You are on page 1of 25

DPKP

BIDANG KEAHLIAN TEKNIKA


(ATT-II) TINGKAT
MANAJEMEN

1
DPKP

9. Mengendalikan trim, stabilitas dan tegangan (Control trim, stability


and stress)
1. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of a ship,
what will quarter the acceleration forces acting on it?
a. Doubling the roll period
b. Doubling the pitch period
c. Halving the roll period
d. Halving the pitch period
2. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling?
a. By the constant change of underwater hull geometry as waves travel past the
ship
b. By the virtual loss of GM
c. By the development of a negative GM
d. By an increase in the angle of pitch
3. What does heaving result in?
a. Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
b. Shearing of container twistlocks
c. Longitudinal accelerations acting on hatch pontoons
d. Tipping of containers
4. What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction?
a. Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
b. Failure without warning
c. Low elasticity
d. Diminished cargo carrying capacity
5. What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder?
a. The number of repeated stress cycles
b. Repeated plastic deformation of the hull
c. Panting stresses
d. Resonant rolling
6. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in calculating rolling
forces?

2
DPKP

a. 24 - 30 degrees
b. 37 - 42 degrees
c. 30 - 36 degrees
d. 18 - 24 degrees
7. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?
a. When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the
ship
b. When twice the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of
the ship
c. When wave heights experienced from either quarter exceed 6 meters
d. When wave heights experienced from the bows exceed 6 meters
8. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values?
a. When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch
b. When a ship is at its extreme angle of pitch and roll simultaneously
c. When a ship surges
d. During resonant rolling
9. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship?
a. When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the wind direction
b. Whenever wind speeds exceed 60 knots
c. Whenever wind speeds exceed 70 knots
d. When on-deck containers are block-stowed
10. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel?
a. Because pitching varies with ship’s length
b. Because very large container vessels are more exposed to open sea conditions
c. Because vessel pitching varies with propeller pitch
d. Because container stacks on large container vessels are more exposed to wind
forces

3
DPKP

11. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMO
stability criteria cannot be achieved; the vessel should do which of the following?
a. The grain surfaces in some or all of
the cargo spaces must be secured
b. The cargo can still be loaded
c. An exemption certificate must be
applied for
d. An exemption certificate must be
applied for
12. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what are the
major concerns of the changes in stability?
a. Reduction of metacentric height (GM) and
loss of freeboard forward
b. Excessive trim by the stern
c. Increase in metacentric height (GM)
d. Reduction of speed and additional fuel
consumption

13. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in an upper ballast
tank amidships of a Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do?
a. Inform Designated Person Ashore
(DPA) and call in Classification
Society
b. Note the dimensions of the crack and
measure regularly
c. Proceed on ballast voyage without
ballast in this tank
d. Repair with cement box or
temporary welded patch until next drydock
14. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 and carrying
cargo of density 1010 kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to withstand
flooding?
a. Any cargo hold

4
DPKP

b. The foremost cargo hold


c. The aftermost cargo hold
d. The midships cargo hold
15. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 180m in length constructed in 2001 and carrying
cargo of density 1,780 kg/m3, or above, which cargo hold is strengthened to
withstand flooding?
a. The foremost cargo hold
b. The aftermost cargo hold
c. The midships cargo hold
d. The ballast hold
16. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which of the
following parts of the vessel?
a. Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks
amidships
b. In number 1 and number 2 holds
c. In after peak area
d. On bottom plating in the after part of the vessel
17. On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of transverse frame
beam knees are slightly distorted; what is the significance of this?
a. This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and is
potentially serious
b. There are no concerns with this observation
c. This is an indication of excessive bending moment stress
d. The distorted areas should be painted
18. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds when chartered to carry a high density
cargo. What reasons could be given by the master to refuse to do this?
a. IMO do not recommend alternate loading of
cargo holds with high density cargoes.
b. The trim of the vessel will not be satisfactory.
c. Cargo space cleaning after discharge will be
excessive.
d. The summer deadweight will not be achieved.

5
DPKP

19. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high density cargo resulting in a large
metacentric height (GM)?
a. Have a fast roll period and possibly
suffer racking stresses
b. Have a slow roll and large righting
levers
c. Have a slow roll and very small righting
levers
d. Suffer torsional stresses and have small
righting levers
20. What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a cargo hold
which can also be used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier?
a. The ballast hold hatch cover must be fitted
with additional securing devices
b. There is no differences in design
c. This hold does not have ventilators
d. The coamings are much lower on the
ballast hold
21. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft
a. The minimum bow height must be maintained
b. The vessel is trimmed by the stern on completion,
c. The vessel is trimmed by the head on completion
d. the vessel should have a stern trim of 2.0 metres by stern.
22. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found during a loaded passage on a bulk
carrier indicate?
a. That shear forces have been exceeded
b. That the vessel is due for survey
c. That failure of the shell plating is
imminent
d. That bulkhead failure is imminent

6
DPKP

23. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers are considered critical?
a. Upper and lower connection of main side
frames
b. Longitudinal deck plating outside hatches
c. The girders
d. Forecastle deck
24. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity for
each cargo compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
a. Vessel stability book
b. Line drawing
c. Capacity Plan
d. Shell expansion
25. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity for
each cargo compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
a. Vessel stability book
b. Line drawing
c. Capacity Plan
d. Shell expansion
26. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe
environmental and safety hazards which require significant preventative measures to
preclude escape of such cargo, usually of double-hull construction, with a variety of
tank sizes / capacities is rated as:
a. A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code.
b. A type I chemical tanker as per the IBC Code.
c. A parcel chemical tanker as per the IACS Construction Regulations.
d. A chemical tanker for the purposes of the 1996 IMO directive MEPC/2.12
circ. on Mandatory Reporting Requirements for Ships Carrying Dangerous or
Polluting Goods.
27. A cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located between cargo tanks containing
cargoes or cargo residues which might react with each other in a hazardous manner,
are all acceptable methods of segregation in chemical tanker stowage according to
the IBC Code. For this purpose, it may also be acceptable to have:

7
DPKP

a. An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible cargo or cargo


residues.
b. A common bulkhead, provided it is at least 10 mm thick.
c. A common bulkhead, provided it overlaps for less than 15% of the length of
the bulkhead on the larger tank.
d. A cruciform joint, separating two tanks diagonally.
28. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the loading and stability information
booklet, which must be supplied to the master of a chemical tanker, shall include:
a. Details of typical service and ballast conditions, provisions for evaluating
other conditions of loading and a summary of the ship's survival capabilities,
together with sufficient information to enable the master to load and operate
the ship in a safe and seaworthy manner.
b. Summary details of light ship and fully loaded conditions and of a
representative part-loaded condition, with examples of calculations of typical
pre-departure stability conditions and an example of a damage stability
calculation to enable the master to determine survival capability in the event
of an emergency involving a breach of the hull.
c. Certificates confirming the testing and calibration of tank gauging equipment,
the ship's stability computer program and the accuracy of draft and loadline
marks.
d. Details of service and ballast conditions for loading based on the range of
products which a vessel is certified to carry, incorporating the maximum
permissible DWT, the maximum permissible SG of any product, the
maximum permissible trim and any structural constraints that will impact a
loading condition.
29. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a chemical tanker is defined as:
a. One which is not contiguous with, or part of the hull structure.
b. One which forms part of the ship's hull and structure and which is normally
essential to the structural completeness of the ship's hull.
c. One which is not subject to the requirements of the IBC Code in respect of
the loading and carriage of hazardous liquid cargoes.
d. One which can be loaded with hazardous liquid chemicals that can not be
carried in integral cargo tanks.

8
DPKP

30. Not counting actual capacity or structural and cargo specific limitations, the IBC
Code states that for a single tank on a type 3 chemical tanker:
a. There is no applicable filling restriction.
b. A restriction of 1250 cubic metres shall apply.
c. A restriction of 3000 cubic metres shall apply.
d. A restriction of 1750 cubic metres shall apply.
31. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and
IBC Code, it has become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:
a. Double hull tankers.
b. Integral cargo tanks only.
c. Tanks fitted with heating coils or in-line heat exchangers only.
d. IMO type II chemical tankers only.
32. The design pressure for a cargo compartment on a chemical tanker to meet the
definition and requirements of a “pressure tank” must be:
a. Greater than 0.7 bar gauge.
b. Less than 0.7 bar gauge.
c. At least 1.0 bar gauge.
d. At least 2.1 bar gauge.
33. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 1
chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is:
a. 1250 cubic metres.
b. 3000 cubic metres.
c. 750 cubic metres.
d. 2400 cubic metres.
34. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2
chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is:
The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2
chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is:
a. 3000 cubic metres
b. 2400 cubic metres
c. 3400 cubic metres
d. 2750 cubic metres
35. The minimum permissible distance measured horizontally between the ship's shell
plating and the outer side bulkhead of the first cargo compartment on a type II
chemical tanker is:

9
DPKP

a. Not less than 760 mm.


b. Not less than moulded breadth / 15.
c. Not less than moulded breadth / 5.
d. Not less than 1250 mm.
36. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of deck
cargo alongside the jetty. You should immediately:
a. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small
ballast tank on low side of vessel.
b. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights
within vessel and fill small ballast tank on high
side of vessel.
c. Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lower
weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank
on high side of vessel.
d. Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lower
weights within vessel and empty small ballast tank on low side of vessel.
37. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy when:
a. The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are weather tight.
b. All her certificates are in order.
c. The vessel's Safety Construction Certificate is valid.
d. The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are watertight.
38. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks. Upon completion of loading,
the final level of the water would be at:
a. The top of the summer load line mark.
b. The bottom of the summer load line mark.
c. The top of the winter mark.
d. The mid point between the summer and the tropical mark.
39. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have:
a. A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ
Levers).
b. A fast roll period and small righting levers (GZ
Levers).
c. A long roll period and large righting levers.
d. A long roll period and small righting levers (GZ Levers).
40. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be ensured
that:

10
DPKP

a. There are minimum free surface moments in


tanks.
b. All double-bottom tanks are empty.
c. The vessel has a small metacentric height( GM).
d. The vessel is listed to the side to which the load is
to be lifted.
41. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vessel when it is
carrying timber deck cargoes is:
a. The International Tonnage Convention.
b. SOLAS 74/78.
c. The International Convention on Load lines.
d. MARPOL 73/78.
42. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angle of Heel
formula at?
a. Larger angles of heel.
b. 5 degrees angle of Heel.
c. Small angles of heel.
d. ess than 5 degrees angle of heel to the side of
the heavy load.
43. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General Cargo Vessel can be
denoted by the formula:
a. KM - KG x Sin angle of heel.
b. KN - Corrected KG x Sin angle of heel.
c. KN - KG x Sin angle of list.
d. KM - Corrected KG x Sin angle of list.
44. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positive stability can be
maintained by:
a. Completely filling the ship's double
bottom tanks and continuously
monitoring the loading operation.
b. Completely filling those double
bottom tanks below the cargo hold
where heavy cargo is being loaded.

11
DPKP

c. Monitoring the vessel's stability during the loading operation and not
allowing the vessel to list on the side of the load.
d. Listing the vessel to the opposite side to which the load is being lifted.
45. Which type of material is normally used in the construction of a cargo tank designed
for transporting LPG at atmospheric pressure?
a. Carbon-Manganese steel.
b. 9% Nickel steel.
c. Stainless steel.
d. Aluminium.
46. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck scantlings
must be maintained within "x" length amidships, where "x" is:
a. 0.4 Length
b. Half Length
c. 0.6 of the Length
d. Quarter of the Length
47. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the minimum draft amidships for crude
tankers in ballast condition is:
a. 2.0 + 0.02L
b. 2.0 + 0.002L
c. 2.0 + 0.15.l
d. 2.0 + 0.0015L
48. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 1
February 2002 shall comply with intact stability whereby it must have a minimum
GM (metacentric height) in port of:
a. Not less than 0.15 m
b. Not less than 0.015 m
c. Not less than 0.25 m
d. Not less than 0.10 m

12
DPKP

49. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oil tanker are:
a. Increased free surface effect and
reduced transverse metacentric
height.
b. Increased longitudinal bending
moments and transverse metacentric
height.
c. Increased likelihood of the vessel
suddenly developing severe trim
and list.
d. Potential hazards relating to damage to internal structure and pipelines.
50. The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with segregated ballast tanks is:
a. The draught for which the structural
strength of the ship has been designed
b. The maximum draught determined by the
Loadline Rules
c. The minimum draught amidships when in
ballast condition
d. The draught on which the fundamental
design parameters are based
51. What is the purpose of girders in the tank?
a. They support the stiffeners and also
take up some of the sea forces
b. They transfer all the sea forces
acting on the plating
c. They transfer all the cargo forces
acting on the plating
d. They support the stiffeners

52. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?

13
DPKP

a. Boundaries of the watertight


compartments for decks and holds.
Position of controls for opening and
closing of watertight compartments.
Arrangement for correction of list
due to flooding.
b. Arrangements for correction of list
due to flooding within 15 minutes
c. Instructions and procedures for reporting damage to the Company
d. A damage control plan is the same as an emergency plan
53. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical
flooding in damaged condition?
a. Cross flooding arrangement
b. Ballast trimming system
c. Separate trim tanks
d. Self acting ballast trimming arrangement
54. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of
passenger ships?
a. The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
b. SOLAS
c. International Safety Management code
d. ISPS
55. What is the result of a large metacentric height?
a. The ship will roll violently.
b. The ship will have a long roll period.
c. Bending moment will increase.
d. The center of gravity will move upwards.
56. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to make passenger
ships able to withstand critical damage?
a. Maintain sufficient intact stability
b. Damaged stability to be increased by use of water ballast
c. Avoid overloading the ship
d. Damaged stability to be increased by weight redistribution.

14
DPKP

57. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive


heel angels in damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the
maximum angle of heel after flooding but before equalization?
a. 15 degrees
b. 10 degrees
c. 20 degrees
d. 30 degrees
58. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strenght?
a. The Master
b. The Shipping Company and the Classification Society
c. The Flag State Administration
d. The Shipyard
59. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo compartment of a reefer vessel
is a principal design aim of a Naval Architect. Which of the options given represents
the optimum cargo space shape?
a. A square space as would be found in
a midships lower deck.
b. A narrow tapered space as would be
found in a forward lower deck.
c. A flared space that would be found
in a forward upper deck.
60. A long oblong space as would be found in an after upper deck. Conventional reefer
vessels are usually designed with fine lines and large flared bows. Consequently, in
adverse weather conditions, especially from forward of the beam, the navigating
officers need to be mainly aware of which of the given options?
a. This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which may result in
structural damage.
b. That the main engine governor may not be effective when the vessel pitches
heavily.
c. That the bow is ideal for keeping the forward decks dry and clear of water.
d. That the vessel design means that high speeds can be maintained and the
perishable cargo can be delivered in good condition.

15
DPKP

61. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed with a 'porthole system' for supplying
refrigerated air via ducting to containers. Modern vessels are designed to supply only
electrical power to integral containers. Select the main reason for this change in
design to the vessels and containers from the
options given.
a. The 'porthole' system design was
extremely complex and construction costs
were high.
b. Ducted containers had to be transhipped to their final destination after
discharge and still required refrigeration for that part of the supply chain
c. A large amount of refrigerant gas was required to operate the 'porthole'
system.
d. The introduction of more powerful diesel engines onto these vessels meant
they had sufficient electrical capacity to supply the integral type containers.
62. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade usually had two or three tween
decks approximately 2 to 2.5 metres in height and deep lower holds approximately 4
to 5 metres deep. Modern designs usually incorporate more decks each
approximately 2.3 metres in height. What is the main reason for this fundamental
design change?
a. There is an almost universal use of standard
height pallets.
b. The increased proportion of chilled as
opposed to frozen cargoes that are carried.
c. The increased number of container vessels has reduced the tendency to carry
general cargo outbound from Europe or North America to Australia and New
Zealand on reefer vessels.
d. It is easier to construct vessels with shallow decks.
63. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced?
a. By the cubic foot capacity.
b. By the pallet capacity.
c. By the grain capacity.
d. By the Suez Canal tonnage.

16
DPKP

64. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse meat carcasses are stowed hanging
from deckhead rails in refrigerated locker spaces. What position should the centre of
gravity be assumed to be at when carrying out the stability calculations for a vessel
with such a stow?
a. At the deckhead of the lockers.
b. At the mid-height of the hanging carcasses.
c. At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability handbook.
d. At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability handbook with
an arbitrary adjustment to take account of the centre of mass of the hanging
carcasses.
65. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following statement.
"Reefer vessels, loaded with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a small GM
due to the fact that…
a. …they are designed with fine lines and the
biggest cargo spaces are at the top of the
holds."
b. …they are designed with small fuel
tanks."
c. …they are designed that way to produce a
gentle rolling motion."
d. …they usually have large deck cranes."
66. Two conventional reefer vessels are being considered for a charter that involves the
transhipment at sea, or at anchor, of a cargo of frozen squid, as weather permits. Both
vessels have 4 holds, vessel A has high speed, 10 tonne deck cranes and vessel B has
5 tonne, union purchase derricks. Which of the vessels, if any, would be best suited
to this type of operation?
a. Vessel B would be more suitable as the derricks will give more control of the
operation at sea or at anchor.
b. Vessel A would be more suitable as the high speed cranes would allow the
operation to be completed more quickly.
c. Neither vessel would be suitable as none of the cargo handling equipment
fitted could be used at sea or at anchor.
d. Vessel A would be more suitable as the greater lift capacity of the cranes
would allow bigger pallets to be transhipped.

17
DPKP

67. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over other ship types
regarding seaworthiness?
a. They can roll to very large angles
without taking in water
b. They are not easily damaged in
heavy weather
c. Their large reserve buoyancy
prevents capsizing
d. They can pitch to very large angles
without taking in water viathe ramp
doors

68. On a RoRo vessel, in addition to longitudinal, transverse and vertical accelerations


what else must be taken into account when calculating the external forces acting on
a cargo unit?
a. Longitudinal and transverse forces by wind pressure
b. Longitudinal and vertical forces by wind pressure
c. Vertical and transverse forces by wind pressure
d. Longitudinal forces by sea sloshing
69. What special design feature is attributed to RoRo vessels which are only car carriers?
a. A very large windage area
b. A stern ramp
c. Solid ballast
d. A small GM when fully loaded
70. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily?
a. When wave lengths are equal to the ship's length
b. When wave lengths are equal to twice the ship's length
c. When wave lengths are equal to half the ship's length
d. In confused seas

18
DPKP

71. Why are pure RoRo car carriers considered as being high risk design vessels where
their stability is concerned.
a. Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress
of water or ballast operations are not handled
correctly
b. Because they have few internal bulkheads
c. Because they have few internal bulkheads
d. Because of the relatively small clearance between waterline and stern ramp
sill when fully loaded
72. Why is it important in a RoRo vessel to ensure that cargo is loaded in a uniform way
a. To prevent high sheer forces and bending
moments on the vessel during the loading /
discharge operations
b. because it looks better and image is important
c. because it looks better and image is important
d. because it makes it harder to lash the cargo correctly if you don't
73. What is the result of a "high metacentric height"?
a. The vessel will roll violently?
b. The vessel will have a great bending moment?
c. The vessel will roll slowly or be unstable?
d. The vessel's tweendeck heights is too high?

74. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged?


a. It is unchanged
b. It first rises then lowers
c. It lowers
d. It rises
75. What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in plating on forecastle deck and main
deck in way of pillars inside forecastle?
a. Pressure forces caused by green water on deck
b. Slamming in way of flat bottom forward of light
draught
c. Impact pressure forces in way of abrupt or flared
bow
d. Forces created by waves on the forecastle

19
DPKP

76. Which of the following requirements regarding on board stability data corresponds
to present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.1)
a. A calculation example showing the use of
"KG" limitation curves.
b. Drawings and caculations documenting the
stability of the ship, both in intact and all
possible damage condition.
c. A calculation example showing use of "GM" limitation curves.
d. Stability data produced by stability calculation instruments.
77. Which of the following requirements to ships stability for normal operation
corresponds to present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.2)
a. The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate
stability is achieved in all loading condition.
b. Unless otherwise stated in the approved stability
calculation, the total weight of the deck cargo shall
not exceed 50 metric tons.
c. Centre of gravity shall be calculated with accuracy better than 5 percent.
d. In waters with the danger of icing, loading of deck cargo must be approved
by competent authority.
78. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strength?
a. The master.
b. The management company.
c. The classification society.
d. The flag state administration.
79. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such
as iron ore concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced?

20
DPKP

a. The vessel will normally have a


large intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a fast roll period
b. The vessel will normally have a
small intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a slow roll period
c. The vessel will be tender and have a
poor curve of righting levers.
d. The vessel may have a list
80. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk
carriers of 150m or more in length?
a. The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated with
the entered loaded weight distribution
b. The segregation requirements of the cargoes carried.
c. The ultimate strength of main deck plating
d. The permeability of the cargo carried in the cargo holds
81. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
a. At the after end of each cargo hold
b. At the forward end of each cargo hold
c. In cargo hold bilges
d. At the port and starboard midship sections of each cargo hold

82. Which of the following describes the term couple?


a. Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions along the centerline of
the
vessel
b. A point through which all of the upward forces affecting a vessel are considered
to act.
c. Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions and along parallel lines.
d. None of the above.
83. The side to side, bodily motion of a vessel is known as .
a. Yawing
b. Pitching
c. Heaving
d. Swaying

21
DPKP

84. Which motion of the vessel does a ship’s officer most easily control through transverse
stability
stowage?
a. Swaying
b. Rolling
c. Yawing
d. Pitching
85. In the diagram on the right, which of the following represents the righting arm?
a. GM
b. GZ
c. BM
d. ZM
86. In the diagram onthe right, the distance between the points B and M is known as:
a. Metacentric Height
b. Metacentric Radius
c. Height of the Metacenter
d. Buoyancentric Metadistance
87. Which of the following is true of a vessel in a neutral stability condition?
a. G is below M
b. G is aboveM
c. G is at the same height as B
d. G is at the same height as M
88. An inclination of a vessel due to negative stability is known as .
a. Angle of Heal
b. Angle of Loll
c. Angle of List
d. Angle of Doom
89. The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of .
a. Hydrodynamics
b. Flotation
c. Gravity
d. Buoyancy
90. The ratio of the volume of displacement to a block having length, breadth and draft of
the vessel
is known as the vessel’s .
a. Area of the water plane
b. Block coefficient
c. Water plane coefficient
d. Volume ratio
91. Morrish’s Formula is used to determine .
a. Metacentric Height
b. Height of the Center of Buoyancy
c. Height of the Center of Gravity
d. Metacentric Radius

22
DPKP

92. Which of the following best describes the moment of inertia about the longitudinal axis?
a. The measure of a ship’s resistance to heaving.
b. The measure of a ship’s resistance to rolling.
c. The value of the metacentric radius divided by the displacement.
d. The ratio of the area of the water plane to the product of the length and breadth of
the
vessel.
93. At large angles of inclination, the transverse metacenter will .
a. Remain fixed on the transverse centerline.
b. Move below the center of buoyancy.
c. Move off of the transverse centerline.
d. Move down while staying on the transverse centerline.
94. On the attached hydrostatic curves, what is the value of KM when the draft is 18 feet?
a. 9.5 feet
b. 19.5 feet
c. 31.2 feet
d. 26.1 feet
95. Which of the following is true of synchronous rolling?
a. It occurs when the natural rolling of the vessel is the same as the ocean wave
period.
b. It occurs when the natural rolling period of the vessel differs from the ocean wave
period.
c. It occurs when the vessel is rolling in calm waters.
d. It occurs when two vessels have the same natural rolling period.
96. The point at which all vertically downward forces of weight are considered to be
concentrated is
the .
a. Metacenter
b. Center of gravity
c. Center of buoyancy
d. Righting arm
97. When a cargo with a KG above the KG of the vessel is discharged, the vessel’s center of
gravity
will .
a. Move downward
b. Move upward
c. Remain in its original location
d. Move toward the center of gravity of the cargo.
98. One long ton is equivalent to .
a. 2000 pounds
b. 1000 kilograms
c. 2 short tons
d. 2240 pounds

23
DPKP

99. A vessel with a GM of 4 feet is inclined to 10 degrees. What is the value of the righting
arm?
a. 2.3 feet
b. 0.7 feet
c. 1.4 feet
d. 10.6 feet
100. If a vessel is inclined due to an external force, assuming that weight on the vessel remain
fixed,
you would expect .
a. G and B to both move
b. G to move and B to remain fixed.
c. G and B to remain fixed.
d. G to remain fixed and B to move.
101. Which of the following would represent the height of the center of gravity on a vssel?
a. KM + GM
b. KB + BM –KG
c. KM –GM
d. KB + GM
102. The metacentric height of a vessel is the distance from:
a. The keel to the metacenter
b. The enter of buoyancy to the metacenter
c. The center of gravity to the metacenter
d. The center of gravity to the center of buoyancy
103. What measures the stability of a vessel at all angles of inclination?
a. KG
b. The righting moment
c. GM
d. BM
104. The number of long tons necessary to change the mean draft of a vessel 1 inch is known
as the
a. Moment to trim 1 inch
b. Tons per inch immersion
c. Area of the water plane
d. Block coefficient
105. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane. What effect does that have on a vessel’s
stability?
a. The weight acts upon the vessel at it’s actual height above the keel.
b. The weight acts upon the vessel from the position of the base of the crane on the
vessel’s
deck.
c. The weight acts upon the vessel from the head of the crane
d. The weight acts upon the vessel from the spot on the deck directly below the
suspended
weight.

24
DPKP

106. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “stiff ship?”


a. A small GM
b. A long rolling period
c. Neutral stability
d. A large GM

25