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Module 1 : General Concepts

Lecture: 1
Questions:
Q1. Concept of antiseptic surgery was given by
a) Alexander Fleming b) Robert Koch c) Dimitri Ivanofsky d) Joseph Lister
Q2. The first virus discovered was
a) Coronavirus b) Tobacco mosaic virus c) Flavivirus d) Poxvirus
Q3. The first animal virus was discovered by
a) Coronavirus b) Loeffler and Frosch c) Flavivirus d) Poxvirus
Q4. ----------- Was the first human virus
Q5. Salk made ---------------------------------- vaccine in 1954.
Q6. Temin and Baltimore discovered the enzyme ---------------.
Q7. Severe acute respiratory syndrome popularly known as SARS is caused by a --------------------.

Answers:
1. Joseph Lister
2. Tobacco mosaic virus
3. Loeffler and Frosch
4. Yellow fever virus
5. Polio virus
6. Reverse Transcriptase
7. Coronavirus
Lecture: 2
Questions:
Q1. Viruses are ------------- parasites.
Q2.Adenovirus is an example of ----------- virus
Q3. Influenza is an example of ---------------- virus.
Q4. Retroviruses contain --------------- as a genetic material.
Q5. The two surface glycoproteins in HIV are ------------.
Q6. According to ICTV families and subfamilies end with the suffix ------------ and -------------
respectively.
Q7. gp 120 and gp41 help in the ------------------------------- of viruses to the cell surface.

Answers:
1. Obligate
2. DNA
3. RNA
4. RNA
5. gp 120 and gp 41
6. Viridae , virinae
7. attachment
Lecture: 3
Questions:
Q1. Two kinds of symmetry found in viruses are –
Q2.Flaviviridae has ------------- shape.
Q3.Picornaviridae has ------------- shape.
Q4.Icosahedral symmetry has ---------vertices, ----------edges , and ------------- faces
Q5.Pox and herpesviruses have ------------------ as their genetic material.
Q6. In helical symmetry viruses look like ------------------.
Q7. Viruse with icosahedral symmetry look ------------------ in shape.

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Answers:
1. Icosahedral and helical.
2. Spherical
3. Icosahedral
4. 12, 30 and 20.
5. DNA
6. Rodlike or filamentous.
7. Spherical
Lecture: 4
Questions:
Q1. The smallest virus belongs to the family _______________.
Q2. The largest virus belongs to the family _________________.
Q3. Viruses that infect amoeba belong to the family -----------------.
Q4.Paramyxoviridae has a size of ---------------------------.
Q5. Viruses are much --------------- than bacteria.
Q6. The unit of measuring viruses is -------.
Q7.Poxviridae has a size of--------------.

Answers:
1. Parvoviridae
2. Poxviridae
3. Mimiviridae
4. 150 – 250 nm
5. Smaller
6. Nanometer (nm)
7. 300 nm
Lecture: 5
Questions:
Q1. Viruses are made up of -------, ----------- and ------------.
Q2. RNA polymerase has minimal / lacks ------------- activity.
Q3. Presence of many different subspecies of virus particle in a population is also called as -----------
---- nature of RNA viruses.
Q4. Except the family Coronaviridae most of the------------- have their genome size in the range of 5-
15 Kb.
Q5. Name three negative sense single stranded RNA viruses.
Q6. Name three single stranded positive sense RNA viruses.
Q7. Name three double stranded DNA viruses.

Answers:
1. Genome (Nucleic acids), lipids (Envelope) and Proteins (capsids).
2. Proofreading
3. Quasispecies
4. RNA viruses
5. Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae and Filoviridae
6. Coronaviruses, Picornaviruses and Flaviviruses
7. Adenoviruses ,herpesviruses and Poxviruses
Lecture: 6
Questions:
Q1. ------------- is the preferred way for viral isolation at most of the places.

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Q2.Three types of cell culture are ------, ------------ and------.
Q3. Name any three susceptible cell lines.
Q4. viral particles sediment under a defined gravitational force called as -----------------.
Q5. ------------- and ------------------- are the types of sedimentation medium.
Q6. Virus infection to the cell can be visualized by the ----------- produced by the virus.
Q7. ----------------------- cell lines are derived from tumour cells.
Q8. The rate at which viral particles sediment under a defined gravitational force is called as----------
-------- and having a unit called the ---------------which is 10-13 sec.

Answers:
1. Cell culture
2. Primary, Diploid and Continuous
3. MDCK, Vero and LMH cells.
4. Sedimentation Coefficient
5. Sucrose cushions or gradient and CsCl 2 gradient centrifugation
6. Cytopathic effects (CPE)
7. Continuous/ Vero, Hep2 and Hela
8. Sedimentation coefficient, Svedberg

Module 2 : Virus host interaction


Lecture: 7
Questions:
Q1. Prolonged infection in which the organism is not immediately killed and may carry the virus for
long period of time is called ___________.
Q2. Rapid onset of disease symptoms resulting in severe illness or death of the infected animal is
called ___________.
Q3. ___________ transmission is the passage of a virus or pathogen from mother to the new born
child.
Q4. The ratio of total virus infected to the number of target cells in an infection condition is called as
__________.
Q5. __________ is the dose required to infect 50% of the inoculated animals.
Q6. __________ is the dose required to kill 50% of the inoculated animals.
Q7. __________ is the time between the initial infection to the actual onset of disease symptoms.
Q8. Presence of virus in blood is known as _________.

Answers:
1. Chronic Infection
2. Acute infection
3. Vertical
4. Multiplicity of Infection
5. Infectious dose50
6. Lethal dose50 (LD50)
7. Incubation period
8. Viremia
Lecture: 8
Questions:
Q1. Give two symptoms of virus induced respiratory disease condition.
Q2. Name the viruses involve in causing respiratory disease in animals.

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Q3. Name the viruses involve in causing gastrointestinal disease in animals.
Q4. Mumps virus is highly __________.
Q5. Herpesviruses are highly __________.
Q6. Meningitis is caused by ________, ___________& ______ viruses.
Q7. The patients infected with influenza or chickenpox which are under aspirin treatment sometime
show cerebral edema. The condition is often lethal and known as ______________.
Q8. Arthritis is caused by ____ & ______ viruses.
Q9. Yellowing of the skin because of the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood is called
____________.
Q10. Ebola, yellow fever virus, Hantavirus, Lassa fever virus, and Marburg virus are the common
cause of_____________________.

Answers:
1. Nasal discharge and obstruction/ Sneezing/ Coughing/ Sore throat.
2. Influenza, RSV, Parainfluenza
3. Rotavirus, Calicivirus, Astrovirus
4. Neuroinvasive
5. Neurovirulent
6. HSV-1, Mumps and Enteroviruses
7. Reye's syndrome
8. Flaviviruses, togaviruses, and bunyaviruses.
9. Jaundice
10. Viral hemorrhagic fever
Lecture: 9
Questions:
Q1. Guarnieri bodies are formed during ________________ virus infection.
Q2. Fusion of cells following virus infection is called _________ condition.
Q3. _________________ act as a receptor for adenovirus.
Q4. _________________ act as a receptor for measles virus.
Q5. _________________ act as a receptor for HIV and present over the _____________
lymphocytes.
Q6. Influenza virus infects the cell after binding to the ____________receptor present on the cell
membrane.
Q7. Virus infection to a host cell inhibits its _______, ________ & ________ synthesis.
Q8. Changes evident in a cell following the virus infection are called as ________.

Answers:
1. Vaccinia.
2. Multinucleated/ Syncytia
3. Integrins / CAR
4. CD46
5. CD4, T
6. Sialic acid
7. DNA, RNA and Protein
8. Cytopathic effects
Lecture: 10
Questions:
Q1. Cellular transformation usually involves ________ & ___________.
Q2. Transformation refers to the ability of cells to multiply indefinitely that leads to _____________
condition.
Q3. ___________ and _________ are the metabolic changes observe during transformation.

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Q4. ___________ and _________ are the molecular changes observe during transformation.
Q5. ___________ and _________ are the cell proliferation changes observe during transformation.
Q6. DNA viruses like ____________&_________ can cause transformation in permissive cells.
Q7. __________ & ________ are tumor suppressor genes.

Answers:
1. Immortalization and tumor production
2. Cancerous
3. Increase glycolysis, transportation of nutrients
4. Altered gene expression, Alteration in cell surface molecules
5. Altered cell cycle, loss of contact inhibition
6. Epstein Barr virus, Polyoma virus
7. Retinoblastoma proteins, p53
Lecture: 11
Questions:
Q1. ___________ are naturally occurring proteins secreted by cells in response to virus infections.
Q2. Host immune response towards virus infection includes _________mediated as well as
________mediated immune responses.
Q3. Interferon α is produced by________, β by________, and γ by_________.
Q4. Interferons are triggered through the ___________ pathway.
Q5. Retinoic acid inducible gene 1(RIG-1) activates _________production by activating IRF- 3 and -
7.
Q6. _____________in presence of dsRNA can induce interferons.
Q7. Programmed cell death is called ___________.

Answers:
1. Interferons
2. Antibody, cell
3. Lymphocyte, fibroblast, T lymphocytes.
4. JAK-STAT
5. Interferon
6. Toll-like-receptor 3
7. Apoptosis
Lecture: 12
Questions:
Q1. Name the three double stranded RNA activated antiviral substances.
Q2. Interferon induced Mx protein are produced following ___________infection.
Q3. DNA undergoes fragmentation following _________.
Q4. Natural killer cells are activated immediately upon virus infection and produce the cytokines
such as ___________and__________.
Q5. _________________ molecules activates the cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
Q6. Upon release of ________________ from mitochondria cell starts apoptotic cycle.
Q7. Eukaryotic translation initiation factor is ___________by protein kinases.

Answers:
1. dsRNA activated protein kinase (PKR)
2',5'- oligoadenylate synthetase (OAS)
Mx proteins
2. Influenza virus
3. Apoptosis
4. Tumor necrosis factor, interferon γ

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5. Major h istocompatibility antigens class I
6. Cytochrome C
7. Phosphorylated
Lecture: 13
Questions:
Q1. ____________is an apolipoprotein B mRNA-editing enzyme that can change C to U in a DNA
strand.
Q2. APOBEC is a very important enzyme encoded by host cell against ______infection.
Q3. HIV encodes a protein called __________that degrades the APOBEC for its better survival inside
host cell.
Q4. Some paramyxoviruses produce _________which is known to inhibit interferon production by
interfering STAT signaling pathway.
Q5. Poxviruses produce soluble receptors known as _____________which blocks the cell surface
receptor and inhibits the activation of cell antiviral response.
Q6. Herpesvirus blocks __________ activation.
Q7. Viral RNA polymerase encoded by many RNA viruses is highly______________.

Answers:
1. APOBEC
2. HIV
3. Viral infectivity factor
4. V protein
5. Decoy cytokine receptors
6. RNaseL
7. Error prone
Lecture: 14
Questions:
Q1. SV40 __________and ____________of adenoviruses are known to bind with p53 and target it
for proteasomal degradation.
Q2. ___________produces a homologues of MHC-I molecule to decoy the host immune system.
Q3. Some viruses encode specific proteins called as__________, which mimic the cellular receptors
and acts as a trap for chemokines and interferon.
Q4. ____________ modulate the trafficking of MHC-I.
Q5. ______________ and ____________ inhibits the transporter associated with antigen processing
during MHC maturation.
Q6. RNA interference is an __________mechanism in animals and many other living species.
Q7. __________and ____________are known to encode viroceptors.

Answers:
1. T antigen , E1 protein
2. Cytomegalovirus
3. Viroceptors
4. Adenoviruses
5. Epstein Barr virus and Herpes virus
6. Antiviral
7. Poxvirus, cytomegalovirus

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Module 3 : Positive strand RNA virus
Lecture: 15
Questions:
Q1._______________ classified the viruses based on genetic contents and replication strategies of
the viruses.
Q2. Defective interfering particles are called so because they lack the ability to produce_________,
and tend to interfere with the replication of helper virus by competing with the resources .
Q3.______________ contains two RNA segments.
Q4.___________ is a group of any species sharing common characteristics.
Q5. Family is a group of _________with common characteristics.
Q6.________ is crown like in appearance.
Q7. ________ is a virus whose phenotype differs from original wild type strain.

Answers:
1. David Baltimore
2. Proteins
3. Birnavirus
4. Genus
5. Genera
6. Coronavirus
7. Variant
Lecture: 16
Questions:
Q1. Ebola virus and Marburgh virus belong to the family __________.
Q2. Reoviridae has _____________ genome.
Q3. Henipavirus and Morbillivirus belong to the family ____________.
Q4. Basic unit of classification is ___________.
Q5. Taxon should be officially approved by the _______ committee.
Q6. Parvoviridae has _________ genome.
Q7. Universal virus nomenclature should follow a hierarchical level of Order, Family, Subfamily,
________, and Species.

Answers:
1. Filoviridae
2. dsRNA
3. Paramyxoviridae
4. Taxon
5. ICTV
6. ssDNA
7. Genus
Lecture: 17
Questions:
Q1. Chikungunya virus belongs to the family __________.
Q2. _________ is one of the viruses having positive strand RNA genome.
Q3. Positive strand RNA viruses sometimes form _______________ during replication process.
Q4. FMDV belongs to the family _____________.
Q5. Viruses which contain positive strand RNA genome act directly as_________ upon infection to a
host cell.
Q6. Alphaviruses are transmitted by _____________ bite.
Q7. Dengue virus belongs to the family ___________.

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Answers:
1. Togaviridae
2. Coronavirus
3. Subgenomic RNA
4. Picornaviridae
5. mRNA
6. mosquito
7. Flaviviridae
Lecture: 18
Questions:
Q1. FMD is a disease of ______________ animals.
Q2. Some of the picornaviruses contain __________ over the vertices of the icosahedron which act
as virus attachment site on those viruses.
Q3. __________ acts as a host cell receptor for some of the picornaviruses.
Q4. _____________ is a secondary structure present at the 5' end of picornavirus.
Q5. Internal ribosome entry site (IRES) helps in binding of ________ to the ribosome.
Q6. _______ of picornaviridae family causes upper respiratory tract infection in humans.
Q7. Coxsackie virus causes _____________ of central nervous system.

Answers:
1. Cloven
2. Canyons
3. CD155
4. Internal ribosome entry site (IRES)
5. Viral RNA
6. Rhinovirus
7. Inflammation
Lecture: 19
Questions:
Q1. Replication of flaviruses takes place in _________.
Q2. West nile virus is transmitted to humans by the bite of _____________ which acts as a reservoir
host.
Q3. Weather plays an important role in the _________ of West Nile virus to humans and animals.
Q4. Lesions on brain and spinal cord are common in _________ virus infection.
Q5. West nile ____________ can prove fatal.
Q6. Change in temperature and _____________ is an ideal condition for the breeding of
mosquitoes.
Q7. _________ are available against west nile disease.
Answers:
1. Cytoplasm
2. Culex mosquitoes
3. Transmission
4. West nile
5. Encephalitis
6. Dryness
7. Vaccines
Lecture: 20
Questions:
Q1. Dengue virus is transmitted among people by the bite of mosquitoes_______________ .

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Q2. Dengue virus replicates during certain period of time within the mosquito which is called as
_________ .
Q3. When dengue virus replicates in the second person and start producing symptoms, this is called
as____________ .
Q4. Sequential infection with different serotypes of dengue virus put patient into greater risk of
developing ________________ and dengue shock syndrome (DSS).
Q5. Only female mosquitoes can __________ the dengue virus not the males .
Q6. _____________ diseases are those that are constantly prevalent in a particular area.
Q7. ____________ is an endemic disease at certain places.

Answers:
1. Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus
2. Extrinsic incubation period
3. Intrinsic incubation period
4. Dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF)
5. Transmit
6. Endemic
7. Dengue
Lecture: 21
Questions:
Q1.severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) coronavirus uses ____________ as their host cell
receptor.
Q2. Transmissible gastro-enteritis virus is a disease of__________.
Q3. Avian Infectious bronchitis virus causes visceral ________ and birds may develop secondary
bacterial infections.
Q4. Coronaviruses are ___________ viruses.
Q5. _________ Protein is a major antigenic determinant of coronavirus and contains the
conformational epitope towards the N – terminal.
Q6. ____________ infects horses and cattle.
Q7. 5' end of coronaviruses is capped and 3' end is __________ like other positive sense mRNA.

Answers:
1. Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE-2)
2. Pigs
3. Gout
4. Enveloped
5. Spike (s)
6. Torovirus
7. Polyadenylated
Lecture: 22
Questions:

Q1. SARS-CoV is one of the __________ among RNA viruses group.


Q2. Non- structural proteins of SARS-Cov are RNA dependent RNA polymerase, __________ and
helicase.
Q3. Covering mouth and nose,while sneezing are some factors to avoid ______infection by SARS.
Q4. Respiratory and gastrointestinal tract mainly are the only two systems that support _________
replication.
Q5. ___________ is one of the sign of SARS.
Q6. First case of SARS was seen in ________________.
Q7._________ can improve the life expectancy of the patients.

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Answers:
1. Largest
2. ATPase
3. Droplet
4. SARS-CoV
5. Pneumonia
6. Southern China
7. ventilation

Mid course examination


Mid course examination (10 points each total 100 points)
(Answer any 10)
Q1. What are the differences between RNA and DNA viruses?
Q2. Discuss how you will purify an influenza virus from MDCK infected cells.
Q3. What is transformation? Discuss the 10 changes observed in a transformed cell.
Q4. How the interferons are produced following a viral infection in a susceptible cell?
Q5. How does a double strand RNA modulate the host immune response following a virus infection?
Q6. What is apoptosis? Discuss two hallmarks of apoptosis.
Q7. Discuss five different viral strategies to escape host immune response.
Q8. Discuss the Baltimore classification of viruses. What are DI particles?
Q9. Name any one order of virus along with its family, subfamily, and genus. (Give one or two
examples of each).
Q10. Explain the replication strategy of a classical swine fever virus.
Q11. Explain the transmission cycle of West Nile virus.
Q12. Discuss the clinical feature of Dengue virus infection? What is dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF)
and dengue shock syndrome (DSS)?
Q13. Discuss the pathogenicity of severe acute respiratory syndrome.
Bonus Questions (20 points each)
Q1. What are the changes observed in a cell infected with a virus? Discuss how you can identify that
the cell was infected with a virus not bacteria.
Q2. Name two important coronaviruses of animals and their replication strategy?

**Submit your assignment to course coordinator by e-mail; you will get an e-mail reply with grading
and feedback within 7 days.

Module 4 : Negative strand RNA viruses


Lecture: 23
Questions:
Q1. Negative strand RNA viruses belong to the order __________ .
Q2. Negative sense RNA is ________ infectious.
Q3. Negative sense RNA is ________ functional as mRNA.
Q4. Filoviridae , Paramyxoviridae, Bornaviridae and Rhabdoviridae belong to the order __________.
Q5. Viruses having negative sense RNA as their genome encode their own __________.
Q6.Gradient of mRNA abundance from 3' to 5' occurs because of imperfect __________.
Q7.Negative sense RNA does not serve as mRNA because it is neither ________ nor polyadenylated.

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Answers:
1. Mononegavirales
2. Non
3. Not
4. Mononegavirales
5. RNA dependent RNA polymerase
6. Transcription
7. Capped
Lecture: 24
Questions:
Q1.Except the family Pneumovirinae the genome size of the all paramyxoviruses are the even
multiples of _______.
Q2. All Parmyxoviruses mainly affect ______________ system.
Q3.Croup is characterized by swelling around the vocal cords and is also called as __________.
Q4.The most common cause of inflammation of parotid glands is ___________.
Q5.In measles rash over the body and head are sometimes called as___________.
Q6.Pramyxovirus replication takes place in _________.
Q7. Paramyxovirus genome consists of ssRNA of _______ polarity.

Answers:
1. Six
2. Respiratory
3. Barking cough
4. Mumps
5. Koplik's spots.
6. Cytoplasm
7. Negative
Lecture: 25
Questions:
Q1. In orthomyxoviruses the two envelope glycoproteins are _________ & ________.
Q2.In orthomyxoviruses transcription of viral RNA involves a phenomena called as ________.
Q3. All orthomyxoviruses undergo ____________ to produce two proteins from one gene.
Q4.Antigenic drift and antigenic _________ are responsible for both epidemics and pandemics of
influenza viruses.
Q5. Influenza virus type B occurs in __________ forms.
Q6. Influenza virus type A needs _________ reservoir.
Q7. Influenza virus type C is the _________ form of Influenza.

Answers:
1. Hemagglutinin protein (H) and Neuraminidase protein (N).
2. Cap snatching
3. Splicing
4. Shift
5. Epidemic
6. Animal
7. Mild
Lecture: 26
Questions:

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Q1.Contrary to the less pathogenic viruses, highly pathogenic influenza virus has many _________
amino acid residues at the cleavage site of the HA protein.
Q2 Reassortment occurs in viruses having ____ genome.
Q3.Bird flu is also known as ________.
Q4. Mixing of viral genetic information in order to evolve them as a new species having potential to
cause a greater pandemic is called as ___________.
Q5.The first case of H5N1 was reported in _________ in 1997.
Q6.PB1 and ______ are the two important components that determine the virulence of the influenza
viruses.
Q7.____ helps in transcription and replication of the influenza virus.

Answers:
1. Basic
2. Segmented
3. Fowl plague
4. Reassortment
5. Hong Kong
6. PB2
7. PB2
Lecture: 27
Questions:
Q1. Rabies is a _______ viral disease.
Q2. Rabies virus is _________ shaped because of its lipid envelope.
Q3. In animals rhabdovirus replication takes place in ____________.
Q4. Bovine ephemeral fever is also known as __________.
Q5. Infectious haematopoetic necrosis virus is a disease of __________ fishes.
Q6. Lesions produced in feet and mouth in v esicular stomatitis viral disease is very much similar to
that of ___________________.
Q7. Rabies virus entry into the cell occurs by _______________.
Q8. In Rabies virus gradient of mRNA occurs in the manner ________.
Q9. Rhabdovirus is sensitive to heat and ____________.
Q10. Rabies virus genome encodes five genes and has a size of _________.
Q11.Rhabdovirus contains _________ sense RNA genome.

Answers:
1. Zoonotic
2. Bullet
3. Cytoplasm
4. 3- day stiff-sickness
5. Salmonid
6. Foot and Mouth disease
7. Receptor mediated endocytosis
8. N-P-M-G-L
9. UV rays
10.11.9 Kb
11. Negative
Lecture: 28
Questions:
Q1. _________ is celebrated as world rabies day every year.
Q2.Two clinical forms of rabies are furious and _________.
Q3. Presence of _______ is the pathognomonic sign of rabies.

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Q4. Negri bodies in the affected neurons can be identified by using ____________.
Q5.__________ stage is characterized by behavioral changes in rabies.
Q6. In rabies differential diagnosis is required to be done with __________, herpesvirus and
enterovirus.
Q7. In case of rabid subjects, ________ shows promising results when its permeability is increased
artificially as it helps in viral clearance and does not allow most immune cells across.

Answers:
1. September 28
2. Dumb
3. Negri bodies
4. Seller's stain
5. Prodromal
6. West Nile virus
7. Blood brain barrier

Module 5 : Other RNA viruses


Lecture: 29
Questions:
Q1. Rotavirus and Coltivirus has ______ genome.
Q2. Hypovirus infects only_________.
Q3.Varicosavirus is ________ shaped.
Q4. Rotavirus is a major cause of _____ diarrhea in humans.
Q5. Blue tongue virus infects cattle and ______.
Q6. Infectious bursal disease is an ________ disease.
Q7. Most of the dsRNA viruses have _________ capsid.

Answers:
1. dsRNA
2. Fungus
3. Rod
4. Infant
5. Sheep
6. Immunosuppressive
7. Icosahedral

Lecture: 30
Questions:
Q1. Blue tongue virus is transmitted through the bite of female______.
Q2. Reovirus stands for respiratory, ______ and orphan.
Q3. Reoviruses are devoid of_______.
Q4. Virus replication in reovirus occurs in _____ of the cell.
Q5. ___________ is characterized by pneumonia, pericarditis and edema of visceral organs.
Q6. Swelling of the face and __________ are major signs of blue tongue virus.
Q7. Transmission of Colorado tick fever is reported to be through ______ from an infected
individual.

Answers:
1. Culicoides
2. Enteric

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3. Envelope
4. Cytoplasm
5. African horse sickness
6. Cyanosis of the tongue
7. Blood transfusion
Lecture: 31
Questions:
Q1. All retroviruses contain _________.
Q2. HIV is an _________ virus.
Q3 CCR5 and CXCR4 act as ________ for HIV.
Q4. Human cell normally on an average contains approximately 1, 00, 000 _______ sequences.
Q5. Retrovirus capsid contains three enzymes namely reverse transcriptase, proteases, and _____.
Q6. gp-41 of HIV is a _________ glycoprotein.
Q7. HIV contains gp 120 glycoprotein to bind with ________receptor present over T helper cell.

Answers:
1. Reverse transcriptase enzyme
2. Enveloped
3. Coreceptors
4. Retroviral
5. Integrase
6. Transmembrane
7. CD4
Lecture: 32
Questions:
Q1. ____ present on the RNA acts as a primer for the synthesis of positive sense DNA.
Q2. RNase H enzymatic property of the reverse transcriptase helps in the cleavage of RNA from
a_________.
Q3. _________ acts as a primer which binds to the 5' end of the RNA to form negative sense DNA.
Q4. The DNA formed because of the reverse transcription is called as______.
Q5. The DNA of the provirus is ________than the parental genomic RNA.
Q6. Once inside nucleus, the viral integrase cuts the host chromosome and ________the provirus
into the gap.
Q7. The provirus may express immediately or may be inactive in case of_______ infection.
Q8. Trans-Activator of transcription (TAT) acts as _______enhancer.
Q9. Regulator of Virion Expression (REV) helps in the_____ of spliced mRNA.
Q10. NEF stands for “Negative _________Factor”.
Q11. The envelope proteins in retroviruses are glycosylated while the Gag and Pol proteins
are__________.

Answers:
1. Polypurine tract (PPT)
2. RNA-DNA hetroduplex
3. tRNA
4. Provirus
5. Longer
6. Ligates
7. Latent
8. Transcription

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9. Export
10. Regulatory
11. Myristylated
Lecture: 33
Questions:
Q1. HIV strains which uses CXCR4 are known as______ .
Q2. Half life of a mature HIV virion is around __________ in the plasma of infected patient.
Q3.HIV strains that use __________are called R5.
Q4 . HIV-1 is divided into four groups________, N, O and P.
Q5. T-cell tropic strain of HIV uses ________co-receptor.
Q6. ________tropic strain of HIV uses CCR5 as a co-receptor.
Q7. Clades A, C, D, and _____are responsible for high incidence rate of HIV.

Answers:
1. X4
2. 30 min to 6 hrs
3. CCR5
4. M
5. CXCR4
6. Macrophage
7. E
Lecture: 34
Questions:
Q1. AIDS is defined as HIV positive patient with CD4+ count less than _______cell/mm3 or CD4+
count less than ___________of total lymphocyte population.
Q2. What are the three major ways of HIV transmission?
Q3. Decrease in the number of circulating ________lymphocyte is the hallmark of AIDS.
Q4. Name any two AIDS associated disease conditions?
Q5. _________ &___________ are antiretroviral drugs.
Q6. Average half life of an HIV infected cell is about __________hrs.
Q7. Resistant viruses do not grow quite as well as the wild-type viruses. (True/ False)
Q8. Upon removal of the anti HIV drug, the wild type virus once again becomes predominant over
the course of infection. (True/ False)

Answers:
1. 200, 14%
2. Sexual interaction
Blood transfusion
Perinatal infection
3. CD4+
4. Fever and Lymphadenopathy, Cancer, Wasting disease, AIDS associate dementia.
5. Nucleoside RT inhibitors/ nonnucleoside RT inhibitiors/ protease inhibitors.
6. 24-48
7. True
8. True

Module 6 : DNA viruses


Lecture: 35
Questions:

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Q1. DNA synthesis in cells occurs in _________ phase of the cell cycle.
Q2.Parvovirus is a _______ virus.
Q3.In parvovirus Rep gene helps in replication and Cap gene helps in the formation of _________.
Q4._________ strain of parvovirus infects the humans.
Q5.Parvovirus contains __________ at 3' and 5' ends that help in its circularization.
Q6.VP3 protein of parvovirus is formed by the _____________ cleavage of VP2 protein.
Q7.Parvovirus is __________ enveloped.
Q8.Dependovirus is also called as _______________.
Q9.Dependovirus is used as an important tool for targeted __________ viral vector.
Q10.__________ is the smallest DNA virus.
Q11.Papovavirus is derived from pa pillomas(warts), po lyomas (multifocal tumors), and
__________ in infected cells.

Answers:
1. Synthesis or S- phase
2. DNA
3. Capsid
4. B19
5. Inverted repeats
6. Proteolytic
7. Non
8. Adeno associated virus
9. Gene therapy
10. Parvoviruses
11. Vacuoles
Lecture: 36
Questions:
Q1. Poxvirus is a _________ virus with a size of 200 Kbp.
Q2. Epstein barr virus, Hepatitis B virus and Human herpesvirus type 8 are the examples of
_________ DNA viruses.
Q3. Adenovirus replicates within the cell _________.
Q4. Epstein-Barr virus nuclear antigen 2 (EBNA-2) results in the induction of viral oncogenes
that___________ many cell proteins.
Q5. Herpesvirus is a __________ virus.
Q6. Bovine Papilloma viruses can induce tumors in __________ and donkeys.
Q7. Kaposi's sarcoma is one of the eight _________ of HHV 8.

Answers:
1. DNA
2. Oncogenic
3. Nucleus
4. Modulate
5. DNA
6. Horses
7. Serotype
Lecture: 37
Questions:
Q1. Herpesvirus occurs in __________ form in the infected individuals.
Q2.Hexon and _________ fibres are present in the virion structure of herpesvirus.
Q3. Cell surface receptor for herpesvirus is ___________.

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Q4.Varcicella zoster virus causes ___________.
Q5. Infectious mononucleosis or glandular fever or kissing disease (medical condition) is caused by
_________________.
Q6. ____________________ spreads through vertical transmission.
Q7.Replication of genome in herpesvirus occurs in __________.
Q8.In herpesvirus __________ acts as a transcription factor.
Q9.DNA replication in herpesvirus starts with __________ mode and later on switches to rolling
circle mode of replication.
Q10. The herpesvirus gene expresses as Immediate early, _____________ and late.
Q11.In herpesvirus latency is established in __________.

Answers:
1. Latent
2. Penton
3. Heparan sulfate
4.. Chicken pox
5.. Epstein – Barr virus
6.. Human cytomegalovirus
7.. Nucleus
8.. VP16
9. θ mode
10. Early
11. Central nervous system (CNS)
Lecture: 38
Questions:
Q1. Mastadenovirus causes infection to ___________.
Q2. Penton fiber in adenovirus consists of shaft and ________.
Q3. Host cell receptor used for attachment by adenovirus is __________.
Q4. Adenovirus is quite _________ to changes in pH, physical and chemical agents.
Q5. Currently vaccines are____________ available for adenoviruses.
Q6. Adenovirus contains ___________ as the genetic material.
Q7. __________ in adenovirus regulate the processes of replication and transcription.

Answers:
1. Mammals
2. Globular head
3. Coxsackie adenovirus receptor (CAR)
4. Stable
5. Not
6. DNA
7. Early genes
Lecture: 39
Questions:
Q1. Short incubation period and no animal reservoir are some of the viral characteristics of poxvirus
that made its __________ possible.
Q2. Pox virus is a DNA virus with a core containing ___________ on both sides.
Q3. Replication of poxvirus occurs in ___________.
Q4. _____________ acts as host cell receptor in most of the poxviruses.
Q5. Monkey pox virus is a ______________ disease.

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Q6. In poxviruses more than 50 % of _________ are transcribed before replication and late genes
are transcribed after the completion of DNA replication.
Q7. Poxvirus is present in extra and __________ cellular forms.
Q8. Intracellular form of pox virus contains single _________ and hence called as intracellular
envelope virion.
Q9. Extracellular form of poxvirus contains ___________ envelopes and is called as extracellular
envelope virion.
Q10. Poxvirus is an ___________ virus.
Q11. In pox virus essential genes are located at the ____________of the genome while non –
essential genes lie towards the ends.

Answers:
1. Eradication
2. Lateral bodies
3. Cytoplasm
4. Epidermal growth factor
5. Zoonotic
6. Early genes
7. Intra
8. Envelope
9. Two
10. Enveloped
11. Centre
Lecture: 40
Questions:
Q1. Diseases that have recently appeared in a population as a result of a new virus or the
recognition of a previously undetected virus and are often zoonotic are known as
_________________________.
Q2. Hendra and ___________ are zoonotic diseases caused by viruses belonging to
family Paramyxoviridae .
Q3. Natural reservoirs for Hendra and Nipah viruses are ___________ of the genus Pteropus.
Q4. Arenaviruses are transmitted through ____________________.
Q5. Prions were discovered by _______________________.
Q6. Viroids are ____________ pathogens that contain circular single stranded RNA as a genetic
material.
Q7. Mad cow disease and scrapie are _____________ prion disease.
Q8. Creutzfeldt – jakob disease is a ______________ prion disease.
Q9. Prions are the infectious proteins and are also called as ____________.
Q10. Lassa fever belongs to the family _______________________________.
Q11. _____________________________ causes fatal haemmorhagic disease in humans and non
human primates.

Answers:
1. Emerging infectious viral diseases
2. Nipah
3. Flying fox or fruit bats
4. Rodents
5. Stanley prusiner
6. Plant
7. Animal
8. Human

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9. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
10. Arenaviridae
11. Ebola

Final examination
Final examination (10 points each total 100 points)
(Answer any 10)
Q1. What are quasispecies? Why does an RNA virus have high rate of mutation?
Q2. What are the changes observed in a cell infected with a virus? Discuss how you can identify that
the cell was infected with a virus not bacteria.
Q3. What is antigenic shift and drift? Explain with examples.
Q4. Explain the phenomenon of reassortment in influenza virus.
Q5. Discuss the replication of Rabies virus and explain its pathogenicity.
Q6. What are reverse transcriptases? Explain the replication of HIV in a T-lymphocyte.
Q7. Discuss the helper dependent replication strategy of adeno-associated viruses?
Q8. Discuss herpesvirus latency. What is rolling circle replication in herpesviruses?
Q9. Why small pox got eradicated? How does the virion of poxvirus look like, give a schematic
representation of the core structures.
Q10. Why Bats are major reservoirs of many emerging viruses?
Q11. What are prions? Name two animal diseases caused by prions.
Q12. Discuss the AIDS associated disease conditions?

Bonus Questions (20 points each)


Q1. What is a persistent infection? Discuss the stages of rabies virus infection in a young boy bitten
by a rabid dog.
Q2. Why it is difficult to eradicate RNA viruses.

**Submit your assignment to course coordinator by e-mail; you will get an e-mail reply with grading
and feedback within 7 days.

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