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You are treating an obese black male patient who complains of severe headache for the last 14 hours. He also appears weak, feels dizzy, and has blurred vision. His blood pressure is 234/138, pulse is 98 and regular, respirations are 18. During your examination the patient becomes more confused and less responsive. There is no evidence of trauma. This patient is probably experiencing a(an): Your Answer: hypertensive emergency.

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Which arrhythmias can be best treated by pacing? Your Answer: ventricular asystole and ventricular fibrillation Correct Answer: high-grade block (complete heart block) and asystole Pacing may be tried for complete heart block and asystole, while defibrillation may be used to convert ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation to a useful rhythm.

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All of the following may be used for defibrillation paddle-skin interface except: Your Answer: alcohol pads.

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Where is atrial repolarization shown on an EKG? Your Answer: buried in the QRS complex

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Which is not a symptom of cardiac tamponade? Your Answer: distant heart sounds Correct Answer: ankle edema Ankle edema is a symptom of heart failure, not of cardiac tamponade. Ankle edema develops over days to weeks, while cardiac tamponade develops over hours.

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The correct dosage of atropine for a cardiac patient with a bradycardia of 30 and hypotension is: Your Answer: 5 mg IV bolus. Correct Answer: 0.5 mg IV push, repeated every five minutes until

12 seconds. repeated every five minutes until total dose of 2. 9. causing depolarization and contraction.0 mg or until appropriate effect (whichever comes first). The upper limit to the normal duration of the QRS is: Your Answer: 0. In this patient. All of the following are common side effects of verapamil except: Your Answer: premature ventricular contractions. Certain cells of the myocardium are capable of generating and conducting electrical activity. The leading cause of death in a patient with an acute myocardial infarction is: Your Answer: dysrhythmia. 7.5 mg IV push. . atropine would be administered as 0. 8.total dose of 2. Status epilepticus can be defined as: Your Answer: repetitive seizures without periods of awakening.0 mg or until appropriate effect (whichever comes first). This property is called: Your Answer: automaticity. 10. What are the important aspects of a seizure that should be noted? Your Answer: all of the above 2.

and a continuous throbbing headache. 4. A patient who is alert and oriented times four is aware of: Your Answer: all of the above 8. When would it be appropriate to administer 50 percent glucose (D50W)? Your Answer: for coma of unknown etiology 6. You should suspect: Your Answer: meningitis. Your patient is a 20-year-old college student who is complaining about a stiff neck. What is the postictal state? Your Answer: The confusion and fatigue felt after a seizure . 5. All of the following are main characteristics of Parkinson's disease except: Your Answer: tachykinesia. The neural defect that results in the failure of a fetal vertebrae to properly close is called: Your Answer: spinal bifida.3. 7. fever.

10. A joint that has become partially separated is called a(n): Your Answer: dislocation. Fibrinolytic therapy may be beneficial in the brain attack patient if initiated within: Your Answer: 3 hours. Before testing an unconscious head-injured patient's response to pain. 3. A joint that has become partially separated from its position in the joint capsule is described as a subluxation. 1. Correct Answer: subluxation. For which of the following injuries could the pneumatic anti-shock garment (PASG) be used for splinting? Your Answer: pelvic fractures Correct Answer: all of the above The PASG can be used as an air splint for any fracture of the pelvis or lower extremities. Pain and tenderness in the region of the symphysis pubis is indicative of a: Your Answer: pelvic fracture. 2. you should first: Your Answer: protect the neck. Correct Answer: distal neurovascular compromise is noted. . The paramedic should attempt to straighten a dislocated knee if: Your Answer: straightening should never be performed by the paramedic.9. 4.

Prehospital reduction of dislocations is difficult and contains inherent risks such as trapping blood vessels and nerves in the joint capsule as relocation takes place. 8. Care of an open fracture in which the bone is protruding from the body includes: Your Answer: covering the bone and wound with sterile dressing prior to splinting. Which of the following statements is true concerning an anterior hip dislocation? Your Answer: It presents with foot turned outward and the femoral head is palpable in the groin area. 6. Subsequently. An injury in which the ligaments of a joint are injured is called a: Your Answer: sprain. Correct Answer: all of the above. Compression of these nerves and/or blood vessels can cause distal tissue damage and death. the paramedic should try to straighten the dislocation until the deficit is restored. The strong fibrous cords that attach muscle to bone are called: Your Answer: tendons. 7. 9. . if the patient does not have pulses or sensation in the distal extremity.Critical blood vessels and nerves that support the distal extremity run near the surface of the knee. or if other injuries or a fracture is suspected in the area of the dislocation. 5. Therefore. Contraindications to the reduction of a joint in the prehospital setting include: Your Answer: possibility of a fracture in the area of the dislocation. relocation should not occur if transport time is short.

the paramedic should avoid purposely testing for: . When assessing obvious angulation to an extremity.10.