Car-Data Bank

CAR- DATA BANK
1. Rectification of a minor defect may be deferred:

a) If it is included in MEL
b) Included in MEL and pilot in charge is satisfied with regard to safe operation
c) As in (b) at any transit / Terminal Station
d) For al Flights
2. In house audit of an organization can be carried out:
a) 80 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
b) 45 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
c) 90 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
d) 61 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
3. Maintenance planning document is issued by:
a) DGCA b) FAA c) JAA d) None
4. Employment of foreign AME by Indian operator is subject to
a) Security clearance through DGCA
b) Oral check by DGCA
c) (1) and (2) are correct
d) None
5. Condition existing in an aircraft arising because of damage precluding the particular item performing their
intended function is:
a) Minor defect b) Defect c) Major Defect
d) None
6. Who is responsible to procure the copy of amendments to CAR?
a) Owner b) Operatorc) Owner / Operator
d) None of the above
7. All delays to scheduled service of 15 minutes duration or more on account of aircraft defect shall be reported
to
a) QCM b) DGCA c) RAWO
d) Not required to be reported
8. Fleet performance and ESR of a scheduled operator shall be forwarded to
a) One copy each to RAWO/DGCA
b) As in (1) every month
c) RAWO every month
d) DGCA every month
9. Records, associated with defects and rectification shall be preserved for a period of:
a) One year
b) May be required for consultation at the time of renewal of C of A
c) a & b are correct d) As decided by DGCA
10. Amendments to MEL based on revised MMEL shall be approved by
a) RAWO/Sub RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM
d) Manufacturer
11. In Service deterioration of engine or airframe performance are early indicated by;
a) Inspection finding
b) Intelligently monitoring of in flight instrument reading
c) Monthly information submitted to RAWO
d) Defects reported by Flight crew
12. Maintenance reliability control programme of scheduled operator is required to be approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Manufacturer d) QCM
13. Remedial measures to restore normal established trends within acceptable limits of performance are
developed by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) QCM d) RMU
14. Alert Notice is issued by:
a) RMU b) DGCA c) RAWO d) QCM
15. Alert values will be formed by scheduled operator, which will be numerically equal to
a) Mean value b) Mean value plus two standard deviations
c) Mean values plus one standard deviation
d) As recommended by manufactures
16. Whenever scheduled operator is over alert, a report is submitted:
a) In duplicate, to RAWO within 72 hours
b) In duplicate to DGCA with in 72 hours
c) In duplicate to DGCA
d) In duplicate to RAWO who in turn relay one copy of report to DGCA within 72 hours
17. To determine performance of airframe:
a) Relationship between fuel flow and TAS shall be established
b) Relationship between N1 and N2 shall be established
c) Recorded value of TAS shall be compared to its alert value
d) None
18. What are the defects reported to RAWO
a) Defects causing mechanical delay of 15 min or more
b) Major defect or defect requiring major repair of all operators
c) Defect whether major and minor on a public transport a/c
d) A and B
19. Following defects are included for computing reliability indices
a) All major defects
b) All defects including repetitive ones
c) As in (a) for public transport a/c and as in (b) for other
d) All are correct
20. Fleet performance, engineering statistics are prepared
a) By all operators every moth
b) Every month by scheduled operators
c) Every three months by scheduled operators
d) None
22. Un-acceptable deviation observed during evaluation of instrument reading would call for
a) Replacement of item
b) Maintenance actions by the operators
c) Reporting to manufacturers
d) Reporting to DGCA HQs
24. When deterioration is observed in engine
a) RAWO ask for such curative action as considered necessary
b) RAWO may ask for removal of engine
c) RAWO may ask for test flight except schedule operator
d) As in (A) or may even require replacement of deteriorated engine
25. Maintenance reliability control programme is useful in:
a) In detecting problem area existing on a/c engine or accessories
b) As in (A) which will help in planning preventive action in time
c) Amend its existing system of maintenance if required in consultation with RAWO
d) All are correct
26. Corrective maintenance as a result of pilot reported defect is:
a) Scheduled maintenance b) Un-scheduled maintenance
c) May be either of the two d) All are correct
27. A/C system reliability will be measured by:
a) No of pilot reported defects
b) No of confirmed failure
c) No of pilot reports for 1000 flight hours
d) None
28. MTBUR /MTBF are:
a) Computed values of expected reliability of a/c assumed in designing of aircraft
b) As in (a) which are used for setting alert values for latest aircraft
c) As in (b) since they are initial predictions, should be replaced after accumulating sufficient
experience
d) None
29. Reliability displays are prepared by:
a) Scheduled operators / every month
b) All operators / Quarterly
c) Schedule/Non schedule operators / monthly
d) None
30. Reliability display should summarize experience of
a) One year b) Two years c) 2 to 3 years
d) None of these
31. When operators reliability index of engine is above the alert value corrective pgrogramme is submitted to :
a) RAWO by 25th of the month b) DGCA by 25th of the month
c) RAWO by 10th of the month d) To RAWO
32. Structural significant item means:
a) Item which is fail safe
b) Item, failure of which may result in lower of residual strength
c) Item which can sustain damage so that the remaining structural can carry reasonable load
d) None
33. Maintenance action such as overhaul, servicing carried out at pre-determined interval for the purpose of
limiting deterioration to acceptable level is known as:
a) Hard time b) On condition c) Condition monitoring
d) All the above
34. Which one of the following can be called as on condition maintenance
a) Bench test to determine level of in-service deterioration
b) Physical inspection without removing the item
c) Internal leak rate check
d) All the above
35. C.M items are such that:
a) Have no overhaul control
b) No maintenance task is required to evaluate condition
c) No maintenance action can control the reliability
d) All are correct
36. Placarding of unusable fuel quantity is not mandatory:
a) When unusable fuel is less than 5% of total fuel capacity
b) When fuel quantity gauge is calibrated to read only unusable fuel
c) Unusable fuel is mentioned in the flight manual
d) All are correct
37. Quantity of unusable fuel or weight of the unusable fuel is included in:
a) Weight of the fuel b) Weight of the empty a/c
c) Not included in the EW of a/c d) None
38 Fuelling zone extends to:
a) 15 m from the fuelling point
b) 6 m from the fuel tank vent
c) 6 m radially from fuel equip, fuelling point and a/c fuel tank vent
d) B and C
39. Danger of static electricity discharge during refueling is prevented by:
a) Providing fire extinguishers
b) Avoiding refueling during electrical storm
c) Providing proper bonding and earthing of a/c and refueling equipment
d) All are correct
40. Fueling operations shall be stopped whenever jet efflux of turbo propeller engine is with in
a) 30 m from the refueling point / refueling equip / vent point
b) As in (a) with in 15 m
c) As in (a) with in 43 m
d) None
41. In case of refueling fuel mixture?
a) Reduced ratio should be applied
b) Anti-static additives should be added
c) Both A and B
d) As in (A) if (B) not complied with
42. During refueling only the following can be switched on:
a) Strobe lights
b) Strobe lights of not giving spark
c) Light required for refueling and also minimum required which do not cause danger of spark
d) A and B
43. Following a/c may be refueled with passenger on board if decided by the operator
a) With passenger> 20 b) With Passenger < 20
c) Fixed wing and H/C with seating capacity < 20
d) Fixed wing a/c with seating capacity > 20
44. To prevent water remaining in the tanks, all the filters should be purged once in:
a) 2 Weeks b) Every Week c) Every month
d) Every day
45. Float suction mechanism should be checked:
a) At least weekly b) At least two weekly
c) At least monthly d) None
46. Barrelled fuel if remains for ___________ period should be lab tested before use:
a) Six months b) 3 months c) 1 year d) 2 years
47. Separate approval in category “F” is not required for organization approved in any of the categories
a) A,C.D &E b) A,B,D &E c) A,B,C, & E d) A,B & C
48. Manager who has authority for ensuring that all the tasks of the approved organization can be financed and
carried out to the standard required by DGCA
a) QC Manager b) Accountable Manager
c) Finance Manager d) RAWO
49. A document issued to an organization approved by DGCA and defining the scope of approval granted:
a) Scope of approval b) Terms of approval
c) Certificate of approval d) None
50. Document accompanying the sale of aircraft component certifying that they were obtained from approval
source
a) Certificate of approval b) Release Note
c) Rejection Note d) Certificate of Manufacture
51. The scope of approval for routine maintenance shall not be less than
a) Daily inspection
b) 600 Hrs inspection outside India
c) Daily inspection for Indian organization
d) 100 Hrs inspection with in India
52. NODAL OFFICER is the requirement of the following operator / owner:
a) Who maintain their fleet of aero planes under approved programme
b) Who have contracted maintenance of their aircraft to an a AMO
c) It is applicable to state government a/c only
d) It is applicable to private aircraft only
53. Certifying staff issuing certificate of maintenance shall have
a) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience
b) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience in the preceding 12 months
c) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience in the preceding 15 months
d) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience in preceding 24 months
54. Quality control manual of Indian Airlines will be approved by:
a) RAWO b) DGCA HQ c) QCM
d) RAWO/Sub RAWO
55. Maintenance systems manual of Cat “C” organization shall be approved by:
a) DGCA b) DGCA in case of Indian Air lines
c) RAWO in consultation with DGCA HQ
d) None
56. Vertical black line along the left hand margin of the text of the manuals is to identify:
a) Identifying revisions and amendments
b) Identifying important points
c) Identifying items of inspection as per MPD
d) None
57. Special inspection checks like hard landing etc. shall be included in
a) QC manual b) Maintenance scheduler
c) Special inspection schedule
d) None
58. Inspection schedule of scheduled operator will be approved by:
a) QCM b) RAWO c) DGCA
d) QCM in case of operator with 3 years experience, others by RAWO
59. Investigation of defects shall be completed;
a) Within 4 months b) Within 3 months
c) Within 6 Months d) Within 15 days
60. Mark the in-correct statement:
a) Refuelling can be carried out inside the building constructed for direct loading and unloading
b) Refuelling is always done in open place
c) No refueling within 30 m in radar operations
d) Refuelling shall be carried out on a level surface as far as possible
1. Recent experience means experience acquired in the proceeding
a) 24 months b) 12 months c) 6 months d) 3 months
2. AME Licence in category “A” is equivalent to:
a) ICAO type –I licence b) ICAO type II Licence
c) ICAO type-III licence d) ICAO type IV Licence
3. According to appendix “A” of CAR Series “L” Part-IV group V contains
a) Pressurized twin turbine engine aero plane not exceeding 5700 Kg AUW
b) Pressurized twin piston engine aero plane not exceeding 5700 Kg AUW
c) Piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 Kg AUW
d) Both A & B are correct
4. An AME can exercise his privileges only
a) When within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not
less than 12 months
b) When within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not
less than 3 months
c) When within the proceedings 12 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not
less than 6 months
d) When within the proceeding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not
less than 3 months
5. A person holding open rating endorsement on his AME licence can exercise his privileges
a) Straight way on a new aircraft
b) After familiarizing himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of Six months
c) After familiarizing himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of three months
d) After familiarizing himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of one month.
6. The licence of Indian AME’s working aboard will be renewed
a) By the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working
b) By the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working in consultation with the
DGCA head quarters
c) By any authority acceptable to ICAO
d) By the DGCA Head Quarters
7. BAMEC is issued in
a) Four categories b) Eight categories c) Six categories
d) Seven categories
8. Holder of C of C shall undergo refresher course
a) Every after 24 months
b) If not exercised the privileges from more than 60 days
c) Both A&B
9. No AME licence will be renewed unless:
a) The requirement of refresher course is met with
b) As in (a) except those who are exempted from refresher course as per AAC 8/2000
c) (a) and (b) not applicable for AMEs employed in foreign countries
d) None
10. An aircraft registered in category “B” is owned by
a) A person residing / resident in or carrying on business in India without citizenship
b) A person resident/residing in or carrying on business in India with citizenship
c) Citizen of India
d) A foreign National
11. Temporary certificate of registration is valid
a) for one month b) for one week
c) Until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in India
d) Until the validity of the C of A
12. An aero engine manufactured outside the Indian can be type certificated by the DGCA if it confirms to
a) FAR 33 b) JAR 33 c) FAR 31
d) Both A&C are correct
13. Flight release in respect of Radio Equipment installed on small operator aircraft shall be
a) Carried out separately b) Shall be aligned with FRC for engine & Airframe
c) Carried out along with major servicing d) None
14. Short-term C of A issued for
a) Un-airworthy aircraft
b) Aircraft imported from outside the country under India registration marking
c) Aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking
d) Aircraft having service life of less than one year
15. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between
a) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g b) +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g
b) +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g d) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & 3g
16. A special flight authorization is a permission accorded
a) By DGCA b) to ferry-fly an aircraft
c) To carry special persons (VIPs) d) Both A & B are correct
17. FRC for aircraft of AUW of 15000 Kg and above is signed by
a) Persons authorized in two category
b) Persons authorized in three category
c) Persons authorized in four category
d) Persons authorized in five category
18. FRC is preserved for
a) One month from the date of issue
b) Six months from the date of issue
c) One year from the date of issue
d) Not required to be preserved
19. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by
a) Persons approved for the purpose in an approved organization
b) A flight Engineer
c) A flight Engineer whose license is endorsed for the type of aircraft
d) Both A & C are correct
20. Certificate of safety of gliders is valid for
a) Six months b) Three months c) One month d) One day (24 Hrs)
21. An India registered aircraft having C of A as per IAR can fly
a) Passenger aircraft can fly as freight aircraft
b) Freight aircraft can fly as passenger aircraft provided seats are installed
c) Aerial work aircraft can be operated as public transport aircraft
d) None is correct
22. Load & trim sheet of an operator is approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) QCM d) DAW
23. ACAS capable of generating Resolution advisory is
a) ACAS I b) ACAS IIc) Both d) None
24. As on data ACAS should be installed on all aero planes of:
a) AUW more than 5700 Kgsb) Pax. capacity more than 30 (Excluding Pilot)
c) Load carrying capacity more than 3 Ton
d) B and C are correct
25. Person authorized to certify for the maintenance of ACAS installed on a/c is:
a) Cat R/V AME b) Cat I/R AME c) P Cat I & R AME
d) None
26. Equipment, which reduces the CFIT, is:
a) GPWS b) ACAS c) FDR d) None
27. Which one of the following is mandatory on Turbine Engine a/c?
a) CVR b) FDR c) DFDR d) None
28. The following licence covers the scope of certifying maintenance of GPWS:
a) Cat R b) Cat I c) Cat V d) Cat R & I
29. FDR installed on H/C should hold the recorded information for:
a) 25h b) 15h c) 10 h d) None
30. PMP cassettes in respect of accident a/c or flight shall be preserved for:
a) 30 h b) 3 months c) 50 h d) None
31. Environment for human comfort in a clean room is such that:
a) Temp. 20+2 deg. C b) RH 35 to 50%
c) Temp 5 to 25 deg C & 50% RH d) Both A & C
32. During C of A renewal, engine parameters are evaluated:
a) EPR, N1 N2 & EGT b) EPR, EFT & Fuel flow
c) EPR, EGT & RPM d) None
33. Calibration of any sensing system connected with FDR but not covered under COSL shall be calibrated:
a) One a year b) Once 2 years c) Once in 3 years
d) Once in 5 years
34. An Integrated Flight director includes the flowing instruments
a) Attitude Indicatorb) Altitude indicator c) Direction indicator
d) Bank, attitude, turn and heading indicator
35. Automatic deployment type oxygen equipment is the requirement of all flights above the altitude of:
a) 25000 ft b) 13000 ft c) 1000 ft d) None
36. Battery of ELT should be replaced after:
a) After one hour of continuous operation b) After 50% life expired
c) After 48 h of operation d) None
37. Instruments installed on a/c, which has not been operated for a period not exceeding six months, must be
a) Completely overhauled b) Bench checked c) Nothing is required
d) None above
38. A/c used for cloud seeding operations shall be fitted with:
a) Safety harness for each crew and G meter b) G meter only
c) As in (a) & (b) and also painted with day glow paint
d) None are correct
39. The following a/c shall be fitted with cosmic radiation measuring instrument:
a) For flights above 29000 ft b) For flights above 25000 ft
c) For flights above 13000 ft d) For flight above 49000 ft.
40. Type of ELT designated as ELT (AF) is:
a) Fixed or portable with can be deployed automatically
b) Fixed or automatic which will come into operation due to impact
c) Fixed which can be used for sea flying
d) Fixed which will operate automatically due to impact / contact with water
41. Records / worksheet pertaining to lived components of balloons shall be preserved for
a) One b) Two c) Five d) Ten
42. Amateur-built aircraft are limited to operation within an assigned test area for at least
a) 10 Hrs b) 25 Hrs c) 50 Hrs d) No such limiation
43. Normal design economic life of a jet aircraft is
a) 20 years / 60,000 landings b) 20 years / 60 000 pressurization cycles
c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above
44. Standards and guidelines for clean rooms are given in
a) BS 5295 b) BS 9255 c) IS 5295 d) All are correct
45. AME licence in category B is given to helicopter with AUW below
a) 2000 Kg b) 3000 Kg c) 5700 Kg d) 15000 Kg
46. Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence in category A and B is given to cover aircraft with
a) Single engine and AUW below 5700 Kg
b) Twin engine and AUW below 57000 Kg
c) Twin engine and AUW below 3000 Kg
d) Single engine and AUW below 3000 Kg
47. Mandatory modifications / inspections are to be complied with
a) Immediately on receipt b) Within three months
c) Within the stipulated period d) B or C whichever is earlier
48. Before carrying out flight tests of a newly installed navigational equipment, it is necessary to obtain
a) Permission from DGCA
b) Short time Aero-mobile licence from Ministry of Communication
c) Both A and B are correct
49. Final Test Data (FTD) check of conventional valve equipment shall be carried out
a) Once a year b) Twice a year c) Once in two years
50. Aircraft address in SSR mode “S” consists of
a) 24 bits b) 14-20 bits c) 18 bits d) 16 bits
51. The shelf-life of valve seats used in pneumatic system from the cure-data is _______ years
a) Four b) Six c) Eight d) Ten
52. The rate of climb is related to
a) Altitude b) Temperature c) Aircraft weight d) All correct
53. On an unmanned free balloon, registration marking shall be on
a) Two opposite sides b) Under-surface c) Identification Plate
54. Weight schedule of an aircraft shall be retained for
a) Two years b) Five Years c) Ten years d) Till replaced
55. Physician’s kit is a must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of more than
a) 20 b) 40 c) 100 d) 100
56. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and having AUW of 15000 Kg
or above shall be
a) Flame resistant b) Inflammable c) Self-extinguishing type
d) Both A and B are correct
57. All log books except that of aircraft, engine, propeller are preserved for
a) Two years b) Two years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use
c) Two years from the date of last entry
d) Five years from the date of last entry
58. ACAS installed on Indian Registered a/c should be
a) As per TSO C-119 b) ICAO Annex 10
c) Any equivalent document acceptable to DGCA
d) Any one of the above
59. CVR container shall be:
a) Painted bright yellow b) with under water locating device
c) Both d) None
60. Maintenance schedules of test equipment are approved by:
a) RAWO b) Manufacturer c) DGCA HQ d) None
1. MEL shall be prepared by the operator
a) Scheduled, Non scheduled operator
b) Scheduled, Non-Scheduled and General Aviation aircraft
c) For all aircraft where manufacturer has issued MMEL
d) none
2. Safe operation of modern aircraft is possible to day even with existence of certain defects because
a) Inherent safeguards introduced in the form of duplicated components system
b) Redundancy of aircraft system / components
c) By having approved MEL and preamble on board
d) (a) & (b)
3. Practice of permitting aircraft to continue their flights from transit station to base station with existence of
defects results in
a) Reduces safety, increases engineering cost and avoids passenger discomfort
b) Reduces safety, increases crew work load avoids passenger discomfort
c) Reduces safety, crew work load, engineering cost and avoid passenger discomfort
d) All are correct
4. Rectification of in-operative system/components covered under MEL shall be carried out:
a) As per MSM b) At Main station c) At parent base
d) At first place where time and spares permit
5. Operator shall obtain MMEL and frame MEL so as:
a) MEL is to be less restrictive, than MMEL
b) MEL can not be less restrictive, than MMEL
c) MEL does not differ in its format with MMEL
d) MEL shall be same that of MMEL
6. The following cannot be included in MEL?
a) Stand-by Radio Navigation equipment
b) One of the two engines of the aircraft
c) Rudder operating system
d) B and C
7. The following literature of the operator will describe as to when or where an in-operative item covered under
MEL shall be replaced:
a) MSM b) Preamble c) QC Manual d) A&B
8. The following shall exercise necessary control so that no aircraft is dispatched with multiple items
inoperative
a) RAWO b) Part –C c) QCM d) DGCA
9. AME shall take maintenance actions while releasing aircraft for flight after invoking MEL as per:
a) Preamble b) Dispatch Deviation guide c) Procedural Manual
d) All the above
10. MEL is applicable to:
a) Transit station b) Terminal base c) Main base
d) All the above except parent base
11. The following shall be reported to RAWO
a) Release of aircraft at parent base with defect occurred one hour before the first flight
of the day
b) All the defects carried forward
c) All deferred maintenance
d) All deferred maintenance at transit base
12. MMEL is approved by:
a) Manufacturer b) RAWO c) DGCA d) None
13. MEL is approved by:
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Manufactures d) QCM
14. Scheduled operator is required to determine strengthening of servicing facilities at transit base after
analyzing:
a) Reliability data submitted to RAWO
b) Internal safety audit report
c) Dispatch reliability
d) Monthly record of carried forward defects
15. Aircraft rule which requires carriage of CCL & ECL onboard:
a) 7/1937 b) 7/1934 c) 7B/1937 d) None
16. CCL & ECL for each type of aircraft is prepared by:
a) Operatorb) Manufacturer c) QCM d) None
17. CCL & ECL is generally provided by:
a) Regulating authority of country of manufacture
b) By the manufacturer
c) As in (A), operator shall use it under intimation to RAWO
d) As in (B), operator shall use it under intimation to RAWO
18. Deviation/ amendment to CCL/ECL provided by the manufacturer shall be approved by:
a) RAWO b) DGCA HQ c) QCM d) Flt crew
19. Defect may be defined as:
a) Condition which preclude the item from its intended function
b) Condition arising due to any cause which would preclude it from its intended function
c) Condition arising due to any cause other than damage which would result in precluding it from
intended function and also reduce the service life
20. Task / Work carried out to ensure continued airworthiness of aircraft?
a) Servicing b) Inspection c) Overhaul d) Maintenance
21. Restoration of a component to its Airworthiness condition to ensure compliance of design specification is:
a) Rectification b) Repair c) Major repair
d) A & B are correct
22. A person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in aircraft operation:
a) Approved Organization b) Operator c) Scheduled operator d) None of the above
23. Organization approved by DGCA to carry out maintenance of aircraft and aircraft components is:
a) AMO b) A-O c) Agency d) (a) & (b) are correct
24. Aircraft Fleet
a) Two or more aircraft of a particular type
b) Three or more aircraft of a particular type
c) No. of aircraft of a particular type / model
d) All the above
25. Defect reporting and investigation procedure as described in CAR Sec-2 Series “C” is applicable to
a) All AOS b) All AMO's c) All operators and AMO’s
d) All operators
26. The following are required to investigated
a) All defects b) All major defects
c) All defects resulted in delay of service more 15 min.
d) All defects resulting in engineering incidents
27. Initial information shall be provided in case of
a) All defects on scheduled flight
b) All major defects, defects requiring major repair or are of serious nature
c) As in B shall be intimated telephonically to RAWO
d) As in B shall be intimated with 24 hours
28. A written information shall follow “Initial information” with in:
a) 7 days b) 24 hours c) Three working days
d) B and C are correct for scheduled/ Non-Scheduled operator
29. Each repetitions of defect shall be considered as defect for the purpose of:
a) Computing reliability index b) As in (A) for scheduled operator
c) As in B provided rectification was attempted
d) All are true statements for all operators
30. All defects reported on aircraft shall be reviewed every after
a) Daily reviewed by scheduled operator
b) Quarterly reviewed by scheduled operator
c) Six monthly by others operators
31. Review of the defects reported on fleet of training aircraft to be carried out at:
a) Period approved by DGCA
b) Period fixed by operator in consolation of RAWO
c) Daily review shall be carried out
d) Not specified
32. Mark correct statement
a) All defects on scheduled operators aircraft shall be reported to RAWO
b) All major defects and all defects resulting in delay to scheduled service shall be reported to RAWO
c) As in B by scheduled operator d) As in B by all operators
33. Supervision of investigation of defects on scheduled transport aircraft shall be by:
a) Senior tech. Officer approved by RAWO
b) Technical Officer approved by QCM
c) Senior Tech. Officer approved by QCM
d) Senior Tech. Person approved by DGCA
34. Investigation of every major defect shall be completed with in
a) Four months b) 30 days c) Three months d) Six months
35. Final investigation report shall be submitted to:
a) RAWO/Duplicate b) DGCA / Duplicate c) RAWO / Triplicate
d) DGCA
36. Disciplinary action against erring person subsequent to investigation of defect shall be taken in consultation
with
a) QCM b) RAWO c) DGCA d) None
37. Corrective actions on final investigation report shall be intimated to:
a) RAWO b) DGCA c) RAWO and DGCA HQ (DAW)
d) Manufacturer
38. Investigation results of all defects shall be analyzed once in:
a) Six months b) 15 days c) Four months d) Three months
39. Corrective action against weakness detected after analyzing investigation results shall be initiated under
intimation to:
a) DGCA b) Manufacturer c) QCM d) RAWO
40. All defects or occurrences causing service difficulties or resulting in adverse effect on
airworthiness shall be reported to:
a) RAWO/Within 7 days b) DGCA / Three months
c) Manufactures / 15 days d) Manufactures / 7 days
41. The following AAC deal with fleet performance and Engineering statistics
a) AAC 8/2001 b) AAC 5/2003 c) AAC 5/2000 d) None
42. Aerial work operator shall prepare fleet performance and engineering statistics once in:
a) Every Month b) Three Months c) Two Months
d) None
43. Components associated with major defect shall be preserved for
a) Two weeks from the intimation of defects
b) One year from intimation of defect
c) Three months from intimation of defect
44. In-flight instrument reading of public transport aircraft is recorded in
a) JLB b) Flight Report c) Aircraft Log Book d) Flight Book
45. In-flight instrument reading shall be recorded once in:
a) Each Sector b) Each sector under cruise condition
c) In all emergency conditions and also during un-usual parameters observation
d) As in B and C
46. Defects observed by the Flight crew in a public transport aircraft is recorded in:
a) Defect Register b) Flight Report c) JLB d) None
47. PDR of public transport aircraft shall be examined before releasing aircraft for flight after
each Sector by:
a) QCM b) Chief of inspection
c) AMEs Certifying for release of aircraft for flight
d) As in A and C
48. Defects observed on aircraft other than public transport aircraft shall be recorded in:
a) JLB b) Flight Report c) PDR of approved Flight report
d) Defect Register
49. Defects observed on a/c other than public transport aircraft while flying away from the base may be recorded
in
a) Col X of JLB b) Col XI of JLB
c) As in B for ultimate transfer of defects to register
d) In flight report
50. Analytical study of in-flight instrument reading of turbo-jet aircraft used for public transport operation will
give
a) In-Service deterioration of engine
b) IN-service deterioration of engine and aircraft system
c) As in (B) so that timely corrective action can be taken
d) As in (C) to ensure continued airworthiness of aircraft
51. Recorded in flight parameters of turbo-jet engine shall be evaluated?
a) Every month b) Every Quarter
c) Every Quarter against alert values
d) Every month against alert values
52. The relationship between fuel flow and TAS will determine
a) Performance of Air Frame
b) Performance of Power Plant
c) Deterioration of Engine
d) All the above
53. Maintenance control reliability programme is applicable to:
a) All operator b) all transport aircraft operator
c) All scheduled airline d) None
54. Colleting information from various sources to determine reliability trends of system/components/ structure
of scheduled airlines is the responsibilities of
a) RAWO b) AW Directorate c) RMU
d) Operator
55. Which one is the primary source of information for reliability control?
a) Un-scheduled removal
b) Pilot reports
c) Confirmed failure
d) All the above
60. Reliability displays are prepared for:
a) Every Month
b) Every month covering the operating experience for last 3 months
c) Every Quarterly d) Every previous month
61. The frequency, scope and contents of periodical inspections may be altered
a) In a manner as approved by Manufacturer
b) Shall not be altered
c) As in (b) except in a manner as approved by DGCA
d) With the approval of RAWO
62. The following is responsible to report all defects encountered during the flight
a)QCM b) Manufacturer c) RAWO
d) Owner / Operator
63. Promulgation and implementation of CAR is:
a) To meet the obligation of contracting state
b) To Harmonize requirements with other regulating authorities like FAA, JAA & CAA
c) To specify the detailed requirements for compliance and effective monitoring
d) All the above
64. Date of issue along the date of affectivity of CAR part is available in
a)First page of CAR Part b) The revision notice
c)All pages of CAR Part d) All the above
65. Insitu / Bench test of aircraft / aircraft component with out having to dismantle them completely is:
a) Hard time maintenance
b) Condition monitoring
c) On condition Maintenance
d) All the above
66 Adequacy and observance of standards by various operators/ organizations are reflected in:
a) Defects and incidents resulting in emergency loading
b) Accidents encountered during operation of aircraft
c) Both the above d) None of the above
67. The following information will give the parameters called dispatch reliability
a) No. of hours flown during the period under review
b) No. of service cancelled/delayed - more than 15 min. because of engg. defects
c) No. of services planned and no. of services cancelled / delayed for more than 15 min.
because of engg. Defects.
d) a and b above
68. The parameters called dispatch reliability is furnished to RAWO
a)Every Month b) Every 3 Months c) Every Six Months
d) Every Six Months by schedule operator
69. The following are the recommendations to check negative trends of an operator:
a) Investigation of defects
b) Additional preventive maintenance
c) Varying the frequency of maintenance and / or varying the process of maintenance
d) As in (B) & (C) and also modifications and review of qualifications, experience of
certifying personnel
70. Mark the in-correct statement
a) All maintenance work on aircraft engaged in public transport operation shall be performed
by approved organization
b) All work performed by approved organization shall be regulated by QC organization
c) The CAR is issued under the provision of Aircraft act 133 A of 1934
d) The Airworthiness oversight and safety regulation are applicable to schedule operator
71. No person shall operate any air transport service in India without
a) Adequate maintenance support
b) Obtaining necessary permit
c) Satisfying DGCA that his maintenance support organization are to a satisfactory standard
d) All the above
72. Eligibility for issue of Indian C of A
a) Shall confirm to type design
b) Shall be in a condition for safe operation
c) Both (A) and (B) are correct
d) None
73. Operator can base his maintenance programme on:
a)Manufacturer MPD b) DGCA’s M.P.D
c) Manufacturers M.P.D or any DGCA approved programme
d) Any maintenance programme suitable for maintenance and safe operation
74. Investigation of delay, defect and engineering incident is the function of
a) DGCA’s Airworthiness directorate
b) QC organization
c) DGCA Head Quarters
d) Manufacturer
75. Who is responsible for compliance of SB’s and modifications?
a)Operatorb) RAWO c) Manufacturer
d) Regulating authority of Manufacturer
76. Which of the following is not part of airworthiness performance monitoring system?
a)Day to day monitoring b) Emergency responding
c)Reliability analysis d) Long terms monitoring
77. AME Licenses are issued in various categories as per
a)Rule 61/1937 b) Rule 140 of 1937 c) Rule 133B of 1937
d) Rule 49 of 1937
78. Security clearance for foreign AME Shall be obtained by:
a)DGA b) Operatorc) Operator through DGA
d) Through individual AME
79. Foreign AME will not be authorized to certify the aircraft unless:
a) Pass oral check by QCM
b) Pass oral check conducted in terms of AIC 17 of 1994
c) Security clearance is obtained through DGCA
d) B and C are correct
80. Airworthiness advisory circulars are issued by
a)Manufacturers b) RAWO c) QCM d) DGCA
1. Certificate issued to signify that the design of a type of aircraft complies with applicable design standard?
a) Export C of A b) Type Certificate c) Certificate of compliance d) None
2. The approval of the “approval personnel” in Cat ‘A’ organization will be granted by:
a) RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM if delegated by RAWO d) a & c correct
3. Completed items in any category “A” organization shall be identified by:
a) Affixing part serial number
b) As in (a) or any other markings as per approved specification drawing
c) As in (b) and inspection stamps of final inspection shall also be affixed
d) As in (c) where these are not practicable, a tag or label shall be fixed.
4. Mark correct statements
a) Certification records of completed work during manufacture shall be retained for five years
b) Manufacturer shall have obtained approval under Cat `F’ and comply with all requirements
c) Cat-“A” organization shall keep all manuals (QC Manual, MSM & EOM) up-date
d) All the statements are correct
5. Corrective actions, improvement in the product subsequent to receiving defects / in service problems from
operators / AMO shall be notified to:
a) All users of the products b) DGCA
c) As in (a) & (b) and the procedure shall be included in QC Manual
d) As in C and the same may be included in MSM
6. After an aircraft component / item of equipment has been manufactured
a) QCM will issue certificate of manufacture
b) QCM or an authorized person will issue certificate of manufacture
c) QCM or an approved person will issue certificate of manufacture
d) (b) & (c) are in-correct
7. Heat treatment applied to airframe or engine parts or accessories is the scope of:
a) Category “F” organization b) Category “C” organization
c) Category “B” organization d) Category “D” organization
. Mark correct statement
a) All changes / modifications in Category “B” organization will have DGCA concurrence
b) All changes / modifications effecting airworthiness / safety of aircraft shall be implemented after
concurrence by RAWO
c) All changes / modifications in an approved organization shall be promptly notified to RAWO
d) All are in-correct statements
9. Category “B” organization shall have
a) All three manual
b) QC & maintenance system manual
c) EOM & QC manual
d) EOM & MSM
10. Test specimen submitted by the firm for approval of cat B organization should have been
a) Processed in any DGCA approved organization
b) Processed in applicants workshop
c) As in (b) under the supervision of DGCA representative
d) As in (b) under the supervision of RAWO representative
11 Test specimen required to be submitted for approval of cadmium plating
a) Twelve specimen 8”X2”X16 Swg b) Twelve specimen 3”X3/4”X16 Swg
c) Three specimen 8”X2”X16 Swg d) None
12. The firm approved under Category “B” will issue the
a) Certificate of Maintenanceb) Certificate of compliance
c) Certificate of inspection d) Test report & Release Note
13. The inspectors of Cat-“C” organization shall be approved by:
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Local Airworthiness Office
d) QCM
14. Aircraft /Aircraft components released by Cat-“C” organization after the item has been serviced /inspected
or modified shall be accompanied by:
a) Certificate of maintenance b) Release Note c) Both A&B
d) As in C along with Test report
15. Certificate of maintenance by a Category “C” organization shall be signed by:
a) QCM b) Approved signatory c) AME
d) AME/Approved/Authorized person
16. Firm asking for approval of Category “D” shall prepare and submit the following manuals
a) EOM b) EOM&QCM c) QCM & MSM
d) QCM & MSM
17. Test report issued by approved organization shall be signed by
a) Approved signatories b) QCM c) Authorized Person
d) Licensed Engineer
19. Bulk storage / Bulk mobile equipment used by Category E organization shall be approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Local Airworthiness Office
d) Chief explosive inspection
20. Test laboratories of Category “E” firm will be approved by
a) RAWO b) QCM c) DGCA d) None of the above
21. Format of release note and sale vouchers of Category “E” organization shall be approved by:
a) QCM b) RAWO c) DGCA d) None of the above
22. Release note and sale vouchers issued by Category “E” organization shall be preserved for
a) 5 years b) 10 years c) 2 years d) 1 year
23. Release note signatory is
a) A person approved by QCM to Sign Release Note
b) A person approved by RAWO to Sign Release Note
c) A person approved by the organization to Sign Release Note
d) A person approved by DGCA to issue Release Note
24. Stores where materials received from approved source with proper evidence are stocked:
a) Bonded stores b) Quarantine c) Approved stores
d) Category “F” organization
25. A certificate issued under approval granted by DGCA certifying that the materials / aircraft components have
been received from approved source and they are airworthy:
a) Release Note b) Certificate of maintenance
c) Type certification documents d) None of the above
26. A/c components drawn from bonded store but having been rejected after inspection are returned along with
a) Release Note b) Rejection Note c) Log Card/Log Book
d) Inspection Report
27. Distribution of rejection note is such that
a) Third copy is for record b) First copy is to supplier
c) Second copy is to RAWO d) First copy is to RAWO
28. Mark the person responsible to ensure that goods released to customers from cat-F organization have not
deteriorated during storage
a) QCM b) Accountable Manager c) Release note signatory
d) QCM & Release note signatory
29. In-coming as well as outgoing release note in case of cat-F organ. shall be preserved for:
a) Two years b) Five years c) Ten years d) None
30. Any deviations from approved design document of an a/c component supplied by Cat-F organization will be
mentioned in:
a) In-coming Release Note b) Out-going Release Note
c) In-coming release note or any equivalent document and the same will be mentioned in out going
release note
31. Mark the correct statement
a) Candidates who have passed AME Course from DGCA approved institute will be given one year
relaxation in the total aeronautical experience required for grant of AME License
b) The training period in AME institute will be counted for computing total aeronautical experience
required to appear in AME license examination
c) Aircraft Rule 61 of 1937 gives the requirements for issue of AME License
d) All the above are correct
32. Chief instructor of Category “G” organization is approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Local AW Office
d) Examined for approval by a board chairman of which will be an officer not below the
rank of controller of Airworthiness
33. Instructors to teach various subjects in DGCA approved institute are approved by:
a) RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM d) Chief Instructor
34. Overall Ratio of whole time instructors to students shall be
a) About 1:30 b) Not less than 1:30 c) Not more than 1:30 d) About 1:25
35. Security clearance of foreign students is the responsibilities of
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Min of Civil Aviation d) Chief Instructor
36. No. of students in a batch of AME students shall be
a) Not more than 30 b) Not less than 15 c) Not less than 10
d) Not more than 30 & Not less than 10
37. Total period of training in case of AME institute
a) 2 ½ years b) 3 ½ years c) 3 years d) None
38. Records of examination conducted in DGCA approved institute is required to be preserve for:
a) Six months b) Two years c) One year d) Five years
39. Internal audit for renewal of Cat-“G” organization shall be
a) Carried out and submitted to RAWO by 31st Dec
b) Carried out and submitted to Local Airworthiness Office at least two months before expire of
approval
c) As in (b) but not earlier than 60 days
d) None of the correct
40. Application for approval of Category “G” organization
a) CA-182A b) CA-182C c) CA182 d) CA-182B
1. Due to which of the following factors in most of the aircraft fuel system a certain quantity of fuel is not
available for use
a) Location of tank b) Location of Pump out lets
c)) Location of tank out lets
d) As in (c) and also routing of pipelines, Location of Pumps
2. Quantity-unusable fuel shall be normally determined during
a) Issue/renewal of C of A b) registration of aircraft in India c) After
issue of type certificate d) type certification
3. It is a mandatory requirement that un-usable fuel shall be
a) Mentioned in flight Manual b) Play carded in cockpit
c) No mandatory requirements as such d) as at a) or b)
4. The unusable fuel for each tank must be established by
a) Conducting test flights
b) Jacking up to level flight condition & draining from lowest feed line
c) As in (a) during type certification
d) As in (c) and where such information is not available, procedure mentioned in (b) to be followed in
case of light aircraft only
5. To determine un-usable fuel by leveling and draining on ground, the following quality to be added to each
main tank so as to arrive zero-datum as fuel quantity gauge
a) 10 LTR b) 5 LTR c) 2 LTR d) 20 LTR
6. Calibration of fuel gauge shall be such that
a) Un-usable fuel as zero-datum b) Un-usable fuel will be indicated as red-arc
c) All the gages read full quantity d) As in (a) & (b)
7. Pilot will know the un-usable fuel from
a) Flight Manual b) Play carding in cockpit
c) A red arc from zero in the fuel gauge d) All above correct
8. Weight of un-usable fuel is deemed to be
a) Weight of fuel b) Part of useful load
c) Part of empty weight of aircraft d) All are correct
9. Calibration of fuel gauges is to be followed every time
a) A fuel gauge is installed
b) Inspect for certification of airworthiness
c) During the nearest major check
d) Initially as in (a) and subsequently as per (b) & (c)
10. Carriage of calibrated dip sticks are required to be carried to make sure correct quantity of fuel is carried in
case of
a) All Light Aircraft b) All helicopter
c) Incase of (a) and (b) whose fuel quantity gauges are not reliable
d) As in (a) and (b)
11. Which aircraft rule specifies procedure of fuelling aircraft?
a) 25/1937 b) 25A/1937 c) 25B/1937 d) 25A/1934
12. Fuelling zone
a) Area extending 6 meters from refueling aircraft
b) Area extending 6 ft from refueling aircraft
c) Area extending 10 ft from refueling aircraft
13. The fuelling of aircraft shall be carried out by:
a) A trained technician b) AME
c) Under the supervision of Airworthiness Officer
d) None
14. Precautions and fuelling instructions are provided by
a) Manufacturers b) DGCA c) Fuelling company
d) Aircraft Operator
15. Mark in-correct statement regarding fuelling place:
a) Fuelling of aircraft shall not be done in open place
b) Aircraft shall not be fuelled with in 30 m of radar operation
c) Refueling to be performed on level ground
d) Wheel chock shall be placed properly before refueling started
a) The refueling equipment shall be marshaled while reversing towards aircraft
b) There shall be adequate restraint of the aircraft before refueling
c) Refueling aircraft shall be placed at least 10 m away from the other aircraft
d) All are correct statements
17. APU of a refueling aircraft, which have exhaust effluence discharging into the refueling zone, shall be
started
a) After opening fuel caps
b) Before opening fuel caps or fuel connection made
c) As in (a) or after fuel connection are made
18. Earthing of fueling equipment as well as of aircraft shall be done so as to prevent fire risk due to static
electricity discharge
a) Through drag chain attached to fuelling equipment
b) Through conductive tyres
c) Apron earthing point
d) All are correct
a) Refueling of a/c may be started immediately after landing / taxying
b) Aerodrome fire service shall be called for refueling
c) Refueling operation shall be stopped when turbo-prop aircraft in within 30 m distance from the
refueling place
d) None of the above statement is correct
20. During heavy storm
a) Over wing refueling is only permitted
b) Refueling suspended
c) Pressure refueling is only permitted
d) None of the above statement is true
21. Use of photographic flash equipment during refueling
a) Not permitted to be used with in 6 m
b) Not permitted to be used within 15 m
c) Not permitted to be used within 6 m from refueling equipment / vent/ refueling point
d) Not permitted to be used within 6 ft from the refueling point
22. Refueling precautions in case of fuel mixtures
a) Risk of sparking may be reduced by adding anti-static additives
b) Reduced rate of fueling is required
c) Rate of fueling shall be as per type of fueling equipment
d) All are correct statement
23. Maintenance and servicing of aircraft during fueling is such that
a) Strobe lighting not be operated b) Main engines shall not be operated
c) Plat forms, steps shall be clear of the aircraft d) All are correct
24. Fueling with passengers on board not permitted in case
a) Fixed wing aircraft with seating capacity of more than 20
b) Fixed wing aircraft rotary wing aircraft with seating capacity of 20
c) All helicopter and fixed wing aircraft with less than 20 seating capacity
25. Fueling shall be stopped of spillage of fuel is
a) Five square meterb) Four square meter c) 15 square meter
d) 10 square meter
26. In case of spillage during fueling
a) Fuel must not be washed into drains
b) Vehicles shall not be started with in 15 m of spillage
c) Fuelling shall not be commenced till 30 min after cleaning the spilled fuel
d) Movement of persons and vehicles shall be avoided with 30 m from the spillage
27. In case of storage of fuel in bulk storage tanks
a) Tanks for storing AVGAS shall be internally epicoated
b) Floating suction shall be inspected once a weak
c) Tank bottom sample of AVGA & ATF shall be tested for microbiological growth once in two years
d) All are correct
1. Aircraft engine reliability is measured in:
a) No. of Pilot reported defects
b) All in flight shut down
c) All flame outs
d) As in (b) including flame outs
2. Damage tolerant means:
a) Item can sustain damage b) As in (A) and it can withstand reasonable load
c) As in (B) with out structural failure
d) As in (C) when the damage is detected
3. Monitoring of operator’s maintenance process is based on:
a) Manufacturers recommendation b) DGCA approved programme
c) Statistical analysis of various performance parameters
d) All the above
4. Factors, which would help to assess the condition of components maintenance behavior
a) Mechanical delays / cancellation of flights
b) Un-scheduled removal
c) Pilots reports
d) All the above
5. Reliability Alert level is based on experience of:
a) Two to three years experience b) As in (A) based on fleets size
c) Three years experience d) None of the above
6. Alert levels should be up-dated periodically to reflect
a) Operating experience b) Product improvement
c) Changes in procedure d) All the above
7. Life record of engine parts having fatigue lives is available in
a) History card b) MSM c) They are part of COSL d) Engine logbook
8. Engine overhaul records shall be preserved for
a) Two years b) Five Years c) 10 years d) Four years
9. Alert Values are
a) Reference values only b) Accepting limits
c) Both A &B are correct d) None of the above
10. Separate approval in Cat-F is not required in case of
a) Category – A, B, D&E b) Category – A,B,Cc) Category A,C,D&E
d) Category – A,B,C & E
11. Certificate issued by AME after carrying out some repair on aircraft is:
a) Structural repair scheme b) Certificate of Maintenance
c) Compliance certificate d) Flight Release Note
12. A document certifying that the item mentioned there under were obtained from an approved source
a) Maintenance Certificate b) Release Note c) Rejection Note
d) Certificate of Compliance
a) 100 Hrs. inspection schedule in case of organization in India
b) Daily inspection in case of organization located outside the India
c) 100 Hrs Inspection schedule for Indian organization and daily inspection in case of foreign
organization
d) All are correct
14. CA-182C shall be submitted to:
a) RAWO b) RAWO/Sub-RAWO c) DGCA HQs
d) RAWO/DGCA in case of Indian / Foreign organization
15. Organization shall establish bonded stare to keep:
a) A/c material and equipment
b) Serviceable material and equipment
c) All un-serviceable material/equipment
16. Appointment of NODAL OFFICER is the requirement of
a) All AMO’s b) All operators c) Owners/operator of General Aviation A/C
d) As in C who contracted maintenance to an AMO
17. Which one of the following is responsible to ensure regular receipt of specific aircraft literature,
amendments etc, and making them available to AMO?
a) QCM b) Accountable Manager c) Nodal Officer d) DGCA/RAWO
18. Certifying staff involved in maintenance of aircraft shall undergo refresher course once in
a) 12 months b) 24 months c) 3years d) As desired by DGCA
19. Internal audit by QA team shall be carried out:
a) Once in every year b) Twice in every year
a) 30 days before renewal of organization
b) 60 days before renewal of organization
20. How many copies of manuals are required to be submitted for approval of a firm?
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One
21. Any condition classified as major defect observed during maintenance or operation shall be reported to
a) DGCA b) Manufacturer c) DGCA and manufacturer d) None
22. The following shall be reported to DGCA/ RAWO:
a) Major defect b) Any condition classified as major defect
c) Mechanical delay d) All the above
23. Investigation of major defect shall be completed with in:
a) Four months b) Three months c) As early as possible
d) None of the above is correct
80. The form and manner of certificate issued by AO/AMO shall be approved by:
a) DGCA HQs b) RAWO
c) DGCA HQs or RAWO at the time of approval d) QCM/Chief QCM
1. Most common factors, which may cause deterioration of wooden aircraft, are
a) Geological growth when parked in dusty conditions near seabed
b) Mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage
c) Engine oil percolating in to the wooden structure
d) Both (B) and (C) are correct
2. Single seater micro light aircraft means
a) Should have wing span more than 10 micrometers
b) Minimum All up weight should be 330 Kg and a wing area not less than 10 sq.meters
c) Maximum all up weight should be 330 Kg and wing area not less than 10 sq.meters
d) All up weight should not exceed 450 Kg.
a) Glue deterioration may take place due to large cyclic changes of temperature
b) In most wooden aircraft of monoplane construction the main spars are I section shape to avoid glue
separation
c) In monoplane construction of wooden aircraft spar are of box formation
d) (a) and (c) answers are correct
4. While checking glue line of wooden aircraft
a) All protective coatings of paint should be carefully subjected to mild chemical etching
b) Thinnest possible feeler gauge should be used
c) Only sharp wooden blade soaked in engine oil should be used
d) Both (a) and (c) are recommended technique
5. Word envelope related to hot air balloon means
a) Place where all records and permit to fly is carried
b) Enclosure in which the lifting medium is contained
c) Is placed below the basket to keep occupants warm at higher altitudes
d) Both A and C are correct
6. Dry rot and wood decay is indicated
a) By small patches of crumbling wood
b) Dark discoloration of the wood surface or grey streaks indicates penetration
c) If rich discoloration can not be removed by tight scrapping, the part should rejected
d) All the above correct
7. Registration marking on micro light aircraft shall be printed
a) Port (Left) wing upper surface and on each side of fuselage
b) Lower surface of the wings and on each side of fuselage
c) Instead of each side of fuselage on the upper half of vertical tail surface
d) Both B and C are correct
8. Mark the correct statement in respect of balloon
a) Should not fly unless during 25 hours preceding lift off certified
b) Pilot is not empowered to certify up to 25 hours inspection schedule
c) Appropriately licensed AME can certify beyond 25 hours inspection schedule
9. For reinforcing glued wooden members
a) Plain annealed aluminum alloy screws are used
b) Steel screws are some times used for hardwood like mahogany or ash
c) Replace the screws with new screws of identical diameter but higher length
d) Replace the screws of identical length with slightly lesser diameter
10. Incase of micro light aircraft
a) Type certificate not necessary
b) C of R is required
c) Firms approved of DGCA is to sought
11. Glued joints of wooden aircraft
a) Generally designed to take fluxing
b) Generally designed to take torsion loads
c) Generally designed to take tensile loads
d) Generally designed to take shear loads
12 Flight release of balloon should be retained
a) One month b) 60 days from the date of flight release
c) 180 days since the balloon is permanently with drawn from service
d) Till the C of R is cancelled by DGCA
a) Gliders like micro light aircraft need not have C of A
b) Gliders should have valid C of A is flown for hire
c) Gliders manufactured in a foreign country flown Indian need not have valid C of A
d) Gliders subjected to minor repairs can be flown with out valid C of A
14. Balloon records are to be preserved as indicated
a) Log book to be preserved for two years after the accident
b) Procedure / work sheet for 5 years after the completion of work
c) Lifed components – one year after is permanently withdrawn
15. Permit to fly the micro light aircraft
a) is in lieu of Type Certificate b) Is in lieu of C of A c) is valid for one
year
16. All wooden gliders can continue in service
a) Up to 15 years unless aging aircraft inspection is carried
b) Up to 25 years TSN subjected to a satisfactory 20 years inspection schedule
c) C of A shall not be issued for glider having an age more than 25 years
17. Certification of Micro light aircraft
a) Pilot can certify inspections beyond 15 hours schedule
b) Pilot can certify schedule up to 10 hours
c) Beyond 20 hours inspection schedule only by appropriately licensed AME or DGCA authorized
person
18. Glider having an age more than 20 years
a) C of A validity should be restricted 6 months
b) Should be permitted to only inverted flying with pilot having a parachute
c) All aerobatic manoeuver should be prohibited
a) Operation of balloon flights can be under taken during day time under IFR condition without might
flying
b) Operation of flight during might under VRF conditions
c) Burner relighter
d) After burner heater at the rear of basket
20. Glider logbook should be pressured
a) Glider need not have log book except launch log book
b) Should be preserved till such time the glider is permanently withdrawn from use
c) As in (B) the C of R is cancelled by DGCA
d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
21. Light aircraft Category “A” experience required (Mark wrong Am)
a) Four years aeronautical experience
b) Four years aeronautical engineering experience
c) 12 months must be on the type of aircraft
d) As “B” and ”C” 3 months must be the recent experience
22. For extension in Category “A”
a) 6 months b) 3 months
c) If the aircraft on which the extension desired of similar construction only three months of total
experience
23. Category “A” heavy aircraft
a) 4 years aeronautical engineering experience
b) As “A” 12 months must be on the type of aircraft and out of 3 months must be recent experience
c) 12 months only d) 3 months only
24. For helicopters Category “A” and “C”
a) Helicopters all up weight below 3000 Kgs will have total aeronautical experience 4 years
b) 4 years Engineering experience on Airframe and engines out of 12 months must be particular type
of helicopter
c) As “B” six months recent experience
d) As “C” for extension 3 months must be recent experience
25. Helicopter all up weight 3000 kgs above
a) Can apply separately “A” and “ C” after completing 4 years out of which 12 months must be
particular type out of which 6 months recent on airframe or engines
b) As “A” can have 4 years experience for both Category “A” and “C”
c) 4 years Aeronautical experience currently required
d) 4 years current aeronautical engineering experience
26. For Category “B” light helicopter
a) 4 years aero-engineering experience
b) !8 months for which the applicant is applying
c) As “B” 6 months experience on specific type
d) Only “A” is correct
27. On Category “B” below 3000 Kg all up weight
a) 6 months b) 3 months recent experience c) 12 months experience
d) As “A” 4 years aero-engineering experience in maintenance, repair, overhaul
helicopter / Light aircraft out of with in 18 months to be particular helicopter type
28. Category “A” gliders
a) Aeronautical engineering experience 2 years
b) 6 months to be on practical type
c) Minimum 12 months experience on type glider
d) A and B are correct
29. Extension of category “A” gliders
a) Six months experience out of which 3 months recent experience
b) Persons having valid AME license below 5000 Kgs may have 3 months recent experience on type
of glider
c) Only “A” is correct
d) “A” only appropriate
30. Glider Category “B”
a) Total aeronautical engineering experience 3 years
b) 12 months on maintenance and overhaul gliders
c) 3 months recent experience
d) All correct
31. Extension in Category “B”
a) 6 months experience on type out of which 3 months recent
b) Persons having valid AME license in category “B” 3 months recent experience for
Applicant particular type
c) Both A&B d) All wrong
32. For Category “C”
a) 4 years engineering experience 12 months must be on the maintenance out of which 6 months on
the type and minimum 3 months recent experience
b) 6 months experience on the type of similar construction of valid license holder on 3 months
experience for extension required
c) Only “A” correct d) Both “A” and “B” correct
33. Category “C” (Gas turbines)
a) 4 years experience b) 24 months general maintenance and Inspection
c) 12months for the type out of which 6 months recent experience
d) All correct
34. Category “E and I R
a) 4 years general avionics experience
b) 12 months experience on the particular typed aircraft
c) 3 months must have current experience
d) All correct for extensions 6 months on type 3 months current experience
35. Category “R”
a) 4 years avionics experience b) 12 months experience on the type
c) 3 months must have recent experience
d) For issuing AME license in Category “R” applicant must possesses RTR (Aero) license issued by
ministry of communication at the time of oral cum practical test
36. Category “V” license
a) Must have passed ES, IS, RN & RTR (Aero)
b) Must have complied approved training on highly
1. Instruments shall be inspected before installation to ensure that
a) The instruments are approved for the type aircraft
b) The range of the dial markings is adequate to reflect correct operation of the aircraft power plant or
equipment and to directly indicate the appropriate operating limitations
c) The range of any coloured sectors marked on in statements dials corresponds with the range
specified in the aircraft flight manual or aircraft engine manufactures manuals as applicable
d) All correct
2. On condition maintenance programme for some of the aircraft
a) Aircraft components and instruments
b) Specifying intervals or inspection / testing of the concern units
c) For increasing failure for determining the serviceability
d) As “A” & “B” to determine reduction in failure resistance before the failure occurs of becomes
critical
3. Magnetic compasses shall be inspected at the time of installation
a) There are sings of leakage of the liquid
b) Bubbles excessive sediments and discoluration are not present in the liquid
c) Compass is swung and correction card is in place in the aircraft
d) As “B” and “C” mounting is satisfactory
4. Pitot friction in compass
a) Does not exceed the manufacturer tolerance
b) Such tolerances are unknown the friction is determined by deflecting the compass needle 20
degrees and allowing to return to magnetic meridian the change in reading to the original heading
shall not exceed 4 degree
c) Deflecting the compass needle 10 degree and allowing it to return magnetic meridian. The orange
in indication from original heading shall not exceed 2 deg.
d) Both A & C correct
5. Calibration and compensation under how many circumstances carried out
a) 10 b) 8 c) 9 d) 11
6. The compass shall be calibrated and compensated and entry to be made
a) 6 months propeller log book
b) 10 months and journey log book
c) 11 months and engine log book
d) 12 months and aircraft long book
7. Overhaul and periodical inspection to be calculated (Mark incorrect statement)
a) From the date of the last overhaul
b) From the date of installation had been stored in accordance to the accepted practice for the storage
of the instrument
c) In case of imported aircraft neither of “A” & “B” is known
d) From the date of issue or last renewal of the aircrafts certificate of airworthiness
8. When manufacturers / venders instructions are not available then the cycle of periods to the
overhaul and inspections
a) Gyro horizon indicators, directional gyro indicators, altimeter, automatic pilot, gyro units- 2
years / 1000 hrs
b) Auto pilot, ASI, pitot & static system, turn & bank indicators- 3 years / 2000 hrs
c) VSI tachometers, fuel contents gauges, manifold pressure gauge
d) As “a” “b” & “c” thermometers, pressure vacuum gauges, ammeter, volt meter, position indication
bench crack every 2 years
9. Inspection procedure
a) The accuracy of instruments shall be checked against an appropriate test instrument shall conform
to the requirements of the manufacturer / or DGCA
b) Time pieces (clocks, watches) installed on aircraft having all up weight 3000 kgs and below can be
overhauled / repaired by any of the reputed commercial watch makers / repairing agency
c) Magnetic compasses, instruments overhauled / bench checked as per makers instructions / DGCA
requirement
d) All Correct
10. Storage conditions
a) 5-60 degree C and humidity 80%
b) 5-20 degree C and humidity 70%
c) 5-22 degree C and humidity 70%
d) 5-25 degree C and humidity below 70% must be dust free and dust count not less 3000 PPM
11. Normally the storage / shelf life of instruments
a) Manufacturing / overhauling agencies recommendation
b) In the absence of “A” the shelf life of instruments (other than gyro instruments) should not exceed
2 years
c) On completion of this period as “B” subjected to overhaul in accordance of approved schedules
d) As “C” the instruments which require periodic lubrication must be removed from storage and
lubricated by appropriately licensed and approved person and records maintain
12. The instruments considered unserviceable
a) Storage conditions are not in accordance with accepted practice
b) Instruments history unknown
c) Instruments failure before their stipulated life
d) All the above
13. The shelf life of instruments
a) The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed 2 years at the end of first year in shelf should be
exercised as per approved test schedules and bearing lubricated as per makers recommendation
b) The shelf life to be indicated on the serviceable tag
c) Instruments installed on aircraft which are not operated for a continuous period of six months shall
be subjected to bench check before use
d) All correct
14. Definition of emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
a) Equipment which broad-cost distress signals on designated frequencies
b) Automatically activated by impact / water activated by hydro static sensors
c) Automatic portable ELT which is rigidly attached but readily removable
d) All are correct
15. General Aviation operation
a) Class-I helicopters in case of critical power unit failure able to safely continue the flight except the
failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off or after defined point before landing a forced
landing required
b) Class-II helicopter: In case of critical power failure safely continue the flight except the failure
occurs prior to a defined point after take off or after defined point before landing required
c) In case of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile a forced landing must be performed
d) All the above
16. Aero plane to be equipped on all flight
a) First aid kit and physician kit as per the capacity of the aircraft and one portable fire extinguishers
in flight compartment and passengers cabin
b) Seat or berth for each person over an aged of two years seat belt for each seat ad restraining belts
for each berth a safety harness for each flight crew must incorporate advice which will auto which
will automatically restrain the occupants torso in the event of rapid deceleration. Safety harness
incorporate a device to prevent a suddenly incapacitated pilot from interfering with the flight
controls it includes shoulder straps and seat belt used independently.
c) A crash axe for use in emergency stored in a place not visible to passengers
d) As “A” “B” and C and megaphone for seating capacity more than 60 and less than 100 passenger in
the forward location. Two megaphones to be installed with passengers capacity of more than 99
passengers one forward and the other rear ward
17. Aero planes on flights over water Sea Planes
a) One life jacket flotation device for each person on board
b) Equipment for making sound signals under international regulations for preventing collision at sea
c) One anchor
18. Mark the correct statement in respect of a civil aircraft
a) Aircraft owned by state government and operated within the vicinity of departing aerodrome need
not possess the valid C of A
b) Need not hold valid C of A provided aircraft is operated without any passenger or pay load
c) Need not hold valid C of A provided the aircraft is test flown with in the vicinity of departing
aerodrome
d) Both A and B answers are correct
19. In case owner of the aircraft has leased the aircraft to an operator
a) Both owner and the operator are responsible to maintain the aircraft with current and valid C of A
before it is flown
b) It is the responsibility of the operator to maintain the aircraft in current and valid C of A before it is
flown
c) As in (B) unless a general /specific permission to the contrary has been obtained from DGCA
20. Aircraft is considered airworthy provided
a) Periodic inspections as approved by the appropriately licensed AME are carried out
b) All periodic inspections including repairs / modifications as approved by Managing Director of
Airlines
c) As in (B) but approved by DGCA
d) Fuselage repairs as approved by structural engineer of airlines are carried out
21. Issue of CAR is as detailed below
a) Issued by DGCA
b) Issued by DGCA with the permission Civil Aviation Ministry
c) Issued by DGCA under provision of Rule 133A of the aircraft Rule 1934
d) Issued by the DGCA but under Rule 133A of aircraft Rule 1937
22. Emergency landing means
a) Over weight a heavy landing by over shooting the runway
b) Aircraft bogging down after under shooting the runway during landing phase
c) Emergency escape slides are deployed during landing phase
d) It is an un-internal landing because of failure o malfunction of an aircraft component or system
23. Condition monitoring means
a) When the aircraft components are kept in temperature controlled air-conditioned room
b) Monitoring by accomplishing periodic inspections by removing testing the component in laboratory
c) Concept for locating and resolving problem areas through analytical study of malfunctions a failure,
not affecting safety
d) Inspection of components at fixed periods
24. Dispatch reliability does not include
a) In flight shut down rate (IFSD /1000 Hrs)
b) Engineering delays of 15 minutes duration
c) Aircraft grounding time in a month
d) All above are correct
25. Private operators should submit information related to accidents/emergency landings etc. to DGCA at
periods mentioned below:
a) At every 180 days b) at every 6 months
c) At every one month is acceptable
26. “ON CONDITION” maintenance concepts is accomplished by
a) Visual inspections or bench test / in situ etc.
b) Subjecting the component by overhauling at fixed intervals
c) Reversing condition monitoring
d) No such concept exists in aviation industry
27. CAR’s are issued for information guidance and compliance under the provision of
a) Rule 133 A of aircraft Rules
b) Section 5A of aircraft Act, 1934
c) Aimed to implement the standards and recommended practices laid down in the ICAO annexes 1, 6
and 8
d) All above correct
28. To quality for type certificate of aircraft
a) Should confirm to Rule 49 of aircraft rules 1937
b) Comply with CAR section 2 series F part II and manufactured in India shall be type certificated by
parliament
c) Aircraft imported from Australia should be type certificate by Australia acceptable to DGCA
a) If AME Joins another operator, he should familiarize with QC manual & differences in aircraft
b) As in (a) and he should pass specific aircraft written paper conducted by DGCA
c) As in (a) and should pass an oral check by DGCA
d) Operator should obtain security clearance for the Indian AME migrated from previous operator OR
as in A and C
30. When any foreign AME employed
a) AME should be given familiarization course on operator’s hanger
b) AME should be cleared from required security through DGCA
c) AME should pass written test conducted by QC Manager in association local DGCA
d) All above are wrong
1. Under aircraft rule every aircraft shall be fitted equipped with radio apparatus
a) Aircraft rule 58 b) Aircraft rule 48 c) Aircraft rule 57
d) Aircraft rule 133A
2. Scheduled maintenance check is required bonding insulation and VSWR HF, VHF carried
out
a) 180 days b) 6 months c) “A” & “B”are correct
d) “A” and “B” wrong
3. What are the equipment final test data check carried out
a) ADF VHF b) HF, VOR ILS c) Both A&B are correct
d) All wrong
4. Conventional valve equipment FTD check
a) Once a year linked with C of A renewal or any major check
b) Once 3 years
c) As A&B every 1800 hrs major check d) None
5. Solid state radio equipment FTD check
a) Once in 4 years b) Once in 3 years c) Once in a year
d) Once in two years
6. Special inspection
a) Whenever the aircraft involved in hard landing
b) Only when the aircraft flies through electrical storm
c) Mandatory when aircraft flight affected by lightening strike
d) All the above
7. Mode A and C transponder responses to
a) It provides communication capabilities (data link) required for ACAS/TCAS
b) Air traffic control radar beacon system (ATC RBS)
c) As A and B transponder function (mode “A” and Mode “C” operation)
d) None
8. Mode “S” transponder
a) Aircraft maximum certified take off mass 5700 Kgs and having seating capacity more than 30 seats
b) Pay load capacity more than 3 tons
c) As “A” & “B” correct d) As “A” & “B” wrong
9. No aircraft shall operate for general aviation purpose
a) Should promulgated ATS rules b) 1st Jan 2003 aircraft only
c) As “B” helicopter also must have mode A and C transponder
10. Mode “S” Address
a) 24 bits b) 18 bits country code
c) Bits country code and 18 bits made “S” address
d) Only mode “S” address 18 bits only
11. Requirements for applying mode “S” transponder
a) Aircraft type and registration number b) Serial number of aircraft
c) Name & Address of the operator d) All above
12. Maintenance and certification of transponders
a) TSO C 74 C for mode A and C b) TSO-112 for mode “S”
c) TSO-C112 for mode “S” d) Both A and C
13. EMI definition
a) Un desirable voltage b) Undesirable current c) undesirable Power
d) Both A & B
14. Sources of interference
a) Fluorescent lights radio and radar transmitters
b) Power lines window heat controllers induction motor switching
c) Switching and light dimming
d) All above
15. Electromagnetic compatibility (EMC)
a) When the susceptibility thrush hold level is lesser than the conducted radiated emission level
b) When the noise susceptibility thrush hold level is lower than the conducted radiated emission level
c) When the susceptibility thrush hold level is greater than the conducted radiated emission level
16. Characteristics of interference categorized
a) Band width b) amplitude behavior c) Wave form and occurrence
d) All the above
17. Narrow band interference
a) The interference band width is narrow
b) This is caused by AC power lines computers radio transmission and receives these items generate a
specified frequencies with un wanted harmonics of frequencies
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
18. Broad band interference
a) Devices generating random frequencies which serve no purpose
b) Present due to characteristics of electrical system
c) Power supplies light dimmmous Electrical motors
d) All the above
19. Interference can be categorized
a) Periodic b) Periodic or random c) Both A and B
d) Only B is correct
20. Unit of measurement of interference
a) db b) Volts c) Amps d) watts
21. Items affected by interference problem
a) Noise source b) Coupling channel c) Receivers d) All
22. Method of suppressing inference at source
a) Enclose source in metallic housing b) Transient suppression on relay coil
c) Twist and shield noisy wires and filter noisy output leads
d) As “A” B and C pulse raise time as slow and log possible
23. Reduce noise coupling
a) Separate power leads from interconnecting signal leads
b) Twist and shield noisy wires (coaxial cables need high frequency)
c) Ground leads as short as possible and break interference ground loops by incorporating isolation
transformers, difference Amplifier and balance circuits
d) As A, B, C, filter noisy out put leads
24. GPS
a) Communication Aid b) Navigation Aid c) Both COM, NA Aid
d) Landing Aid
25. GPS is stand-alone equipment
a) Insulation does not interfere operation of any other equipment
b) A means to provide to the flight crew GPS Receiver fail or unable to perform position calculation
c) Provision of warning light in a prominent position
d) All the above
26. GPS operational performance statement
a) Flight Manual b) Aircraft long book c) Radio log book
d) Journey log book
27. GPS provides signal or navigational information
a) Instruments and displays b) Auto pilot
d) Including area navigation system
d) As “a” & “b” excluding area navigation system
28. Multi sensor area navigational system
a) GPS sensor must provide an unambiguous indication when any sensor including GPS
b) The failed one cannot provide the accuracy necessary for that phase of flight
c) Both “A” & “B” correct
d) Both “A” and “B” wrong
29. Storage condition
a) Temperature 50-70 degree F b) Humidity should be 65%
c) Storage parts kept at a distance of not more than 3 feet away from the source of heat
d) All the above
30. Rubber tyres
a) Stored vertically in rocks supporting tubes
b) Each tyre should be supported at two points close enough so that major portion of tyres above the
tubes
c) The tyre should turn a new position every three months
d) All above aircraft hoses and hose should be stored un coiled and supported to release stresses
31. Storage limiting period of rubbers parts
a) Isolation atmospheric oxygen
b) Parts to be packed in air tight container and wrapping and liberal use of talk and French chalk
c) Parts packed in air tight tins they should be lined with wax paper or polythene to avoid direct
contact the metal
d) All correct
32. Ozone effect
a) Exposure to air containing ozone even in minute quantities should be avoided
b) High voltage equipment, electrical motors or other plant which may give raise to electrical spark
c) Still indoor air is normally ozone free because most wall and ceiling covering and organic materials
destroy ozone
d) All correct
33. Rubber parts
a) Must be stored in a relaxed position free from compression or distortion
b) Deformation greatly aggravates the action of ozone and also lead to permanent changes in shape
and dimensions
c) Spring loaded seats should if stored for any length of time have the spring removed
d) All the above
34. Shelf life hoses
a) Life limited to 10 years from the cure date of manufacture
b) During storage, periodic inspection should be carried out once a year for signs of deterioration,
weather crocks signs of corrosion on end fittings, hoses are pressure tested 1 ½ times the working
pressure every 2 years
c) Before installation on aircraft pressure test should be carried out at 1 ½ times the working pressure
d) All the above
35. Service life
a) Service life is fixed by the manufactures taking into consideration the specific application
b) In the absence of such information life of the hoses should not exceed 4 years to start for Group A
hoses and 6 years Group B Hoses
c) There after the service life of hoses can be developed to 6 years for group “A” and 8 years group
”B”
d) All correct
36. For life development of hoses the visual examination
a) Rubber coating and protective shields separating from inner tube or from the metal core
b) Hardening or lack of flexibility
c) Ageing cracks, kinks chaffing blisters and condition of union
d) All the above
37. Absence of specific test or rigorous for determining life escalation
a) 1 ½ times the working of pressure 1 year
a) 2 ½ times the working pressure
b) 2 times the operating pressure and retained at elevated pressure for five minutes
c) .None of the above
38. Shelf life of hydraulic and pneumatic system components
a) Rubber parts for hydraulic and pneumatic to 6 years from the cure date
b) Rubber parts / seals stored more than 4 years, a sample seall from each batch should be checked for
deterioration by stretching 20% of the internal dia
39. Service life of the hydraulic and pneumatic system rubber components
a) All the rubber seals shall be renewed at the time of TBO however maximum service life 4 years
b) In case manufacturer have fixed service life involving rubber components less than years manufactures
instructions to be followed
c) Under life development programme mutually agreed by RAWO and operator
d) All the above
40. Reciprocating engines and the accessories mounted on engine
a) Completely stripped, thoroughly inspected, and reassemble and tested at least once in 10 years
b) Any extension of calendar period, beyond ten years will not be normally considered
c) Manufacturer has laid down overhaul periodicity on calendar basis between two consecutive
overhauls the manufacturer requirements prevails
41 Series aircraft means
a) C of A and design of which is similar in every essential respect to the design of aircraft for which C
of A previously issued
b) C of A and design of which is not similar in every essential respect to the design of aircraft for
which C of A previously issued
c) B only correct d) A only correct
42. Flight Test Means
a) Flight performance and characteristics of aircraft in flight
b) Aircraft parts do not differ significantly in adverse sense from those of similar aircraft
c) As “A” aircraft parts do not differ significantly in adverse sense from those of its proto type
d) As “B” aircraft parts do not differ significantly in adverse sense from those of type approved
43. Release of aircraft for flight test
a) Chief Engineering Manager b) Quality Control Manager
c) Major maintenance Manager d) Chief of inspector Flight Release signatories
44. Flight test means
a) Flying the aircraft without any passenger or board
b) Aircraft handling characteristics have not deteriorated with time
c) Aircraft performance remains as scheduled and its equipment function properly
d) Only “A” and “B” “C” are correct
45. Aircraft flight-tested under the circumstances
a) At the time of C of A renewal (including six months renewal of C of A) and maintenance, repair,
modifications effect operational flight characteristics
b) For the purpose of fuel consumption engine power and performance of Rad / Nov/Radar
equipments or instruments performance in doubt on ground
c) Twin Engine aircraft more than one engine, in four engine aircraft more than two engine change
d) As “A” “B” “C”DGCA may require any aircraft or any type of aircraft to under go flight testing
46. Before flight test
a) Documents covering the repair modification and inspection is completed in all respects and
certified
b) A certificate to this effect as “A” shall be issued in duplicate one copy delivered to the pilot other
copy shall be retained by the operator
c) As “A” and “B” is correct
47. The routine test flight
a) All engines operating climb performance is within the acceptable limit to specified by the
manufacturer / DGCA best climbing speed.
b) Cruise speed at the cursing engine power is within the range specified and stalling
Speed has not increased beyond the figures specified by the manufacturer or DGCA
c) No abnormal vibrations, flight controls operate normally satisfactory
d) As a, b, c the radio radar equipment function correctly as installed in the aircraft and the operating
range satisfactory
48. Flight test report
a) Flight test to be performed by pilot in command or any other crew member of aircraft authorized by
the operator
b) The pilot in command responsible for record all defects experienced and adjustments made besides
recording and instruments reading
c) All flight test report and record of defects and adjustment shall be made in the flight log book of the
aircraft or other equivalent document
49. Flight performance of aircraft
a) Operating crew should be expected to report back on the actual performance of the aircraft as per
the prepared plan
b) Scheduled airlines have performance monitoring cell for regularly analyzing the flight data ROC,
cruising speed fuel consumption range of radio / radar equipments
c) In consultation with the manufacturers / DGCA schedule airlines shall specify in their QCM manual
short fall for the guidance of their maintenance staff
d) A, B, C on learning the short fall DGCA may order such further flight test or other corrective action
50. Certification of flight test
a) Satisfactory flight test performed
b) Defects rectified and certified endorsement to this effect shall be made in the pilot defect report /
maintenance documents/ aircraft log books / licensed / approved person responsible for issuing of
flight release
c) There after usual flight release may be issued
d) As A,B,C correct
51. To grant open license in Cat A/B (All metal)
a) Must have held AME License in Category A/B for continuous period of five years
b) Have at least three types of all metal aircraft out of which two should be twin engine composite
structure
c) Should have two single engine all metal aircraft not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW as applicable
category
52. Open rating in category “A/B” of composite construction aircraft, AME should
a) Have held AME license in Category “A” / B for 3 years
b) Have at least 3 types of aero planes of composite structure of which at least 2 aircraft should be
with single engine and not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW endorse in Category “A” / “B”
c) All the three of composite construction with at least two endorsements on two all metal aircraft
d) One composite constructive having filled with turbine engine
53. Open rating in Category “R” for ADF endorsement
a) AME should have held license on HF for the past 3 years in Category “R”
b) Above endorsement should on an aircraft whose AUW is less than 3000 Kg
c) Out of 3 minimum ADF fitted on three different aircraft, one should be on aircraft whose AUW is
less than 5700 Kg
d) All the above answers are correct
54. AME with open rating endorsement in any category
a) Can immediately exercise his privileges with a recent experience on the type of aircraft for at least
one month
b) Can exercise the privileges provided he has familiarized with the aircraft for minimum period of
three months before using open license
c) He should undergo approved course conducted by DGCA
d) Familiarity with aircraft should be proved to the QC Manger
55. Composite construction of an aircraft means
a) Primary structure, controls are made out of metal is called composite
b) Only fuselage is made of metal but flight controls are covered with metal sheet
c) Fuselage and wings are made out of wood covered with plywood
d) Primary structure and its skin covering is of two more different materials
56. AME to qualify for open rating in cat-“X” (Radio equipment) of communication and ADF
a) Should have held AME in “X” category coving Radio equipment continuously for 5 years
b) Should have at least one aircraft with HF equipment on his license in Category “X”
c) Should have at least three aircraft filled with three different types of ADF equipment on his license
in Category “X” (Radio equipment)
57. Requirement for renewal of AME License

a) Should have continuous 6 months experience within preceeding 24 months from the date of
application
b) Within preceeding 24 months, applicant should have a total 6 months experience
c) Experience should be on aircraft having AUW 3000 Kgs
58. AME license lapsed for more than one year but less than 2 years, renewal can be effected by
a) After an oral check by he RAWO
b) Can be renewed only DGCA (Hqrs)
c) Applicant should pass written test followed by oral check by RAWO
d) Warning letter by RAWO
59. Mark the correct statement with reference to AME license renewal
a) Application should be submitted at least 15 days in advance to RAWO
b) If AME worked abroad for six months and another 6 months in India within the Preceeding 24
months, only DGCA, Hqs can renew the license
c) If the requisite experience is shown in a foreign country, only DGCA., Hqs. Can renew the license
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct
60. If the AME remained unemployed and license remained lapsed for less than one year
a) Can be renewed if a certificate is issued by the previous employer that he has not exercised his
privileged
b) Certificate as in (A) from the applicant is acceptable
c) Can be renewed by DGCA Hqs. Only
d) Applicant need not undergo refresher course after July’2003
61. Eligibility for issue of basic license is
a) Should have just competed 18 years of age
b) Must have passed Paper-I,II and III of DGCA AME license examination
c) Produce medical certificate from doctor holding at least a MBBS degree stating no physical
disability or colour blindness
62. Mark the incorrect statement
a) For issue of AME license, the applicant should have completed 21 years of Age
b) Change over from mechanical to avionics stream person should acquire 18 months
c) Open rating in Category “C” can be given to cover normally aspirated air cooled piston engine not
exceeding 350 BHP
d) Open rating can be granted to aircraft whose AUW is less than 3000 Kg
63. BAMEC cannot be issued to
a) Person’s age is less than 20 years
b) Candidate should have passed B.Sc., degree with Math’s, Physics and Chemistry with 50%
aggregate and passed all DGCA exams
c) Mechanical diploma holder and passed all DGCA papers
d) Should not suffer from colour blindness
64. Mark the correct statement, regarding issue of authorization
a) If authorization relates aircraft whose AUW is more than 5700 Kg, the applicant should have
satisfactorily undergone approved course
b) Applicant should employed on full time basis
c) Validity beyond six months should be prior concurrence of DGCA
65. Authorization may be issued to the applicant
a) By the approved quality control manager
b) If found blame worthy recorded during the last 6 months
c) AME’s requisite experience may be gained within 6 months from the date of issue
d) Answers (B) and (C) are correct
66. Approved can be granted to applicant provided
a) Age should is less than 19 years
b) Has passed 10+2 standard with MPC subjects or equivalent examination
c) Should hold BAMEC in any of the categories of HA, JE, ES, IS and RN but on aircraft whose
AUW is less than 5700 Kgs
d) Approval once granted is valid even applicant joins an another organization engaged in same type
of work.
67. Approval of flight engineers as check flight Engineer/Flight Engineer examiner
a) Is given to flight engineer whose hold very senior in position and drawn more salary
b) Is given if F.E is impartial and capable of recording fair assessment
c) Is given if the F-E is completely free of notifiable accident attributable to his proficiency during
preceeding 3 years
d) Answers (b) correct
68. To qualify for check flight engineer
a) F.E should have 2000 hours of total experience on the type
b) Minimum 100 horse experience on the type and carried out at least 10 route checks within last one
year
c) 500 hrs. total experience on the type
d) 100 hrs. on the type within last six months
a) Check flight engineer should undergo eight hours simulator training
b) As in (A) and two hours check by FE examiner
c) Validity of check flight engineer license is for one calendar year upto 31st march unless extended by
FE examination
70. To quality for renewal as flight engineer examiner
a) Should have 10 hrs.experience as check flight engineer
b) Should have at least 10 hours of experience as flight engineer with 5 route checks by check flight
engineer
c) Should have clean professional record for the proceeding 24 months proceeding date of application
d) Should have not less than 100 hrs of flying experience as flight engineer during the past six months
prior to the date of application
71. GET is required to take repeat main course if be
a) If he gets less than 80% aggregate marks in main course
b) If the attendance is less than 90% of main course
c) If he fails in any phase with less than 70% marks in the main course
d) If he fails in any one of the phases getting 69% only of the main course
72. GET can appear for Paper-I and II
a) Should complete two years training like a student from approved AME college
b) After completion of one year training
c) On completion of 2 years practical training in the trade
73. GET after refresher course
a) Is eligible for 3 chances of oral – cum-practical examination
b) Is eligible for one chance of oral-cum-practical examination provide be undergoes 3 months
practical training
c) Is eligible for one oral-cum-practical examination
d) Refresher course should be conducted after 15 days but within 45 days
74. Fees for issue of duplicate AME/FE/SFE license
a) Fees need not be paid if the license is lost through pressurized passenger cabin sliding window
b) No fees is to be paid if the license is desired to be issued in bilingual format
c) If license is lost by an act of god, fees to be paid
d) NO fees to be paid if license is less than 10 years
75. In respect of welders certificate of competency
a) Is valid for 6 months maximum
b) C of C of a welder can be renewed for a maximum period of six moths
c) May be renewed if welder has worked for 2 months in past six months
d) All the above answers are correct.
76. Minimum experience required for issue of certificate of competency to cover NDT is
a) Minimum of 1 ½ years aviation experience on Radio trade to cover Radiography
b) Minimum of 2 years aviation experience the field of Radiography out of which 6 months recent
experience
c) Minimum of 1 ½ years experience in the filed of radiography
d) As in (c) out of which six months recent experience must be under supervision of C of C holder of
an approved organization for carrying out radio graphic inspection
77. Validity of C of C covering magnetic particle inspection is
a) Should not exceed one year
b) Should be for 6 months out of minimum which at least 2 months recent experience is required
c) Should have 6 months experience covering the relevant NDT technique
d) C of C for eddy current technique is only for 3 months
78. For issue of an additional rating of C of C covering NDT
a) Should have gained 6 months experience in respective NDT technique
b) Should have minimum 2 months recent experience
c) Should have gained at least 3 months experience under direct supervision of local DGCA
d) Should have gained at least 3 months experience under the supervision C of C holder covering the
related NDT technique
79. To fly one of the types of aircraft on FE license, the following are to fulfilled to gain recency
a) If the lapsed period is less than 90 days F.E has to do simulator refresher of 4 hours and route check
(minimum 4 landings)
b) If the period is 91 days to 364 days, FE has to do extended technical refresher, simulator (2X 4
hours)
c) In addition to requirements stated in (b), F.E has to undergo 2 route checks (Minimum 6 landing
with at least two different approved examiner)
d) Both answer (b) and (C) are correct
80. Certificate of competency for welder is issued
a) If the age of the applicant is less than 18 years
b) Applicant should have passed at least 10+2 examination with MPC group
c) Should have gained experience at least 2 years in welding of which at least 3 months must be recent
experience
d) Should have least 2 years experience in welding of which at least 6 months must be recent
experience
3. MEL need not include
a) Engine unless aircraft installed with 3 engines
b) Landing gear provided aircraft is fixed tricycle type landing gear
c) Gally equipment which do not affect the airworthiness
d) All above
4. QCM is empowered to dispatch the aircraft under MEL
a) If the pilot or AME refuses to certify the aircraft if he thinks unsafe to do so
b) In case of multiple defects are encountered with regard to pilot objection
c) Can dispatch the aircraft if pilot agrees to accept the aircraft with multiple defects
d) QC manager has no role to play
5. Approval to MEL is given by

a) RAWO where the aircraft is mainly based
b) QC Manager along with authorized pilot
c) Representations from engineering operations and cabin crew
d) DGCA (HQs)
6. Dry not and wood decay is indicated
a) By small patches of gumbling wood
b) Dark discolouration of the wood surface or gray streak / indicates water penetration
c) If such discoloration can not be removed by light scrapping the part should rejected
d) All above
7. Gliders having an age more than 20 years
a) C of A validity should be restricted 6 months
b) Should be permitted to only inverted flying with pilot having a parachute.
c) Al aerobatic manoeuver should be prohibited
d) A and C are correct
8. Glider log book should be preserved
a) Glider need not have log book except launch log book
b) Should be preserved till such time the glider is permanently with drawn from use
c) As in B the C of R is cancelled by DGCA
d) Both B and C
9. Single seater micro-light aircraft means
a) Should have wing span more than 10 micrometers
b) Minimum AUW should be 330 Kg and wing area not less than 10 Sq. meters
c) Maximum all up weight should be 330 Kgs and wing area not less than 10 Sq.meters
d) All up weight should not exceed 450 Kgs
10. Registration marking on micro light aircraft shall be printed
a) Port wing upper surface and on each side of fuselage
b) Lower surface of the wings and on each side of fuselage
c) Instead of each side of fuselage on the upper half of vertical tail surface
11. In case of micro light aircraft
a) Type certificate not necessary
b) C of R is required
c) Firms approval of DGCA is to sought
12. Mark “Envelope” related to hot air balloon means
a) Place where all records and permit to fly is carried out
b) Enclosure in which the lifting medium is contained
c) Is placed below the gas kit to keep occupants warm at higher altitudes
13. Mark the correct statement is respect of balloon
a) Should not fly unless during 25 hrs preceding lift off certified
b) Pilot is not empowered to certify up to 25 hours inspection schedule
c) Appropriate licensed AME can certify beyond 25 hrs inspection scheduled
14. Flight release of balloon should be retained
a) One month
b) 60 days from the date of flight release
c) 180 days since the balloon is permanently with drawn from service
d) Till the C of R is cancelled by DGCA
19. V TOSS in what manual
a) The minimum speed at which climb shall be performed with critical power unit inoperative
b) The remaining units with in the operation limits
c) Operation manual prepared by operator
d) Flight manual
20. For extension in CAT-A license
a) 6 months b) 3 months
c) Aircraft on which the extension desired of similar construction only three months of current
experienced of total experience
21. Flight release certificate for any helicopter
a) AME licensed in Both A and C Cat
b) In case of Cat-“A” all parts of airframe for assembly condition
c) All parts of installation required for operation, heating air-condition oxy hydraulics
d) On above pneumatic system pilot system, airframe fuel system fire protection landing gear, wheel
brakes
22. Cat-R heavy aircraft
a) Valid for communications, navigation radar system
b) Type of aircraft authorized to certify con/nav/radar equipment as mentioned
c) For light aircraft HF,VHF ADF VOR , ILS, VLF/ omega, DME, weather radar particular type of
equipment
d) A and B correct
23. Basic principles for fixing initial periods for maintenance of aircraft are
a) Manufacturers recommendations and modification status
b) Other operators service experience of similar equipment
c) Short haul or long haul operations
d) All correct
24. Preventive maintenance means
a) Preventive measures taken to avoid foreign object damage
b) Work performed at pre-determined intervals to maintain the aircraft aerodynamic cleanliness
c) Work performed at predetermined intervals to maintain an aircraft components or other system
airworthy
d) Condition monitoring concept to prevent failure of aircraft components system
25. Average fuel and oil consumption record should be maintained by
a) Approved flight engineer
b) Approved flight engineer examiner
c) Aircraft maintenance engineer
d) An approximately licensed maintenance engineer
26. Unscheduled maintenance consists of
a) Corrective maintenance introduced as a result of pilot reported defects
b) Includes corrective maintenance as a result of other inspection findings
c) Routine maintenance schedules introduced by the pilot only d) Both A&B
27. Parts / components associated with major defects should be preserved
a) Four weeks from the date of intimation
b) For 8 weeks from the date of intimation
c) Two weeks from the date of intimation
d) Incase of confirmed major defect components within 3 months
28. Major defect classified in group-I includes
a) Engine shut down during flight because of fame out
b) Defect related to landing gear ext. & retraction
c) Fine during flight
d) False fix warning during flight
29. FRC should be revalidated if
a) If aircraft is delayed for more than 1 hour due to intoxicated flight crew member
b) Engine suffers IFSD because of flame out
c) Engine suffers IFSD with external damage to the engine
d) Aircraft tyre bursts on landing
30. Following manuals should be submitted to DGCA for approval with reference to type of approval
a) Maintenance system manual b) Type instruction manual
c) Type service manual d) Both B and C are correct
31. Scheduled maintenance check is required banding insulation and VSWR HF-VHF carried out
a) 180 days b) 6 months c) Both A & B are correct
d) None
32. Solid state radio equipment FTD check
a) Once in 4 years b) Once in 3 years c) Once in a year
d) Once in two years
33. Special inspection
a) When aircraft involved in hard landing
b) When aircraft plies through electrical storm
c) When aircraft affected by lightning strike
d) All above
34. Brad band interference
a) Devices generating random frequencies which serve no purpose
b) Present due to characteristics of electrical system
c) Power supply lines, light dimmers, electrical motors
d) All above
35. Method of suppressing interference at source
a) Enclose source in a metallic housing
b) Transmit suppression on relay coil
c) Twists shield noisy wires and filter noisy out put leads
d) As “A” and B and C noise time as slow and long possible
36. GPS
a) Communication aid b) Navigation aid c) Both A&B
d) None
37. GPS performance mentioned in
a) Flight manual b) Aircraft log book c) Radio log book
d) Journey log book
38. GPS Provides signal or navigational information
a) Instruments and displays b) Auto pilot c) Including area navigation. d)
Both A and B
39. Storage condition
a) Temperature 50-70 degree F b) Humidity should be 65%
c) Storage parts kept at a distance of more than 3 from the source of heat
d) All the above
40. Rubber parts
a) Must be stored in a relaxed position free from compression distortion
b) Deformation greatly aggravates the action of ozone and also lead to permanent changes in shape
and dimensions
c) Spring loaded seats should if stored for any length of time have the spring removed
d) All the above
41. Rigorous test for determining life escalation hoses
a) 1 ½ times the working pressure 1 year
b) 2 ½ times the working pressure
c) 2 times the operating pressure and retained at elevated for 5 minutes
42. If manufacturer has not laid down over periodicity on reciprocating engines and the accessories mounted on
engine
a) Completely stripped, thoroughly inspected and reassemble and tested at least once in 10 years
b) Any extension of calendar period, beyond ten years
c) Between two consecutive overhauls manufactures requirements drevail
d) All are wrong
43. Flight test means
a) Flying the aircraft without any passenger on board
b) Aircraft handling characteristics have not deteriorated with time
c) Aircraft performance remains as scheduled and its equipments function properly
d) All above
44. Flight test report
a) Flight test to be performed by pilot in command or any other crew member of aircraft authorized by
the operator
b) The pilot in command responsible for record all defects experienced and adjustments made besides
recording and instrument reading
c) All flight test report record of defects and adjustments shall be made in the flight log book of the
aircraft or other equipment documents
a) Can immediately exercise his privileges with recent experience on the type of aircraft for at least
one month
c) He should under go approved course conducted by DGCA
d) Familiarity with aircraft should be proved to the QC manager
46. Decision Altitude (DA) a decision height (DH)
a) Decision altitude is referenced to mean sea-level decision height is referenced to the threshold
elevation
b) In CAT-III operations with a decision height the required visual reference is that specified for the
particular procedure and operations
c) Both expressions are used and written DA/DH
d) All above
47. Fuel and oil records shall be preserved by the operator for
a) 180 daysb) 270 daysc) 360 daysd) As ‘A’ or 6 months
48. Pilot acceptance report (Flight operation form) shall be kept by the operator
a) 1 year b) 180 daysc) 3 years d) As ‘B’ or 6 months
51. Multi engine aircraft with one engine inoperative
a) Aircraft maximum gross weight permitted by its C of A will be maintaining level flight not less than
1000 above the valley level
b) If flown over water at altitude not less than 3000 above water
c) Both A & B right d) Both A and B are wrong
52. In case of conflict between operational manual and flight manual
a) Operational manual shall have precedence over the flight manual
b) Manufacturer prepare operational manual for guidance of operating Crew
c) As “B” it supercedes the flight manual
d) Flight manual shall have precedence over the operational manaual
53. Emergency landing ground for single engine aircraft
a) 450 miles b) 350 miles c) 150 miles interval d) None
54. Critical phase of flight excludes
a) Involving taxi b) Take off and landing
c) Flight operations conducted below 10000 d) Cruise flight
55. Fuel & oil records
a) 180 daysb) 1 year c) 180 days or six months d) None
56. Cosmic radiation indication starts at altitude
a) Above 25000 b) 30000 c) 49000 d) 50000
57. Maintenance records to be preserved
a) 90 days b) 60 days c) 3 months d) Both A&C
58. Flight release certificate to be preserved
a) One year b) Six months c) Three months d) 90 days
59. Landing decision point (LDP) is not applicable
a) Class-I helicopters b) Class II helicopter c) Class-III helicopters
d) Both A and C
60. Take off decision point applicable
a) Class III helicopter b) Class-II helicopter c) Class-I helicopter
d) None
1. To maintain the aircraft in airworthy condition responsibility rests on
a) The owner of the aircraft b) DGCA approved QCM
c) Engineering Manager d) Chief Engineer
2. To maintain aircraft in airworthy condition subject it to
a) Periodical inspections as approved by DGCA
b) Replace lifed components at intervals approved by DGCA
c) Carryout repair / modifications as required by DGCA
d) All above under approved maintenance programme
3. Procedure for issue of CAR revision etc.
a) Series –“A” Part-III Rule 133A of aircraft Rules 1937
b) Series –“A” Part-IV Rule 133A of aircraft Rules 1938
c) Series – “A” Part-I Rule 133A of aircraft Rules 1937
d) Series –“A” Part-II Rule 133A of aircraft Rules 1937
4. Definition of emergency landing
a) Landing due to metrological conditions b) Landing due to fuel starvation
c) Landing due to failure / malfunctioning of aircraft component / system
d) Landing as in c) malfunctioning and failure of operating crew
5. On condition maintenance
a) Visual inspection b) Physical measurement
c) As “A”&”B” insitu /Bench Check
d) Dismantle the components completely before critical stage
6. Condition Monitoring
a) Study of Hard time maintenance b) Study of on condition maintenance
c) Study of failure and malfunctions d) All above
7. All operators should submit the following information
a) Number of emergency landing during the period under review and number of hours flown on each
type of aircraft per 1000 hrs.
b) Notifiable accidents and total number of hours flown on each type of aircraft in the fleet / 1000 hrs.
c) Total number of in flight shut down and total number of hours flown for each engine in the fleet /
1000 hours during review period
d) As above & mechanical delays of more than 15 minutes due to maint. action.
8. The IFSD rate, emergency landing/1000 hrs etc. to be submitted to DGCA
a) Private operators 3 months, scheduled operators six months, and non schedule operators every
month
b) Schedule operators 3 months, Private operators six months, non-schedule operators every month
c) Schedule operators in 3 months, private operators 6 months, non-schedule operators 1 year
d) Private operators 6 months, non schedule operators 3 months, and schedule operators one month
9. The safety over sight airworthiness programme is aimed
a) To detect weakness in the engineering activities of the operator, maintenance of ground handling
equipment etc
b) To detect weakness in the aircraft maintenance programme before they become a potential hazard
c) Safety and airworthiness regulations over view through aircraft act 1934, aeronautical information
publication (AIP), CAR’s, Aeronautical information circulars (AIC)
d) All correct
10. Mark the incorrect answer
a) Adequate maintenance organization – Rule 155A
b) Approval of organization – 133B
c) Flight release certificate – 134
d) Procedure for registration – Rule 30
11. Aircraft type certificate acceptance
a) Aircraft manufactured in India or elsewhere shall conform to type design and will be in condition
for safe operation- rule 49 Act 37
b) Series “F” Part-II Aircraft designed and manufactured in India shall be type certified by DGCA
c) Type design under regulations of federal aviation administrator (FAA)
d) All as above and European airworthiness consortium (JAA) acceptable to DGCA
12. C of A – mark correct statement
a) No aircraft shall be flown under rule 15 of 1937 with out current C of A
b) No aircraft registered in India shall be flown it has a current valid C of A issued under rule of 50 of
1937
c) Unless it is flown for the purpose of flight test for C of A renewal in the close vicinity of the
departing aerodrome
d) All are correct
13. Approved organization must document its maintenance programme based on
a) Engineering organization manual b) Quality control Manual
c) Maintenance Manual d) maintenance planning document (MPD)
14. Negative trends in aircraft maintenance programme
a) Aircraft delays, premature removal rates, engine shut down rates, short term escalation, deferred
maintenance, repeat pilot report
b) Unapproved maintenance practices
c) In adequate training of maintenance personal, and also ignorance
d) All Correct
15. Airworthiness performance monitoring system’s function
a) Emergency responding like IFSD, engine failures, depressurization
b) Day to day monitoring scheduled operators shall conduct daily meetings
c) Long term monitoring include appropriate means of reporting and accounting operational and
airworthiness data at specified intervals
d) All correct
16. Operator employing foreign AME’s
a) Security clearance through DGCA before scheduled for work
b) Familiarization about Indian rules and regulations
c) AME has to pass an oral check by DGCA Board in accordance with act 17 of 94
d) As above, the AME qualified there by is only authorized to certify the aircraft
17. Revoke of licenses / approvals
a) Rule 61 of 37 b) Rule 7 of 37 c) Rule 50 of 37 d) Rule 10 of 37
18. Implementation of airworthiness over sight programme
a) Series “A” Part-IIb) Series B-Part-I c) Series “A”-Part-IV
d) Series “A” Part-VI
19. MEL shall be prepared by
a) MEL shall be prepared for all aircrafts where the aircraft manufacturer issued MMEL
b) Other operators operational experience for similar type of aircraft
c) Under the provision of Rule 133A
d) All correct
20. Items not included in MEL
a) Wings, flight controls, complete engines, landing gears etc. correct functioning of which is
absolutely necessary for any flight
b) Galley equipment, entertainment system, passengers convenience equipment
c) Flight control, one engine failure with galley equipment aircraft can fly under MEL
d) Both A and B correct
21. MEL is applicable
a) Transit station b) Terminal Station c) Main station d)All correct
22. Aircraft permitted to fly under MEL mark correct and appropriate answer
a) Defect encountered an hour before first flight of the day
b) Such cases shall be reported RAWO with in 24 hours.
c) MEL is not intended to fly for an indefinite period
d) All correct
23. MEL is to be rectified and signed
a) Within 24 hours of occurrence
b) Wherever the maintenance facilities available
c) Within 48 hours elapsed time
d) Within 72 hours of elapsed time
24. Cockpit & emergency check list is prepared
a) Rule 7B of 37 b) Rule 7A of 37 c) Rule 7A of 34 d) Rule 7A of 38
25. Cock-pit checklist means
a) Inspection / actions to be performed by the ground crew in the order listed and in the circumstances
indicated for safe operation of the aircraft
b) Inspections to be performed by the flight crew
c) Action to be performed by the flight crew
d) Both inspection/action to be performed by the flight crew for safe operation of the aircraft
29. Alterations to check list is carried out
a) Operators operational experience b) On DGCA requirement
c) After obtaining concurrence of the DGCA d) All correct
30. Regarding Maintenance
a) Maintenance and certificate standards – Rule 60 of 37
b) Major defect of aircraft - Rule 59 of 37
c) All correct
d) None of these
32. In case of major defect
a) It shall be intimated immediately on telephone to RAWO within 24 hours of the occurrence
b) Non-scheduled operators within three days of the occurrence of the defect
c) in case of defects reported at out stations complete details of defects within maximum period of
three days
d) As at a), b) & c) & progress report must be rendered to RAWO every month
33. The records/components associated with defect to be preserved
a) All records associated with defects and rectification action shall be preserved for one year
b) Components associated with the major defects shall be preserved for a period of two weeks from
the date of intimation of defect
c) Components, if required by the RAWO/Sub-RAWO to be preserved longer
d) All correct
34. After major defect rectification
a) Flight test to be carried out b) FRC to be revalidated
c) Only “A” is correct d) Both A & B correct
35. Instruments indication from an aircraft will give
a) System functions
b) Proper rectification of defects observed by the crew and reported by crew
c) Effective monitoring of aircraft performance
d) All correct
36. Reading of instruments should be made
a) Each sector under stabilized cruise condition
b) In case of emergency conditions of flight
c) Flight sector of short duration unable to obtain the stabilized condition recording of parameter
reading is omitted unless unusual parameter observed during climb and decent
d) All correct
39. Reliability is a function of
a) Basic design operations, personal training, maintenance, overhaul and many others
b) Manufacture
c) Airworthiness authority
d) All Correct
42. Condition monitoring means
a) Components have no overhaul control and operated to failure
b) No maintenance task is required to evaluate condition life expectancy or reliability degradation to
replace the item before it fails
c) Neither hard time nor on condition standards can control the reliability or failure rate
d) All correct
43. Monitoring of the approved maintenance process is by
a) Pilot reports for 1000 hours of operation or 100 departures
b) Engine in flight shut down, removal of engine for overhaul or repair
c) A/c mechanical delay and cancellation of service assessed ATA system wise
d) All correct
44. Reliability alert level
a) Is for establishing performance standard level
b) Initially two or three years of operation depending on fleet size & utilization
c) To be continuously updated on experience gained and corrective action taken
d) All correct
45. Structural inspection programme includes
a) Wing tanks, lavatory, galley, bilge areas
b) Insecticide spray requires much greater attention.
c) Only “A” is correct d) Both A and B
46, Condition of engine is available from
a) Premature removal rate and engine instruments monitoring by crew
b) Mechanical parameters like engine oil analysis, oil consumption etc
c) Both a) & b)
d) None correct
48. Example of unhidden function
a) Anti-icing system b) Emergency gear extension c) fuel dump actuation
d) All correct
49. Alert value means
a) Minimum deviation from the normal operating limit
b) Maximum deviation from the normal operating limit
c) Both Minimum and Maximum deviation from the normal operating limit
50. Engine overhaul records pertaining failed engine to be preserved
a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 5 years d) 10 years
01. Grant of approval to organizations engaged in ACAS modifications is governed by
a) Rule 133A of 37 b) Rule 133B of 34 c) Rule 133 C of 37 d) Rule 133 B of 37
2. An organization located out side India approval granted by DGCA under
a) CAR&AAC 4 of 1998 b) CAR & ACCC 5 of 1998
c)CAR& AAC 6 of 97 d) CAR &AAC 8 of 1998
3. Certificate of maintenance is
a) A certificate issued in respect of aircraft, aircraft component / item equipment
b) Issued by appropriately licensed AME or approved person or authorized person
c) Issued after carrying out servicing, modifications, repairs and inspection etc.
d) All as above, certifying that work has been performed in accordance with the airworthiness
requirements stipulated by DGCA
4. Release note
a) A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components spares, materials goods
b) Certifying the same were be obtained from an approved source
c) After manufacture / repair/overhaul all relevant airworthiness requirements of the DGCA are
satisfied
d) All correct
5. For issue of approval to an organization___ required
a) CA 182 A b) Fees
c) Statement of Accountable Manager d) All of the above
6. Rejection Note means
a) A document issued by an approved organization
b) For the purpose of advising details of the rejection of certified aircraft goods, which fail to meet the
applicable requirements
c) Only A is correct d) Both A and B correct
7. The scope of approval for routine maintenance of aircraft shall
a) Not less than 50 hrs. b) Not less than 100 hrs. c) Not
less than 200 Hr d) All the above
8. Storage and handling procedure for electro static devices are detailed in
a) AAC 5 of 2002b) AAC 6 of 2000 c) AAC 8 of 2002 d) AAAC 2 of 2004
9. Literature required for aircraft maintenance as per scope of approval
a) Aircraft maintenance manual, component maintenance manual, CAR, advisory circular,
airworthiness directives
b) Structural repair manual, Illustrated parts catalogue, wiring diagrams manual, Component
maintenance manual
c) Service Bulletins (SB’s), service information letters, MMEL
d) All correct
10. Quality control and assurance manuals approved by -->mark incorrect answer
a) Indian airlines - DGCA HQs
b) Deccan Airlines - RAWO
c) Crescent Airways - RAWO southern region
d) Air India - DGCA HQs.
11. Engineering organization manual to be approved by
a) Need not required to be approved by DGCA
b) As at a), but its contents may influence DGCA decision
c) It is to be approved by RAWO
d) None
12. Maintenance system manual to be approved by
a) To be approved by regional airworthiness office
b) As a) in consultation with DGCA HQs.
c) As a) in consultation with Civil Aviation Minister
13. The periodicity of inspection schedules shall be expressed
a) Lapsed flying hours b) Lapsed calendar period
c) Both A and B correct d) None
14. Validity of approval
a) One year b) Six months c) 31st December of the year d) All correct
15. Renewal of approval for Indian airlines
a) CA 182 B b) CA 182A c) CA 182 C d) CA 182 D
16. Approval of below 100 hrs. Inspection at sub base
a) Sub base within the country not required fresh approval
b) Inspection schedules approved at the main base shall be followed at sub base
c) Both A and C correct d) None of the above
17. Preservation of records
a) Approved Organization must retain a copy of all inspection records and data for 2 year
b) Approved organization must retain records and data 180 days
c) Approved organization must retain records and data for 2 weeks
d) All correct
18. Distribution of release note
a) 1st copy to the consignee b) 3rd copy to the organization records
nd
c) 2 copy to RAWO d) All correct
19. Rejection note is to be distributed
a) 1st copy to the suppliers b) 2nd copy to the organization
c) 3rd copy to RAWO Office d) All correct
20. Change of name of approved organization
a) Certificate of approval no longer valid
b) On written application by the new organization, DGCA may change the name by striking off old
name
c) Previously issued documents will be effective with DAW’s signature
d) Both b) and c) correct
21. Certificate of manufacture means
a) A certificate issued by duly authorized person
b) The aircraft/component mentioned there in has been manufactured by the firm
c) The aircraft has been manufactured according to approved drawings
d) As in a) & b) and has been manufactured as per approved specification and drawings and is
airworthy
22. Type certificate means
a) A certificate issued or validated by DGCA
b) Signify that the design type of aircraft, aircraft component or item of equipment is acceptable to
DGCA
c) That the design complies with the applicable design standard as specified or approved
d) All correct
23. All records of inspection and certifications of completed work in an approved manufacturer like HAL shall
be retained
a) 5 years b) 3 years c) 5 years from the date of manufacture
d) 4 years
24. Manufacturers of aircraft components is to obtained information from users of aircraft
a) Major defects, deficiencies / serious in service problems observed or experienced
b) The manufacturers in turn consolidate data and investigate and analysis the course of the
defects/deficienous to improve upon the product
c) The result of their observations shall be notified promptly to all the users of the product suggesting
corrective action/deficiencies
d) As above the defects and efforts made to improve the product shall be notified to DGCA promptly
25. Define process organization
a) Means an organization engaged in specialized process or inspection
b) Electroplating, anodic treatment, metal spraying heat treatment welding applied to air fragmentally
c) Applied both airframe, engines
d) As above, aircraft components and its items of equipments required purpose
26. Submission of test specimens to RAWO
a) Anodic specimens12, cadmium plating 3 hard chromium plating three specimens, others 3
specimens, porus chromium plating photographs
b) Anodic specimens 12, chromium 3 hard chromium 3 other 3
c) Only “A” is correct d) B is correct
27. Certificate of flight release
a) A certificate issued in respect of a complete aircraft by appropriately licensed AME /AMEs
approved or authorized persons certifying
b) The aircraft has been inspected as per approved schedule and is airworthy in all respect and safe for
flight for the period mentioned
c) Both A and B correct d) Only “B” is correct
28. The test report signed by QCM will accompany
a) Aircraft parts / items of equipments material use by the out side parts
b) In case at any time the outside party returns parts which do not confirm to specifications /
requirements
c) QCM immediately inform the RAWO details of “A” and “B”
d) As “A&B” QCM need not to inform RAWO
29. Batch number means
a) Identification number allotted to a quantity of aviation fuel lubricants or special petroleum
products
b) Which is considered as one lot for sampling and testing for compliance with relevant specification
c) Both A and B d) All correct
30. Petroleum in bulk
a) Petroleum contained in receptacle exceeding 500 lts capacity
b) Petroleum in receptacle exceeding 900 lts capacity
c) Only “B”is correct d) Only “A” correct
31. Essential records fuels, water methanol mixture, special petroleum products lubricating oils, to be preserved
32. Release note means
a) A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components spare materials and goods
b) Certifying the same were obtained from an approved source after manufacture / repair / overhaul
and
c) As “A” & “B” all the relevant airworthiness requirements of the DGCA satisfied
d) All correct
33. Bonded stores means
a) Means stores where materials bearing evidence of having been received from approved sources are
slocked
b) Only “A” is correct d) Only “B” is correct
34. Quarantine stores means
a) Means stores where airworthy and serviceable material awaiting evidence of having been received
from approved sources are stoked
b) Means stores where materials bearing evidence of having been received from approved sources are
stocked
c) “A” is correct d) “B” is correct
35. Materials are returned by the customer
a) Un-airworthiness b) To be informed to RAWO
c) Obtain permission from RAWO for the disposal of material d) All correct
36. Incoming release notes or other equal documents shall be preserved
a) 10 years b) 5 years c) 2 years d) 1 year
37. Rejection notes to be preserved
a) 10 years b) 3 years c) 5 years d) None
38. Night halt stations other than main base
a) Base for flights normally is equipped layover checks/night halt checks, rectification of minor
defects
b) To be under take modifications and C of A renewal
c) Under take major checks d) All correct
39. The quantity of unusable fuel shall be determined
a) Type certification of the aircraft
b) In the appropriate flight manual
c) Placarding in the cockpit is also mandatory requirement
d) All correct
40. Unusable fuel
a) The quantity of fuel supply remaining in each tank under the adverse feed conditions in intended
operations and flight maneuvers
b) At which the first evidence of engine malfunctioning occurs
c) Both “A” and “B” correct d) “B” is only correct
41. Aircraft not exceeding 5400 Kgwt the unusable fuel determination by
a) Aircraft in level flight and drain the fuel fro the lowest pint in the supply line
b) Measure the quantity of residual fuel in each tank
c) As A and b 5 liters of fuel per main tank shall be added to arrive at the zero datum fuel quantity
gauge
d) All wrong
42. Calibration of fuel quantity gauges
a) Zero datum unusable fuel with a red arc
b) The fuel gauges are to be calibrated upto its total range
c) This procedure to be followed every time when fuel quantity gauge installed C of A inspection or
near to be major check
d) As “A” B C correct
43. Fueling zone area
a) 6 meters radially from the aircraft fueling point, venting point and fueling equipment
b) 12 meters diametrically from the aircraft fueling point venting equipment
c) A and B is correct d) Only “A” is correct
44. Fueling of aircraft
a) Under the supervision of nominated person by operator specification QCM
b) Operators representatives will ensure that the fueling of aircraft is carried out in accordance with
the prescribed manner
c) The approved person shall not move from the place of fueling till completion
d) All are correct
45. Fueling place shall be
a) Open area at least 15 meters away from the nearest point
b) The aircraft shall not be fuelled within 30 meters radar equipment installation or in use in aircraft or
ground
c) The nominated person is ensure that aircraft wheel brakes are applied chocks are placed property
away with narrow gap between wheel and chocks
d) All correct
46. Fuel pre-delivery documents required
a) Fuel the suppliers will normally present a company release note and delivery receipt certificate
b) Endorsed by the person in change of the AFS or his representative to the effect that the fuel is as
ordered
c) Both A and B correct d) All are wrong
47. Pre delivery check
a) Examine the scale on the delivery vehicle, and check that grade and quality as ordered
b) Carryout water check on the fuel already in the tanks and check sufficient available capacity in the
receiving tank for the quantity of the fuel to be received
48. Tanks to be inspected
a) At least every three years 5 micron filter elements and once in 2 years in case of tanks are filled
with 10 micron elements
b) With newly lined tank on inspection should be completed one year after the lining was installed to
check for soundness and adherence to the tank steel
49. AVGAS filters to be inspected
a) The tank input and output filters of not less than 180 inches gauge
b) Should be inspected weekly, cleaned if necessary and repaired or replaced
c) Both A and B correct
d) None
50. Leveling and colour cooling
a) The dimensions of the coloured segments of both labels and pipelines may be varies provided that
the primary indicator colour for the grades
b) RED-AVGAS. black for Jet A-1 c) Both A and B correct d) None
a) All aircrafts above 15000 Kg AUW should be maintained by approved organizations
b) Approved test-flight report duly completed by appropriately qualified pilot should be submitted to
DGCA at the time of C of A renewal
c) A certificate to be given to DGCA that flight manual is current is update at the time of C of A
Renewal
d) All the above are true
52. Aircrafts above 15000 Kg AUW should be maintained by
a) Authorized personnel b) Approved Organizations
c) Individual AME’s d) All correct
53. Validity of the next currency of C of A will start from (After C of A has expired)
a) The date of final inspection of AWO b) Validity would remain continuous
c) From the date of application for renewal d) Whichever is earlier between B&C
54. DGCA can suspend C of A of an aircraft when doubt arises regarding the safety of aircraft vide
a) Rule 50 B b) Rule 50 (1) c) Rule 55 (2) d) Rule 50
55. Aircraft rule 55(1) provides for

a) Issue of C of A b) Automatic suspension of C of A
c) Fees to be collected for C of A renewal d) As at A and C
a) When an Indian registered aircraft suffers major damage. The operator should inform the
airworthiness office of the area
b) On receipt of information regarding major damage to an aircraft RAWO will suspend the C of A if
it doubts the safety of aircraft
c) Officer-in-charge of RAWO/Sub RAWO may make necessary endorsement in the C of A
d) All correct
57. The conditions for revalidation of C of A once suspended
a) Carry out modification b) Carry out repairs
c) Carry out overhaual d) All above under supervision of licensed AME
58. Suspended C of A
a) Will be revalidated for 6 months only
b) Will be revalidated upto the date original C of A would have lasted
c) Will be revalidated for one year
a) Suspended C of A will be revalidated for the period original validation would have lasted had the
suspension not taken place
b) In cases where operator carries out all requirements for C of A renewal – C of A may be renewed
for one year
60. Use of materials processes, parts etc. during manufacture of aircraft are dealt in
a) Aircraft rule 50 b) Aircraft rule 60 c) Aircraft rule 53
d) Aircraft rule 25A
61. Only those aircraft can be re-built
a) which were flying with C of A b) Which were earlier type certificacted
c) Which have sufficient data regarding maintenance and performance standards
d) All above
62. Rebuilding means assembling an aircraft from parts which are already manufactured to an acceptable
airworthiness standard and
a) Fitted in a type certificate aircraft
b) Fitted in an aircraft to be type certified
c) Fitted together to become a new type of aircraft
d) None
63. The certificate of registration in case of rebuilt aircraft is valid initially for
a) One year b) Two years
c) It is permanent till the aircraft is removed from service d) Six months
64. The registration no to a rebuilt aircraft will be
a) Same registration no. of aircraft of which is fuselage was a part
b) If new fuselage a new no will be a allotted
c) If imported fuselage a new no will be allotted
d) All above
65. The constructor number in case of rebuilt aircraft must be affixed by permanent means
a) To the wing b) To the fuselage c) To the engine panel
d) To the cock pit
66. Before a constructor starts rebuilding an aircraft he should ensure
a)That parts are imported b)Parts purchased are genuine and proper history is available
d) Both A and B
67. The aircraft should be rebuilt and certified by AME of category
a) A b) A&C c) B d) D
68. All aircraft parts stored for more than _______ years must be completely strip inspected / overhauled prior to
using is rebuilding of an aircraft
a) Ten years b) Two years c) Five years d) One year
69. DGCA is empowered to issue special flight permits vide
a) Sub rule 5 of rule 55 of aircraft rule 1937 b) Sub rule 4 of rule 55
c) Sub rule 2 of rule 55 d) Sub rule 3 of rule 55
70. CAR series F part VII special flight permits is issued vide
a) Sub rule 4 of rule 55 of aircraft rules 1937
b) Sub rule 5 of rule 55 of aircraft rules 1937
c) Rule 133A of aircraft rules 1937
71. Special flight permits are issued by the DGCA for
a) All repair facilities may not be available at enroot stations
b) Evacuation of aircraft or persons from areas of impending danger
c) Experimental or test flights d) All above
a) Ferry flight can carry passengers on board
b) For test flights for renewal of C of A special flight permit is not necessary
c) For a newly manufactured aircraft for production test flight special flight permit is not necessary
d) All of the above
73. In case aircraft suffers damage / defect outside the country, the application for special flight permit shall be
submitted to
a)DGCA Hq.s b) To the regulating authority of the country where aircraft suffers damage
c) to the airworthiness office where aircraft is based d) None of the above
74. Validity of special /ferry flight permit is
a) One day only
b) Till arrival of aircraft at destination or specific date mentioned is permit as applicable
c) All correct d) None of the above
75. On completion of special flight the operator will report to RAWO / Sub RAWO which shall include
a) Any abnormality encountered in flight b) All parameters observed in flight
c) No. of passengers carried in flight d) None of the above
76. Certificate flight release
a) Certificate issued by appropriately licensed AME or approved person
b) Certifies that aircraft has been maintained as per approved maintenance schedule
c) Certifies that aircraft is safe for flight
d) All of above and is for the period specified in the certificate
77. Scheduled airlines
a) Can have their aircrafts maintained by other approved organizations
b) Can have their aircrafts maintained by individual AME’s who are appropriately licensed
c) Should have their own maintenance facilities
d) Can have their aircrafts maintained by other scheduled airlines only
78. Contents of routine maintenance schedules for a scheduled operator with just 5 years experience will be
approved by
a) RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM d) Manufacturer
79. The periodicity of routine maintenance inspection schedules should be based on
a)Maintenance Manual b) MPD c) Other operators operating same type of A/C
80. Special inspection schedules of scheduled operators will be approved by
a) RAWO b) QCM c) Manufacturer d) Operator
1. Before installation of instruments to ensure that
a) The instruments are approved for the type aircraft
b) The dial of range of the dial markings is adequate to reflect current operation of the aircraft, power
plant or equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate operating limitation
c) The range of colured sectors marked on instrument dials corresponds the range specified in the
aircraft flight manual or aircraft’s engine manufacture’s manual as applicable
d) All correct
2. Magnetic compasses shall be inspected at the time of installation
a) There are no signs of leakage of the flaid
b) The compass is swng and correction card is in place in aircraft
c) The compass mounting is satisfactory
d) As “A” “B”C” the pirot friction does not exceed the manufacturer’s tolerances where such
tolerances are unknown the pirot friction shall be determined by deflecting by deflecting the
compass needle 10 degrees and allowing it to return to the magnetic meridian. The changes in the
indication from the original heating shall not exceed 100 degrees
3. How many times calibration and compensation conditions
a) 10 b) 8 c) 7 d) 6
4. Overhaul and periodical inspection periods
a) From the date of the last overhaul
b) From the date of installation in the aircraft if prior to installation and following overhaul the
instrument had been stored in accordance with accepted practice to the storage of unit
c) In case of imported aircraft neither of the dates specified “A”&”B” to be followed
5. Gyro horizon indicators directional gyro, automatic pilot gyro instrument overhaul life
a) 2 years / 1000 hrs b) 3 years / 2000 hrs c) 2 years d) 5 years
6. VSI ROC tachometers RPM indicator, fuel content and fuel flow gauge manifold pressure gauge engine oil
pressure gauges magnetic compass workers
a) 3 years / 2000 Hrs b) 2 years/ 1000 c) 2 years d) None
7. Altimeters
8. Tachometers pressure vaccume gauges, ammeters and voltments
a) To be decided bench check every two years
b) 3 years c) 4 years d) None
9. The shelf life of gyro instruments
a) 2 years
b) At the end of 1st year in the shelf such instruments should be exercised as per approved test
schedules and bearing to be lubricated as per makers recommendations
c) Both A and B carried d) Only “C” is correct
10. Instruments installed on aircraft
a) Instruments has not been operated for a period of six months
b) Shall be subjected to B/C c) Both A and B correct d) None
11. Helicopter able to land on the rejected take off area or safely continue the flight to a landing area appropriate
a) Class-I b) Class-II c) Class-III d) All the correct
12. Failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off before landing
a) Class-I b) Class-II c) Class-III d) All the above
13. A flight requires a force landing must be performed
a) Class-III b) Class-II c) Class-I d) All correct
14. Aircraft below 3000 Kgs time pices installed on aircraft
a) Overhaul / repaired by any watch maker
b) Overhaul / repaired by any of the reputed commercial watch makers or agencies
c) Approved watch makers
d) Authorized watch makers
15. All aero planes should be equipped
a) First Aid Kit and Physician Kit b) Portable fire extinguishers
c) Seat or berth for each person over an age of 2 years and safety harness for each flight crew seat
d) All the above
16. Megaphone should be available on aircraft
a) Less than 60 and more than 100 passengers one mega phone
b) More than 60 and more than 100 passengers one megaphone
c) More than 60 and less than 100 one megaphone
d) As “C” more than 99 passengers 2 megaphones
17. Integrated flight director provides
a) Turn and bank indicator b) Altitude indicator c) Heading indicator
d) All the above
18. Land phones when flying over water
a) 50 nm away from the shore twin engine aircraft with one engine inoperative and three engine
aircraft with two engines in operator
b) Any point along the route or Planned diversions to continue the flight to an aerodrome without
flying below minimum flight altitude
c) Both “A” and “B” correct d) Only “A” is correct
19. Long range over flight on water
a) 120 minutes at causing speed
To grant open license in Cat A/B (All metal)
a) Must have held AME License in Cat A/B for continuous period of five years
b) Have at least three types of all metal aircraft out of which two should be turn engine composite
structure
c) Should have two single engine all metal aircraft not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW as applicable
category
d) Both (a) & (c) are correct
2. Open rating in Category “A” / “B” of composite construction aircraft, AME should
a) Have held AME license in Category “A” / “B” for 3 years
b) Have at least 3 types of aero planes of composite structure of which at least 2 aircraft should be
with single engine and not exceeding 3000 Kg AUW endorse in Category “A”/”B”
c) All the three of composite construction with at least two endorsements on two all metal aircraft
d) One composite construction having filled with turbine engine
3. Open rating in Category “R” for ADF endorsement
a) AME should have held license on HF for the past 3 years in Category “R”
b) Above endorsement should on aircraft whose AUW is less than 3000 Kg
c) Out of 3 minimum ADF fitted on three different aircraft, one should be on aircraft whose AUW is
less than 5700 Kg
a) Can immediately exercise his privileges with a recent experience on the type of aircraft for at least
one month
c) He should undergo approved course conducted by DGCA
d) Familiarity with aircraft should be proved to the QC Manager
5. Composite construction of an aircraft means :
a) Primary structure, controls are made out of metal is called composite
b) Only fuselage is made of metal but flight controls are covered with metal sheet
c) Fuselage and wrings are made out of wood covered with plywood
d) Primary structure and its skin covering is of two or more different materials
6. AME to qualify for operating in Cat “X” (Radio equipment) of communication and ADF
a) Should have held AME in “X” category covering Radio equipment continuously for 5 years
b) Should have at least one aircraft with HF equipment on his license in Category-“X”
c) At should have at least three aircraft filled with three different types of ADF equipment on his
license in Cat-“X” (Radio equipments)
L-Part VII Renewal of AME License
1. Requirement for Renewal of AME License
a) Should have continuous 6 months experience within proceeding 24 months from the date of
application
b) Within proceeding 24 months, applicant should have a total 6 months experience
c) Experience should be on aircraft having AUW 3000 Kgs
2. AME license lapsed for more than one year but less than 2 years, renewal can be effected by
a) After an oral check by the RAWO
b) Can be renewed only DGCA (Hqrs)
c) Applicant should pass written test followed by oral check by RAWO
d) Warning letter by RAWO
3. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. AME license renewal
a) application should be submitted at least 15 days in advance to RAWO
b) If AME worked abroad for six months and another 6 months in India within the preceding 24
months, only DGCA, Hqs. Can renew the license
c) If the requisite experience is shown in a foreign country, only DGCA Hqr. Can renew the license
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct
4. If the AME remained unemployed and license remained lapsed for less than one year
a) Can be renewed if a certificate is issued by the previous empoyer that he was not exercised his
privileged
b) Certificate as in (a) from the applicant is acceptable
c) Can be renewed by DGCA Hqs. Only
d) Applicant need not undergo refresher course after july’2003
“L”-Part-VIII BAMEC
1. Eligibility for issue of basic license is
a) Should have completed 18 years of age
b) Must have passed papers-I,II and III of AME license examination
c) Produce medical certificate from Doctor holding at least a MBBS degree stating no physical
disability or colour blindness
2. Mark the incorrect statement
a) For issue of AME license, the applicant should have completed 21 years of age
b) Change over from mechanical to avionics stream person should acquire 18 months experience
before appearing for BEMEL
c) Open rating in Category-“C” can be given to cover normally aspirated air cooled piston engine not
exceeding 350 BHP
d) Open rating can be granted to aircraft whose AUW is less than 3000 Kg
1. Reliability programme of aircraft engines shall be applicable to

a) All Transport aircraft operators
b) All turbo Jet engine (Installed) aircraft
c) All scheduled public transport aircraft
d) None
2. Aircraft engine reliability is measured in:
e) No. of Pilot reported defects
f) All in flight shut down
g) All flame outs
h) As in (b) including flame outs
3. All engine shut down which cause-structured damage is
a) Major shut down b) IN flight shut down
c) Critical shut down d) All the above
4. Operator will report No. of engine shut down by:
a) 25th of the month b) 25th of the following month
c) 10th of the month d) 10th of the following month
5. Supplementary report on engine shut down will be reported by:
a) 25th of the same month b) 25th of Previous month
th
c) 25 of following month d) None
6. Structural assembly may be judged as significant if
a) Its failure reduces residual strength
b) Its failure results in loss of structural function
c) A&B d) None
7. Damage tolerant means:
a) Item can sustain damage b) As in (A) and it can withstand reasonable load
c) As in (B) with out structural failure
d) As in (C) when the damage is detected
8. Inspection of an item with out dismantling it in order to determine its in service condition
a) Condition Monitoring b) On condition Maintenance
c) Hard time Maintenance d) None of the above
9. Replacement of item in accordance with instructions to limit its deterioration:
a) Hard time maintenance b) Preventive maintenance
c) A & B and also includes on condition maintenance
d) A&B
10. On condition maintenance is
a) Philosophy of fit until failure b) Not a philosophy of fit until failure
c) To remove item before its failure d) B & C are correct
11. Items, which have no over all control and are operated to failure are subjected to
a) Hard time maintenance b) Condition Monitoring
c) On condition maintenance d) None
12. Monitoring of operators maintenance process is based on:
b) Manufacturers recommendation b) DGCA approved programme
c) Statistical analysis of various performance parameter
d) All the above
13. Alert levels based on operators experiences are up dated
a) Every month b) Every Quarter/ Six months
c) Two to three years d) None
14. Pilots reports are calculated as:
a) Rate per 1000 hours of operations
b) Number per 100 departures
c) Number per 1000 departures or 1000 engine hours
d) A &B are correct
15. Factors which would help to assess the condition of components maintenance behavior
e) Mechanical delays / cancellation of flights
f) Un-scheduled removal
g) Pilots reports
h) All the above
16. Reliability Alert level is based on experience of :
a) Two to three years experience b) As in (A) based on fleets size
c) Three years experience d) None of the above
17. Changing component from one type of maintenance programme to another, operator shall
a) Take guidance of manufacturers recommendation
b) Produce statistical data to justify the change
c) Prepare graphs for failure rate
d) All the above
18. Operator shall identify and devise a method of inspecting them at regular interval as a part of structural
inspection program
a) Items likely to be corroded
b) Wing tanks c) S.S,Is d) None of them
19. Manufacturer would issue the following document for older aircraft giving details of structural inspection
a) Structural repair Manual b) S.S.I.D
c) Weight & balance report d) All the above
20. S.S.I.D contains:
a) S.S.I.s b) Method of inspection
c) Corrective action for detected structural damage
d) All the above
21. Items of CPCP and S.S.ID which are non-terminating action shall be included in
a) S.S.I.P (Supplemental structural inspection Programme
b) QC Manual c) MSM d) Structural repair manual
22. Maintenance generated from in flight monitoring are:
a) Part of Non-scheduled maintenance b) Part of Condition Monitoring
c) On condition maintenance d) Hard time maintenance
23. A component whose reduction in failure resistance detectable by unit test shall be included in
a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition maintenance
c) Condition Monitoring d) S.S.I.D
24. AIDS stands for
a) Aircraft integrated date system b) Aircraft instrument data system
c) Aircraft instrument date syndromes d) All the above
25. Function of Item which is normally active whenever system is used but there is no indication in cock-pit is
a) Active function b) Hidden function c) Non-Significant item
d) Active hidden function
26. Alert levels should be up-dated periodically to reflect
b) Operating experience b) Product improvement
c) Changes in procedure d) All the above
27. Alert value of engine parameters is fixed by
a) RAWO b) Manufacturer c) Operator
d) As in (C) on consultation with RAWO
28. Piston engine parameters are recorded for the purpose of on condition maintenance during
a) Flight at least once in each sector b) As in (A) under stabilized cruise condition
c) During periodical ground run d) As in (C) under stabilized condition
29. Life record of engine parts having fatigue liver are available in
a) History card b) MSM c) They are part of COSL
d) Engine log-book
30. Life limiting feature of engine observed by overhaul agency shall be reported to:
a) Operatorb) Manufacturer c) DGA d) RAWO/Sub RAWO
31. Engine overhaul records shall be preserved for
a) Two years b) Five Years c) 10 years d) Four years
32. Fuel and oil consumption of LA is recorded in
a) Aircraft log book b) Engine log book c) Register d) None
33. A document issued to AO defining the scope of approval granted
a) Scope of approval b) Certificate of approval
c) List of approval d) None
34. Use of psychoactive substance by aviation personnel in a way that causes occupational disorder is
a) Addiction b) Psychoactive activity c) Prohibited
d) Problematic use of psychoactive substances
35. Programming and coordinating the ongoing quality and improvement efforts by various groups of AO in
accordance with requirement of DGCA is
a) Quality Control b) Quality assurancec) Inspection
d) Monitoring
36. The document/Manual which deals with practices / procedure so as to ensure compliance with airworthiness
and safety requirement:
a) Q.A Manual b) QC Manual c) A.O d) AAC
37. Supervision of enforcing QC standard is the function of
a) QC Manager b) QC Manual c) QC Assurance Manager
d) None
38. Organization located outside India is approved by
a) Reg. Authority of Country b) DGCA c) RAWO d) None
39. NODAL officer is requirement of:
a) Scheduled operator
b) Aerial work aircraft operator
c) Operator who contracted maintenance of his aircraft to AMO
d) State Government Aircraft
40. Experience for NODAL officer:
41. In-house audit of AO is required to be conducted at a gap of
a) One year b) Six months c) 4 months
d) Twice in a year with a gap of 4 months
42. QC manual of Indian airlines will be approved by
a) RAWO b) DGCA Hq. c) RAWO/Sub RAWO d)
CEM/QCM
43. Approval to AO/AMO is validity up to
a) 1 year b) 2 years c) Six months d) up to 31st Dec.
44. All AMEs should be medically examined by an MBBS doctor once in every
a) One year b) Two years c) Five Years d) Four Years
45. Quality Control manual for scheduled operators is approved by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) DGCA is consultation with RAWO d) QCM
46. The procedure for duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls is listed in
a) QC Manual b) MS Manual c) Both A and B are correct d) None
47. Special inspections mean inspections carried out due to
a) Expiry to C of A b) Hard landing propeller strike
c) Visit of RAWO personnel to carry out checks
48. The component life list, being a part of maintenance system manual, can be revised
a) On manufacturer’s recommendation
b) As per requirements c) By QCM d) With the concurrence of DGCA
49. Type certificate means a certificate issued
a) By DGCA to specify the design of type of aircraft component/item of equipment
b) By RAWO to specify the design of type of aircraft component / item of equipment
c) To a particular type of aircraft / series of aircraft
50. A firm seeking approval in category B for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA
a) Three samples b) Six samples c) Nine samples
d) Twelve samples
51. Certificate of Maintenance is issued by
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) QCM or Approved person
52. Certificate of flight release is valid for
a) 24 Hours b) One sortie c) the period specified in it
d) All are correct
53. A firm approved in category “C” shall issue
a) Certificate of maintenance b) Certificate of manufacture
c) Test Report d) None of the above
54. Petroleum in Bulk means petroleum contained in receptacle of
a) Less than 900 Litres b) More than 900 Litres c) 900 Litres
55. Essential records in respect of fuel, petroleum products issued to customers shall be preserved for a period of
________ years
a) Two b) Three c) Five d) Ten
56. Separate stores are maintained for
a) Quarantine stores b) Propellers c) Inflammable goods
d) Defective stores
57. Store where airworthy and serviceable materials awaiting evidence of having been received from approved
sources are stocked is called
a) Bonded store b) Quarantine store c) Standby store
d) Airworthiness store
58. Alert Values are
a) Reference values only b) Accepting limits
c) Both A &B are correct d) None of the above
59. RAWO may require immediate withdrawal of the engines from service in case
a) Parameter monitoring records are not kept
b) Alter values have been exceeded
60. Work performed at predetermined intervals to maintain an aircraft in airworthy condition is
a) Scheduled maintenance b) Preventive maintenance
1. Preventive maintenance is
a) Hard time
b) Work performed at pre-determined intervals to maintain an aircraft, aircraft component or aircraft
system in an airworthy condition.
c) On condition
d) a,b,c, are correct
2. Despatch reliability is the percentage ratio between
a) Number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering
defects per 1000 Hrs.
b) Number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering
defects per number of scheduled service during the period
c) Number of services, which were dispatched in time per 1000 hrs.
d) Number of services, which were dispatched in time per no. of scheduled services during the period
3. If there is no information concerning individual major defect / incident / accident the operator
a) Does not have to send any information to R.A.O
b) Does not have to send any information to D.G.C.A
c) Has to send a “NIL” information
d) All the above
4. A current list of all CARs with amendments, is also issued
a) At the beginning of each year
b) At the end of each year
c) In the middle of each year
5. Reflection of the requirements of the CAR in the quality control – cum – maintenance system manual is the
responsibility of the
a) Operator / Owner b) Head of the Organization c) AME
d) QCM
6. The certification to the effect that any servicing, modification, repair, inspection have been carried out in
accordance with airworthiness requirements of the DGCA is called
a) Certificate of Maintenance b) Certificate of Flight release
c) Certificate of Maintenance review d) Release note
7. During the refueling of aircraft
a) Aircraft radio and electrical, radar switches may remain “ ON”
b) Steady parking light and such switches may be operated.
c) No special precautions are necessary for ground power supply
d) The ground power unit, tractor and similar equipment shall be located outside the defined “danger
zone”
a) A normal category aircraft can be used for only manoeuvre which is suitable for normal category
b) Aerial work aircraft can be used for private and agricultural spraying
c) Aerobatic category can be used for all categories
9. The following documents have to be carried by all aircraft on all flights:
a) C of A, C of R cockpit and emergency check-list
b) FRC,JLB
c) Route guide
d) Both a & b are correct
10. To get a type approval for an aircraft component equipment, including instruments should contain this
following
a) Maintenance Manual b) Detailed drawings
c) Typed instructions and typed service manual
d) All the above
11. Disposable load is
a) Fuel that can be thrown out of the aircraft during emergency conditions
b) All persons and their belongings
c) Empty load and variable load
d) Fuel and oil which is unusable
12. The installation of flight data recorder is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft having
a) Turbine engines and permissible AUW of 5700 Kg or above
b) Piston engine and permissible AUW of 5700 Kg or above
c) Any type of engine and permissible AUW 5700 Kg or above
d) As in (a) but permissible AUW of 15000 kg or above
13. The quantity of unusable fuel is required to be determined if not available in the flight manual before
a) C of A renewal b) Type certification of aircraft
c) Complete overhaul of the aircraft
d) No (A) above, as specified in operation manual
14. For information regarding name and address of the owner of the aircraft the document referred to is
a) C of A b) C of R c) Type certificate d) log book
15. Certificate of flight release shall be preserved for a period
a) One year from the date of issued b) six months from the date of issue
c) Six months from the date of expiry d) None of the above is correct
16. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported into India. The minimum standard of
manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be
a) As laid down in CAA – B CAR secs “K” &”D”
b) As laid down in FAA – FAR pts 23 & 25
c) As laid down by Australian govt. for agricultural aircraft
17. One of the following conditions does not result in automatic suspension of C of A
a) Whenever an aircraft develops a defect which effects primary structure
b) Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing
c) Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due
d) Whenever ‘lifed’ components are not removed at their stipulated T.B.O.’s
18 Certification of airworthiness of aircraft shows that it is valid for normal category sub-division “private
Aircraft”. This aircraft can be used for
a) Experimental purposes b) Aerial works
c) Aerobatic purposes
d) Flying executives to their factory without any remuneration
19. The content/scope/frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised
a) Only when maker so desires
b) Only when DGCA so desires
c) Only when justification based on operator’s experience is acceptable to DGCA
d) Only after incorporation of a major modification.
20. In the event of any damage caused to the aircraft while taxying by an authorized individual it should be
promptly intimated to
a) Owner / Operator of the aircraft
b) International airport authority of India
c) Concerned regional / Sub regional inspection office
21. The periodical inspection schedules are prepared by the QCM of the firm and is submitted for approval.
This is not applicable in case of
a) Non-schedule operators b) Private operators
c) Gliding clubs d) Schedule operators
22. With effect from `1st Jan’80 passenger safety information briefing card should be provided at every
passenger seat by
a) Schedule operator b) Non-schedule operator c) State aircraft
23. How you will know the mandatory modification status of your aircraft?
a) From the pink page of relevant log book
b) From the green page of log book
c) From the white page of log book
d) From the manufacturer
24. As per IAR an aircraft involved in an accident which has major defects
a) Aircraft engine caught fire during refulling on the departure day
b) A passenger is badly injured during time of take off
c) Under-carriage accidentally retracts during a major inspection
d) All the above re correct
25. An alert notice in the event of system reliability exceeding alert value is issued by
a) Manufacturer b) The DGCA c) The RMU d) The QCM
26. Aircraft noise level requirements
a) Are applicable to supersonic aircraft
b) Relate to restriction only in the vicinity of airports
c) May be exempted by DGCA for any aircraft or class aircraft
d) Should have been complied with an aircraft before 21.12.1985
27. The circumstances under which an aircraft may be released with GPWS as unserviceable will be spelt out in
a) MEL b) CDL c) Flight Manual d) MS manual
28. When an aircraft registered outside India is in Indian territory sustains major damage or major damage or a
major defect is found
a) DGCA may prohibit the aircraft from flying
b) DGCA should not prohibit the aircraft from flying without concurrence of the appropriate authority
of the country of registration of the aircraft
c) Instead of prohibiting the aircraft from flying DGCA informs the fact to the country of registration
and allows the aircraft to fly.
29 Reliability is the function of
a) Maintenance b) Basic design c) Personal training
d) All of the above
30. Restoring an aircraft unit to it original design performance level after replacing/reworking parts to a given
standard is termed as
a) Maintenance b) Overhaul c) Top overhaul
31. Substantial damage means
a) Any damage beyond repair
b) Any damage which necessitate the replacement of any component
c) Any damage necessitating the replacement or extensive repair of any major component
d) Any damage beyond economical repair
32. The engine parameters are recorded under stabilized condition
a) During take off b) During landing c) During ground run
d) During cruise level flying
33. Reliability index is
a) The rate of total engine in-flight shunt down per 1000 hours of engine operation on that particular
type of airframe and engine combination
b) The rate of total engine in-flight shun down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular
type of airframe and engine combination
c) The rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 1000 hours of engine operation on that particular
type of airframe
d) The rate of total engine operation on that particular type of engine
34. Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will gather information from
a) Un-schedule maintenance & Schedule maintenance
b) Un-schedule removals
c) Sampling inspection
35. Alert notice is issued by
a) The DGCA b) The RAWO c) The QCM d) The R MU
36. A firm approved in carrying out FTD of avionics sets is approved in
a) Category “A” b) Category “E” c) Category “D”
d) Category “C”
37. All AME’s should be medically checked up by at least MBBS doctor once
a) In a year b) In two years c) In Six years d) In five years
38. Release and rejection notes are preserved for a period of
a) Six months b) One year c) Two years d) Five years
39. Stores where airworthy and serviceable materials awaiting evidence of having been received from approved
sources are stocked is called
a) Stand-by store b) Quarantine store c) Airworthiness store
d) Bonded stores
40. Entry in log book can be signed
a) By appropriately licensed AME
b) By a technician
c) By Key persons of organization
d) By an AME having vast experience
41. When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A the C of A is
issued on form
a) CA 23 b) CA 23A c) CA 56 d) CA 57
42. Certification of maintenance release of aircraft component after major maintenance for aircraft AUM of
15000 Kg and above can be done by
a) Any authorized person with appropriate BAMEC and 3 years experience in the specific shop
b) Any person having appropriate BAMEC with requisite the key person of the concerned shop
c) The key person of the concerned shop
d) Any one of above as the circumstances demand
43. Instructors who are employed full time instructional duties relating to specific types of aircraft / engine/
equipment shall have job experience of
a) Not less than 100 hours in a year (2 months)
b) Not less than 200 hours in a year (4 months)
c) Not less than 500 hours in a year (6 months
d) Not less than 1000 hours in a year (1 year)
44. Quality control check of the products is carried out by
a) Representative of DGCA
b) CEM
c) QCM/Dy.QCM
d) Both b & c are correct
45. IAR 30 empowers the Govt. of India
a) To register an aircraft in India
b) To import an aircraft in India
c) To fly aircraft in India
d) To maintain an aircraft in India
46. Temporary certificate of registration is valid
a) For one month b) For one week
c) Until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in India
d) Until
the validity of the C of A
47. Type Certificate of a rotor craft imported in India can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and
construction confirms with the
a) FAR 23 & 25 b) BCAR 23 & JAR 25 c) FAR 26 & 29
d) BCAR 27 & 29
48. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft / aircraft component
a) Approval of DGCA is must b) Written approval of manufacturer is must
c) Approval of QCM / CEM is must d) All are correct
49. Short –term C of A is issued for
a) Un-airworthy aircraft
b) Aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration marking
c) Aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking
d) Aircraft having service life of less than one year
50. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between
a) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g b) +4.5g & +6g & -1.76q & -3g
c) +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g d) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g
51. Validity of C of A can be extended for
a) 3% of flight hours b) 10% of calender period
c) No extension is granted d) Both a & b are correct
52. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAWO
a) All log books b) JLB c) Procedure sheets of past one year
d) All the above
53. A special flight permit is permission
a) to ferry fly to a base without passengers on board where repairs, modifications and maintenance
required to remove the suspension of the C of A can be performed
b) For production flight testing new production aircraft
c) To authorize flight for special purposes
d) All are correct
54. FRC will become invalid
a) If unapproved parts are used b) If unapproved maneuvers are taken
c) If aircraft suffers major damage d) None of the above
55. FRC of aerial work aircraft is
a) 10 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier
b) 12 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier
c) 10 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier
d) 12 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier
56. Flight release certificate is signed in
a) Duplicate b) Triplicate c) Quadruplicate
d) None is correct
57. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO’s of
components up to a maximum of
a) 10% or 50 hrs. (whichever is less)
b) 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less)
c) 10% or 3 months (whichever is less)
d) Both b & C are correct
58. Multiple site damage are
a) Five or more dents on one site
b) Five or more cracks on the site which link up in to longer crack
c) Fatigue crack at number of fasteners which stand to link up into longer cracks
d) All are correct
59. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by
a) Persons approved for the purpose in an approved organization
b) A flight engineer
c) A flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the type of aircraft
60. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of certificate of
airworthiness and thereafter in periods not exceeding
a) One year b) Two years c) Five years d) Ten years
61. Certificate of safety for gliders is valid for
a) Six months b) Three months c) One month d) One day
62. The certificate of flight release of an aircraft below 15000 kg AUW remains valid provided the pre flight
inspection is carried out by
a) A pilot as per approved schedule
b) An AME
c) A Pilot having AME Licence also
d) An approved person as per approved schedule
63. The lives of the components of an aircraft are approved by
a) DGCA b) QCM c) CAW of the region
d) CE of an organisation
64. One of the following conditions does result in automatic suspension if C of A
a) Whenever an aircraft develops a defect that effects primary structure.
b) Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing
c) Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due
d) Whenever “lifed” components are not removed as stipulated in T.B.O.’s
65. For the purpose of snag rectification an aircraft can always be taxied from bay to the maintenance hangar by
a) An appropriately licensed AME
b) Pilot under training may be allowed
c) An individual authorized by the QCM of the firm
a) Flight release should be preserved for six weeks
b) Aircraft log book should be preserved for 5 years
c) Journey log book should be preserved for 2 years
d) None is correct
67. All airworthy microlight aircraft should possess a
a) Valid certificate of airworthiness
b) Valid certificate of safety
c) Valid permit to fly
d) All the above
68. All amendment incorporated in the flight manual of an imported aircraft shall be intimated to
a) RAWO b) Sub-RAWO c) DGCA d) Both A &B
69. Fuel gauges shall be calibrated with zero datum at
a) Five litres b) Ten litres c) Zero litres d) unusable fuel
70. The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of

a) Density b) Kg c) Tonnes d) Valume
71. No photographic flash bulbs and electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used within
a) 5 meters of fuelling equipment
b) 6 meters of fuelling equipment
c) 15 meters of fuelling equipment
d) 30 meters of fuelling equipment
72. Gyro instruments are overhauled at every
a) 2 years / 1000 hours b) 1 year / 2000 hours
c) 3 years / 2000 hours d) 2 years
73. Places storing instruments shall have humidity below
a) 60% b) 70% c) 75% d) 80%
74. Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have navigation light as
a) Red light on the right tip side and green light on left tip side and red light near the tail
b) Red light on the left tip side and green light on right tip side and red light near the tail
c) Red light on the left tip side and green light on the right tip side and white light near the tail
d) All are correct
75. Electrical power failure indicator is mandatory for
a) All aircraft above 5700 kg AUW
b) Aircraft having AUW of 5700 kg and above
c) All aircraft above 15000 Kg AUW
d) All aircraft, irrespective of weights
76. During a planned cloud flying glider can carry on board
a) Pilot and Co-Pilot b) One passenger c) Two passengers
d) Pilot and one passenger
77. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on board.
Their numbers should be at least
a) 1 of each rating b) 2 of each rating c) 3 of each rating
d) 4 of each rating
78. Ammeters and voltmeters are
a) Overhauled every two years b) Bench checked every year
c) Bench checked every two years d) None is correct
79. Recent experience means experience acquired in the preceding
a) 24 months b) 12 months c) 6 months d) 3 months
80. The service life of group A and group B hoses can be increased by
1. The frequency, scope and contents of periodical inspections may be altered
e) In a manner as approved by Manufacturer
f) Shall not be altered
g) As in (b) except in a manner as approved by DGCA
h) With the approval of RAWO
2. The following is responsible to report all defects encountered during the flight
a)QCM b) Manufacturer c) RAWO
d) Owner / Operator
3. Promulgation and implementation of CAR is:
a)To meet the obligation of contracting state
b)To Harmonize requirements with other regulating authorities like FAA,JAA & CAA
c)To specify the detailed requirements for compliance and effective monitoring
d)All the above
4. Date of issue along the date of affectivity of CAR part is available in
a)First page of CAR Part b) The revision notice
c)All pages of CAR Part d) All the above
a) Every Revision to CAR will be termed as amendment
b) Every Revision will be accompanied by Revision Notice
c) Revision Notice shall be filed along with affected CAR
d) (B) & (C) are correct
6. Insitu / Bench test of aircraft / aircraft component with out having to dismantle them completely is:
e) Hard time maintenance
f) Condition monitoring
g) On condition Maintenance
h) All the above
7. Adequacy and observance of standards by various operators/ organizations are reflected in:
d) Defects and incidents resulting in emergency loading
e) Accidents encountered during operation of aircraft
f) Both the above
g) None of the above
8. The following information will give the parameters called dispatch reliability
e) No. of hours flown during the period under review
f) No. of services cancelled / delayed for more than 15 min
g) No. of services planned and no.of services cancelled / delayed for more than 15 min.
h) A and B above
9. The parameters called dispatch reliability is furnished to RAWO
a)Every Month b) Every 3 Months c) Every Six Months
d) Every Six Months by schedule operator
10. The following are the recommendations to check negative trends of an operator:
e) Investigation of defects
f) Additional preventive maintenance
g) Varying the frequency of maintenance and / or varying the process of maintenance
h) As in (B) & (C) and also modifications and review of qualifications, experience of
certifying personnel
11. Mark the in-correct statement
e) All maintenance work on aircraft engaged in public transport operation shall be performed
by approved organization
f) All work performed by approved organization shall be regulated by QC organization
g) The CAR is issued under the provision of Aircraft act 133 A of 1934
h) The Airworthiness oversight and safety regulation are applicable to schedule operator
12. No person shall operate any air transport service in India without
e) Adequate maintenance support
f) Obtaining necessary permit
g) Satisfying DGCA that his maintenance support organization are to a satisfactory standard
h) All the above
13. Approved maintenance organization (AMO) shall have
a) Approved maintenance programme
b) Quality control and safety oversight set up
c) Approved QCM / by QCM
d) All the above
14. Eligibility for issue of Indian C of A
e) Shall confirm to type design
f) Shall be in a condition for safe operation
g) Both (A) and (B) are correct
h) All are correct statements
15. In-house safety audit teams report shall be submitted for renewing approval to an organization
a)30 days before b) 60 days in advance
c)15 days in advance d) One month in advance
16. Operator can base his maintenance programme on:
a)Manufacturer MPD b) DGCA’s M.P.D
e) Manufacturers M.P.D or any DGCA approved programme
f) Any maintenance programme suitable for maintenance and safe operation
17. Investigation of delay, defect and engineering incident is the function of
e) DGCA’s Airworthiness directorate
f) QC organization
g) DGCA Head Quarters
h) Manufacturer
18. Who is responsible for compliance of SBI and modifications?
a)Operatorb) RAWO c) Manufacturer
d) Regulating authority of Manufacturer
19. Which one of the following is not airworthiness performance data:
a)Day to day monitoring b) Emergency responding
c)Reliability analysis d) Long terms monitoring
20. AME Licenses are issued in various categories as per
a)Rule 61/1937 b) Rule 140 of 1937 c) Rule 133B of 1937
d) Rule 49 of 1937
21. Security clearance for foreign AME Shall be obtained by:
a)DGA b) Operatorc) Operator through DGA
d) Through individual AME
22. Foreign AME will not be authorized to certify the aircraft unless:
e) Pass oral check by QCM
f) Pass oral check conducted in terms of AIC 17 of 1994
g) Security clearance is obtained through DGCA
h) B and C are correct
a) Operator shall have his own facilities for FDR read out
b) Operator shall have his own facilities for CVR and FDR read out
c) Operator shall have own facilities for CVR read out and should have his own facilities/
make arrangements with approved organization for FDR read our
d) All the above
24. Airworthiness advisory circulars are issued by
a)Manufacturers b) RAWO c) QCM d) DGCA
25. Effective safety regulation and oversight of airworthiness functions can be achieved by joint efforts of
a) Operator, AMO and Regulating authority
b) Operator, Manufacturers and DGCA
c) Operator, RAWO and QCM
d) All the above
SUB : CAR -UNIT TEST
1. Approval to an organization located outside the territories of India is subjected
a) Need to maintain Indian Registered Aircraft
b) Requirements of AAC 4/1998 are complied with
c) Requirements of CAR Sec-2 are complied with
2. Inspection of materials by NDT methods is the scope of:
a) Category – A b) Category – B c) Category – D d) None
3. Separate approval in Cat-F is not required in case of
a) Category – A,B,D&E b) Category – A,B,Cc) Category A,C,D&E
d) Category – A,B,C & E
4. The Manager who has corporate authority so that all task as per scope of approval can be financed is
a) QC Manager b) Managing Director c) Q.A Manger d) None
5. AMO is
a) Approved organization for storing & distribution of fuel and oil
b) Category “C” approved organization
c) Category A&C approved organizations
d) Any approved organization
6. Document issued by DGCA defining scope of approval
a) Certificate of approval b) Scope of approval c) Terms of approval
d) A&C
7. Certificate issued by AME after carrying out some repair on aircraft is:
a) Structural repair scheme b) Certificate of Maintenance
c) Compliance certificate d) Flight Release Note
8. Psychoactive substances are:
a) Alcohol, Tabacco, Coffee b) Sedatives, cocain, Tobacco
c)_ Alcohal, Cocain, Sedative d) Coffee, cocain, Sedative
9. An independent body with overall authority for supervision of quality standards and their enforcement
a) Quality Control b) Quality Assurance c) Nodal Officer
d) RMU
10. A document certifying that the item mentioned there under were obtained from an approved source
a) Maintenance Certificate b) Release Note c) Rejection Note
d) Certificate of Compliance
11. A document which gives details of rejection of certified aircraft goods is
a) Rejection Note b) Release Note c) Defect Report d) None
e) 100 Hrs. inspection schedule in case of organization in India
f) Daily inspection in case of organization located outside the India
g) 100 Hrs Inspection schedule for Indian organization and daily inspection in case of foreign
organization
h) All are correct
13. CA-182C shall be submitted to:
a) RAWO b) RAWO/Sub-RAWO c) DGCA HQs
d) RAWO/DGCA in case of Indian / Foreign organization
14. Approval of foreign organization located in India will be affected by
a) RAWO b) DGCA Hq c)RAWO for Indian organization d) None
15. Scope of approval will be mentioned in
a) Certificate of approval b) QC Manual c) Capabilities list
d) All the above
16. Storage and handling procedure of Electro-static device components shall be as specified in
a) AAC 6/2000 b) AAC 5/2001 c) AAC 6/2003 d) None
17. Organization shall be approved initially for a period of
a) Not exceeding one year b) For the calendar year
c) As in A&B since valid upto 31st December of that year
d) As in C which may be renewed for another calender year
18. The form and manner of certificate issued by AO/AMO shall be approved by:
a) DGCA Hq. b) RAWO c) DGCA HQ or RAWO at the time of approval
d) QCM/Chief QCM
19. Organization shall establish bonded stare to keep:
e) A/c material and equipment
f) Serviceable material and equipment
g) All un-serviceable material/equipment
h) None of the above
20. QCM/Dy.QCM of an approved organization shall be approved by
a) Accountable Manager b) Managing Director c) DGCA
d) Manufacturer
21. Appointment of NODAL OFFICER is the requirement of
a) All AMOs b)All operators c)Owners/operator of General Aviation A/C
d) As in C who contracted maintenance to an AMO
22. Capabilities of Nodal officer appointed by General Aviation aircraft operators shall be accepted by
a) RAWO b) RAWO/Sub RAWO c) DGCA d) QCM
23. Qualification and experience of NODAL OFFICER shall be
c) Sufficiently senior person in Aviation Department with 10 years experience
d) As in (a) with 5 years experience c) As in A with 2 years experience
24. Which one of the following is responsible to ensure regular receipt of specific aircraft literature,
amendments etc, and making them available to AMO:
a) QCM b) Accountable Manager c) Nodal Officer
d) DGCA/RAWO
25. Certifying staff issuing certificate of maintenance is involved in actual maintenance of aircraft at least for
period
a) Six months in preceding one year b) 3 months in preceding one year
c) 3 months in preceding 2 years d) 6 months in preceding 2 years
26. Certifying staff involved in maintenance of aircraft shall undergo refresher course once in
a) 12 months b) 24 months c) 3years d) As desired by DGCA
27. The programme of refresher courses for certifying staff shall be reflected in
a) QC Manual b) MSM c) Training Manual d) A and C
28. The following shall ensure that there is no physical disability to any one of the certifying staff
a) Operator through periodical medical check
b) RAWO through periodical medical check
c) DGCA through periodical medical check
d) QCM through periodical medical check
29. Internal audit by QA team shall be carried out:
a) Once in every year b) Twice in every year
e) 30 days before renewal of organization
f) 60 days before renewal of organization
30. Internal audit report shall be submitted to
a) Accountable Manager and QCM
b) QCM and RAWO
c) Accountable Manager & RAWO
d) Accountable Manager & DGCA
31. Internal audit of maintenance facilities shall be carried out with a gap of
a) Six months b) Four months c) Twice in a year with a gap of 4 months
d) As in C with a gap of 6 months
32. MSM of AMO shall be approved by
a) DGCA HQ b) RAWO c) QCM d) Manufacturer
33. Methods of performing inspections and designations of personnel entitled to perform inspections is given in
a) QCM b) EOM c) MSM d) Both A&C
34. How many copies of manuals are required to be submitted for approval:
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One
35. Inspection schedules including special inspections of scheduled operator shall be prepared and approved by
a) QCM b) QCM of scheduled operator
c) QCM of the organization in case of scheduled operator with 3 years of experience
d) As in (C), however in case of scheduled operator with less than three years experience will be
approved by RAWO
a) Any additions to approved schedule shall be pre-approved by DGCA
b) Any additions to approved schedules shall be pre-approved by RAWO/Sub RAWO
c) Any additions to approved schedules on the basis of operational experience may be made with out
prior approval
d) As in C but shall be promptly reported to RAWO/DGCA
37. Any condition classified as major defect observed during maintenance or operation shall be reported to
a) DGCA b) Manufacturer c) DGCA and manufacturer d) None
38. The following shall be reported to DGCA/ RAWO:
a) Major defect b) Any condition classified as major defect
c) Mechanical delay d) All the above
a) Report regarding major defect/mechanical delay must be made immediately
b) Initial information regarding major defect / mech. delay shall be reported within 24 hours
c) As in (b) a detailed report may be sent with in 3 days
d) B & C are correct
40. Investigation of major defect shall be completed with in:
a) Four months b) Three months c) As early as possible

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CAR- DATA BANK

1. Rectification of a minor defect may be deferred:

57. Requirement for renewal of AME License

5. Approval to MEL is given by

55. Aircraft rule 55(1) provides for

1. Reliability programme of aircraft engines shall be applicable to

70. The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of

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