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Anal carcinoma

c  Colon carcinoma


Pancreatic carcinoma
Q.1 As resident on emergency duty you receive
a patient who is bleeding profusely from the left Q.8 All the following are contraindications for
cubital fossa following a clean cut. You suspect a conservative management in esophageal
left brachial artery injury and would initiate perforation except
management by: After instrumentation
Checking consciousness of the patient Subcentimetric abdominal perforation
Inspecting his airway Perforation following dilatation for stricture
Order your assistant to compress while you look Spontaneous perforation
for other injuries
Clamp and ligate the left brachial artery Q.9 Treatment options in FAP A/E
Total colectomy with IRA
Q.2 Carl Hartrampf scoring is done in Total proctcolectomy with IPAA
Pheochromocytoma Intensive surveillance in a motivated patient
Liver trauma severity scoring Total proctocolectomy with end ileostomy
Splenic trauma severity scoring
ë   
 Q.10 65-years-old incontinent male with stage 1
cancer in rectum 10 cms from anal verge. Best
Q.3 Which of the following is incorrect about treatment option is
abdominal compartmental syndrome? APR
Often associated with significant abdominal AR
trauma Local excision
Normal intraabdominal pressure is < 10 mm Hg RT followed by surgery
Pressure above 25 mm Hg warrants emergency
laparotomy Q.11 Best radiological (most sensitive)
Bogota bag is used in the treatment investigation for diagnosing acute appendicitis.
X-ray abdomen
Q.4 which of the following statement about USG
Grawitz tumor is correct? CECT abdomen
Occurs in males more than woman MRI
It is a tumor of kidney and lower pole is involved
more than upper pole. Q.12 Most common site of perforation during
It is adenocarcinoma (variant) of GB colonoscopy
It is a benign tumor Sigmoid colon
Splenic flexure
Q.5 Choledochocele is Descending colon
Type II B choledochal cyst Transverse colon
Diverticulum of CBD
Inflammation of DBD Q.13 55 years old male, known case of peptic
None of the above ulcer disease had received H.pylori eradication 5
yrs back, now presents with recurrent symptoms
Q.6 Homan͛s procedure is done for of ulcer disease. Which non-invasion test you
Adrenelectomy will recommend for him for H.pylori recurrence
Filariasis Rapid urease test
Aortic aneurysm Urea breath test
Aortic atherosclerosis Serology
Culture & sensitivity
Q.7 By mucosal resection which carcinoma can
be diagnosed early
Esophageal carcinoma
Q.14 Most common organism to be isolated MR spectroscopy
from perforated appendicits is
E.coli Q.20 The phrenic nerve does not carry pain
B.fragilis fibres from
Group D streptococcus Pericardium
Kleibsella Diaphragm
Oesophagus
Q.15 Most common site for ulceration in Mediastinal pleura
Zollinger-ellison-syndrome is
Stomach Q.21 A change in vertical diameter of thoracic
First part of duodenum cage is brought about by
Second part of duodenum Pump handle movements of sternum
Proximal jejenum Piston movements of diaphragm
Bucket handle movements of ribs
Q.16 50 yrs old male belonging to poor social- None of the above
economic strata, belonging to north-east of
India presented with weight loss, early satiety & Q.22 The posterior axillary fold is formed by
occasional pain. Clinician suspected it to be Ca Teres major
stomach. Endoscopy was done & a ulcer was Subscapularis
found in distal stomach causing gastric outlet Latissimus dorsi
obstruction. To prove that this ulcer is A and C
malignant, he took multiple biopsies. From
which area the biopsies should be taken to give Q.23 Which is not a content of the 4th
best results. compartment of extensors
From the ulcer crater Tendon of extensor digitorum
From the normal appearing mucosa at the edge Tendon of extensor indicis
of ulcer Posterior interosseus artery
Multiple random biopsies from ulcer & rest of Posterior interosseus nerve
stomach to see for field change
Each one from antrum, fundus, pylorus & body Q.24 Which of the following is the chief extensor
of stomach at elbow
Extensor digitorum
Q.17 The best agent for imaging a substernal Extensor carpi radialis longus
thyroid goiter is? Extensor carpi radialis brevis
I-125 Triceps
I-131
I-123 Q.25 In femoral hernia, the neck of hernial sac
Technetium-99m lies in the
Femoral sheath
Q.18 A chest x-ray sign of aspergilloma? Femoral canal
McConnell͛s sign Femoral ring
Bedford sign Saphenous opening
Monad͛s sign
Palla͛s sign Q.26 While giving intramuscular injections in the
gluteal region, the needle does not pierce
Q.19 Which of the following have been reliably Gluteus maximus
utilized in the field of both behavior and Gluteus medius
cognitive sciences? Gluteus minimus
DWMRI B and C
F-MRI
MRI-FLAIR
Q.27 Inversion and eversion of foot takes place Q.34 Hypertensive crisis results from concurrent
at all joints except use of levodopa with
Ankle Phenothiazines
Subtalar MAO inhibitors
Calcaneocuboid Anticholinergics
Talocalcaneonavicular Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors

Q.28 Which of the following is incorrect about Q.35 A drug acting on post-synaptic membrane
dum-dum [bleep]? can affect which of the following to the
Expanding nature neurotransmitter
Defective jacket Storage
Very small in size Synthesis
Produce large wounds Release
None of the above
Q.29 Hydrostatic test may be false negative in
case of Q.36 After gastrointestinal adverse effects, next
Putrefaction common ADR of NSAIDS is
Atelectasis Renal damage
Artificial respiration Skin reaction
None of the above Bleeding
Bone marrow depression
Q.30 Pregnancy following a rape can be
terminated under the following ground of MTP Q.37 Nephrotoxicity gingival hyperplasia,
act Hirsutism are adverse effects of
Therapeutic Cyclosporin ? A
Eugenic Cyclophosphamide
Humanitarian Azathioprine
Social Chlorambucil

Q.31 The common preservative used in the Q.38 Nitric oxide mainly inactivated by
process embalming is NO synthase
Rectified spirit Reuptake
Saturated solution of sodium chloride Interaction with hemoglobin
Phenol Monoamine Oxidase
Formalin Catechol-O-methyltransferase

Q.32 Pyrethrins and related compounds are Q.39 Unstable at low pH, this antibiotic is
used as structurally similar to penicillin and for topical
Insecticide use only
Fumigants Penicillin
Mosquito repellent Bactitracin
None Clindamycin
Ampicillin
Q.33 Following methods are used to study CNS
function Q.40 Glomerular filtration
Radio ligand study Aspirin
Pet scan Cephalothin
Patch-clamp technique Penicillin
All of the above Streptomycin
Q.41 Mechanism of bactericidal action: Esmolol
kanamycin None of the above
Blocks cell wall synthesis
Inhibits protein synthesis Q.48 Principal mechanism by which beta
Folic acid synthesis inhibitor adrenergic receptor blockade decrease BP
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor Vasodilation ? arteriolar
Vasodilation ? venular
Q.42 Pseudomonas strains resistance to Reduced heart rate and reduced myocardial
carbenicillin may be sensitive to corntractility
Penicillin G Blockade of angiotesn II receptors
Kanamycin Decreased central sympathetic outflow
Tobramycin
Clindamycin Q.49 Antihypertensive; direct acting,
nonselective peripheral vasodilator ? acts on
Q.43 Organism most likely responsible for arteriole and venous vascular smooth muscle:
hospital-requires bacterial pneumonia 44% cyanide by weight
Streoptococcus pneumoniae Labetalol
Klebsiella Hydralazine
Both Minoxidil
Neither Nitroprusside sodium

Q.44 In the intensive care setting (ICU) a patient Q.50 Oral route of administration of this drug
with a nosocomial pneumonia caused by a recently approved in the U.S for prevention of
highly resistance gram-negative bacteria end-organ CMV disease in H.I.V patients
Pseudomonas aeruginosa might be reasonable Foscarnet
treated with Ganciclovir
Cefotaxime Cidofovir
Ceftizoxime Acyclovir
Imipenum plus an aminoglycoside
All of the above Q.51 All of the following statements are true
about schizophrenia except
Q.45 Physiological processes mediated by the Bizarre delusion is suffice to make diagnosis of
intracellular second messenger, cyclic AMP: All schizophrenia
EXCEPT Dopaminergic receptors are involved in the
Carbohydrate breakdown by the liver pathogenesis of schizophrenia
Decreased heart rate Negative symptoms respond very easily to
Increased contractility mediation
Smooth muscle relaxation Early onset is a poor prognostic factor
Triglyceride breakdown
Q.52 All of the following statements are true
Q.46 Supra spinal analgesia is mediated by about intermittent explosive disorder except
Mu receptors only The etiology is most likely multifactorial
Delta receptors only Precipitating events are invariably present
Kappa receptors only Precipitating events are disproportionately
All of the above related to the event of the behavior
Disorder may derive from hormonal
Q.47 Beta-blocker with some intrinsic abnormalities
sympathomimetic properties
Propranolol Q.53 Which of the following statements is false
Metoprolol regarding bulimia nervosa?
Pindolol There is a prominent focus on body image
Wide fluctuations in weight are common about her risk of having another child who has a
Binges may be separated by prolonged periods chromosomal abnormality. The statement that
of normal eating you are MOST likely to include in your discussion
Documentation of some form of purging is that her risk
behaviour is necessary to establish diagnosis Can be estimated by determination of maternal
serum alpha-fetoprotein in all future
Q.54 All of the following statements are false pregnancies
about encopresis except Cannot be estimated until her infant?s
The symptom usually derives from delayed chromosome complement has been determined
nervous system maturation Is increased for Down syndrome, but not for any
The symptom usually indicates and underlying other chromosomal abnormality
gastrointestinal Pathology Is no greater than that of any other woman her
The symptom usually indicates an underlying age
psychotic disorder Is not increased until she reaches the age of 35
The symptom is never adequate to establish
diagnosis in children younger than 4 diagnosis Q.59 During delivery of an infant who has an
estimated gestational age of 42 weeks, you note
Q.55 Which of the following statement about that the amniotic fluid looks like pea soup and
learning disorder is most accurate? contains thick particles of meconium. Of the
Subtypes of the disorder include reading, following, the MOST important initial step in
writing, mathematics and humanities resuscitation of the infant is to
It is an equivalent but less pejorative term than Aspirate the gastric contents
mental retardation Determine the Apgar score
Achievement testing and intelligence testing Initiate tracheal intubation
reflect differential profile among individuals Provide positive pressure ventilation
with these disorders Suction the hypopharynx
They fall within the broader spectrum of
pervasive developmental disorder Q.60 A 3-day-old infant presents to the
emergency department with vomiting, lethargy,
Q.56 All of the following statements are false hypotonia, and jaundice. Physical examination
about electroconvulsive therapy except reveals hepatomegaly and neurologic
It often causes permanent brain damage depression. A full sepsis evaluation is
It is ineffective in psychotic depression undertaken, and the Gram stain of the
It is ineffective inpatients who have failed cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-negative
antidepressant medications organisms. Of the following, the BEST additional
It causes reversible memory problems laboratory test to obtain is
Erythrocyte galactose-1-phosphate
Q.57 The relationship between anxiety disorder Liver glycogen content
and depression is characterized by all of the Plasma insulin level
following statements except Plasma very long-chain fatty acids
Many patients with panic disorder become Stool porphyrins
depressed
Panic disorder and depression run in the same Q.61 A newborn whose estimated gestational
families age is 42 weeks is stained with meconium.
Many depressed patients are also anxious Tracheal intubation reveals meconium in the
Depression and anxiety usually alternate in hypopharynx as well as below the vocal cords.
patients with both symptoms The infant has respiratory distress. A chest
radiograph is obtained. Of the following, the
Q.58 A female infant born to a 24-year-old MOST likely radiographic finding is
woman has been diagnosed clinically as having Coarse infiltrates
Down syndrome. The mother is concerned Decreased lung volumes
Mediastinal shift seizure is
Pleural effusion Hyponatremia
Reticulogranular pattern Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
Intracranial hemorrhage
Q.62 A term newborn presents with bilious Meningitis
vomiting shortly after birth. Her abdomen is Pyridoxine dependency
distended slightly, and facial features are
characteristics of Down syndrome. She has Q.66 A 4-hour-old newborn has copious oral
passed a normal meconium stool. The secretions and episodes of coughing, choking
pregnancy was complicated by polyhydramnios. and cyanosis. The pregnancy was complicated
Of the following the MOST likely diagnosis is by polyhydramnios. You suspect esophageal
Duodenal atresia atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Of the
Hirschsprung disease following, the MOST helpful test to confirm the
Meconium ileus diagnosis is to
Midgut volvulus Inject a contrast medium through an orogastric
Pyloric stenosis catheter and obtain a neck radiograph
Obtain computed tomography of the neck
Q.63 An 18-year-old primigravida at 32 week?s Perform flexible bronchoscopy
gestation has a blood pressure of 148/96 mm Place an endotracheal tube and examine the
Hg, proteinuria, oliguria, and visual disturbances. endotracheal fluid
Labor is induced, and the infant is delivered. His Place an orogastric suction catheter and obtain a
weight is 850g (< 10th percentile), crown-heel chest radiograph
length is 38 cm (10th percentile), and head
circumference is 30 cm (50th percentile). Of the Q.67 A term infant is placed under a radiant
following, the MOST likely complication in this warmer, the skin is dried, and the oropharynx
infant is and nose are suctioned. After tactile stimulation
Anemia membrane disease there is minimal respiratory effort, dusky color,
Hyaline membrane disease and a heart rate of 86 beats/min. bag/mask
Hyperglycemia ventilation is performed for 30 seconds with
Meconium aspiration 100% oxygen at a rate of 40 to 60 breaths/min.
Perinatal asphyxia The heart rate increase to 100 beats/min. Of the
following , the NEXT best step is to:
Q.64 Early hospital discharge is defined as the Administer sodium bicarbonate
discharge of a newborn earlier than 48 hours Continue bag/mask ventilation at a rate of 20 to
following vaginal delivery or 96 hours following, 40 breaths/min
the MOST common reason for readmission to Continue ventilation and begin chest
the hospital within 7 days following an early compressions
discharge is Observes for spontaneous respiration and
Bacterial sepsis discontinues ventilation
Congenital heart disease Perform endotracheal intubation
Gastrointestinal malformation
Hyperbilirubinemia Q.68 A 900 g male infant is delivered vaginally to
Metabolic disorders a woman who had no prenatal care. Of the
following, the physical finding that is MOST
Q.65 A newborn infant is delivered by emergent consistent with prematurity rather than
cesarean section at 41 week?s gestation intrauterine growth restriction is
following a pregnancy complicated by a Creases over entire sole of foot
prolapsed umbilical cord and meconium-stained Descended testes with deep rugae of the
amniotic fluid. At 6 hours of age, the infant has a scrotum
generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Of the Formed and firm pinna with instant recoil
following, the MOST likely explanation for this Gelatinous translucent skin
Raised areola and 3 mm breast buds Left atrial size < 4 cm

Q.69 Rani, 29 yr old female presented with Q.76 Feature of WPW syndrome are all except
complaints of tightening of fingers, there is also Left sided accessory tract
history of dysphagia, most likely diagnosis Underlying heart normal in most cases
Systemic lupus erythematosa Association with ebstein anomaly
Systemic sclerosis Atrial fibrillation most common arythmmia
Dermatomyositis
Rheumatoid arthritis Q.77 The best marker in AMI with CRF is
CPK
Q.70 All of the following are true about Acne Myoglobin
vulgaris except Troponin I
Very common disorder of sebaceous follicles Troponin T
Familial & inheritance pattern is polygenic
For severe nodulocystic drug choice and Q.78 Containdicated in Digitalis toxicity is
retinoids DC Cardioversion
Steroid induced Acne are polymorphic Phenytoin
Q.71 If touching of the papule of secondary Antibodies
syphilis with the head of a pin is exquisitely Lignocaine
tender, then sign said to be positive is
Ollendrof sign Q.79 D/D of early systolic murmur is seen in all
Auspitz sign except
Button holing sign Small VSD
Asboe Hansen sign Very large VSD
Acute MR
Q.72 Genital ulcer may not be observed in MVP
Syphilis
LGV Q.80 Both restriction and constriction is seen in
Chancroid Radiation
Granuloma inguinale Amyloidosis
Hemochromatosis
Q.73 A patient has scaly lesions of the elbow and Hurlers disease
knee joint. Which of the following is a bedside
test for provisional diagnosis of the illness Q.81 Cardiac Tamponade without pulsus
Auspitz sign paradoxus is seen in
KOH ASD
Tzank smear VSD
Slit skin smear TR
MS
Q.74 Drug which is contraindicated in post M.I
pts is Q.82 Which is seen in reperfusion
Amiodarone AIVR
Lignocaine JT
Flecainide MAT
Procainimide VT

Q.75 IN a patient of A.F stroke risk is increased Q.83 All are tocolytics, EXCEPT
in all except Magnesium sulfate
C.H.F Nifedepine
Rheumatic heart disease Diazepam
Hypertension Atosiban
Vacuum extraction
Q.84 Complication unique to chorionic villus Kielland forceps
sampling is Manual rotation & forceps delivery
Infection
Abortion Q.92 In the Pritchard?s regime the therapeutic
Oligohdroamnios level of serum MgSO4 to be achieved is
Limb reduction defects 1 ? 2 meq/L
4 ? 7 meq/L
Q.85 The following remains unchanged in 8 ? 10 meq/L
pregnancy 10 ? 12 meq/L
Factor II
Platelet count Q.93 All are the about thyroid storm in
Factor XI pregnancy EXCEPT
Clotting time Carbimazole is the drug of choice
Is precipitated by LSCS
Q.86 Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrin in b-Blockers provide symptomatic reliefs
Atonic PPH Commonest cause is Grave?s disease
Induction of labor
Post 1st trimester m.t.p Q.94 The drug of choice for prophylaxis against
All of above recurrent UTI in pregnancy is
Ciprofloxacin
Q.87 Postpartum haemorrhage is treated with Ampicillin
all of the following, EXCEPT Nitrafurantoin
Prostaglandins Azithromycin
Intrauterine packing
B-Lynch sutures Q.95 In the management of a pregnant woman
Internal iliac (posterior division) ligation with a known case of epilepsy, all are indicated
EXCEPT
Q.88 Trial of scar is not attempted in Alteration of anticonvulsant dose
Previous LSCS Mid pregnancy Level II USG
CPD CT scan/MRI
IUGR Folic acid supplementation
All of the above
Q.96 All are true about, Anencephaly, EXCEPT
Q.89 All are the advantages of vacuum over Polyhdydroamnios
forceps delivery EXCEPT Postdatism
Lesser traction Face presentation
Lesser fetal morbidity None of the above
Lesser cervical dilatation requirement
Rotation & descent achieved Q.97 A pregnant diabetic female on oral
hypoglycemics is shifted to insulin. All of the
Q.90 All of the following are true about face following are true, EXCEPT
presentation, EXCEPT Insulin does not cross the placenta
Complete extension attitude During pregnancy insulin requirements increase
Left mentoanterior most common Tolbutamide crosses the placenta
Delayed labour Tolbutamide causes PIH
Mentoposterior position favored
Q.98 Which of the following ovarian tumors is
Q.91 In deep transverse arrest, the delivery of most likely to undergo torsion in pregnancy?
the baby is conducted by in modern obstetrics: Serous cystadenoma
Caesarean section Mucinous cystadenoma
Dermold oyst Stage IIb
Theca lutein cyst Stage IIa

Q.99 ? 24 years Mala C/O 4 and half weeks Q.105 The most common primary cancer of
amenorrhea & PV spotting 15 days back. O/E=P- fallopian tubes is
96b/m, BP-120/80 beta h.c.g. is positive and Clear cell carcinoma
USG reveals empty uterine cavity. Possible Mucinous carcinoma
diagnosis is: Serous cystadenocarcinoma
Ectopic pregnancy Solid adenocarcinoma
Abortion
Early intrauterine pregnancy Q.106 A 45 yr old male presents with a testicular
All of the above mass. FNAC showed a seminoma. CECT
abdomen showed 10x10cm lymph nodal mass
Q.100 In which of the following conditions, the extending from the superior mesenteric vessels
medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy is to the common iliac vessels. The treatment is
contraindicated? BEP chemotherapy
Sac size 3cm RT to retroperitioneal nodes
Blood in pelvis 50ml High inguinal orchiectomy and BEP
Presence of fetal heart activity chemotherapy
Previous ectopic pregnancy High inguinal orchiectomy and RT

Q.101 Optimal debulking in advanced ovarian Q.107 All of the following vessels are ligated in a
cancers is defined as right hemicolectomy except
No gross residual disease Right branch middle colic
No gross or microscopic disease Right colic
Tumor deposits 1cm or less Ileo-colic
Tumor deposits 2cm or more Main middle colic

Q.102 Adjuvant chemotherapy significantly Q.108 A 45 yr old female underwent open


improves survival in all of the following cancers cholecystectomy for gallstone disease. The
except: Pathology report showed a well differentiated
Glioblastomas adenocarcinoma of gall bladder confined to
Osteosarcomas mucosa. Further management is:
Soft tissue sarcomas Wedge resection liver
Colorectal cancers Wedge resection liver and portal
lymphadenectomy
Q.103 Locally advanced breast cancer includes Portal lymphadenectomy
all the TNM stages except No further treatment
T3N1M0
T2N2M0 Q.109 ?Gossypol? is
T3N0M0 Subdermal implant
T1N2M0 A male contraceptive
Obtained from cotton seed oil
Q.104 A 55 yr old female presents with All above except A
postmenopausal bleeding. Fractional curettage
showed adenocarcinoma of uterus. She Q.110 50 yrs old lady has discharge and irregular
underwent staging laparotomy and findings are bleeding PV. On PS cervix shows 1x1 cm nodule.
tumor involving the uterine serosa and Best method for diagnosis is
adenaxae. The stage is Cervical biopsy
Stage IIIa Colposcopy
Stage IIIb Papsmear
HPV DNA test Expansion of closed air spaces
Minimum cardiovascular side effects
Q.111 What is epophoron Slow induction and slow recovery
Vestigial structure of urogenital sinus Low blood gas partition coefficient
Remnant portion of wolfian ducts
Unfused portion of mullerian ducts Q.119 All the following liberate fluoride on
Part of mesonephric duct metabolism except
Halothane
Q.112 All in used for the treatment of post Sevoflurane
menopausal osteporosis except Desflurane
Bisphosphonates Isoflurane
SERMS
Isoflavones Q.120 The short acting opioid undergoing ester
HRT metabolism is
Alfentanil
Q.113 A gestational sac is seen on TVS when Fentanyl
BHCG is Remifentanil
1000 miu/ml Sufentanil
2000 miu/ml
3000 miu/ml Q.121 Which of these is a surface anesthetic?
6000 miu/ml Prilocaine
Ropivacaine
Q.114 Ormeloxifen used for contraception is Bupivacaine
given Mepivacaine
Daily
Weekly Q.122 True regarding malignant hyperthermia
Biweekly include all except:
Not used for it Most sensitive sign is an increase in end tidal
CO2
Q.115 Used in the treatment of precocious Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent
puberty sign
Gnrh agonist Increased susceptibility with the use of
Gnrh antagonist succinylcholine, halothane and lignocaine
Estrogen Hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis is
Proluton depo characteristic

Q.116 Neuromuscular blocker with shortest Q.123 All are the features of stellate ganglion
duration of action block except
Gantacurium Absence of ciliospinal reflex
Mivacurium Guttman?s sign
Scholine Proptosis
Rapacuronium Injection of tympanic membrane

Q.117 Which of these is used for local anesthetic Q.124 A 20 year old woman is admitted to
toxicity? labour room for elective caesarean section. She
Suggamadex is suffering from coarctation of aorta. When of
20% intralipid the following is the technique of choice?
Barium sulphate Spinal Anaesthesia
4 aminopyridine Epidural Anaesthesia
General Anaesthesia
Q.118 Not true about Xenon Anaesthesia : Local Anaesthesia with nerve block
Hairy tongue
Q.125 Most common site of supraglottic Ca is:
Infrahyoid epiglottis Q.131 A 6-year-old ramu has inspiratory stridor.
Suprahyoid epiglottis All the following disorders cause inspiratory
Aryepiglottic fold stridor except
False cords Epiglottitis
Acute bronchospasm
Q.126 ?Columella tympanoplasty? is Infectious laryngotracheitis
Type I Aspiration of a foreign body
Type II
Type III Q.132 80 yrs old ramu presented with insidious
Type IV dysphagia, referred otalgia and weight loss.
Indirect laryngoscopy revealed smooth surface
Q.127 Incorrect statement regarding nystagmus growth involving tip of epiglottic and left
of ?Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo? ? aryepiglottic fold with left vocal cord fixed.Direct
Several (2-to 10-) second latency laryngoscopy and biopsy confirmed the
Geotropic (beating toward the ground) diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma..Clinically
Horizontal-rotary the patient is suffering from :-
Lasts more than 60 seconds before abating Supraglottis Carcinoma Stage T??1
Supraglottis Carcinoma Stage T3
Q.128 A 2-year-old simran suddenly begins Supraglottis Carcinoma Stage T4a
choking and coughing while eating peanuts. On Supraglottis Carcinoma Stage T??4b
physical examination, she is coughing
frequently.She has inspiratory stridor and mild Q.133 Median weight of 100 children was 12 kg.
intercostals and suprasternal retractions. Initial The SD was 3. Calculate the percentage
management would include coefficient of variance
Back blows 20%
Abdominal thrusts 25%
Blind finger-sweeps of the hypopharynx 33%
Permitting her to clear the foreign body by 35%
coughing
Q.134 For testing the statistical significance of
Q.129 A newborn infant requires repeated the difference in the height of school children
resuscitations in the delivery room because of among three socioeconomic groups, the most
failure to breathe and cyanosis. During spells of appropriate test is
crying, which appear to alleviate the cyanosis, Chi square test
his breath and heart sounds are normal,as is Paired t test
direct laryngoscopy. Vigorous respiratory Un Paired t test
movements appear ineffectual. Immediate ANOVA
management of this infant consists of
Obtaining a chest x-ray Q.135 Which of the following is not included in
Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) the vision document of National Rural health
Arterial blood gas determinations Mission (NRHM)?
Inserting an oropharyngeal airway Raise Public spending on health from 0.95% of
GDP to 2-3% GDP
Q.130 Dorsal surface and sides of tongue Provision of ASHA in each village
covered by painless shallow or deep fissures is a Establishing multi specialty hospital in each
feature of: cluster of 50 villages
Median Rhomboid glossitis Effective integration of sanitation and safe
Scrotal tongue drinking water with health issues
Benign migratory glossitis
Q.136 Systemic observation and recording of Chi square test
activities of one or more individuals carried out Pearson?s correlation coefficient
at predetermined or random interval is termed ANOVA
as T-test
Network Analysis
Work Sampling Q.142 The planning and budgeting process
System analysis which requires each manager to justify the
None of the above entire budget in detail from ?scratch? is
Incremental approach of budgeting
Q.137 According to IMNCI, A sick young infant is Program budgeting
classified as LOW BODY TEMPERATURE when Zero based budgeting
the temperature is Flexible budgeting
36.5 ? 37.4 degrees C
35.5 ? 36.4 degrees C Q.143 Mass vaccination campaigns against one
34.5 ? 35.4 degrees C of the following disease would be imperative
33.5 ? 34.4 degrees C and helpful in times of disasters
Typhoid
Q.138 The comparisons made between the Cholera
disease rates during present period with the Scrub typhus
rates during the corresponding periods of the Measles
last 3 to 5 years is done to derive which type of
trends Q.144 According to NRHM Dengue mortality
Spatial trends should be reduced by _____ by 2010
Temporal trends 40%
Personal trends 50%
Disease trends 75%
60%
Q.139 For what two issues should a surveillance
system be periodically evaluated at the Q.145 Maximum number of Polio cases are
functional level occurring due to which strain
Incidence and prevalence Wild Polio Type I
Relevance and repeatability Wild Polio Type III
Completeness and accuracy Wild Polio Type I and III both
Sensitivity and specificity Wild Polio Type II

Q.140 Arrange the following steps in Q.146 Which of the following is not a
investigation of an epidemic, in the sequential & component of AFP SURVEILLAMCE?
ideal order:- (1)Develop the epidemiological Case notification
case sheet, (2) Testing the hypotheses, (3) Case in Laboratory investigation
Confirm the existence of an epidemic, (4) Out break response and active search in
Develop an Initial (Rough) ? Line- listing? of community
cases, (5) Develop valid case definition Attaining high routine immunization
3?4?5?1?2
4?5?2?1?3 Q.147 The goal of NIDDCP is
3?5?2?1?4 To reduce the prevalence of Iodine deficiency
2?3?4?5?1 disorders below 10 percent in the entire country
2012 AD
Q.141 The correct statistical procedure for To reduce the prevalence of iodine deficiency
studying the association between an exposure disorders below 5 percent in the entire country
and an outcome variable when both of them are by 2012 AD
measured on a continuous scale is To reduce the prevalence of iodine deficiency
disorders below 5 percent in the entire country Axillary nerve
by 2010 AD
None of the above Q.155 Which of the test is seen in anterior
dislocation of shoulder
Q.148 Vision 2020 ?The right to sight? include all Dugas test
except Thomas test
Trachoma Ober test
Epidemic conjunctivitis Phalen test
Cataract
Onchocerciasis Q.156 Prader-willi syndrome is due to following
genetic abnormalities EXCEPT
Q.149 The most common fracture to occur SNRPN gene
during child birth is NECDIN gene
Clavicle 15 q Deletions
Tibia PNTPN gene
Femur
Ulna Q.157 All of the following drug can be used in
treatment of SIADH EXCEPT
Q.150 The most common type of Tubercular Demeclocycline
involvement is Fodrocortisone
Posterior Conivapton
Anterior Low dose loop diuretic
Central
Para discal Q.158 All of following can be used as one of
modality in treatment of obesity EXCEPT
Q.151 The most common outcome of septic Leptin
arthritics is Octeriotide
Normal joint Metformin
Osteo arthritis Levo-thyroxin
Subluxation
Ankylosis Q.159 Dose of levothyroxin is decreased as
compared to usual replacement dose EXCEPT
Q.152 The most common nerve involved in Old age
Tarsal tunnel syndrome is Hypothyroidism after treatment of Graves
Radial nerve disease
Sciatic nerve Pregnancy
Femoral nerve Patient with AF/cardiac disease
Posterior Tibial nerve
Q.160 Which of the following disease HLA
Q.153 After closed fractures the type of nerve analysis may be of some use
injury is CYP21 A2 deficiency (21 beta hydroxylase)
Axonotmesis Metabolic syndrome
Neurotmesis Idiopathic weight loss
Neurapraxia Idiopathic alopecia
Any of the above
Q.161 Which of the following is most sensitive
Q.154 The most common nerve injury in fracture as well most specific biochemical test in case of
shaft humerus is pheocromocytoma
Radial nerve 24-h urine vanillylmandelic acid
Median nerve 24-h urine total metanephrine
Ulnar nerve Plasma free metanephrine
Plasma catecholamine hypnozoites

Q.162 Side effect of SITAGLIPTIN therapy are all Q.168 Which one of the following bacteria is
except most likely to be recovered from the
Nasopharingits cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of a newborn with
Skin rash meningitis
Acute ? pancreatitis Escherichia coli
Memory loss Streptococcus agalactiae
Haemophilus influenzae type b
Q.163 A type 2 Diabetes patient is having isteria monocytogenes
proteinuria >300 mg/g. Patient is intolerant to Streptococcus pneumoniae
ACE inhibitor and ARWhich of the following will
be next best drug in this case Q.169 The following diseases caused by bacteria
Diltiazem are due to the exotoxins produced by them
Amlodepin except
Prazosin Diphtheria
Atenolol Cholera
Salmonellosis
Q.164 The following methods of diagnosis utilize Tetanus
labeled antibodies except: Botulism
ELISA (Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay)
Haemagglutination inhibition test Q.170 Which of the serovas of chlamydia are
Radio immunoassay responsible for inclusion conjunctivitis
Immunofluorescence A, B, Ba,c
D-K
Q.165 Which of the facts about sterilization is L1-L3
true None of the above
Sharp instruments are best sterilized in hot air Q.171 Viral cultivation is better in chick embryo
owen than animal inoculation because chick embryo
Paraffin is sterilized by autoclaving Clean and bacteriologically sterile
Plastic syringes are sterilized by UV radiation Do not have immuno mechanisms
Pasteurization is the same as sterilization Do not need feeding and caging
Offers several sites of cultivation of viruses
Q.166 The treatment of choice for neo- All of the above
vascularisation at disc (NVD) in a 32 years male
with Eales disease is: Q.172 Which of the following viruses is/are
Sub conjunctional steroid injection associated with the development of
Intra venous pulse steroids hepatocellular carcinoma
Anti-tubercular therapy Hepatitis C virus
Pan-retinal photocoagulation Woodchuck hepatitis virus
Ground squirrel hepatitis virus
Q.167 Plasmodia responsible for a specific case All of the above
of malaria generally are identified by:
Cultural characteristic of the organisms on Q.173 Which of the following structural features
media containing red blood cells is not true of retroviruses
Morphological characteristic of the organisms in Lipid envelope
samples of infected blood Ds RNA
The latent period of the exorythrocytic cycle Virus associated reverse transcriptase
The protozoa immobilization test (PIT) with Genome is surrounded by a protein core
specific antisera Replication via a DNA intermediate
The result of an hepatic biopsy searching for
Q.174 Which of the following techniques
performed during resection of tumors is best in Q.180 Most common condition diagnosed
determining whether the resection is adequate erroneously as Acute appendicitis is
to reduce the probability of a recurrence Mesenteric lymphadenitis
Electron microscopy PID
Serum tumor marker Perforated DU
Frozen section CPW
Fine-needle aspiration cytology
Flow cytometry Q.181 Which of the following proteins is
involved in the pathogenesis of dementia in a 49
Q.175 Which of these is not true regarding year old man with Down syndrome
klinefelter syndrome Pre-albumin
Two or more X chromosomes, one or more Y eta amyloid protein
chromosomes Beta 2 microglobulin
Incidence is 1 in 850 live male births Light chains
Usually diagnosed in infancy serum associated amyloid protein
Patient has eunuchoid body habits, small
atrophic testes & small penis with ? estradiol, ? Q.182 Which of these statements is not true
testosterone levels Th1 subset is involved in facilitating delayed
hypersensitivity
Q.176 Which one of the following is not a h2 subset aids in synthesis of antibodies
criterion for making a diagnosis of chronic including IgE
myeloid leukemia in accelerated phase- Th1 subset secretes IL-4, IL-5
Blasts 10-19% of WBC's in peripheral blood CD8+ T cells act primarily as cytotoxic cells
Basophils 10-19% of WBC'S in peripheral blood
Increasing spleen size unresponsive to therapy Q.183 Which of these signal transudation
Persistent thrombocytosis (> 1000x109 /L) pathway is not associated with receptors with
unresponsive to therapy intrinsic tyrosine kinas activity
MAP- kinas pathway
Q.177 Following are recognized complications of P3 pathway
type B hepatitis except Jak/STAT pathway
Aplastic Anemia None of the above
Brain abscess
Persistent hepatitis Q.184 The following statements are true about
GN fatty change in liver, except:-
Is grossly identified by an enlarged organ with a
Q.178 All of the following are examples of Prions yellow and greasy cut surface.
disease, except: an be confirmed by doing a oil-red-o stain on
Cruetzfeldt Jacob Disease (CJD) frozen section
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy Not associated with protein ? calorie
(PML) malnutrition
Scrapie, Is characterized by accumulation of triglyceride
Gerstmann-Straussler Scheinker syndrome within hepatocytes

Q.179 Tumors in Anal canal showing brownish Q.185 All of the following are true except :
pigment and prominent nucleoli & spindle cell Basilar membrane near to helicotrema responds
morphology. IHC marker positive is to higher frequencies
HMB ? 45 3 layers of outer hair cells and one layer of inner
CD ? 117 hair cells are present on organ of corti
CD ? 99 Reisner?s membrance separates perilymph form
Vimentin endolymph
Scala media is +85 mv with respect to scala Q.192 A 23 year old female has a central nebular
vestibuli corneal opacity. Which of the following is the
recent advance in the management of this
Q.186 All are true about muscle spindle except condition?
Peripheral region is contractile Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK)
It is innervated by ? motor neuron Phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK)
It is the receptor for both stretch reflex and Lamellar keratoplasty
inverse stretch reflex E-LASIK
It can sense both length and rate of change of
length Q.193 A 63 years old patient has a unilateral
downward and medial proptosis associated with
Q.187 Most important factor in transport of CO2 pain. Based on information available, likely
as bicarbonate cause may be:
Hb Ethmoidal mucocele
Carbonic anhydrase Benign lacrimal gland tumor
Acid ? base buffer Optic nerve sheath meningioma
Heldane effect Malignant lacrimal gland tumor

Q.188 Hyper-chloremic metabolic acidosis is Q.194 A 6 year old boy has ulcerative blepharitis
associated with with LE catarrhal ulcer (marginal keratitis). Likely
Increased anion gap causative organism will be:
Normal anion gap Streptococcus Sp.
Decreased anion gap Staph aureus
Zero anion gap H-influenzae
E. coli
Q.189 Renal body fluid volume mechanism for
regulating arterial pressure is important for Q.195 A mother brings her 4 month old child
Raising BP when person stands suddenly from a with complaints of slight drifting in of the eyes.
lying down position In assessing possible squint in this child, which
Minimize the decrease in arterial pressure facial factor may contribute to the appearance
following severe hemorrhage of squint?
Maintaining BP at normal level on long term Wide nasal bridge
basis Mongoloid angulations of eyelids
Increasing BP during heavy exercise Anti-mongoloid angulations of eyelids
Lid colobomas
Q.190 All are true about venous pressure except
CVP decreases with inspiration Q.196 Which of the following enzymes is useful
Pressure is superior sagittal sinus is -10 mmHg in detecting successful ligation in cloning?
approx. in standing position. Terminal transferase
Pressure is neck vein is Zero in standing position Beta galactosidase
Peripheral and central venous pressures are Methylase
exactly equal in supine position. Polymerase

Q.191 In isotonic exercise all are true except : Q.197 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated
Arterio- Venous O2 differences rises by all mechanisms EXCEPT:
TPR ? Operon system
Increase in muscle blood flow is mainly because Genomic remodeling
of auto regulation Gene amplification
Muscle blood flow stops when muscle develops Gene transposition
70% of its maximum tension. Gene rearrangement
Q.198 Methylation is helpful in all EXCEPT:
Regulation of genetic expression
Part of restriction modification system
Post transcriptional modification
DNA repair
DNA replication

Q.199 In CURL, LDL is separated from receptor


due to:
Proton pump
Na K ATPase pump
Lysosomal proteases
ACAT

Q.200 How many amino acids are catabolized


per turn of urea cycle?
0ne
Two
Three
Four