Professional Documents
Culture Documents
GS Test – 10
Question Paper
1. Which of the following is NOT the vision area of Digital India as a program to
transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy?
(a) Infrastructure as a utility to every citizen.
(b) Governance and services on demand.
(c) Digital empowerment of citizens.
(d) Universal access to mobile connectivity.
2. Which of the following is NOT an invasive alien species that are a threat to native
biodiversity?
(a) Parthenium
(b) Water Hyacinth
(c) Lantana
(d) Utricularia
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. With reference to the latest developments in stem cell research, consider the following
statements:
(1) Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
(2) Induced pluripotent stem cells are derived from embryonic stem cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. In the context of the New Frontiers Program of NASA which of the following is NOT
correctly matched?
(a) New Horizons - Pluto
(b) Dragonfly - Titan
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11. In the context of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) flagship
Emissions Gap Report 2019, consider the following statements:
(1) G20 nations collectively account for 78 per cent of all global greenhouse gas
emissions.
(2) The global GHG emission should fall by 7.6 per cent each year from 2020 to 2030
to meet the 1.5°C Paris climate agreement target.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. In the context of Bharat Stage VI norms, consider the following statements:
(1) It will use 50 ppm of sulphur content in the fuel.
(2) The presence of On-Board Diagnostics (OBD) on all vehicles will enable real-time
tracking of emissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Which of the following is the correct matching of vitamins and their deficiencies?
(a) Vitamin A – Bitot’s spot
(b) Vitamin K – Pellagra
(c) Vitamin B12 – Beri Beri
(d) Vitamin B6 – Cheilosis
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. In the context of recent news on “Pegasus” consider the following statements:
(1) It is a malware developed by Israel based security company, NSO Group
Technologies.
(2) Chyrsaor is the name assigned to the Android version of Pegasus by Google.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
19. In the context of the recent successful launch of satellite RISAT-2BR1 by ISRO,
consider the following statements:
(1) It will enhance India’s ability in high-resolution imaging for urban planning,
infrastructure development and coastal land use.
(2) It is a radar imaging earth observation satellite launched as the second flight of
PSLV in ‘QL’ configuration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
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20. With reference to “Cryodrakon Boreas” recently in the news, consider the following
statements:
(1) It is a fossil mammoth found in permafrost in Siberia.
(2) It was a pterosaur species as a flying reptile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. With reference to the National Digital Library of India, consider the following
statements:
(1) It has been launched under the National Mission on Education.
(2) Education materials are available to users from primary to post-graduate levels.
(3) It has been developed by the Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
23. In the context of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), consider the
following statements:
(1) India launched a global CDRI during the 25th Conference of Parties (COP25) of the
UN Framework Convention on climate change.
(2) It will uphold the UN Agenda 2030 principle of leaving no one, no place and no
ecosystem behind, and focus on the most vulnerable regions and populations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. In the context of All India Tiger Estimation Report 2018 released on July 29, 2019,
consider the following statements:
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(1) India has achieved its target set in St. Petersburg Declaration of doubling tiger
population by 2022.
(2) Pench Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh registered the maximum improvement
with more than 30 per cent annual increment in tiger population between 2014-
2018.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. In the context of the recent outbreak of coronavirus in China, consider the following
statements:
(1) Coronaviruses are zoonotic meaning they are transmitted between animals and
people.
(2) WHO has announced the outbreak of a novel coronavirus of Severe Acute
Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) strain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which of the following organisms is dependent on the saprophytic mode of nutrition?
(a) Agaricus
(b) Urothrin
(c) Riccia
(d) Cladophora
29. With reference to the “MANAV” recently in the news, consider the following
statements:
(1) It is a cyclone detection radar.
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30. In the context of insectivorous plants which of the following statements is NOT
correct?
(a) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen-deficient soils.
(b) Dionaea muscipula have leaves moulded into twin-blade traps with teeth-like
projections on their margin.
(c) The leaves of Drosera plant have a fluid-filled pitcher shaped structure in which
insects fall and drown.
(d) All insect-eating plants act as a producer as well as a consumer.
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(1) Immature B-cell lymphocyte migrates from bone marrow to the thymus gland to
generate antigen specificity.
(2) The thymus gland is the site of production and maturation of T-cell lymphocytes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. Other than resistance to pests, what are the properties for which the genetically
engineered plants have been created?
(1) To enable them to withstand drought.
(2) To increase the nutritive value of the produce.
(3) To increase their shelf life.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Which of the following is the main focus of the United Nations Environment
Programme Colombo Declaration?
(a) Tackling marine plastic pollution
(b) Tackling global nitrogen challenge
(c) Tackling Invasive Alien Species
(d) Promoting a sustainable blue economy
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40. Which of the following compounds are responsible for the ozone depletion?
(1) Hydrofluorocarbons
(2) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons
(3) Ammonia
(4) Carbon monoxide
(5) Methyl bromide
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 5 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
41. Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of the National Clean
Air Programme (NCAP)?
(1) It covers all major types of air pollutants.
(2) The first year of implementation of NCAP is 2020.
(3) It will be implemented in 102 non-attainment cities through city-specific action
plans.
(4) The cities have prepared a city-specific action plan in consultation with the
respective state governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
42. Arrange the states in decreasing order of their forest cover as per the recently
released India State of Forest Report, 2019:
(a) Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Arunachal Pradesh and Maharashtra
(c) Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha
(d) Chhattisgarh, Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha
43. Which of the following are the important functions performed by Wetlands?
(1) Water storage
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44. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Great Indian Bustard?
(1) Its habitat is arid, semi-arid grasslands and open thorny scrubs.
(2) It is the state bird of Andhra Pradesh.
(3) It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
(4) Its IUCN status is critically endangered.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
46. Which of the following are examples of ‘Ecosystem Services’ provided by biodiversity
across the world?
(1) Nutrient Cycling
(2) Fibre
(3) Secondary Production
(4) Flood Regulation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
47. Which of the following international organisations lead ‘Global Partnership on Wildlife
Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development ’or‘ Global Wildlife
Program?
(a) United Nations Environment Program
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49. Which of the following statements are correct about the Convention on International
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)?
(1) Appendix III of CITES deals with species threatened with extinction.
(2) CITES is voluntary.
(3) India is a party to the CITES.
(4) One of the aims of CITES is to contribute to the achievement of the Agenda 2030
Sustainable Development Goals and their targets relevant to CITES.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
50. Which of the following environmental conditions are required by coral reef ecosystems
for survival?
(1) Warm waters
(2) Clear waters
(3) Salinity levels of 27-33%
(4) Deep waters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
51. What is the term by which the concentration of a substance, such as a toxic chemical
in various tissues of a living organism called?
(a) Biomagnification
(b) Bioaccumulation
(c) Persistent Organic Pollutant
Telegram Channel
(d) Eutrophication https://t.me/visionpt3652019
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52. Which of the following wetland sites of India are designated under the Ramsar Sites of
International importance?
(1) Sambhar Lake
(2) Sundarbans
(3) Pallikaranai Wetland
(4) Upper Ganga River
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
53. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of ‘The New Delhi
Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’?
(1) The Declaration covers all the 3 species of Asian Rhinos found in Asian Rhino
Range countries.
(2) The Asian Rhino Range countries are India, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Indonesia
and Malaysia.
(3) Javan and Sumatran rhinos are classified as Endangered by IUCN.
(4) Great One-Horned Rhinoceros is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
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56. The unique characteristics of plants & animals that enable them to be successful
under the prevailing set of environmental conditions are called
(a) Range of tolerance
(b) Ecological adaptations
(c) Hibernation
(d) Migration
58. Which of the following components are included in the Environmental Rule of Law
proposed by UNEP?
(1) Law should be consistent with fundamental rights
(2) Law should be inclusively developed and fairly effectuated
(3) Law should bring forth accountability
(4) Law should incorporate principles of environmental management
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Ground-level Ozone
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
60. Which of the following defines a specie that has a critical role in maintaining the
structure of an ecosystem?
(a) Foundation specie
(b) Keystone specie
(c) Indicator specie
(d) Umbrella specie
61. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Gangetic River Dolphin
of India?
(1) It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent
(2) It is the national aquatic animal of India
(3) Dam construction on River Ganga System is one of the significant threats faced by
Gangetic River Dolphin.
(4) It is an indicator specie of riverine ecosystem.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
62. Consider the following statements about the causes of climate change:
(1) Evolution of life
(2) Orbital variations of Earth
(3) Anthropogenic GHG emissions
(4) Ocean-Atmosphere interactions
Which of the above are considered as ‘external climate forcing’?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
63. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Wildlife Protection Act,
1972?
(1) It provides for the protection of wild and domesticated animals, birds & plants.
(2) It has six Schedules, which provide varying degrees of protection.
(3) Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide absolute protection- offences under
these are prescribed the highest penalties.
(4) The plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from cultivation and planting.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
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64. The Environmental Performance Index (EPI), jointly developed by Yale University and
Columbia University, is based upon which of the following criteria?
(1) Climate & Energy
(2) Forests
(3) Mountain Ecology
(4) Fisheries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
66. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Indian otter?
(1) These are apex predators in rivers.
(2) One of the critical habitats of Indian otter is river Cauvery.
(3) These are the indicator species of riverine ecosystems.
(4) Recently, Asian small-clawed otters and smooth-coated otters have been moved
from Appendix III to Appendix II of CITES.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
67. Which of the statements regarding the future course of climate change and action is
incorrect?
(a) Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) is inevitable if we want to limit warming to 1.5°C.
(b) Not minimising warming will lead to trade-offs in attaining SDGs.
(c) Sea level will continue to rise for centuries even if we cap warming to 1.5°C from
pre-industrial levels.
(d) While climate change mitigation can help in attaining SDGs, vice-versa is not valid.
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68. Which of the following legislations is NOT under the adjudication of National Green
Tribunal in India?
(a) Forest Rights Act, 2006
(b) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
(c) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
(d) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
69. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of global resolution on the
Conservation and Sustainable Management of Peatlands?
(1) It is the first-ever such resolution on peatlands.
(2) It is legally binding.
(3) India is a party to the global resolution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
70. Who gave the species-area relationship in the patterns of biodiversity study?
(a) R. Hettner
(b) Alexander Von Humboldt
(c) A G Tansley
(d) David Tilman
71. Which of the following statements are correct about photochemical smog?
(1) It is formed by reactions between nitrogen oxides (NOX) and volatile organic
compounds.
(2) It is produced primarily by burning of coal or oil in large power plants.
(3) Ozone is a principal constituent of photochemical smog.
(4) Its formation is affected by local weather conditions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
72. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the compound ‘dioxin’?
(1) It is a naturally occurring compound in the environment.
(2) It is made up of oxygen, hydrogen, carbon and chlorine.
(3) There are many different types of dioxins which are distinguished from one
another by the arrangement of carbon atoms.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
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73. Which of the following statements is correct about the Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee (GEAC)?
(1) The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions under the
Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
(2) One of its functions is to appraise activities involving large-scale use of hazardous
microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the
food safety angle.
(3) Department of Biotechnology (DBT) also has a representation in GEAC.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
74. The National Air Quality Index prepared by the Central Pollution Control Board for
monitoring air quality in India is based upon measurement of which air pollutants?
(1) Ozone
(2) Mercury
(3) Lead
(4) Nitrous Oxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
75. In the context of various waste management rules notified by MoEF&CC in India,
which of the following have provisions for Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for
waste management?
(1) Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement)
Rules, 2016
(2) E-Waste Management Rules, 2016
(3) Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
(4) Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
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77. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG)’ is not
correct?
(a) It is produced through anaerobic decomposition of waste/ bio-mass sources.
(b) It has a pure methane content of not more than 50%.
(c) Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) - Initiative
aims to establish CBG plants.
(d) It has fuel properties similar to Compressed Natural Gas (CNG).
78. Consider the following statements regarding the future missions planned by NASA:
(1) Mission Dragonfly to explore Titan, the largest moon of Saturn.
(2) Mission PUNCH to image the outer solar corona of the Sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. Consider the following statements regarding Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB)
radiation:
(1) CMB is the radiation leftover from the early universe.
(2) Michel Mayor used it for developing the understanding of the evolution of the
universe.
(3) The work on the evolution of the universe using CMB was awarded the Nobel
Prize for Physics in 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Which of the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
(PMJAY) is correct?
(a) The scheme is meant for the unorganised sector only.
(b) The insurance scheme will cover only pre-hospitalization expenses.
(c) Maximum five members of a family can be enrolled under the scheme.
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(d) It provides cashless cover for listed secondary and tertiary care hospitalisation
only.
83. Consider the following statements regarding Jal Shakti Abhiyan (JSA).
(1) This campaign will cover only water-stressed districts of the country.
(2) Panchayats and Municipalities will be the implementing agencies for the
campaign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
85. Which of the following statements correctly describe Seva Bhoj Yojana?
(a) It provides reimbursement of indirect tax paid by charitable/religious institutions on
purchase of some raw food items for serving free food to public/devotees.
(b) Under the Scheme, charitable institutions of a minority character will receive a
one-time grant from the government.
(c) Under the Scheme, free food to the needy will be provided from religious
institutions’ premises.
(d) It is an extension of the mid-day meal scheme to night schools.
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88. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra
(PMMSK):
(1) The scheme is designed to empower only rural women through community
participation.
(2) Activities under the scheme will be implemented at the Gram Panchayat level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan
Yojana:
(1) There is no minimum defined contribution under the Scheme.
(2) All unorganised workers are covered under the Scheme.
(3) All income taxpayers are ineligible for the Scheme by default.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
90. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN
Yojana?
(a) The scheme seeks to incentivise the second-generation ethanol sector.
(b) It will benefit from achieving the GHG emissions reduction targets.
(c) It will help in improving farmers' income.
(d) Beneficiaries under this scheme are free to sell produced ethanol in the open
market.
91. Consider the following statements about the North East Special Infrastructure
Development Scheme (NESIDS)?
(1) It is aimed at improving the physical infrastructure relating to water supply, power
and connectivity enhancing tourism
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(2) It plans to improve the social infrastructure relating to primary and secondary
sectors of education and health.
(3) It is a 100% Central Sector Scheme.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
92. Consider the following statements with reference to Atal Bhujal Yojana:
(1) It aims to deliver a piped water supply to every rural household by 2024.
(2) Half of the total outlay shall be in the form of loan from the World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. Consider the following statements with reference to the project CHAMAN
(Coordinated Horticulture Assessment and Management using geoiNformatics):
(1) It seeks to use remote sensing technology for providing reliable estimates of all
horticultural as well as plantation crops.
(2) India Meteorological Department (IMD) is one of the participating agencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
94. Which of the following statements is the objective of the NABH Nirman Scheme?
(a) The scheme seeks to double the investment in cloud forecasting technology in
India.
(b) The scheme seeks to establish technical institutes for higher education related to
aerospace engineering.
(c) The scheme seeks to expand airport capacity in India more than five times.
(d) The scheme seeks to revolutionise the aircraft manufacturing sector in India.
95. Which of the following statements is the main objective of the ‘IMPRINT India’
initiative?
(a) Promoting innovation that directly affects the needs of the industry to improve the
competitive edge of Indian manufacturing.
(b) Finding out digital solutions to various problems faced by the people.
(c) Translating knowledge into viable technology in selected technology domains.
(d) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities.
96. Consider the following statements with reference to the Tejaswini Project:
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97. Consider the following pairs related to higher education and research in India:
Scheme/ Objective
Program
1. VAJRA Nurturing ideas
Faculty and innovation
Scheme into successful
start-ups.
2. NIDHI Connect the
Indian academic
and R&D systems
to the best of
global science
and scientists.
3. Surya It is related to
Jyoti Photo-Voltaic
Integrated Micro
Solar Dome
development.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
98. Which of the following is the main objective of the ‘USTTAD scheme’?
(a) To preserve and promote the rich heritage of traditional arts & crafts of the Minority
communities.
(b) To empower and instil confidence among minority women.
(c) To address the educational and livelihood needs of minority communities.
(d) To provide better socio-economic infrastructure facilities to minority communities.
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