CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM

1.It is an accusation in writing charging a person with an offence subscribed by the prosecutor or fiscal and filled with the court.
a. Arrest b. Information c. Complaint d. Warrant of Arrest
2. It is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offence, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other public officer
charge with the enforcement of the law violated.
a. information b. Search Warrant c. Complaint d. Warrant of arrest
3. It is defined as such facts and circumstances which would lead a reasonable discreet and prudent man to believed that an offence has been
committed and that the objects sought in connection with the offence are in the place sought to be searched.
a. Personal knowledge b. probable Cause c. Proof beyond reasonable doubt d. Principle of innocence
4. In this Principle, the law requires that there be first a lawful arrest before a search can be made.
a. plain view doctrine b. Stop and frisk doctrine c. Searched incident to lawful arrest d. inspection search
5. ___and____ courts gain jurisdiction over the offence upon the filing of complaint by a complainant or an information by the prosecuting officer.
a. MTC and CA b. MTC and SC c. MTC and SB d. MTC and RTC
6. Jurisdiction of the court over the offence is determined.
a. At the time of institution of the action b. At the time of the arrest of the accused c. At the time of voluntary surrender of the accused
d. At the time of the commission of the offence
7. Remedies of offended party when fiscal unreasonably refuses to file information or include a person therein as an accused.
a. In case of grave abuse of discretion, action for mandamus
b. Lodge a new complaint against the offender
c. Take up mater with the secretary of Justice
d. All of the above
8. Which of the following offences is subject to summary procedure?
a. Violation of traffic law b. Violation of municipal or city ordinance c. Violation of Rental laws d. All of the above
9. In criminal cases covered by the rules on summary procedure shall be deemed commenced only when it is filed in
a. The prosecutor’s office b. Lupon of the barangay c. The court d. None of the above
10. in which of the following cases may only the offended spouse may file the complaint.
a. Rape b. seduction c. Adultery and Concubinage d. Acts of lasciviousness
11. The civil Action involves an issue similar or intimately related to the issue raised in the criminal action.
a. Duplicity of offence b. Double jeopardy c. prejudicial question dd. None of the above
12. The place of trial for a criminal action is cited.
a. Territory b. Action c. Jurisdiction d. venue
13. The primary purpose of bail is
a. To protect the accuse rights b. To keep the accused in jail until trial c. To punish the accused for the crime
d. to release the accused
14. The authority of the court to take cognizance of a case in the first instance is known as:
a. original jurisdiction b. appellate jurisdiction c. general jurisdiction d. delegated jurisdiction
15. He shall have the direction and control in the prosecution of all criminal actions either commenced by com plaint or by information.
a. Public Prosecutors or fiscal b. clerk of court c. Judge d. Investigator on case
16. It is addressed directly to the senses of the court. These are tangible things that may be exhibited or examined or demonstrated in open court
for ocular inspection.
a. Documentary b. Testimonial c. Object or real d. Relevant
17. It is an act, declaration, or omission of a party as to a relevant fact may be given in evidence against him.
a. Confession b. Declaration c. Narration d. Admission
18. It is the disclosure of the acknowledgement of one’s guilt.
a. Declaration b. Confession c. Conversation d. Admission
19. It is under supervision and control of the DOJ and is tasked as the prosecutorial arm of the government.
a. offence b. penology c. national prosecution service d. National Bureau of Investigation
20. What is Called as the mechanical device, contrivance or tools used to hold back, keep in check or under control a prisoner?
a. Instrument of restraint b. iron leg lock c. handcuffs d. metallic chains
21. If the adverse party is not contented with the resolution of the investigating prosecutor or want to reverse the resolution, said adverse party
should file a review with the?
a. Supreme Court b. Public attorney’s office c. Department of justice d. City prosecutors Office
22. When a criminal action is instituted, the civil action for the recovery of civil liability arising from the offence charged shall be_________ unless
the offended party waives the civil action, reserves the right to institute it separately of institutes the civil action prior to the criminal action.
a. Deemed Institute b. Deemed waived c. Deemed reserved d. Deemed taken for granted
23. The duty of the investigating prosecutor in filing criminal cases is to determine the?
a. Crime b. Penalty c. Existence of probable causes d. Civil liability
24. After the determination of the investigating prosecutor, he will make an order which is called?
a. Judgment b. Resolution c. Notice d. Subpoena
25. The investigating public prosecutor where the case is filed has only the _____ power?
a. Recommendatory b. Approval c. Absolute d. Investigating
26. The chief public prosecutor has the _________________power
a. Recommendatory b. Approval/Reversal c. Absolute d. Investigating
27. The Department of Justice is under _______________ branch of the Government?
a. Judiciary b. Supreme Court c. Legislative d. Executive
28. Who are the officers authorized to conduct preliminary investigation?
a. Provincial or City Prosecutors and their assistants
b. Judges of the Municipal trial Courts and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts
c. National and regional State Prosecutors
d. all of the above
29. Where an offence is committed in a train, aircraft, or other public or private vehicle while in the course of its trip, the criminall action shall be
instituted and tried in the court of any municipality or territory where such train, aircraft, or other vehicle passed during such its trip, the place of
its departure and arrival, this is called?
a. Transitory Crimes/Continuing crime b. Perfect Crime c. Crime Scene d. Crime of Passion
30. Under the rules On Criminal Procedure, a person may validly arrest without a warrant of arrest, this legal provision may found in what rule?
a. Rule 111, Section 1 b. Rule 114, Section 14 c. Rule 113 Section 5 d. Rule 115 Section 1
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM– COURT
1.. The provision remedies, in so far are applicable, may be available of in connection with the civil action deemed instituted in______?
a. Civil Case b. Criminal Action c. Administrative Action d. Remedial Action
2. This doctrine means that an unlawful search taints not only the evidence obtained there at but also facts discovered by reason of unlawful
search.
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt b. Burden of Proof c. Fruits of Poisonous Tree d. Border Search
3. This rule commands that evidence obtained by an unreasonable search and seizure is excluded from evidence.
a. Consented warrantless Search b. Stop and frisk on terry search c. Exclusionary Rule d. Inspection search
5. It is a ground for new trial except:
a. Error of law b. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of the accused have been committed during the trial
c. Failure to conduct preliminary Investigation d. Newly discovered evidence has been discovered which accused could not with
reasonable diligent have discovered and produced at the trial and submitted would probably change the judgment.
6. it is the motion which can interrupt the running of the fifteen (15) day period to perfect an appeal.
a. Motion for new trial B. Motion in Quash c. Motion for Reconsideration d. Motion for probation
7. How long is given to the accused to apply for probation if he did not want to make his appeal.
a. 30days b. 45days c. 15days d. 20days
8. Who may appeal?
a. Only the accused b. Only the Complainant c. Any Party d. The prosecutor
9. In cases divided by the Metropolitan Trial Court, where should the appeal be filed?
a. To the court of Appeals b. To the Regional Trial Courts c. To the supreme Court d. To the Municipal Trial Courts
10. In case decided by the court of Appeal where should the appeal be filed.
a. To the Supreme Court b. To the Sandigan Bayan c. To the Solicitor General d. To the Court of Appeals it self
11. What is the remedy of the accused in case a final judgment of the conviction was rendered by the metropolitan Trial courts.?
a. File an appeal b. File a motion c. File a Motion to quash the information d. File a motion for new trial
12. Who may Appeal from a judgment or final order of the court?
a. Prosecution only b. Defense only c. Any party d. The Judge
13. When can a final judgment becomes final.?
a. Upon the expiration of the period for perfecting an appeal therefrom if no appeal has been duly perfected.
b. Upon the expiration of the period of 30 days.
c. upon the expiration of the period of 10 days.
d. Upon the expiration of the period of 20 days
14. When is an Appeal be taken?
a. Within fifteen (15) days from promulgation of the judgment b. Within five (5) days from the promulgation of the judgment
c. Within thirty (30) days from promulgation of the judgment d. . Within twenty (20) days from promulgation of the judgment
15. Joseph was convicted by final judgment for the crime of murder. He was sentenced with an imprisonment of Reclusion Perpetua. He did not
appeal. The judgment became final and executor. The Supreme Court by its own power (motu propio) reviewed the judgment. Is the Supreme
Court correct?
a. No, because john did not appeal his judgment.
B. No, because the proper person in interest (john) no longer wants to appeal his case.
c. Yes, the Supreme Court has the power to review judgment with maximum penalty of Reclusion Perpetua, automatically.
d. No, It is only the accused who can appeal his case.
16. The word “Promulgation” refers to____________.
a. Case Record b. Judgment c. Order d. Trial
17. The word “Notice” refers to?
a. Judgment b. Case Record c. Trial d. Order
18. within how many days should the clerk of court with whom the notice of appeal was filed must transmit to the clerk of court of the appellate
court complete record of the case together with the said notice.
a. Ten days b. Fifteen Days c. Within ten days but not earlier than seven days from the promulgation of the court.
19. There is a uniform procedure in the Municipal Trial Courts except:
a. In the Municipal Circuit trial Court b. Metropolitan Trial courts c. Municipal Trial courts in the Cities
d. In criminal cases governed by the revised Rules on summary procedure.
20. In all criminal cases appealed to the court of Appeals the party appealing the case shall be called the?
A, Complaint b. Appellant c. Apellee d. Respondent
21. What should be the proper penalty to be imposed upon the accused who committed the crime of murder?
a. Death Penalty b. Reclusion Temporal c. Reclusion Perpetua to Death d. Prison Correctional
22. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by the judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding
him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
a. Warrant of Arrest b. Complaint c. Information d. Search Warrant
23. It refers to person and places particularly described thoroughly investigated or searched.
a. Seizure b. Search c. Confiscation d. Confiscation
24.It refers to things Particularity described to be taken away or confiscated or to seized.
a. Search b. Seizure c. Looking for someone d. Thorough investigation
25.If the criminal action has already been filed where should the application for search warrant be filed?
a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction of a crime was committed.
b. Any court within the judicial region where the crime was committed.
c. Any court within the judicial region where the warrant shall be enforced.
d. In the court Where the criminal action is pending
26. A search warrant may be issued for the search and seizure for this kind of property.
a. Real property b. Paraphernalia Property c. Personal property d. Capital Property
27. During the arraignment, the Accused must be__________.
a. Represented by proxy b. Present Personally c. Out of the country d. Represented by the prosecutor
28. What plea is recorded or entered for the accused if he refuse to plead?
a. Plea of guilty b. Plea of not guilty c. No plea is entered d. Improvident plea of guilty
29. The reading of the complaint or information during the arraignment shall be done in what dialect or language?
a. In English only b. In Tagalog only c. In Spanish d. In the dialect or language known by the accused
30. Total Criminal liability is extinguished except by:
a. By service of sentenced b. By absolute Pardon c. By prescription of crime d. By conditional pardon
31. It is the loss of waiver of the state of its right to prosecute an act prohibited and punished by law.
a. Prescription of jurisdiction b. Prescription of venue c. Prescription of Crime d. Prescription of penalty
32. He shall have the direction and control in the prosecution of all criminal action either commenced by complaint or by information.
a. Public prosecutor or fiscal b. Clerk of court c. Judge d. Investigator on case
33. It has the power to order a change of venue or place of trial to avoid a miscarriage of justice.
a. Congress b. Court of Appeals c. Supreme Court d. Senate
34. The proper officer who issues a warrant of arrest.
a. Public Prosecutor b. Chief of Police c. Judge d. Clerk of court
35. It is defined as such facts and circumstances which would lead a reasonable discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the offender are in the place sought to be searched.
A. Personal Knowledge b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt c. Probable cause d. Principle of Innocent
36. Requisites of a valid search warrant except:
a. It must be upon probable cause
b. The search warrant must particularly describe the place to be search and the things to be seized.
c. The search warrant must be issued in connection with the specific offense
d. The search warrant must involve real properties
37. How should a search of a house, room, or any other premises be made?
a. Presence of a lawful occupant family b. Presence of any member of the occupant’s family
c. Two witnesses of sufficient age and discretion d. All of the above
38. The validity of the search warrant.
a. Ten (10) days from its date b. Fifteen (15) days from its date c. Seven (7) days from its date
d. Five (5) days from its date
39. To whom the officer who served the search warrant return the property seized?
a. To the prosecutor b. To the Judge who Issued the warrant c. To the complaint d. To the clerk of court
40. What is the mandatory action of the Judge in case the accused pleads guilty to a capital offense?
a. Allows such plea
b. Conduct a searching inquiry in to the voluntariness and full comprehension of the consequences of his plea
c. Move for the dismissal of the case
d. Sentenced such accused
41. That the accused has been previously convicted or acquitted of the offense charge, or the case against him was dismissed or otherwise
terminated without his express consent, this ground for motion to quash is also called?
a. Les Pendens b. Bar by Statue of Limitation c. Double Joepardy d. Right against self-incrimination
42. The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by imprisonment not exceeding six (6) years or a fine of any amount, or both, shall become
permanent ____? Year after issuance of the order without the case having been revived.
a. 2years b. 5 years c. 1 year d. 4 years
43.With respect to offenses punishable by imprisonment of more than six (6) years, their provisional dismissal shall become permanent in____?
Years after issuance of the order without the case having been revived.
a. 2years b. 5 years c. 1 year d. 4years
44. After the prosecution has rested its case, the accused may after evaluating the weak evidence presented against him may file a?
a. Motion to Quash b. Motion to Dismiss c. Demurrer to evidence d. Motion to Quashed the arrest
45. In the execution of search warrant, the searching must be must be done in the presence of?
a. Seizing Officer b. Commanding Officer c. At least (2) two witnesses residing in same location
d. relatives of the subject place of the search
46. When two or more persons are jointly charge with the commission of any offense, upon motion of the prosecution before resting its case, the
court may direct one or more of the accused to be discharged with their consent so that they may be witnesses for the state provided said state
witness must.
a. Not convicted for any crime involving moral turpitude b. Not a fight risk
c. Not a recidivist d. Not a habitual delinquent

47. When the accused is discharge as state witness said discharge order operates as an?
a. Conviction b. Dismissal c. Acquittal d. Double Jeopardy
48. The order in the examination of an individual witness is the following.
a. Cross, Direct, and Re-cross b. Re-direct, Direct, Re-cross, and cross
c. cross, Direct, Re-direct, and Re-cross d. Direct, Cross, Re-direct, and Re-cross
49. An order issued to a person to appear and testify is called?
a. Subpoena Duces Tecum b. Subpoena Ad Testificandum c. Summons d. Invitation letter
50. An order issued to a person to appear and bring documents mentioned therein and testify before the court regarding document is called ?
a. Subpoena Duces Tecum b. Subpoena Ad Testificandum c. Summons d. Invitation letter
51. the opinion of the witness on a matter requiring special knowledge, skills, experience or training which he is shown to possess, may be received
in the evidence and his is called?
a. Opinion of ordinary witness b. opinion of expert witness c. Ordinary witness d. Extra ordinary witness
52. A kind of ruling in the court pertaining to objection which is not meritorious is called?
a. Misleading Question b. Sustained c. Leading Question d. Over Ruled
53.A doctrine in the rules on evidence that a conversations communicated to a witness by a third person may be admitted as a proof that,
regardless of their truth of falsity, they were actually made. It appears to be hearsay in character, but is not actually legal hearsay.
a. Admission by Silence b. Hearsay rule c. Res Inter Alios Acta d. Independent Relevant Statement
54. The declaration of a dying person, made under the Consciousness of an impending death, may be received in any cases wherein his death is the
subject or inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of such death.
a. Dying declaration b. Res Inter Alios Acta c. Res Gestae d. Admission by silence
55. A kind of ruling in the court pertaining to objection which the court favored such objection is called?
a. Misleading Question b. Sustained c. Leading Question d. Over Ruled
56. A kind of ruling in the court pertaining to objection which the court favored such objection is called?
a. Misleading question b. Sustained c. Leading question d. Over ruled
57. An outward pledge by the person taking t that his attestation or promise is made under immediate sense of responsibility to God To witness the
truth of what he declares and implications of punishment if it is false.
a. Attestation b. Affirmation c. Oath d. Confirmation
58. In case of oral defamation, where the priest is the only available witness, can a priest testify as to the allege defamatory words given to him by
the accused during confession.
a. No, because of the privilege given by a patient to a doctor
b. No because of the privilege given to a husband to a wife
c. Yes, Because of the privilege communication given to an attorney by a client
d. No, because of the because of privilege communication given by a patient to a priest
59. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case?
a. Yes, the privilege of marital communication rule is already abolished b. Yes, under the law she is a competent as a witness
c. No, she is incompetent as witness d. Yes, because crime charge is one committed by the wife
60. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case?
a. Yes, the privilege of marital communication rule is already abolished
b. Yes, under the law she is a competent as a witness
c. No, she is incompetent as witness
d. Yes, because crime charge is one committed by the wife
61. Documents consisting of entries in public records made in the performance of a duty of a public officer are prima facie evidence of the facts
therein stated is called.
a. Private documents b. Public documents c. Official Gazzete d. Tabloid
62. A kind of question which suggest to the witness the answer which the examining party desires. It is not allowed under the rule.
a. Misleading Question b. Leading Question c. Frequently Asked Question d. Allowed Question
63. On a trial or hearing, the judge may exclude from the court nay witness not at the time under examination, so that he may no hear the
testimony of other witness. The judge may also cause witness to be kept separate and to be prevented from conversing with another until all shall
have been examined.
a. Misleading Question b. Leading Question c. Frequently Asked Question d. Exclusion and Separation of Witness
64. It is a rule that provides that where the evidence in a criminal case evidently balanced, the constitutional presumption of innocence tilts the
scales in favor of the accused is called?
a. Equipoise Rule b. Independent Relevant Statement c. Dead Man’s Statute d. Res Inter Alios Acta
65. Exception to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death.
A. Parole Evidence b. Anti-mortem statement c. Dead man’s Statute d. Post mortem statement
66. An accused may not be discharged as to act state witness if he has been convicted of a crime involving?
a. Moral turpitude b. Reckless Imprudence c. Infraction of Law c. Violation of City Ordinance
67. A detained prisoner is allowed to eat and drink in a nearby restaurant on several occasions. He is, however, well-guarded at all times. The
warden allowed him to go out of his cell without any consideration whatsoever. The warden may be charge with
a. Negligence of duty b. Leniency or laxity c. Dereliction of duty d. Infidelity
68. It is a type of authentication that if the real evidence is of a type which cannot easily be recognized or can readily be confused or tampered
with, the proponent of the object must present evidence of its?
a. Documentary b. By testimony c. Chain of custody d. Post mortem statement
69. Object evidence is a tangible things submitted to the court for inspection, exhibition, or demonstration, or viewing which enables the court to
directly use its senses and to perceive facts about this thing in evidence is also called?
a. Documentary b. Testimonial c. Autoptic Proference d. Relevant
70. Pedro and juan are brother-in laws, they where also mortal enemies. One time, Pedro threatened to kill juan. Pedro has a common reputation
of being a killer. One night, in dark alley, Pedro suddenly shot juan using unknown type of firearm. Before Pedro Could escape, Juan was able to
identify him and made known his identity to first responder, PO3 Emmanuel chased and eventually arrested Pedro on the basis of such declaration.
a. Circumstantial b. Testimonial c. Dying Declaration d. Direct
71. One who transcribes the proceeding of the court in shorthand and later typewriters said proceeding.
a. Stenographer b. Clerk Typist c. Interpreter d. Process server
72. Refers to those whose mental condition is such that they are incapable of making known their perception to others and such mental condition
must exist at the time of their production for examination is?
a. Mental Incapacity b. Mental Immaturity c. Psychological condition d. Mental condition
73. A witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of his personal knowledge; that is, which are derived from his own?
a. Perspective b. Idea c. Perception d. Prerogative
74. It is a disqualification by reason of privileged communication wherein a person cannot be examined during his term of office or afterwards, as
to communications made to him in confidence, when the courts find that the public interest would suffer by such disclosure?
a. Minister of Priest b. Husband or the Wife c. Attorney d. Public officer
75. What crime exists when a act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies or when an offence is a necessary means for commmiting the
other?
a. Complex b. Composite c. Continuing Compound

CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM - CORRECTION

1.The filing of the petition for__________ is considered a waiver on the accused’s right to appeal, makes his conviction final the moment he files
said application.
a. New Trial b. Probation c. Motion for Reconsideration d. Appeal
2. It is the authority of the president of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability.
a. Parole b. Executive clemency c. Pardon d. President Clemency
3. The B.J.M.P IS UNDER THE ADMINISTRATION OF THE:
a. Executive Department b. P.N.P c. D.I.L.G d. D.O.J
4. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at any time. His bedding’s, lockers and personal belongings may also be
opened at any time, in his presence, whenever possible. This practice is known as:
a. Check and Balance b. S.O.P c. Inventory d. Operation Grayhound
5. It refers to the commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offence.
a. Recidivism b. Delinquency c. Quasi-recidivism d. City prisoner
6. What document is issued to a parolee when the maximum period of his prison term has expired?
a. Certificate of final discharge b. Certificate of prison term completion
c. Certificate of final release d. Certificate of final release and discharge
7. The Judge will base the grant of probation on the report of the _______.
a. Social worker b. Probation officer c. Prosecutor d. police officer
8. Which of the following is considered in the grant of conditional pardon?
a. Good conduct shown b. Discipline of the prisoner
c. old age provided that he was not yet 60 years old at the time of his commitment to prison
d. Length of time spend in prison
9. The following are forms of executive clemency, Except
a. Commutation b. Reform model c. Amnesty d. Pardon