ARCHITECTURAL PLANNING

A wide area of parks of undeveloped land surrounding a community. Greenbelt

The process in which a piece of land, referred to as the parent tract, is subdivided into Platting
two or more parcels.
Angles measured clockwise from any meridian, usually north; however, the National Azimuths
Geodetic Survey uses south.
Usually the last stage of the final site development process prior to issuance of building permit. Final Plat
A 20th century problem emanating from rapid urbanization of areas surrounding a city Urban Sprawl
which eats up the remaining adjacent rural open spaces.
A type of planning which emphasizes that the proper role of the planner is not to serve Advocacy Planning
the general public interest but rather to serve the interests of the least fortunate or least
well represented groups in society.
In the Philippines, this type of land use planning emphasizes the proper management of Sustainable Land Use Planning
land resources to ensure that the present generation can benefit from its continued use
without compromising future generations.
This code mandates that all Local Government Units shall prepare their comprehensive Local Government Code, 1991
land use plans and enact them through zoning ordinances. R.A. 7160
Reason for planning. Promote Human Growth
Phrase used to characterize development that meets the needs of the present Sustainable Development
generation without compromising the needs of the future generations.
First Planner and developed the Gridiron. Hippodamus of miletus
A locale with a sizeable agglomeration of people having characteristics of an urban being. City
The main reason why the nomadic existence of early man metamorphosed to village Agricultural Surplus
settlement and later to the birth of cities.
The rough equivalent of the present tenement cities that existed in ancient Rome, which Insula
resulted from the population growth of the city and the congestion that existed in streets.
In urban geography, a concept where urban settlement is confined to the area within the Truebounded City
legal limits of the city and the congestion and virtually all of this area is occupied by urban residents.
A Land Development Decision is also what kind of decision. Traffic.
The orderly arrangement of urban streets and public spaces. City Planning
He conceptualized the 'City Beautiful Movement'. Daniel Burnham
A tool used to control the manner in which raw kind is subdivided and placed on the Subdivision Regulations
marker for residential development.
A profession which falls between planning and architecture. It deals with the large-scale Urban Design
organization and design of the city, with the massing and organization and the space
between them, but not with the design of the individual buildings.
The science of human settlement. Ekistics
By definition, settlement inhabited by man. Human Settlement
Planning for roads, bridges, schools, parking structures, pubic buildings, water supply, Capital Facilities Planning
and waste disposal facilities.
The container of man, which consists of both the natural and man-made or artificial element. Physical Settlement
A spatial organization concept a general view of the pattern of land use in a city Concentric Zone Concept
developed by Ernest W. Burgess. The city is conceived as a series of five concentric
zones with the cores as the central business district and fanning out from which are the
residential and commuter zones.
The remaining space in a lot after deducting the required minimum open spaces. Buildable Area
A habitable room for 1 family only with facilities for living, sleeping, cooking, and eating. Dwelling Unit
This is a type of a retaining wall made of rectangular baskets made of galvanized steel Gabion Wall
wire or pvc coated wire hexagonal mesh which are filled with stones to form a wall.
A very steep slope of rock or clay. Cliff
A piece of grassy land, especially one used for growing hay or as pasture for grazing Meadow
animals; low grassy land near a river or stream.
A long, narrow chain of hills or mountains. Ridge
A long, deep, narrow valley eroded by running water. Ravine
On land, an encumbrance limiting its use, usually imposed for community or mutual protection. Restriction
Of land, a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, which is subject to a Parcel
single ownership, and which is legally recorded as a single piece.
A wall that serves 2 dwelling units, known also as party wall. Common Wall
Niemeyer believed that relating large areas to each other is freedom as in the planned city of___. Brasilia
In architectural terms, it is the relationship of the number of residential structures and Density
people to a given amount of space.
The government arm responsible for the development and implementation of low cost National Shelter Program
housing in the Philippines.
Housing provided for low-income groups generally through government intervention and Social Housing
characterized by substantial subsidies and direct assistance.
A written agreement between parties, but it allows a specific period during which the Option to Buy
buyer can investigate the property and make a decision.
Sometimes called "subscription money", this is a deposit given to the seller to show that Earnest Money
the potential buyer has serious intentions.
A provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by periodic Amortization
charges against the capital account.
Written document to transfer the property to one person to another. Deed
They develop or improve the land as well as construct houses. Developers
Determines the value of the house and also is familiar with trends in the local market and Appraiser
in the industry.
Helps people find a place to live, specializing and matching wants of buyers with the local supply. Real Estate Broker
Are usually large concrete slabs or otherwise panelized units fabricated in a shop and Total System
assembled at the site.
Codes that deal with the use, occupancy, and maintenance of existing buildings. Housing Codes
Designed to regulate land use, to ban industry and commerce from residential areas and Zoning
to separate different types of living units.
Construct three-dimensional volumetric units in a plant on a production line then hauled to the site. Prefabrication Manufacturer
System building is the complete integration of all ___. Subsystems
The improvement of slum, deteriorated, and underutilized areas of a city. Urban Renewal
An area which is within the city limits, or closely linked to it by common use of public Urban Area
utilities and services.
Two major hindrances to the prefabrication industry. Code of Multiplicities and
Tradition
Three general types of structures. Primitive
Vernacular
Grand
A piece of land with an economic use for farming. Productive Use
Lands for well-being like parks, plazas, and of similar nature. Health and General Use
Similarly as the cost of the land, neighborhood character have this effect. Social Implications
Minimum road width in a neighborhood development to ease traffic flow. 6.00 mts.
Which building component receives priority over the location to have the morning sun. Bedrooms
Urban Planning is defined briefly as the guidance of ___. Growth and Change
A lattice structure that serves as a summer house. Gazebo
In landscaping, ground cover is represented by ___. Grass and Plants
The art of arranging buildings and other structures in harmony with the landscape. Site Planning
The study of the dynamic relationship between a community of organisms and its habitat. Ecology
Preparations of an accurate base map for urban planning starts with ___. Accurate Aerial Mosaic
Appraisal of adequacy of a city's water and sewer systems needs of future land uses are Comprehensive Plan
embodied in the ___.
Also called the blood-stream of a city. Transportation System
A form of absence of all the principles and organized development of a community. Urban Blight
The city of Washington conforms to the plan type of ___. Star
An efficient and rapid transport system for automobiles to circulate across urban to urban areas. Freeways
A monument, fixed object or marker used to designate the location of a land boundary on the ground. Landmark
A narrow passageway bordered by trees, fences, or other lateral barrier Lane
The projection of a future pattern of use within an area, as determined by development goals. Land-use Plan
The part of the surface of the earth not permanently covered by water. Land
A line of demarcation between adjoining parcels of land. Land Boundary
A survey of landed property establishing or reestablishing lengths and directions of boundary line. Land Survey
The study of an existing pattern of use, within an area, to determine the nature and Land-use Analysis
magnitude of deficiencies which might exist and to assess the potential of the pattern
relative to development goals.
A study and recording of the way in which land is being used in an area. Land-use Survey
In surveying, the North-South component of a traverse course. Latitude
An open space of ground of some size, covered with grass and kept smoothly mown. Lawn
A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed Lease
period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'.
A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease. Leasehold

BUILDING UTILITIES
The amount of heat which is absorbed or evolved in changing the state of a substance Latent Heat
without changing its temperature.
A system of devices, usually installed below ground level, to scatter or spray water Lawn Sprinkler System
droplets over a lawn, golf course, or the like.
Minimum width of a septic tank. 90 cms.
Minimum length of a septic tank. 1.50 mts.
Minimum liquid depth for a septic tank. 60 cms.
Maximum liquid depth for septic tank. 1.80 mts.
Minimum capacity, in cubic meters, of the secondary compartment of a septic tank. 1 cum.
Minimum dimension of a manhole access to a septic tank. 508 mm.
Minimum length of the secondary compartment of a septic tank with a capacity of more 1.50 mts.
than 6 cubic meters.
Wooden septic tanks are allowed, true or false. FALSE
Minimum distance of a water supply well from a septic tank. 15.20 mts.
Minimum distance of a water supply well from a seepage pit or cesspool. 45.70 mts.
Minimum distance of a water supply well from a disposal field. 30.50 mts.
Minimum Gauge of galvanized sheet used for downspouts. 26
Minimum height of a water seal for each fixture trap. 51 mm.
Maximum height of a water seal for each fixture trap. 102 mm.
Maximum length of the tailpiece from any fixture. 60 cms.
Minimum extension of the VSTR above the roof. 15 cms.
Minimum extension of the VSTR above an openable window, door opening, air intake, or vent shaft. 0.90 mtr.
Minimum trap diameter for a bathtub 38 mm. (11/2")
Minimum trap diameter for a shower stall. 51 mm. (2")
Required number of water closets for females for an auditorium serving 16-35. 3
Required number of water closets for males for an auditorium serving 16-35. 2
Required number of urinals for an auditorium serving 10-50. 1
Required number of water closets for females for a theater serving 51-100. 4
Classifications of copper pipes. Rigid and Flexible
A rough or sharp edge left on metal by a cutting tool. Burr
Two types of passenger elevator. Electric and Hydraulic
Minimum elevator width of single slide door elevator for small commercial or residential building. 0.60 mtr.
A device that is basically a double throw switch of generally 3-pole connection that will Automatic Transfer Switch (ATS)
automatically transfer the power from the standby generator to the building circuitry
during electrical power failure.
TW in electrical wire specification means. Moisture resistant, in wet and
dry location
Another name for passenger elevator. Lift
The minimum face to face distance between elevators in three and four car grouping. 2 mts.
Collection line of a plumbing system is sometimes referred to as. House Drain
Maximum height of a dumbwaiter. 1.20 mts.
A type of lighting that provides illumination to special objects like sculptures, flower Specific Lighting
arrangements, etc.
XHHN in wire specification means. Moisture and Heat Resistant-
Cross-Linked Thermosetting
Standard length of an electrical metal conduit. 10'
An assembly consisting of a pulley wheel, side plates, shaft, and bearings over which a Sheave
cable or roped is passed.
The other type of flame detector other than the ultraviolet type. Infra Red
PABX or PBX means. Pvt. Automatic Branch Exchange
Farad is the unit capacity of a ___. Capacitor
Another name for distribution panel. Power Panel
Type of plastic pipe other than polyvinyl chloride and polybutylene. Polyethylene
Standard size of wire for a circuit line. No. 12
Standard size of wire for a switch line. No. 14
A device for converting alternating current to direct current. Rectifier
Another name for a Rectifier. D.C. Generator
A controller sensitive to the degree of moisture in the air. Humidistat
Another name for Humidistat. Hygrostat
Consist of a flyball or flyweight device designed to stop an elevator. Governor
A stop valve placed in the service pipe close to the connection at the water main. Corporation Stop
A vent with a function to provide circulation if air between drainage and vent system. Relief Vent
Flange used on a pipe to cover a hole or opening in a floor or wall which the pipe pass. Escutcheon
Length along the centerline of the pipe and fitting. Developed Length
A valve used in a flush tank controlling the flushing of fixture. Flush Valve
Any liquid waste containing animal or vegetable matter in suspension or solution. Sewage
Component of fire extinguisher. Carbon Monoxide
Interrelationship between value of voltage and current with the same frequency. Phase
Descriptive of any material such as synthetic resin which hardens when heated or cured, Thermosetting
and does not soften when reheated.
An Instrument which responds to changes in temperature, and directly or indirectly Thermostat
controls temperature.
Thin sheets that are used for controlling heat in drywall construction. Rigid Board Insulation
Conveys storm water and terminates into a natural drainage such as lakes or rivers. Strom Sewer
A machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, a generator of alternating current. Alternator
Freon in air-con must be compressed and liquefied in order to absorb ___. Heat
Standard size of a wet standpipe outlet for each floor. 1 1/2" (38mm)
A type of pipe fitting for a Yoke Vent. 1/8 Bend
A device installed on an electric water heater used to detect the working temperature Thermostat
to activate a switch.
Minimum size of trap or branch for a bidet. 1 1/2"
Minimum fixture supply pipe diameter for tank type water closet. 3/8"
True or false, 1 3/4" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply. TRUE
True or false, 3" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply. FALSE
Term applied to the interconnection of the same fixtures in one soil or waste branch with Battery of Fixtures
one branch vent.
A single vent that ventilates multiple traps in the case of a back to back vent. Common Vent
Minimum size of a standpipe for a building in which the highest outlet is 23 meters or less 4" (102mm)
from the fire service connection.
Minimum size of a wet standpipe for a riser of more than 15 meters from the source. 4" (102mm)
Single lever valves used in kitchen sink and lavatory faucets or at shower valves works by Ball Valve
the principle of a ___.
Treats hard water. Zeolite
Minimum height of a branch vent above the fixture it is venting. 6" (150mm)
Minimum wire size in square millimeter for a branch circuit with a 30 ampere rating using 5.5 sqmm
Type THW stranded copper conductor in a raceway.
Standard frequency of power supplied by the local power utility company like Meralco. 60 Cycles
The overhead service conductors from the last pole or other aerial support to and including Service Drop
splices, if any, connecting to the service entrance conductors at the building.
Unit of loudness level. Phon
The process of dissipating sound energy by converting it to heat. Sound Absorption
Distance sound travels during each cycle of vibration. Wavelength
The reduction in the intensity or in the sound pressure level of sound which is transmitted Sound Attenuation
from one point to another.
Unit of sound absorption equivalent to 1 square foot of perfectly absorptive material. Sabin
Acoustical phenomenon which causes sound wave to be bent or scattered around. Sound Diffraction
Minimum sound pressure level that is capable of being detected by the human ear. Threshold of Audibility
Fluctuation in pressure, a particle displacement in an elastic medium. Sound
Sound sensation in a single frequency. Pure Tone
Wave produced by a pure tone. Sine Wave
Synonymous with a lighting fixture. Luminaire
The luminous intensity of light is expressed in ___. Candela
It refers to an individual who worked in the sanitary field of ancient Rome. Plumbarius
In Latin, it means 'lead'. Plumbum
A specially designed system of waste piping embodying the horizontal wet venting of one Combination
or more sinks or floor drains by means of a common waste and vent pipe adequately Waste
sized to provide free movement of air above the flow line of the drain. and Vent system
Vertical flow of air used to separate different functions of spaces. Air curtain
Type of lighting dealing with relatively large area lighting. General Lighting
During elevator emergency, to rescue passengers, this part of the elevator is used to open Outside Door Latch
the doors from the outside.
A device which extends across at least 1/2 the width of each door leaf which will open if Panic Bar
subjected to pressure.
Sanitary sewage from buildings shall be discharged directly to the nearest ___. Sanitary Sewer Main
Receptacles intended to receive and discharge water, water-carried waste into a drainage Fixture
system with which they are connected.
The simplest type of building automation system. Telecommunication System
Standard size of an outlet for a dry standpipe located at each floor. 2 1/2" (64mm)
A vent pipe connected to a vent stack. Circuit Vent
A vent pipe connected to a stack vent. Loop Vent
Instrument used for measuring atmospheric pressure. Barometer
Bets type of fire detection that can detect fire during the incipient stage. Ionization
Condensing unit is a part of a ___. Refrigeration
A fire detector installed in a fire alarm system which uses low melting point solders or Fixed Temperature
metal that expands when exposed to heat to detect a fire. Heat Detector
A faucet fitted with a nozzle curving downward used as a draw-off tap. Bibbcock
Heat rating for a fixed temperature heat detector. 135-197˚F
Reference in measuring the depth of a trap seal of a trap. Top Dip to Crown Weir
A pipe fitting shaped like 'S'. Double Bend
Minimum size of trap and waste branch for a shower stall. 2"
Minimum size of trap and waste branch for a pedestal urinal. 3"
Ratio of water closets for male population for elementary and secondary school. (1:30)
Ratio of water closets for female population for elementary and secondary school. (1:25)
Ratio of urinals for elementary school. (1:75)
Ratio of water closets for female population for Principal Worship Places. (1:75)
Minimum required number of water closets for female for office and public buildings 4
serving 55 occupants for employees.
Where there is exposure to skin contamination due to poisonous materials, what is the (1:5)
ratio of lavatory to number of occupants.
Minimum head of water, in meters, required for each section of plumbing for water test. 3
How many days, at least, shall be given before any plumbing work inspection is done 3
after written notice for inspection.
Minimum time, in minutes, required for water to stay in the system or pipes for a water 15 minutes
test without any leaks to satisfy said testing.
Consist of a body, a checking member, and an atmospheric opening. Atmospheric Vacuum Breaker
Minimum lead content in percent for pipes and fittings safe for humans. 8%
Minimum vertical distance from the bottom of water pipes to the top of sewer or drain pipe 300 mm
if laid in the same trench on top of the other.
Minimum distance of water pipings from any regulating equipment, water heater, 300 mm
conditioning tanks, and similar equipment requiring union fittings.
Maximum spacing of pipe supports at intervals. 4'
Equivalent of 1/6 bend in degrees. 60˚
True or false, 60˚ branches or offsets may be used only when installed in a true vertical position. TRUE
Cleanouts may be omitted on a horizontal drain less than 1.5 meters in length unless TRUE
such line is serving sinks or urinals, true or false.
Minimum clearance in front of any cleanout in meters for pipes 51mm or less in diameter. 0.305 mtr. / 305 mm
Minimum clearance in front of any cleanout in meters for pipes larger than 51 mm. Dia. 0.45 mtr. / 450 mm
Maximum distance of any underfloor cleanout from any access door, crawl space, or crawl hole. 6.10 mts.
Maximum length of a tailpiece. 600 mm
Minimum length of any branch requiring separate venting. 4.60 mts.
True or false, no galvanized wrought iron or galvanized steel pipe shall be used TRUE
underground and shall be kept at least 15 cms above ground.
Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above the roof. 150 mm / 15 cms.
Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above any other vertical surface. 300 mm
Minimum vertical distance of VSTR from above of any openable window or opening. 0.90 mtr.
Minimum vertical extension of VSTR from any roofdeck where it is protruded. 2.10 mts.
Minimum horizontal distance of any VSTR from a roofdeck used for other purposes aside 3.00 mts.
from protection from weather.
Minimum number of stories served by a waste stack requiring a parallel ventstack. 10
The rate of flow of light through a surface. Luminous Flux
The luminous intensity of any surface in a given direction per unit of projected area. Luminance
A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square foot. Foot-Candle
A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square meter. Lux
Type of lighting system where 90-100% of light output is directed to the ceiling and upper Indirect Lighting
walls of the room.
The material used for filament in an incandescent bulb. Tungsten
The equivalent of filament in a fluorescent lamp. Cathode
An automatic device used for converting high, fluctuating inlet water pressure to a lower Pressure Regulating Valve
constant pressure.
An air-operated device used to open or close a damper or valve. Air Motor
In theater stage house, a weight usually of iron or sand used to balance suspended Counterweight
scenery, or the like.
On elevators, a gear-driven machine having a drum to which the wire ropes that hoist the Winding-Drum Machine
car are fastened, and on which they wind.
Vertical tracks that serves as a guide for the car and the counterweight. Guiderails
Under NBC, the clearance between the underside of the car and the bottom of the pit 600 mm
shall not be less than ___.
Under NBC, the minimum diameter of hoisting and counterweight rope. 30 mm
Under NBC, the minimum width between balusters in an escalator. 558 mm
Under NBC, the maximum rated speed of an escalator along the angle of travel. 38 Meters/Min
The effective room temperature in air-conditioning. 68-74 ˚F
A private telephone system that interconnects with public telephone systems. PABX
Resistance in alternating current system. Impedance
The reciprocal of conductance. Resistance
The rate of flow of sound energy Sound Intensity
Lighting used primarily to draw attention to particular points of interest. Accent Lighting
A means of producing light from gaseous discharge. Fluorescense
A type of High-Intensity-Discharge lamp (HID). High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)
Sound system input device that reacts to and converts variable sound pressure into Microphone
variable electrical current.
A rate of rise type detector. Thermal Detector
Light originating from sources not facing each other, as from windows in adjacent walls. Cross Light
The process of removing calcium and magnesium deposits in water. Softening
A lighting unit consisting of one or more electrical lamps. Luminaire
A louvered construction divided into cell-like areas and used for redirecting the light Eggcrate
emitted by an overhead source.
A graph used in air-conditioning and showing the properties of air-system mixtures. Psychrometric Chart
Heat that raises air temperature. Sensible Heat
The transmission of heat energy from one place to another by circulatory movement of mass of fluid. Convection
A lamp designed to project and diffuse a uniform level of illumination over a large area. Floodlight
In boilers, they function only when exceeds prescribed unsafe operating conditions. Limit Controls and Interlocks
What type of sound absorbent is best for lower band frequencies. Porous Absorbents
The bending of sound wave when traveling forward changes direction as it passes through Refraction
different densities.
True or false, number of fixture unit is one parameter in sizing a drainage pipe. TRUE
Water distribution system which constantly rely its pressure from the main water pipe Upfeed System / Direct Method
applied only if the highest fixture is supplied continuously with the flow rate and minimum
required working pressure.
What combination of pipe fittings is installed at the base of a soil stack? Wye and 1/8 Bend
What is the rating index of an air-conditioning/refrigeration system which rates the unit for Energy Efficiency Rating (EER)
the number of BTU's of heat removed per watt of electrical input energy?
What mechanical equipment, coupled with a central air-conditioning system, is used to Fan Coil Unit
to dehumidify and cool the air stream injected to a conditioned space.
A rigid metal housing for a group of heavy conductors insulated from each other and the Busway
enclosure, also called Busduct.
A heavy conductor, usually in the form of a solid copper bar, used for collecting, carrying, Bus
and distributing large electric currents, also called a busbar.
An approved assembly of insulated conductors with fitting and conductor terminations in Busway
completely enclosed ventilated protective metal housing where the assembly is designed
to carry fault current and to withstand the magnetic forces of such current.
A type of perimeter detector which detects object in heat range of body temperature. Passive Infrared
A type of perimeter detector which detects interruption of light beam. Light Beam
A type of perimeter detector which detects change in sound wave pattern. Ultrasonic
Women's urinal fixture. Washdown
True or false, brass and cast iron body cleanouts shall not be used as a reducer or adapter. TRUE
A box with a blank cover which serves the purpose of joining one different runs of Pull Box
raceways or cables and provided with sufficient space for connection and branching of the
enclosed conductors.
A type of water closet that is least efficient, subject to clogging, noisy, and use a simple Washdown (WD)
washout action through a small irregular passageway.
This type of water closet is similar to that of the siphon-jet except that it has a smaller Reverse Trap (RT)
trap passageway and smaller water surface area, moderately noisy.
A type of water closet that is noisy but highly efficient. Strong jet into up leg forces Blowout (BO)
contents out. Use only with flush valve, requires higher pressure.
Water closet that is quiet, extremely sanitary, water is directed through the rim. It scours Siphon Vortex (SV)
bowl, folds over into jet; siphon.
A water closet that is sanitary, efficient, and very quiet. Water enters through the rim and Siphon Jet (SJ)
through the down leg.
A toilet bowl similar to the siphon-jet, but having the flushing water directed to the rim to Siphon Vortex (SV)
create circular motion or vortex which scours the bowl.
A toilet bowl in which the flushing water enters through the rim and a siphonic action Siphon Jet (SJ)
initiated by a water jet draws the contents of the bowl through the trapway.
A water closet similar to that of the siphon jet but with a smaller water surface and trapway. Reverse Trap (RT)
This type of water closet is prohibited by some health codes. Washdown (WD)
The concussion and banging noise that results when a volume of water moving in a pipe Water Hammer
suddenly stops or loses momentum.
The length of a pipeline measured along the centerline of the pipe and pipe fittings. Developed Length
A shutoff valve closed by lowering a wedge-shaped gate across the passage. Gate Valve
A valve closed by a disk seating on an opening in an internal wall. Globe Valve
Liquid sewage that has been treated in a septic tank or sewage treatment plant. Effluent
The centerline of pipe. Spring Line
The interior top surface of a pipe. Crown
The interior bottom surface of a pipe. Invert
A type of perimeter detector which is subject to false alarm from aircraft radar and from Microwave
movement outside building through window, wood doors, and the like. It uses radio waves.
This type of perimeter detector uses both the Passive infrared and Ultrasonic or Passive Infrared with
Microwave system. Ultrasonic (or Microwave)
This type of perimeter detector detects a change in capacitance of the area covered, Proximity / Capacitance
caused by intrusion.
Color code for pipes containing acid. Black
A high intensity discharge lamp in which the light is produced by the radiation from a Metal Halide Lamp
mixture of a metallic vapor, similar to that of a mercury lamp in construction.
A type of lamp popular for lighting commercial interiors, uses argon gas to ease starting, Mercury Lamp
it produces light by means of an electric discharge in mercury vapor.
A type of lamp which produces light by means of the reaction of halogen additive in the Tungsten Halogen Lamp
bulb reacts with chemically with tungsten.
A type of lamp generally used for roadways and sidewalks, uses sodium gas. High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)
Building with fire alarm and suppression system. Intelligent Building
This shows the vertical relationships of all panels, feeders, switches, switchboards, and Riser Diagram
major components are shown up to, but not including, branch circuiting, it is an electrical
version of a vertical section taken through the building.
In elevator, it detects the obstacles during the door closing, and reopens the door if there Safety Shoe
is something. Photocell can be used together with this.
It prevents passengers from falling into the hoistway when they try to get out Fascia Plate
of the car which is stopped between the floors.
In elevator, it makes the buzzer alarm when the car is overloaded and the door remains Weighing Device
open until overloading is eliminated.
In elevator, it protects the equipment from over current. Circuit Breaker
In elevator, these prevent the excessive car travel at the highest and lowest floor. Limit Switches
In escalators, these stop the escalator if a foreign object becomes wedged at the guard. Handrail Guard Switches
In escalators, this is located at the bottom truss of the escalator and provided with on and Disconnect Switch
off positions to stop or prevents the escalator from starting during maintenance service.
This device, in escalators, is provided at the drive unit location to protect against accidental Mechanical
movement of the escalator during inspection of the drives or during general maintenance. Maintenance
Locking Device
This device, in escalators, stops the escalator automatically if an abnormal current is Current Overload Safety Switch
supplied to the motor.
This switch cuts off all current supply to the escalator for inspection, maintenance, or repairs. Knife Switch
In a lightning protection system, the combination of a metal rod and its brace or footing, Air Terminal
on the upper part of a structure.
One of the earlier plastic to be developed in 1938, a du pont trade name for the white, Teflon
soft, waxy, and non-adhesive polymer of tetrafluoroethylene.
The number of cycles per unit time of a wave or oscillations expressed in hertz of cycles per second. Frequency
Of a partition, the number of decibels by which sound is reduced in transmission through Transmission Loss
it; a measure of the sound insulation value of the partition, the higher the number, the
greater the insulation value.
The cooling effect obtained when 1 ton of ice at 32 oF (0 oC) melts to water at the same Ton of Refrigeration
tmeperature in 24 hrs. (equivalent to 12,000 Btu/hr)

AS - STRUCTURAL
Zoning, site characteristics
The procedures and limitations for the design of structures shall be determined by the Occupancy, configuring
following factors. structural system, and
height
Minimum number of stories recommended to be provided with at least 3 approved 14
recording accelerographs.
Maintenance and service of accelerographs shall be provided by the___. Owner
Who shall be responsible for keeping the actual live load below the allowable limits and Occupant of the building
shall be liable for any failure on the structure due to overloading.
The period of continuous application of a given load or the aggregate of periods of Load duration
intermittent application of the same load.
Minimum area in square meters a member supports which the design live load may be reduced. 14 sqm.
Minimum height of any wall requiring structural design to resist loads onto which they are subjected. 1.50 mts.
Maximum deflection of a brittle finished wall subjected to a load of 250 Pascal applied 1/240 of wall span
perpendicular to said wall.
Maximum deflection of a flexible finished wall subjected to a load of 250 Pascal applied 1/120 of wall span
perpendicular to said wall.
Maximum floor area for a low-cost housing unit. 60 sqm.
The level at which the earthquake motions are considered to be imparted to the structure Base
or the level at which the structure, as a dynamic vibrator, is supported.
A member or an element provided to transfer lateral forces from a portion of a structure Collector
to vertical elements of the lateral force resisting system.
A horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to transmit lateral forces to the vertical Diaphragm
resisting elements, it includes horizontal bracing system.
The total designed lateral force or shear at the base of a structure. Base Shear, V
An element at edge of opening or at perimeters of shear walls or diaphragm. Boundary Element
An essentially vertical truss system of the concentric or eccentric type which is provided Braced Frame
to resist lateral forces.
An essentially complete space frame which provides supports for gravity loads. Building Frame System
A combination of a Special or Intermediate Moment Resisting Space Frame and Shear Dual System
Walls or Braced Frames.
That form of braced frame where at least one end of each brace intersects a beam at a Eccentric Braced Frame (EBF)
point away from the column girder joint.
The entire assemblage at the intersection of the members. Joint
The horizontal member in a frame system, a beam. Girder
An element of a diaphragm parallel to the applied load which collects and transfers Diaphragm Strut
diaphragm shear to vertical resisting elements or distributes loads within the diaphragm.
Such members may take axial tension or compression.
The boundary element of a diaphragm or a shear wall which is assumed to take axial Diaphragm Chord
stresses analogous to the flanges of a beam
Those structures which are necessary for emergency post-earthquake operations. Essential facilities
That part of the structural system assigned to resist lateral forces. Lateral Force Resisting System
Moment resisting space frame not meeting special detailing requirements for ductile Ordinary Moment Resisting
behavior. Space Frame
The displacement of one level relative to the level above or below. Story Drift
The usable capacity of a structure or its members to resist loads within the deformation Strength
limits prescribed in this document.
The lower rigid portion of a structure having a vertical combination of structural system. Platform
Horizontal truss system that serves the same function as a diaphragm. Horizontal Bracing System
An assemblage of framing members designed to support gravity loads and resist lateral forces. Structure
A structural system without complete vertical load carrying space frame. This system provide Bearing Wall System
support for gravity loads. Resistance to lateral load is provided by shear walls or braced frames.
A structural system with essentially complete space frame providing support for gravity Building Frame System
loads. Resistance to lateral load is provided by shear walls or braced frames.
A structural system with an essentially complete space frame providing support for gravity Moment Resisting Frame System
loads. Moment resisting space frames provide resistance to lateral load primarily by
flexural action of members.
Is one in which the story strength is less than 80% of that of the story above. Weak Story
An elastic or inelastic dynamic analysis in which a mathematical model of the Time History Analysis
structure is subjected to a ground motion time history. The structure's time-dependant dynamic
response to these motion is obtained through numerical integration of its equations of motions.
The effects on the structure due to earthquake motions acting in directions other than Orthogonal Effect
parallel to the direction of resistance under consideration.
The secondary effect on shears and moments of frame members induced by the P-delta Effect
vertical loads acting on the laterally displaced building frame.
Material other than water, aggregate, or hydraulic cement, used as an ingredient of Admixture
concrete and added to concrete before or during its mixing to modify its properties.
Concrete that does not conform to definition of reinforced concrete. Plain Concrete
Upright compression member with a ratio of unsupported height to average least lateral Pedestal
dimension of less than three.
Ratio of normal stress to corresponding strain for tensile or compressive stresses below Modulus of Elasticity
proportional limit of material.
In prestressed concrete, temporary force exerted by device that introduces tension into Jacking Force
prestressing tendons.
Length of embedded reinforcement provided beyond a critical section. Embedment Length
Stress remaining in prestressing tendons after all losses have occurred, excluding effects Effective Prestress
of dead load and superimposed loads.
Length of embedded reinforcement required to develop the design strength of Development Length
reinforcement at a critical section.
Friction resulting from bends or curves in the specified prestressing tendon profile. Curvature Friction
Concrete containing lightweight aggregate. Structural Lightweight Concrete
prestressing tendon that is bonded to concrete either directly or through grouting. Bonded Tendon
ASTM A36 Structural Steel
High-Yield Strength Quenched and Tempered Alloy Steel Plate, Suitable for Welding. ASTM A514
True or False, Bar larger than 32mm in diameter shall not be bundled in beams. TRUE
Minimum concrete cover for Prestressed concrete for beams & columns for primary reinforcements. 40 mm
In a material under tension or compression, the absolute value of the ratio of transverse Poisson's Ratio
strain to the corresponding longitudinal strain.
In column, the ratio of its effective length to its least radius of gyration. Slenderness Ratio
A quantity which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about a line. Torsion
A type of concrete floor which has no beam. Flat Slab
The tendency for one part of a beam to move vertically with respect to an adjacent part. Shear
A change in shape of a material when subjected to the action of force. Deformation
The maximum value of tension, compression, or shear respectively the material sustain w/o failure. Yielding Stress
It means that by which a body develops internal resistance to 'stress'. Stress
The greatest stress which a material is capable of developing without permanent Allowable Stress
deformation remaining upon the complete release of stress.
Intensity of force per unit area. Stress
Loop of reinforcing bar or wire enclosing longitudinal reinforcement. Tie / Stirrup
The measure of stiffness of a material. Stiffness Ratio
The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through it. Punching Shear
The deformation of a structural member as a result of loads acting on it. Deflection
Nominal thickness of of a timber. 6 inches
The sum of forces in the othorgonal directions & the sum of all moments about any points are zero. Equilibrium
The complete records of tests conducted (slump, compression test)shall be preserved & made 2 years
available for inspection during the progress of construction & after completion of the project for a
period of not less than.
Wood board should have a thickness specification of. not less than 1"X4"
The distance from the first to the last riser of a stair flight. Run
A high-speed rotary shaping had power tool used to make smooth cutting & curving on solid wood. Portable Hand router
The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system. Girder
Wood defects are: heart shake, cup shake, star shake, and___. Knots
Dressed lumber is referred to ___. Smoothed or planed lumber
The other kind of handsaw other than rip-cut saw. Cross-cut saw
It refers to the occupancy load which is either partially or fully in place or may not be present at all. Live load
The distance between inflection points in the column when it breaks. Effective length
The amount of space measured in cubic units. Volume
In the formula e=PL/AE, E stands for___. Modulus of Elasticity
An expansion joint of adjacent parts of a structure to permit expected movements between them. Contraction joint
the total of all tread widths in a stair. Total run
The force adhesion per unit area of contact between two bonded surfaces. Bond Stress
A structural member spanning from truss to truss or supporting a rafter. Purlin
Size of camber for a 25 meters steel truss. Size of Dead Load Defelection
A connector such as a welded strut, spiral bar, or short length of channel which resists Shear Connector
horizontal shear between elements.
The force per unit area of cross section which tends to produce shear. Shear Stress / Shearing Stress
Size of camber for a 25 meters steel truss. Size of Dead Load Defelection
The law that relates the linear relationship between stresses and strains Hook's Law
Minimum spacing of Bolts in timber connectionn measured from center of bolts parallel 4 X diameter of bolt
for parallel to grain loading is equal to ___.
According to the provisions of the NSCP on timber connections and fastenings, the 4 X diameter of bolt
lodaed edge distance for perpendicular to grain loading shall be at least ___.
NSCP specifies spacing between rows of bolts for perpendicular to grain loading shall be 2.5
at least ___ times bolt diameter for L/d ratio of 2.
Minimum diameter of bolts to be used in timber connections and fastening in accordance 12 mm
with NSCP specifications.
Simple solid timber columns have slenderness ratio not exceeding ___. 50
Nails or spikes for which the wire gauges or lengths not set forth in the NSCP 11 diameters
specifications shall have a required penetration of not less than ___.
Notches in sawn lumber bending members in accordance with the NSCP specifications 1/6 depth of member
shall not exceed.
Notches in sawn lumber shall not be located in the ___. Middle Third Span
Notches in the top and bottom of joists shall not exceed ___. 1/4 the depth
Allowable stresses for tension in structural steel in terms of gross area. 0.60 of specified min. yield stress
Allowable tensile stress of structural steel based on effective area. 0.50 of specified minimum
 tensile strength
Allowable stress for tension on pin connected members based on net area. 0.45 Fy
Allowable shear stress on structural steel on the cross sectional area effective in resisting shear. 0.40 Fy
For structures carrying live loads which induce impact, the assumed live load shall be 100%
increased sufficiently to provide for same, for supports of elevators the increase shall be.
The slenderness ratio of compression members shall not exceed ___. 200
The slenderness ratio main members in tension shall not exceed ___. 240
Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings shall not be less than ___ for concrete 40 mm
exposed to earth or weather.
Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings shall not be less than ___ for concrete 20 mm
not exposed to earth or weather.
Curing of concrete (other than high-early strength) shall be maintained above 10°C and 7
in moist condition for at least the first ___ days after placement.
If concrete in structure will dry under service conditions, cores shall be air-dried for ___ 7
days before test and shall be tested dry.
Curing for high-early strength concrete shall be maintained above 10°C and in moist 3
condition for at least the ___ days after palcement.
The minimum clear spacing bet parallel bars in layer shall be db (dia. of bar) but not less than ___. 25 mm
Standard hooks used in reinforced concrete beam shall mean. 180° bend + 4db extension
but not less than 65mm at free
end of bar
Standard hooks for stirrups and tie hooks 16mm bar and smaller. 90° bend + 6db extension
at free end
Standard hooks for stirrups and tie hooks 20-25mmbar. 90° bend + 12db extension
at free end
Allowable tolerance on minimum concrete cover for depths greater than 200mm –12 mm
Allowable tolerance for longitudinal location of bends and ends of reinforcement. ± 50 mm
Individual bars with a bundle terminated within the span of flexural members shall 40db
teminate at different points with a stagger of at least ___.
Clear distance between pre-tensioning tendons at each end of member shall not be less 3db
than ___ for strands.
Clear distance between pre-tensioning tendons at each end of member shall not be less 4db
than ___ for wire.
Minimum concrete cover provided for reinforcement of cast in place against permanently 75 mm
exposed to earth or weather using bars larger than 36mm.

NATIONAL BUILDING CODE

P.D.. 1096 National Building Code
Maximum height of a combustible stand. 2.70 mts.
Minimum spacing for seats in a chair type measurement from back to back. 0.85 mtr.
Maximum line of travel to an exit of an aisle. 45.00 mts.
Maximum slope of an aisle. One is to Eight (1:8)
In standard seating, the minimum spacing of rows measured from back to back. 0.84 mtr.
Minimum width of any seat. 0.45 mtr.
Minimum area of a double acting door view panel. 1,300 sqmm / 1.30 sqm.
Minimum clear width of an exit doorway. 0.70 mtr.
Maximum width of an exit door leaf. 1.20 mts.
Minimum width of an exit corridor. 1.10 mts.
Minimum number of exit for floors above the first storey having an occupant load of more than 10 2
Number of exit for occupant load of 599-999. 3
Minimum downward projection of a draft curtain 0.30 mtr.
Maximum floor area for an attic made of combustible materials. 250.00 sqm
Maximum center to center spacing of a draft curtain sprinkler. 1.80 mts.
Maximum floor area for an attic made of incombustible materials. 750.00 sqm.
Standard gauge for metal hoods in barbeques. Ga. 18
Minimum height of a Siamese connection above grade. 300 mm
Standard maximum distance of a standpipe from an opening in a stairway. 300 mm
Minimum wall thickness of a fireplace. 200 mm
Minimum number of exit for a projection room. 2
Minimum extended portion of a chimney above the roof. 600 mm
Minimum air space between walls of a masonry chimney above the roof. 2" / 50 mm
Minimum thickness of glass used for floors. 12.5 mm
Maximum rise of one row of seat to the next. 400 mm / 0.40 mtr.
Minimum number of exit for stands within a building serving an occupant load of 300. 3
Minimum height of a guard rail located in front of the grandstand. 0.90 mtr
Minimum width of a run in a stand stair. 0.28 mtr.
Minimum spacing for seats with backrests measured from back to back. 0.75 mtr.
Minimum spacing for seats without backrests measured from back to back. 0.60 mtr.
Minimum width of an exit door in an aisle. 1.70 mts.
Minimum intensity of lights for exits. 10.70 lux
Minimum width of side aisles. 1.10 mts.
Minimum increase in width of aisles for every linear meter. 30 mm
Minimum width of an aisle serving only one side. 800 mm / 0.80 mtr.
Open space requirement for an interior lot. 50% of lot area
Open space requirement for a corner lot or a through lot. 10% of lot area
Bounded on all sides or around its periphery by building lines. Inner court
Minimum stair width for a residence. 750 mm / 0.75 mtr.
Standard minimum area of a toilet. 1.20 sqm.
Minimum dimension of a kitchen. 1.50 mts.
Minimum area for vent shafts. 1.00 sqm.
Air space requirement for a school room per person. 3.00 cum.
Air space requirement for a habitable room per person. 14.00 cum.
Minimum area of opening of an air duct. 300 sqmm / 0.30 sqm
Maximum projection beyond the property line of a footing along the national road and at 300 mm
least 2.40 mts. In depth.
Minimum clearance of a canopy or a marquee from the sidewalk. 3.00 mts.
Minimum stair width for occupant load of less than 50. 0.90 mtr.
Minimum width of a temporary walkway. 1.20 mts.
Minimum clearance of an arcade above sidewalk. 3.00 mts.
Vacant space left between the building and lot lines less than 2.00 mts in width. Setback
Minimum horizontal dimension of a court. 2.00 mts.
Minimum width of a passageway connecting a street and a court. 1.20 mts.
Standard air space requirement per person for factories. 12.00 cum.
Minimum headroom clearance for a mezzanine. 1.80 mts.
Air supply per person per minute for auditoriums. 0.30 cum
Minimum total area of a window or an opening for a room without artificial ventilation. 10% of flr. Area
Minimum dimension for a vent shaft. 0.60 mtr.
Minimum horizontal clearance of the curb line to the outermost edge of the marquee. 300 mm
Minimum clearance of the lowest portion of an awning to the ground. 2.40 mts.
Minimum height of a construction fence. 2.40 mts.
Minimum live load bearing capacity of a construction canopy. 600 kgs./sqm.
Minimum height of a protective railing in a construction. 1.00 mtr.
Minimum wind load capacity for roofs for vertical projection. 120 kgs./sqm.
Maximum height of a handrail above the stair thread. 0.90 mtr.
Minimum ceiling height for naturally ventilated rooms. 2.70 mts.
Minimum height of a handrail above the stair thread. 0.80 mtr.
Maximum dimension of a stair landing. 1.20 mts.
Maximum slope of an exit court. One is to ten (1:10)
Minimum width of run for circular stair. 250 mm
Minimum headroom clearance for any stair. 2.00 mts.
Maximum slope for an exit passageway. One is to Eight (1:8)
Maximum height of a Siamese connection above the ground. 1.20 m
Maximum distance of any portion of a building from the nozzle of a 23 mts fire hose. 6.00 mts.
Minimum number of exit for any stage. 2
Minimum extension of a proscenium wall above the roof. 1.20 mts.
Minimum width of a stair in a stage egress. 750 mm
Minimum thickness of glass for jalousies. 5.60 mm
Maximum length of glass for jalousies. 1.20 mts.
Minimum width of exit in a stage. 900 mm
Minimum lateral spacing for plastic skylights. 2.50 mts.
A store window in which goods are displayed. Show window
Maximum width of a business sign. 1.20 mts.
Minimum distance of a sign from any electrical post or telephone wires. 1.00 mtr.
Minimum open space requirement for a corner lot. 10% of lot area
Minimum size of thread for an entrance or exit step. 300 mm
Maximum slope for an entrance or exit ramp. One is to ten (1:10)
Minimum number of steps for an entrance or exit stair. 2
Standard turn circle of a wheelchair. 1.50 mts.
Office building parking ratio. 1:125 sqm. Of gross floor area
Standard size of a perpendicular parking slot. 2.40 X 5.00 mts.
Hotel building parking ratio. 1:10 bedrooms
Hospital building parking ratio. 1:25 beds
Maximum distance of a handicapped parking from the facility being served. 60.00 mts.
Colleges and university parking ratio. 1:5 classrooms
Theaters, cinemas, auditoria, and stadia parking ratio. 1:50 sqm. Of spectators' area
Minimum number of wheelchair seating space for 51-300 seating capacity for auditoriums. 4
Minimum width of a dropped curb. 0.90 mtr.
Minimum Dimensions of an accessible elevator. 1.10 X 1.40 mts.
Maximum distance of an accessible elevator from the entrance of a building. 30.00 mts.
Minimum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortable. 1.40 mts.
Minimum door width for an accessible elevator. 0.80 mtr.
Minimum dimensions for an accessible water closet stall. 1.70 X 1.80 mts.
Maximum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortably. 1.60 mts.
Minimum width of a parking slot for the disabled. 3.70 mts.
Minimum run of a stair for Group A dwellings (residential) 200 mm
Minimum ceiling height from 3rd floor to succeeding floors with artificial ventilation. 2.10 mts.
Minimum area of rooms for human habitation. 6.00 sqm.
Least dimension of rooms for human habitation. 2.00 mts.
Least dimension of an air duct. 300 mm
Maximum encroachment into a public sidewalk of foundation at least 600 mm below the grade line. 500 mm
Minimum width of an exit door. 0.90 mts.
Maximum width reduced by handrails and doors fully opened to balconies and corridors 200 mm
Minimum width of stairs serving more than 50 occupants. 1.10 mts.
Minimum width of stairs serving less than 10 occupants. 750 mm
Maximum reduction in width of a stair due to trims and handrails. 100 mm
Minimum run of a winding stair. 150 mm
Maximum run of a winding stair. 300 mm
Allowable tolerance in the rise and run of every step. 5 mm
Width of stair requiring an intermediate handrail. 3.00 mts.
Minimum width of an aisle serving both sides. 1.00 mts.
Maximum number of seats between the wall and the aisle. 7
Maximum distance between the back of each seat to the front of the seat behind it. 300 mm
Maximum width of seat in a stand. 480 mm
Maximum projection of a penthouse or other projections above the roof. 8.40 mts
Maximum ratio of a penthouse area to that of the supporting roof. one third (1/3)
Minimum thickness of masonry chimney for residentials. 100 mm
Minimum thickness of rubble stone masonry chimney for residentials. 300 mm
Minimum firebox wall thickness. 250 mm
Minimum thickness of smoke chamber back walls. 150 mm
minimum thickness of front and side smoke chamber walls. 200 mm
Minimum number of storeys requiring one (1) or more dry standpipes. 4
Minimum volume of water a dry standpipe should provide. 900 liters/minute
Diameter of a dry standpipe requiring a two-way Siamese connection. 4" (100mm)
Diameter of a dry standpipe requiring a three-way Siamese connection. 5" (125mm)
Diameter of a dry standpipe requiring a four-way Siamese connection. 6" (150mm)
Minimum volume of water an interior wet standpipe should provide. 190 liters/minute
Minimum diameter of a wet standpipe. 2" (50mm)
Standard diameter of a dry standpipe opening. 2 1/2" (63mm)
Standard length of a fire hose. 23.00 mts
Maximum distance of a hose nozzle to any portion of a building. 6.00 mts.
Standard diameter of a wet standpipe valve. 38 mm (11/2")
Maximum projection into a sidewalk of a sign 4.50 mts. above grade. 1.00 mtr.
Minimum vertical clearance from the bottom of a signage to an arcaded sidewalk. 5.00 mts.
Minimum vertical clearance from the bottom of a signage to non-arcaded sidewalk. 3.00 mts.
Number of days of work abandonment of stoppage for a building permit to expire. 120 days
Width of planting strip for sidewalks 2.00 mts in width. 0.80 mtr.
Minimum horizontal distance of the curb line to the outermost face of an arcade. 500 mm
Maximum vertical clearance of an arcade above grade. 6.00 mts.
Slope of ramp of road-way to sidewalk. 1/3 - 1/4
Slope of driveway to sidewalk where the height of curb is 200 mm and above. One is to Eight (1:8)
Minimum vertical clearance of primary lines from the crown of the pavement when 10.00 mts.
crossing the highway.
Minimum vertical clearance of primary lines from top of sidewalk when installed along 7.5 mts.
the side of the highway.
Vertical clearance of secondary lines from sidewalks along or crossing the street. 7.5 mts.
Minimum clearance of conductors from the highest point of a roof. 2.50 mts.
Maximum height of a dumbwaiter. 1.20 mts.
Maximum area of a dumbwaiter. 3,861 sqcms.
Minimum clearance of conductors from any platform or ground or projection from which 3.00 mts.
they might be reached.
Minimum vertical clearance of service drop of communication lines above ground at its 3.00 mts.
point of attachment to than building or pedestal.
Vertical clearance of a service drop communication line when crossing a street. 5.50 mts.
Maximum capacity of a dumbwaiter. 277 kgs.
Minimum width of an access road to a cul-de-sac. 3.00 mts.
Unit area per occupant for dwellings. 28.00 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for Hotels. 18.6 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for offices and garages. 9.30 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for class rooms. 1.80 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for stores - retail sales rooms upper floors. 5.60 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for nurseries for children. 3.25 sqm.
Unit area for stores -retail sales room for basement and ground floor. 2.80 sqm.
Unit area for hospitals and sanitaria. 8.40 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for aircraft hangars without repairs. 46.50 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for warehouses and mechanical equipment room. 28.00 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for theaters and the like. 0.65 sqm.
Parking requirement for Hotels. 1 slot/5 rooms
Parking requirement for public assembly buildings such as cinemas, auditoria, theaters, & the like. 1 slot/50 sqm. Of spectators' area
Parking requirement for multi family living unit of 50 sqm floor area. 1slot/8 units
Parking requirement for multi family living unit above 100 sqm floor area. 1 slot/unit
Parking requirement for multi family living unit for 50-100 sqm floor area. 1 slot/4 units
Parking requirement for clubhouses, beach houses, and the like. 1 slot/100 sqm of gross flr.area
Parking requirement for motels. 1 slot/unit
Minimum parking requirement for the handicapped. 1 slot/50 parking slots
Parking requirement for colleges and universities. 1 slot/5 classrooms
Parking requirement for elementary, secondary, and vocational schools. 1 slot/10 classrooms
In BP344, the required width of a corridor. 1.20 mts.
Maximum slope of a drop curb towards the street. 1:20
Maximum slope of a drop curb towards adjoining curb. 1:12
Maximum spacing for wheelchair turnabouts. 12.00 mts.
Maximum slope of a ramp. 1:12
Maximum distance of handicapped parking from the structure served. 60.00 mts.
Preferred width of corridor for the disabled. 1.50 mts.
Maximum height of a water closet from the floor. 0.50 mts.
Preferred height of switches from the floor. 1.10 mts.
Minimum height of a switch from the floor. 0.90 mts.
Maximum height of a switch from the floor. 1.20 mts.
Least dimension for a parking slot for the disabled. 3.70 mts.
In BP344, the minimum height of a handrail. 0.70 mtr.
Maximum length of a ramp for wheelchair. 6.00 mts.
Minimum length of a ramp landing for wheelchairs. 1.50 mts.
One or more habitable rooms which are occupied or which are intended or designated to Dwelling unit
be occupied by one family with facilities for cooking , sleeping, living, and eating.
That portion of the foundation of a structure which spreads and transmits loads directly Footing
to the ground or soil.
A continuous horizontal layer of masonry units. Course
A room or suite of two or more rooms, designed and intended for , or occupied by one Apartment
family for living, sleeping, eating, and cooking purposes.
A stationary open hearth or brazier, either fuel-fired or electric, used for food preparation. Barbecue
A portion of the seating space of an assembly room, the lowest part of which is raised Balcony
1.20 mts or more above the level of the main floor.
The pipe which connects a flue-burning appliance to a chimney. Chimney connector
A hearth and fire chamber or similarly prepared place in which a fire may be made and Fireplace
which is built in conjunction with a chimney.
A horizontal structural piece w/c supports the end of the floor beams or joists or walls over opening. Girder
Same as heliport except that no refueling, maintenance, repairs/storage of helicopters is permitted. Helistop
The vertical supports, such as posts or stanchions, as used in indigenous or traditional Suportales
type of construction.
Any surface or underground construction covered on top, or any fire-proof construction Vault
intended for the storage of valuables.
A term which may be used synonymously with a partition. Cross wall
The unit area per occupant for hotels. 18.60 sqm.
The unit area per occupant for dining establishments. 1.40 sqm.
The unit area per occupant for theaters. 0.65 sqm.
A building permit shall expire if work authorized is abandoned or suspended at any time 120 days / 4 mos.
after commencement for a period of.
Front yards for commercial buildings abutting a road-right-of-way of 25-29 meters shall 8.00 mts.
have a minimum width of
Offices shall be provided how many cubic meters of air per person? 12.00 cum.
Multiple living units of up to 6 units built on the same lot shall have an access road 3.00 mts.
directly connecting said building to a public street a width of.
Sidewalks of 2 mts or more in width shall include on its outer side a planting strip of not 800 mm / 0.80 mtr.
less than how many millimeters in width?
Arcades shall be cantilevered from the building line over the sidewalk and the horizontal clearance 500 mm
between the curb line and the outermost face of any part of the arcade shall not be less than.
Printing plants shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Business and mercantile
Power plants shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Industrial
Convents shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Residentials, hotels
and apartments.
Repair garages shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Storage and hazardous
Reformatories shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Institutional
Turnabout should also be provided at or whithin how many meters of dead end. 3.50 mts.
In B.P. 344, the maximum slope a ramp is. 1:12
Under B.P. 344, a level area of not less than how many meters shall be provided at the 1.80 mts.
top and bottom of any ramp.
Under what classification of occupancy does Mental Hospitals fall? Institutional
Under what classification of occupancy does Monasteries fall? Residentials, hotels
and apartments.
Under what classification of occupancy does Aircraft hagars fall? Business and mercantile
Under what classification of occupancy does cold storage and creameris fall? Industrial
Under what classification of occupancy does private garage fall? Accessory
Minimum loading slot requirement for Hospitals and hotels. 1 truck loading slot
Minimum travel distance from handicapped parking to facility being served. 60 mts.
Percentage required for number of parking if parking garages are available w/in 200 m. of structure. 20%
Parking requirement for amusement centers. 1/50 sqm of gross floor area
Parking requirement for markets. 1/150 sqm of shopping flr area
Parking requirement for neigborhood shopping centers. 1/100 sqm of shopping flr area
Parking requirement for multi-family living units of more than 100 sqm of living unit area. 1/living unit
Parking requirement for multi-family living units of up to 50 sqm of living unit area. 1/8 living units
Parking requirement for places of worhip. 1/50 sqm of congregation are
Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of over 3 meters but not more than 6 mts. 0.60 mtr.
Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of 10 mts to less than 11 mts in width. 1.00 mtr.
Maximum height of 1st the floor for a 2-story wood structure with a height of 7 mts. 4.50 mts.
Maximum spacing of posts for 2-story wooden structure with a height of 8 mts. 4.50 mts.
Under what classification of occupancy does fences of over 1.80 mts in height fall? Accessory
Under what classification of occupancy does Aircraft repair hangars fall? Storage and hazardous
Under what classification of occupancy does factories and workshops using Industrial
incombustible and non-explosive materials.
Under what classification of occupancy does wood working establishements fall? Storage and hazardous
Under what classification of occupancy does police and fire stations fall? Business and mercantile
Standard length of a Wheelchair. 1.10 - 1.30 mts.
Standard width of a wheelchair. 0.60 - 0.75 mts.
How many meters above the floor is the comfortable reach of persons confined to a wheelchair. 0.70 - 1.20 mts.
How many m. is the comfortable clearance for knee and leg space under tables for wheelchair users. 0.74 mts.
Accessibility, reachability, usability, orientation, workability and efficiency, and ___ are Safety
the basic planning requirements of BP344.
Number of wheelchair seating for an assembly seating capacity of 51-300. 4
R.A. 7277 Magna Carta for Disabled
Persons
A long interior passageway providing access to several rooms. Corridor
A raised rim of concrete, stone or metal which forms the edge of street, sidewalk, etc. Curb

FIRE CODE OF THE PHILIPPINES

Minimum exit door width. 0.71 mtr.
Minimum floor to ceiling height. 2.30 mts.
Maximum stair rise height for a class A stair. 0.19 mtr.
Maximum height between landings for class A stair. 2.75 mts.
Minimum headroom for class A & B stairs. 2.00 mts.
Unit area per person for waiting areas or standing rooms. 0.28 sqm.
Number of exits for place of assembly for 1000 occupants 4
Travel distance to an exit without fire sprinkler system. 46.00 mts.
Travel distance to an exit with fire sprinkler system. 61.00 mts.
Minimum spacing of rows of seats from back to back for a public assembly building. 0.83 mtr.
Maximum number of seats in a row in between aisles. 14
Maximum number of seats in a row opening on to an aisle at one side. 7
Standard width of a seat without dividing arms for places of assembly. 60 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60. 91 cms.
Minimum headroom created by any projection from the ceiling. 2.00 mts.
Minimum clear width of turnstiles. 56 cms.
Minimum dimension of landings in direction of travel for class A & B stairs. 112 cms.
Minimum number of risers in any one (1) flight of stairs. 3
Minimum height of a handrail above the upper surface of the tread. 76 cms.
Minimum clearance of a handrail from any wall. 38 mm.
Minimum height of a guard rail. 91 cms.
Maximum height of a guard rail. 106 cms.
Minimum inner radius of a monumental stair. 7.50 mts.
Minimum width of any balcony or bridge. 112 cms.
Minimum width of a class A ramp. 112 cms.
Maximum rise of any floor from the balcony floor to which an access door leads. 20.3 cms
Maximum vertical height in floors for an escalator. 1floor
Minimum width of a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 55.9 cms.
Minimum width of landing for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 55.9 cms.
Minimum tread for a fire escape stair for small buildings. 15.25 cms.
Maximum rise of fire escape stair for a small building. 30.5 cms.
Maximum rise of fire escape stair for existing stairs. 22.9 cms.
Maximum height between landings for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 3.66 mts.
Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 2.13 mts.
Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for small buildings. 1.98 mts.
Number of exits for place of assembly for 600-1000 occupants. 3
Maximum occupant load for a class C public assembly. 50-300
Minimum number of exit for an Institutional type of structure. 2
Maximum travel distance between room door intended as exit access and exit with 30 mts.
sprinkler system for institutional use.
Maximum travel distance from the door of any room to exit for hotels with sprinkler. 30 mts.
Maximum travel distance from the main entrance door to exit for apartments with sprinkler. 31 mts.
Minimum increase in width for an aisle per linear meter. 2.5 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving one side for a 91 cms.
public assembly building.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving two sides for a 1.00 mtr.
public assembly building.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of below 60 for a public assembly building. 76 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle for an educational use building. 1.80 mts.
Minimum width of an aisle for hospitals or nursing homes. 2.44 mts.
Minimum width of an aisle for custodial care institutions. 1.83 mts.
Minimum width of an aisle for business use structure. 112 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle for an industrial building. 112 cms.
Occupant load per person for laboratories. 4.60 sqm.
Jails are classified under what classification of occupancy. Institutional
Courtrooms w/ occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what classification of occupancy. Assembly
Armories w/ an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what classification of occupancy Assembly
Libraries are classified under what classification of occupancy. Business
Rooms where baled, bundled or piled materials segregated into desired sizes or groups. Picking rooms.
Buildings or structures 15 meters or more in height. High rise building
Buildings or structures used for the storage of explosives, shells, projectile, etc. Explosive magazine
An air compartment or chamber to which 1 or more ducts are connected and which form Plenum
part of an air distribution system.
A kind of stable explosive compound which explodes by percussion. Fulminate
Descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air. Phyrophoric
A material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support combustion. Oxidizing material
A process where a piece of metal is heated prior to changing its shape and dimension. Forging
The process of first raising the temperature to separate the more volatile from the less volatile Distillation
parts and then cooling and condensing the result vapor so as to produce a nearly purified substance.
Finely powdered substance w/c when mixed w/ air in proper proportion & ignited will cause explosion. Dust
Temperature rating at flash point. 37.8 oC (100 oF)
A class of fire with flammable liquid and gasses. Class B
The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted into vapor. Boiling Point
Minimum fire resistance rating for a firewall. 4 hrs.
A continuous passageway for the transmission of air. Duct System
The minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient Flash Point
concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air.
A gas, fume or vapor used for the destruction or control of insects, fungi, vermin, germs, Fumigant
rodents or other pests.
Minimum width of any driveway in and around a lumber yard / piles. 4.50 mts.
Minimum height of fence for a lumber yard for exterior storage of lumbers. 1.80 mts.
Maximum width of sumps for the retention of oil and petroleum products. 3.70 mts.
For Refineries, distilleries, and chemical plants, the minimum height for a fence. 1.50 mts.
Minimum travel distance from any individual room subject to occupancy by not more 6 persons. 15.00 mts.
Maximum distance of travel from the high hazard area to an exit. 23.00 mts.
Minimum distance of an incinerator from any structure used other than a single family dwelling. 3.00 mts.
Maximum reduction in width of a stair by a handrail. 9 cms.
Minimum door width of a single door in a door way. 71 cms.
Maximum change in elevation between the interior of a door to the outside of it other than a balcony. 20.5 cms.
Maximum force in kilograms required for a panic hardware. 7 kgs.
Maximum height required for a panic hardware installation. 112 cms.
Minimum height required for a panic hardware installation. 76 cms.
Maximum number of occupant for a subdivided room or space by a folding partition. 20
Minimum width of a door for family day care homes. 61 cms.
Minimum stair width for a class B stair serving an occupant load of less than 50. 91 cms.
Length of a nosing or effective projection over the level immediately below it for tread 25 mm
below 25 cms in dimension.
Maximum height of a handrail. 86.5 cms.
A combustible liquid is any liquid having a flash point at or above. 37.8 oC (100 oF)
The time duration that a material or construction can withstand the effect of standard fire test is. Fire resistance rating
Any material which by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements Cryogenic
produces a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surrounding.
Classified as mercantile occupancies, the travel distance from exits shall be. 30.50 mts.
Under what classification of occupancy does pool rooms fall. Assembly
Under what classification of occupancy does home for the aged fall. Institutional
Under what classification of occupancy does court houses fall. Business
Under what classification of occupancy does refineries fall. Industrial
Under what classification of occupancy does drugstores fall. Mercantile
Minimum width of an aisle in a store for mercantile occupancies. 71 cms.
Minimum number of aisles for Class 'A' stores. 1
Minimum clear width of aisles for a Class 'A' store. 1.50 mts.
Minimum clear width of an exit access through a covered mall. 3.66 mts.
Minimum height of buildings requiring automatic sprinkler protection. 15 mts.
Standard inner radius of a curved stair in business occupancies. 763 cms.
Maximum height of riser for Class 'A' stairs. 19 cms.
Maximum height of riser for Class 'B' Stairs. 20 cms.
Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving more than 50 persons. 112 cms.
Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving 50 persons and below. 91 cms.
Maximum horizontal projection of a handrail over a stair. 38 mm.
Minimum width of a stair width for Class 'A' stairs. 25 mm.
Maximum height between landings for a Class 'B' stairs. 3.70 mts.
Minimum width of landings in direction of travel for Class 'A / B' stairs. 112 cms.
Minimum width of Class 'A' ramp. 112 cms.
Minimum width of Class 'B' ramp. 76 cms.
Standard slope of Class 'B' ramp in percentage. 10-17%
Maximum height between landings for Class 'A' ramp. No limit
Maximum height between landings for Class 'B' ramp. 3.66 mts.
Minimum width of ramps of 3 stories or more in height. 1.20 mts.
Minimum width for fire escape for existing stairs. 55.9 cms.
Minimum horizontal dimension of any landing of platform for existing stairs for fire escape. 55.9 cms.
Maximum rise for a fire escape for very small buildings. 30.5 cms.
Maximum height between landings for fire escape for existing stairs. 3.66 mts.
Minimum distance travel to an exit for storage occupancies of high hazard commodities. 23 mts.
Class of fire involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, and Class D
other similar materials.
Class of fire involving ordinary combustible materials such as wood, papers, cloth, rubber, & plastics. Class A
A tank, vat or container of flammable or combustible liquid in which articles or materials Dip Tank
are immersed for the purpose of coating, finishing, treating or similar processes.
An integrated system of under ground or overhead piping or both connected to a source Automatic
of extinguishing agents or medium and designed in accordance with fire protection Fire
engineering standards which when actuated by its automatic detecting device, Suppression
suppresses fire within the area protected. System
A continuous and unobstructed route of exit from any point in a building to a public way. Means of Egress
Minimum distance of an incinerator containing kindled fire or rubbish fire or bonfires. 5.00 mts.
Under what classification of occupancy does museums fall? Assembly
Under what classification of occupancy does town halls fall? Business
Maximum width of a single door in a doorway. 1.22 mts.
Minimum tread for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 22.9 cms.
Maximum spacing of rungs for a fire escape ladder. 30.5 cms.
Minimum spacing of rungs for a fire escape ladder. 25 cms.
Class III combustible liquids shall mean any liquid having a flash point at how many deg. Celsius? 60 oC
In standard seating, the minimum spacing from back to back. 0.83 mtr.
Minimum space from the back of chair to the front of the chair behind. 30 cms.
Maximum slope for aisles for public assembly structures. (1:8) 12.5%
Size of standpipe provided for each stage for public assembly building. 63.5 mm.
Occupant load per person for classrooms. 1.8 sqm.
Where exterior corridors or balconies are provided as means of exit, they shall open to the 76.25 mts.
outside and shall be spaced ___ meters apart. (Educational)
Minimum dimension of a rescue window for educational occupancies. 55 cms.
Maximum height from the floor for a rescue window for educational occupancies. 82 cms.
Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in hospitals and nursing homes. 2.44 mts.
Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in residential-custodial care. 1.83 mts.
Any room for sleeping in institutional occupancies if subdivided shall have a maximum 465 sqm.
area of how many square meters?
Includes buildings or groups of building under the same management in which there are Hotel
more than 15 sleeping accommodations for hire.
Includes buildings containing three or more living units independent cooking & bathroom facilities, Apartment Buildings
whether designed as rowhouse, apartment house, tenement, garden apartment or by any other name.
Minimum number of stories of apartment buildings requiring fire alarm system. 3
Minimum number of apartment units requiring fire alarm system. 12

PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
The third phase of an architect's regular services. Contract documents phase
Project financing falls under what kind of service of the architect. Pre-design services
Comprehensive planning falls under what service of the architect. Specialized allied services
The fee of the architect for design-build services on a guaranteed maximum cost aside 10%
from his fee for regular design services.
What percentage of an architect's work is liability under the civil code. 10%
For interior design services, the architect shall be paid what percentage of the fee upon 50%
submission of the final design.
When the owner fails to implement the plans and documents for construction as 85%
prepared by the architect, the architect is entitled to receive what percentage of his fee.
The minimum fee per appearance of an architect when rendering service as an expert witness is. PHP 500.00
The minimum basic fee for specialized decorative building. 12%
The minimum basic fee for industrial buildings with a project cost below 50 million pesos. 6%
The minimum basic fee for hospitals with a project cost below 50 million pesos. 8%
In design-build services, the single-point-responsibility of project delivery puts the legal Architect
liability for both the design and construction on the.
The release of 10% retention by the owner shall be done after how many months from 3 months
the date of final payment.
Printed documents stipulating the procedural and administrative aspect of the contract. General conditions
An outline specification enumerating the type and trade names of materials to be used. Schedule of material and finishes
A price given by a contractor, sub-contractor, material supplier or vendor to furnish Quotation
materials, labor or both.
A statement from the architect confirming the amount of money due the contractor for Certificate of payment
work accomplished.
A bond furnished by the contractor and his surety as a guarantee to execute the work in Performance bond
accordance with the terms of the contract.
An offer to perform the work prescribed in a contract at a specified cost. Bid
The fee of the architect for design-build services by administration. 7%
A stipulation of the use of specific products or processes without provision for substitution. Closed specification
A list of instructions stipulating the manner on which bids are to be prepared. Instruction to bidders
The performance and Payment Bonds shall be released by the owner after the expiration 2 months
of how many months from the final acceptance of the work.
The Guarantee Bond is released how many months after the date of final payment. 12 months / 1 yr
How many days shall the Building Official issue a certificate of occupancy after final 30 days
inspection of the project.
A statute specifying the period of time within which legal action must be brought for Statute of Limitation
alleged damage or injury.
A bond, the form or content of which is prescribed by statute. Statutory Bond
A rule that certain kinds of contracts are enforceable unless signed and in writing or Statute of Frauds
unless there is a written memorandum of their terms signed by the party to be charged.
A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed Lease
period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'.
A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease. Leasehold
The person receiving a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., by lease. Lessee
The person granting a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., by lease. Lessor
Range of the multiplier for Multiple of Direct Personnel Expense. 2-2.5
This type of compensation is only applied to non-creative work. Multiple of Direct
Personnel Expenses
Supervision Work is a non-creative work, true or false. TRUE
A world-wide used method of compensation for architectural services. Percentage of Construction Cost
This method of compensation is applied only to pre-design services, supervision work, Multiple of Direct
and other works which the Architect may perform other than the regular and specialized Personnel
allied services. Expenses
This type of compensation is similar to the concept being charged by realtors, developers, & lawyers. Percentage of Construction Cost
For reimbursable expenses, how many kilometers from the Architect's office shall a work 50 kms.
be located to allow reimbursable expenses.
This method of compensation is frequently used where there is continuing relationship Professional Fee Plus Expenses
on a series of projects.
The full-time construction inspector shall be under the technical control and supervision of the ___. Architect
Submission of shop drawings shall be accompanied by a ___ in duplicate. Letter of transmittal
How many sets of shop drawings for approval shall the contractor submit to the Architect? 3
Who shall have responsibility of securing but not liable for non-issuance of the final occupancy permit. Contractor
True or false, can the owner relegate to the contractor the responsibility of establishing TRUE
the lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and benchmarks provided that the owner pays
the contractor for such works?
Who shall have responsibility for establishing lot lines, boundary lines, easements & benchmarks? Owner
Who shall pay for the services of a licensed surveyor for confirmation and certification of Contractor
the location of column centers, piers, walls, pits, trenches, pipe work, culvert work, utility
lines, and other similar works required by the contract.
Professional Fee for the Architect as a full-time supervisor. 1-1.5%
Professional fee for the Construction Manager. 1.5-3%
Four types of Contracts for construction management Firm Fixed Price
Fixed Price Incentive
CPIF / CPAF
Cost Plus Fixed Fee
Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of sidewalk width to that of the road right- of-way? (1/6)
At what interest rate per month should a client pay the architect should the former fail to 2%
pay the latter beyond 30 days from receipt of billing?
What code holds the architect responsible for the building/structure he designed for a Civil Code
certain period of time.
What type of compensation is applied to cases where the architect's personal time is Per Diem+Reimb. Expenses
required, such as conferences, joint venture activities, etc.?
What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from the contract? Payment Bond
What type of compensation is applied to most of Gov't projects and entails more paper Lump Sum / Fixed Fee
works and is advantageous to both client and architect.
Professional Fee for the Project Manager. 2-5%
If the Project Manager is hired by the owner, who shall have the responsibility of hiring Project Manager
the Construction Manager?
True or false, based on the Civil Code, the Project Manager has no legal responsibility TRUE
insofar as design and construction is concerned.
His primary responsibility is the exercise of overall cost control which relieves the owner of many of Project Manager
the anxieties that usually beset particularly those concerned w/ forecasting cost & completion dates.
In the architect's code of ethics, to whom does the architect has responsibility to seek Public / People
opportunities for constructive service in civic and urban affairs?
What PD created the PRC which regulates the practice of various professionals. PD 223
Architect XYZ uses paid advertisements without sanction by professional consensus and People / Public
years of experience. His action is unethical with respect to his relation to whom?
Additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before date of bidding. Bid Bulletin
The offer of a bidder to perform the work described by the contract documents when made Proposal
out and submitted on the prescribed proposal form, properly signed and sealed.
The cashier's check/surety bond accompanying the proposal submitted by the bidder,as a guarantee, Proposal Bond
the bidder will enter into contract w/ the owner for the construction of work, if contract is awarded to him.
Instructions which may be issued prior to the bidding to supplement and/or modify Special Provisions
drawings, specifications, and/or general conditions of the contract.
Written/printed description of work to be done describing qualities of material & mode of construction. Specifications
Means information, advice or notification pertinent to the project delivered in person or Written Notice
sent by registered mail to the individual, firm or corporation at the last known business
address of such individual, firm or corporation.
Includes labor or materials or both as equipment, transportation, or other facilities Work
necessary to commence and complete the construction called for in the contract.
Means to build-in, mount in position, connect or apply any object specified ready for the intended use. Install
Means to purchase and/or fabricate and deliver to jobsite. Furnish
Means to furnish and install. Provide
No further retention shall be made on the balance of the contract when how many percent 50%
of the contract has been completed?
No payment shall be made on contracts in excess of how many percent of the contract price. 65%
The guarantee bond is equal to how many percent of the contract price? 30%
How many percent of the architect's fee is payable to the architect upon completion of the 30%
preparation of the schematic design phase and up to final design development phase?
Standard factor computed for changes and/or revisions made on completed contracts. 2.5
Approximately, how many square meters of office space for the architect is built by the 12 sqm.
contractor as temporary facilities for the project.
All trees and other plants that need to be transplanted elsewhere within ___ meters 50 / Contractor
shall be done by the ___ at his own expense.
If there is a variance/discrepancy between the drawings and specifications, what shall be followed? Specifications
How many days prior to bidding shall the contractor seek the architect's 15 Days
clarification as to the particular areas of work which requires evaluation of the architect?
How many days upon written notice can a contractor terminate a contract with a valid reason? 15 Days
Suspension of work for ___ days by order of any court or other public authority through 90 Days
no act or fault of the contractor gives the him the right to terminate contract.
True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to pay the False (30 days)
contractor any sum within 15 days after its award by arbitration
True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to act upon False (15 days)
any request for payment within 30 days after its certification by the architect.
Who declares bankruptcy as a valid reason for the termination of a contract? Contractor
True or false, upon termination of contract and upon the decision of the architect that TRUE
materials and equipment left by the contractor which do not belong to him can be used
and rent of such shall be borne by the failing contractor.
True or false, in case of suspension of work, all unpaid work executed including expenses TRUE
incurred during suspension shall be evaluated by the architect and charged to the owner.
True or false, the owner has no right to claim liquidated damages if he takes over the FALSE
work from the contractor for failure to complete the project.
How many days prior to canceling insurance be given to the owner stipulating the intention to cancel? 10 days
How many percent of the contract amount is the Performance Bond? 15%
How many percent of the contract amount is the Payment Bond? 15%
A contract provision setting forth the damages a party must pay in the event of his breach. Penalty Clause
Basic Fee for Physical Planning Type 1 or site such as industrial estates, commercial 5,000 for First 50 Hectares
centers, sports complex, resorts, etc.
Predecessor of PD 1096 R.A. 6451
What presidential decree institutionalized the profession of environmental planning? PD 1308
It is a right enfoeceable against specific property to secure payment of an obligation. Liens
Minimum basic fee for simple projects. 6%
Minimum basic fee for alterations/renovations. 150%
When the architect is engaged to render opinion or advise, clarification or explanation 200 / hr
on technical matters pertaining to his profession, the minimum basic fee shall be ___.
When rendering service as an expert witness, the architect is compensated ___/ hr. 500
Minimum basic fee for Group 5 Projects (monumental). 12%
What is Group 6 Project classification? Repetitive Construction
Minimum Basic fee for housing projects. 10% of 1st unit
60% 2nd-10th Unit
30% 11th and above
Under what classification of Project does Hospitals and Medical Buildings fall? Group 3 (Exceptional Character)
Under what classification of Project does Stadium fall? Group 3 (Exceptional Character)
Minimum Per diem paid to the architect if work is beyond 50 kms. From office. PHP 750.00
On the remaining 15% work fee of the architect, where does the 5% go. Construction Phase Service
Repairs and corrective works at the expense of the contractor should be done within how 5 days
many days after written notice by owner?
Failure on the part of the contractor to remove condemned work shall give the owner right 10 days
to remove said work at contractor's exepense and contractor shall pay the owner the
expenses incurred within how many days from removal by the owner of said work?
Contract time reckoning shall commence on the ___ from receipt of ___. 7th day / Notice to Proceed
An area of a city where municipal buildings are grouped. Civic Center
Any article of property not consisting of or affixed to land plus any interest in land that is Chattel
less than a freehold.
No person who is not a citizen of the Philippines may take the board exams or practice Reciprocity
the profession unless the country of his relation allows the same ___.

HISTORY OF ARCHITECTURE
Earthen burial mounds containing upright and lintel stones forming chambers for Tumuli
consecutive burials for several to a hundred persons.
Another term for crenel or intervals between merlon of a battlement. Embrasures
Taj Mahal temple is located in ___. Agra
A vault created when two barrel vaults intersect at the right angles. Groin Vault
A small tower usually corbelled at the corner of the castle. Bartizan
A roof in which 4 faces rests diagonally between the gables and converge at the roof. Helm Roof
A concave molding approximately quarter round. Cavetto
Embrasures. Crenel
Formal architecture, one of the principles of composition. Balance
Different historical styles combined. Eclecticism
Taj Mahal is a building example of what architecture. Saracenic Architecture
A slight vertical curvature in the shaft of a column. Entasis
A shallow cistern or drain area in the center of a house. Impluvium
A raised stage reserved for the clergy in early Christian churches. Bema
A decorative bracket usually taking the form of a cyma reversa strap. Console
Semi-palatial house surrounded by an open site. Villa
A spherical triangle forming the transition from the circular plan of a dome to the poly- Pendentive
gonal plan of its supporting structure.
Coffers, sunken panels in the ceiling. Lacunaria
A term given to the mixture of Christian, Spanish, and Muslim 12th-16th century architecture. Mudejar
The use of monsters in doorways is prevalent in what architecture? Persian
A water clock or an instrument for measuring time by the use of water. Clepsydra
Both the regula and the mutule has guttae numbering a total of ___. 18
A quadrigas is a ___. 4-horse Chariot
The water-leaf and tongue is a usual ornament found in the ___. Cyma Reversa
The Corona is usually painted with the ___. Key Pattern
Figures of which the upper parts alone are carved, the rest running into a parallelopiped Termini
or diminishing pedestal.
Marble mosaic pattern used on ceilings of vaults and domes. Opus Tesselatum
The sleeping room of the 'megaron'. Thalamus
The origin of the door architrave. Timber-enframed Portal
The atrium type of house originated with the ___. Etruscans
Orientation of the Roman temple is towards the ___. Forum
Orientation of the Greek temple is towards the ___. East
Orientation of the Etruscan temple is towards the ___. South
Orientation of the Medieval Church. West
The first plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Bramante. Greek Cross
The final plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Carlo Maderna. Latin Cross
Where "Constructivism" originated? Moscow
Combination of the new art and the graphing of the old art. Eclecticism
Return in the use of Roman Orders in modern age. Neo-Classism
Scheme or solution of a problem in architecture. Parti
The beginner of the great hypostyle hall at karnak and the founder of the 19th dynasty. Rameses 1
The mineral of greatest importance to Greek architecture of which Greece and her Marble
domains had ample supply of was.
Greek architecture was essentially Columnar trabeated
Forming the imposing entrance to the acropolis and erected by the architect Mnesicles is the __. Propylaea
The building in the acropolis generally considered as being the most nearly perfect Parthenon
building ever erected is the.
The space between the colonnade and the naos wall in Greek temple. Pteroma
Amphitheaters are used for ___. Gladiatorial Contests
An ancient Greek Portico, a long colonnaded shelter used in public places. Stoa
The fortified high area or citadel of an ancient Greek City. Acropolis
An upright ornament at the eaves of a tile roof, concealing the foot of a row of convex Antefix (Antefixae)
tiles that cover the joints of the flat tiles.
Strictly, a pedestal at the corners/peak of roof to support an ornament more usually ornament itself. Acroterion / Acroterium
Also called a 'Honeysuckle' ornament. Anthemion
In ancient Greece and Rome, a storeroom of any kind, but especially for storing wine. Apotheca
The characteristic of Greek ornament. Anthemion
Temples in Greece that have a double line of columns surrounding the naos. Dipteral
Senate house for chief dignitaries in Greek architecture Prytaneion
The style of the order with massive and tapering columns resting on a base of 3 steps. Doric
Caryatid porch is from what architecture? Greek
Female statues with baskets serving as columns. Canephora
The Parthenon is from what architecture. Greek
Richly carved coffins of Greece and Mesopotamia. Sarcophagus
The council house in Greece. Bouleuterion
The xerxes hall of hundred columns was introduced during the Mesopotamian Palace of Persepolis
architecture, which palace was it used.
Greek equivalent of the Roman forum, a place of open air assembly or market. Agora
The convex projecting molding of eccentric curve supporting the abacus of a Doric capital. Echinus
From the Greek forms of temple, the three where it lies is known as ___. Crepidoma
From the Greek temples, a temple that have porticoes of columns at the front and rear. Amphi-Prostyle
In Greek temples, the equivalent of the crypt is the ___. Naos
The tomb beneath a church. Crypt
Semi-circular/semi-polygonal space usually in church terminating in axis & intended to house, altar. Apse
Agora is from what architecture? Greek
A plant whose leaves form the lower portions of the Corinthian capital. Acanthus
Structure of wedge-shaped blocks over an opening. Arch
The space between the sloping roof over the aisle and the aisle vaulting, so also called a blind story. Triforium
A windowed wall that rises above the roof of adjacent walls that admit light into the interior. Clerestory
A standard, usually of length, by which the proportions of a building are determined. Module
The triangular or segmental space enclosed by a pediment or arch. Tympanum
A line of counterthrusting arches on columns or piers. Arcade
In the classical order, the lowest part or member of the entablature; the beam that spans Architrave
from column to column.
In classical architecture, the elaborated beam member carried by the columns. Entablature
Parts of an entablature, in order of top to bottom. Cornice
Frieze
Architrave
Triangular piece of wall above the entablature. Pediment
A long arcaded entrance porch in an early Christian church. Narthex
The principal or central part of a church, extending from the narthex to the choir or Nave
chancel and usually flanked by aisles.
The covered walk of an atrium. Ambulatory
A basin for ritual cleansing with water in the atrium of an early Christian basilica. Cantharus
A large apsidal extension of the interior volume of a church. Exedra
An ornamental canopy of stone or marble permanently place over the altar in a church. Baldachino
A decorative niche often topped with a canopy and housing a statue. Tabernacle
A recess in a wall to contain a statue or other small items. Niche
A slab forming the crowning member of the capital. Abacus
The crowning member of a column. Capital
A rectangular or square slab supporting the column at the base. Plinth
A low screen wall enclosing the choir in early Christian church. Chancel
The most stupendous and impressive of the rock-cut-temples. Great Temple, Abu Simbel
The four-seated colossal statues of Rameses II is carved in the pylon of the ___. Great Temple, Abu Simbel
The Greek male statues used as columns. Atlantes
A recessed or alcove with raised seats where disputes took place. Exedra
A single line of columns surrounding the Naos. Peripteral
The uppermost step in the crepidoma. Stylobate
The lowest step in the crepidoma. Stereobate
A building in Greek and Roman for exercises or physical activities. Gymnasium
The three chamber of a Greek temple. Pronaos, Naos, and Epinaos
A Greek building that contains painted pictures. Pinacotheca
Temple with a portico of columns arranged in front. Prostyle
The clear space in between columns. Intercolumniation
Intercolumniation of 2.25 diameters. Eustyle
Intercolumniation of 4 diameters. Areostyle
Intercolumniation of 2 diameters. Systyle
Pycnostyle intercolumniation has how many diameters? 1.5 Diameters
Diastyle intercolumniation has how many diameters. 3 Diameters
A kindred type to the theater. Odeion
In Greek, it is the Roman prototype of the Thermae. Gymnasium
Greek order that has no base. Doric
The most beautiful and best preserved of the Greek theaters. Epidauros
The finest of Greek Tombs, also known as the 'tomb of Agamemnon'. Treasury of Atreus
Greek sculptures may be classified as "architectural sculpture, free standing statuary, and the ___". Sculptured Reliefs
One of the best examples of a surviving megaron type of Greek domestic building. House #33
The molding that is often found in the Doric Order. Bird's Beak
The wall or colonnade enclosing the Temenos Peribolus
A type of monument erected to support a tripod, as a prize for athletic exercises or Choragic Monument
musical competitions in Greek festivals.
Conceptualized the Corinthian capital. Callimachus
The warm room in the Thermae. Tepidarium
The Hot room of the Thermae. Calidarium
The cold or unheated pool in the Thermae. Frigidarium
The dry or sweating room in the Thermae. Sudatorium
The dressing room of the Thermae. Apodyteria
The room for oils and unguents in the thermae. Unctuaria
The Erechtheion of Mnesicles is from what architecture? Greek
The part of the Corinthian capital without flower. Balteus
The senate house of the Greeks. Prytaneion
In the Doric Order, the shaft terminates in the ___. Hypotrachelion
In what Order is the Parthenon. Doric
In what Order is the temple of Nike Apteros, Athens. Ionic
This temple is dedicated to 'Wingless Victory'. Temple of Nike Apteros, Athens
This structure in Greece was erected by Andronikos Cyrrhestes for measuring time by Tower of the Winds, Athens
means of a clepsydra internally and sun dial externally.
From what architecture is the Stoa? Greek
Corresponds to the Greek naos. Cella
The large element in the frieze. Triglyph
Male counterpart of the Caryatids. Telamones or Atlantes
Like Caryatids and Atlantes, this is a three-quarter length figures. Herms
This is a pedestal with human, animal, or mythological creatures at the top. Terms
the covered passage around an open space or garth, connecting the church to the chapter Cloisters
house, refectory and other parts of the monastery.
On either side of the choir, pulpits for the reading of the epistle and the gospel are called. Ambo
In some churches, there is a part which is raised as part of the sanctuary which later Bema
developed into the transept, this is the ___.
In early Christian churches, the bishop took the central place at the end of the church called ___. Apse
One of the few churches of its type to have survived having a square nave and without Nea Moni
cross-arms, roofed by a dome which spans to the outer walls of the building.
A tower raised above a roof pierced to admit light. Lantern
The space for the clergy & choir is separated by a low screen wall from the body of the church called. Cancelli
The dining hall in a monastery, a convent, or a college. Refectory
The open court in an Italian palazzo. Cortel
Romanesque architecture in Italy is distinguished from that of the rest of Europe by the Marble
use of what material for facing walls.
The use of ___ for facing walls distinguishes Romanesque architecture in Italy from that Marble
of the rest of Europe.
With the use of concrete made possible by pozzolan, a native natural cement, the Arch and vault
Romans achieved huge interiors with the.
Which of the order was added by the Romans to the orders used by the Greeks. Composite
The architectural character of the Romanesque architecture is. Sober and dignified
The most famous and perfect preservation of all ancient buildings in Rome. Pantheon
The outstanding group of Romanesque is found in ___. Pisa
A hall built in Roman Empire for the administration of justice. Basilica
cubicula or bedroom is from what architecture. Roman
Memorial monuments of persons buried elsewhere in Roman architecture. Cenotaphs
A roman house with a central patio. Atrium House
Revival of classical Roman style Romanesque
The style emerging in western Europe in the early 11th century, based on Roman and Romanesque
Byzantine elements, characterized by massive articulated wall structures, round arches,
and powerful vaults, and lasting until the advent of Gothic architecture.
The public square of imperial Rome. Forum
The cold section of a Roman Bath. Frigidarium
Roman building which is a prototype of the hippodrome of the Greek. Circus
Roman building for which gladiatorial battles took place. Colosseum
What sporting event takes place in the Palaestra? Wrestling
A foot race course in the cities. stadium
A temple with 1-4 columns arranged between antae at the front. In Antis
A temple with 1-4 columns arranged between antae at the front and rear. Amphi-Antis
What orders did the Etruscans and the Romans add making 5 in all? Tuscan and Composite
What allowed the Romans to build vaults of a magnitude never equaled till the birth of steel for bldgs. Use of Concrete
The finest of all illustrations of Roman construction. Pantheon
The oldest and most important forum in Rome. Forum Romanum
In Roman fountains, the large basin of water. Lacus
Spouting jets in Roman fountain. Salientes
The oldest circus in Rome. Circus Maximus
The colosseum in Rome also known as the "flavian amphitheater" was commenced by Vespasian / Domitian
whom and completed by whom?
The private house of the Romans. Domus
Roman rectangular temples stood on a ___. Podium
Roman large square tiles. Bepidales
A type of Roman wall facing with alternating courses of brickworks. Opus Mixtum
A type of Roman wall facing which is made of small stone laid in a loose pattern roughly Opus Incertum
resembling polygonal work.
A type of Roman wall facing with a net-like effect. Opus Recticulatum
A type of roman wall facing with rectangular block with or without mortar joints. Opus Quadratum
A Roman structure used as hall of justice and commercial exchanges. Basilica
Roman apartment blocks. Insula
The prominent feature of the facades in Romanesque Central Italy. Ornamental Arcades
The best example of a German Romanesque church with apses at both east and west ends. Worms Cathedral
The Pantheon is from what architecture. Roman
In the Cyma Reversa molding of the Romans, what ornaments are usually found? Acanthus and Dolphin
A small private bath found in Roman houses or palaces. Balneum
In Egyptian architecture, the tomb of the pharaohs is the____. Pyramid
The great pyramid at Gizeh was built during the 4th dynasty by ____. Cheops
In Mesopotamian architecture, religion called for temples made of sun-dried bricks. Ziggurat
In the middle kingdom, in Egyptian architecture, who consolidate the administrative Amenemhat I
system, made a survey of the country, set boundaries to the provinces, and other helpful works.
Who erected the earliest known obelisk at Heliopolis. Senusret I
Jubilee festivals of the pharaohs. Heb-sed
The world's first large-scale monument in stone. Pyramid of Zoser
The highest sloped pyramid in Gizeh Pyramid of Khufu
The three pyramids in Gizeh Cheops
Chefren
Mykerinos
Sacred artificial mountains of Babylon and Assyria. Ziggurat
Holy mountains. Ziggurat
Favorite motifs of design of the Egyptians. Palm, Lotus, and Papyrus
Two main classes of temples in Egyptian Architecture. Mortuary and Cult Temples
Egyptian temples for ministrations to deified pharaohs. Mortuary Temple
Structure whose corners are made to face the four cardinal points. Ziggurat
Structure whose sides are made to face the four cardinal points. Pyramid
Egyptian temples for the popular worship of the ancient and the mysterious gods. Cult Temple
A pillared hall in which the roofs rests on the column in Egyptian temples. Hypostyle Hall
Tombs built for the Egyptian nobility rather than the royalty. Rock-Hewn Tombs
The Egyptian Ornament symbolizing fertility. Papyrus
Egyptian Temple for popular worship of the ancient and mysterious gods. Cult Temple
A small payer house in Egyptian architecture. Madrassah
From the 5th century to the present, the character of Byzantine architecture is the practice of using_ Domical roof construction
The finest and remaining example of Byzantine architecture. St. Sophia, Constantinople
The most famous structure of Byzantine architecture and notable of its large dome. Hagia Sophia
The iconoclastic movement during the Byzantine period forbade the use of ___. Statues
Type of plan of the Byzantine churches. Centralized
The supreme monument of Byzantine architecture. St. Sophia, Constantinople
Smallest cathedral in the world. (Byzantine period) Little Metropole Cath., Athens
A compound bracket or capital in Japanese architecture. Masu-gumi
Japanese tea house. Cha-sit-su
A special feature of Japanese houses, used to display a flower arrangement or art. Tokonama
Plan shape of a Japanese pagoda. Square
Major contribution of the Renaissance Architecture. Baroque for of Ornamentation
Elizabethan Architecture is from what architecture. U.S. / English Renaissance
A faced without columns or pilaster in renaissance architecture. Astylar
The very ornate style of architecture developed in the later renaissance period. Baroque
A type of ornament in classic or renaissance architecture consisting of an assemblage Fret
of straight lines intersecting at right angles, and of various patterns.
A building in classic architecture decorated w/ flowers & plants w/ water for the purpose of relaxation. Nymphaeum
!5th to 18th century architecture. Renaissance
The architecture of the curved line is known as ___. Baroque
What architectural term is termed to be free from any historical style? Art Noveau
Art Noveau style first appeared in what structure. Tussel House
Art Noveau is known as the international style, in Germany it is known as ___. Jugendstijl
A multi-storied shrine like towers, originally a Buddhist monument of diminishing size with Pagoda
corbelled cornice and moldings.
Pantiles used for Chinese roofings. S-tiles
Plan shape of a Chinese pagoda. Octagonal
Usual number of stories for a Chinese pagoda. 13
From what architecture is the Angkor Vat? Cambodian
The Buddhist temple in ancient Cambodia which feature four faces of the compassionate Buddha. Bayon
The palace proper in Assyrian palaces. Seraglio
Private family apartments in Assyrian palaces. Harem
* The ornamental pattern work in stone, filling the upper part of a Gothic window. Tracery
Finest example of French-Gothic architecture Chartres Cathedral
How many stained glass are there in the Chartres Cathedral? 176
Projecting blocks of stone carved with foliage, typical in Gothic architecture. Crocket
The term applied to the Episcopal church of the diocese & the important structure of the Gothic period. Cathedral
Ifugao house (southern strain). Bale/ FALE
Sarimanok is a décor reflecting the culture of the ___. Visayan
First school which offered architecture in the Philippines. Liceo de Manila
The cistern storage of collected rainwater underneath the azotea of the bahay na bato. Aljibe
This church in the Philippines is the seat of the Malolos Congress. Barasoain Church
Used as food storage in the Bahay na Bato. Dispensa
The granary in traditional Bontoc House. Falig
Built by the Franciscan priest Fr. Blas dela Madre, this church in Rizal whose design Morong Church
depicts the heavy influence of Spanish Baroque, was declared a national treasure.
This church, 1st built by the Augustinian Fr. Miguel Murguia, has an unusually large bell Panay Capiz
which was made from approximately 70 sacks of coins donated by the towns people.
The tower atop the torogan where the princess and her ladies in waiting hide during occasions. Lamin
Found in the ground floor of the bahay na bato, it is where the carriages and floats are kept. Zaguan
The emergency hideout found directly behind the neadboard of the Sultan's bed. Bilik
The flat, open terrace open to the toilet, bath, and kitchen areas and also used as a Azotea
laundry and drying space and service area for the servants.
In the kitchen of the bahay kubo, the table on top of which is the river stone, shoe-shaped Dapogan
stove or kalan is known as ___.

ARCHITECTS
Architect of the Einstein Tower. Erich Mendelsohn
Founder of the Bauhaus School of Art. Walter Gropius
The architect of Chrysler building in N.Y. Van Alen
Architect of Iglesia ni Cristo. Carlos Santos Viola
A Filipino architect whose philosophy is 'the structure must be well oriented'. Caesar Homer Concio
Architect of Robinson's Galleria William Cosculluela
A house is like a flower pot Richard Josef Neutra
King Zoser's architect who was deified in the 26th dynasty. Imhotep
Less is more. Ludwig Mies Van Der Rohe
Architect of TWA airport. Eero Saarinen
The falling water by Frank Lloyd Wright is also known as ___. Kaufman House
First president and founder of PAS. Juan Nakpil
Modern architecture need not be western. Kenzo Tange
Architect of the national library, Philippines. Felipe Mendoza
Architect and furniture designer. Alvar Aalto
First registered architect in the Philippines. Tomas Mapua
Architect of Manila Hilton Hotel. Welton Becket
Architect of the famous propylaea, Acropolis. Mnesicles
Architects of the Parthenon. Callicrates and Ictinus
Master sculptor of the Parthenon. Phidias
Architect of the Erechtheion. Mnesicles
Who commenced the 'hall of hundred columns'? Xerxes
Who completed the 'hall of hundred columns'? Artaxerxes
Architect of the Temple of Zeus, Agrigentum Theron
Architect of the Temples of Zeus, Olympia. Libon
Roman architect of the Greek Temples of Zeus, Olympius. Cossutius
Form follows function. Louis Sullivan
The dominating personality who became an ardent disciple of the Italian renaissance style. Iñigo Jones
Who began the building of the Great Hypostyle Hall at Karnak? Thothmes I
Architect of the Great Serapeum at Alexandria. Ptolemy III
He created the Dymaxion House, "the first machine for living". Buckminster Fuller
Architect of the Lung Center of the Philippines. George Ramos
Architects of the Hagia Sophia. (St. Sophia, Constantinople) Anthemius and Isidorus
Architect of the World Trade Center. Minoru Yamasaki
The architect of the Pantheon. Agrippa
Architect of the Bi-Nuclear House, the H-Plan. Marcel Lajos Breuer
Mexican Architect/Engineer who introduced thin shell construction. Felix Outerino Candela
A is a machine to live in. Le Corbusier
Architect of the Chicago Tribune Tower. Eliel Saarinen
Architecture is Organic. Frank Lloyd Wright
Invented reinforced concrete in France. Hennevique
First elected U.A.P. president. Jose Herrera
Designer of the Bonifacio Monument. Juan Nakpil
Sculptor for the Bonifacio Monument. Guillermo Tolentino
Designer of the Taj Mahal. Shah Jahan
Expressionist Architect. Erich Mendelsohn
Founders of the "Art Noveau". John Ruskin and William Moris
Architect of the Batasang Pambansa. Felipe Mendoza
Architect of the Philippine Heart Center. George Ramos
Architect of the Rizal Memorial Stadium. Juan Nakpil
The architect of the Quiapo Church before its restoration. Juan Nakpil
Architect of SM Megamall. Antonio Sin Diong
Central Bank of the Philippines, Manila. Gabriel Formoso
G.S.I.S. Building, Roxas Boulevard. George Ramos
He erected the entrance Piazza at St. Peter's Basilica. Bernini