Page 1 Unproctored - Mock CAT 11 ____

_____ __

__________ _________
_______ __ ____________
1 c 2 c 3 d 4 b 5 c 6 b 7 c 8 b 9 b 10 d
11 d 12 d 13 c 14 b 15 a 16 a 17 a 18 c 19 b 20 a
21 c 22 d 23 b 24 d 25 b 26 d 27 a 28 d 29 d 30 a
31 b 32 b 33 a 34 d 35 a 36 c 37 d 38 a 39 d 40 b
41 d 42 c 43 a 44 b 45 b 46 b 47 d 48 c 49 d 50 b
51 d 52 d 53 d 54 c 55 a 56 a 57 c 58 b 59 d 60 b
61 c 62 d 63 c 64 c 65 b
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1. c Let the number of chocolates of varieties A, B and C bought
by Salim be a, b and c not necessarily in that order.
Therefore, a2 + (a + 5)2 + c2 = 7(2a + 5 + c)
or, 7c + 10 – c2 = 2a2 – 4a.
Also, a2+ (a + 5)2 + c2< 100 ...(i)
From (i) we get to know that ‘a’ can be 1 or 2 or 3 or 4.
For a = 1, 2 or 3 we do not get an integer value for c.
If a = 4, then c = 1. In this case b = 9.
So, the price of 1 chocolate of varieties A, B and C is 9, 4 and
1 respectively.
Short cut method:
Since A is the costliest variety of chocolate among the
3 varieties and the average price paid by Salim for each
chocolate is Rs. 7, therefore the price of 1 chocolate of variety
A has to be greater than Rs. 7.
There is only 1 option which is greater than Rs. 7.
2. c Let X° be the external angle of a polygon whose internal angle
is the largest. Then other two external angles of other two
polygons are (X + 15)° and (X + 27)°.
So X° + (X + 15)° + (X + 27)° = 177°
⇒3X° = 135° ⇒X° = 45°.
Now external angle
360° 360°
= or 45° = or n = 8,
nn
where
‘n’ is the total number of sides of the polygon with the largest
internal angle.
Therefore one polygon has 8 sides and the other polygons
have 6 and 5 sides respectively.
Hence the sum of sides of all the three regular polygons
= 8 + 6 + 5 = 19.
3. d M = ABC and N = CBA
⇒M – N + 396C
= (100A + 10B + C) – (100C + 10B + A) + 396C
⇒M – N + 396 C = 99(A – C + 4C)
∴99(A + 3C) = 990 ⇒A + 3C = 10
Possible values of A and C that satisfy A + 3C = 10 or
1
C (10– A) are given by :
3

A147
C321
Now, since the three digit number is greater than 300.
A cannot be equal to 1. B can take any value from
0 to 9.
Therefore the number of such three digit numbers
= 10 × 2 = 20.
4. b Let the number of balls with A1, A2, A3, … A11 be a – 5d, a – 4d,
a – 3d, … a + 5d respectively.
Therefore, the number of balls with A1, A3, A5, A7, A9 and A11
will be 6a.
⇒6a = 72 or a = 12
Number of balls with A1, A6 and A11 = a – 5d + a + a + 5d = 3a
= 36.
5. c Let the number of Benos be ‘B’
So, the number of Malos will be ‘139 + B’.
Therefore, B + 139 + B = 55009
2B = 55009 – 139, B = 27435
Therefore the total number of Malos residing in the island =
55009 – B = 27574.
Hence, option (c) is the correct choice.
6. b Let l be the initial quantity of diluted milk in the can and the
initial concentration of milk be m%.
∴

ml
30.
l 35


ml
Also, 20
l 75
⇒2(l + 75) = 3(l + 35) ⇒l = 45 and ml = 2400.
If w litres of water is required to be added to the can to make
the concentration of milk in the can 8% then

ml 2400
8 120 w 300 w 180.
l 75 w 8
⇒⇒

7. c Let the age of Sunil, Sunil’s son and Sunil’s father be x, y and
z years respectively.
z = 5y, x + 6 = z – x + y and x + z = 85.
Solving the above equations in x, y and z, we get that x = 30,
y = 11 and z = 55.
Hence the sum of the ages of Sunil’s son and Sunil is 41
years.
8. b P = (1 × 30) × (2 × 30) × (3 × 30) × (4 × 30) × …
× (29 × 30) × (30 × 30).
P = 3030 × 30!
P = 256 × 344 × 537 × 74 × 112 × 132 × 17 × 19 × 23 × 29.
N = 57 × 45 × 38 × 5 × 3 × 3 × 24 = 25 × 35 × 52 × 192
Let the two numbers be ‘19a’ and ‘19b’ respectively such that
‘a’ and ‘b’ are relatively prime to each other.
⇒(19a) × (19b) = N = 25 × 35 × 52 × 192
⇒ab = 25 × 35 × 52
Possible pairs (a, b) are
(25 × 35 × 52, 1); (25, 35 × 52); (25 × 35, 52); (25 × 52, 35).
Therefore, N can be written as the product of two numbers,
such that their HCF is 19, in 4 ways.
Short cut method: Here, the answer has to be a power of
2. (Why?)
9. b S g67g68.... g123


S g 67 g 68 g 69 g 70 g 71 ...... g 99
g 100 g 101 ...... g 123
⇒



S 6 7 8 9 7 8 9 1 2 3 ..... 9
1 1 1 2 3 ..... 9 1 2 1 2 3
⇒

⇒S 6 24 24 45 45 26
∴S 1281.
10. d Case I:
When the password contains 2 digits and 3 vowels.
Number of possible passwords
= 3C2 × 5C3 × 3C1 × 2C1 × 3! × 2 = 2160.
Case II:
When the password contains 3 digits and 2 vowels
Number of possible passwords
= 3C3 × 5C2 × 3C1 × 2C1 × 3! × 2 = 720.
Total number of passwords that Mandeep can create
= 2160 + 720 = 2880.
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11. d Let the numbers be K, L, K + L,
⇒KL (K + L) = 12 (K + L)
⇒KL = 12.
⇒{K, L} = {1, 12}, {2, 6} or {3, 4}
Hence, product P = 156, 96 or 84
∴Required sum = 156 + 96 + 84 = 336.
12. d Given, [] = [] = [] =1
⇒1≤2, 1≤2 and 1≤2 ...(i)
As, , and are the roots of the given cubic equation,
++ −a and −c. From (i),
3 ≤() 6⇒−6 a ≤−3 ...(ii)
And
1≤() 8⇒−8 c ≤−1 ...(iii)
Each of ,and is a positive number. Hence for every given
value of their sum, equal to –a, the maximum possible value of
their product, equal to –c, can be determined. Hence when a
= –3.3, the minimum value of c is –1.331. Hence, when
a −3.3⇒−1.331≤c ≤−1, and when
a −4.8 ⇒−4.096 ≤c ≤−1, and when
a −5.7⇒−6.859 ≤c ≤−1 and when
a −4.2⇒−2.744 ≤c ≤−1.
Hence, option (d) is incorrect as –2.8 is not a permissible
value of c for a −4.2.
13. c Perimeter of the base of cuboid = 64 cm.
⇒Length of the base + Width of the base = 32 cm.
⇒Length of edge of every cube = 2 cm.
Therefore, the sum of the total number of cubes along the
length and the total number of cubes along the width of the
cuboid
32
16.
2

Therefore, the number of cubes along the length and the
width of the cuboid can be (1, 15), (2, 14), (3, 13), (4, 12),
(5, 11), (6, 10), (7, 9) and (8, 8) not necessarily in that particular
order.
Also, in the cuboid (Number of cubes along the length) ×
(Number of cubes along the breadth) × (Number of cubes
along the height) = 78
The only possibility = 3 × 13 × 2 = 78.
Hence, the number of cubes along the height of the cuboid is
2.
14. b Number of ways in which three numbers can be selected
from the first 20 natural numbers = 20C3 = 1140.
Case 1: Common ratio of the G.P. is 2 = 5 ways
[(1, 2, 4); (2, 4, 8);(3, 6, 12);(4, 8, 16);(5, 10, 20)]
Case 2: Common ratio of the G.P is 3 = 2 ways
[(1, 3, 9); (2, 6, 18)]
Case 3: Common ratio of the G.P. is 4 = 1 way
[(1,4, 16)]
Case 4: Common ratio of the G.P. is
3
2
= 2 ways
[(4, 6, 9); (8, 12, 18)]
Case 5: Common ratio of the G.P. is
4
3
= 1 way
[(9, 12, 16)]
Required Probability
11
=.
1140
15. a Let, the weight of ‘p’ apples be equal to 1 kg and the weight of
‘q’ oranges be equal to 1 kg.
Let, the cost price and selling price of 1 apple be ‘C1’ and ‘S1’
respectively.
Let, the cost price and selling price of 1 orange be ‘C2’ and ‘S2’
respectively.
Therefore,
10 × C2 = p × C1 ...(i)
q × C2 = 12 × C1 ...(ii)
15 × S2 = p × S1 ...(iii)
Let, the selling price of 1 kg of oranges be equal to that of ‘x’
apples.
Therefore, q × S2 = x × S1 ...(iv)
Dividing the equation (i) by (ii), we get that
10 p
q 12

⇒p × q = 120 ...(v)
Dividing the equation (iii) by (iv), we get that
15 p
qx

Therefore, x = 8.
16. a
A
B
DC
Q
R
P
11.2
7 3.5
In PDC , AQ is parallel to DC, then 73.5 AP
11.2 RC AD


…(i)
_∠PDB ∠DBC (Alternate angles)and
∠DRP ∠CRB (Vertically opposite angles), therefore
PRD and CRB are similar.
84.7 PD
CR CB
⇒
84.7 PA AD
CR CB

⇒
PA AD
AD


AP
1
AD

84.7 73.5
1
RC 11.2 RC
⇒

⇒11.2 84.7 84.7 RC RC2 84.7 RC
⇒RC2 948.64
Or, RC 30.8 units.
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17. a Given that when f(x) is divided by (x – 1), (x – 2)……. and
(x – 51), it leaves 1, 2, 3, 4…. and 51 respectively, as the
remainders.
Therefore, f(x) = a × (x – 1) (x – 2)……(x – 51) + x
(f(x) is a polynomial of degree 51, therefore it cannot be
anything else).
where ‘a’ is any constant.
Now, putting x = 52 in the above equation we get,
f(52) = a × 51 × 50 ×……..× 1 + 52
⇒f(52) = a × 51! + 52 …(i)
Also, f(0) = a × (–1)51 × 51! + 0 ...(ii)
Adding equations (i) and (ii), we get that f(52) + f(0) = 52.
18. c Let, S be the sum of all the elements of the set P.
Therefore, S = (–5) + (–3) + (–1) + 1 + 3 + .......
Or, S = (2 × 1 – 7) + (2 × 2 – 7) + (2 × 3 – 7) + (2 × 4 – 7) + .......
Let, Tn be the nth element from the left of the set P.
Therefore, Tn = (2n – 7)
1998 1998
n1n1
11
a –b (2n – 7) – (2n)
1998 1998


∴ 




 1998
n1
1 –7 1998
(–7)
1998 1998
∴a – b = –7.
Alternative Solution:
1998a = – 5 – 3 – 1 + 1 + 3 + 5 + ..... (1998 terms)
= (– 5 – 3 – 1) + sum of the first 1995 odd natural numbers.
= – 9 + (1995)2 = 19952 – 32 = (1995 + 3)(1995 – 3)
= 1998 × 1992
or, a = 1992.
1998 1999
b 2 1999
2 1998


⇒a – b –7.
19. b S = {(2 × 3 × 5), (3 × 5 × 7), (5 × 7 × 11), (7 × 11 × 13), (11 × 13
× 17), (13 × 17 × 19), (17 × 19 × 23), (19 × 23 × 29) and
(23 × 29 × 31)}
So, S contains 9 elements.
Given that the number of elements in the set N is maximum
possible.
Since, all the elements of the set N are relatively prime to each
other, therefore the maximum possible number of elements in
the set N could be 3.
Also, in the set N, there will be 1 element out of the first 3
elements of the set S, 1 element out of the next 3 elements of
the set S and 1 element out of the last 3 elements of the set S.
This is possible in ten ways:
1.(2 × 3 × 5, 7 × 11 × 13, 17 × 19 × 23)
2.(2 × 3 × 5, 7 × 11 × 13, 19 × 23 × 29)
3.(2 × 3 × 5, 7 × 11 × 13, 23 × 29 × 31)
4.(2 × 3 × 5, 11 × 13 × 17, 19 × 23 × 29)
5.(2 × 3 × 5, 11 × 13 × 17, 23 × 29 × 31)
6.(2 × 3 × 5, 13 × 17 × 19, 23 × 29 × 31)
7.(3 × 5 × 7, 11 × 13 × 17, 19 × 23 × 29)
8.(3 × 5 × 7, 11 × 13 × 17, 23 × 29 × 31)
9.(3 × 5 × 7, 13 × 17 × 19, 23 × 29 × 31)
10.(5 × 7 × 11, 13 × 17 × 19, 23 × 29 × 31)
20. a A
x
F
BE
x+2
x–2
O
r
x
x+2x–2
r
Dr
C
Let, Side AC = (2x – 2) cm
Side CB = (2x) cm
Side BA = (2x + 2) cm, where x is a natural number greater
than 1.
Let ‘r’ be the in radius of the ABC .
Area of ABC Area (OBC OAC OAB)
1
r (2x 2) (2x) 2x 2 3rx.
2
−
Also, semi perimeter
(2x 2) (2x) (2x 2)
s 3x
2
−

Area of ABC 3x(x 2)(x)(x −2) 3rx
(x 2)(x)(x 2)
r
3x
−
⇒
⇒(x2 −4) 3r2
⇒x2 = 3r2 + 4 ... (i)
For, x to be a natural number (3r2 + 4) has to be a perfect
square.
Out of the options given, only for r 3 , the value of x does
not come out to be an integer.
For questions 21 to 23:
Cut-off for QA = 11, VA = 12 and DI = 9.
Overall cut-off = 35
Marks deducted for the first 6 incorrectly attempted questions = 6 ×
1
4
= 1.5.
Marks deducted for next 6 incorrectly attempted questions = 6 ×
1
3
= 2.
For each further incorrectly attempted question the negative marks =
1
2
.
Cut-off in each section is an integer. So to just clear the cut-offs, the
possible number of questions that can be attempted incorrectly are
0, 4, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25, 27........... and so on.
21. c We have to find the minimum number of unattempted questions
in the exam such that student just manages to clear the
sectional cut-offs. Let us assume that a student attempted
maximum possible number of questions such that he gets just
11,12 and 9 marks in QA, VA and DI respectively.
In a section if a student attempts 13 questions incorrectly then
marks deducted from his score
11131
6 6 2 4.
43222

So in order to clear the cut-off in QA if a student attempts 13
questions incorrectly then he has to attempt 11 + 4 = 15
questions correctly.
Page 5 Unproctored - Mock CAT 11 ____
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On any further incorrectly attempted questions,
1
2
of a mark
is deducted. So in order to just clear the cut-off student has to
get 1 question right and 2 questions wrong in every set of 3
questions.
From the above, (15 + 13) = 28 questions have already been
answered. So 22 questions are remaining out of which 21
(multiple of 3) can be answered. 1 question will be left
unanswered.
Similarly in order to clear the cut-off in VA, if a student attempts
13 questions incorrectly then he has to attempt (12 + 4) = 16
questions correctly.
So (16 + 13) = 29 questions have already been answered.
Out of the remaining 11 questions 9 (a multiple of 3) can be
attempted. Two questions will be left unanswered.
Similarly in order to clear the cut-off in DI, if a student attempts
13 questions incorrectly then he has to attempt (9 + 4) = 13
questions correctly.
So (13 + 13) = 26 questions have already been answered.
Out of the remaining 4 questions, 3 can be attempted. 1 question
will be left unanswered.
So the minimum number of questions left unanswered
= 1 + 2 + 1 = 4.
22. d To find the minimum number of incorrectly attempted questions
we have to consider number of incorrectly attempted questions
in a particular section as maximum. In that section,
1
2
marks
will be deducted after 12 incorrectly attempted questions.
Moreover the maximum number of questions is in QA, so we
have to take QA as that particular section, so that the overall
number of incorrectly attempted questions is minimum.
From the solution of the previous question, 28 questions with
13 incorrectly attempted questions just clears the cut-off.
Further 21 questions can be answered out of which 7
questions can be attempted correctly and the rest incorrectly,
which will not make any difference to the overall score of 11.
So the student can attempt 49 questions from QA such that 22
are correct and 27 wrong, he will end up having 11 marks,
just enough to clear the cut-off.
To just clear the cut-off in VA and DI student has to get at least
12 and 9 questions correct. That makes 49 + 12 + 9 = 70
question.
Remaining number of questions is 87 – 70 = 17.
Which can be done from any of the sections doing 4 more
questions right and 13 questions wrong, apart from 12 and 9
questions for VA and DI respectively.
So the minimum possible number of incorrectly attempted
questions by the student = 27 + 13 = 40.
23. b The student has to score 35. If he attempts all 120 questions,
no combinations of right and wrong attempts will lead to a
score of exactly 35. So minimum number of unattempted
questions has to be 1. This can happen in the following
manner:
a. QA - 49 attempts, 22 right and 27 wrong
b. VA - 40 attempts, 21 right and 19 wrong
c. DI - 30 attempts, 15 right and 15 wrong
This can also be possible in other combinations. But in each
case at least 1 question is to be left unattempted.
24. d From additional information (4) we know that C is not in group
Y and D is not in group Z.
Given that C and D are in the same group, which means that
both C and D are in group X.
A, C, D, H and I are in group X.
Since, we need to find the friend who cannot be in the group
that has exactly three friends; it means that group X will have
only five friends.
From additional information (1) we know that B and J are in
the same group.
Also from additional information (2), D, E and F are in different
groups.
So, it is clear that in a group which has exactly three friends;
B and J will be accompanied by either E or F.
So, G will be in the group that has exactly two friends along
with either E or F.
25. b Given that F is in group X and G is not in group Y
Since D, E and F are in different groups and D is not in group
Z, therefore D is in group Y and E is in group Z.
Since, C is not in group Y and C, I and H are in the same group,
therefore C, I and H are either in group X or group Z.
Also, G is either in group X or Z.
Since each group has at least two friends and B and J are in
the same group, therefore in group Y, there are exactly three
friends namely B, J and D.
Therefore, out of the pairs mentioned the following four pairs
of friends cannot be in the same group; (J, F); (D, G); (B, E)
and (D, I).
26. d Let us first form a group that has exactly six friends.
Since, in one group there are six friends, therefore in each of
the two other groups there are two friends.
Also, we know that D, E and F are in different groups, B and
J are in the same group and so are C, I and H.
This means that in a group which has six friends, the following
five friends namely B, J, H, I and C must be there.
Since, C cannot be in group Y and in group X there is A along
with one out of D, E and F, we can conclude that it is only
group Z that can have six friends.
The sixth friend in group Z could be either E or F as D cannot
be in group Z.
So, neither A nor G nor D can be in the group that has six
friends.
27. a Since there are exactly five friends in group Z, so it can be
concluded that H, I and C are definitely in group Z.
Since A is in group X, and D, E and F are in different groups,
therefore B and J who are in the same group are in group Y.
So, G is also in group Z.
The fifth friend in group Z could be either E or F.
The third friend in group Y and second friend in group X could
be either D or E or F.
Therefore, J is definitely in group Y.
28. d The total weight of the cotton at the stalls are listed in the table
given below.
Stall Number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Weight (kgs) 0.6 1 0.7 0.55 0.8 0.6 0.4 2 0.75 1
There are 2 ways to choose 2 kgs of cotton from the stalls in
which the total weight of the cotton is a fraction of a kg.
Let K be the set of stall numbers 3, 4 and 9 and l be the set of
stall numbers 1, 5 and 6.
Five kgs of cotton can be chosen in any of the following
combinations:
(a) (K or l) + stall number 2 + stall number 8 = 2 combinations
(b) (K or l) + stall number 8 + stall number 10 = 2 combinations
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(c) K + l + (stall number 2 or stall number 10) = 2 combinations
(d) K + stall number 8 + stall number 7 + (stall number
1 or stall number 6) = 2 combinations
(e) Stall number 2 + stall number 8 + stall number
10 + stall number 7 + (stall number 1 or stall number
6) = 2 combinations
(f) K + stall number 7 + stall number 2 + stall number 10 +
(stall number 1 or stall number 6) = 2 combinations.
∴In total, there are 12 combinations.
29. d Minimum possible amount will be paid by Richa, when she
chooses to buy cotton from stall numbers
1, 2, 7, 8 and 10. The amount will be 24 + 35 + 20 + 56 + 36 =
Rs.171.
30. a Since, the price of the cotton (in Rs./kg) at stall number
10 becomes Rs.36 – Rs.11 = Rs.25, therefore Richa can buy
the cotton by paying Rs.11 lesser than what she had to pay
earlier (as there is still 1 kg of cotton at stall number 10).
So, the minimum amount paid by Richa to buy 5 kgs of cotton
= Rs.171 – Rs.11 = Rs.160.
Maximum amount will be paid by Richa, when she buys cotton
from stall numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 9, thereby paying a total
of 24 + 35 + 28 + 33 + 36 + 39 + 24 or Rs.219.
Therefore, the difference between the maximum and the
minimum possible amount Richa can pay to buy 5 kgs of cotton
is Rs.219 – Rs.160 = Rs.59.
31. b Statement I:
If Richa buys cotton from the stall numbers 1, 3 and 9, she will
have to pay the maximum possible amount.
It is not necessarily true as there are more than one way in
which Richa can buy cotton from stall numbers 1, 3 and 9 and
every time she does not necessarily pay the maximum amount.
Statement II:
If Richa buys cotton from stall number 3, then she will have to
buy cotton from stall numbers 4 and 9 as well.
It is always true as the weight of the cotton at all the three
mentioned stalls sum up to 2 kgs.
Therefore, she cannot buy cotton either from only one or only
two of the given stalls.
32. b For maximizing the total amount, Richa should buy more
quantity of cotton from the stall that has the highest price of
cotton (in Rs./kg).
Therefore, she should buy 600 gms of cotton from stall
numbers 6;550 gms of cotton from stall number 4 and 350
gms of cotton from stall number 1.
Therefore, the maximum possible amount paid by Richa to buy
1.5 kgs of cotton = 0.6 × 65 + 0.55 × 60 + 0.35 × 40 = Rs.86.
For questions 33 to 36:
Let the people who wear a blue, red and green shirt be denoted by b,
r and g respectively.
Restrictions on the seating arrangement:
1. Two b’s must not be together.
2. Three r’s must be together.
3. A ‘b’ and a ‘g’ must not be together.
4. A ‘g’ cannot sit on chair numbered 2 or 9.
Case A:
A person wearing a red shirt sits on chair numbered 1.
Keeping all the restrictions stated above it is not possible to make such
a seating arrangement.
Case B:
A person wearing a green shirt sits on chair numbered 1.
It is only possible if another person wearing a green shirt sits on chair
numbered 2, but this violates restriction number 4.
Hence, this is also not possible.
Case C:
A person wearing a blue shirt sits on chair numbered 1.
The six seating arrangements that are possible are as follows.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Case 1 b r b r g g r r r b
Case 2 b r r r b r g g r b
Case 3 b r g g r r r b r b
Case 4 b r r r g g r b r b
Case 5 b r g g r b r r r b
Case 6 b r b r r r g g r b
Now, we see that the cases 4, 5 and 6 are just obtained by reversing
the cases 1, 2 and 3 respectively.
It can be concluded that in any possible seating arrangement, the
chairs numbered 1 and 10 are always occupied by people wearing
blue shirts. It is given that the number of people wearing a blue shirt is
3. Looking at the table given in the question, we observe that in each
of the six arrangements two out of the three different people i.e. A, B
and N always sit on chairs numbered 1 and 10.
Hence it can be concluded that the people who wear a blue shirt are
A, B and N.
From the given table the person wearing a blue shirt can never sit on
chairs numbered 2, 4, 7 and 9.
So, (in arrangement I), A, B and N sitting on chairs numbered 1, 7 and
10 is inconsistent.
Also, the people wearing red shirts sit on chairs numbered 2 and 9
and in all the possible arrangements five different people namely
P, Q, M, Z and R are sitting on chairs numbered either 2 or 9.
Therefore, P, Q, M, Z and R are wearing red shirts and K and L are
wearing green shirts.
33. a 34. d 35. a
36. c Option a: A (Blue), P (Red), R (Red) and L (Green): Permissible
Option b: N (Blue), Q (Red), K (Green) and Z (Red): Permissible.
Option c: K (Green), A (Blue), N (Blue) and Z (Red):
Not Permissible.
Option d: B (Blue), L (Green), M (Red) and Q (Red): Permissible.
For questions 37 to 40:
All the possibilities are listed down in the table shown below.
S. No. Name of the Player
Points
Earne d
World
Rank ing
1 Naomi Cavaday 41 5
2 Stephanie Cornish 37 7
3 Jade Windley 34 8 or 9
4 Jocelyn Rae 31 10
5 Naomi Broady 25 11
6 Laura Slater 25 11
7 Samantha Vickers 23 13
8 Hannah James 22 or 23 14 or 13
9 Jade Curtis 22 14 or 15
10 Jassica Jackson 21 16
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Note: Naomi Broady’s World Ranking prior to the tournament could
not be 10 as other wise Laura Slater’s World Ranking must
had been atleast 12.
37. d As two players had a World Ranking of 11 prior to the
tournament, none of the 10 players had a World Ranking of 12
prior to the tournament.
38. a If Hannah James earns maximum possible number of points
and Naomi Cavaday earns minimum possible number of points,
then the difference between their number of points will be the
maximum.
So, Hannah James can possibly earn
5 × 10 + 4 × 9 = 86 points
The maximum number of points earned by Hannah James at
the end of the Sunfeast Open can be 86 + 23 = 109 points.
Now, Naomi Cavaday can possibly earn
4 × 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 = 33 points
Total number of points earned by Naomi Cavaday at the end of
the Sunfeast Open = 41 + 33 = 74.
Hence, the required difference = 109 – 74 = 35 points.
39. d Total number of points earned by Jade Curtis
= 9 × 10 + 22 = 112 points.
Out of the given options:
Naomi Broady can possibly get a maximum of
25 + 8 × 10 + 2 = 107 points.
Laura Slater can possibly get a maximum of
25 + 8 × 10 + 2 = 107 points.
Samantha Vickers can possibly get a maximum of
23 + 8 × 10 + 2 = 105 points.
None of the three players can possibly get the World Ranking
2 at the end of the Sunfeast Open as their points are well
below 112.
40. b The maximum value of ‘X’ can be 8 as each of these three
players will get 10 points from each of the matches played
against the remaining seven players. Among themselves, each
one of these three would play 2 matches, of which she will
get the maximum (10 points) from one match and the minimum
(2 points) from the other.
Hence, if the value of ‘X’ has to be maximum possible, Laura
Slater at the end of the Sunfeast Open must have got 10
points in 8 matches each and 2 points in 1 match (as explained
above).
Total number of points earned by Laura Slater in this case at
the end of the Sunfeast Open is 25 + (8 × 10) + 2 = 107.
Note: This is the only possible value of number of points
earned by Laura Slater if the value of ‘X’ has to be maximum
possible.
41. d All the sentences are grammatically correct.
42. c Refer to the lines in Para 1 and Para 2. “It was, he added, “not
stodgy.” “Stodginess, certainly, is something that the appeal to
clouds might well be hoped to ward off. ……..Moreover, not
only does the cloud seem opposed to all material loading,
equally it appears to resist being weighted down.” Gehry
asserts that the cloud is not stodgy and wants to push its
cloudy, light and dynamic character. Options (a) and (b) indicate
what Gehry would like his recent architecture to be seen as.
Here stodgy refers to ‘being earthy or heavy’ – a characteristic
quite opposed to that of clouds.
43. a Option (a) is true as Charles Jencks has viewed the dynamiting
of the Pruitt- Igoe as the “death rattle” or the ‘end’ of modernism.
Option (b) is incorrect as ‘famously promoted’ refers to the
“death rattle” of modernism and not ‘being an iconic example
of matter after form’. Definitely, the demolition is seen as an
iconic example but being ‘famously promoted’ refers to the
“death rattle” of modernism. Option (c) is incorrect as,
according to the passage, ‘matter after form’ and not ‘matter
aspiring to form’ is the characteristic ‘thing’ that accompanies
destruction and demolition. Option (d) is incorrect as in the
passage, it is mentioned that the cloud has been of interest to
those who want to transgress architecture’s disciplinary
nature but nothing of this sort has been mentioned about the
Pruitt-Igoe housing.
44. b Refer to the lines in Para 2 “Stodginess, certainly, is something
that the appeal to clouds might well be hoped to ward off. Of
all the flow-motifs available to oppose the heaviness of
congealed and earth-bound stodge, the slow and complex
three-dimensional circulation, drift and dispersion of the nebular
seems the most promising.” It is clear that there is an attempt
to make the ‘cloud’ appear non-stodgy even though there is a
component of stodge in the cloud. Thus, (a) can be inferred
from the passage. Option (c) can be inferred from the 4th
paragraph which states “the cloud is an area of interest for
practices … on assault upon it”. It clearly implies that people
who want to widen the scope of architecture beyond the
rigid framework within which it operates are interested in
Gehry’s cloud. Option (d) can be inferred from the lines in the
last para, “Curiously it was two buildings by the same architect,
Minoru Yamasaki, that supplied the material for these two
most iconic examples of the destructuring of form into cloud.”
Option (b) is partly correct as seen in the 3rd paragraph, but
it cannot be inferred that postmodern architecture regards
modern architecture as its rival.
45. b All the pairs except the one in option (b), exhibit a relationship
of synonyms. ‘Colossal ‘ means huge: of a bulk, extent, power,
or effect approaching or suggesting the stupendous or
incredible. Whereas, the adjective ‘diminutive’ means
exceptionally or notably small. ‘Sluggish’ is a synonym of
‘Lethargic’. ‘Dilapidated’ means decayed, deteriorated or fallen
into partial ruin especially through neglect or misuse.
‘Tumbledown’ means dilapidated or ramshackle. ‘Fervent’ and
‘zealous’ are synonyms of each other’. ‘Fervent’ means
exhibiting or marked by great intensity of feeling. ‘Zealous’
means filled with or characterized by zeal marked by fervent
partisanship for a person, a cause or an ideal.
46. b In the question, filling the first blank would help us to eliminate
two options (c) and (d). The 2nd adjective describing the 'gods
of wood and stone' must be negative as it has to complement
the first adjective - 'battered'. Between options (a) and (b),
the second blank would be the deciding factor. 'Totemic' which
means suggestive of totemism (belief in kinship with or mystical
relationship between a graph or an individual and a token - an
object serving as the emblem of a family or clan and often as
a reminder of its ancestry) fits the second blank. Moreover,
'toted' in (a) would not fit the second blank as it is an inflected
form of the transitive verb 'tote' which means to lug.
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47. d Rahul’s opinion is that Rohit was denied promotion for reasons
other than his age. For strengthening his point, Rahul presents
instances where some people who are older than Rohit, are
promoted. In order to weaken Rahul’s argument, we need to
highlight that Rohit was denied promotion due to his age.
Option (a) is incorrect as it makes the candidature of Rohit
strong for promotion but it does not weaken Rahul’s argument.
Option (b) is not the correct choice as it does not go against
Rahul’s argument. Option (c) is incorrect as it highlights age
as one of the factors on account of which Rohit was denied
promotion. Option (d) is the correct answer as it weakens the
argument of Rahul by questioning the validity of evidence
furnished by him. It clearly states that people who are older
than Rohit were promoted, as there was no one to challenge
their candidature on the basis of age. In other words, age
was not the limiting factor in their case.
48. c In the first paragraph, the author clearly mentions that the
reproach of abstraction derives mainly from Humean
empiricism. He further elaborates ‘the reproach’ in the lines,
“…Psychological conception of abstract ideas as the product
of customary conjunctions of particular ideas, based on
resemblances, annexed to general names”. This refers to
generalizing tendencies. So, option (a) can be inferred from
the passage. Option (b) can be inferred from the 2nd
paragraph. Refer to the lines, “These two critical tendencies
– epistemological and practical-political– often converge within
Marxism, as in Derek Sayers’s The Violence of Abstraction .
But their combination is by no means restricted to the Marxist
tradition.” Option (c) cannot be inferred from the passage.
Even the practical –political version is associated with a nonmodern
or non-contemporary text like “the Lukácsian trajectory
of Western Marxism.”
49. d Refer to the lines in Para 2 “…..which holds that, not merely
despite but precisely because of the necessity of abstraction
to thought ,(the character of the necessity, that is), there is
something both cognitively and politically inadequate about
knowledge itself: not only existing knowledge, but all possible
knowledges.” It can be inferred that the necessity of
abstraction to thought reveals the inadequacy of existing
knowledge. But it is not explicitly clear whether the inadequacy
of knowledge leads to the necessity of abstraction to thought.
So A is distorted. In the second paragraph, the author mentions
“For Feyerband, for example, the history of Western thought
could be told as ‘A Tale of Abstraction versus the Richness of
Being’, but this in no way, shows that Western thought has
preferred the path of abstraction over tapping into the realms
of being. Thus, B also cannot be inferred. C cannot be inferred
from the passage; the passage , in the 2nd paragraph,
mentions, “Increasingly, it seems, from a variety of different
stand points, abstraction – understood here as conceptual
abstraction - is accompanied by both a certain melancholy
(loss of the real object) and a certain shame (complicity in the
domination of the concept and hence repression of other,
more vibrant, more creative aspects of existence)”, this in no
manner suggests that abstraction is accompanied by shame
primarily because of submission to some kind of domination
which has lead to repression.
50. b The passage starts off with the two versions of reproach or
opposition to abstraction. Then it talks about the domination by
abstraction and its effects on individuals and behavioural
patterns of groups. Thus, the predominant content or theme
of the passage is an opposition to abstraction and its
domination. Hence option (b) is best suited as the title to the
passage. Option (a) is the initial part of the passage and is
encompassed in option (b). Option (c) is the second half of
the passage and also encompassed in option (b). Option (d)
is an incorrect title as the passage is not talking about the
effects of the reproach to abstraction.
51. d The modifying phrase ‘precisely aligned with the stars’ is
incorrectly placed in sentence 4. The correct sentence should
read ‘Precisely aligned with the stars, the Angkor temples
were instruments for assisting...’ or the sentence can be
written as ‘The Angkor temples, precisely aligned with the
stars, were instruments for …’.
52. d C is an apt opener as it introduces the issue - "we will often
try to persuade people of what we find beautiful, even though
we do not believe.." B gives a reason for such persuasion;
thus CB constitute a mandatory pair. D adds to B by stating
"Moreover, we are often aware of the contingency of our
own judgements' foundation…" A adds further to the
discussion (Nevertheless, we do think that certain aesthetic
…) by providing a concession to D. E further adds to D. Thus,
the correct sequence is CBDAE.
53. d Refer to the line, “By imposing a Pigovian Tax a government
can artifically create a cost for such activity - ideally a cost
equal to what the price would be had a market for such
activity existed.” Also “One of the uses of taxes is to
discourage activity that has negative externalities, or we believe
is otherwise economically/socially harmful.”. Here the author
refers to an activity that has a negative externality. A and C
talk about activities which have a negative externality. But B
talks of imposing a Tax for ‘ disasters’ which are not a regular
negative externality. The negative externalities referred to in
the passage are those which definitely occur in a regular
manner from an activity. But a disaster may or may not occur.
Hence, the tax mentioned in B does not qualify as a Pigovian
Tax.
54. c Refer to the second last para of the passage. The author
admits that he has been rather hard on the supporters of the
FairTax- which shows that he has opposed the Fair Taxers to
some extent. Option (a) is substantiated by the line “The
FairTaxers take it too far - the amount of revenue needed to
finance all the government programs we value cannot be
generated by simply a consumption tax alone.” Option (b) is
also correct. The author starts the discussion on the Fair
Taxers with “Since taxes deter the activity that is being taxed,
then why in the world would we ever tax income?” and ends
with “ the basic idea is sound”. This shows that the author
supports the philosophy of the Fair Taxers as taxes are meant
to be a deterrent. Option (c) cannot be said to be true as the
author does not comment on any long term scenario. He is
discussing about current things.
55. a If the tax on Marijuana has to deter people from purchasing it
then the tax must be transferred to the customer who pays
for Marijuana. Hence option (a) is an assumption on which the
idea of legalizing Marijuana and then taxing it is based. Option
(b) is beyond the scope of the passage as the passage does
not talk of crimes. Option (c) is again not the concern of the
people as the tax is meant to be more of a ‘deterrent’. Option
(d) is not the correct choice as the purpose of heavy taxation
is to deter people from using Marijuana. It is too far-fetched to
assume that this will stop people from procuring Marijuana
illegally.
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56. a The first blank needs an expression which should be apt
enough to be related with the catastrophic situation evident in
the given text. Option (b) is negated as 'fore-and-aft' means
parallel with the length of a structure, running lengthwise.
Option (c) is out of context. An 'argy-bargy' referes to a lively
discussion; an argument or a dispute. Option (d) is also out of
context as 'hustle and bustle means busy and noisy activity.
This expression is simply too inappropriate to relate with the
magnitude of the disastrous situation. Option (a) is the best
choice. 'Fire and brimstone' is God's means of destroying
sinners; it is the torments suffered by sinners in hell. In the
second blank, 'carry about' which means to carry someone
or something with one; to carry someone or something from
place to place, is the appropriate one to be used here.
57. c In all the options except (c), the second word mentions the
characteristic of the person (mentioned as the first word). A
‘sciolist’ indulges in a superficial show of learning. A
‘hoodwinker’ intends to decieve by false appearance. A
‘mountebank’ is a boastful unscrupulous pretender. An
‘amputee’ is one that has had a limb amputated. ‘Ablation’ is a
process and not a characteristic. It refers to a surgical removal;
loss of part by melting or vapourisation.
58. b Option (a) is not looked at very favourably by the author.
Refer to the lines in the third paragraph, “Despite important
qualifications and refinements, and, I think, a certain amount
of denegation (it’s not enough to put some words in scare
quotes), Ryle’s argument tends to privilege an abstracted
notion of `the literary text’, to be apprehended, he says, `at
once in itself’, so that he ends up with a conservative
legitimation of the aesthetic in textual studies of just the kind
he - and others beside him - have hoped to avoid.” Option (c)
is clearly criticized by the author in the last para. Option (d) is
also looked at unfavourably by the author. Refer to the lines in
the third paragraph, “and that his position is seriously damaged
by the degree of its adherence to an older paradigm of `the
text’, a view which has insufficiently taken on board the recent
shift to a more radical notion of the text as always in a relation
to its reader, implying a text/reader dialectic.” Option (b) is not
reflective of an opposition from the author toward Ryle. The
author criticizes Ryle for excessively identifying cultural studies
with their historical conjuncture and not just connecting cultural
studies with their historical conjuncture.
59. d The quote indicates that a lot of formalism brings one back to
History. Option(a) is not suggested by the quote. Option (b)
conveys an incorrect meaning of the quote. Option (c) gives
a distorted sense of the quote. In the passage, formalism is
unfavourably looked upon as taking one back to History and
not positively as encouraging history.
60. b Although, the author gives examples and quotations from
Ryles’ book on several occasions, he uses them merely to
develop his argument and analysis. Therefore (b) would take
precedence over options (a) and (c). The author’s tone in the
passage is balanced and not reflective of vehement criticism,
this rules out option (d).
61. c Only statement 3 is grammatically correct. In sentence 1, the
phrase ‘musn’t eat’ should be replaced with ‘don’t have to
eat’; ‘musn’t’ is used to indicate that something is not allowed
whereas ‘don’t have to’ is used to indicate that something is
not necessary. In sentence 2, ‘got suspicious’ should be
replaced with ‘became suspicious’. In sentence 4, ‘will’ should
be replaced with ‘would’.
62. d An accent cannot be summated or temporised hence, options
(a) and (c) are negated. The technique used here should
create a lively setting that brings out the stark difference
aptly. Hence ‘routine’ is ruled out, putting option (b) out of
context. This leaves us with option (d). To 'encapsulate' is to
enclose; to express or show the most important facts about
something. 'Vivid' descriptions, settings, etc. produce very
clear, powerful and detailed images in the mind, and hence
the word would serve the purpose.
63. c A opens the paragraph as it introduces the topic. E logically
follows A as it describes how the author had met the 'mystic';
C follows E as it describes the consequence (author's
acceptance of the offer and his visit to the psychic reader.) D
forms a mandatory pair with C as it describes the interior of
the psychic reader's home in Nottingham. B describes the
event of psychic reading at the reader's house and continues
the discussion further.
64. c The reasoning followed by Nagendra in the question statement
is that one should not do A because of B. Option (a) is incorrect
as it goes against the reasoning given in the question statement.
There is no place for circumstances in the reasoning. Option
(b) is beyond the scope of information given in the question
statement. One cannot decide about more or less from the
information given. Option (c) is the correct answer as it
provides the justification for the reasoning of the question
statement. Option (d) is incorrect, as it has reversed the
parameters (not to do A because of B does not mean not to do
B because of A).
65. b The author concludes that Krishnan is a Hindustani Classical
singer. The basis of this conclusion is Krishnan’s ability to
recognize the works of Kumar Gandharva. The author further
states that a vast majority of people who are not Hindustani
Classical singers cannot recognize the work of Kumar
Gandharva. But, a vast majority does not mean that no one,
who is not a Classical Hindustani singer cannot recognize the
work of Kumar Gandharva. This implies that Krishnan can be
one who is not a Classical Hindustani singer but can recognize
the work of Kumar Gandharva. This conclusion leads us to
option (b). Option (a) is incorrect as the argument in no way
suggests that people have to know Pandit Kumar Gandharva
in order to be able to recognize his works. Option (c) is not the
correct choice, as it does not highlight the flaw in the argument.