Posted: Mon Jun 21, 2010 4:02 pm Previous year Paper

Post subject: DENTAL MCQS:

September 2004 Paper 1 MCQs 1. In the preparation of Premolar class I cavity what is the best way of getting retention, A. Slightly done undercut of the mesial and distal walls B. Slightly done undercut of the buccal and lingual walls C. The convergence of the cavity walls 2. In respect to Class V A. it occurs on the buccal groove (fissure) B. it occurs on the lingual groove (fissure) C. it is a result of bad oral hygiene 3. After the placement of a class I amalgam the patient comes back to you complaining of pain on masticating and biting; what is the first thing you would look at, A. Occlusal height B. Contacts areas 4. Child comes to your clinic with a fractured incisor 3 mm super-gingival, how would you treat the case, A. Formocretasol pulpotomy B. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy C. Pulpectomy D. Direct capping E. Indirect capping 5. What is Ante’s Law about, A. The relation between the span of the bridge and the poetics B. The periodontal area of the abutment teeth C. The relation between the length of the root and the abutment. 6. What is the best way to cement Maryland bridge, A. GIC B. Resin C. High compression restorative resin D. Zinc Phosphate cement E. Oxide Zinc and eugenol

You extend you preparation and clean it C. Which of the following local anaesthetic is indicated in case of the need to long acting one after a surgical operation. Frankfort plane extends from. Value D. Just gingival to contact areas C. A. In regards to colours what is Chroma stands for. ½ root length 8. Mepivacaine C. A. Higher retention 12. 1. What is the property of high copper amalgam A. You apply a cover of varnish 10. The ideal length of core in the fabrication of crown and core of endodontically treated tooth is. Lidocaine B. A.7. Apply tissue conditioner 9. A. horizontally from Sella to nasion B. You leave it and complete the final restoration B. A. While you finishing a class I cavity. Rinse the denture in nystatin C.5 of crown length B. If aesthetic is not a concern what is the first thing to do to treat soreness under dentures. 2/3 tooth/root length D. A. The length of the crown C. Just about the gingival margin 11. Dental caries of the proximal surfaces are usually start at. Brightness C. what is your response. Take the denture off for a week B. Contrast 13. Bupivacaine (Marcaine) . Degree of saturation of hue B. Reduced physical creep B. Horizontally from point on superior aspect of external auditory meatus to orbitale 14. C. A. Somewhere between the ridge and the contact area B. the enamel is sound but you noticed in the dentine and on the Dento-enamel junction a brown line. Sagittal from ….

Extend the cavity to the gingival margin B. A. In respect to Lidocaine 2% with 1:100000 vasoconstrictor. Composite C. A. Extend cavity just beyond dento enamel junction 18. A. Achieve at least 2mm in dentine D. A. They cause an immediate changes in the oral plaque behaviour B. Cast gold 17. Ten times less C. In preparing a very small proximal amalgam cavity on a molar tooth what would consider. Acid Base reaction 23. A patient comes to you with medium pain of tooth filled with Composite resin as a result of cold or hot drinks. Thermoplastic material 21. GIC D. what your initial management will be. A. Remove the restorative material and start an Endontic . A. Amalgam B. Which one of this restorative method will be LEAST compromised by a core. In the particles size B. Ten times more B. What is true about partial dentures. Relieving the gingival area reduces the gingival enlargement. Extend the cavity beyond the contacts areas C. Night wearing of dentures reduces plaque accumulation C. A. Compound is. 19. A.15. The toxic threshold is 22ml B. A. The amount of water 22. 8. Very accurate compression material B. Equal 20. the different between normal stone and the dye stone is. What sort of reaction happens in the GIC restorations.8 ml is the maximum you can give in one session 16. The biting load of denture base to tissues compared to teeth are.

A. A. A. X-rays photons 27. The primary X-ray B.treatment B. In making your custom trays which of the following is true. A. The secondary rays D. Should occupy a predetermined undercut B. the MOST probable diagnosis is. Advanced pulpitis 25. The most common cause of caries in children is. Throbbing pain increases with heat and cold stimuli. A uniform thickness is required B. High intake of carbohydrate C. Saline B. Contour the wax as part of the fabrication of the working cast B. Cyst B. The best storage media for avulsed tooth is. Remove the restorative material and place a sedative temporary material C. Soft diet B. An occlusal approaching clasp TIP. Identify any undesirable undercuts . Locate the guide planes C. Rigid 30. Milk C. Occlusal trauma C. The beam that leaves the target is called. Water D. Perforation is better C. Only adhesive is better than perforation 26. A. Contact the tooth under the survey line C. A. Poor oral hygiene 28. Determine the location of indirect retainers D. Place a coat of bonding material on the old composite 24. A. Saliva 29. The electrons C. In the construction of partial denture the surveyor is not used to.

Occlusal cavity with extension of the buccal fissure is classified as. A. Your treatment will be. A female patient comes to you complaining of persistent pain in heavily restored central incisor. Resilient in long run D. Class III C. Provide a better surface for the adoption of restorative material 33. Pulp extirpation and obturate with Ledermix dressings C. The main purpose of finishing the enamel walls is. A. The undercut area . Length of the arm B. Prescribe analgesics and systemic antibiotic 34. Prevents the colonization of Candida albicans C. The cross section shape C. Better bond strength 32. A. Raising bite increases the space in the joint and should be attempted before surgery C. rubber is. Remove filling and place a sedative dressings B. A. It is mostly due to the medial movement of the condylar head over the glenoid fossa 35. The material used D. should be treated with NSAIDS before attempting surgery B.. A. Class I 37. The cervical third 36. The occlusal surface C. It is always due to arthritis. A. Retains high flow B. Class II B. you suspect pulpitis and you have been told that she is in transit leaving by plane next day. The advantage of the silicone in soft relining material over …. Which of the following does not affect the elasticity of retentive clasp? A. Remove loose enamel rods B.31. The buccal pit /fissure/ B. the location of Class V is in. which of the following is true regarding TMJ dysfunction.

Which of the following muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture? A. Slight over contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown D. Opening the articulator 4 mm B. At the apical region of the tooth 39. Lateral pterygoid C.38. Temporalis 42. Reacts and strengthens the amalgam by its dispersion properties . this will necessitate. Half way between amputation and apex D. future recession of gingival tissue can be prevented or at least minimised by. Increase in the vertical dimension 43. Insufficient expansion of the investment material C. A new centric relation record C. Changes in the condylar guide settings D. The exact level of amputation B. Extension of the crown 1 mm under the gingival crevice B. Contraction of the metal framework during casting B. Slight under contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown 40. Level some where below the amputation C. Mentalis B. A. A. A. Levator oris E. Reproduction of normal tooth incline in the gingival one third of the crown C. Jaw relations for edentulous patient have been established. In the construction of a full veneer gold crown. A. Distortion of impression D. Orbicularis oris D. What is correct in regards to high copper amalgam. A. A partial denture that seats on the master cast but fails to seat correctly in the mouth is a result of. Following calcium hydroxide pulpotomy. the dentist would expect dentine bridge to form at. Failure to block out unwanted undercuts 41. The maxillary cast has been mounted on the articulator without face-bow and you decided to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4 mm.

Slow firing B. Consuming a lot of carbohydrate with meals B. During swallowing. Reacts to form copper-silver phase thereby eliminating the silver mercury phase D. Reacts and strengthens the amalgam by its grain diffusion 44. The blood supply to the denture bearing areas of the maxilla A. a) suprahyoid muscles relax b) masseter contract c) tongue touches the palate A. a and b . Excessive consumption of sugar soft drinks all day D. Force a strict oral hygiene and surgical removal of excess gingival tissues C. Consuming a lot of elective sweets during meals C. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Smoker’s Keratosis? A. High compression 45. To relief pulp pressure 46. Debridement and conservative approach 4. What could be MOST cariogenic. A. Superior Maxillary artery B. What is the best way to get optimum adoption of ceramic to metal. Reacts to form copper-tin phase thereby eliminating the tin-mercury phase C. 13 years old boy comes to you with excessive hyperplasia of the gingiva as a result of Phenytoin what is your management.B. Grand/greater palatine artery 2. There is a little regression if smoking is stopped September 2004 Paper 2 MCQs 1. Typically affects the hard palate B. A. For their antibiotic action B. For their antiinflammatory action C. A. Consumption of elective sweets between meals 3. Minor mucous glands are swollen with red orifices C. What is the main purpose of using corticosteroids in pulpal obturation material? A. Stop the medication B.

Subgingival plaque changes from.B.. A. You will just leave it and observe it B. What is your most probable diagnosis. You try to take out by using a root apex elevator D. You use a fine end forceps to take it out 7. Back to top niharika AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Joined: 22 Jan 2003 Posts: 917 Location: Goin To US! 29672 Posted: Mon Jun 21. Addison’s disease B. when taking the history he mentioned a weight and memory lost. While removing the second primary molar of 9 years old child. gram positive to gram negative B.. He as well complains of headaches. Hyperthyroidism 6. You take surgically by a lingual flap C. A. A. none of the above E. the apical ¼ of the root fracture and stay in the socket. What is the most important factor to reduces dental irradiation. b and c D. all of the above 5.. a and c C. A. 2010 4:10 pm Post subject: 1)tympanoplasty is an operation aimed at: a)correction of hearing in porceptive deafness b)eradication of infection & correction of hearing c)drainage of mastoid abcess d)correction of hearing in otosclerosis 2)surgical emphysema after trachestomy is corrected by: a)taking more stitches of the wound b)cold compresses . White man 56 years old comes to you with a brown spot on his gingiva and another one on his oral mucosa. Speed of film _________________ Niharika here. gram negative to gram positive 8.

with spasmodic cough.Credits c)widening of the wound by removal of some stitches d)antihistaminic intake 3)commonest cause of septal perforation is: a)trauma b)syphilis c)lupus d)blood disease 4)stapedectomy is the operation of choice for: a)otosclerosis b)bell's palsy c)meniere's disease d)cholesteatoma 5)saddle nose may be due to the following except: a)overresection of septal cartilage b)nasal trauma c)septal abcess d)rhinosceleroma 6)the best treatment of mild epistaxis from little s area is: a)anterior nasal pack b)cautery of the bleeding point c)posterior nasal pack d)blood transfusion 7)referred otalgia may be due to the following except: a)acute suppurative otitis media b)quinsy c)dental infection d)maxillary sinusitis 8 ) a 3 years old boy complained of suuden acute respiratory distress. cyanosis & acting accessory respiratory muscles is most probably due to : a)acute follicular tonsillitis b)foreign body inhalation c)adenoid hypertrophy d)vocal cord nodule 9)proptosis may be due to the following except: a)frontoethmoidecele b)osteomata of the frontoethmoid c)antrochoanal polyp d)nasopharyngeal fibroma 10)the most serious complication after tonsillectomy: .

a)respiratory obstruction b)reactionary haemorrhage c)incomplete removal d)infection 11)otoscopic manifestation of chronic secretory otitis media may include the following except: a)perforation at pars flaceida b)transverse handle of malleous c)absent cone of light d)air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane 12)tonsillectomy is absolutely contraindicated in: a)chronic tonsillitis b)quinsy c)haemophilia d)below five years 13)a newly born infant with respiratory distress & different feeding is more likely to be due to: a)laryngeal web at the anterior half of vocal cords b)bilateral posterior choanal atresia c)congenital subglottic stenosis d)congenital meatal atresia 14)unilateral offensive blood tinged purulent rhinorrhea in a 3 years old is more likely due to: a)rhinosceleroma b)lupus c)foreign body d)adenoid 15)the following are manifestations of meinere's disease except : a)vertigo b)posterior reservoir sign c)sensory hearing loss d)tinnitus 16)examination of the chest is more important in : a)fixed right vocal cord b)fixed left vocal cord c)singer's nodules d)laryngemalacia 17)manifestations of otogenic facial nerve paralysis may include the following except: a)deviation of the mouth to the same side of lesion .

b)inability to show the teeth on whistle c) inability to close the eye d)inability to raise the eyebrow 18 )conservative septoplasty is: a)surgical correction of deviated septum above 17 years b)surgical correction of deviated septum below 17 years c) closed reduction of fractured septum by ash's forceps 19)a 20 years old man c/o fever & increasing sore throat with drippling of saliva &trismus for only 2 days on examination( the right tonsil pushed medially & forward ) no response to antibiotics ..rapid relief can be obtained by : a)short course of radiotherapy b)assurance & rest c)antidephtheric serum d)incision & drainage 20)the most common cause of conductive deafness is: a)otosclerosis b)secretory otitis media c)congenital ossicular fixation d)collection of wax 21)anosmia may be caused by: a)peripheral neuritis b)nasal obstruction c)atrophic rhinitis d)all of the above 22)posterior nasal pack may be used in : a)nasopharyngeal carcinoma b)epistaxis from little's area c)CSF rhinorrhea d)post_ adenoidectomy bleeding 23)ottitic barotraumas is charactarised by: a)attic perforation b)middle ear effusion c)mucopurulant discharge d)central drum perforation 24)otosclerosis mean: a)congenital fixation of incus b)fixation of stapes by fibrous tissue c)ossicular disruption d)none of the above 25)all of the followings are absoulute contraindications for tonsillectomy except: a)rheumatic fever .

b)heamophilia c)advanced renal disease 26)unilateral clear watery nasal discharge reducing fehling's solution is suggestive of: a)CSF rhinirrhea b)allergic rhinitis c)viral rhinitis d)nasal dipheteria 27)the most common cause of oroantral fistula is: a)acute sinusitis b)car accident c)dental extraction of upper second premolar tooth d)radical antrum operation 28)ear wash is indicated in the following conditions except: a)wax b)otomycosis c)impacted F.B in the ear d)caloric test 29)post-tonsillectomy otalgia is mediated through: a)vagus nerve b)glossolaryngeal nerve c)trigeminal nerve d)second & third cervical nerve 30)nasopharyngeal carcinoma is managed by: a)surgical resection b)surgical resection followed by radiotherapy c)radiotherapy 31)trotter's triad include the followings except:a)otalg ia b)epistaxis c)deafness d)deviation of the septum 32)the medial wall of the middle ear shows all the following anatomical features except: a)eustichian tube orifice b)horizontal part of facial nerve c)promontory d)oval & round windows 33)the most common cause for posterior septal perforation is:a)T B b)syphilis c)leprosy d)scleroma .

34)moure's sign is: a)presence of laryngeal click b)absence of laryngeal click c)external neck swelling d)internal pharyngeal swelling 35)sridor is characteristic feature of the following diseases except: a)laryngeal dipheteria b)angioneurtic edema c)adenoid hypertrophy d)bilateral abductor vocal cord paralysis 36)laryngeomalicia is a disease due to: a)voice abuse b)soft larynx c)vocal cord nodule d)acute laryngitis 37)achalasia of the cardia is charactarised by the followings except: a)dysphagia is more marked for solids than fluids b)dysphagia is more marked for fluid than solids c)treated by cardiotomy d)regurgition of undigested food 38)subglottic stenosis may be caused by all the followings except: a) laryngeoscleroma b) high trachestomy c)post traumatic d)unilateral recurrent laryngeal N paralysis 39)quinsy is due to: a)blood disease b)peritonsillar infection c)pharyngoscleroma d)retropharyngeal suupuration 40)retracted tympanic membrane is characterized by the following except: a)prominent lateral process of malleus b)fragmentation of cone of light c)hyper mobility of tympanic membrane d)accentuation of malleolar folds 41)the following symptoms are true of primary atrophic rhinitis except: a)bad odour felt by the patient b) bad odour felt by others c)epistaxis .

&visual field defects in a patien with cholesteatoma indicate: a)secretory otitis media b)otogenic facial paralysis c)distant metastasis d)temporal lobe abcess 43)unilateral malignant tumor of the vocal cord with subglottis ectension & lymph node metastasis is best treated by: a)unilateral cordectomy b)total laryngectomy with neck dissection c)cheomotherapy d)tracheostomy only 44)the commenst presentation of laryngeascleroma is: a)vocal cord paralysis b)stridor & hoarsness c)pain & night sweating d)metastatic lymph node 45)the commenst nasal polyps are: a)ethmoidal polyp b)antrochoanal polyps c)bleeding polyp d)inverted papilloma 46)ludwig's angina is manifested by: a)unilateral submandibular swellings b)parotid abcess c)parapharyngeal abcess d)sublingual & submental cellulites 47)forign body nose in a child is better extracted: a)under local anaethesia b)under spinal anaethesia c)without anaeathesia d)under general anaethesia 48)the following are possible complications of ear wash except: a)perforation of the tympanic membrane b)paralysis of facial nerve c)caloric reaction d)syncope 49)suppurative labyrinthitis may complicate: . dysphagia . vomiting.d)sense of nasal obstruction 42)sever headache.

a)salicylate toxicity b)streptomycin toxicity c)cholesteatoma d)otomycosis 50)the followings are common symptoms of nasopharyngeaol carcinoma except: a)nasal obstruction b)cranial nerve paralysis c)recurrent sever epistaxis d)a mass in the neck answers 1) b 2) c 3) a 4) a 5) d 6) b 7) a 8)b 9) c 10) a 11) a 12) c 13) b 14) c 15) b 16) b 17) a 18 ) b 19) d 20) d 21) c 22) d 23) b 24) b 25) a 26) a 27) c 28 ) c 29) b 30) c 31) b 32) a 33) b 34) b 35) c .

36) b 37) a 38 ) d 39) b 40) c 41) a 42) d 43) b 44) b 45) a 46) d 47) d 48 ) b 49) c 50) c _________________ Niharika here.... .

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