
and contents of IMAT.

General information and test specification

Previous IMAT papers included a total of 60 multiple-choice questions. All questions had
five options, of which only one is correct.

Candidates have to answer various kinds of questions related to general knowledge, logical
reasoning and several scientific disciplines. In order to be able to correctly identify the right
answer in each of the sections, students shall:

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1. have a solid general knowledge in the literary, philosophical, historical, social,
political and institutional spheres;

2. develop logical reasoning skills related to all the proposed types; to this end, it is
essential to become familiar with the materials in this guide and with the practice
material for test-takers on Cambridge Assessment Admissions Testing’s website
(www.admissionstestingservice.org);

3. have a good knowledge of the scientific disciplines required in accordance with the
Ministerial Program for secondary schools for Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics and
Physics, as detailed in this guide.

IMAT does not require a great amount of extra study as it relies on skills and knowledge that
candidates should already have. Candidates can familiarise themselves with the test format
by downloading the test specification and past papers from the Cambridge Assessment
Admissions Testing website:

http://www.admissionstestingservice.org/for-test-takers/imat/preparing-for-imat/

The format of the test is 60 multiple-choice questions with five options each. The five
options might initially all seem plausible, but the students will have to choose not only based
on their knowledge on the subject, but above all, using their own logical reasoning skills
applied to various subjects.

The questions are divided according to the following sections:

Section 1
20 questions - Logical Reasoning
2 questions - General Knowledge

Section 2

18 questions - Biology

Section 3
12 questions - Chemistry

Section 4
8 questions - Physics and Mathematics

Please note that the order in which the questions are presented in the test is not the same
as the order in this guide: questions will be randomised for each exam paper, so each
candidate’s exam will have a different order of questions and answers.

Furthermore, although questions have varying degrees of difficulty, they will not be
presented in any particular ascending or descending order of difficulty.

A candidate’s total score is calculated using the following formula:

1.5 points for each correct answer


-0.4 points for each wrong answer
0 points for each question not answered.

An overall total score (maximum 90 points) will be reported, together with a score on each
section.

Candidates have 100 minutes to complete the test.


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Practical advice on how to prepare for IMAT

In order to achieve a good result, candidates must be able to answer correctly as many
questions as possible in the time available. Therefore, time management is crucial:
candidates are advised to practice with past papers under timed conditions so as to use the
time effectively and try to avoid dwelling excessively on certain questions.

IMAT is designed to give candidates enough time to answer all of the questions if they work
efficiently. If it is difficult to make progress with a question, a candidate can move on to a
different question and then come back to the question later on. Candidates are not
restricted to doing the questions in the order that they appear on the question paper.
Sometimes, the best strategy can be to focus on particular types of question depending on
individual strengths and preferences. A useful tip on how to manage the time available
effectively is to practice spending no more than a minute and a half for each question. This
will help optimize the time, so that candidates quickly answer the questions they find easier,
and have more time for more challenging questions.

It is essential that candidates practice answering multiple choice questions in all the
sections, in order to speed up their response skills to the questions. The only way to deal
confidently with IMAT is to practice, as much as possible, answering questions similar to
those that appear in this guide, so as to become familiar with the question format and the
time available to answer. This is particularly applicable to those questions in the Logical
Reasoning section where the importance of carefully reading each question before
answering and to take into consideration all five options presented cannot be overestimated.
For further examples of Logical Reasoning questions, see the preparation materials for the
Thinking Skills Assessment (TSA) and Bio-Medical Admissions Test (BMAT) on the
Cambridge Assessment Admissions Testing website.

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Section 1: General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning
Section 1 will assess general knowledge and the thinking skills (i.e. logical reasoning) that
students must possess in order to succeed in a course of study at the highest level. Such
skills are basic to any academic studies, which often require students to solve novel
problems, or consider arguments put forward to justify a conclusion, or to promote or defend
a particular point of view.

General Knowledge

General Knowledge questions may address a range of cultural topics, including aspects of
literary, historical, philosophical, social and political culture.

These questions are not based on any specific part of school curricula; rather their aim is to
test the candidates’ interest and knowledge in a wide variety of fields. Candidates with a
keen extra-curricular interest in current events and that regularly keep up to date with
national and international news will be better prepared to answer this type of questions.

With general knowledge questions candidates may often know the correct answer, however
they may sometimes be unsure and may be tempted to give up and move on to other
questions.

There are actually some useful strategies that can be adopted to maximise your chances to
correctly identify the right answer, as illustrated by the following examples.

EXAMPLE 1:

‘Dubliners’ is a collection of short stories written by which author?

A J. Joyce
B F. O’Brien
C I. Svevo
D F. Kafka
E J-P. Sartre

The correct answer is A. This is a typical literary-based general knowledge question.

In the event that the candidate was not already familiar with the literary work in question, it
is still possible to try to respond through a process of logical elimination. It is common
knowledge that Dublin is in Ireland and therefore it can be safely assumed that the author is
Irish. Therefore, the authors with surnames indicating other nationalities can be
automatically eliminated, namely answers C, D and E. Now the candidate has narrowed the
choice between A and B and has much better chances of answering correctly. Answer B is
a "distractor" because it is a typical Irish surname, but one that does not correspond to the
author of the work in question. This example illustrates how the student, in case of not
knowing immediately the correct answer, can still benefit from a process of elimination using
their logical reasoning skills. This approach can lead to correctly responding to a greater
number of questions.

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EXAMPLE 2:

Which country was governed by the Taliban’s theocratic regime from 1996 to 2001?

A Afghanistan
B Iran
C Iraq
D Saudi Arabia
E Syria

The correct answer is A. This is a typical current affairs/recent history based general
knowledge question.

This type of question aims to ascertain whether or not students follow recent events and are
well-informed on major national and international affairs in the contemporary world. Those
candidates who do not actively follow international news and are not keen readers of good
quality newspapers and magazines will clearly be at a disadvantage.

EXAMPLE 3:

Which of the following city-monument pair is wrong?

A Stockholm – Pont du Gard


B Rome – Theatre of Marcellus
C Athens – Erechtheion
D Istanbul – Hagia Sophia
E Split – Diocletian’s Palace

The correct answer is A. This is an interdisciplinary general knowledge question based on


geographical as well as historical knowledge.

This example can also be solved by using logical reasoning skills – and linguistic skills and
intuition, in this case – if the candidate does not know the correct answer immediately.

A possible logical method to arrive at the solution is to first identify the correct matches by
recognising the linguistic characteristics of the monuments’ names, even if the candidate
does not know those specific monuments in particular. Therefore, answers B, C and D can
be safely eliminated at the start. Answer E can be misleading and very attractive because
the candidate might not know where Split is (i.e. Croatia) or because he/she might not know
that this geographical area was heavily settled by Romans, hence the name “Diocletian”.
However, the correct resolution of the question hinges on the recognition that "Pont du
Gard" is a typical French name and, therefore, it is not an extremely likely name for a
monument in Stockholm, capital of Sweden.

The application of logic skills and linguistic abilities is often successful in solving
interdisciplinary general knowledge questions.

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EXAMPLE 4:

The World Heritage Convention, adopted by UNESCO in 1972, aims to identify and
maintain a list of sites that may be considered:

A of exceptional cultural or natural importance


B of outstanding economic value
C to be characterized by a lasting peace
D to be conventionally suitable for human settlement
E to have exploitable energy resources

The correct answer is A. This is an example of a question based on culture and politics. In
this case, the question is about the nature of a world organisation.

Even if the candidate does not have direct knowledge of this topic, the candidate should be
able to immediately disassociate the term “heritage” with any answer relating to economy
and finance, thus eliminating immediately answers B and E. By the same logic of
elimination, C can be de discarded because peace does not relate to “heritage” in any way,
leaving only two plausible options and increasing the chances of answering correctly.

Overall, general knowledge questions can cover topics ranging from authors and books to
famous personalities, current affairs, history or inventions, world geography and much more.
The aim is to test the students’ knowledge of the wider world and their ability to apply logical
reasoning in different contexts. The best way to prepare for such questions is to read
widely, across a range of different subjects and maintain an awareness of current affairs.

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Logical Reasoning

The aim of the questions in this section is to evaluate candidates’ reasoning skills and
analytic skills, especially the ability to follow the logical steps in different contexts, to
recognise fallacies in the argument, to solve problems and to discern relevant from
irrelevant information.

More specifically, there are two types of logical reasoning questions:

• Problem Solving: questions that involve reasoning using numerical and spatial skills.

• Critical thinking: questions that involve reasoning using everyday written language.
Questions focus on the skills involved in understanding and evaluating arguments.

In order to successfully answer these questions, candidates must employ a logical


approach. No previous knowledge of any particular subject is necessary. Candidates are
strongly encouraged to familiarize themselves with the different types of questions by
reading through this guide.

Problem Solving

Problem Solving involves reasoning using numerical and spatial skills. The actual numerical
and mathematical reasoning required for these questions is quite simple (certainly not at
the same level as required for the mathematics questions in Section 4).

There are three kinds of problem solving questions:

1. Relevant Selection
2. Finding Procedures
3. Identifying Similarity

Although most questions fall into one category, some questions can fit into more than one of
the categories. The examples following below show the different types of problem solving
questions present in IMAT.

Selecting relevant information


Often a real-world problem will be overloaded with information, much of which is
unimportant. The first step in solving the problem is to decide which bits of the information
available are important. It may be that the question has presented you with information
which is not important, perhaps redundant and possibly distracting. This kind of question
demands relevant selection, in which the task is to select only that information which is
necessary and helpful in finding a solution and then applying it.

Recognising analogous cases


In each of these questions you will be presented with information and asked to identify the
same information presented in a different way, or the question will present a situation in
which different information has a similar structure. Many of these questions can involve
spatial reasoning ability.

Applying appropriate procedures


Sometimes you will find that even when you have selected all of the relevant information, no
obvious solution presents itself. You then have to find a method or procedure which you can
use to generate a solution from the information in the question. Typically you will have three
or four numbers which have to be operated on in some way, or you will need to perform an
operation a number of times.

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1. Relevant Selection

Very often a real world problem will be overloaded with information, much of which is
unimportant. This kind of question demands Relevant Selection, in which the task is to
select only that information which is necessary and helpful in finding a solution.

The table below shows the price of various ladders. I need a ladder at least 8 m long
to reach the gutters of my house. I want to store it in my garage which is only 4.2 m
long.

Length closed Length Lightweight Heavyweight


(m) Extended (m) (Home use) (Trade use)
Triple section ladders:
2.6 6.0 €82 €100
3.0 7.5 €104 €120
3.5 9.0 €133 €150
4.0 10.0 -- €169
Double section ladders:
3.0 5.3 €52 €64
3.5 6.2 €67 €82
4.0 7.2 €78 €95
4.5 8.3 €98 €115
5.0 9.0 -- €140
5.5 10.0 -- €155

What is the lowest price I must pay to satisfy these conditions?

A €78
B €98
C €133
D €150
E €169

The answer is C. We need to find a ladder which extends to 8 metres but has a closed length
of no more than 4.2 metres. There are no double section ladders which fit the requirements.
Two triple section ladders are possible, one extending to 9 m and the other to 10 m. With
heavyweight and lightweight options taken into account there are three possibilities. We
require the cheapest and this costs €133.00. A lightweight ladder with a closed length of 3.5 m
and an extended length of 9 m.

A €78 - lightweight - too short when extended


B €98 - lightweight - too long when closed
D €150 - heavyweight - more expensive than C
E €169 - heavyweight - more expensive than C

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2. Finding Procedures
Sometimes you will find that even if you have selected all of the relevant information, no
solution presents itself. You then have to find a method or procedure which you can use to
generate a solution. Typically you will have three or four numbers which have to be
operated on. This aspect of Problem Solving is called Finding Procedures.

Three thermometers are each accurate to within 2 degrees above or below the
temperature they actually read. One reads 7°, one reads 9° and one reads 10°.
What is the minimum range in which the true temperature lies?
A 5° – 12°
B 7° – 9°
C 8° – 10°
D 8° – 9°
E 7° – 10°

The answer is D. The method here is to search for the acceptable highest and lowest
temperatures for the conditions to be met, realising that the middle value is irrelevant. As
one reads 7°, the temperature cannot be above 9° and, as another reads 10°, the
temperature cannot be below 8°. This is given by D.

A This is obtained by subtracting 2 from the lowest and adding 2 to the highest.
B Takes the lowest reading and goes to 2 above it.
C Takes the highest reading and goes to 2 below it.
E Takes the range to be from the lowest reading to the highest reading.

3. Identifying Similarity
In this type of question you will be presented with information and asked to identify the
same information presented in a different way, or a situation in which different information
has a similar structure.

I wish to tile an area of wall 120 cm wide by 100 cm high. Tiles are 20 cm square. I
will, therefore, need 6 x 5 = 30 tiles.
Which of the following uses the same method of calculation as that above?
A A staircase is 3 m high. Each step rises 0.25 m. Therefore, there are 12 steps.
B A room is 4.2 m by 2.0 m. Carpet costs €10.00 per square metre. Therefore, it
will cost €84.00 to carpet the room.
C A box containing sugar cubes is 10 cm x 10 cm x 5 cm. A sugar cube is 1 cm on
each side. Therefore, the box contains 500 cubes.
D Using square tables 1.5 m on each side, I need to make up a conference table
that is 6 m x 3 m. Therefore I will need 8 tables.
E I work 40 hours a week and earn €5.00 an hour. Therefore, in 4 weeks I will earn
€800.00.

The answer is D. The procedure of multiplying 6 x 5 is based on 6 tiles fitting along one edge
and 5 tiles along another. In option D, 4 of the small tables will fit along the 6 m side and 2
along the 3 m side. The computation will therefore be 4 x 2.

Option A divides 3 by 0.25.


Option B multiplies 4.2 by 2.0 by 10.
Option C multiplies 10 by 10 by 5.
Option E multiplies 5 by 40.

Although in D there is a multiplication, this is the only case in which the numbers to be
multiplied must first be obtained as they are in the tiling example.
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The mathematical knowledge and skills needed

Number concepts
• simple fractions
• place value (for example, knowing that the "5" in "7654" indicates "50")
• ideas about percentages (for example, the idea that 1% could be thought of as "1 in
every 100", and that if 20% of a group of adults are men, 80% must be women).

Numerical operations
• the four rules of number (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division)
• percentage operations (for example, if something was sold at £10, and is now
advertised at "20% off", how much would the customer pay?)
• calculations in everyday contexts (complex calculations with fractions and decimals are
not required).

Quantities
• time and the calendar
• money
• measures as shown below:

Length Weight Area Volume (capacity)


Kilometre (km) Kilogram (kg) Centimetre square Cubic centimetre
Metre (m) Gram (g) (cm2) (cm3)
Centimetre (cm) Metre square (m2) Litre (l)
Millimetre (mm) Gallon

Knowledge of the following relationships is also required:


1 km = 1000 m 1 m = 100 cm 1 cm = 10 mm 1 kg = 1000 g

Also required is knowledge of the terms for measurements which are used informally in
daily life (e.g. feet, miles), but numerical relationships for these measures (e.g. 12 inches =
1 foot) are not required.

Space and spatial reasoning


• area (including the calculation of the area of a rectangle)
• perimeter (including calculation)
• volume (including the calculation of the volume of a box)
• reflections (in mirrors) and rotations of simple shapes
• two-dimensional (2D) representations of three-dimensional (3D) shapes (for example,
being able to interpret a "bird's eye view" of a house).

Generalisation
Recognition that some operations are generalizable, for example, that converting 24 to 3
and 40 to 5 both involve division by 8 (formal algebra is not required).

Tables
• extracting information from tables.

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Critical Thinking

Critical Thinking in the context of the IMAT can best be made clear by the following
definition: in an argument, reasons are put forward as grounds for a conclusion. The
argument is a good argument provided its conclusion follows from the reasons. That is to
say, if you accept the reasons, you must accept the conclusion.

For the purposes of the Critical Thinking element, the reasons given should be accepted as
being true so that you can focus on the structure of the reasoning. When you are reading
through the paragraph, it can be useful to identify different elements so that you can see the
reasoning and particularly see the reasons that lead you to a conclusion. Identifying the
reasons and the main conclusion is an important part of understanding the structure of an
argument.

Here is an example of a simple argument:


Jill promised she would attend the meeting or send a substitute. We know she can't attend
the meeting. So we are expecting a substitute.

The structure of this argument is as follows:

Reasons: Jill promised she would attend the meeting or send a substitute. We know she
can't attend the meeting.

Conclusion: So we are expecting a substitute.

In this case, the conclusion appears at the end of the argument, and is introduced by the
word "so". Sometimes a conclusion may be introduced by words such as "therefore", "thus",
"it follows that". However, sometimes a conclusion may not contain any such word.

It is also important to note that a conclusion may appear at the beginning of, or in the middle
of, an argument, rather than at the end.

For example, the above argument could have been written in this way:
We know Jill cannot attend the meeting. We are expecting a substitute. She promised she
would attend the meeting or send a substitute.

Or in this way:
We are expecting a substitute for Jill. We know she cannot attend the meeting, and she
promised she would attend or send a substitute.

In both these cases, "We are expecting a substitute (for Jill)" is the conclusion, because it is
the statement which follows from, or is supported by, the rest of the passage.

Some arguments may omit a crucial stage in the reasoning - an assumption which must be
made in order for the conclusion to follow. Here is an example:

She doesn't stand much of a chance. The polar bear is right behind her.

In this argument it is not explicitly stated that polar bears are dangerous, but the conclusion
that "she doesn't stand much of a chance" depends upon the belief that polar bears are
dangerous. This belief is taken for granted, or assumed.

In summary, the features of arguments are:


• reason(s)
• conclusion(s) (which may or may not be introduced by words such as "so", "therefore")
• assumption(s) i.e. crucial parts of the argument which have not been stated.

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Arguments can be much more complex in structure than the examples given so far and they
can be lengthy. But whatever their length and complexity, there are certain skills involved in
understanding and evaluating arguments. These include: drawing and summarising
conclusions, identifying assumptions and reasoning errors, and assessing the impact of
additional evidence.

In the Critical Thinking category there are 7 different specific types of questions:

1. Summarising the main conclusion


2. Drawing a conclusion
3. Identifying an assumption
4. Assessing the impact of additional evidence
5. Detecting reasoning errors
6. Matching arguments
7. Applying principles

1. Summarising the Main Conclusion

In this type of question you have to judge which one of the statements A to E best
expresses the main conclusion of the argument. So the first important step is to read the
passage carefully and pick out the sentence which is the conclusion. Remember that the
conclusion can appear anywhere within an argument – not necessarily at the end.
Remember also that what you are looking for is the statement which follows from, or is
supported by, the rest of the passage.

It may be helpful to ask yourself: "What is the main message which this passage is trying to
get me to accept?" When you think you have answered this question, underline the
sentence which expresses this main message, then look to see if the rest of the passage
gives you reasons for believing this. Sometimes a passage may have an intermediate
conclusion which is just one of the steps in the reasoning towards the main conclusion. Be
careful to check this. If the sentence you have underlined gives reason to believe some
other statement in the passage, then it will not be the main conclusion. Do not worry about
whether the reasons are true. Just ask yourself: "If these reasons were true, would they give
me good reason to accept the sentence I have underlined?"

Vegetarian food can be healthier than a traditional diet. Research has shown that
vegetarians are less likely to suffer from heart disease and obesity than meat eaters.
Concern has been expressed that vegetarians do not get enough protein in their diet
but it has been demonstrated that, by selecting foods carefully, vegetarians are able
to amply meet their needs in this respect.
Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above
argument?
A A vegetarian diet can be better for health than a traditional diet.
B Adequate protein is available from a vegetarian diet.
C A traditional diet is very high in protein.
D A balanced diet is more important for health than any particular food.
E Vegetarians are unlikely to suffer from heart disease and obesity.

What does this argument seem to be trying to get us to accept? It seems to be trying to
persuade us that vegetarian food can be healthier than a traditional diet, so we should
underline the first sentence. Then we need to see whether the rest of the passage gives us
reason to believe this. Two reasons are given:
1. Vegetarians are less likely to suffer from heart disease and obesity than meat
eaters.
2. A vegetarian diet can contain sufficient protein.
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We may not know whether these reasons are true, but if they were true, they would indicate
that vegetarian food is healthier in one respect than a traditional diet which includes meat,
and that a vegetarian diet does not necessarily have the disadvantage to health (providing
insufficient protein) which we may have thought. So it seems clear that the first sentence of
the passage is being offered as a conclusion.

A is the statement which best expresses this conclusion.

B is not the main conclusion, but it is one of the reasons for the main conclusion – labelled
above as reason (2).

C is not the main conclusion, because it is not even stated in the passage. It is taken for
granted that a traditional diet provides enough protein, but even this is not explicitly stated.

D is not the main conclusion, as it is not stated in the passage. No attempt is made to define
a balanced diet. The passage simply makes a comparison between a traditional diet and a
vegetarian diet.

E is not the main conclusion, but it is close in meaning to one of the reasons for the main
conclusion – labelled above as reason (1).

2. Drawing a Conclusion

In this type of question candidates are asked which conclusion follows from the information
given. You need to consider each of the statements A to E, and to think about whether the
information in the passage gives you good reasons to accept the statement.

Ecotourism now accounts for twenty per cent of tourists. It should provide a
sustainable alternative to overuse of natural resources. However, tourists may
introduce new diseases to animal populations. Mongooses and meerkats in
Botswana have died from tuberculosis caught from humans, and gorillas in East
Africa picked up new internal parasites after the introduction of tourism. Moreover,
the presence of humans in increased numbers has been shown to stress polar
bears, penguins, dolphins and rainforest birds, affecting their natural routines and
reducing breeding success.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the passage?
A Subtle changes to wildlife health may not be apparent to a casual observer.
B Many ecotourist projects are ecologically viable.
C Dolphins become increasingly frenetic when tourist boats are present.
D Guidelines for ecotourism mostly address obvious issues such as changes in
land use or cutting down trees.
E The benefits of sustainable resources may be outweighed by harm to wildlife.

The correct answer is E. The main argument in the passage is stated at the beginning:
“Ecotourism now accounts for twenty per cent of tourists. It should provide a sustainable
alternative to overuse of natural resources.” Two reasons are given:
1. Tourists may introduce new diseases to animal populations. Mongooses and
meerkats in Botswana have died from tuberculosis caught from humans, and gorillas
in East Africa picked up new internal parasites after the introduction of tourism.
2. The presence of humans in increased numbers has been shown to stress polar bears,
penguins, dolphins and rainforest birds, affecting their natural routines and breeding
success.

From these premises, it follows that ecotourists could endanger the survival of the very
wildlife they want to see (answer E).

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A This is a difficulty in detecting damage done by ecotourism rather than a conclusion which
follows from the reasoning in the passage.

B If the aim of ecotourism is to be achieved as stated in the second sentence of the


passage giving the context of the argument, this ought to be true. However, the passage
gives evidence that some ecotourist projects are not ecologically viable and this distractor is
thus the diametric opposite of the conclusion which can be drawn from the reasoning.

C This would function as evidence to support the second reason.

D This is apparently true in some places but cannot be inferred from the passage.

3. Identifying an Assumption

An assumption is something which is not stated in the argument, but which is taken for
granted in order to draw the conclusion. So you need first to identify the conclusion of the
argument. Then look for the reasoning it gives to support this conclusion, and think about
any important point which is not actually stated in the reasoning.

Many drivers deliberately break traffic laws, both because they are convinced that
there is little chance of getting caught and because, even if they are caught, the
penalties do not act as a sufficient deterrent. For example, people who would never
think of stealing money even when they needed it, think nothing of routinely
exceeding a 30 mph limit even in a street where children are playing. It is clear, then,
that a substantial reduction in road accidents can be achieved only by catching more
motorists who break the law and by increasing the penalties for such law-breakers.

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?

A The number of road accidents is increasing because motorists are ignoring the
traffic laws.
B Drivers who have been convicted of a traffic offence think nothing of continuing
to break the law.
C People who break the traffic laws are a significant cause of road accidents.
D If the penalties for stealing were less severe, people would think nothing of
stealing money when they needed it.
E If the penalties for traffic offences were increased, drivers would not break the
law so frequently.

In this case, C is the correct answer. The reasoning is as follows:

Reason 1: Many drivers deliberately break traffic laws, because they are convinced that
there is little chance of getting caught, and because, even if they are caught, the penalties
do not act as a sufficient deterrent.
Reason 2: People who would never think of stealing money even when they needed it, think
nothing of routinely exceeding a 30 mph limit even in a street where children are playing.

Conclusion: A substantial reduction in road accidents can be achieved only by catching


more motorists who break the law and by increasing the penalties for such law-breakers.
One assumption here is that a substantial number of accidents are caused by breaches of
the traffic law: otherwise the conclusion would not follow.

A There is no need to assume that the number of accidents is increasing, only that they are
high (because of breaking the law). It could be that they are falling, but are still too high.

B The argument is about lack of deterrence in general. There is no need to assume that
being convicted does not deter drivers from reoffending.

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D It is implied in the passage that people are more wary of stealing than of driving offences
and that this may be due to higher penalties. However nothing as strong as D needs to be
assumed for the comparison in the argument to support the conclusion.

E The argument is that two factors combine to make drivers careless about breaking traffic
laws – being caught and light penalties. E is an assumption about penalties only and
therefore the argument does not depend on it. Indeed, if E were assumed the argument
would fail, because being caught would not be a necessary condition.

4. Assessing the Impact of Additional Evidence

This type of question will typically ask you to consider what would weaken or strengthen an
argument. You need first to be clear about what the argument is trying to establish. Work
out what the conclusion is, and then consider what effect each of the possible answers
would have on the conclusion.

Here you are asked to consider what would weaken the argument:

Polar bears in captivity frequently engage in obsessive patterns of behaviour, pacing


back and forth on the same spot, swinging their heads from side to side, and other
signs of stress. They do this even when their living areas are quite spacious. What
this shows is that conditions of captivity are not a satisfactory substitute for the
natural environment of the polar bear species.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?

A Polar bears are especially ill-suited to a life in captivity.


B Many polar bears in the wild engage in obsessive patterns of behaviour.
C Polar bears in captivity are much better fed than those living in the wild.
D Polar bears in the wild cover many miles a day when they are hunting for food.
E Polar bears which have been reared in captivity are incapable of surviving in the
wild.

The answer is B. The conclusion of the argument is that the obsessive behaviour of polar
bears in zoos shows that conditions of captivity are not a satisfactory substitute for the polar
bear's natural environment. But if B is true, that is, if polar bears in the wild behave in the
same way as those in captivity, then the behaviour of those in captivity cannot be taken as
good evidence that the conditions of captivity are unsatisfactory.

A does not weaken the argument. If polar bears are ill-suited to a life in captivity, it follows
that captivity is not a satisfactory substitute for their natural environment. So A strengthens
the argument.

C does not weaken the argument, even though it suggests that polar bears might be better
off in one respect in captivity (i.e., better fed). Captivity might nevertheless lead to stress
which is not suffered by polar bears in the wild.

D does not weaken the argument, because even if polar bears cover many miles per days
in the wild, pacing around in captivity may not be a satisfactory substitute for this freedom to
roam.

E does not weaken the argument, because the conclusion is about the best environment for
the polar bear species. Information about the best environment for those polar bears which
have been reared in captivity cannot weaken this general conclusion about the species as a
whole.

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Here you are asked to consider what would strengthen the argument:

If children are sitting in rows in a classroom, the teacher can have eye contact
with all of them while she is explaining something to them. This is not always
possible if they are sitting in groups around tables. Also, when they look up,
instead of seeing the child opposite in a group and being tempted to talk, they
see the teacher. So, sitting in rows helps children to concentrate better on
their work and should therefore be the standard arrangement in every school
classroom.

Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the above
argument?
A Rows of desks take up no more classroom space than tables.
B Some children are easily distracted whether they sit in rows or in groups.
C Sitting in groups of between four and seven makes discussion work
easier.
D Traditionalists argue that teaching the whole class in rows is best.
E If desks are arranged in rows, children can all see visual aids more easily.

The conclusion is that rows of desks should be the standard arrangement in every school
classroom. It is supported directly by the claim that this helps the children to concentrate,
with the argument that children in groups will look up and see other children and so be
tempted to talk with them, whereas sitting children in rows means they can only make eye-
contact with their teacher.

E suggests that as well as being able to concentrate better, for reasons R1-3, rows allow
visual aids to be seen better. This is a further reason for having desks in rows. Therefore E
strengthens the argument and is the correct answer.

Whereas:

A neither weakens nor strengthens the argument as how much space is taken up is not a
reason for coming to the conclusion.

B does not say whether these particular children would concentrate better in rows or not
and so neither strengthens nor weakens the argument.

C actually weakens the argument by showing that some classroom work is easier when
children are not in rows.

D, while aiming to support the conclusion, does not in itself provide evidence which would
strengthen the argument as the views of traditionalists are not in themselves a reason for
accepting the truth of the claim.

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5. Detecting Reasoning Errors

This type of question asks you to identify the flaw in the argument, which means that you
must explain why the conclusion does not follow from the reasons which are given. So you
need to be clear about what the conclusion is, and what reasons are meant to support it.

Some people attempt to smuggle a pet into Britain because of the quarantine
regulations which are aimed at preventing rabies from entering the country. If there
were no such regulations, there would be no reason to smuggle pets. Since the most
likely source of a rabies outbreak in Britain is a smuggled pet, if the quarantine
regulations were abolished, the danger of a rabies outbreak would be reduced.

Which one of the following best describes the flaw in the argument?

A Rabies is not likely to enter Britain in a wild animal.


B The quarantine regulations cannot prevent owners from smuggling their pets.
C If there were no quarantine regulations, pets with rabies could enter Britain
easily.
D If people did not want to travel with their pets, there would be no need for
quarantine regulations.
E If pets were inoculated against rabies, there would be no need for quarantine
regulations.

The answer is C. The argument draws the conclusion that if quarantine regulations were
abolished, there would be less likelihood of an outbreak of rabies. The reasoning offered in
support of this is that:
1. smuggled pets are the most likely source of an outbreak of rabies; and
2. if there were no quarantine regulations, no-one would be tempted to smuggle pets
into Britain.
But the conclusion does not follow, because if there were no quarantine regulations,
smuggled pets would no longer be the most likely cause of a rabies outbreak. Instead, the
most likely cause would be pets which could be brought in without breaking any law. C is
the statement which best explains this.

A does not describe the flaw, because it simply states something with which the argument
would agree.

B does not describe the flaw, because it states something which the argument depends on
– the idea that quarantine regulations cannot prevent outbreaks of rabies.

D does not describe the flaw, because it concerns the reason why quarantine regulations
are thought to be necessary, rather than the consequences of getting rid of these
regulations.

E does not describe the flaw, because it does not mention what would happen if quarantine
regulations were abolished. Instead, it suggests a way to make them unnecessary, whilst
still being able to prevent an outbreak of rabies.

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6. Matching Arguments

This type of question asks you about similarity between arguments, but not the sort of
similarity where two arguments are about the same topic. The similarity you are looking for
is in the structure or the pattern of the argument.

I cannot get any answer when I dial my mother's number. Either she is not answering
her phone or she has decided to stay away on holiday for an extra week. She must
still be away. She would never let the phone ring without answering it.

Which one of the following most closely parallels the reasoning used in the above
argument?

A If I want to remain fit and healthy I have to watch my diet and take exercise. I
want to stay fit so I eat carefully and go running regularly.
B If Denise had carried on going to the gym and eating sensibly, she would never
have got so run down. She did get run down, so she must either have given up
her diet or stopped going to the gym.
C Joe is looking a lot fitter. Either he has cut down on his eating or he has been
out running every day. I know for a fact that Joe couldn't keep to a diet, so it
must be exercise that's done it.
D Anyone who swims over twenty lengths a day has to be pretty fit. Sheena swims
thirty lengths a day. Therefore Sheena must be quite fit.
E Sticking to a diet is hard at first but after about two weeks most people get used
to it. I have been dieting for nearly two weeks so I should be getting used to it
soon.

As a first step to finding the structure in this argument, look at the passage to see if there
are repeated statements which you could represent with a letter (e.g. X or Y). It is slightly
difficult to do that in this argument, because the repeated statements are worded in a
slightly different form each time. But we can see that there are two important ideas which
are mentioned twice:

My mother is (must be) away.


My mother is not answering the phone (is letting the phone ring without answering it).
If we replace these statements with X and Y, we can see the following structure.

Either X is true or Y is true.


Y cannot be true.
So X must be true.
X = my mother is away.
Y = my mother is letting the phone ring without answering it.

We now have to look for the argument which has this same structure.
C is the answer. In this case X = Joe is exercising, Y = Joe is dieting, and the structure is
the same:
Either X (Joe is exercising) or Y (Joe is dieting).
Y (Joe is dieting) cannot be true.
So X (Joe is exercising) must be true.

A has a different structure:


If I want X, I have to do Y.
I want X.
So I do Y.
X = remain fit (and healthy).
Y = watch my diet and take exercise.

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B has a different structure:
If X and Y had happened, Z would not have happened.
Z did happen.
So either X didn't happen or Y didn't happen.
X = Denise going to gym.
Y = Denise eating sensibly.
Z = Denise getting run down.

D has a different structure:


All people who do X are Y.
Sheena does X.
Therefore Sheena is Y.
X = swim over 20 lengths a day.
Y = fit.

E has a different structure:


Most people who do X, succeed in Y.
I have done X.
So I should succeed in Y.
X = stick to a diet for 2 weeks.
Y = getting used to the diet.

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7. Applying Principles

When you are asked which statement illustrates the principle underlying the passage, you
must first identify this principle. A principle is a general recommendation, which, in the
passage, will be applied to just one particular case, but which could also be applied to other
cases. For example, someone might use the principle "Killing is wrong" in order to argue for
pacifism, i.e. for refusing to go to war. If we are to accept the principle that killing is wrong,
then it also follows that capital punishment is wrong, and even that killing in self-defence is
wrong. In order to answer this type of question, you first need to understand the argument,
so look for the conclusion, and for the reasons, in the usual way. This should enable you to
see what principle the argument relies on in order to draw its conclusion. You then need to
consider each possible answer to see which one follows from the principle.

Smokers who suffer from heart disease which is caused by their smoking should not
be allowed to get free health treatment. That is because this is an example of self-
inflicted illness. Those whose actions have caused illness or injury to themselves
should make a financial contribution to their treatment.

Which one of the following best illustrates the principle underlying the argument
above?

A Children should get free dental treatment, even if they eat sweets which cause
dental decay.
B Heart disease sufferers who can afford to pay for health treatment should not
receive free treatment.
C Smokers who cannot afford to pay for health care should be allowed free
treatment when they are ill.
D People who are injured in car accidents should receive free treatment regardless
of whether they were wearing a seat belt.
E Motor cyclists whose head injuries are caused by not wearing a crash helmet
should make a financial contribution to their treatment.
The conclusion of this argument is that smokers who get heart disease as a result of
smoking should not get free health treatment. The reason given for this is that their illness is
self-inflicted. This reasoning relies on the general principle that if your actions have caused
your illness or injury, you should make a financial contribution to your treatment. The correct
answer is E, which applies the principle to motor cyclists whose failure to wear a crash
helmet has caused their head injuries.

A is not an application of the principle, because it suggests that even if a child's actions
(eating sweets) have caused a health problem (dental decay), the child should nevertheless
have free treatment.

B is not an application of the principle, because it makes a recommendation based on


people's ability to pay for treatment, rather than on whether their actions have caused their
illness.

C is not an application of the principle, because, like B, it makes its recommendation solely
on the ability to pay.

D is not an application of the principle because it recommends free treatment regardless of


whether people's actions have contributed to their injuries.

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Section 2: Biology
In accordance with the Ministerial Program for secondary schools, the biology section of
IMAT covers all the following topics:

The chemistry of living things


The biological importance of weak interactions. Organic molecules in organisms and their
respective functions. The role of enzymes.
The cell as the basis of life
Cell theory. Cell size. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, animal and plant cells.
Viruses.
The structure and function of the cell membrane and transport across the
membrane. Cellular structures and their specific functions. Cell cycle and cell
division: mitosis and meiosis - chromosomes and chromosome maps.
Bioenergetics
The energy currency of cells: ATP. Redox reactions in living things. Photosynthesis,
glycolysis, aerobic respiration and fermentation.
Reproduction and Inheritance
Life cycles. Sexual and asexual reproduction. Mendelian genetics: Mendel's laws and
their applications. Classical genetics: chromosomal theory of inheritance - inheritance
patterns. Molecular genetics: structure and replication of DNA, the genetic code,
protein synthesis. Prokaryotic DNA. Eukaryotic chromosome structure. Genes and
regulation of gene expression.
Human genetics: mono- and multifactorial character transmission; hereditary
diseases - autosomal and linked to chromosome X.
Biotechnology: recombinant DNA technology and its applications.
Inheritance and environment
Mutations. Natural and artificial selection. Evolutionary theories. The genetic basis of
evolution.
Anatomy and physiology of animals and humans
The animal tissues. Anatomy and physiology of systems in humans and their interactions.
Homeostasis.

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EXAMPLE 1:

Having hairy ears is due to a gene found only on the Y chromosome. Assuming that
1% of Y chromosomes have this gene, which answer shows the likely number of
people with hairy ears in a population of 10 000?

A 50
B 100
C 500
D 1000
E 5000

The correct answer is A. In a population of 10 000, about half will be male and hence will
carry the Y chromosome. 1% of the male population of 5000 is 50, hence A is correct.

B - this is 1% of 10 000
C - this is 10% rather than 1% of 5000
D - this is 10% of the whole population
E - gives the number of males in the population

EXAMPLE 2:

Which one of the following is NOT true of human hormones?

A They are all released from glands and flow down ducts into the bloodstream.
B They are all chemicals.
C Some, such as testosterone and oestrogen, can be steroids.
D They travel at the speed of blood flow.
E A hormone may affect one or more structures in the body.

The answer is A because, whilst hormones are released from glands, they do not travel
down ducts but are released directly into the blood stream.

B - hormones are indeed chemicals


C - the sex hormones named are steroid hormones
D - as they travel in the blood plasma, they will travel at blood plasma speed
E - a number of hormones have multiple and diffuse functions within the body

EXAMPLE 3:

In a DNA sample, the percentage of guanine present was 28%. What is the
percentage of thymine in the sample?

A 22%
B 27%
C 28%
D 44%
E 54%

The percentage of adenine, guanine cytosine and thymine should be 100%. As guanine is
28% and always binds with cytosine, then cytosine must be 28%. The remainder, 44%, is
made up of equal amounts of thymine and adenine hence thymine = 44 ÷2 or 22% which is
answer A.

B - this would incorrectly imply that guanine was present as 23% rather than 28%
C - this is the answer for cytosine
D - this is the answer for adenine and thymine together
E - this could be a miscalculated value for guanine and cytosine
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Section 3: Chemistry
In accordance with the Ministerial Program for secondary schools, the chemistry section of
IMAT covers all the following topics:

The composition of matter

States of matter; heterogeneous and homogeneous systems; compounds and


elements. Ideal Gas Laws.
Atomic structure
Elementary particles; atomic number and mass number, isotopes, electronic
structure of atoms of different elements.
The periodic table of the elements
Groups and periods; transition elements. Periodic properties of elements: atomic radius,
ionization potential, electron affinity, metallic character. The relationships between
electronic structure, position in the periodic table, and element properties.
The chemical bond
Ionic, covalent and metallic bonds. Binding energy. Polarity of bonds.
Electronegativity. Intermolecular bonds.
Fundamentals of inorganic chemistry
Nomenclature and main properties of inorganic compounds: oxides, hydroxides,
acids, salts.
Chemical reactions and stoichiometry
Atomic and molecular mass, Avogadro's number, mole concept and its application,
elementary stoichiometric calculations, balancing simple reactions, different types of
chemical reaction.
Solutions
Solvent properties of water, solubility, the main ways of expressing the concentration of
solutions. Equilibria in aqueous solution. Chemical kinetics and catalysis.
Oxidation and reduction
Oxidation number, concept of oxidizing and reducing. Balancing of simple reactions.
Acids and bases
The concept of acid and base. Acidity, neutrality and basicity of aqueous solutions. The
pH scale. Hydrolysis. Buffer solutions.
Fundamentals of organic chemistry
Bonds between carbon atoms, and crude formulas of structure, the concept of
isomerism. Aliphatic, alicyclic and aromatic hydrocarbons. Functional groups:
alcohols, ethers, amines, aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids, esters, amides.
Chemical nomenclature.

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EXAMPLE 1:

Which of the following statements are correct about the solvent properties of water?
1. All ionic substances dissolve in water.
2. All covalent substances are insoluble in water.
3. The solubility of solids usually increases with a rise in temperature.
A 3 only
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 2 and 3
E none

The correct answer is A.


This question assesses the accuracy of your conceptual understanding of solubility; in this
question it is a problem solving process of thinking about counter-examples that is most
productive. Not all ionic substances are soluble in water, for example lead (II) sulfide, or
strontium carbonate so statement 1 is not correct.

Statement 2 is not correct, for example sucrose, ethanol, and water are all covalent and
soluble in water. Of course water is infinitely soluble in water.

Statement 3 is true, for example barium nitrate. The correct option is: 3 only.

EXAMPLE 2:

Which of the following must be correct about organic isomers?


1. They have the same molecular formulae
2. Their physical properties are very similar
3. They have different structural formulae.
A 1 and 3 only
B 1 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 2 and 3 only
E 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is A. For this question, you should be thinking not what is typical, but
what is necessary – a key attribute of a proficient scientist. Organic isomers have the same
number of atoms of each species present, but they are in different arrangements.

So the molecular formula has to be the same for a given set of isomers, since the number of
atoms of each species must, by definition, be the same.

The structural formula must, by definition, be different, since the atoms are structurally in
different locations in each isomer.

Isomers do not have to have similar physical properties. For example, methyl propane has a
much lower boiling point that butane. Therefore the correct response is: 1 and 3 only.

EXAMPLE 3:

An oxide of iron has the formula Fe3O4 and contains both Fe2+ e Fe3+ ions.
Which one of the following is the fraction of iron ions that are in the Fe2+ state?
A 1/3
B ¼
C ½
D 2/3
E ¾
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The correct answer is A. For this question you may not know how to start it. It can be useful
to simply start by trying a few values to get a sense of the structure of the problem, and then
changing the values to see what happens – this is a common strategy that is effective for
some questions.
In Fe3O4, all four oxygens give rise to an oxidation number of 4 × −2 = −8 , there are three
iron atoms, the oxidation numbers of which need to add up to +8, in order for the formula to
be correct, the only way to do this is to have 2Fe3+ and 1Fe2+, so one iron atom is in the Fe2+
state out of a total of 3 iron atoms, thus the fraction is 1/3.

EXAMPLE 4:

When molecules collide, for a reaction to take place, two conditions must be met.
Firstly, they must have sufficient energy to react and secondly, they must have the
right orientation. This means that the ends of the molecules that are going to react
must be in contact with each other.
Raising the temperature speeds up a chemical reaction.
Which of the following could be responsible for this?
1. More collisions take place
2. The average collisions has more energy
3. The orientation of the molecules is more favourable.

A Only 1 and 2
B Only 1 and 3
C Only 2 and 3
D Only 2
E 1, 2 and 3

The right answer is A. This question expects you to relate chemistry on different scales, the
microscopic and macroscopic – it assesses your conceptual understanding of temperature
across different chemical models.

Statement 1 is valid: the higher the temperature, the faster the molecules move, and so the
higher the frequency of collisions.

Statement 2 is valid: the higher the temperature, the faster the molecules move on average,
so the kinetic energy of the molecules is higher on average, so the energy of the collisions
is higher on average.

Statement 3 is not correct. Since the molecules have to be mobile to collide, they already
have access to all orientations of molecules. Heating increases the speed of the mobile
molecules, not the direction in which they collide with each other (orientation).

Therefore the correct response is: 1 and 2 only

EXAMPLE 5:

The equation for the preparation of nitrogen monoxide is:

What is the value of b?

A 8
B 16
C 12
D 6
E 4
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This is a very straightforward question, there is no easy way of ruling out incorrect response
options – the only way to arrive at the correct answer is to work through the question.

This equation is balanced either by redox methods, or by ensuring that the number of atoms
is the same for each species on both sides of the equation. To approach from an atom
counting/problem solving approach and offer you something different from a solution
typically taught in school:

From the equation, you can see that the only species to involve oxygen or nitrogen on the
NO −
left is the nitrate ion, 3 . On the right hand side of the equation, there are still nitrate ions

in compound with copper, but there is also a nitrogen monoxide, and water – there is no
oxygen or nitrogen anywhere else on the right hand side. The nitrogen and oxygen from the
water and nitrogen monoxide combined must be in the ratio of 1:3, and must match that of
the Nitrate ions from which it originated.

To achieve this, c must be 4. If c is 4, then there are 8 hydrogens on the right hand side.
There must be 8 on the left hand side, so b must be 8. (The correct response.)

To fully balance the equation, the next step is to use your knowledge that b=8 on the
nitrogens. There are 8 nitrogens on the left hand side, so there has to be 8 on the right, so a
must be 3. Therefore the correct answer is A.

EXAMPLE 6:

The mass spectrum of boron shows two peaks with isotopic masses of 10.0 and
11.0.

The heights of the peaks indicate the relative proportion of each isotope. The heights
of the peaks are in the ration of 18.7 % : 81.3 %.

What is the average atomic mass of boron?

A 10.81
B 10.19
C 10.32
D 10.48
E 10.67

This question can be calculated by using exact methods, however the numbers are not
convenient and thus this approach will be too time-consuming. To progress through the
question you will need to approximate the calculations in order to complete this in a
reasonable time.

The ratio is approximately 20:80, which simplifies to 1:4. So for every 5 atoms,
approximately one has a mass of 10, and 4 have a mass of 11.

10 + 4 × 11 54 4
The average mass is = = 10 = 10.8
5 5 5
10.81 is closest to this estimate, and by exact calculation 10.81 is correct.

Therefore A = 10.81 is the correct response.

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Section 4: Mathematics and Physics

Mathematics
In accordance with the Ministerial Program for secondary schools, the mathematics section
of IMAT covers all the following topics:

Algebra and numerical sets


Natural numbers, integers, rational and real numbers. Sorting and comparison: scales
and scientific notation. Operations and their properties. Proportions and percentages.
Powers with integer and rational exponents, and their properties. Roots and their
properties. Logarithms (base 10 and base e) and their properties. Elements of
combinatorics. Algebraic and polynomial expressions. Major products and nth power of
binomial expansions, factorisation of polynomials. Algebraic fractions. Algebraic
equations and inequalities of the first and second order. Systems of equations.
Functions
Basic concepts of functions and their graphical representations (domain, codomain, sign,
maximum and minimum, increasing and decreasing, etc.). Elementary functions: whole
and fractional algebraic functions; exponential, logarithmic, and trigonometric functions.
Composite and inverse functions. Trigonometric equations and inequalities.
Geometry
Polygons and their properties. Circle and circumference. Measurements of lengths,
surfaces and volumes. Isometries, similarities and equivalences in the plane. Geometric
loci. Measurement of angles in degrees and radians. Sine, cosine, tangent of an angle
and their significant values. Trigonometric formulas. Solving triangles. Cartesian
reference system in a plane. Distance between two points and the midpoint of a
segment. Straight line equation. Conditions for parallel and perpendicular lines. Distance
of a point to a line. Equation of the circle, the parabola, the hyperbola, the ellipse and
their representation in the Cartesian plane. Pythagoras’ theorem. Euclid’s first and
second theorems.
Probability and statistics
Frequency distributions and their graphical representations. Concept of random
experiments and events. Probability and frequency.

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EXAMPLE 1:

In a group of students 2/5 are male and exactly 1/3 studies mathematics. The
probability that a male student chosen at random from the group studies mathematics
is p.

Which of the following is the range of possible values of p?


A 0 ≤ p ≤ 5/6
B 0 ≤ p ≤ 1/3
C 1/3 ≤ p ≤ 2/5
D 1/3 ≤ p ≤ 1
E 2/5 ≤ p ≤ 5/6

The correct answer is A. The first things to notice about this question are the inequalities,
these are not generally studied in school courses, and that is because this is a non-routine
question. It requires the use of problem solving strategies. In this question it is case of
considering ‘best’ and ‘worst’ case scenarios.

The solution to this problem involves taking the two extremes:


1. That the number of males studying maths is maximised
2. That the number of males studying maths is minimised

Considering case 1:
The maximum number of males studying maths. In this case we could have all the maths
1 2
<
students being male because 3 5 . Let’s say there are N students in total so that we are
dealing with numbers rather than probabilities, then in this case the number of male
N 2N
students studying maths is 3 , and the number of male students is 5 . The probability of
N 2N N 5 5
p= ÷ = × =
a student from the set of male students studying maths is then 3 5 3 2N 6

Considering case 2:

Now we want to minimise the number of males students studying maths. So this means
3
maximising the number of female students studying maths. 5 of the group of students are
1 3
<
female, so all the maths students could be female, because 3 5 . In this case none of the
male students study maths, p = 0 .

The actually probability can lie anywhere between and inclusive of these values:
5
0≤ p≤
6.
The correct answer is A.

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EXAMPLE 2:
A cuboid stands 9 cm tall.

The base of the cuboid is square, with a side length of 6 cm. The vertices of the base
are denoted ABCD in anticlockwise order such that B and D are diagonally opposite
each other. The vertex that is directly above A is denoted E.
What is the tangent of the angle that the triangle BDE makes with the horizontal
base?
A 3
2
B 2
3
C 3
2
D 2
3
E 3 2

The correct answer is A. The first thing to do for this question is present this information in a
handy way to solve the problem. With this being a geometry question, the best way is
probably to draw one or more diagrams – this can really help you visualise the problem.
After that, it is a case of asking yourself:
What do I know?
What do I want?
What can I calculate to get me closer to the final solution?
Can I break-up the question into stages?
The mathematical reasoning is given below.
Side-on and face-on diagrams for the system are given below:

The angle required is AME, where M is the midpoint of BD and AC.


All the vertices of the object are right angles because it is a cuboid, so we can apply
Pythagoras’ theorem to calculate BD = AC = 6 2 cm.
Thus AM = 3 2 cm.
AE 9 3 3
tan( AME ) = = =
Hence AM 3 2 2 and so the correct response is 2 .
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EXAMPLE 3:

A human blood cell is approximately 8 x10-4 centimetres.

How many of them placed side by side in a single straight line would be needed to
cover 1 kilometre?

A 1.25 × 108
B 8 × 1016
C 1.25 × 106
D 1.25 × 107
E 8 × 109

The correct answer is A. This question really assesses familiarity with scientific notation and
unit conversion.

This can really cause confusion at times, especially with the exponents of 10, so at this
point a safer way to approach it is to:

Think about the question, if the blood cells were 2 cm in diameter and we wanted to find out
how many fitted in a length of 1 metre. We would express 1 metre as 100 cm, and divide it
by the diameter to get 50.

It is just the same for this, but now the numbers are in more challenging units and in
scientific notation.

1 km = 105 cm

Let n be the number of blood cells that fit:

105 109 10 × 108 10


𝑛= = = = × 108 = 1.25 × 108
8 × 10−4 8 8 8

Thus the correct answer is 1.25 × 108 .

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Physics
In accordance with the Ministerial Program for secondary schools, the physics section of
IMAT covers all the following topics:

Measures
Direct and indirect measures, fundamental and derived quantities, physical dimensions
of quantities, knowledge of the metric system and the CGS System of Units, Technical
(or practical) (ST) and International System (SI) units of measurement (names and
relationships between fundamental and derived units), multiples and sub-multiples
(names and values).
Kinematics
Kinematic quantities, various types of motion with particular regard to uniform and
uniformly accelerating rectilinear motion; uniform circular motion; harmonic motion (for
all motions: definition and relationships between quantities).
Dynamics
Vectors and vector operations. Forces, moments of forces about a point. Moment of a
force couple. Vector composition of forces. Definition of mass and weight. Acceleration
due to gravity. Density and specific gravity. The law of universal gravitation, 1st, 2nd and
3rd laws of motion. Work, kinetic energy, potential energy. Principle of conservation of
energy. Impulse and momentum. Principle of conservation of momentum.
Fluid mechanics
Pressure, and its unit of measure (not only in the SI system). Archimedes’ Principle.
Pascal's principle. Stevino's law.
Thermodynamics
Thermometry and calorimetry. Specific heat, heat capacity. Mechanisms of heat
propagation. Changes of state and latent heats. Ideal Gas Laws. First and second laws
of thermodynamics.
Electrostatic and electrodynamics
Coulomb's law. Electric field and potential. Dielectric constant. Capacitors.
Capacitors in series and in parallel. Direct current. Ohm’s Law. Kirchhoff’s Principles.
Electrical resistance and resistivity, electrical resistances in series and in parallel. Work,
Power, Joule effect. Generators. Electromagnetic induction and alternating currents.
Effects of electrical currents (thermal, chemical and magnetic).

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EXAMPLE 1:

A block of iron at 100˚C is transferred to a plastic cup containing water at 20˚C.

Which one of the following is NOT necessary in order to find the specific heat
capacity of iron?
A The thermal conductivity of the iron.
B The mass of water.
C The final temperature.
D The mass of the block of iron.
E The specific heat capacity of water.

The correct answer is A. The first thing to ask is what do you know about specific heat
capacity and what it depends on? In this case there is a formula that describes the
relationship between the necessary quantities.
∆Q
C=
The specific heat capacity of the iron block m ⋅ ∆T , where ∆Q is the amount of heat
transferred into the block, ∆T is the change in temperature of the iron block and m is the
mass of the block.

In order to calculate the amount of heat transferred from the water to the block, use the
same equation, but this time for the water, and with the change in heat as the subject:
∆Q = C ⋅ m ⋅ ∆T

The value of ΔQ is the same for both substances, as the heat lost by the iron block is the
same as the heat gained by the water.

In order to complete the calculation the following are therefore needed:


• Initial and final temperatures of the iron and water
• Specific heat capacity of water
• Mass of iron
• Mass of water

We do not need the thermal conductivities of either substance.

EXAMPLE 2:

A bullet of mass 50 g is fired from a rifle with a velocity of 300 m/s. It hits a bank of
earth and after travelling 60 cm into the bank comes to rest.

What is the average stopping force of the earth in the bank on the bullet?

A 3.75×103 N
B 3.75 N
C 37.5 N
D 3.75×104 N
E 3.75×106 N

The correct answer is A. The key questions to ask are: what do I know?
What do I want? What can I deduce or calculate to bridge that gap?

In this case one approach arises from:


• knowing that energy is conserved, and so the work done against the bank is the same
as the bullet’s initial kinetic energy
• knowing how to calculate the kinetic energy, from the mass and speed of the bullet
• knowing how to relate work done, force and distance travelled.
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As ever it is important to be mindful of units. Notice that the options have S.I. units of
Newtons, and so all quantities used in this question should be in S.I. units. This means we
need to convert the mass of the bullet from 50 g into 0.05 kg. We also need to convert the
distance of 60 cm into 0.6 m.

The loss of energy of the bullet is the work done by it on the bank. Assuming the bullet
travels horizontally, the loss of energy of the bullet is the same as the loss of its kinetic
1
energy ( 2
mv 2 ).

1 1 9000
1
2 ⋅ 0.05 ⋅ 300 2 = × × 90000 = = 2250J
The loss of kinetic energy is 2 20 4
This is the same as the work done on the bank.
Now assuming that the bullet travels in a straight line through the bank, in the same
direction as its initial motion, the work done is given by the product of the average force and
distance travelled.

Hence, the average force in Newtons is given by work done divided by distance travelled:
2250 2250 3 2250 5
F= = ÷ = ×
0.6 1 5 1 3.
9000
This divisor of 3 is quite tricky, it might be easier to write 2250 as 4 :
9000 5 3000 15000 7500
F= × = ×5 = = = 3750 = 3.75 × 10 3
4 3 4 4 2 N

34

© UCLES 2018
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ADMISSION TEST FOR THE DEGREE COURSE IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY

Academic Year 2011/2012

General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning

1 Which of the following states is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

A China

B France

C Japan

D United Kingdom

E USA

2 Which ancient Greek is referred to as the father of Western medicine?

A Aristophanes

B Aristotle

C Hippocrates

D Plato

E Socrates

3 Amnesty International (AI), a non-governmental organisation for the protection of human rights
enshrined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, opposes the death penalty. Which one
of the following reasons for opposing the death penalty is inconsistent with the principles of AI.

A The death penalty can be carried out on an innocent person.

B The death penalty is contrary to theological principles.

C The death penalty is cruel, inhuman and degrading.

D The death penalty is not a deterrent against crime.

E The death penalty, once carried out, cannot be reversed.

IMAT 2011 © MIUR 2011 1


4 Three red balls, three yellow balls and one green ball are placed in a bag and the bag is shaken.
I place my hand in the bag and pull out a red ball followed by a green ball. I do not replace
either ball.

Which one of the following statements is true?

A The next ball could be any one of red, yellow or green.

B The next ball will definitely be yellow.

C The next two balls cannot both be red.

D At least one of the next three balls must be yellow.

E At least one of the next three balls must be red.

5 My friend has three children, Alice, George and Hannah and I need to buy two presents for them
to share. I want to buy two different toys and I want to make sure that Alice, George and Hannah
will each like at least one of them. I don't want the toys to have small parts.

Small Liked by Liked by Liked by


Toy Price
Parts? Alice? George? Hannah?
Jigsaw Yes No Yes Yes €12
Building bricks Yes Yes Yes No €9
Car No No No Yes €12
Bear No Yes No Yes €7
Train No No Yes No €8

How much am I going to pay in total?

A €15

B €16

C €19

D €20

E €24

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 2


6 The number of visitors to the local swimming pool at different times on Wednesday last week is
recorded in this table:

Time Number of
visitors
8am - 10am 23
10am - 12 noon 41
12 noon - 2pm 35
2pm - 4pm 60
4pm - 6pm 40
6pm - 8pm 15

Which chart shows the data from the table?

A B

C D

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 3


7 The polis is the most important institutional expression of the classical Greek way of life. What
type of state is it?

A A city state

B A federal state

C A modern state

D A monarchical state

E A tyrannical state

8 Which set of statements about Dante Alighieri is correct?

A he was from Florence, wrote poetry, died before 1400

B he was from Milan, was born in the thirteenth century, died before 1400

C he was from Milan, was the son of Giulia Beccaria, wrote poetry

D he was from Tuscany, wrote poetry, was the son of Giulia Beccaria

E he was of noble family, was born in the fourteenth century, wrote tragedies

9 Which of the following is NOT true of the Enlightenment?

It was a cultural trend, according to which the only real art was rational,
A
understandable by all, and identified itself with Greek and Roman art.
It was a cultural trend that highlighted all the social and economic inequalities, and
B
paved the way for the French Revolution.

C It was a cultural trend that spread across Europe, mainly in France, in the early 1700s.
It was a cultural trend that spread across Europe, which emphasised the sovereignty
D
of the people, as a carrier of values.
It was a cultural trend that was based on the exaltation of reason that, eliminating any
E irrational element of knowledge, by itself, revealed the truth without the help of the
transcendental realm. In France this lead to materialism and atheism.

IMAT 2011 © MIUR 2011 4


10 Two security guards, Dave and Geoff, are patrolling an airbase. Dave passes the front gate
every 8 minutes. Geoff passes the front gate every 15 minutes. They have just set off on their
individual routes at the start of their shift.

How long will it be before they meet up at the front gate again?

A 1h 00mins

B 1h 30mins

C 2h 00mins

D 2h 30mins

E 3h 00mins

11 Employees at a printing company are paid a basic rate of €11 per hour during the day Monday
to Friday. During weekday evenings and on Saturdays they are paid at one and a half times the
basic rate and on Sundays they are paid at double the basic rate.

The table below shows the hours worked by employees last week:

Mon-Fri evenings
Mon-Fri daytime and Saturdays Sundays
Alice 32 8 6
Ben 27 8 8
Chetan 36 8 2
Daniel 30 8 6
Ellen 35 8 4

Which employee earned most last week?

A Alice

B Ben

C Chetan

D Daniel

E Ellen

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 5


12 A teacher in a school for children from 11 to 16 years old sets a code number to unlock his
classroom door. He has a method for remembering his code. He uses:

• the 2 digits of his birth month reversed (for example, February would be 02 reversed to 20);
• then the age of the children in his class at the start of the year with the digits reversed;
• and finally, the date of his birthday in the month, also reversed.

Which one of the following could not be the code to unlock his door?

A 215150

B 903121

C 701131

D 602124

E 115191

13 It has long been thought that birds are much less intelligent than humans and apes. But now it
seems that some species of birds have the same kind of thinking skills as apes. Crows can
create and use tools and are socially sophisticated when finding and protecting food. So how
can a bird with a walnut-size brain be capable of such achievements? The answer is that both
crows and apes have much bigger brains than you would expect from the size of their bodies.
The same pattern is found in humans, parrots and chimps - all intelligent animals.

Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage?

A Apes are not as similar to humans as had been thought.

B Crows are more intelligent than other species of birds.

C Animals that cannot create tools are not intelligent.

D Relative brain size is a better indicator of intelligence than absolute brain size.

E It could be argued that birds are as intelligent as apes.

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 6


14 There is a higher than average risk of death or injury to young drivers and their passengers. In
2007, 32 per cent of car driver deaths and 40 per cent of car passenger deaths were people
aged between 17 and 24. Young male drivers were much more likely to be killed or seriously
injured than young female drivers. So in order to reduce the number of road accidents and the
numbers of people killed or injured, young people should not be allowed to drive until they reach
the age of 24.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?

A Young people would not accept the raising of the legal driving age.

B Most of the accidents involving young people were the fault of the young drivers.

C The driving test does not effectively test the skill of drivers.

D The majority of drivers aged between 17 and 24 drive dangerously.


Amongst drivers aged between 17 and 24 there are more male drivers than female
E
drivers.

15 Some disabled people find it difficult to gain access to some of our older public buildings
because the entrances have steps. The problem is most often solved by installing ramps. All
public buildings must be accessible to everyone therefore they must all install ramps.

Which one of the following identifies the flaw in this argument?

Disabled people must have access to all buildings not just public ones so all buildings
A
should have ramps.

B Installing ramps in all public buildings would be extremely expensive.


It is unreasonable to suggest that disabled people should be able to access all public
C
buildings.
D Some older public buildings without ramps may be accessible to disabled people.

E Inaccessible public buildings should be replaced by buildings accessible to all.

16 A street of houses is numbered starting on one side with 1,2,3,4.... At the far end the numbers
continue down the other side in the opposite direction so the largest number is opposite
number 1. The houses are of identical widths so each house has another directly opposite it.

If number 17 is directly opposite number 56, how many houses are there in the street?

A 36

B 37

C 39

D 72

E 73

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 7


17 A courier starts the day in London and makes two round trips to Prague in the day. When she
arrives at either airport, she takes the next available flight back.

The daily timetable is shown below (all times are local):

London Prague Prague London


depart arrive depart arrive
06:30 09:30 10:10 11:20
09:45 12:45 13:25 14:35
12:30 15:30 16:40 17:50
15:45 18:45 19:55 21:05

How long is the courier’s day from first take-off to last landing?

A 4 hours 50 minutes

B 8 hours 5 minutes

C 8 hours 20 minutes

D 11 hours 20 minutes

E 14 hours 35 minutes

18 My three local supermarkets all currently have offers on my favourite breakfast cereal as
follows:

1 Buy one standard pack get a second half price.


2 Price of a standard pack reduced by 1/3.
3 Normal price of a standard pack, pack contains 25% extra.

Which of the offers are equivalent in terms of price per unit amount of cereal?

A 1 and 2 only

B 1 and 3 only

C 2 and 3 only

D 1, 2 and 3

E none

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 8


19 If the Carnival Committee does not follow the new European regulations then it may be
impossible to guarantee safety. The probable consequence of this would be a heavy fine, which
would severely reduce the carnival fund, and could be disastrous for the committee’s finances.
Either the committee must meet the safety requirements or the future of the carnival may be
under threat.

Which one of the following best expresses the conclusion of this argument?

A Safety at the carnival has reached dangerously low levels.

B If the European regulations are not followed the carnival may not survive.

C Failure to improve safety could result in a heavy fine.

D A heavy fine could mean financial disaster for the carnival.

E If the regulations are followed then the carnival will take place again next year.

20 87% of the world population are right-handed. The human world is organised to make success
in life easier for the majority. Left-handed people should therefore be considered as having a
disability and receive appropriate support.

Which one of the following, if true, weakens this argument?

Amongst top scientists, sportsmen, actors, musicians and politicians the percentage
A
of left-handed people is much higher than 13%.
Left-handed people have poorer spatial skills which makes them more likely to have
B
car crashes and other serious accidents.
Left-handed people are more likely to have health problems such as allergies,
C
depression, epilepsy and sleeping disorders.

D Hand tools, musical instruments and scissors are designed for use by the majority.
Many left-handed people were forced to write with their right hand when they were at
E
school.

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 9


21 In North America in the 1800s, arguments were often settled by gunfights, in which two people
stood face to face a distance apart and tried to shoot one another. Recent experiments on
human response times have shown that people act more quickly when responding to an action
than when they are the first to move. This supports the view that our brain uses different routes
in our nervous system to send messages for intentional and reactive movements.

Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage?

A Scientific experiments produce interesting findings.

B Gunfighters are best advised to wait for their opponents to move to fire.

C Gunfighters who wait for their opponent to move first would always win.

D Brains cannot control our reactive movements.

E Humans can be trained to react more quickly.

22 A taxi driver charges €1.00 per kilometre for the first 3 kilometres of a journey, and 70c per
kilometre for the rest of the journey. I travel home from the train station by taxi. I pay the taxi
driver €10.00 including a tip of 70c.

How far is my house from the station?

A 9 kilometres

B 10 kilometres

C 12 kilometres

D 13 kilometres

E 14 kilometres

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 10


23 The table below relates to electricity generation in the United Kingdom:

Millions of units (kWh)


Category of Station
1990 1995 2000
Coal, Oil and Gas 242,300 228,500 245,700
Nuclear 37,000 61,100 65,700
Gas Turbines and Oil Engines 500 1,100 400
Hydro-Electric (Natural Flow) 3,900 4,100 5,100
Hydro-Electric (Pumped Storage) 1,200 2,800 2,000
TOTAL 284,900 297,600 318,900

Which category of station made the largest contribution to the increase in total units generated
over the 10 years covered by the table?

A Coal, Oil and Gas

B Nuclear

C Gas Turbines and Oil Engines

D Hydro-Electric (Natural Flow)

E Hydro-Electric (Pumped Storage)

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 11


24 The pie chart shows the favourite ice cream flavour for a sample of students in a school.

Which one of the rows in the table below could show the number of students who chose each
flavour?

Vanilla Raspberry Strawberry Chocolate Mint

A 23 41 35 35 16

B 5 34 36 35 10

C 15 29 32 31 13

D 26 61 73 73 37

E 36 55 71 72 36

25 If more workers worked for only four days each week there would be fewer commuters, and
therefore less traffic congestion and less pollution. Also, fewer people would be unemployed
because there would be more work to go around. There is evidence that part-time workers are
absent from work less often than full-time workers, so a person working a four-day week would
be more productive. Less work means less pressure, which means less stress and people
would be happier.

Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage?

A People choosing to work a four-day week would have to take a 20% pay cut.
There would be less pressure on the health services if most workers were on a four-
B
day week.

C The economy would be more competitive if people worked more productively.

D The government should enforce a four-day working week.

E There would be many benefits to working a four-day week.

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 12


26 Migratory birds which are unable to fly long distances without resting have to use the shortest
distance over water in their flights to and from Africa, and so they cross at the Straits of
Gibraltar. It is essential for these birds, some of which are very rare, that the route remains
open. For that reason, it is important that plans to build electricity-generating wind farms on the
hills surrounding the Straits of Gibraltar do not go ahead.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?

A The birds that migrate across the Straits of Gibraltar are close to extinction.

B Electricity-generating wind farms have to be built on hills.

C The planned wind farms will make it dangerous for migratory birds to use their route.

D Other species of bird can fly further and can thus use other routes in their migration.

E There are no plans to build wind farms at other places along the coast.

27 When mobile phones were introduced there were concerns about the microwaves produced
and the effects that these could have on the brain, given that phones would be held close to the
ear when being used. These concerns have been shown to be mistaken since mobile phones
are used for sending text messages far more than for making phone calls. Sending a text
message does not require the phone to be anywhere near to the brain so it cannot cause any
problems.

Which one of the following identifies the flaw in this argument?

It ignores research showing that microwaves from the phones cannot penetrate far
A
enough to reach the brain.
It ignores evidence suggesting that text messaging is only popular in certain age
B
groups.
It does not consider uses of mobile phones other than making phone calls and
C
sending text messages.
It does not consider other technology such as wireless internet which could cause
D
similar problems.
E It ignores the possible effects of the phone calls that are made.

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 13


28 I have two cousins. One was born the year before me, on June 3rd. The other was born the
year after me, on April 28th.

My birthday is May 15th.

For how many days each year am I the same age as one or other of my cousins?

A 35

B 36

C 37

D 38

E 39

29 The table shows the number of people aged 20-35, 36-50 and 51-65 who participated in given
sports at a leisure centre on a Sunday morning:

Sport 20-35 36-50 51-65


Swimming 31 42 59
Squash 26 30 44
Aerobics 10 21 30
Tennis 40 35 32
Bowls 6 8 11
Table Tennis 28 32 46

In which of the other sports was the proportion of participants in the three age ranges closest to
that for swimming?

A Aerobics

B Bowls

C Squash

D Table Tennis

E Tennis

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 14


30 Apples cost 30c each, bananas cost 40c each and oranges cost 50c each. Daniel spends
exactly €2 buying fruit.

Which of the statements below are correct?

1 He cannot have exactly 3 apples.


2 He must have at least one banana.
3 He has 4, 5 or 6 fruits.
4 If he has all 3 types of fruit, he must have fewer apples than bananas and oranges
combined.

A 1, 2 and 3 only

B 1, 2 and 4 only

C 1, 3 and 4 only

D 2, 3 and 4 only

E 1, 2, 3 and 4

31 A comparison has been made between fast food restaurants and factories. This is not as
unrealistic as it might first appear. Fast food is mass-produced, as heavily processed as any
other factory product, and restaurant workers have jobs which are just as routine and boring as
those in manufacturing. So not only does fast food taste the same everywhere, but all workers
involved are on low wages and have little power to improve their conditions.

Which one of the following best expresses the conclusion of this argument?

A Workers who do routine and boring jobs are often poorly paid.

B Mass production in factories leads to poor working conditions.

C It is not unrealistic to compare fast food restaurants with factories.

D All fast food tastes the same because it is heavily processed.

E Working in a fast food restaurant is no different from working in a factory.

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 15


32 Recent research suggests that people are becoming less inclined to follow medical advice
about how to prevent ill-health. They say that there is too much advice and it is often
contradictory. However the general population is living longer and is healthier. This suggests
that people are more aware of what is good for their own health and wellbeing than the medical
profession is.

Which one of the following, if true, weakens this argument?

Advances in medicine have meant that doctors give advice on a wider range of
A
issues.

B People now have easy access to websites giving information on health.


People believe that they know better than doctors how to improve their own health
C
and wellbeing.
The health improvements are in areas that exactly match the medical advice given by
D
doctors.

E Doctors prefer to give advice rather than medication.

33 Over the last twenty years the number of people, including children, classed as overweight, and
therefore at risk of serious health problems, has risen alarmingly. This trend could be caused by
an increase in the amount people eat or by a decrease in the amount of exercise they take.
Most of us exercise less than people did twenty years ago, and the average number of calories
consumed per person is now less than it was twenty years ago. So the increase in the number
of overweight people is clearly caused by lack of exercise. Thus the government does not need
to worry about trying to change people's diets.

Which one of the following identifies the flaw in this argument?

A Some people may exercise more than the average.

B Some individuals may have increased their calorie intake.

C The government may need to worry about costs to the health service.

D Children may use up more calories through exercise than adults.

E Some individuals may have health problems which cause an increase in weight.

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 16


34 In 2005, Peter's age was exactly four times that of his son, Quentin. In 2021, Peter will be
exactly twice Quentin's age.

What is the difference between their ages?

A 16

B 20

C 24

D 28

E 36

35 I have far too much small change in my pocket: 6 x 1c coins, 3 x 2c coins, 2 x 5c coins, 3 x 10c
coins and 2 x 50c coins.

I want to buy a chocolate bar for 37c using as many coins as possible.

What is the largest number of coins I can use to pay the exact price?

A 5

B 9

C 10

D 12

E 14

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 17


36 A fishing club wishes to send out a mailing to its 1000 members. All members receive a
magazine (100_g). There are 50 committee members who receive minutes (50_g). A
questionnaire (75_g) will be sent to 100 members. No committee members will be sent a
questionnaire. The envelope used for all mailings weighs 10_g.

The postal rates are:

Up to 120 g: 20c

Up to 160 g: 30c

Up to 250 g: 35c

What is the minimum cost of this mailing?

A € 67 .00

B € 215 .00

C € 220 .00

D € 230 .00

E € 350 .00

37 The general public cannot understand laws and legal documents unless they are written in clear
and simple language. Therefore, the traditional style in which laws and legal documents are
written must change. Citizens in a democracy must be able to understand what their legal rights
and duties are.

Which one of the following best expresses the conclusion of this argument?

A There must be a change in the style in which laws and legal documents are written.

B It is necessary in a democracy for citizens to know their legal rights and duties.
Many laws and legal documents are written in old-fashioned and complicated
C
language.
The general public can fully understand only those laws and documents written in
D
simple language.
If citizens can understand laws and legal documents, they will be able to play their
E
proper role in a democracy.

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 18


38 Many countries spent billions on vaccines in response to advice that a virus had the potential to
kill millions. These countries are now trying to sell the stockpiles of vaccines which they do not
need. There is concern that advice given by officials may have been influenced by
pharmaceutical companies. Clearly, such companies would have an interest in making sure that
governments spent large quantities of money on vaccines that they produced. It is essential that
an investigation into this matter takes place as soon as possible so that those responsible can
be held to account.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?

A The pharmaceutical companies influenced the advice given by officials.

B The advice given by officials was not appropriate.

C It will not be possible for the stockpiles of vaccines to be sold.

D The pharmaceutical companies misjudged the dangers of the virus.


Groups with financial interests do not advise officials in other areas of decision
E
making.

39 A chain link has the following dimensions:

If you join six of these links together, and stretch the chain to its full extent, what is the total
length of the chain?

A 24

B 28

C 30

D 32

E 36

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 19


40 Consider the following statements:

1 There are fewer rats than people.


2 There are not more people than rats.
3 There are at least as many rats as people.
4 There are not more rats than people.

Which two of the above statements are equivalent?

A 1 and 3

B 1 and 4

C 2 and 3

D 2 and 4

E 3 and 4

Biology

41 In a DNA sample, the percentage of guanine present was 28%. What is the percentage of
thymine in the sample?

A 22%

B 27%

C 28%

D 44%

E 54%

42 Which property of water is most important when heat is lost from human skin?

A dipole properties so salts can dissolve in sweat

B high specific heat capacity

C latent heat of vaporisation

D boiling point of water

E water density is greatest at 4°C

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 20


43 What would be the chemical formula of a polysaccharide made up of five glucose monomers?

A C6H12O6

B C30H52O26

C C30H60O30

D C5H10O5

E (CHn-1O)2

44 Which of the features below may be present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic animal
cells?
1 glycogen

2 a cell wall

3 DNA in loops

4 cytoplasm containing ribosomes

A 1 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 1, 2 and 3 only

D 1 and 4 only

E none

45 Which is likely to contain the most mitochondria?

A red blood cell

B lymphocyte (white blood cell)

C cardiac muscle cell

D epidermal cell

E cheek cell

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 21


46 If an animal body cell contained 36 chromosomes, which row in the table is correct?

Chromosome number
Daughter cell made by Daughter cell made by
Zygote
mitosis meiosis
A 72 18 18

B 36 18 36

C 18 72 36

D 18 36 72

E 36 36 18

47 A food item was burned in pure oxygen and released 830 kJ of energy. An identical food item of
the same mass was found to produce 8 ATP’s in respiration.

Assuming it takes 31_kJ to produce one ATP molecule, estimate the efficiency of respiration.

A 10%

B 25%

C 30%

D 45%

E 50%

48 The statements below show three stages in glycolysis.

1 2 x 3 carbon compounds

2 6 carbon compound

3 phosphorylated 6 carbon compound

The correct sequence is:


A 1, 2, 3

B 2, 3, 1

C 3, 2, 1

D 1, 3, 2

E 2, 1, 3

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 22


49 During vigorous exercise a variety of products will be generated in muscle cells.
Which answer correctly lists some of the products?

A water, lactic acid, heat and carbon dioxide

B water, sweat, heat and lactic acid

C usable energy (ATP), carbon dioxide and oxygen

D carbon dioxide, lactic acid and ethanol

E useable energy (ATP), heat, glycogen and carbon dioxide

50 Haemophilia is caused by a recessive allele carried only on the X chromosome.


A carrier female and a non-haemophiliac male decide to have a child.
Which of the following four statements are correct?
1 they have a 25% chance of producing a haemophiliac son

2 they have a 25% chance of producing a haemophiliac daughter

3 they have a 25% chance of producing a carrier son

4 they have a 25% chance of producing a carrier daughter

A 1 and 2 only

B 1 and 4 only

C 2 and 3 only

D 2 and 4 only

E 3 and 4 only

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 23


51 Cross over values (COV’s) can be considered as the relative distance between genes and are
used to help construct chromosome maps. Four genes, called P, Q, R and S, are found on the
same chromosome. Use the following COV’s to work out the sequence of the four genes.

P to Q = 33 Q to R = 8 R to S = 15 P to S = 10 P to R = 25

The sequence of the genes is

A PQRS

B SPQR

C RSPQ

D QSRP

E PSRQ

52 In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals, which is the most likely combination
in their offspring?

A AaBB

B AaBb

C aaBB

D aaBb

E AABB

53 The base sequence of a section of DNA is shown below.

CATGCACATCGTGCCCAA

The maximum number of different amino acids this section codes for is:

A 4

B 5

C 6

D 9

E 18

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 24


54 Which of the components of DNA listed below are found on the outside of a DNA double helix?

1 Pentose sugar

2 Phosphate

3 Purine bases

4 Pyrimidine bases

A 1 and 2 only

B 3 and 4 only

C 1, 2 and 3 only

D 2, 3 and 4 only

E 1, 2, 3 and 4

55 Which of the following organisms are subject to natural selection?

1 prokaryotes that reproduce asexually

2 single-celled eukaryotes that reproduce sexually

3 organisms living in a changing environment

4 organisms living in a stable environment

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 3 and 4 only

D 1, 2 and 3 only

E 1, 2, 3 and 4

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 25


56 Which adaptation cannot help increase the speed of transmission in a motor neurone?

A long axon

B nodes of Ranvier

C synapse

D presence of an insulating myelin sheath

E greater axon diameter

57 In the process of ventilation the following occur:

1 pressure in thorax increases

2 volume of thorax increases

3 diaphragm goes down

4 ribcage goes down

Which of these occur during inhalation?


A 1 and 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 3 and 4 only

D 1 and 3 only

E 2 and 4 only

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 26


58 Which answer correctly identifies roles of the brain and the pancreas in the normal physiological
regulation of the concentration of glucose in the blood?

Brain Pancreas
Detects a decrease in blood glucose Detects an increase in blood glucose
A
concentration concentration
Detects an increase in blood glucose Detects a decrease in blood glucose
B
concentration concentration
Detects both a decrease and an increase
C Secretes either glucagon or insulin
in blood glucose concentration
Detects both a decrease and an increase
D No role
in blood glucose concentration

E No role Secretes only insulin

Chemistry

59 Which of the following shows how the atomic radius of the elements changes on crossing from
left to right in the row of the Periodic Table from potassium to bromine?

K to Ca Sc to Zn Ga to Br
A decrease increase decrease

B decrease decrease increase

C decrease decrease decrease

D increase decrease increase

E increase increase increase

60 How many nitrogen electrons are involved in bond formation in HONO2 ?

A 3

B 4

C 5

D 6

E 7

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 27


61 Which one of the following compounds can be made from ethanol using only a substitution
reaction?

A Ethene

B Ethanal

C Ethanoic acid

D Ethoxyethane

E Bromoethane

62 An aromatic compound consists of two benzene rings joined together. Which of the following
could be its formula?

1. C10H8 2. C10H10 3. C10H12 4. C12H10 5. C12H12

A 1 and 4

B 2 and 4

C 3 and 4

D 2 and 5

E 3 and 5

63 8.0 g of copper oxide is reduced to 5.6 g of copper using hydrogen gas.


[relative atomic mass: Cu=64, O=16]

CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

What is the yield of copper as a percentage of the theoretical maximum?

A 14.3%

B 43.9%

C 56.0%

D 70.0%

E 87.5%

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 28


64 The positions of some elements in the Periodic Table are shown below.

H He
Li C Ne
Na S Cl
Br Kr

Which two of the elements shown react most energetically with each other?

A Li and Kr

B Ne and Na

C C and He

D Li and Br

E Na and Cl

65 Which one of the following is not an acid/base reaction?

+ -
A HNO3 + HClO4 → H2NO3 + ClO4
- +
B 2NH3 → NH2 + NH4
3+ 2+ +
C Al(H2O)6 + H2O → Al(H2O)5(OH) + H3O
-
D CH4 + H(SbF6) → CH5+ + SbF6
3+ -
E FeCl3 + 6H2O → Fe(H2O)6 + 3Cl

66 What is the total number of electrons in an ammonium ion, NH4+ ?

A 8

B 9

C 10

D 11

E 12

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 29


67 One group of elements in the Periodic Table contains, in descending order, boron, aluminium,
gallium, indium and thallium. Which of the following are correct about these elements?
1 Indium forms the oxide In2O3

2 Boron is the least reactive element in the group

3 Gallium forms the sulphate GaSO4

A 1 only

B 1 and 2

C 1 and 3

D 2 and 3

E 1, 2 and 3

68 Sodium chloride (relative molecular mass = 58.5) has a solubility of 36.0 g per 100 g of water.
The density of the solution is 1.13 g/ml. Which of the following calculations would give the
solubility in moles per litre?

A 36.0 x 10/58.5

B 36.0 x 1000/(58.5 x 1.13)

C 36.0 x 10 x 1.13/58.5

D 36.0 x 10 x 1.13/(58.5 x 136)

E 36.0 x 1000 x 1.13/(58.5 x 136)

69 Which one of the following is not an oxidation/reduction reaction?

A 2Fe + 3Cl2 → 2 FeCl3

B Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HClO

C KClO4 → KCl + 2O2

D NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl

E The electrolysis of sodium chloride solution

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 30


Physics and Mathematics

70 Which one of the following is not an example of simple harmonic motion?

A The motion of the Moon around the Earth as observed from Mars.

B The ripples produced when a stone is dropped into a tank of water.

C A weight moving up and down at the end of a spring.

D The motion of a ball bouncing on the floor.

E A vibrating violin string.

71 A uniform bar of length 2.0 m and weight 1000 N has its centre of gravity at its centre. The bar is
pivoted in the position shown, and supports a weight of 200 N in the position shown in the
diagram.

2m

0.5m

200N
Metal bar Pivot

What weight is needed at position P to balance the bar?

A 600 N

B 800 N

C 1000 N

D 1600 N

E 1800 N

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 31


72 Which of the following systems has an overall entropy closest to zero?

A A weight moving up and down on a spring.

B A satellite in orbit 25 000 km above the Earth.

C The evaporation of ether at room temperature.

D An object in free fall when it has reached terminal velocity.

E A metal object being rapidly electroplated.

73 Three resistors are connected to a 20 V battery with a constant supply. One of the resistors
is a variable resistor.

The resistance of the variable resistor is gradually increased from zero to 5 Ω.

Which graph shows how the current from the battery varies with the resistance (R) of the
variable resistor?

A I/A B I/A C I/A


6 6 6

4 4 4

2 2 2

0 0 0
0 5 R/Ω 0 5 R/Ω 0 5 R/Ω

D I/A E I/A
6 6

4 4

2 2

0 0
0 5 R/Ω 0 5 R/Ω

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 32


74 An object of mass 50 g just floats in a liquid of density 2.5 g/ml. When the object is placed in a
liquid of density 2.0 g/ml, it sinks to the bottom of the container. What is the force that the object
exerts on the bottom of the container?

[ g = 10 m/s2 = 10 N/kg ]

A 0.1 N

B 0.4 N

C 10 N

D 40 N

E 400 N

75 The law of gravitation states that the gravitational force between two bodies of mass m1 and m2
is given by:
Gm1m2
F=
r2

G (gravitational constant) = 7 x10-11 Nm2 kg -2


r (distance between the two bodies) in the case of the Earth and Moon = 4 x 108 m
m1 (Earth) = 6 x 1024 kg
m2 (Moon) = 7 x 1022 kg

What is the gravitational force between the Earth and the Moon?

19
A 1.8375 x 10 N
20
B 1.8375 x 10 N
25
C 1.8375 x 10 N
26
D 1.8375 x 10 N
28
E 1.8375 x 10 N

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 33


76 David has two boxes containing shapes.
In box A there are 4 stars and 2 hearts.
In box B there are 2 stars and 1 heart.
David takes, at random, a shape from box A and puts it into box B.
He then takes a shape from box B.

What is the probability that this shape is a star?

1
A
12
4
B
9
2
C
3
3
D
4
4
E
3

77 Which of the expressions below has the largest value for 0 < x < 1?

1
A
x
B x2

1
C
(1 + x )
1
D
x

E x

78 How many different integers, n, are there such that the difference between 2 n and 7 is less
than 1?

A 0

B 2

C 4

D 6

E 8

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 34


79 The graph below shows the line joining A (2,1) and B (6,3), and its perpendicular bisector
(shown dashed: ----------).

Which of the following is the equation of the dashed line?

A y = 2x – 10

B y = 2x – 6

C y = 10 – 2x

x
D y=4–
2
E y = 4 – 2x

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 35


80 A square piece of metal has a semicircular piece cut out of it as shown. The area of the
2
remaining metal is 100 cm .

Which of the following is a correct expression of the length of the side of the square in cm?

1
A 10
8−π
2
B 10
4 −π
2
C 20
8+π
2
D 20
8 −π
1
E 20
4 −π

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 36


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IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 37


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IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 38


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IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 39


BLANK PAGE

Developed and administered on behalf of the Ministero dell’Istruzione, dell’Univerità e della Ricerca
by Cambridge Assessment.

Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate,
a department of the University of Cambridge. Cambridge Assessment is a not-for-profit organisation.

IMAT 2011 © UCLES 2011 40


IMAT 2011
Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer
1  C  41  A 
2  C  42  C 
3  B  43  B 
4  D  44  D 
5  A  45  C 
6  E  46  E 
7  A  47  C 
8  A  48  B 
9  D  49  A 
10  C  50  B 
11  A  51  E 
12  D  52  B 
13  D  53  B 
14  B  54  A 
15  D  55  E 
16  D  56  C 
17  D  57  B 
18  E  58  D 
19  B  59  C 
20  A  60  C 
21  B  61  E 
22  C  62  A 
23  B  63  E 
24  D  64  E 
25  E  65  E 
26  C  66  C 
27  E  67  B 
28  B  68  E 
29  B  69  D 
30  C  70  D 
31  C  71  D 
32  D  72  B 
33  B  73  E 
34  C  74  A 
35  D  75  B 
36  C  76  C 
37  A  77  A 
38  B  78  D 
39  B  79  C 
40  C  80  D 

© UCLES 2011 
 

ADMISSION TEST FOR THE DEGREE COURSE IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY 

Academic Year 2012/2013 

Thinking Skills  

1  Many people argue that the many government programmes intended to increase road safety have 
caused a steady decline in the number of accidents on our roads. However, some observers report 
that the real number of accidents may be much higher than is shown in the official records as 
many accidents are not reported by drivers. They also say that during the time when accident 
figures have decreased, the number of people going to hospitals because of road accidents has 
stayed constant. 
Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage? 
A Road safety has improved greatly in recent years.
B Drivers should be required to report all accidents that occur on the road.
C Positive views about continually improving road safety may not be supported by what actually 
happens. 
D Government programmes have been unsuccessful in reducing the number of accidents.
E Hospital admissions are a good way of measuring changes in the number of accidents on our 
roads. 

2  In 2010 there were over 110,000 incidents of arson (deliberately setting fire to buildings) in the UK in 
which over 100 people were killed, usually in attacks on people's homes. Only a small percentage 
of homes have smoke alarms. If more homes had smoke alarms, the number of domestic fires 
would be significantly reduced. There should be a campaign to persuade people to install smoke 
alarms in their home as this would reduce the number of deaths. 
Which one of the following identifies the flaw in the above argument? 
A It assumes that having smoke alarms will prevent fires.
B It assumes that all deaths in fires are from arson attacks.
C It overlooks the fact that smoke alarms may not work.
D It assumes that people will be willing to install smoke alarms.
E It assumes that all arson attacks are on people's homes.

© UCLES 2012 Page 1 / 40


3  Nicotine chewing gum is already available in chemists. Nicotine is an addictive drug, but by itself it 
causes little, if any, harm. Unlike other addictive substances it does not reduce the brain's 
performance, make people lazy, anti­social, or have more accidents. But until recently nicotine has 
been taken only in the form of tobacco, which also contains cancer­causing chemicals and deadly 
gases that kill one third of the people who smoke it. The chewing gum does not contain these 
chemicals, and is not dangerous in any other way. 
Which one of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the above passage? 
A Nicotine chewing gum should be banned as it is addictive.
B Nicotine chewing gum is a relatively safe alternative to tobacco for those addicted to nicotine.
C Tobacco smokers can get rid of their addiction by chewing nicotine gum.
D Nicotine chewing gum will make nicotine addiction more common by removing some of its 
risks. 
E Tobacco companies should put money into the manufacture and marketing of nicotine chewing 
gum. 

4  Television programmes that show young people in a school environment continue to feature highly 
in viewing schedules. Few of the programmes, however, give any emphasis on the time spent 
studying and the work required for academic success. Many of the actors used are far older than 
the characters they portray, suggesting attitudes, behaviour and appearances that are inaccurate 
and sometimes inappropriate. Broadcasters and producers should try to correct this. 
Which one of the following must be assumed in the above argument? 
A Young people may feel that their social life is dull compared with that shown in television 
programmes. 
B It is often impractical to use young people in television programmes given the restrictions on 
how many hours they can work. 
C It is important to represent school life accurately.
D Television programmes about other areas such as the police are not accurate.
E School work and academic success are important to all students.

5  The volume of water expands by 9% when it freezes. 
If you want a block of ice 40 cm³, how much water would you need to put into a freezer? 
A 36.7 cm³
B 38.2 cm³
C 38.0 cm³
D 40.0 cm³
E 37.0 cm³

© UCLES 2012 Page 2 / 40


6  In a children's story there are three types of monster, Bongles, Crannies and Dervies. Some, but 
not all, Bongles are Crannies and all Crannies are Dervies. 
Which one of the following is definitely NOT true? 
A Some Dervies are both Bongles and Crannies.
B Some Dervies are neither Bongles nor Crannies.
C All Crannies are either Bongles or Dervies or both.
D No Dervies are Bongles.
E Some Bongles are Dervies.

7  Alice works until 5pm each day from Monday to Friday. On Friday she is planning to go to the 
cinema with friends. There is a local bus service which passes her workplace, home and cinema. 
Part of the bus timetable is shown in the table below. Alice plans to take the bus home, where she 
will get ready to go to the cinema and then she will catch the bus to get to the cinema. It will take 
Alice 45 minutes to get ready and she will also need 10 minutes when she reaches the cinema to 
buy her ticket before a film starts. Films start every 15 minutes starting from 6pm. 

Work  16:39  17:04  17:39  18:04  18:39  19:04  19:39 

Home  17:08  17:33  17:58  18:33  18:58  19:33  19:58 

Cinema  17:33  17:58  18:33  18:58  19:33  19:58  20:33 

What is the earliest time that she can watch a film? 
A 18:15
B 18:30
C 18:45
D 19:00
E 19.15

8  Modern technology has given us the power to use renewable natural resources faster than they can 
be replaced. The decline of fish numbers provides one example of the way in which modern 
technology can rapidly use up a natural resource. Modern fishing ships equipped with fish detecting 
systems and huge nets can gather up vast quantities of fish quicker than the sea can renew them. 
Because high technology gives us such harmful powers, we must learn to use the renewable 
resources of the earth carefully, rather than waste them. 
Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above passage? 
A Modern technology simply takes from the environment and destroys its resources.
B Fishing is now a serious threat to the world's environment and should cease.
C Fish need to be carefully protected to prevent them from being destroyed.
D Most people are unaware of the damaging effects of modern technology.
E Humans must preserve renewable resources by learning how to use them carefully.

© UCLES 2012 Page 3 / 40


9  Shower gel is now used much more than soap when people take a shower. This is unfortunate. 
Shower gel requires much more packaging which means more rubbish. There is also a tendency 
for people to use more of it when washing in comparison with soap. Therefore more natural 
resources are consumed in the manufacturing process than would be if people used only soap. So, 
the trend towards shower gel is bad for the environment. This is because it creates more problems 
of waste disposal and uses up more resources than soap. We should make people more aware of 
the environmental impact of such simple decisions. 
Which one of the following is an expression of the main conclusion of the above argument? 
A The increased popularity of shower gel is bad for the environment.
B It is unfortunate that shower gel has become more popular than soap.
C People should be made more aware of the environmental consequences of choosing shower 
gel. 
D The use of shower gel increases the problems of waste disposal.
E The manufacture of shower gel is more wasteful of natural resources.

10  Ten years ago in many European cities, offices typically had spaces for six bicycles, half of which 
were never used and spaces for 50 cars which were always full. Today, there are fewer car 
spaces and many more spaces for bicycles which are always full. This change to cycling may 
seem strange to some as cycling is more effort. Possible causes are rising fuel prices, the 
introduction of higher parking charges for drivers in major cities, increasing awareness of 
environmental issues, expensive public transport and traffic jams. 
Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage? 
A Using a bicycle is now the most popular way of travelling to work.
B Travellers are now much more environmentally aware than they were 10 years ago.
C People will not cycle to work unless employers provide more cycle spaces on site.
D Travellers are now less happy to pay the costs of car use than they were ten years ago.
E More people cycle to work now than 10 years ago.

11  I wish to repaint the walls of my garage. It is 3 metres high, 4 metres wide and 9 metres deep. I 
shall not need to paint the electronic door which covers one 3 x 4 metre end, nor the window, which 
is 2 metres wide and 1 metre high, nor the rear door which is 1 metre wide and 2 metres high. 1 
litre of paint covers 3 square metres. 
How many 1 litre tins will be needed to complete the painting? 
A 26
B 22
C 25
D 18
E 21

© UCLES 2012 Page 4 / 40


12  Approximately 1 in 14 men over the age of 50 has prostate cancer. The level of 'prostate specific 
antigen' (PSA) is used as a preliminary screening test for prostate cancer. 
7% of men with prostate cancer do not have a high level of PSA. These results are known as 'false 
negatives'. 
75% of those men with a high level of PSA do not have cancer. These results are known as 'false 
positives'. 
If a man over 50 has a normal level of PSA, what are the chances that he has prostate cancer? 
A 7%
B 25%
C 5%
D 0.7%
E 0.5%

13  The National Farmer's Union (NFU) approves of controlled killing of badgers to reduce their 
numbers, saying that it is needed to help farming. Badgers are animals believed to be responsible 
for the spread of bovine tuberculosis which results in large numbers of cows having to be 
destroyed every year. Animal rights supporters have criticised the proposal, but it is clear that the 
lives of more cattle can be saved by destroying a smaller number of badgers. This controlled killing 
should be allowed to go ahead. 
Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument? 
A It attacks the animal rights supporters rather than their argument.
B It assumes that the animal rights supporters believe that animals that are living freely have a 
greater right to life than those that are being bred on farms. 
C It assumes that the animal rights supporters believe that badgers have a greater right to life 
than cows. 
D It assumes that the arguments from the animal rights supporters are about the number of 
deaths. 
E It assumes that animal rights supporters always disagree with the NFU.

14  Global warming is threatening the survival of California's redwoods. These trees benefit from 
coastal fog which is captured by the trees, causing water to drip onto the soil and therefore 
watering them. Since fog is now 30 percent less frequent than it was 50 years ago the trees will not 
have this source of water and are therefore likely to begin to die out. 
Which one of the following must be assumed in the above argument? 
A Global warming is to blame for the reduction in coastal fog.
B The levels of fog will continue to decline.
C Other trees will not be able to thrive in these conditions.
D Redwoods in other areas of the world are being similarly affected.
E Rainfall has also reduced over the past 50 years.

© UCLES 2012 Page 5 / 40


15  One of the fastest­growing beauty treatments in Britain, fish pedicures ­ where tiny toothless fish 
called garra rufa smooth feet by eating dead skin ­ has come under scrutiny from animal rights 
campaigners. One campaigner said, 'Fish are covered by the Animal Welfare Act. They need a 
stable environment and clean water, uncontaminated by perfume or lotions.' A spa in London's 
West End was closed recently by the local council when many of the fish in its pedicure pool died. 
There should be a complete ban on this type of pedicure, or else there will soon be no garra rufa.  
Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument? 
A Beauty spas which offer fish pedicures are not especially numerous at present.
B It would be less harmful if people washed their feet before using the spa.
C Fish in the wild are likely to die if their environment changes.
D The death of the fish in the London spa may not be a typical occurrence.
E The public does not immediately associate fish with the Animal Welfare Act.

16  The 100W light bulb (cost €0.60) is not going to be used anymore and is being replaced with the 
20W (cost €3) low energy light bulb. 
If electricity is charged at €0.15 per kWh, for how many hours must the low energy bulb be used in 
order for the lower cost of running it to exactly compensate for its higher initial cost? 
A 0.25
B 250.00
C 200.00
D 160.00
E 720.00

17  Three months ago, Jane had 5 times as many DVDs as Duncan. Since then they have both bought 
12 more DVDs. Jane now has twice as many as Duncan. 
How many DVDs does Jane have now? 
A 72
B 32
C 52
D 62
E 42

© UCLES 2012 Page 6 / 40


18  In preparation for my holiday in Bolandia last June, I changed €300 into Bolandian dollars every pay 
day from January to May (I am paid monthly). 
The exchange rates were as follows: 

January  February  March  April  May 

€1=  $2.74  $2.79  $2.76  $2.83  $2.81 

How many more Bolandian dollars would I have received altogether if, instead, I had changed the 
whole €1500 in May? 
A 36
B 48
C 66
D 180
E 105

19  Rating figures for music are now much more difficult to calculate compared to a decade ago. The 
introduction of new formats for selling music means that figures have to be calculated based on 
more methods such as downloads, in addition to the sales of CDs in shops. Additionally, the 
availability of more formats means that there is more potential for copies of works to be shared with 
other fans, who do not pay for them. These fans do not show up in the ratings, so the official ratings 
do not reflect the relative popularity of a work. 
Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the above argument? 
A The calculation of ratings based on downloads and sales together is not difficult.
B Sharing copies of purchased works with others is against the law.
C Artists are not interested in the popularity of their work, just the sales figures.
D The sharing of works with other fans is more widespread for certain types of music.
E Official ratings have never reflected popularity very well.

20  It has been argued that since there has to be some limit on the funding of university education by 
governments, it would be best to target such funding, giving a lower priority to subjects which 
provide little benefit to society. Some subjects, such as Medicine, Engineering and Computing 
should be well funded, because they are clearly of great worth to the community. Subjects such as 
Classics, Literature and Art should be funded at a much lower level. These subjects are primarily of 
interest to the individual, and a wealthy society should give some subsidy to hobby subjects. 
However, it must be recognised that the future of society lies in the training and development of 
those people who will contribute the most. 
Which one of the following must be assumed in the above argument? 
A Subjects which are of interest to individuals can also provide benefit to society.
B The training of those people who will contribute most to society requires an increase in 
government funding in university education. 
C Medicine, Engineering and Computing are not very interesting subjects to study.
D A wealthy society should not subsidise subjects which are of interest only to individuals.
E The study at universities of Classics, Literature and Art provides little benefit to society.

© UCLES 2012 Page 7 / 40


21  Roughly 60 percent of today's world population is bilingual or multilingual and it is argued that this is 
a new phenomenon. Today Spanish and Arabic are widely spoken whilst English is the world's 
most commonly spoken and written language. However, 500 years ago it was Latin which was the 
main language of education, religion, commerce and government in the Western World despite this 
not being most people's first language. In the 17th century, French and Italian gained in importance 
as languages of international trade. 
Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion of the above passage? 
A English will one day be replaced as the main language of communication.
B Speaking another language has always been an important practical consideration.
C The majority of bilingual or multilingual people speak English.
D The number of bilingual or multilingual people in the world will continue to grow.
E English is the most common world language today because of the spread of the internet.

22  Child actors tend to become addicted to drink and drugs in later life, usually when they become 
adults but are not as successful as they were previously. The actors frequently blame their parents, 
who often manage their children's career and so have a reason to work them hard when they are 
young and enjoy the wealth their children generate for them. The child actors who avoid this are 
often the ones who were encouraged to keep up their schooling and explore other career options. 
Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage? 
A Child actors should have other interests that allow for other career opportunities.
B Drug abuse is common in the entertainment industry.
C Young actors who continue to work live happy, healthy lives.
D Parents should not be allowed to manage the careers of their children.
E There are fewer jobs available for adult actors.

23  According to the Food Standards Agency, film goers should be told how many calories there are in 
the popcorn, ice cream and fizzy drinks that they buy in cinemas and smaller portions of popcorn 
and drinks should also be available. As two thirds of adults and a third of children are already obese 
or overweight, with serious risk of heart disease, diabetes and cancer, the need for proper labelling 
to warn people about the calorie content of these items is urgent. 
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument in the passage above? 
A People who are overweight are sometimes more concerned with their looks than the long term 
health risks. 
B A large box of salted popcorn contains as many calories as a three course meal.
C Cinemas rely on sales of food and drink to boost their profits.
D Trials show that consumers alter their eating habits when food is calorie­labelled.
E Many people think that the food and drink consumed at the cinema is as important to the visit 
as the film. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 8 / 40


24  Tom shared out some money between his three children in the ratio 5:3:2. He later had an extra €6 
which he gave to the child who received the least originally. This meant that the money had been 
shared into one large and two equal smaller shares. 
How much money in total did Tom give to the three children? 
A €36
B €26
C €60
D €20
E €66

25  One radioactive substance, P, is gradually changed by radioactive decay into another, Q. Q itself 
decays into a third substance, R, which does not decay. The graphs below show how the 
quantities of P, Q and R varied with time during an experiment. 

 
What do the graphs 1, 2 and 3 represent? 
A 1:R 2:Q 3:P
B 1:Q 2:P 3:R
C 1:Q 2:R 3:P
D 1:P 2:Q 3:R
E 1:R 2:P 3:Q

26  The Chief Executive of the Royal Opera House has recently offered 100 seats on any Monday night 
for £10. Normally these seats can cost up to £175 therefore it represents a considerable saving. 
However the hopes of the Chief Executive that this will attract a broader audience are likely to be 
disappointed. It is not the financial costs that put people off opera ­ it is simply that they do not like it. 
Many young people spend considerable sums of money going to premier football matches or 
'clubbing'. This suggests, therefore, that the problem of attracting a more diverse audience to opera 
is more a question of culture than economics. 
Which one of the following is an expression of the main conclusion of the above argument? 
A The 'cheap seats' policy is unlikely to attract a more diverse audience.
B The intention of the 'cheap seats' policy is that it will attract a broader audience.
C A considerable amount of money can be saved as a result of this offer.
D Many young people do not like the idea of going to the opera.
E Attracting a broader audience for opera is a problem of taste rather than expense.

© UCLES 2012 Page 9 / 40


27  The ingredients list on a tin of baked beans reads as follows (in order of descending weight): 

l Navy beans (51%)  
l Water  
l Sugar  
l Tomato puree (4.5%)  
l Modified maize starch  
l Salt  
l Natural flavourings  
l Onion powder  
l Paprika 

What is the maximum percentage of water the tin could contain? 
A 22.2%
B 17.5%
C 49.0%
D 40.0%
E 44.5%

28  Three friends, Adam, David and Sue are sharing out a bag of marbles. To do this more quickly, 
they take 10 marbles each time and repeat until the bag is empty. There are not enough marbles 
for Sue to take 10 on the last turn. Adam and David then give her two marbles each and they all 
have the same. 
How many marbles did Sue take on the last turn? 
A 4
B 2
C 8
D 6
E 3

29  In a street, a survey showed that out of a hundred households 60 had a cat, 40 had a dog, and 20 
had neither a cat nor a dog. 
How many households had a cat but no dog? 
A 20
B 50
C 40
D 10
E 30

© UCLES 2012 Page 10 / 40


30  After a long period of dry weather, the water container in my garden contained only 28% of its 
capacity of water. Last week's rain, however, increased the amount of water in the container by 
25%, and according to the weather forecast, a similar amount of rain is expected to fall this coming 
week. 
If, as expected, the container gets the same amount of rainwater this coming week as it did last 
week, what percentage of its capacity will it then contain? 
A 66.25%
B 42.00%
C 78.00%
D 60.00%
E 43.75%

31  There are four rivers in Bolandia, each claiming to be the longest. Tourist board brochures in the 
regions containing the rivers, make the following statements: 
1. The Dile is shorter than the Cubba. 
2. The Bongo is shorter than the Esun. 
3. The Esun is longer than the Cubba. 
If all of the above are correct, which one of the following statements is definitely true? 
A The Bongo is longer than the Cubba.
B The Esun is longer than the Dile.
C The Dile is longer than the Esun.
D The Cubba is longer than the Bongo.
E The Dile is shorter than the Bongo.

32  The table below shows the number of people who voted for each candidate in the recent school 
election: 

Name  Alison  Harold  Kevin  Peter  Rachel 

Votes  84  100  72  126  63 

When drawing a pie chart of the results one of the numbers above was not read correctly (the other 
four were correct). The angles were calculated as 113.4 degrees, 90 degrees, 75.6 degrees, 56.7 
degrees, and 24.3 degrees. 
Whose score was copied incorrectly when the pie chart was constructed? 
A Kevin
B Peter
C Rachel
D Alison
E Harold

© UCLES 2012 Page 11 / 40


33  A regular train service operates between Jayford and Kayton, a 16 km journey which takes 19 
minutes. The trains travel at a constant speed of 60 km per hour in both directions except through a 
tunnel, where they are limited to 20 km per hour. Trains travelling towards Kayton enter the tunnel 4 
km after setting off from Jayford. 
How long is the tunnel? 
A 4.5 km
B 2.5 km
C 1.5 km
D 3.5 km
E 0.5 km

34  After Northern Europe experienced the coldest weather for several years last winter, people are 
claiming that the theories of global warming are incorrect. This is not a conclusion that can be 
drawn from the information as it is only based on a single year's data. Global warming is based on 
long term changes in average temperature. It therefore does not mean that the temperature will 
increase every year. The extreme weather last winter was caused by cold air from the Arctic which 
is normally kept there by strong winds around the pole. Last winter those winds were not as strong. 
Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the above argument? 
A Some of the people claiming that the theories of global warming are incorrect do not come 
from areas that had very cold weather last winter. 
B Although the weather was very cold last winter, the winter before was of average temperature.
C Other regions of the Northern Hemisphere were hotter last winter than in previous years.
D All the people claiming that theories of global warming are incorrect come from areas that had 
very cold weather last winter. 
E The claims that theories of global warming are incorrect are supported by further evidence.

35  A student gives his friends small, short­term loans for periods of 1, 2 or 3 weeks after which time 
they must be repaid in full. He always lends on a Friday afternoon. He starts with €120 and loans 
out the following amounts each week: 

Week  1  2  3  4 

Amount  €45  €25  €18  €20 

What is the smallest amount of money he has by the end of the 4th Friday? 
A €82
B €12
C €77
D €100
E €57

© UCLES 2012 Page 12 / 40


36  Hundreds of miles of motorways are lit by unnecessary street lights. There is a need to save 
energy usage in all public services and it is time that the government considered turning off street 
lighting. Modern cars have powerful headlights which provide a clear view of the road ahead even 
without overhead lighting. There is also evidence to suggest that when drivers move from an area 
with lighting to an area without they are more likely to have an accident than those drivers who have 
driven exclusively on roads without lighting. 
Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the above argument? 
A There is evidence that there are fewer daytime accidents on those motorways without lighting.
B Driving in well­lit areas at night can lead to a lack of concentration.
C Research suggests that older drivers find driving without lighting more difficult.
D Many drivers find driving on unlit roads difficult.
E Street lighting costs less than other types of road maintenance.

37  The following information appears on a 200g packet of biscuits: 

 
How many biscuits are there in a full packet? 
A 22
B 11
C 6
D 13
E 7

38  A restaurant owner who has put grey squirrel on the menu has called it the 'ultimate ethical food'. 
The grey squirrel, a small, tree­dwelling rodent introduced to Britain over a century ago, is breeding 
so rapidly that the native red squirrel is disappearing. Encouraging the consumption of the grey 
species as food may help protect the red one, in her view. The owner added that squirrel meat was 
free range, low fat and low on air miles. However, we can challenge this, as it is all just a cheap 
publicity stunt to increase business in the restaurant. Squirrels should not be on the menu! 
Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument? 
A It attacks the owner's motive rather than her reasons.
B It assumes the disappearance of the red squirrel justifies eating the grey squirrel.
C It attacks the whole notion of an ethical food.
D It assumes that eating grey squirrels will protect the red squirrel.
E It assumes that red squirrels don't need protecting.

© UCLES 2012 Page 13 / 40


39  Health services should find better ways to take blood pressure readings for patients thought to be 
suffering from high blood pressure (hypertension). One third of patients thought to have high blood 
pressure may actually have 'white coat' hypertension, according to a new study. 'White coat' 
hypertension means that a patient's blood pressure is high at the doctor's surgery, probably due to 
anxiety, but normal in everyday life. In the study, patients said to have hypertension had their blood 
pressure measured in a normal environment; more than one third of these patients' blood 
pressures were in the normal range when they were at home or participating in their usual 
activities. It is worrying that patients are being treated with drugs with some negative side effects to 
reduce high blood pressure which they do not actually have. 
Which one of the following best expresses the conclusion of the argument above? 
A Two thirds of patients said to have hypertension are being wrongly treated.
B More effective ways of measuring blood pressure are needed.
C Health services could save money currently spent on unnecessarily prescribed drugs.
D Anxiety is the most common cause of high blood pressure.
E 'White coat' hypertension has no medical significance.

40  As John walks along the High Street, the numbers to his left increase while the numbers to his right 
decrease, as in the diagram below.  

 
The street where he lives is numbered in the same way. He lives at number 8 Princess Road and 
the house directly opposite his house is number 11.  
How many houses are there on Princess Road? 
A 18
B 16
C 20
D 14
E 19

Biology  

© UCLES 2012 Page 14 / 40


41  If a glucose molecule became incorporated as a non­terminal component of starch, which two 
regions, labelled i to v, would be involved in forming glycosidic bonds?  

 
A i and iii
B iii and v
C ii and iv
D i and iv
E ii and v

42  In a reflex arc that comprises a pain receptor cell in the skin, three neurones and a muscle 
(effector), the number of synapses found in the central nervous system (CNS) is:  
A 3
B 5
C 4
D 1
E 2

43  Which one of the following molecules will contain the greatest number of different elements?  
A amino acids
B polysaccharide carbohydrates
C lipids
D monosaccharide carbohydrates
E water

© UCLES 2012 Page 15 / 40


44  Which of the examples of homeostasis do NOT require the brain to be involved in the control 
process? 

1. temperature regulation  
2. osmoregulation (regulation of the water content of blood)  
3. blood glucose concentration regulation  

A 2 and 3 only
B 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 2 only
E 1 only

45  The diagram below represents the fluid mosaic model of the cell (surface) membrane. 

 
Only two of the labelled molecules have both hydrophobic and hydrophilic areas. Which two 
molecules are they? 
A P and Q
B R and S
C Q and R
D S and T
E P and T

© UCLES 2012 Page 16 / 40


46  Which row of the table correctly identifies a blood vessel that has a low concentration of carbon 
dioxide and a vessel that has a low concentration of urea?  
low carbon  low urea 
dioxide 

Row 1   renal vein  pulmonary artery 

Row 2  pulmonary vein  renal vein 

Row 3  renal artery  pulmonary vein 

Row 4  pulmonary vein  renal artery 

Row 5  pulmonary artery  renal vein 

A Row 5
B Row 2
C Row 4
D Row 3
E Row 1

47  Gene expression can be regulated by:  
A transcription factors
B DNA replication factors
C RNA polymerase
D rough endoplasmic reticulum
E the position of the genes on the alleles

48  In a set of genetic crosses the offspring produced showed the same phenotype ratio of 9:3:3:1.  
Which of the following statements could be true? 

1. two genes each with two alleles were studied  
2. all parents were heterozygous  
3. some offspring had a phenotype different to the parents  
4. some offspring had a phenotype the same as the parents  

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1 and 2 only
C 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only
E 1 only

© UCLES 2012 Page 17 / 40


49  Which one of the following would be different in a pair of non­identical twins?  
A alleles
B amount of nuclear DNA
C the total of adenine plus guanine
D genes
E chromosome number

50  Which one of the following is NOT correct about human chromosomes?  
A They contain regions called genes.
B They are made of DNA and protein.
C They are sometimes not found in pairs
D They can attach to the spindle at the centriole.
E They are sometimes found in pairs.

51  Which one of the following is NOT true of human hormones?  
A They are all released from glands and flow down ducts into the bloodstream.
B A hormone may affect one or more structures in the body.
C They travel at the speed of blood flow.
D They are all chemicals.
E Some, such as testosterone and oestrogen, can be steroids.

52  Which of the following transport mechanisms require the use of protein molecules found in 
membranes and ATP? 
1. Active transport 
2. Diffusion 
3. Facilitated diffusion 
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 3 only
D 1 only
E 1 and 3 only

© UCLES 2012 Page 18 / 40


53  Which one of the following labels, i to v, represents a nucleotide?  

 
A i
B iv
C v
D ii
E iii

54  Which of the following crosses is most likely to produce offspring of genotype GgNn?  
A ggNN x GGNn
B GGNn x GgNn
C ggNn x GGNN
D GGNN x ggnn
E GgNn x GgNn

55  Antibiotics are becoming less effective due to:  
A people becoming immune to them
B people not finishing the full course
C new antibiotics being available
D people becoming resistant to them
E artificial selection

© UCLES 2012 Page 19 / 40


56  The following organelles are involved in processing amino acids into glycoprotein: 
1. Golgi apparatus 
2. Ribsomes 
3. RER 
Which sequence is correct for this process? 
A
B
C
D
E

57  Which of the following are increased when the level of adrenaline rises in a human? 

1. heart rate  
2. breathing rate  
3. impulse rate in a sensory neurone  

A 1 and 3 only
B 1 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1 and 2 only
E 1, 2 and 3

58  Which of the following is/are true about hydrogen bonds between water molecules? 
1. They are weak bonds. 
2. They are strong bonds. 
3. They are temporary bonds. 
4. They require hydrolysis to break. 
A 1 only
B 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only
E 1 and 4 only

Chemistry  

© UCLES 2012 Page 20 / 40


59  Which one of the following could NOT be the formula of an aldehyde? 
A C6H12O2
B C5H10O2

C C5H10O
D C5H12O

E C6H12O

60  Which of the following statements are correct about the solvent properties of water? 

1. All ionic substances dissolve in water.  
2. All covalent substances are insoluble in water.  
3. The solubility of solids usually increases with a rise in temperature.  

A 1 only
B 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D none
E 3 only

61  In the following reactions, which substances are acting as oxidising agents? 
 
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
 
2Fe3+(aq) + 2I­(aq) → Fe2+(aq) + I2(aq)
 
Mg(s) + 2H+(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + H2(g)

A C(s), Fe3+(aq), H+(aq)
B C(s), Fe3+(aq), Mg(s)
C O2(g), I­(aq), H+(aq)

D O2(g), Fe3+(aq), H+(aq)

E O2(g), I­(aq), Mg(s)

62  Which one of the following is NOT correct about Fe, Cu and Zn, which are in the first row of the 
transition metals?  
A They all form basic oxides.
B They all have densities greater than those of Group 1 metals.
C They are all reactive metals.
D All of them form M2+ ions.
E Only two of them form coloured ions.

© UCLES 2012 Page 21 / 40


63  The Avogadro constant is 6.0 x 1023 mol­1.  
How many hydrogen atoms are there in 0.420 g of cyclohexane? 
 
[Ar: H = 1; C = 12]

A 1.8 x 1023
B 1.8 x 1022
C 3.0 x 1021
D 3.0 x 1022
E 3.6 x 1022

64  What is the total number of electrons in the ions of sodium chloride?  
A sodium ion = 11; chloride ion = 17
B sodium ion = 8; chloride ion = 8
C sodium ion = 11; chloride ion = 18
D sodium ion = 10; chloride ion = 18
E sodium ion = 10; chloride ion = 17

65  Which one of the following is correct about the first and second electron affinities of oxygen? 
A first = slightly exothermic; second = very endothermic
B first = slightly exothermic; second = very exothermic
C first = slightly endothermic; second = very exothermic
D first = slightly endothermic; second = very endothermic
E first = very exothermic; second = very exothermic

66  The positions of some elements in the Periodic Table are shown below. 

  
Which one of the following pairs of elements is most likely to form a covalent bond? 
A magnesium and bromine
B strontium and oxygen
C potassium and chlorine
D calcium and chlorine
E beryllium and iodine

© UCLES 2012 Page 22 / 40


67  Consider the following reactions. 
 
C2H5Br + OH­ → C2H5OH + Br­ 
 
Ba2+(aq) + SO42­(aq) → BaSO4(s)
 
Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + Cu(s)
Which one of the following types of reaction is NOT included in this list? 
A substitution
B oxidation/reduction
C displacement
D precipitation
E elimination

68  Which rows of the table correctly describe the reactions of the aqueous acids with amines and 
amides?  
  Amines  Amides 
 
Row 1  Ethanoic acid  reacts  does not react 

Row 2  Nitrous acid  reacts  reacts 

Row 3  Sulphuric acid  does not react  hydrolyses 

A Rows 2 and 3
B Rows 1 and 3
C None of the rows
D All of the rows
E Rows 1 and 2

69  Which one of the following is NOT the correct formula for a lithium compound? 
A Li2S

B LiCO3
C CH3CO2Li

D LiHSO4
E Li3N

Physics and Mathematics  

© UCLES 2012 Page 23 / 40


70  What is the set of values of x for which   ?  

A
B
C
D
E

71  A block of iron at 100 oC is transferred to a plastic cup containing water at 20 oC.  
Which one of the following is NOT necessary in order to find the specific heat capacity of iron?  
A The specific heat capacity of water.
B The mass of the block of iron.
C The thermal conductivity of the iron.
D The final temperature.
E The mass of water.

72  At the melting point, which of the following are correct about paraffin wax? 

1. The substance becomes more disordered.  
2. The wax takes in heat but its temperature stays the same.  
3. Bonds between the carbon and hydrogen atoms are broken. 

A 1, 2 and 3
B 2 and 3 only
C 2 only
D 1 and 3 only
E 1 and 2 only

73  When cooled below 4.2 K, mercury becomes a superconductor, which means it has no electrical 
resistance. When a current is passed through mercury under these conditions, which of the 
following effects will be present? 

1. thermal  
2. chemical  
3. magnetic 

A 1 and 3 only
B 1, 2 and 3
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 only

© UCLES 2012 Page 24 / 40


74  Three identical capacitors are connected as follows: 

  
Which of the following shows the order of increasing capacitance (smallest first)? 
A 3, 2, 1
B 1, 3, 2
C 2, 1, 3
D 1, 2, 3
E 2, 3, 1

75  Which one of the following is NOT a vector? 
A velocity
B weight
C electric charge
D electric field
E acceleration

76  Which of the following is equivalent to  ?  

A
B
C
D
E

© UCLES 2012 Page 25 / 40


77 
In a group of students, exactly   are male and exactly   study mathematics. The probability that a 
male student chosen at random from the group studies mathematics is p. 
Which of the following is the range of possible values of p? 
A

78  ABCDE is a regular pentagon. The transformation R is a rotation about the origin and maps A to B, 
B to C, C to D, etc. The transformation S is a reflection in the y­axis. 

 
Which of the following sequences of transformations (performed in the order that they are listed) 
would NOT leave vertex D in the same position? 

A R R S R S R
B S R
C S R R S R S
D R S R S
E R S R R

79  The line L has equation y = 2x ­ 1.  
Four of the following five points are the same distance from the line L. Which one is at a different 
distance? 
A (1, ­1)
B (1, 3)
C (4, 9)
D (6, 9)
E (5, 13)

© UCLES 2012 Page 26 / 40


80  A man of mass 75 kg lies on a bed of 10 000 nails. The tip of each nail has an area of 1.0 square 
millimetre.  
What pressure does the man experience? 
[g = 10 N/kg] 
A 7.5 x 106 Pa
B 7.5 x 104 Pa
C 7.5 x 103 Pa
D 7.5 x 107 Pa
E 7.5 x 105 Pa

© UCLES 2012 Page 27 / 40


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IMAT 2012
Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer
1  C  41  E 
2  A  42  E 
3  B  43  A 
4  C  44  B 
5  A  45  A 
6  D  46  B 
7  E  47  A 
8  E  48  A 
9  C  49  A 
10  E  50  D 
11  E  51  A 
12  D  52  D 
13  D  53  C 
14  A  54  D 
15  D  55  B 
16  D  56  B 
17  B  57  D 
18  A  58  C 
19  D  59  D 
20  E  60  E 
21  B  61  D 
22  A  62  C 
23  D  63  E 
24  E  64  D 
25  A  65  A 
26  A  66  E 
27  D  67  E 
28  A  68  E 
29  C  69  B 
30  B  70  C 
31  B  71  C 
32  A  72  E 
33  C  73  D 
34  C  74  D 
35  E  75  C 
36  B  76  C 
37  D  77  B 
38  A  78  A 
39  B  79  E 
40  A  80  B 

© UCLES 2012 
 
 
ADMISSION TEST FOR THE DEGREE COURSE IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY 

Academic Year 2013/2014 

Thinking Skills ­ General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning  

1  A significant social trend in the 20th century was for people to move away from their place of birth in 
order to access education and work. This gave individuals more opportunities and helped the 
economy by producing mobility within the workforce. The negative side of this is now being felt as 
more and more elderly people face the problems of old age without family members nearby to care 
for them. This has negative effects on the economy as well as on the individual, as more and more 
state funding for care is needed. 

Which one of the following could be drawn as a conclusion of the above passage? 

A The benefits of a mobile workforce have to be compared with the costs to elderly people and 
the economy. 

B Elderly people are expecting the state to provide care for them rather than relying on their 
children. 

C People should try to find education and work close to their place of birth.

D The state should provide care for elderly people to make mobility of the workforce possible.

E People should make caring for their elderly parents a priority over choice of work opportunities.

© UCLES 2012 Page 1 / 40


2  Any company that wishes to sell a new drug must provide the government with details of research 
about its safety and possible side effects. At present, this information is confidential, but there are 
plans to make it available to the public. While patients are surely entitled to more information about 
the drugs they are prescribed, this will also inevitably make public vital details about the ingredients 
of certain drugs and how they are manufactured. Drug companies are naturally reluctant to release 
this information to their competitors. Therefore, through fear of imitators, drug companies will no 
longer introduce new and important drugs into the country. 

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument? 

A There are sufficient drugs already on the market and so there is no necessity to introduce new 
ones. 

B The drug industry is a very competitive business and secrecy is vital if companies are to 
survive. 

C People may be reluctant to use certain drugs when they have fuller information about them.

D People are better informed about the side effects of drugs abroad than they are in this country.

E Strong patent laws prevent companies from using the information to create rival drugs.

3  There is an increasing number of historical or significant buildings in the UK which are said to be 'At 
Risk'. Without a change in the law most of these buildings are doomed to crumble into the ground. 
This is because these buildings are no longer structurally sound. The exisiting strict renovation 
laws mean that they are too expensive or impractical for private individuals or developers to 
renovate or repair. There are certainly people out there who would be willing to maintain these 
buildings if they could use more modern and less expensive techniques and materials. Surely it is 
better to sacrifice some of the original building's character rather than lose the entire structure. 

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? 

A There is nothing wrong with changing the character of historic buildings.

B 'At Risk' buildings need to be renovated according to strict rules.

C A change in the law is needed if we hope to preserve more 'At Risk' buildings.

D Existing laws make 'At Risk' buildings too expensive for most developers.

E Historians can learn more from buildings which have not been modernised by modern 
developers. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 2 / 40


4  Many people believe that foreign travel broadens the mind and that there is some inherent benefit in 
spending some time in a culture different from your own. Many students are taking 'gap' years 
where they spend time in another country. Whilst this may offer some benefits in terms of 
confidence and independence, it is wrong to assume that foreign travel alone can provide this. 
Global travel can have negative impacts on local cultures and the environment. Home country 
based 'gap' projects are often seen as unglamourous but the benefit of working with different 
groups and cultures within our own society can be equally rewarding. 

Which one of the following is the main conclusion of the above passage?  

A Foreign gap year projects must have an element of community work for them to be worthwhile.

B Foreign travel is not the only way to gain confidence and independence.

C Projects within our own society can be as rewarding as foreign travel.

D There is inherent benefit in spending some time abroad.

E It is important that gap year students consider the impact of their travel on the communities 
they work in. 

5  After looking at interviews conducted with a number of adult learners, our research suggested that 
the learners who felt they were most successful were all highly motivated. We noticed that early 
success had heightened motivation in some cases and saw that both success and motivation may 
be due to a special aptitude for learning. We also noticed that many of those who felt they were 
most motivated were also learning in favourable conditions or for fun, which meant they may have 
become motivated since starting their classes. Though these conditions seemed persuasive, the 
results led us to the same conclusion. It's impossible to learn anything without motivation. 

Which one of the following is NOT a flaw in the above argument? 

A It assumes that those who felt they were successful actually were.

B It assumes that those who felt they were motivated actually were.

C The research does not establish that there are no successful learners who lacked motivation.

D The research is only concerned with adult learners.

E It assumes that in order to be motivated you have to have a special aptitude for learning.

© UCLES 2012 Page 3 / 40


6  In which modern day country was the Inca civilization centred?

A Chile

B Peru

C Brazil

D Ecuador

E Bolivia

7  A placebo is:

A a type of pain killer.

B a form of local anaesthetic.

C a form of mild stimulant.

D an inactive drug or treatment.

E a sedative.

8  A nationwide survey showed that the majority of people would not be willing to give up their car in 
favour of public transport. However, in a recent survey of people living in an area with heavy traffic 
problems, 76% stated that they would prefer to travel to work by public transport if the system was 
made more reliable. This shows that the previous findings were wrong. We should, therefore, 
restrict car use and start a programme of improving the nation's public transport network as soon 
as possible. 

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the argument above? 

A It fails to specify which types of public transport are to be improved.

B The counter arguments are not explained in detail.

C The statistic presented may not be representative of the whole population.

D It does not consider the 24% who would not prefer to use public transport.

E It fails to explain how the public transport system can be improved.

© UCLES 2012 Page 4 / 40


9  Which general famously crossed the Alps with his army?

A Octavius

B Hannibal

C Hamilcar

D Augustus

E Antony

10  The headquarters of the World Health Organisation (WHO) is found in which of these cities?

A Nairobi

B Washington DC

C Rome

D London

E Geneva

11  A multi­storey car park has eight levels. 

On the top seven levels there are eight rows of parking. Two of these rows hold 15 cars each whilst 
the others hold 10 cars each.  

On the road level there are two rows holding 15 cars but only four rows holding 10 cars each.  

The entry control system counts cars in and out. The system stops admitting cars once 90% of the 
total capacity is in use.  

Four spaces on the road level are reserved for staff parking and these are not available to the 
public. 

What is the maximum number of public cars which can be admitted? 

A 644

B 500

C 696

D 630

E 626

© UCLES 2012 Page 5 / 40


12  Coffee granules are available in two jar sizes, regular and large. The regular jar contains 250 grams 
and costs €4.50. The large jar is 60% bigger, containing 400 grams, but at €6.30 costs only 40% 
more than the regular jar. 

By how much per kilogram is the large jar of coffee better value for money than the regular jar? 

A €3.60

B €6.00

C €2.25

D €3.15

E €0.90

13  My watch is a twenty four hour digital watch, so that, for instance 4.17am appears as: 

  

and 4.17pm appears as: 

  

One morning recently I woke up, picked up my watch and saw: 

  

I panicked, thinking that I had overslept, until I realised I had picked up the watch upside down and it 
was only one minute past five. 

At which one of the following times would the display appear the same whichever way I picked it 
up? 

A 5.51am

B 5.51pm

C 1.01am

D 3.21pm

E 3.51pm

© UCLES 2012 Page 6 / 40


14  At a society meeting, 1000 people are entitled to vote in the elections for Chairperson with a one­
person­one­vote system. The election rules state if no candidate obtains more than 50% of the 
votes cast in the first ballot, a second ballot must be held between the top two candidates. 350 
votes were cast for a particular candidate in the first ballot. Then a second ballot took place. 

Under these circumstances which one of the following is possible? 

A The candidate won the election, came second, or came third.

B The candidate either won the election or came second.

C The candidate came second or third, but did not win.

D The candidate came third.

E The candidate definitely won the election.

© UCLES 2012 Page 7 / 40


15  The table below shows the winning time for the men's 200m run in the Olympic Games since 1900, 
when the event was first held, until 1988. 

year seconds year  seconds 


1900 22.2 1948 21.1
1904 21.6 1952 20.81
1908 22.6 1956 20.75
1912 27.1 1960 20.62
1916 * 1964 20.36
1920 22.0 1968 19.83
1924 21.6 1972 20.00
1928 21.8  1976 20.23
1932 21.2  1980 20.19
1936 20.7  1984 19.80
1940 *  1988 19.75
1944 *  ­  ­

* Olympics not held in these years. 

What is the longest number of years for which the Olympic record stood unbroken?  

A 6

B 16

C 24

D 28

E 20

© UCLES 2012 Page 8 / 40


16  Ever since Uranus was discovered, astronomers have thought there might be more planets in the 
Solar System. Because of small deviations in the orbits of Uranus and Neptune ­ deviations which 
would occur if another planet existed ­ some astronomers think there must be an undiscovered 
planet ­ Planet X. But these deviations cannot tell us whether Planet X exists, because they would 
occur if the orbits had been wrongly predicted. Since Uranus and Neptune take many decades to 
circle the sun, astronomers rely on old data to calculate their orbits. As this is likely to be 
inaccurate, the calculated orbits are probably wrong, and so Uranus and Neptune will deviate from 
them even if there is no Planet X. 

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? 

A The use of old and inaccurate data indicates that Planet X cannot exist.

B Astronomers are right to think that there must be an undiscovered planet.

C The deviations in the orbits of Uranus and Neptune cannot tell us whether Planet X exists.

D The calculations of the orbits of Uranus and Neptune are probably wrong.

E Uranus and Neptune will deviate from the predicted orbits whether or not Planet X exists.

17  According to a recent analysis of university entrance records, you are more likely to go to university 
if your name is John than if it is Wayne. Therefore, if you want your child to go to university, you are 
better off calling him John than Wayne. 

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the argument above? 

A It draws a general conclusion from specific evidence.

B It confuses a necessary condition with a sufficient one.

C It jumps to a conclusion without any evidence.

D It confuses a correlation with a cause.

E It fails to consider other names than Wayne or John.

© UCLES 2012 Page 9 / 40


18  The low level of literacy among science undergraduates is an issue across all universities. One of 
the biggest problems is that pupils in school spend more time perfecting their SMS text messaging 
and emailing skills than they do writing grammatically correct pieces of literature. It is important to 
get across to undergraduates that good writing matters. Employers take on scientists believing they 
can communicate their findings fluently and accurately. We need to deliver science graduates with 
these skills. 

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? 

A Education is failing those who leave with poor writing skills.

B Students must be helped to recognise the importance of good literacy skills.

C Many science graduates are unable to write in a grammatically correct way.

D Employment often depends on good ability in literacy.

E Students do not concentrate properly in lessons in school.

19  My packet of washing powder claims to contain enough powder for 24 washes. This claim is based 
on using the plastic scoop supplied with the packet and filling it once for each wash. 

Living in a soft water area I find I only need to fill the scoop three­quarters full. 

How many washes can I get from this packet? 

A 42

B 18

C 32

D 26

E 30

© UCLES 2012 Page 10 / 40


20  It has recently been suggested that some degrees can be completed in two years instead of the 
traditional three years. But staff teaching engineering and medicine at degree level say that the 
current first year mostly involves getting students up to a common level of maths and physics, 
which in the past was achieved by high school teaching. By the end of the second year few 
students have reached the level of attainment that students did 40 years ago. Two year degrees 
are not realistic ­ certainly not for engineering. 

Which one of the following is an assumption of the argument in the passage above? 

A Two year degree courses will have the same amount of teaching per year as three year 
courses. 

B School examinations are easier now than they were 40 years ago.

C Maths and physics are more important elements of engineering than they were 40 years ago.

D Engineering students are less motivated than they were 40 years ago.

E Two year degree courses will be more popular with students than three year courses.

21  One in four deaths caused by road accidents involving commercial vehicles is caused by the driver 
falling asleep at the wheel. The problem even affects police men and women, who are now more 
likely to die due to driving when tired than by physical attacks. Evidence at the scene (such as tyre 
marks) can tell investigators how quickly the car driver braked: late breaking would indicate lack of 
concentration which might be caused by tiredness. The problem with this evidence is that it is not 
conclusive, whereas conclusive evidence can be offered for other offences such as drink driving. 

Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion of the passage above? 

A Accidents caused by drivers falling asleep at the wheel are a greater problem than drink 
driving. 

B Commercial vehicle drivers and the police are more prone to falling asleep at the wheel 
because of the long hours they work. 

C The number of hours per day that commercial drivers should be allowed to drive should be 
reduced. 

D It will not be as easy to prosecute drivers for falling asleep at the wheel as it is for drink driving.

E It would be unfair to prosecute people for falling asleep at the wheel.

© UCLES 2012 Page 11 / 40


22  Which one of these did Galileo NOT do?

A Discover the movement of a pendulum produces a regular time measurement.

B Develop the telescope.

C Design an electric battery.

D Design a thermometer.

E Develop the microscope.

23  The pasta that I buy in the local supermarket usually costs €1.60 per packet. This week the packet 
is marked '€0.20 off normal price'. 

In addition the following sign is on display '10% off all bills when you spend €10 or more'. 

Assuming that I spend over €10 altogether, how much will the packet of pasta cost? 

A €1.26

B €1.24

C €1.30

D €1.12

E €1.18

24  A study on identical twins concluded that genes contribute roughly half of the attributes we need to 
be happy. People often find such studies scary, seeing something sinister about us being mere 
puppets of our biology. However, put in non­scientific terms, it sounds like common sense. Parents 
talk about how their children had different personality traits from a very young age. Perhaps it's 
nicer to think this is caused by something 'fluffy' like a soul ­ but even if that were true, why is that 
more reassuring than the thought that genes are responsible? Either way, you're born as you are. 

Which one of the following statements is best supported as the conclusion of the passage above? 

A Roughly half of what we need to be happy is decided by our genetic make up.

B We may as well accept the idea that our potential for happiness in life is to some extent 
decided at birth. 

C Whether or not you are happy in life is either determined by your soul or your genes.

D Whether or not you are happy in life is not something over which you yourself have any control.

E The person you are at birth is the person you will be throughout your life.

© UCLES 2012 Page 12 / 40


25  Two companies have just started a round­the­clock air taxi service between Rome and Milan. They 
use the same flight path and fly at constant speeds at different altitudes. Planes owned by the 
company Alpha­Air take off from Rome every 10 minutes and take 90 minutes to reach Milan. 
Planes owned by the company Beta­Air take off every 5 minutes and take 60 minutes to reach 
Milan. Captain Johnston, who flies for Beta­Air, takes off from Rome 5 minutes after the previous 
Alpha­Air flight has departed. 

How many Alpha­Air planes (flying from Rome to Milan) will Captain Johnston have passed as he 
lands in Milan? 

A 0

B 3

C 2

D 1

E 4

26  Stephen is currently involved in a long distance charity walk from Alphcaster to Omegham. He left 
Alphcaster 9 days ago and has just completed 60% of his journey. 

He hopes to complete 60% of the rest of the walk during the next 4 days. This will leave him just 60 
miles from Omegham, which he aims to complete in a further 2 days. 

How far is it from Alphcaster to Omegham?  

A 375 miles

B 250 miles

C 300 miles

D 225 miles

E 450 miles

© UCLES 2012 Page 13 / 40


27  A safe has external dimensions as follows: 

Width  48cm 
Depth  44cm 
Height 52cm 

The entire safe is made of steel 4cm thick except the base which is 8cm thick. 

What are the internal dimensions of the base of the safe? 

A 40cm x 40cm

B 36cm x 36cm

C 40cm x 32cm

D 44cm x 40cm

E 40cm x 36cm

28  A novelty shop sells a rather unusual clock designed to puzzle users. There is only one hand, 
which points upwards. It has two faces. The larger hour face rotates clockwise and the smaller 
minute face rotates anticlockwise. Each face has one big dot, representing 12 o' clock or 0/60 
minutes and 11 smaller marks counting one hour or five minute divisions. There are no numbers. 

  

What time is it when the clock looks as shown in the diagram? 

A 9:20

B 3:20

C 8:40

D 3:40

E 8:20

© UCLES 2012 Page 14 / 40


29  The table below shows the consumer price inflation and unemployment rate for 5 countries: 

Consumer price inflation % rate  March  February 


United States +0.4 +0.3
Japan +0.2 +0.5
Germany +0.1 +0.1
France +0.3 0.0
UK +0.2 +0.5
Unemployed % rate  March  February 
United States 5.9 6.1
Japan 3.0 3.0
Germany 9.2 9.3
France 12.6 12.6
UK 9.1 9.2

A newspaper comparing March to February reported that: 

'Unemployment has fallen but there has been a rise in the inflation rate' 

Which country is the statement referring to? 

A Japan

B UK

C France

D United States

E Germany

© UCLES 2012 Page 15 / 40


30  Horrific images of the earthquake in Haiti were seen immediately all over the world, and by the next 
day the full extent of the damage was seen by the entire world. Clearly, the main problem was 
moving aid from the airport to distant areas, and with the roads largely blocked the only practical 
method was to use helicopters. The great nations of the world should be ashamed that food was 
not getting to the people who needed it, and that even a week later their relief still depended on the 
ability of courageous and skillful drivers to reach them in trucks. 

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the argument above? 

A The relief agencies were able to import trucks to Haiti but not helicopters.

B The great nations of the world had helicopters at their disposal which could reach Haiti within a 
week. 

C There was enough food in Haiti to supply all the people in the weeks after the earthquake.

D The images failed to prompt the great nations of the world into relief operations after the 
earthquake. 

E The people of Haiti were able to clear their roads within a week of the earthquake.

© UCLES 2012 Page 16 / 40


Biology  

31  The direct product of transcription of recombinant DNA can be:  

A insulin.

B monoclonal antibodies.

C mRNA.

D the primary structure of a protein.

E a replicate DNA molecule.

32  Which one of the following is found below the diaphragm in a human?  

A Heart

B Pulmonary vein

C Liver

D Pulmonary artery

E Alveoli

33  Which one of the following does not contain amino acids?  

A Cell membranes

B Amylose

C Viruses

D Enzymes

E Antibodies

© UCLES 2012 Page 17 / 40


34  Which statement about ribosomes is NOT correct? 

A Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.

B Ribosomes can be found in the cytoplasm.

C Ribosomes can be found on rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).

D Ribosomes can have RNA associated with them.

E Ribsosomes can carry out transcription.

35  The diagram below shows a phospholipid.

  

When this molecule is broken into a phosphate, glycerol and two fatty acids, the number of water 
molecules released is:  

A 2

B 3

C 0

D 1

E more than 3

© UCLES 2012 Page 18 / 40


36  A section of one strand of DNA has a base sequence of:

ACG­GCT­GGT­TCC 

Which of the following are correct? 

1. The other DNA strand would include a CGA triplet.  
2. If adenine always binds with 2 H bonds to its complementary base and guanine with 3 H 
bonds, then each of these triplets will have a total of 8 H bonds.  
3. The mRNA sequence transcribed from this DNA sequence would contain 3 uracil bases.  

A 1 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 3 only

D 2 only

E 1 and 2 only

37  The family pedigree shows that boy C has a genetic condition. No other member of the family 
shows the same genetic condition.

  

Which one of the following could NOT explain why boy C has the condition? 

A Sex­linked dominant condition

B Sex­linked recessive condition

C Both parents are carriers

D Autosomal recessive condition

E Mutation

© UCLES 2012 Page 19 / 40


38  Which one of the following is not involved in defending the body against infection?  

A Antibodies

B T cell

C Beta cell

D B cell

E Phagocyte

39  In which of the following stages of mammalian respiration is CO2 released?

1. Glycolysis  
2. Anaerobic respiration  
3. Krebs cycle  

A 3 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 1 only

D 2 and 3 only

E 2 only

40  A sample of DNA contains 32 % guanine.

Which answer shows the percentage of thymine in the same sample?  

A 32

B 18

C 23

D 34

E 24

© UCLES 2012 Page 20 / 40


41  Which of the following comes immediately after anaphase in mitosis?  

A Telophase

B Interphase

C Prophase

D Metaphase

E Cytokinesis

42  The increase in the frequency of one phenotype in a wild population of fish could be due to:

1. an advantageous mutation.  
2. increased reproductive success of individuals with that phenotype.  
3. a change in the environment.  

A 3 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 1, 2 and 3

D 2 and 3 only

E 1 only

43  Which one of the following molecules is made in both photosynthesis and respiration?  

A Glucose

B Reduced NADP

C Carbon dioxide

D ATP

E Oxygen

© UCLES 2012 Page 21 / 40


44  A liver cell in the metaphase of mitosis can be identified as being eukaryotic because it has:

1. mitochondria  
2. ribosomes  
3. a nucleus  

A 1 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1 and 2 only

E 1, 2 and 3

© UCLES 2012 Page 22 / 40


Chemistry  

45  Which name of the following phase changes is NOT correct?

A Solid to liquid = Melting

B Gas to solid = Freezing

C Solid to gas = Sublimation

D Liquid to gas = Evaporation

E Gas to liquid = Condensation

46  The compound (CH3)2CHCH2NH2 can be synthesised by the following route. 

  

What types of reaction are used in stages 1, 2 and 3?  

A 1=substitution; 2=addition; 3=reduction

B 1=substitution; 2=addition; 3=hydrolysis

C 1=addition; 2=substitution; 3=reduction

D 1=addition; 2=addition; 3=reduction

E 1=addition; 2=substitution; 3=hydrolysis

© UCLES 2012 Page 23 / 40


47  Which of the following must be correct about organic isomers?

1. They have the same molecular formulae.  
2. Their physical properties are very similar.  
3. They have different structural formulae.  

A 1 and 2 only

B 1, 2 and 3

C 2 and 3 only

D 1 only

E 1 and 3 only

48  Which of the following are correct about carbon to carbon bonds?

1. The length of carbon to carbon bonds increases in the order C≡C, C=C, C­C.  
2. The strength of the C=C bond is less than twice the strength of the C­C bond.  
3. The carbon atoms are joined by six electrons in the C≡C bond.  

A 2 and 3 only

B 1 and 3 only

C 1, 2 and 3

D 1 and 2 only

E 3 only

© UCLES 2012 Page 24 / 40


49  The positions of the main group elements in the Periodic Table are shown below: 

  

Which one of the following formulae is NOT correct? 

A GaCO3

B CsNO3

C BeSO4

D SnS2

E Ba(HCO3)2

50  The following are some compounds of nitrogen: 
 
NOCl, KNO2, NO2, NO2Cl, Ca(NO3)2 

What oxidation numbers are shown by nitrogen in these compounds?  

A 3, 4, 5, 6

B 2, 3, 4, 5

C 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

D 4, 5, 6

E 3, 4, 5

© UCLES 2012 Page 25 / 40


51  What value does c need to be so that the following equation can be balanced?
 
4KMnO4 + aH2SO4 + 5C2H5OH → 4MnSO4 + bK2SO4 + 5CH3CO2H + cH2O

A 21

B 11

C 16

D 17

E 26

52  How many atoms of hydrogen are there in 3.0kg of ethane?
 
[relative atomic mass: H=1, C=12; Avogadro constant = 6.0 × 1023 per mol] 

A 3.6 × 1026

B 3.9 × 1026

C 6.0 × 1025

D 3.6 × 1023

E 6.0 × 1022

© UCLES 2012 Page 26 / 40


Physics and Mathematics  

53  A mass is connected to a spring and it vibrates up and down, forming a simple harmonic system. 

Which of the following are correct?  

1. The kinetic energy of the mass is at a maximum half way up.  
2. The potential energy of the system is at a maximum at the top of the mass's motion.  
3. The potential energy of the system is at a maximum at the bottom of the mass's motion.

A 1, 2 and 3

B 1 and 2 only

C 2 only

D 3 only

E 1 only

54  A uniform beam, 3.0m long, of weight 100N has a 300N weight placed 0.50m from one end. The 
beam is suspended by a string 1.0m from the same end.

A diagram of the weights placed on the beam is given below: 

  

How far from the other end must a weight of 80N be placed for the beam to be balanced?  

A 0.75m

B 2.25m

C 1.25m

D 1.875m

E 0.125m

© UCLES 2012 Page 27 / 40


55  In an AC (alternating current) generator, a coil of wire rotates in a magnetic field. 

  

Which of the following would change the potential difference measured by the voltmeter in the 
system above? 

1. Use more turns of wire in the coil  
2. User thicker wire  
3. Change the speed of rotation  

A 3 only

B 1, 2 and 3

C 1 and 2 only

D 2 only

E 1 and 3 only

56  Which of the following is the equation of the circle with centre (­1.5, 0.5) and radius 3?  

© UCLES 2012 Page 28 / 40


57  In the expressions below: g = gravitational acceleration; h = height; m = mass; 
R = electrical resistance; t = time; v = velocity; V = voltage. 

Which of the following expressions have units of power?  

1.   

2.   

3.   

A 1 and 2 only

B 1 only

C 2 and 3 only

D 1 and 3 only

E 1, 2 and 3

58  Simplify

  

© UCLES 2012 Page 29 / 40


59  What is the set of values for which 12 ­ x 2 > 8 and 2x + 3 ≥ 5? 

A 1 ≤ x

B 1 < x ≤ 2

C 1 ≤ x < 2

D 2 < x

E ­1 ≤ x < 2

60  The diagram shows a quarter of a circle surrounded by an isosceles triangle. 

The radius of the circle is r. 

  

Which one of the following expressions represents the unshaded area?  

© UCLES 2012 Page 30 / 40


© UCLES 2012 Page 31 / 40
© UCLES 2012 Page 32 / 40
© UCLES 2012 Page 33 / 40
© UCLES 2012 Page 34 / 40
© UCLES 2012 Page 35 / 40
© UCLES 2012 Page 36 / 40
© UCLES 2012 Page 37 / 40
© UCLES 2012 Page 38 / 40
© UCLES 2012 Page 39 / 40
© UCLES 2012 Page 40 / 40
 

IMAT 2013
Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer
1  A  31  C 
2  E  32  C 
3  C  33  B 
4  C  34  E 
5  E  35  C 
6  B  36  E 
7  D  37  A 
8  C  38  C 
9  B  39  A 
10  E  40  B 
11  E  41  A 
12  C  42  C 
13  E  43  D 
14  B  44  A 
15  D  45  B 
16  C  46  C 
17  D  47  E 
18  B  48  C 
19  C  49  A 
20  A  50  E 
21  D  51  B 
22  C  52  A 
23  A  53  A 
24  B  54  A 
25  B  55  E 
26  A  56  D 
27  E  57  E 
28  C  58  D 
29  D  59  C 
30  B  60  A 

© UCLES 2013 
 

ADMISSION TEST FOR THE DEGREE COURSE IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY 

Academic Year 2014/2015 

General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning 

1 Over 30 years ago, the smallpox virus was eradicated (removed) from the natural environment, 
but examples of it are still preserved in two laboratories. It is planned, however, to destroy these 
remaining viruses. Given that this will be the first example of a deliberate destruction of an entire 
species, we should think again before destroying these viruses. Years ago we thought we had 
the right to kill as many creatures as we liked, but now we realise we have no such right. 
Furthermore, we cannot know the future; we cannot justify destroying something that could be 
of enormous value to us one day, valuable in ways we cannot even think of now. And anyway, 
what possible harm can captive viruses do to us? 
 
Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? 

A We cannot justify destroying something which may one day be valuable to us. 

B Captive smallpox viruses are not going to harm us. 

C The deliberate destruction of an entire species should never be allowed. 

D The planned destruction of the smallpox virus should be given more thought. 

E We do not have the right to destroy the smallpox virus. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 1 / 48


2 One of the foolish but persisting fantasies of the Olympic movement is that the Games are, or 
were, or will be, or even ought to be, completely free of politics. It is difficult to understand how 
this foolish belief continues, but the facts are these: the nations lining up to host the games are 
motivated not by unattainable ideals but by a legitimate desire to promote the excellence of their 
citizens; and the nations who have boycotted the games in the past have done so to make 
genuine political points. 
 
Which one of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the above passage? 

A Although everyone knows the Olympics are caught up in politics, no one is brave enough 
to admit it. 

B National interests are ruining the Olympics. 

C Just because the Olympic games have been politicised, it doesn't mean that they should 
be. 

D If some countries use the Olympic movement to further their own ends, they are guilty 
only of exposing a myth. 

E We should do everything possible to ensure that the Olympics do not become further 
politicised. 

3 The purpose of an election is to decide what policies are supported by the people. However, in 
elections the concept of 'tactical voting' is becoming increasingly common. The argument is a 
simple one: 
 
Party X will never be beaten by party Y but party Z could win with a few extra votes. Therefore, 
you should transfer your vote from party Y to party Z to make sure that party X is beaten. 
 
This reasoning is perfectly sound if your main objective is to vote a party out. Unfortunately, if 
you support party Y then there is no guarantee that party Z will support the same principles. 
 
Which one of the following is the conclusion that could best be drawn from the above passage? 

A Elections are often thought of in terms of voting for or against the party in office, rather 
than as voting for your preferred party. 

B Tactical voting is an important part of the electoral process. 

C Tactical voting will not achieve the purpose of an election. 

D It is important that party X does not win the election. 

E Party X policies are not popular. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 2 / 48


4 When driving, if the car in front of you brakes suddenly, you need to be able to stop without 
crashing into it. The easiest rule­of­thumb is the two second rule. You choose a reference point 
that the vehicle in front of you is passing then say aloud: 'Only a fool breaks the two second 
rule'. If you reach the reference point before you have finished the saying you need to pull back. 
This works at all speeds. However, when there are adverse road conditions or the road is 
narrow you need to double your braking distance. These practices will enable you to avoid such 
crashes. 
 
Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the argument above? 

A Adopting the 'two second rule' will avoid all accidents. 

B Most crashes are caused by cars running into the car in front. 

C Those who do not use the rule do not value road safety. 

D Some drivers brake more suddenly than others. 

E It will not take less than two seconds to repeat the saying. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 3 / 48


5 The net shown can be folded to make a tetrahedron with each of the shapes showing on the 
outside.  
 

 
 
Which one of the following nets can be folded to make a tetrahedron identical to the one shown 
above? 
 
A B

       
C D

       
E

   

© UCLES 2012 Page 4 / 48


6 Research reveals that, in a given period of the 20th century, top footballers (defined as those 
who had played for their country's team) lived, on average, almost 5 years longer than middle 
ranking footballers. We can conclude therefore that for the top footballers, success had a 
beneficial effect on their lifespan. 
 
Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the argument above? 

A Life expectancy increased generally in the 20th century. 

B It assumes that the longer lifespan could not be explained by other factors. 

C Living longer is not necessarily a good thing. 

D Playing football regularly may have health benefits which contribute to longer lifespan. 

E The study was limited to footballers in a given period of time. 

7 15 runners took part in this year's Marathon of Marathons (eight marathon races on consecutive 
days). Points were awarded to the first seven to finish in each race, as follows: 
 
Winner  11 points
Second   8 points 
Third   6 points
Fourth   4 points 
Fifth   3 points 
Sixth   2 points 
Seventh        1 point 
 
All 15 runners finished in the first three at least once, but only Philip, who was the overall winner 
with a total of 61 points, finished in the first three every time. 
 
How many of the eight races did Philip win? 

A 2 

B 3 

C 5 

D 4 

E 1 

© UCLES 2012 Page 5 / 48


8 Despite much opposition to the idea, modern musical trends such as hip­hop have a place in 
the world of opera. Traditional opera is a powerful musical experience. However, modern 
musicians should not necessarily stick with the traditional form. Modern musical forms which 
fuse staged drama, singing and contemporary or ethnic trends in music are also powerful 
musical experiences. Glydebourne’s youth operas 'Misper' and 'Zoe', and its Mozart hiphopera, 
'School 4 Lovers', enjoyed critical and box office success and attracted hip­hop audiences. 
Moving away from the snobbery of tradition gives a much wider audience access to 
transformative musical experience. 
 
Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the passage? 

A Creating new operatic performances allows more people to access this exciting art form. 

B Contemporary music forms have a place in performances of opera. 

C Musicians are entitled to fuse new forms and old to create exciting musical experiences. 

D Hip­hop is as powerful and dramatic as opera. 

E Contemporary music has a place in the musical world in addition to traditional operatic 
performances. 

9 Sally owns a small business which produces hand­crafted jewellery. The materials used to 
create a necklace cost €1.50 on average. She pays her staff €5.40 an hour. For a standard 
piece of jewellery she charges 70% more than it costs to produce. 
 
To make a particular Italian­style glass necklace it takes 30 minutes. How much does she sell 
this single necklace for? 

A €11.73 

B €2.94 

C €7.14 

D €11.34 

E €5.40 

© UCLES 2012 Page 6 / 48


10 There is concern at the moment about the way in which football referees are treated by players 
during games. The Football Association and the Referees' Association feel that there is too 
much verbal (and physical) abuse directed at referees. Various solutions have been suggested 
such as only allowing the captain of each team to approach and talk to the referee. The major 
difficulty is how such new rules should be introduced. The preferred suggestion seems to be 
that the rules should be changed first in the amateur game, the aim being to improve discipline 
in the game from the bottom upwards, until the whole game is improved. 
 
Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?  

A By introducing it first to amateur players, it reaches those who spend the least time 
playing football. 

B Not many professional players start out in the amateur leagues. 

C Amateur players are more likely to abuse referees than are professionals. 

D Referees should use their existing powers to control abusive players. 

E Referees in the amateur game are less proficient than those in the professional games. 

11 Tessa makes bracelets. She works five days each week, from Monday to Friday. Her contract 
requires her to make a minimum of 150 bracelets every working day, for which she is paid a 
basic wage of $320 per week. She can also earn a bonus of $3 per bracelet for every one above 
175 that she makes on any particular day.  
 
Last week, Tessa earned $515 in total. On Friday she made 205 bracelets, the most she has 
ever made in one day. 
 
What is the minimum number of bracelets that Tessa made last week? 

A 940 

B 805 

C 890 

D 865 

E 815 

© UCLES 2012 Page 7 / 48


12 A golf tournament is played over 10 rounds, on successive Saturdays. The winner of each 
round scores 3 points and the player finishing second scores 1 point. The tournament is won by 
the competitor with the most points over the 10 rounds. 

Alan Vinci, Barry Durand, Carl Johansson and Daniel and Eric Lim were the participants in this 
year's tournament. All five won at least one round, but either Barry, Daniel or Eric finished 
second on each occasion. The 1­2 finishing order was different every round, and the Lim 
brothers didn't both score points in the same round at any time.

Who won this year's tournament?

A Eric Lim 

B Daniel Lim 

C Barry Durand 

D Carl Johansson 

E Alan Vinci 

13 In many countries shocking images of the damage smoking can do to the body are displayed on 
cigarette packets. Images of rotting teeth, mouth tumours and cancerous lungs are among the 
grim pictures. A review concluded that shocking pictures of the damage smoking can do are a 
cost effective way to help smokers to quit and discourage others from starting. All countries 
should introduce these kinds of images to discourage smoking. 
 
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument? 

A Pictures that arouse emotions are especially effective. 

B Smokers are likely to die younger than non­smokers. 

C The USA is planning to display shocking images on cigarette packets. 

D Governments receive a significant amount of revenue from taxes on tobacco products. 

E In countries using the images there are high taxes on tobacco and a ban on advertising. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 8 / 48


14 Last month Karl walked from Starton to Endham, raising money for charity. His target, 
successfully achieved, was to complete the walk in ten days. 

He started later than intended and had only completed 12 km by the end of the first day. 
However, he walked 45 km on each of the second, third and fourth days, and after the fifth day 
he was exactly half way. Poor weather on the sixth day restricted his progress, but 41 km on 
both the seventh and eighth days meant that he had completed exactly three­quarters of the 
walk with two days left. On the ninth day he covered three­fifths of the remaining distance, 
completing the last 36 km on the tenth day.

How far did Karl walk from Starton to Endham?

A 360 km 

B 240 km 

C 328 km 

D 384 km 

E 294 km 

15 The owner of a hotel needs to decorate 20 rooms. He has found prices for four different types of 
interior wood paint and calculated the volume of paint he needs for each room. He will use the 
same type of paint for all the rooms. 
 
Type of paint  375 ml  750 ml  1.25 l  2.5 l  Volume needed per room 
Non Drip Gloss  €4.50  €8.00  €10.00  €16.00  1.4 litres
Satinwood  €5.00  €8.00  €11.00  €20.00  1.1 litres
Quick Dry Gloss  N/A  €10.00  N/A  €20.00  1.0 litres
Once Gloss  €4.50  €8.00  €12.00  €18.00  0.8 litres
 
What is the least amount he needs to spend on paint? 

A €116 

B €120 

C €126 

D €112 

E €108 

© UCLES 2012 Page 9 / 48


16 There is a special offer on jars of coffee this week. Customers who buy two jars at the normal 
price have the option to buy up to four more jars at one quarter of the normal price. 
 
For customers buying coffee this week, which of these bar graphs shows how the average cost 
per jar (as a percentage of the normal cost) varies with the number of jars bought? 
 
A B

       
C D

       
E

   

© UCLES 2012 Page 10 / 48


17 The diagram below shows the layout of a game playing board with the square board numbered 
as indicated. The numbers on the board start with 1 on the bottom left and finish with 25 at the 
top right. 
 

  
 
A larger, square playing board is numbered in a similar way and divided into pieces which fit 
together to make the whole board. One piece of this larger board is shown below:  
 

  
 
How many squares are there on this larger board? 

A 49 

B 81 

C 25 

D 121 

E 64 

© UCLES 2012 Page 11 / 48


18 Smoking cigarettes causes a speeding up in the rate of blood flow, which in turn increases the 
risk of heart disease. It was thought that this speeding up of blood flow was caused solely by the 
gas carbon monoxide, which is absorbed during smoking, and not by nicotine, which is also 
absorbed from the smoke in the lungs. However, tests have shown that using nicotine patches 
(from which nicotine is absorbed through the skin) or chewing nicotine gum also causes the 
rate of blood flow to increase. This shows that the nicotine in cigarettes is also responsible for 
the increased risk of heart disease among smokers. 
 
Which one of the following is not an assumption of the argument in the passage above? 

A Any differences between the amount of nicotine absorbed from smoking and the amount 
absorbed from nicotine patches and chewing gum can be disregarded. 

B Carbon monoxide is not absorbed from nicotine patches and nicotine chewing gum. 

C Carbon monoxide would not produce a rise in the rate of blood flow in the absence of 
nicotine. 

D The effect of nicotine on the body does not depend on the way in which it was absorbed. 

E There is nothing else in nicotine patches and chewing gum which might cause an 
increase in the rate of blood flow. 

19 We constantly split our attention between the people we are with and what's happening on our 
mobile phone screens. On­screen multi­tasking makes us less efficient as well as less 
emotionally engaged with others. It takes 64 seconds to recover our train of thought after 
interruption by a message (that's 8.5 hours a week wasted if we check our screens every five 
minutes) and when we've sent an email or SMS text message, the brain goes through a series 
of semi­conscious calculations as we wonder when and how the recipient will reply. The result 
is that we're not 'present' for several minutes afterwards. In order to function effectively in the 
workplace, we need to switch off our communication hardware. 
 
Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?  

A People may be unwilling to make less use of their mobile phones. 

B We may need to have some 'down time' in order to recharge our mental batteries. 

C In many work environments you may not be allowed to use personal mobile phones. 

D Without the means to send and receive information instantly, our effectiveness may be 
compromised. 

E It may only be the younger workers who use mobile phone technology to excess. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 12 / 48


20 The diagram below is a plan of the raised flower beds and a chair in my garden. 
 

 
 
Which one of the following can not be a view of the raised beds from my chair? 
 
A B

       
C D

       
E

   

© UCLES 2012 Page 13 / 48


21 During a recent storm the plastic company logo fell off the outside of the office building of 
Fleesam Ltd. and broke cleanly into the two pieces shown below: 
 

  
 
A junior clerk took the two pieces to a signmaker to show what had happened, and asked him to 
make a new logo. Unfortunately after the clerk had left, the signmaker realised that he didn't 
know how the two pieces had fitted together originally. 
 
Which one of the following could not be Fleesam's logo? 
 
A B

       
C D

       
E

   

© UCLES 2012 Page 14 / 48


22 If for a number of hours each day you're having experiences on the computer where there are 
no consequences, that may have an implication for antisocial behaviour. In real life you can't 
undo something; you can't bring someone back to life once you've stabbed them. On a 
computer you can play the game again. It may be that for people who spend most of their time 
playing computer games involving killing others, real bleeding to death has no meaning. Studies 
of brain activity show that there is less pre­frontal cortex activity in the brains of screen­
obsessed teenagers than in the brains of those who spend little time on computer games. The 
pre­frontal cortex area of the brain is where we process ideas of sequence, consequences and 
empathy. 
 
Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion of the passage above? 

A Brain structure is altered by environmental factors. 

B People who spend a lot of time playing computer games are the main culprits in knife 
crime. 

C There may be a link between use of computer games and violence. 

D Young people cannot distinguish the difference between fantasy and reality. 

E Computer games should not be available for children under 18 years of age. 

23 If the media give publicity to certain types of crime, it may encourage criminals to carry out 'copy 
cat' offences. If, however, they were forbidden to divulge details of crimes, this would amount to 
censorship. The freedom of speech of the media is too important to sacrifice, so the media 
should be free to report crime even if this means some crimes are committed which would not 
otherwise be committed. 
 
Which one of the following expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? 

A Publicity about crimes can encourage others to commit similar offences. 

B Censorship of the media would reduce the crime rate. 

C The media should be permitted to report crimes even if other crimes sometimes result 
from this reporting. 

D The media should not report all the details of a crime. 

E Freedom of speech is a right that is too important to give up. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 15 / 48


24 William Harvey, who wrote the book commonly referred to as ‘De Motu Cordis’ is famous for his 
description: 

A of the interaction between antigens and antibodies. 

B of how blood plasma carries heat and urea as well as carbon dioxide. 

C of the different forms of blood cells and platelets. 

D of the circulation of the blood. 

E of how anaemia can be caused by a lack of iron. 

25 What does the letter P stand for in the international organisation OPEC? 

A Physics 

B Philosophy 

C Petroleum 

D Piracy 

E Plastics 

26 The artists Claude Monet and Pierre­Auguste Renoir were associated with which art 
movement? 

A Impressionism 

B Fauvism 

C Abstract expressionism 

D Pointillism 

E Cubism 

© UCLES 2012 Page 16 / 48


27 Which popular website was founded in 2004 by Mark Zuckerberg? 

A Twitter 

B Facebook 

C eBay 

D YouTube 

E Wikipedia 

© UCLES 2012 Page 17 / 48


Biology 

28   hich one of the following names the structure, in humans, that directly detects a change in 
W
blood glucose level and then the structure that responds to the change? 

A Pituitary gland and liver 

B Pancreas and pancreas 

C Hypothalamus and pituitary gland 

D Adrenal gland and pancreas 

E Liver and adrenal gland 

29 Which one of the following statements about both asexual and sexual reproduction is correct? 

A Only the gametes (and not body cells) undergo meiosis in sexual reproduction compared 
with both cell types in sexual reproduction. 

B Mitosis leads to sperm formation in asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction. 

C Mutations only occur in sexual reproduction and not in asexual reproduction. 

D Some organisms can carry out both asexual and sexual reproduction. 

E Variation is only required for sexual reproduction and not for asexual reproduction. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 18 / 48


30 The diagram below shows the inheritance of a non­lethal recessive sex­linked condition. 
 

 
 
Which row in the table below does not correctly state the probability for each person 
possessing one copy of the allele for the condition? 
 

Person Maximum 
probability (%)

1 50

2 0

3 50

4 0

5 100

A Person 2 

B Person 5 

C Person 4 

D Person 1 

E Person 3 

© UCLES 2012 Page 19 / 48


31 The diagram shows a sequence of bases on a DNA template: 
 
CAC    GTT    CGC    ATA    GAC 
 
Which one of the following shows the sequence of bases on the complementary mRNA strand 
with one substitution mutation? 

A CUC    GTT    CGC    UTT    GUC 

B GTG    CAA    GGG    TAT    CTG 

C GUG    CAA    CCG    UAU    CUG 

D GUG    CAA    GCG    UAU    GUC 

E GTG    CAA    GCG    TAT    CTG 

32 In cells of winter wheat (Triticum aestivum), the fluidity of the cell membrane can be varied by 
the plant, depending upon the environmental temperature.  
 
As the weather becomes colder, the cell membrane changes to maintain its fluidity. 
 
Which type of bond would be more common in cell membranes of winter wheat plant cells as 
their growing conditions become colder? 

A C­N 

B C=C 

C C­H 

D C­O 

E C­C 

© UCLES 2012 Page 20 / 48


33 Which of the following molecules are associated with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus 
(HIV)? 
 
1.   DNA 
2.   RNA 
3.   Phospholipids 
4.   Reverse transcriptase  

A 1 and 2 only 

B 2 and 3 only 

C 1, 2 and 4 only 

D 1, 2, 3 and 4 

E 2, 3 and 4 only 

34 The transmission of nerve impulses at a synapse is unidirectional.

Which of the features of the transmission of nerve impulses given below have a role in 
maintaining the unidirectional transmission? 
 
1. Exocytosis of neurotransmitter at the presynaptic membrane 
2. Neurotransmitter hydrolysing enzyme found on the post­synaptic membrane 
3. Neurotransmitter receptors found on the post­synaptic membrane 
4. Sodium gated channels on the post­synaptic membrane

A 2 and 4 only 

B 1, 2 and 3 only 

C 1, 3 and 4 only 

D 1 and 4 only 

E 1, 2 and 4 only 

© UCLES 2012 Page 21 / 48


35 Which of the following can produce vesicles? 
 
1.   RER 
2.   Golgi 
3.   Cell surface membrane 

A 1, 2 and 3 

B 1 and 3 only 

C 2 only 

D 2 and 3 only 

E 1 and 2 only 

36 A circular bacterial plasmid consists of 1000 base pairs (bp). A specific restriction enzyme has 
three recognition sites within this plasmid. The sites are at 150 bp, 250 bp and 950 bp. After 
complete restriction, what size are the fragments? 

A 100 bp, 200 bp and 700 bp only 

B 100 bp, 150 bp, 200 bp only 

C 50 bp, 100 bp, 150 bp and 700 bp only 

D 50 bp, 100 bp and 700 bp only 

E 50 bp, 100 bp, 150 bp, 200 bp and 700 bp 

© UCLES 2012 Page 22 / 48


37 The diagram below shows a pair of homologous chromosomes and the site of crossing over. 
 
 

 
 
Which answer in the table is correct when meiosis is complete?  
 

  Number of recombinant daughter  Number of daughter chromosomes that are 
chromosomes produced genetically distinct from each other

Row 1 1 2

Row 2 2 1

Row 3 4 2

Row 4 2 4

Row 5 4 4

A Row 2 

B Row 3 

C Row 5 

D Row 1 

E Row 4 

© UCLES 2012 Page 23 / 48


38 One set of semi­lunar valves in the human heart closes when: 

A the blood pressure in the aorta is greater than in the vena cava. 

B the oxygen level in blood decreases at the respiring tissues. 

C the blood pressure in the right ventricle is less than in the pulmonary artery. 

D the blood pressure is greater in the left ventricle than in the aorta. 

E another set of semi­lunar valves opens. 

39 The diagram shows a section of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). 
 

 
 
Which answer correctly identifies the substances associated with structures 1 and 2?  

A 1: amino acids;  2: tRNA 

B 1: tRNA;  2: polypeptide 

C 1: proteins;  2: DNA 

D 1: DNA;  2: carbohydrate 

E 1: phospholipids;  2: mRNA  

© UCLES 2012 Page 24 / 48


40 Two disease­free cells, P and Q, were studied. Which option correctly identifies cell P as a 
typical plant cell and cell Q as a typical prokaryote?

  Cell P  Cell Q 

Row 1  Gene for RuBisCo is present  Susceptible to penicillin 

Row 2  Plasmids present  Centrioles found as a pair 

Row 3  Outermost layer is selectively permeable  SER present 

Row 4  Glycogen can be present  Cell wall is present 

Row 5  Organelle with grana present  Nucleolus may be present 

  

A Row 1 

B Row 2 

C Row 5 

D Row 4 

E Row 3 

© UCLES 2012 Page 25 / 48


41 Which curves show the results of calculating the initial rate of reaction of an enzyme: 

1. when the substrate concentration is varied, under optimal conditions and without an 
inhibitor; 
2. when the substrate concentration is varied, under optimal conditions and fixed, low 
concentration of a competitive inhibitor? 

  
 

A (1) curve P; (2) curve S 

B (1) curve R; (2) curve P 

C (1) curve Q; (2) curve R 

D (1) curve P; (2) curve Q 

E (1) curve R; (2) curve S 

© UCLES 2012 Page 26 / 48


42 The diagram shows the respiration process in the cytoplasm of a yeast cell or an animal cell 
when O2 is limiting: 
 

 
 
Which option correctly identifies substances X, Y and Z? 

A X = pyruvate; Y = ethanol; Z = lactate 

B X = pyruvate; Y = lactate; Z = ethanol 

C X = lactate; Y = ethanol; Z = pyruvate 

D X = ethanol; Y = pyruvate; Z = lactate 

E X = lactate; Y = pyruvate; Z = ethanol  

© UCLES 2012 Page 27 / 48


Chemistry
 
 
 
 
43 What is the pH of 0.1 M HCl?
 
pH = - log10 [ H+ ]
 
 
A -0.1
 
B -1
 
C 0
 
D 0.1
 
E 1
 
 
 
 
44 Excess lead (II) nitrate solution is added to 1.30 g of zinc powder and the mixture is stirred.
When the reaction is finished the lead formed is filtered, dried and weighed. It has a mass of
3.31 g.
 
What is the percentage yield of the lead?

[Ar: Pb = 207; Zn = 65]


 
A 60%
   

B 70%
   

C 100%
   

D 90%
   

E 80%
 
 
 
45 A battery has lead plates dipped in sulfuric acid. When charged, the positive plate is covered
with PbO2 . After discharge both plates are covered with PbSO4 .
 
 
Which option below correctly describes the overall change in the oxidation number of the lead
involved in the chemical reaction during discharge?
 
 
A Positive plate: 4 → 2; Negative plate: 2 → 0
 
B Positive plate: 4 → 2; Negative plate: 0 → 2
 
C Positive plate: 4 → 0; Negative plate: 0 → 2
 
D Positive plate: 4 → 1; Negative plate: 0 → 1
 
E Positive plate: 4 → 1; Negative plate: 1 → 0
 
 
 
© UCLES 2012 Page 28 / 48
46 The following are some compounds that can be made from ethene, C2H4: 

C2H6,   C2H5Br,   C2H5OH,   CH2BrCH2Br,   ­(CH2CH2)n­ 

Which one of the compounds is made by oxidising ethene? 

A ­(CH2CH2)n­ 

B C2H5Br 

C C2H5OH 

D CH2BrCH2Br 

E C2H6 

47 A student carried out an experiment to find the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into 
water and oxygen gas. The student used 100 cm3 of a 1M solution of hydrogen peroxide at 25°C 
and 1 atm pressure. 
 
1 g of powdered MnO2 as a catalyst was added and the solution was constantly stirred. The 
student measured the total volume of oxygen produced. 
 
The procedure was repeated, but this time using 100 cm3 of 2M hydrogen peroxide, under 
identical conditions. 
 
Which option below shows the effect on (R) the rate of reaction, (V) the total volume of oxygen 
collected, by using the 2M solution compared to the 1M solution? 

A  R: Doubled;  V: Halved 

B  R: No effect;  V: Doubled 

C  R: No effect;  V: No effect 

D  R: Doubled;  V: Doubled 

E  R: Doubled;  V: No effect 

© UCLES 2012 Page 29 / 48


48 The atomic numbers of five atoms are given below. 
 
Which atom would have an electronic configuration ending in a p5? 

A 7 

B 9 

C 5 

D 8 

E 6 

49 The relative molecular mass of calcium carbonate is 100. 
 
What is the minimum volume of 2.0 M hydrochloric acid that would be needed to completely 
react with 2.0 g of calcium carbonate? 

A 40 cm3 

B 20 cm3 

C 30 cm3 

D 5 cm3 

E 10 cm3 

50 How many of the following compounds are acidic, alkaline or amphoteric (react with both acids 
and alkalis)? 
 

Al2O3  Cl2O7  CO2  HCl  H3PO4  K2O  KOH

MgO  Na2O  NO2  P4O10  SiO2  SO2 

A Acidic = 10;   Amphoteric = 2;   Alkaline = 4 

B Acidic =   7;   Amphoteric = 1;   Alkaline = 5 

C Acidic =   9;   Amphoteric = 2;   Alkaline = 2 

D Acidic =   6;   Amphoteric = 1;   Alkaline = 6 

E Acidic =   8;   Amphoteric = 1;   Alkaline = 4 

© UCLES 2012 Page 30 / 48


51 The reaction scheme below shows some reaction conversions of organic molecules. 
  
 

 
 
Which is the correct combination of process and compounds for this scheme? 

A process T: reduction;  compound W: ester;   compound X: amide 

B process T: reduction;  compound W: ketone;  compound X: nitrile 

C process T: oxidation;  compound W: ester;   compound X: amide 

D process T: reduction;  compound W: ketone;  compound X: amide 

E process T: oxidation;  compound W: ester;   compound X: nitrile 

52 Which two of the following molecular substances in the gaseous state have the strongest 
permanent molecular dipole? 
 
  

A  

B  

C  

D  

E  

© UCLES 2012 Page 31 / 48


Physics and Mathematics 

53 A book of mass 0.40 kg rests on a horizontal surface with which it has a coefficient of dynamic 
friction of 0.50. 
 

If this book is now pushed by an external horizontal force of 10 N, what will be its acceleration 
immediately after it has started to move?  
 
[Assume the gravitational field strength is 10 Nkg­1, that air resistance is negligible and that the 
orientation of the book does not change.]

A 25.0 ms­2 

B 12.5 ms­2 

C 50.0 ms­2 

D 20.0 ms­2 

E 15.0 ms­2 

© UCLES 2012 Page 32 / 48


54 An ornamental thermometer, commonly known as a Galileo thermometer, contains a number of 
spheres of hollow coloured glass, representing different temperatures, immersed in a column of 
ethanol.  A particular sphere (X) rises from the bottom to the top of the column of liquid when the 
temperature falls below the value it represents. 
   

  
 
Which statement best explains why the sphere rises when the temperature falls? 

A The mass of the sphere has decreased. 

B The pressure exerted by the liquid has decreased. 

C The volume of gas inside the sphere has increased. 

D The density of the liquid has increased. 

E The temperature of the sphere is different from that of the liquid. 

55 What is the equation of the straight line which passes through (­6 , 2) and is perpendicular  
to 4y + 3x = 8? 

A 3y ­ 4x = 18 

B 4y ­ 3x = 26 

C 3y + 4x = ­18 

D 3y ­ 4x = 30 

E 3y + 4x = 30 

© UCLES 2012 Page 33 / 48


56 Evaluate: 
 

A 2.88 × 10­3 

B 2.88 × 10­2 

C 2.88 × 10­5 

D 2.88 × 104 

E 2.88 × 10­1 

57 Four individual spheres have radii: 
 
  
 
What is the sum of their surface areas? 

A 58 π r 2 

B 169  π r 2 

C 57 π r 2 

D 25 π r 2 

E 26 π r 2 

58 A computer game is on sale for €32.00.  

The price ticket shows that this cost is a reduction of 20% of the original price.

What was the original price? 

A €25.60 

B €38.40 

C €33.60 

D €52.00 

E €40.00 

© UCLES 2012 Page 34 / 48


59 An earthed magnet is near a bar of material which is seen to be repelled by the magnet. 
 
What could the bar of material be?   
 
[The system is isolated and no currents are induced.] 

A A bar of unmagnetised soft iron. 

B A bar of unmagnetised cobalt. 

C A bar of electrostatically charged copper. 

D A bar of magnetised steel. 

E A bar of electrostatically charged aluminium. 

60 The circuit shown contains three identical resistors, two ammeters X and Y, and a voltmeter Z.  
The internal resistance of the battery is negligible.  
 
 

 
 
Which option shows the readings on the three meters?   
 
[Assume the ammeters have negligible resistance, and negligible current flows through the 
voltmeter.] 

A X = 1.0 A; Y = 0.0 A; Z = 12 V 

B X = 2.0 A; Y = 0.0 A; Z = 4.0 V 

C X = 1.0 A; Y = 2.0 A; Z = 8.0 V 

D X = 3.0 A; Y = 6.0 A; Z = 12 V 

E X = 1.0 A; Y = 2.0 A; Z = 6.0 V 

© UCLES 2012 Page 35 / 48


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IMAT 2014
Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer
1  D  31  C 
2  D  32  B 
3  C  33  E 
4  E  34  C 
5  A  35  A 
6  B  36  A 
7  E  37  E 
8  B  38  C 
9  C  39  B 
10  B  40  A 
11  C  41  D 
12  C  42  E 
13  E  43  E 
14  A  44  E 
15  B  45  B 
16  C  46  D 
17  A  47  D 
18  C  48  B 
19  D  49  B 
20  A  50  E 
21  D  51  C 
22  C  52  B 
23  C  53  D 
24  D  54  D 
25  C  55  D 
26  A  56  B 
27  B  57  C 
28  B  58  E 
29  D  59  D 
30  D  60  C 

© UCLES 2014 
ADMISSION TEST FOR THE DEGREE COURSE IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY 
Academic Year 2015/2016 

© UCLES 2012 Page 1 / 44


General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning 

1 Although the Earth supports life, it has a mysterious carbon deficit. Compared with other bodies
in the solar system the Earth has far less carbon than would be expected for a planet that
supports life. Originally it was thought that in the inner region of the dust disc where the Earth
formed, temperatures soared high enough for the carbon to boil away. However, observations of
developing solar systems have now suggested that the temperature would not have been high
enough. It is more likely that fire is to blame. Hot oxygen atoms would have readily combined
with carbon, burning to produce carbon dioxide. There would have been fewer of these oxygen
atoms further away from the Sun. 

Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the above argument? 

A The carbon that is present on the Earth could have arrived at a later date from an
asteroid. 

B The abundance of carbon in the asteroid belt surrounding the inner planets increases the
further away you get from the Sun. 

C There is no theoretical reason why life has to be carbon­based. 

D There are other solar systems with Earth­like planets that have an abundance of carbon
on them. 

E At temperatures that are high enough for carbon to boil away, oxygen would also have
boiled away. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 2 / 44


2 Tom is having a celebration and needs to send out 50 invitation cards. The cards must be at
least 6 cm wide and at least 8 cm high and Tom wants to put a photo on the card. Each type of
card has a standard version and a deluxe version. The prices (per card) that have been quoted
to Tom are shown in the table below: 

Width (cm) Height (cm) Photo? Personalised greeting? Price (standard)  Price (deluxe)


6 6 Y N €0.90 €1.65
6 10 N Y €1.00 €1.60
6 10 Y Y €1.75 €2.15
7 7 Y N €1.40 €1.90
7 10 Y N €1.50 €1.95
7 10 Y Y €1.60 €2.15
10 10 Y N €2.25 €2.95

Tom wants to buy the cheapest type of card possible but is willing to pay for the deluxe version
instead of the standard.

What is the total extra that Tom would have to pay to buy the deluxe cards? 

A €30.00 

B €20.00 

C €25.00 

D €22.50 

E €27.50 

© UCLES 2012 Page 3 / 44


3 Now, it might be thought an amazing coincidence if Earth were the only planet in the galaxy on
which intelligent life evolved. If it happened here, the one planet we have studied closely, surely
one would expect it to have happened on a lot of other planets in the galaxy – planets we have
not yet had the chance to examine. This objection, however, rests on a fallacy: it overlooks what
is known as an 'observation selection effect', so it wouldn't be such a coincidence. Whether
intelligent life is common or rare, every observer is guaranteed to originate from a place where
intelligent life did, in fact, arise. Since only the successes give rise to observers who can
wonder about their existence, it would be a mistake to regard our planet as a randomly selected
sample from all planets. 

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? 

A Our planet is not a randomly selected sample from all planets. 

B However common intelligent life is, every observer will certainly originate from a place
where intelligent life did, in fact, arise. 

C If life had evolved here on Earth, it would probably have happened on a lot of other planets
in the galaxy. 

D There would be no amazing coincidence if we discovered that Earth were the only planet
in the galaxy on which intelligent life evolved. 

E It would be an amazing coincidence if Earth were the only planet in the galaxy on which
intelligent life evolved. 

4 Alberto has decided to paint his dining room. Paint comes in 1 litre cans. The paint in one can
will cover an area of approximately 24 square metres. The dining room is 4 m x 6 m x 3.5 m
high. There is just one window which is in one of the long walls and is 1.5 m x 2 m. 

All of the walls, door and ceiling are to be painted with the same type of paint. 

Approximately 20% of the wall area to be painted is wood which will need a second coat of
paint. 

What is the minimum number of cans of paint that Alberto should buy to have sufficient to
complete the room? 

A 4 cans 

B 6 cans 

C 5 cans 

D 2 cans

E 3 cans 

© UCLES 2012 Page 4 / 44


5 Children are being encouraged to take up gardening through special events at shows and
activities in schools. It is hoped that an interest in gardening, and particularly growing one's own
food, will make children more interested in learning about their food and they will therefore be
deterred from eating junk food. The initiative should be supported and spread to more schools
as quickly as possible. 

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument? 

A The practical experience of gardening is not a traditional academic subject. 

B The events to encourage children to garden also included stands where junk food was for
sale. 

C Some schools do not have a garden. 

D It tends to be older people who are interested in gardening and growing their own food. 

E Most children have enjoyed the events provided, but have not gained an interest in
gardening itself. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 5 / 44


6 Leroy cycles to work each morning. The first half of his journey is uphill and he can manage only
a steady 5 kilometres per hour. The second half, however, is downhill and he covers this at 15
kilometres per hour. 

Which one of these graphs could show Leroy's journey?

A B

C D

© UCLES 2012 Page 6 / 44


7 Studies are taking place to assess the benefits to dental health of adding fluoride to drinking
water, a process known as mass medication. The Health Minister has urged consideration of
fluoridation, particularly in deprived areas where dental care is poor. Fluoride can occur naturally
in the water because of fluoride containing minerals. Fluoride, if in the water, improves dental
health by up to 50 percent. Even so, fluoridation should not take place. A campaign leader
opposed to fluoridation has spoken of her experiences of living in a fluoridated area of the USA.
She experienced feelings of apathy and depression; her 2 year old son showed autistic
tendencies and had white flecks on his teeth. These symptoms disappeared when they
returned home from the USA. 

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the argument above? 

A Mass medication is always wrong. 

B Fluoridation of water is a person's only source of fluoride. 

C The reported health symptoms were caused by fluoride in the water. 

D Fluoridation is cheaper than improving dental facilities. 

E Fluoridation is only necessary in deprived areas. 

8 Concern about the effects of chemicals upon the environment has led to calls for more
research. But we should not wait for further research before we ban some of the chemicals
used by industry. If anyone has a good reason to think something is harmful, it should not be
used until, or unless, the risk is found to be zero. We know enough about past mistakes to be
forewarned. Much of the harm to wildlife and humans is long­term, and the disturbing results we
see today reflect the chemical environment 40 years ago. Thousands more chemicals have
been released into the environment since then. 

Which one of the following most closely matches the reasoning above? 

A People should not be able to adopt children until proper checks have been carried out.
Serious consequences may follow if adoptive parents are unsuitable. 

B A suspected terrorist should be arrested at once. Waiting for conclusive evidence in the
past has resulted in atrocities that could have been avoided by acting on suspicion, and
the threat of terrorism has grown. 

C Some homes for the elderly have been found to give dangerously substandard care.
Therefore they should be closed down and the residents found acceptable alternatives. 

D Cyclists should not place too much confidence in the benefits of helmets, because there
is no conclusive evidence as yet that helmets prevent serious injuries. 

E Some cars that have passed the annual roadworthiness test would not pass 6 months
later. Cars should be tested more than once a year once they pass a certain age. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 7 / 44


9 When I made a hotel reservation online yesterday I was given an 8­digit booking reference 
which contained no zeros. It did, however, consist of three 2­digit odd numbers followed by the 
sum of these three numbers, and all eight digits were different. 

The first digit of the booking reference was 4. What was the last digit? 

A 3 

B 5 

C 9 

D 7 

E 1 

10 Climate scientists in Greenland studying patterns of plant growth have suggested that the early 
arrival of spring in the Arctic threatens to drive down populations of migrating animals such as 
caribou. However, comparable studies elsewhere show that their fears are unfounded. A recent 
study of great tits in Oxfordshire showed the birds are capable of adapting to climate change 
better than many scientists expected. Over the past half century, the birds have brought forward 
the date they lay their eggs by two weeks, so that young are born when plant­eating grubs are 
most plentiful. 

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument? 

A Migrating animals in the Arctic can adapt to climate change as successfully as great tits 
in Oxfordshire. 

B Birds are more adaptable than large mammals such as caribou. 

C Unless animals like the caribou produce their young earlier in the year, their population will 
fall. 

D The scientists working in Oxfordshire have greater expertise than those working in 
Greenland. 

E Climate change in Greenland and climate change in Oxfordshire are of the same scale. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 8 / 44


11 The table below shows the average mass of the cerebellum, which is a part of the brain, and
total body mass, for a number of animal species. The cerebellum of a cat has an average mass
of 5.3 g, while a cat's average body mass is 3.5 kg. 

Species  Cerebellum mass (g)  Body mass (g) 

Mouse 0.09 58

Pigeon 0.4 500

Squirrel 1.5 350

Rabbit 1.9 1800

Dog 6.0 3500

For which of the species shown is the ratio of cerebellum to total body mass closest to that of
the cat? 

A Pigeon 

B Squirrel 

C Dog 

D Rabbit 

E Mouse 

12 Sports are played either as a means of getting exercise or as a competition with an opponent.
Some sports, such as football, involve a large amount of running and some people are more
motivated to run when it is part of a game. Other sports, such as pool, do not involve much
physical activity and so it is unlikely that they would be played for the exercise. 

Which one of the following conclusions is best supported by the passage above? 

A Football is a better sporting activity than pool. 

B There is no point in running as a hobby, since football is more fun. 

C It is easier to exercise when it is as part of another activity, such as playing sport. 

D People who play pool are more likely to be interested in the competition than those who
play football. 

E Since the main reason for playing sports is to get exercise, pool should not be classified
as a sport. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 9 / 44


13 Looking in his rear­view mirror, Graham sensed that there was something wrong with the 
number plate of the car behind him. When the car overtook him and he saw its rear plate he 
realised that the front plate had been upside down. 

What had Graham seen in his rear­view mirror? 

A B

       

C D

       

   

14 Although it is sometimes suggested that the congestion caused by the bunching of cars on 
motorways could be eased by increasing the speed limit to 150 km/hr, such an increase would 
not be a good thing. An estimated 35 per cent of drivers exceed the speed limit by 20 km/hr and 
would continue to do so if the limit were raised. Since bunching is caused by speeding drivers 
trying to pass those who observe the speed limit, raising the limit to 150 km/hr would result in 
the same amount of congestion, but at an increased speed. Moreover, a higher speed limit 
would encourage all drivers to drive faster, and thus would increase the existing danger from 
those who drive too close to the car in front. 

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? 

A Congestion on motorways is caused by speeding drivers trying to pass those who 
observe the speed limit. 

B A higher speed limit on motorways would encourage all drivers to drive faster. 

C An increase in the speed limit would increase the existing danger from those drivers who 
drive too close. 

D Raising the speed limit to 150 km/hr would not reduce congestion on motorways. 

E It would not be a good thing to increase the speed limit to 150 km/hr. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 10 / 44


15 Food producers are resisting pressure to reduce still further the levels of salt in food. Although it 
is proven that salt intake must be reduced by those with hypertension, there is no evidence that 
reducing salt intake prevents hypertension. So why should we all be deprived of the pleasures of 
salt in food? We certainly need to identify those with hypertension and give them advice on their 
salt intake, but why should everyone else be deprived of salt? Food producers are right to resist 
the pressure. 

Which one of the following best illustrates the principle underlying the argument above? 

A Adding fluoride to drinking water has reduced tooth decay, but fluoride is unwelcome to 
some people. Instead, dentists should advise patients with tooth problems on better tooth 
care. 

B The requirement to wear seatbelts has reduced deaths in car accidents but was 
unpopular when first introduced. People eventually accepted such changes even if it has 
not benefited them personally. 

C Advice to wear sun block to protect the skin from harmful rays is ignored by some people. 
Those people should be charged for medical treatment for skin cancer. 

D Passive smoking is still a problem for people who share a home with a smoker. The law 
should be extended to make smoking illegal even in the home. 

E Retailers cannot sell alcohol to people under 18 years, but providing more general advice 
on alcohol in schools would be better, as it would encourage young people to be self 
limiting in their consumption of alcohol. 

16 There are two services between Sandpoint and Genville: a fast hovercraft service which takes 
50 minutes and a slow ferry which takes 1 hour 40 minutes. They both stop in port for 20 
minutes at each end before starting the return journey. They start out from Sandpoint together at 
the same time each morning. 

For how long has the slow ferry been sailing before it meets the hovercraft coming back? 
(Answer to the nearest minute if necessary.) 

A 1 hour and 20 minutes 

B 1 hour and 7 minutes 

C 1 hour and 30 minutes 

D 1 hour and 25 minutes 

E 1 hour and 10 minutes 

© UCLES 2012 Page 11 / 44


17 A farmer wishes to fix fencing rails to posts which are already in place. The posts are shown in
the diagram. The farmer has a supply of rails, each one 2.4 m long. One rail or part of a rail is to
be fixed between each pair of posts. (He can cut the rails into smaller lengths.) 

What is the smallest number of rails that he could use?

A 5 

B 3 

C 4 

D 6 

E 7 

18 Undercover police investigators sometimes commit 'crimes' in order to convince the 'real
criminals' that they are on the same side as them. Some of these activities have victims,
although in the main these are other criminals – rival gang members for example. In committing
what are technically offences the officers are preventing many more serious crimes by helping
to convict and imprison dangerous criminals who might otherwise remain at liberty. But that is
not really the point. A breach of the law is a breach of the law, whoever commits it and for
whatever reason. Preventing a crime does not make it right to commit another crime. 

Which one of the following is the general principle underlying the above argument? 

A An act is criminal only if it is committed for criminal reasons. 

B Serious crime must be prevented by any reasonable means. 

C The police have a duty to protect law­abiding citizens from violence. 

D There is no such thing as a victimless crime. 

E The end does not justify the means. 

© UCLES 2012 Page 12 / 44


19 Deanna keeps a record of the petrol she puts into her car and the current distance it has 
covered so she can estimate her fuel consumption. When she puts petrol in, sometimes the 
tank is filled completely and she marks 'FULL' beside the entry if this is so, otherwise the tank is 
only partly filled. 
 
Her data for the last month is as follows: 
 
Date  Total km  Fuel added  FULL? 
2 June 23,508 5 litres
6 June 23,805 37 litres FULL
12 June 24,350 25 litres 
17 June 24,743 21 litres 
23 June 24,989 34 litres FULL
27 June 25,454 18 litres  

Which one of the following is the best estimate of her fuel consumption? 

A 9.9 litres / 100 km 

B 7.7 litres / 100 km 

C 1.7 litres / 100 km 

D 6.8 litres / 100 km 

E 8.0 litres / 100 km 

© UCLES 2012 Page 13 / 44


20 A local museum wishes to exhibit a collection of butterflies which is mounted in nine narrow 
(only 0.2 m wide) display cases, each 1.5 m long. The museum wants to arrange four tables, 
each 2 m long and 1 m wide, in such a way that all the display cases can be placed around the 
edges. The room for the exhibition is 6 m by 6 m and there must be at least 1 m of clear floor 
space around the outside of the tables. 

Which one of the five arrangements shown would be satisfactory? 

A B

       

C D

       

   

© UCLES 2012 Page 14 / 44


21 Which one of the following pairs of scholar/field of study is NOT correct? 

A Amartya Sen ­ Economics 

B Konrad Lorenz ­ Ethology 

C Doris Lessing ­ Literature 

D Max Weber ­ Pedagogy 

E Ludwig Wittgenstein ­ Philosophy 

22 Which one of the following public figures was NOT awarded the Nobel Peace Prize? 

A Aung San Suu Kyi 

B Nelson Mandela 

C Willy Brandt 

D Mahatma Gandhi 

E Martin Luther King 

© UCLES 2012 Page 15 / 44


Biology 

23 The changes in concentration of hormones in a healthy woman's blood were monitored during 
several menstrual cycles. 

During which stage of the menstrual cycle was the concentration of oestrogen falling, the 
concentration of luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle­stimulating hormone (FSH) maximal and 
the progesterone concentration rising? 

A at the start of menstruation 

B at the end of menstruation 

C four days before ovulation and the time of ovulation 

D after ovulation but before the start of menstruation 

E between the end of menstruation and four days before ovulation 

24 The following events occur during a reflex response to a person placing a hand on a hot object. 

1. Myosin binding sites on actin filaments uncovered.
2. ADP and phosphate ion released from myosin head.
3. Sodium voltage­gated channels open.
4. Myosin head detaches from binding site on actin.
5. Calcium ions released by sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Which of the following options places four of these events in the correct order (from left to 
right)? 

A 3, 5, 4, 2 

B 5, 2, 1, 4 

C 1, 2, 4, 3 

D 5, 1, 2, 4 

E 3, 1, 4, 2 

© UCLES 2012 Page 16 / 44


25 The genotype QqRr produces a certain phenotype. If two individuals with a genotype of QqRr 
reproduce, how many different possible phenotypes could be created, assuming all allele 
combinations are equally viable and the phenotypes are the result of complete dominance? 

A 16 

B 4 

C 5 

D 8 

E 9 

26 A double stranded DNA molecule is shown below: 
 

 
 
This DNA molecule is allowed to replicate three times in a medium containing non­radioactive 
nucleotides . 
 
Which answer shows the correct percentages of original DNA and completely non­radioactive 
DNA? 
 

[Assume all radioactive nucleotides remain radioactive throughout, and all non­radioactive 
nucleotides remain non­radioactive throughout]. 

A row 4 

B row 1 

C row 5 

D row 3 

E row 2 

© UCLES 2012 Page 17 / 44


27 Which of the following are directly produced during photolysis of water? 

1. oxygen
2. carbon dioxide
3. protons

A 1 only 

B 2 and 3 only 

C 1 and 3 only 

D 1 and 2 only 

E 2 only 

28 In the nerve cells of a person, one gene has two alleles, ‘A’ and ‘a’, present. For this person, 
which row correctly shows the alleles present in all three different situations given in the table? 

A row 1 

B row 2 

C row 5 

D row 4 

E row 3 

© UCLES 2012 Page 18 / 44


29 The diagram shows a single sarcomere in a relaxed state. 

Which answer describes the changes when the sarcomere contracts? 

A 1 gets smaller and 2 gets smaller. 

B 1 gets smaller and 2 does not change. 

C 1 gets longer and 2 gets smaller. 

D 1 does not change and 2 gets wider. 

E 1 gets longer and 2 gets wider. 

30 The diagram below shows an amino acid. 

Which option correctly identifies both the variable group (R group) and the acidic group? 

A variable group = 4; acidic group = 3 

B variable group = 3; acidic group = 1 

C variable group = 2; acidic group = 3 

D variable group = 1; acidic group = 2 

E variable group = 2; acidic group = 4 

© UCLES 2012 Page 19 / 44


31 Where in a shoulder joint are osteocytes found? 

A muscle tissue 

B ligament 

C cartilage 

D bone tissue 

E skin 

32 The picture below shows a DNA microarray. Each spot (labelled 1–4) contains a different DNA
probe. A sample of fluorescently­labelled human DNA, with the sequence TGGTCAAGATTAT, is
washed over the array. 

Which of the spots would show a positive signal because it fluoresces? 

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 

B 2 and 3 only 

C 1 and 3 only 

D 1 and 4 only 

E 2 and 4 only 

© UCLES 2012 Page 20 / 44


33 The diagram shows how the pressure changes in the left atrium, left ventricle and the aorta
during one heartbeat in a healthy human. 

Which row shows the correct events during time period X? 

A row 2 

B row 3 

C row 5 

D row 4 

E row 1 

© UCLES 2012 Page 21 / 44


34 The table shows some events of the normal eukaryotic cell cycle. 

Which row shows the correct sequence of events (left to right) as they occur during part of this
cell cycle? 

A row 5 

B row 2 

C row 1 

D row 4 

E row 3 

35 Which one of the following is NOT a carbohydrate? 

A glucagon 

B amylose 

C ribose 

D amylopectin 

E maltose 

© UCLES 2012 Page 22 / 44


36 Some local anaesthetics affect nervous impulse transmission by making it more difficult for
voltage­gated sodium channels to open. In a human patient treated with these anaesthetics
which of the following statements would be true? 

A The threshold potential required to generate an action potential would be lowered. 

B The axon membrane would become more difficult to repolarise. 

C It would become harder to depolarise the neuron. 

D The membrane potential of the neuron at rest would decrease below –90 mV. 

E The sodium/potassium pump may need to work faster to maintain the resting potential. 

37 Place the following structures in a human sperm cell in descending order of size (left to right): 

1. mitochondria
2. nucleus
3. ribosome

A 1, 2, 3 

B 1, 3, 2 

C 3, 1, 2 

D 2, 3, 1 

E 2, 1, 3 

38 In a prokaryote, transcription can occur in which of the following? 

1. cytoplasm
2. mitochondria
3. ribosomes

A 3 only 

B 1 and 3 only 

C 1 only 

D 1 and 2 only 

E 2 only 

© UCLES 2012 Page 23 / 44


39 A normal sequence of triplets in a section of DNA is given by: ATCGAACGG 

The same section of DNA has been changed by mutation, and is given by: ATCTTGCGG 

Some of the triplets below represent the tRNA triplets which code for amino acids. 

Key: 

Using the tRNA triplets, which amino acid sequence given below could be formed from the
mutated DNA sequence? 

40 Which of the following could be the outcome of evolution? 

1. speciation
2. a change in allele frequency
3. increased biodiversity

A 2 and 3 only 

B 1 only 

C 1 and 3 only 

D 1, 2 and 3 

E 1 and 2 only 

© UCLES 2012 Page 24 / 44


Chemistry 

41 0.75 g of a hydrocarbon compound contains 0.60 g of carbon. 

(Ar : C = 12.0; H = 1.0) 

Which one of the following could be the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon compound? 

A C3H8 

B C2H4 

C C2H6 

D CH4 

E C2H3 

42 In the reaction 
C3H7Br  +  KOH   →    C3H7OH   +   KBr 

24.6 g of 1­bromopropane reacts with excess potassium hydroxide to produce 8.00 g 
of propan­1­ol. 

M r : C3H7Br = 123 

Ar : H = 1.0; C = 12.0; O = 16.0 

What is the percentage yield of this reaction? 

A 57.1% 

B 93.0% 

C 32.5% 

D 33.3% 

E 66.7% 

© UCLES 2012 Page 25 / 44


43 Pure water self­ionises. This endothermic reaction is represented by the equation: 

Which of the following statements is true for pure water between the temperatures of 0 °C and
100 °C? 

1. The concentrations of H+(aq) and OH–(aq) are equal between 0 °C and 100 °C.
2. An increase in temperature causes the pH to fall.
3. An increase in temperature causes the electrical conductivity to decrease.

A 1 and 3 only 

B 3 only 

C 1 only 

D 1 and 2 only 

E 2 only 

44 The atomic number of aluminium is 13. 

Which electron configuration given below corresponds to the Al2+ ion in its ground state? 

A Is22s22p63s23p1 

B Is22s22p63s23p3 

C Is22s22p6 

D Is22s22p63s1 

E Is22s22p53s2 

45 Atoms X and Y form an ionic compound with formula XY2.

Which option below could give the correct atomic numbers for X and Y? 

A X = 11; Y = 16 

B X = 3; Y = 17 

C X = 12; Y = 9 

D X = 6; Y = 16 

E X = 14; Y = 8 

© UCLES 2012 Page 26 / 44


46 2,2 – dimethylpropane, C(CH3)4, is an isomer of pentane, CH3(CH2)3CH3. 

Pentane has a boiling point of 36 °C whilst the boiling point of 2,2 – dimethylpropane is 10 °C. 

Which statement below explains the difference in the boiling points for these two substances? 

A 2,2 – dimethylpropane has stronger intermolecular forces. 

B The molecules have different relative molecular masses. 

C Isomers have different chemical properties. 

D Pentane has permanent dipoles. 

E Longer chain, less branched molecules have stronger spontaneous/induced dipoles. 

47 Assume that the oxidation numbers are as shown below: 

N = –3        H = +1       Cr = +6         O = –2 

Which compound formula given below is correct? 

A [ (NH4)2CrO4 ] + 

B NH4Cr2O7 

C (NH4)2CrO4 

D [ (NH4)3CrO4 ] – 

E (NH4)3CrO4 

48 What is the correct formula of propanal? 

A CH3CH2CH2OH 

B CH3CH2OCH3   

C CH3COCH3  

D CH3CH2CO2H  

E CH3CH2CHO  

© UCLES 2012 Page 27 / 44


49 When propan­1­ol is burnt in excess oxygen the only products formed are carbon dioxide and 
water. 

In the balanced equation for this reaction what is the ratio of CO2 : H2O molecules formed? 

A 4 : 7 

B 3 : 8 

C 2 : 7 

D 3 : 4 

E 5 : 12 

50 Potassium nitrate was found to have a solubility of 120 g in 100 g of water at 80 °C and 50 g in 
100 g of water at 25 °C. 
 
50 g of water was heated to 80 °C and solid potassium nitrate added until the solution was just 
saturated. 
 
The solution was then cooled to 25 °C when solid potassium nitrate separated out to leave a 
saturated solution. 

Using the information provided in this question, what is the minimum mass of water that must 
now be added to the mixture of the solution and the solid in order to make this solid potassium 
nitrate redissolve at 25 °C? 

A 20 g 

B 140 g 

C 120 g 

D 70 g 

E 190 g 

© UCLES 2012 Page 28 / 44


51 Which two of the following oxides would NOT give acidic solutions in water? 

CO, CO2, SO2, NO 

A NO and SO2 

B NO and CO2 

C CO and SO2 

D CO and CO2 

E CO and NO 

52 Which one of the following 0.01 M aqueous solutions has a pH > 7.0? 

A AlBr3 

B NaI 

C NH4Cl 

D Na2CO3 

E CH3CO2H   

© UCLES 2012 Page 29 / 44


Physics and Mathematics 

53 Given that 2 log10 (x) – 3 = log10 (y) 

Express y in terms of x.          

 
B

 
C

 
D

 
E

54 Which one of the following equations is dimensionally consistent (has consistent units)? 

[All the symbols have their usual meanings:  
 
v = velocity; F = force; m = mass; t = time; V = voltage; Q = charge; R1, R2, R3, R4 = 
resistance] 

A energy = (½mv2) + Fv 

B resistance = R1+ R2 + (1/R3) + (1/R4) 

C temperature change = energy × m × specific heat capacity 

D acceleration = (½vt2) + (F/m) 

E electrical current = (V/R1) + (Q/t) 

© UCLES 2012 Page 30 / 44


55 The variables x and y satisfy the following two equations: 
 
x + 3y = 13 
 
2x – y = 5 

What is the value of x + y ? 

A 7 

B 8 

C 6 

D 9 

E 10 

© UCLES 2012 Page 31 / 44


56 The diagram shows a car of mass 1000 kg travelling at a constant speed of 30 m/s in the 
direction shown along a flat, level road which forms a circle of radius 50 m. 
 

  
 

Which row in the table gives both the magnitude of the resultant force on the car and the 
direction of the acceleration of the car at the instant shown? 
 

  

A row 1 

B row 2 

C row 5 

D row 3 

E row 4 

© UCLES 2012 Page 32 / 44


57 The arithmetic mean of the three numbers a, b, c  is 8. 

Find the arithmetic mean of the four numbers:  a + 1, b + 2, c + 6, 3. 

A 7 

B 11 

C 5 

D 9 

E 27 

58 Evaluate: 

(27² – 23²) + (14² – 6²) 

A 1680 

B 360 

C 80 

D 840 

E 40 

© UCLES 2012 Page 33 / 44


59 An aluminium block of mass 2.5 kg is supplied with 9000 J of thermal energy. This causes its 
temperature to rise by 4 K. Which expression gives the specific heat capacity of this aluminium, 
from this data? 

[Assume that the block remains solid throughout, and that no additional energy is exchanged 
between the block and the surroundings.] 

 
B

 
C

 
D

 
E

© UCLES 2012 Page 34 / 44


60 Two forces F of equal magnitude act on a beam. Which diagram shows a couple acting and 
states the magnitude of the torque (moment) of the couple about the pivot? [The pivot is at the 
centre of the beam] 

 
B

 
C

 
E

© UCLES 2012 Page 35 / 44


© UCLES 2012 Page 36 / 44
© UCLES 2012 Page 37 / 44
© UCLES 2012 Page 38 / 44
© UCLES 2012 Page 39 / 44
© UCLES 2012 Page 40 / 44
© UCLES 2012 Page 41 / 44
© UCLES 2012 Page 42 / 44
© UCLES 2012 Page 43 / 44
© UCLES 2012 Page 44 / 44
IMAT 2015

Answer Key

Question Answer Question Answer


1 B 31 D
2 D 32 B
3 D 33 E
4 C 34 E
5 E 35 A
6 E 36 C
7 C 37 E
8 B 38 C
9 D 39 C
10 A 40 D
11 E 41 C
12 D 42 E
13 D 43 D
14 E 44 D
15 A 45 C
16 A 46 E
17 A 47 C
18 E 48 E
19 D 49 D
20 C 50 D
21 D 51 E
22 D 52 D
23 C 53 A
24 D 54 E
25 B 55 A
26 B 56 D
27 C 57 D
28 A 58 B
29 B 59 D
30 C 60 E
 

15ML62287 
ADMISSION TEST FOR THE DEGREE COURSE IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY 

Academic Year 2016/2017  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

15ML62287 © UCLES 2016 Page 1 / 44


General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning 

1 This is part of the tiled floor of the magic shop Spell It Out. 
 

Five different types of tile make up the design. How many of the tiles have the pattern   ? 

A 18 

B 19 

C 17 

D 21 

E 20 

15ML62287 © UCLES 2016 Page 2 / 44


2 A factory has received an order for a product. It takes 9 operations to manufacture it. These 
may take place in any order and at any time in the manufacturing process but an individual 
worker stays with one operation from its beginning to its end. The number of hours for one 
worker to complete each operation is as follows: 
 

Operation  A  B  C  D  E  F  G  H  I 

Duration in hours  12  3  8  9  10  2  6  4  10 

 
All workers are able to complete all operations, but can only do one at a time. The product has 
to be ready in 16 hours. 

What is the minimum number of workers required to manufacture the product in the given time? 

A 6 

B 4 

C 9 

D 1 

E 5 

15ML62287 © UCLES 2016 Page 3 / 44


3 Below is a picture of a biscuit tin with four identical sides. A set of these tins is to be made that 
are all distinguishable from each other by colour alone. The manufacturer will paint each of the 
four sides either red or blue. The top and bottom are not painted. 
 

What is the greatest number of different tins that can be made? 

A 6 

B 7 

C 8 

D 4 

E 5 

15ML62287 © UCLES 2016 Page 4 / 44


4 In a slalom skiing competition skiers tackle the course one at a time. Each skier makes two 
runs. The times for the two runs are added and the fastest total time determines the winner. 
Competitors who fail to finish their first run are not allowed to make a second run.  
 
In the second round, skiers compete in the reverse order of their positions after the first round. 
 
Grace took part in a slalom competition last week. She was the eighth skier to make her first 
run. At the end of the first round she was in sixth position, so she had to wait for 17 of her rivals 
to make their second runs before it was her turn again. Three skiers had failed to complete the 
course in the first round. 

How many competitors took part in last week's slalom competition? 

A 26 

B 23 

C 34 

D 31 

E 28 

5 In 1688 the Irish philosopher William Molyneux asked whether a blind person who regained their 
vision could recognise by sight an object they had previously only known by touch. Richard Held 
and Pawan Sinha of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology attempted to answer this 
question in an experiment with five children in India who had just had successful surgery which 
gave them their sight for the first time. Within 48 hours of the operation the children were asked 
to feel a toy block without looking at it. They were then shown two blocks, one of which they had 
touched. They identified the orginal block just over half of the time and this is only a little better 
than guesswork. Recognising touched objects by sight alone improved within days. 

Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion of the above passage? 

A Using children in experiments such as the one described above is morally wrong. 

B Identifying an object by sight alone which had been touched but not seen previously is 
learned behaviour and not innate. 

C Identifying an object by sight alone which had been touched but not seen previously is 
innate behaviour and not learned. 

D Identifying an object by sight alone which had been touched but not seen previously is 
something which adults do better than children. 

E Identifying an object by sight alone which had been touched but not seen previously is 
something which children do better than adults. 

15ML62287 © UCLES 2016 Page 5 / 44


6 A delivery company opens its depot at 7:30 am. It uses large and small vans to make deliveries. 
The smaller vans take 10 minutes to load and then 1 hour to make the deliveries and return. The 
larger ones have a loading time of 30 minutes and return from deliveries after 2 hours. The 
driver of a large van starts loading at 8:00 am. 

If the driver of a small van is to make the maximum number of deliveries he can, how much 
later than the driver of the large van can he start loading if they are both to arrive back at the 
depot for lunch at 1:00 pm? 

A 0 minutes 

B 20 minutes 

C 15 minutes 

D 5 minutes 

E 10 minutes 

15ML62287 © UCLES 2016 Page 6 / 44


7 A bakery shop makes its own bread in batches to sell on site. Bakers always describe the 
quantities of other ingredients as a percentage of the weight of flour used. They will then use the 
percentages in the table below to calculate how much water, salt and fat are required. Today, 
the baker is planning to use 250 kg of flour to make White Bread.  
 
 

The Baker’s Percentage 

Bread Type  Water (%)  Salt (%)  Fat (%) 

Neapolitan Pizza  59 1.5 None

Baguette  60 2 None

French Bread  66 2 None

Ciabatta  80 2 2.5

Focaccia  80 3 3

White Bread  54 2 17

Brioche  22 2 133

What is the total weight of the mixture to be made? 

A 323 kg 

B 432.5 kg 

C 250 kg 

D 182.5 kg 

E 420 kg 

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8 My choice of sandwich will depend on its nutritional content as shown in the following table: 
 

type  price (£)  energy (kJ)  protein (g)  fat (g)  salt equiv (g) 

beef  2.00 1220 22 3.4 1.3

chicken  2.10 1327 26 4.1 1.4

ham  1.90 1164 18 3.8 1.7

turkey  2.20 1163 20 2.5 1.5

salad  1.50 931 8 3.3 1.7

tuna  2.00 1579 19 14.3 1.7

 
 
I want to have at least 20 g of protein in my sandwich and no more than 4 g of fat. 

Which is the smallest amount that I will pay for my sandwich? 

A £2.20 

B £2.00 

C £1.50 

D £2.10 

E £1.90 

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9 Few linguists would argue against the view that our first language is acquired and not learned. 
Pre­school children do not study their native tongue nor do they learn grammar rules but, by the 
time they start school at the age of five or six, the vast majority are competent users of their 
language. Therefore, when learning a second or additional language, studying grammar is a 
waste of time and all that is required is exposure to the target language in order to acquire 
competency in its use. 

Which one of the following identifies the underlying assumption of the above argument? 

A Only people who know how to read can learn a second or additional language. 

B Languages are fundamentally different from one another. 

C Children are better at acquiring languages than adults. 

D Learners of second or additional languages should read the target language. 

E Acquiring a second or additional language is the same process as acquiring a first 
language. 

10 The following pattern is made from six square tiles: 
 

Which one of the following patterns can also be made from the same six tiles? 

A B

       

C D

       

   

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11 Children need to play in order to develop their thinking skills. When children play, they are 
merely going through scenarios, working out the consequences and implications of actions, 
puzzling out what might happen – the very same processes that adults have learned to do in 
their heads, the process more commonly known as 'thinking'! It follows that thinking and playing 
are really one and the same thing. 

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? 

A Children need to be taught how to think about the future. 

B Children who do not play will not be good thinkers. 

C Playing and thinking are essentially two forms of the same activity. 

D Children need to be allowed to play in order to develop their thinking skills. 

E Playing is just an early version of abstract thinking and reasoning. 

12 What is a clone but a twin? What is genetic engineering or selective breeding but assisted 
evolution? How often do we hear these trite excuses for man's arrogant interference with natural 
processes? Too often. It is time to call a halt and consider just what limits need to be placed on 
the break­neck progress of bio­technology, if 'progress' is even the right word for it. The big 
question for science should not be 'What's in it for us?' but 'Could this have happened 
naturally?' And if the answer is 'No' then we should not bring it about just because we have 
found that we can. If we do we may live a bit longer or grow more food per acre, but we don't 
know where our meddling will end. 

Which one of the following is a principle which underlies the above argument? 

A Nature will have its own way in the long run. 

B Meddling with nature could only ever end in disaster. 

C Science should not progress beyond what is natural. 

D It is time to call a halt on bio­technological advances. 

E Cloning, genetic engineering and selective breeding are not 'progress'. 

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13 I have folded a square piece of paper in half, then in half again, then cut three pieces from the 
resulting smaller square, as indicated below: 
 

Which one of the following CANNOT possibly be the appearance of the paper after I unfold it? 

A B

       

C D

       

   

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14 Children born in Japan today can expect to live five years longer than their American 
counterparts. Life expectancy has been rising in all countries, but the slowest rate of increase 
has been in the USA. What could account for this, given that the percentage of people who 
smoke is roughly the same in all rich countries? Of course, the USA is the birthplace of fast 
food restaurants that sell unhealthy food. Moreover, a recent survey of American lifestyles has 
found that overeating and failure to exercise are widespread amongst the population. So we 
must assume that obesity and lack of exercise have caused the USA to lag behind in the 
increase in life expectancy. 

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument? 

A Most rich countries have the same standard of medical expertise. 

B The USA spends more money on fast food than any other nation. 

C Japanese children had a healthier diet in the 1960s than they do today. 

D In the 1960s and 1970s the USA had the highest percentage of smokers. 

E American fast food restaurants are now found in most rich countries. 

15 While some animal rights activists have long accepted that there is a link between bovine 
tuberculosis (TB in cattle) and badgers, others have argued that it was not proven. They felt that 
the culling of badgers to stop the spread of TB in cattle was not justified if a link was unproven. 
But direct evidence of the transmission of TB between badgers and cattle has now been found. 
DNA sequencing of the TB bacteria in cattle and in badgers has shown that the disease 
crosses species barriers. This latest discovery completely undermines the case of those who 
have opposed badger culling. To protect farmers from severe loss of their cattle and hence their 
livelihoods – and to protect one of our primary sources of meat and milk – the badger population 
should be culled. 

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument in the passage above? 

A Animal rights activists are interested in the protection of badgers per se, whatever risk 
they pose. 

B There may be factors other than badgers, such as the movement of cattle, which 
contribute to the spread of TB in cattle. 

C It is too expensive and logistically difficult to vaccinate all cattle against TB. 

D Badger culling would be unpopular with a substantial number of people. 

E Not all farmers are convinced that the culling of badgers would stop the spread of TB. 

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16 In the foyer of a company in London there are nine clocks showing the local time at each of the 
company's nine branches. 
 
This is how they appear at present: 
 

 
 
The person in charge of re­setting these clocks in March and October has to remember: 
 
1  In Dubai, Singapore and Tokyo clocks remain unchanged all year round. 
 
2  In London, Athens, Chicago and New York clocks are put one hour forward in March and one 
hour back in October. 
 
3  In Santiago and Sydney clocks are put one hour forward in October and one hour back in 
March. 

When these clocks are next reset, which two will show the same time? 

A Chicago and New York 

B Athens and London 

C New York and Santiago 

D Singapore and Tokyo 

E Sydney and Tokyo 

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17 Childhood obesity is still a problem. This is often blamed on the fact that children have easy 
access to a range of unhealthy foods and increasingly have more money available to them to 
spend on fattening and sugar­filled foods. A solution seems obvious – raise the prices of all 
these foods so that parents will have more control over what their children eat and will find it 
more economical to buy healthy foods. Unfortunately, this is unlikely to work as the problem is 
also caused by the fact that unhealthy foods tend to be more convenient and that is what many 
parents consider when deciding what foods to provide. A wider range of 'ready to eat' healthy 
food options would be a good start to solving the problem of child obesity. 

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? 

A Parents should have more control over the food that their children eat. 

B The price of unhealthy foods should be raised. 

C There should be more 'ready to eat' healthy meals available. 

D Children have too much access to fattening and sugar­filled foods. 

E Child obesity is still a problem. 

18 The government is considering changing the law to assume consent for the donation of organs 
after death. People opposed to the idea would have to deliberately 'opt out' of the scheme, 
although relatives would still be consulted. The supply of healthy organs available for transplant 
would be vastly increased under this scheme. If the government really wants to improve the 
lives of people with long­term health problems, this is a measure it must take. 

Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument in the passage above? 

A Bereaved relatives find donation decisions very distressing. 

B The number of voluntary organ donors is small and not increasing. 

C Not all of the organs donated are suitable for transplant. 

D There would be opposition by civil liberties groups to this measure. 

E It is not known how many people would 'opt out' of the compulsory scheme. 

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19 In recent years there has been increased concern that fashion models reflect an unrealistic and 
unattainable image of femininity and that this has a negative effect on the self­esteem of many 
young women. Many major designers continue to design for an exceptionally tall and flat­
chested female frame. It should be no surprise therefore that there have been several cases 
recently when designers have favoured male models on their catwalks to model their 
womenswear. Rather than being a cause of surprise or concern, this should be welcomed as a 
recognition of the fact that these designs are unsuitable for most women and it draws attention 
to the major differences between catwalk fashion and clothing for the real world. 

Which one of the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the argument above? 

A Some designers have favoured male models simply to generate more media attention for 
their collections. 

B Some female models struggle to maintain the necessary physique for catwalk modelling. 

C Some designers are recognising that the physique of many catwalk models represents 
an unhealthy ideal for most women. 

D Very few observers noticed initially that the male models were not in fact women. 

E Surveys of young women have suggested that the use of male models makes the typical 
model physique less desirable to attain. 

20 High profile members of society can raise awareness of worthy causes better than members of 
the public, because they have their opinions listened to and respected more readily by a larger 
number of people. Celebrities should not be shy about drawing attention to charities and 
foundations to which they donate their time and money, because it may encourage other people 
to do the same. 

Which one of the following best illustrates the principle underlying the argument above? 

A People should value their superiors’ opinions on all matters because they have been 
successful in one or more fields. 

B If your boss does not commit any virtuous acts then neither should you. 

C If you can help someone else by donating your disposable time and money, it will help 
improve society. 

D Directors of companies should encourage their employees to recycle more by visibly 
doing so themselves. 

E Companies with the most employees should be put under pressure to commit to the 
most social change. 

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21 Which of the following countries is NOT a founding member of NATO? 

A Canada 

B Belgium 

C Germany 

D France 

E Italy 

22 Which of the following is NOT one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World? 

A The Hanging Gardens of Babylon 

B The Great Pyramid of Giza 

C The Lighthouse of Alexandria 

D The Parthenon of Athens  

E The Colossus of Rhodes 

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Biology 

23 Which organelle contains RNA but not DNA? 

A nucleolus 

B mitochondrion 

C chloroplast 

D smooth endoplasmic reticulum 

E ribosome 

24 An organism is heterozygous for two genes. These two genes make up part of the same DNA 
molecule. 
 
For one gene, E represents the dominant allele, e represents the recessive allele. 
 
For the other gene, R represents the dominant allele, r represents the recessive allele. 
 
Assuming there is no mutation, at the end of a mitotic division producing two cells which row(s) 
is/are possible? 

A row 6 only 

B rows 4 and 5 only 

C row 1 only 

D rows 2 and 3 only  

E rows 6 and 7 only 

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25 Which row correctly identifies a nucleic acid NOT directly involved in transcription, and a nucleic 
acid which is NOT directly involved in translation? 

A row 3 

B row 5 

C row 1 

D row 4 

E row 2 

26 Which row of the table correctly indicates features that are found in both pure extracts of DNA 
and tRNA molecules? 

A row 4 

B row 1 

C row 5 

D row 3 

E row 2 

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27 Which of the following can be random processes? 

            1  genetic drift

            2  mutations

            3  artificial selection

A 2 and 3 only 

B 1, 2 and 3 

C 1 and 2 only 

D none of them 

E 1 and 3 only 

28 Below are some steps involved in the production of transgenic plants. 
 

Which one of the following options gives a correct order for these steps? 

A W → Z → X → V → Y 

B W → Z → X → Y → V 

C Z → W → V → Y → X 

D W → V → Z → X → Y   

E Z → W → V → X → Y 

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29 Which sequence shows cells of increasing size (from left to right)? 

A E. coli → human red blood cell → onion epidermal cell 

B human red blood cell → E.coli → onion epidermal cell 

C E. coli → onion epidermal cell → human red blood cell 

D onion epidermal cell → human red blood cell → E. coli 

E onion epidermal cell → E. coli → human red blood cell 

30 Which option shows the structure in humans that produces bile and then the structure that 
stores bile? 

A gall bladder produces and then liver stores 

B liver produces and then liver stores 

C gall bladder produces and then gall bladder stores 

D liver produces and then gall bladder stores 

E liver produces and then duodenum stores 

31 The diagram represents a whole DNA plasmid that has been cut open using a single restriction 
enzyme: 
 

What are the bases in positions 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively? 

A T T G C T 

B U C G U U 

C U G C U U 

D U U G C T 

E T C G T T 

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32 Which labelled structure on the diagram of the brain plays the major role in regulating the 
nervous control of heart rate? 

A 1 

B 3 

C 4 

D 2 

E 5 

33 The dipeptide represented below is in aqueous solution. 
 

Which numbered bond (1 to 5) needs to be broken (hydrolysed) in this dipeptide to directly form 
two amino acids? 

A 1 

B 5 

C 3 

D 4 

E 2 

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34 Which of the following are respiratory enzymes? 

            1  acetyl coenzyme A

            2  FAD

            3  reduced NAD

A 1 and 2 only 

B 2 and 3 only 

C 1, 2 and 3 

D none of them 

E 1 and 3 only 

35 In the testes of a healthy man there are diploid cells that undergo meiosis to produce gametes. 
 
Which of the following statements is/are correct about meiosis for one of these diploid cells? 
 
          1  The diploid cell has doubled its DNA content before the start of meiosis I.

          2  The cells at the start of meiosis II are diploid.

          3  The total number of chromosomes produced by the end of meiosis II is double that 
               of the original diploid cell.

A 3 only 

B 2 and 3 only 

C 1, 2 and 3 

D 1 and 3 only  

E 1 only 

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36 The diagram shows the change in potential difference (pd) across the cell surface membrane of 
a sensory neurone. During which one of the phases (1–5) are the Na+ gates of the neurone 
open? 

A 1 

B 3 

C 4 

D 2 

E 5 

37 An experiment is set up to study two genes. The two genes assort independently and for each 
gene the expression of alleles involves complete dominance. In the genetic cross RrTt x RrTt, a 
number of different phenotypes are seen. What is the difference between this number of 
phenotypes and the number of phenotypes seen when the cross RrTt x rrtt is carried out? 

A 4 

B 8 

C 2 

D 1 

E 0 

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38 Which option correctly identifies the site of the light­dependent reactions in photosynthesis (S), 
the hydrogen carrier (H) used and its end state (N)? 

A S: stroma;  H: NAD;  N: reduced 

B S: granum;  H: NAD;  N: reduced 

C S: granum;  H: NADP;  N: reduced 

D S: stroma;  H: NADP; N: oxidised 

E S: stroma;  H: FAD;  N: oxidised 

39 The following shows the phases in mitosis. 
 
Prophase → Phase two → Anaphase → Phase four 
 
Which row in the table below shows the correct processes occurring in Phase two and Phase 
four of mitosis? 
 

 
 

A row 1 and row 5 only 

B row 1 only 

C row 2 and row 3 only 

D row 5 only 

E row 4 only 

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40 In which of the following organelles do carbohydrates play a relevant role? 

            1  mitochondria

            2  Golgi apparatus

            3  chloroplasts

A 1 and 3 only 

B 2 only 

C 1 and 2 only 

D 2 and 3 only 

E 1, 2 and 3 

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Chemistry 

41 Which of the following substances will form an alkaline solution when dissolved in water? 

            1  Na2CO3 

            2  NaCl

            3  NaHSO4 

A 1, 2 and 3 

B 1 only 

C 1 and 2 only 

D 2 and 3 only 

E 1 and 3 only 

42 Lead(II) nitrate solution and potassium iodide solution react to form potassium nitrate in solution 
and a bright yellow precipitate of lead(II) iodide. 

Which one of the following correctly represents the ionic equation for this chemical reaction? 

A Pb2+(aq) + I  –(aq) → PbI(s) 

B Pb2+(aq) + I 2–(aq) → PbI(s) 

C Pb+(aq) + 2I  –(aq) → PbI2(s) 

D Pb2+(aq) + 2I  –(aq) → PbI2(s)  

E Pb+(aq) + I  –(aq) → PbI(s) 

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43 The formula of a molecule is CH2CHCH2CH2COCH2CHO. 

Which functional groups given below are present in the molecule?  
 

            1  alkene

            2  alcohol

            3  aldehyde

            4  ketone

A 1, 3 and 4 only 

B 2, 3 and 4 only 

C 1 and 4 only 

D 1, 2 and 3 only 

E 3 and 4  only 

44 Which of these particles have the same electronic structure? 

            1  12Mg2+

            2  10Ne

            3  16S2–

            4  9F –

            5  3Li+

A 1, 2 and 5 only  

B 2, 4 and 5 only 

C 1, 2 and 3 only 

D 3, 4 and 5 only  

E 1, 2 and 4 only  

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45 A mixture of methanol and ethanoic acid is left until equilibrium is reached. The equation for this 
reaction is given below. 
 
   
 
The amount of CH3OH in this mixture at equilibrium can be increased by: 

            1  adding more water to the mixture

            2  raising the temperature of the mixture

            3  adding sodium hydroxide to the mixture

            4  adding a catalyst to the mixture

A 2 and 4 only 

B 1 and 2 only 

C 1 and 3 only 

D 1, 2 and 3 only 

E 4 only 

46 The compounds carbon dioxide (CO2), propane (C3H8) and ethanal (CH3CHO) all have  
M r = 44. 

Which of the following lists correctly shows these compounds in the order that they become 
gases as their temperature rises from –100°C at the same pressure? 

A CO2, C3H8, CH3CHO 

B CH3CHO, C3H8, CO2       

C CO2, CH3CHO, C3H8 

D C3H8, CO2, CH3CHO 

E C3H8, CH3CHO, CO2 

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47 A sample of lithium was completely reacted with water. The equation for this reaction is: 
 
2Li(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2LiOH(aq) + H2(g) 

The aqueous lithium hydroxide solution formed has a concentration of 0.10 mol/L.  
 
What is its concentration in g/L? 
 
(Ar: Li = 7.0; O = 16.0; H = 1.0) 

A 240 

B 480 

C 4.8 

D 3.1 

E 2.4 

48 An aqueous solution of NaOH has a concentration of 0.01 mol/L. 

Given the ionic product of water is Kw = [H+] [OH–] = 10–14 mol2/L2  (at 25°C) and that the 
equation for pH is pH = – log10 [H+], calculate the pH of the NaOH solution at 25°C. 

A 13 

B 11 

C 7 

D 14 

E 12 

49 How many unbranched straight chain molecules are there with the molecular formula C4H8F2, 
but with different structural formulas? 

A 8 

B 4 

C 9 

D 12 

E 6 

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50 Identify the number of protons (p), neutrons (n) and electrons (e) present in the ion: 

A p = 27      n = 25      e = 21 

B p = 24      n = 28      e = 24 

C p = 27      n = 25      e = 24 

D p = 24      n = 28      e = 21 

E p = 24      n = 24      e = 21 

51 Which of the following molecules contain bond angles of 180° in their gaseous states? 

(Atomic numbers: H = 1; Be = 4; C = 6;  Cl = 17) 
  

            1  BeCl2 

            2  C2H2 

            3  CCl4 

A 1 and 3 only 

B 1 and 2 only 

C 1 only 

D 2 and 3 only 

E 2 only 

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52 Five of the ions of vanadium are listed below: 
 

            1  VO 3– 

            2  V 3+ 

            3  V 2+ 

            4  VO 2+ 

            5  VO 2+ 

Which two ions have vanadium in the same oxidation state? 

A 2 and 5 

B 1 and 5  

C 3 and 4 

D 4 and 5 

E 1 and 3 

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Physics and Mathematics 

53 A right­angled triangle has an area of 18 cm². One of the two shorter sides is twice the length of 
the other one. 

What is the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle? 

A
 
B
 
C
 
D
 
E
 

54 Which physical quantity can be measured in joules per metre? 

A kinetic energy 

B momentum 

C power 

D work 

E force 

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55 Which one of the following is a simplification of 
 

[where x ≠ ±1] 

A
 
B
 
C
 
D
 
E
 

56 The straight­line graph given by the equation 
 

 
 
intersects the x­axis at A (a,0) and the y­axis at B (0,b). 
 
A circle passes through A and B and has a diameter AB. 

What are the coordinates of the centre of the circle? 

A (2, 3) 

B (3, 2) 

C (6, 4) 

D (4, 6) 

E (0, 0) 

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57 A student has three 6.0 Ω resistors that can be connected together in any configuration. What 
are the maximum and minimum resistances that can be obtained by using one or more of these 
three resistors? 

[Assume the connections between the resistors have negligible resistance, the temperature of 
the resistors is constant, the resistors are used in a d.c. circuit and none of the resistors is 
short­circuited.] 

A maximum resistance: 6.0 Ω; minimum resistance: 2.0 Ω 

B maximum resistance: 12 Ω; minimum resistance: 0.50 Ω 

C maximum resistance: 6.0 Ω; minimum resistance: 0.50 Ω 

D maximum resistance: 18 Ω; minimum resistance: 6.0 Ω 

E maximum resistance: 18.0 Ω; minimum resistance: 2.0 Ω  

58 The diagram shows a uniform horizontal beam of negligible mass, 5.0 m long, placed on two 
supports, one at each end. It has a 300 N weight placed 1.0 m from one end and a 500 N 
weight placed 1.0 m from the other end. Both weights act vertically on the beam as shown in 
the diagram. 
 

What are the upward forces from the two supports acting on the beam? 

A 340 N and 460 N 

B 300 N and 500 N 

C 240 N and 560 N 

D 400 N and 400 N 

E 360 N and 540 N 

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59 A ball is projected vertically upwards and then falls back to its original position. 
 
Once projected, the ball experiences only a single force, downwards, due to a constant 
gravitational field strength of 10 N/kg. 
 
Here are three statements about the ball: 
 

            1  When the ball is moving upwards it loses kinetic energy and gains potential energy.

            2  The magnitude of the ball’s acceleration increases as it falls.

            3  No vertical forces act on the ball when it is at its maximum height.

Which of the statement(s) is/are correct? 

A 2 and 3 only 

B none of them 

C 1 and 2 only 

D 3 only 

E 1 only 

60 x = 3 × 10m  and y = 5 × 10n  where m and n are integers. 

Which of the following is an expression, in scientific notation, for xy? 

A 8 × 10 m+n 

B 1.5 × 10 mn 

C 15 × 10 m+n­1 

D 1.5 × 10 mn+1 

E 1.5 × 10 m+n+1 

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IMAT 2016

Answer Key

Question Answer Question Answer


1 C 31 A
2 E 32 A
3 A 33 C
4 A 34 D
5 B 35 D
6 B 36 D
7 B 37 E
8 B 38 C
9 E 39 B
10 A 40 E
11 D 41 B
12 C 42 D
13 E 43 A
14 D 44 E
15 B 45 D
16 C 46 A
17 C 47 E
18 B 48 E
19 E 49 E
20 D 50 D
21 C 51 B
22 D 52 B
23 E 53 C
24 E 54 E
25 C 55 A
26 A 56 A
27 C 57 E
28 E 58 A
29 A 59 E
30 D 60 E
IMAT 2017

Answer key

Question Answer Question Answer


1 D 31 A
2 E 32 D
3 B 33 E
4 E 34 E
5 A 35 D
6 A 36 D
7 E 37 D
8 A 38 A
9 A 39 A
10 E 40 A
11 E 41 C
12 A 42 E
13 E 43 A
14 B 44 B
15 E 45 D
16 C 46 E
17 D 47 C
18 D 48 A
19 E 49 B
20 C 50 C
21 E 51 C
22 E 52 C
23 D 53 A
24 C 54 E
25 A 55 D
26 A 56 C
27 E 57 C
28 E 58 D
29 D 59 B
30 D 60 E
02MI70800
ADMISSION TEST FOR THE DEGREE COURSE IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY

Academic Year 2017/2018

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 1 / 44


General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning

1 I have a tin of chocolates to share with some friends. In the tin are four types of chocolate – one
type in red wrappers, one type in blue, one type in green and one type in yellow, with equal
numbers of each.

The tin is passed around in turn from friend to friend. When the tin gets to them:

• John always takes three red chocolates.


• Peter always takes one of each colour.
• Jane always takes one yellow chocolate.
• I always take two green chocolates.

After six passings around of the tin, half of the chocolates remaining in the tin are blue.

How many chocolates were there in the tin when it was full?

A 48

B 24

C 72

D 96

E 60

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 2 / 44


2 This is a view of a cross section of part of an aluminium window frame.

The cross section is uniform throughout its length.

Which one of the following is NOT a possible side view of this part of the aluminium window
frame?

A B C D E

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 3 / 44


3 Sheelagh runs a business from London with regional headquarters located in seven cities –
Jakarta, Nairobi, Prague, Ottawa, Moscow, Canberra and Hong Kong. The company also has
plants in other cities shown in the table. Her senior managers at regional headquarters work
from 8 am to 5.15 pm local time and constantly check their emails between these hours but are
not available outside these hours. All her staff have an international time chart displayed at their
place of work.

At 12 noon in London it is:

At 3 pm in London she sends an urgent email to all her senior managers at her regional
headquarters.

What is the longest possible interval between the first and last of her senior managers reading
the email?

A 9 hours

B 14 hours

C 17 hours

D 16 hours

E 7 hours

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 4 / 44


4 I recently received a publications list and order form. I want to order seven items from the list.
However, I noticed that the structure of the postage and packaging charges was very strange,
as shown in the table below:

I have decided that I will ask them to pack my order in the number of parcels that will have the
lowest postal charge.

What is the lowest postal charge for my seven items?

A £1.90

B £2.45

C £3.30

D £2.35

E £2.25

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 5 / 44


5 Alex’s bedroom is rectangular. If you stand at the doorway looking into the room, there is a
square wardrobe on your right hand side in the corner. The bed is on the same side of the
room as the wardrobe and is over half the length of the room. There is a desk along the other
wall.

Which one of these aerial views is the view of Alex’s bedroom?

A B

C D

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 6 / 44


6 The diagram below shows how 12 matchsticks can be used to create a grid containing 4
squares, arranged in rows of 2.

I now intend to use matchsticks to create a grid containing 100 squares, arranged in 10 rows of
10.

How many matchsticks do I need?

A 220

B 242

C 300

D 200

E 400

7 E-cigarettes, which provide nicotine without cigarette smoke, have been praised by health
campaigners. Research has suggested that success rates for quitting smoking are higher with
e-cigarettes than with other methods. However, rather than tackling their nicotine addiction,
e-cigarette users have simply replaced one habit with another. It is true that cigarette smoke
contains many hazardous compounds, and also that quitting smoking increases life expectancy
and reduces the risk of many health problems. But nicotine also has its dangers: it has been
associated with a range of conditions that we do not fully understand, and research has yet to
establish the long-term effects of nicotine use outside of cigarette smoke.

Which one of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage?

A Using nicotine patches is an ineffective way to give up smoking.

B Not everyone is able to give up smoking without nicotine replacement.

C Smoking traditional cigarettes still poses a major risk to health.

D E-cigarettes are just as harmful as traditional cigarettes.

E People should not assume e-cigarettes are a safe alternative to traditional cigarettes.

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 7 / 44


8 Though relatively few people know it by name, palm oil is found in over fifty per cent of
processed supermarket goods, from soaps to snacks. This vegetable oil, which is taken from
the fruit of the oil palm tree, causes a great deal of environmental concern. The clearing of
tropical forests to grow oil palm plantations threatens the survival of orangutans and other
endangered species. The land conversion often happens on carbon rich peat soils in a process
which releases significant greenhouse gas emissions. Yet even some environmental
organisations warn that alternative vegetable oil crops may require much larger areas of forest
to be converted to agricultural land.

Which one of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage?

A A ban on palm oil alone would not solve all of the environmental problems associated with
vegetable oil production.

B If farmers stopped clearing tropical forests for oil palm plantations, endangered orangutan
populations would recover.

C The environmental risks associated with oil palm plantations are not well understood in
tropical countries.

D To produce the most profitable crops, oil palm plantations must be grown on carbon rich
peat soils.

E There is no motivation for manufacturers to stop using palm oil in their products.

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 8 / 44


9 The distance from Ardale to Banby is 16 km and from Banby to Carston is a further 8 km in the
same direction.

David leaves Ardale at 11.00 and runs for an hour at 6 km / h. He rests for 20 minutes and then
completes the rest of the distance to Banby at an average speed of 10 km / h. He chats with
some friends in Banby for 20 minutes and then borrows a bicycle from one of them and cycles
to Carston at an average speed of 16 km / h. David leaves Carston at 15.00 and cycles back
over his route, arriving home at 15.50.

Which one of the following correctly shows David’s distance from Ardale as a function of time?

A B

C D

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 9 / 44


10 It is common practice to look online for a loan or a mortgage. This has led to a large number of
‘comparison websites’ where you type in your details and they search a range of companies for
you based on these details. Night after night, there are adverts on television emphasising how
much time and money comparison sites could save you. The experience of one user should
make you consider the wisdom of using such sites. She gave her details to a comparison
website and received no useful results. However, for weeks afterwards she was bombarded
with emails and phone calls from companies she had never heard of.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?

A It assumes using the internet is the only way to get a loan.

B It attacks the website and not what the company does.

C It assumes that comparison websites save customers money.

D It assumes everyone uses comparison websites.

E It draws a conclusion based on one example of how a company operates.

11 Next week the European Parliament will vote on whether to ban trawling, a method of fishing
that involves pulling large fishing nets behind boats. The fishing industry is opposed to a ban and
has argued strongly against it. Trawling is not as damaging to ecosystems as environmentalists
claim. Trawling the seabed doesn’t always create ‘dead zones’ in the ocean. It can boost fish
numbers, since the species that are more resistant to the effects of trawling can proliferate. So
trawling on flat sandy beds in shallow areas can benefit marine life.

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument?

A Trawling creates new habitats by making parts of the sea more habitable.

B Trawling in deep waters is expensive and an ineffective use of fishing resources.

C Trawling in shallow waters can damage the bottom of fishermen’s boats.

D Trawling in shallow waters can alter the ecology in beneficial ways.

E Trawling nets have a destructive impact on many endangered species.

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 10 / 44


12 The recently-appointed captain of the national football team has been publicly accused of
adultery with several women, including the girlfriend of a former teammate. The newspapers
have made a great deal of his extramarital activities and it has become a scandal. His behaviour
has led him to be the subject of crude jokes. He has now been suspended from his duties. It is
right that he has been removed from his position so that the team can start to pull together and
have the best possible chance of winning the World Cup.

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?

A The new captain’s actions have weakened team morale.

B This new captain should not have been appointed.

C If the new captain is fired, the national team will win the World Cup.

D The national team will not win the World Cup.

E Newspapers have the right to report on people’s personal lives.

13 Luke walks his puppy to a nearby park and lets the puppy off the lead.

As Luke starts walking along the path, the puppy runs on ahead, until it has gone 100 metres.
The puppy then turns and runs back to Luke, who in that time has walked 50 metres. The puppy
then goes on ahead again, turns after running 100 metres and runs back to Luke who has now
walked another 50 metres.

This routine continues until Luke has walked 1 km.

If it takes 12 minutes for Luke to walk 1 km in the park, what is the puppy’s average running
speed during the same time?

A 12 km / h

B 5 km / h

C 10 km / h

D 14 km / h

E 15 km / h

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 11 / 44


14 Over the last ten years there has been a huge increase in the number of television programmes
involving the work of forensic scientists. This media attention has been matched by a massive
increase in the number of courses and qualifications available in this field. Although this new
attention has led to greater public awareness, it has not led to the creation of more jobs in this
field. The work of forensics professionals has continued unchanged. Therefore, those who
choose to study these courses will find that there is fierce competition for difficult and
unpleasant work.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?

A Each year around 1500 graduates in forensic science compete for 200 jobs in the sector.

B Many students of forensic science go on to pursue careers in other areas.

C New technologies have brought about a decrease in the number of forensics staff
required in laboratories.

D The number of university courses in forensic science has grown at an unprecedented


rate.

E Salaries for forensic scientists compare well with those in other scientific fields.

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 12 / 44


15 The table below shows calories burned depending on a person’s weight:

Five friends choose the following exercise routine:

Which one of the five friends burns the most calories?

A Holly

B Paul

C Harry

D Jessie

E Josie

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 13 / 44


16 Many banks encourage their customers to buy insurance against credit card fraud and other
kinds of ‘identity theft’. But the banks are really protecting themselves. Customers who are
victims of credit card fraud suffer inconvenience but they are unlikely to lose money: the costs
of any fraudulent transactions are met by the bank. It is therefore unnecessary for customers to
spend money on additional insurance services.

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?

A Customers whose identities have been stolen would have benefited from the banks’
additional insurance services.

B Additional insurance services are widely available for credit card customers.

C The banks’ additional insurance services protect only against the costs of fraudulent
credit card transactions.

D People who are worried about identity theft worry only about their credit cards.

E Credit card fraud is a less serious problem than many people believe.

17 Car drivers understandably become very annoyed at high sales taxes on fuel. In the interests of
fairness, money raised from fuel taxes should be spent on maintaining roads or even on
subsidising public transport. In fact much of it is put to other uses, such as providing healthcare
or improving national defence.

Which one of the following is an application of the principle underlying the above argument?

A Money raised by taxing fuel should be spent on improving roads rather than on public
transport.

B Better transport is more important than national defence.

C Maintaining roads should be a higher priority than spending on healthcare.

D Profits from sporting events should be spent on encouraging people to participate in


sport.

E There should be no sales taxes on consumer goods.

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18 Many children from poor backgrounds would benefit from wearing spectacles but do not have
them. Sometimes parents are not aware of their children’s poor eyesight, but most often they
suffer from financial constraints. The government should provide free glasses to poor children
with eyesight problems. A recent study of underprivileged students with poor vision
demonstrated that those who were given free glasses enjoyed an improvement in test scores
equivalent to almost a year of additional schooling. Using the most conservative estimate of the
impact of schooling on salary, this would significantly increase an average school-leaver’s
annual income and tax contributions, and by far more than the cost of a pair of glasses.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

A Exam marking should take into account any disabilities the student might have.

B Parents should be educated about potential eyesight problems in children.

C Children from poor backgrounds with bad eyesight should be given additional schooling.

D The government should help financially with the provision of children’s glasses.

E People’s salaries should reflect whether or not they had eyesight problems during school.

19 Widespread underage drinking in certain countries prompted their governments to place


restrictions on selling alcohol to young people. The aim was to protect young people’s health,
but the result was not as intended. Soon after the restrictions were in place, hospitals saw
several cases of young people becoming ill as a result of drinking alcohol-based liquids such as
medical spirits, ethanol solutions and perfumes. The young people claimed that the restriction
on legal alcohol was the main reason they were drinking other substances. If the restrictions
were abolished, the health risk would be reduced.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?

A It assumes that restrictions encourage young people to drink alcohol.

B It ignores the role of education in encouraging young people to drink alcohol responsibly.

C It ignores the problem of people drinking dangerous substances because they cannot
afford to buy alcohol legally.

D It does not take into account the social and cultural importance of drinking alcohol.

E It ignores the fact that if there had been no restrictions more young people would have
suffered from drinking alcohol.

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20 I leave Victoria at 8:07 and arrive at Three Bridges at 8:41. I need to catch a train from Three
Bridges at 8:45 to either Arundel or Chichester. I want to spend at least four hours in Chichester
and four hours in Arundel. I have no preference in which order I will visit the towns. I then need to
return to Victoria.

The tables below show extracts from the train timetables:

What is the earliest possible time I can arrive back at Victoria?

A 19:18

B 20:20

C 19:47

D 19:15

E 18:47

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21 Which one of the following introduced the metaphor of the ‘invisible hand’ in relation to a free
trade economy?

A David Ricardo

B Thomas Robert Malthus

C Karl Marx

D Vilfredo Pareto

E Adam Smith

22 Which one of the following theories was publicly announced to the Prussian Academy of
Science on 25th November 1915?

A String theory

B Quantum theory

C The Big Bang theory

D Dalton’s atomic theory

E Einstein’s general theory of relativity

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 17 / 44


Biology

23 Which of the following occurs in a healthy human testis cell before it undergoes meiosis?

1. DNA content of the nucleus doubles

2. spindle fibres form the spindle

3. crossing over

A 1, 2 and 3

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 and 2 only

D 1 only

E 1 and 3 only

24 Which of the following components of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) contain peptide
bonds?

1. capsid

2. envelope

3. reverse transcriptase

A 2 and 3 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 1, 2 and 3

D 3 only

E 1 and 3 only

02MI70800 © UCLES 2017 Page 18 / 44


25 The pathway shows some of the cells produced during oogenesis in the ovary of a healthy
human female.

Which of the following cells in the pathway are diploid?

1. germinal epithelial cells in the ovary

2. oogonia

3. primary oocyte

4. secondary oocyte

A 1, 2 and 3 only

B 1 only

C 4 only

D 1, 2, 3 and 4

E 2, 3 and 4 only

26 Which of the following statements is/are correct for all enzyme inhibitors?

1. They alter the shape of the active site.

2. They denature the enzyme.

3. They increase the activation energy of the reaction.

4. They reduce the rate of the enzyme catalysed reaction.

A 4 only

B 3 only

C 1, 2 and 3 only

D 1, 2 and 4 only

E 2 and 4 only

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27 Which one of the following statements about unmutated nucleic acids is correct?

A rRNA has anticodons which bind to tRNA.

B Prokaryotic DNA is a single strand which forms a loop.

C tRNA is made up of one phosphate-sugar backbone and may have adenosine and
thymine bases.

D mRNA is made up of a single nucleotide with a codon of uracil, cytosine and guanine
bases.

E Bases in DNA may form hydrogen bonds with uracil bases.

28 Which of the following statements is/are correct in a healthy human?

1. During inspiration, the pressure within the chest cavity is lower than outside the body.

2. During ventricular systole, the pressure in the atrium is lower than in the ventricles.

3. During ventricular systole, the pressure in the aorta is lower than the pressure in the
atrium.

A 1 only

B 3 only

C 2 and 3 only

D 2 only

E 1 and 2 only

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29 Which of the following could be a consequence of a reduction in pituitary function in an
otherwise healthy human?

1. more urine produced in a male or female

2. infertility in a female

3. infertility in a male

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 2 only

D 1, 2 and 3

E 1 and 3 only

30 The following structures are found in plant cells:

1. cell wall

2. cell membrane

3. nucleolus

4. mitochondrion

Which cell structures might contain molecules containing carbohydrate monomers?

A 1 only

B 1 and 4 only

C 2 and 3 only

D 1, 2, 3 and 4

E 4 only

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31 Two adjacent healthy human cells, X and Y, contain the two molecules Q and R.

The concentration of molecule Q in cell X is 4 arbitrary units (a.u.) and in cell Y it is 6 a.u.

The concentration of molecule R in both cell X and cell Y is 7 a.u.

Which of the following statements about the net movement of ONLY molecules Q and R
between cells X and Y could be correct?

1. Molecules of Q move by facilitated diffusion from cell X.

2. Molecules of Q move by active transport into cell Y.

3. Molecules of R move into and out of both cell X and cell Y.

A 2 and 3 only

B 2 only

C 1 only

D 1, 2 and 3

E 1 and 3 only

32 A person was admitted to hospital suffering from a loss of memory.

Which part of the central nervous system is most likely to have been affected?

A cerebellum

B spinal cord

C medulla

D cerebrum

E hypothalamus

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33 Four students, 1, 2, 3 and 4, recorded different structures that they thought were found in a
healthy animal kidney cell and a typical bacterial cell.

Which students gave totally correct answers?

A students 2 and 3 only

B students 1 and 2 only

C students 1, 2, 3 and 4

D students 2 and 4 only

E students 1 and 4 only

34 A short section of the DNA strand that codes for a protein has the sequence:

CAT TGG GCA TCG

Which of the following statements about this section of the sequence is/are correct?

1. There are a total of 29 hydrogen bonds between this section of DNA and its
complementary strand.

2. There are 12 phosphodiester bonds present within this section of DNA.

3. The unmutated tRNA molecules used to translate this sequence contain a total of 3 uracil
bases.

A 2 and 3 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 2 only

E 3 only

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35 A mother and a father, neither of whom has cystic fibrosis, conceive a child who has the
condition.

What is the likelihood that the same parents will have another child who is a boy without cystic
fibrosis?

A 1 in 4

B 3 in 4

C 1 in 2

D 3 in 8

E 1 in 8

36 Which of the following molecules is/are directly produced during BOTH glycolysis and pyruvate
decarboxylation in a healthy human cell?

1. ATP

2. carbon dioxide

3. reduced NAD

A 1 and 3 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 only

D 3 only

E 1 and 2 only

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37 Which one of the following most accurately describes the structure of a human haemoglobin
molecule that can bind four oxygen molecules to form oxyhaemoglobin?

A It has a primary, tertiary and quaternary structure only.

B It has a primary, secondary and tertiary structure only.

C It has a primary and secondary structure only.

D It has a primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure.

E It has a primary, secondary and quaternary structure only.

38 Which of the following processes take place during the establishment of a resting potential in
the axon of a healthy human neuron?

1. active transport

2. facilitated diffusion

3. respiration

A 1, 2 and 3

B 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1 and 2 only

E 2 and 3 only

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39 Which one of the following is a correct outline of some main events in photosynthesis in a
healthy wheat plant?

A Carbon dioxide combines with an acceptor compound which breaks into two and each is
reduced by hydrogen split from water by light.

B Light splits water and the resulting hydroxyl group combines with a compound which has
reacted with carbon dioxide.

C In the presence of light, oxygen reacts with a carbohydrate to produce water and carbon
dioxide.

D Light splits carbon dioxide and the resulting carbon then combines with oxygen and
hydrogen obtained from water.

E Light joins carbon dioxide to an acceptor compound which is then reduced by hydrogen
obtained from water.

40 Which combinations of DNA could be present in a transgenic organism?

1. invertebrate animal DNA in mammal DNA

2. prokaryotic DNA in plant DNA

3. plant DNA in animal DNA

A 1, 2 and 3

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1 and 2 only

E 2 only

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Chemistry

41 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the type of mixture and the most
appropriate method used to separate the specified component from the mixture?

A salt from salt solution – homogeneous; paper filtration

B water from salt solution – heterogeneous; simple distillation

C chlorophyll from a solution of different plant pigments – homogeneous; chromatography

D red blood cells from blood – homogeneous; centrifuge

E gasoline/petrol from crude oil – heterogeneous; simple distillation

42 Which one of the following options gives the correct electron structure of the particle ?

A 1s22s22p63s23p4

B 1s22s22p4

C 1s22s22p2

D 1s22s22p63s23p6

E 1s22s22p6

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43 In which one of the following reactions is the underlined species acting as an oxidising agent?

44 A solution of hydrochloric acid has a concentration of 1.0 mol / L. If 10 mL of this acid is added to
water and made up to a total volume of 1.0 L, what is the pH of the resulting solution?

A 9

B 2

C 5

D 6

E 0

45 Which one of the following samples of gases contains the most particles?

All gases are at 0 °C and 1 atm pressure, when 1 mole of gas has a volume of 22.4 L.

[Relative atomic mass, Ar: H = 1, He = 4, C = 12, O = 16, Cl = 35.5]

A 33.6 L of chlorine gas

B 66.0 g of carbon dioxide gas

C 22.4 L of hydrogen gas

D 10.0 g of helium gas

E 64.0 g of oxygen gas

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46 In an experiment involving the reaction shown below, 150 cm3 of F2 reacts with 100 cm3 of Cl 2.

3F2(g) + Cl 2(g) → 2Cl F3(g)

On completion of the reaction, what is the final gaseous volume at the same temperature and
pressure?

A 250 cm3

B 100 cm3

C 350 cm3

D 200 cm3

E 150 cm3

47 Which one of the following molecules is a structural isomer of methylcyclopentane?

A hexane

B cyclohexene

C hex-2-ene

D 2,2-dimethylbutane

E 2-methylpentane

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48 Consider the following list of particles:

1. molecules

2. ions

3. single atoms

Which one of the following options correctly describes the particles that are present in an
aqueous solution of sodium chloride?

A 1 and 2 only

B 1, 2 and 3

C 3 only

D 1 only

E 2 only

49 The solubility of potassium nitrate in water increases with temperature.

A saturated solution of potassium nitrate at 80 °C is cooled to 25 °C in a closed container.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The mass of undissolved potassium nitrate will increase.

2. The concentration of the potassium nitrate solution remains the same.

3. The total mass of solvent present remains the same.

A 2 and 3 only

B 1 and 3 only

C 1 only

D 2 only

E 1, 2 and 3

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50 Element X is a grey solid.

It combines with chlorine to form a polar molecule with the formula XCl . In this compound,
element X has an oxidation state of +1.

In potassium iodide solution, it dissolves to form a coloured solution.

At 500 °C, it becomes a coloured vapour.

What is the identity of element X?

A manganese

B fluorine

C iodine

D carbon

E lithium

51 Which option correctly describes the following features of a silane (silicon tetrahydride)
molecule?

number of bonding pairs (bp) of electrons

number of lone/non-bonding pairs (lp) in the valence shell of the silicon atom

bond angle

[Atomic number: Si = 14; H = 1]

A 3 bp; 1 lp; 107°

B 3 bp; 1 lp; 109.5°

C 4 bp; 0 lp; 109.5°

D 4 bp; 2 lp; 90°

E 4 bp; 0 lp; 90°

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52 Which one of the following statements about the four atoms/ions below is correct?

A and have exactly the same number of protons and electrons but not neutrons.

B Out of the four atoms/ions, only has two more electrons than .

C has the same number of electrons but four fewer neutrons than .

D has twice the number of neutrons that has but only four more than .

E Both and each have an equal number of protons, neutrons and electrons.

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Physics and Mathematics

53 A car starts at point X. It travels 3.0 km due east, then 4.0 km due south, then
6.0 km due west and finally 8.0 km due north.

How far away is the car from point X when it has reached the end of this journey?

[Assume that all distances moved are on a flat horizontal surface, and that point X is on the
equator. You may ignore any curvature of the Earth.]

A 5.0 km

B 21.0 km

C 10.0 km

D 7.0 km

E 2.0 km

54 A resistor has a resistance of 5.0 Ω. There is a direct current of 10 A in the resistor.

What is the power dissipated by the resistor?

A 50 W

B 2500 W

C 20 W

D 250 W

E 500 W

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55 Which one of the following is an expression for the mean of , , and ?

56 What is the gradient of the straight line passing through the points with coordinates
(2, –3) and (–1, 6) ?

A –1

B – 9

C – 3

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57 Given that

log107 = x

log102 = y

log103 = z

What is log10 expressed in terms of x, y, and z ?

A xy – z

C x+y–z

D xy + z

58 A solid wooden cube has sides of length a. The density of the wood is ρ.

The cube is completely immersed in a beaker of oil, which has a density σ. The top surface of
the cube is horizontal. The gravitational field strength is g.

What is the upward force (upthrust) on the cube due to the oil?

[Assume that no oil is absorbed by the wood.]

A (σ – ρ)a3g

B ρa3g

C σa3

D σa3g

E ρa3

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59 A fixed mass of an ideal gas undergoes a change in which it is supplied with 3500 J of thermal
energy. At the same time this gas does 3500 J of work on its surroundings.

Which type of change does the gas undergo during this time?

A adiabatic

B isothermal

C isochoric

D isomeric

E isobaric

60 How many ways are there to order the letters ‘AABBC’? (For example, ‘ACABB’ and
‘AABBC’ are two ways.)

A 5

B 120

C 60

D 116

E 30

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