1. Regarding management and leadership all of the following are true except

On a project, particularly a larger project, the project manager is generally expected to be the project's leader as well. Technical leadership is of primary importance in project management Managing is primarily concerned with consistently producing key results expected by stakeholders Leading involves establishing direction, aligning people, motivating and inspiring Answer: B 2. A company has to make a choice between two projects, because the available resources in money and kind are not sufficient to run both at the same time.Each project would take 9 months and would cost $250,000. The first project is a process optimization which would result in a cost reduction of $120,000 per year.This benefit would be achieved immediately after the end of the project. The second project would be the development of a new product which could produce the following net profits after the end of the project: 1 year: $ 15,000 2 year: $ 125,000 3 year: $ 220,000 Assumed is a discount rate of 5 % per year.Looking at the present values of these projects' revenues in the first 3 years, what is true? Both projects are equally attractive. The first project is more attractive by app.7%. The second project is more attractive by app.5%. The first project is more attractive by app.3%. Answer: D 3. A production process has been defined as part of an industrial equipment manufacturing project.The process is intended to produce steel bolts with a length of 20 cm.The acceptable control limits are 19.955 cm and 20.045 cm. The measurements made at the end of the process yielded the following results: 20.033 cm, 19.982 cm, 19,995 cm, 20.006 cm, 19.970 cm, 19.968 cm, 19.963 cm, 19.958 cm, 19.962 cm, 19.979 cm, 19.959 cm. What should be done? The process is under control.It should not be adjusted. The process should be adjusted. The control limits should be adjusted. The measuring equipment should be recalibrated. Answer: B What are the 4 stages of team development? Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing. Enthusiasm, Hope, Panic, Solution. Assignment, Kickoff, Training, Communicating. Direction, Motivation, Cooperation, Collaboration.

Answer: A During a software project Earned Value Analysis is performed and gives the following results: EV: 523,000; PV: 623,000; AC: 643,000. Which results are correct? CV: +120,000; SV: +100,000. CV: +100,000; SV: +120,000. CV: -100,000; SV: -120,000 CV: -120,000; SV: -100,000. Answer: D Which of the following is not normally an element of the Project Charter? The formal authorization to apply organizational resources to project activities. Work package descriptions. The business need that the project was undertaken to address. The product description or a reference to this document Answer: B Which process is applied to break down the project into smaller, more manageable elements? Scope Planning. Activity Duration Estimating. Scope Definition. Scope Verification. Answer: C Which of the following Tools and Techniques are part of Risk Management Planning? Risk planning meetings. Documentation reviews. Data precision rankings. Diagramming techniques. Answer: A All of the following statements concerning project stakeholders are true except Differences between or among stakeholders should be resolved in favor of the customer. Managing stakeholder expectations may be difficult because stakeholders often have very different objectives, that may come into conflict. Project stakeholders may influence the course of the project and its results. Differences between or among stakeholders should be resolved in the most cost efficient manner consistent with project objectives. Answer: D Which of the following is the output of Source Selection? Proposals. Evaluation criteria.

Contract negotiation. Contract. Answer: D

11. Which type of leadership is best suited for optimizing team performance in projects? A. Democratic leadership. B. Participative leadership. C. Autocratic leadership. D. Benevolent authoritative leadership Answer: B 12. Where is the result node (outcome) shown on a typical Ishikawa or Fishbone diagram? A. Top. B. Bottom. C. Right hand side. D. Center. Answer: C

13. A project management team has subcontracted work to a service company. The process of
ensuring that this service company's performance meets contractual requirements is called A. Contract Administration. B. Staff Acquisition. C. Contract Closeout. D. Contract Negotiation Answer: A

14. What are workarounds in project management?
A. B. C. D. Workarounds are essentially the same as rework. Workarounds are alternative strategies. Workarounds are unplanned responses to emerging risks that were previously unidentified or accepted. Workarounds are activities performed according to applicable contingency plans

Answer: C 15. What are faits accomplis? A. A French dinner after a kick-off meeting. B. Unachievable deliverables. C. Accomplished objectives. D. Decisions made earlier which limit the options for decision making. Answer: d 16. During execution of a project which is performed for a customer on a T&M (Time and Material) contract base a new project manager is taking over the assignment. He discovers that two members assigned to the project have charged time without performing any work.Upon further investigation, he determines that this occurred because there were no other project assignments available for these people.The customer is unaware of these facts. What should the project manager do?

Answer: D 19. Try to find some productive work for these staff members in the project and leave them on the team. PV: 125. D. In the following network logic diagram start dates are defined as early morning. C.000. quantitative and qualitative analysis. Answer: d 17. The best thing is to do nothing. C. Take the two people off the team immediately and arrange for the refund of the excess charges to the customer .000 . C. what is true? A. D.The customer will not realize the problem anyway. Activity A has a total float of 10 d. Equipment. Activity B has a free float of 10 d. Activity A has a free float of 10 d. Working staff. assessment of magnitude and probability. transference. Try to find a responsible person for the over-assignment who can be made accountable. Answer: B 18. B. Which of the following is not considered to be part of Project Resource Management? A. D. mitigation. Materials. C. If tasks are scheduled to begin at early start date. finish dates are evening. Identifying. Tools and Techniques of Risk Response Planning include A. B. monitoring and control. Risk management reviews Answer: B 21. D. Time and money.A. Activity B has a total float of 10 d. B. assessment of costs of response . Avoidance. acceptance. A project manager performs Earned Value Analysis and finds the following values: EV: 100. B. Identification.000. AC: 100.

B. Special causes are easier to predict and handle than random causes. The contractor‘s indirect costs will not increase but the customer‘s payment for them will. The ability to succeed in a cross cultural environment. but the benefits include less pressure on all stakeholders and a resulting product that will satisfy the requirements. updated and working project plan. The ability to communicate using drawings and pictograms which are understood all over the world Answer: B 23. The ability to read reports written in many different languages. D. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Developing a plan to minimize potential impact. The project is on schedule but costs exceed budget. C. Then project is behind schedule and costs exceed budget. In the contract the contractor‘s indirect costs are calculated as 20 % of the direct costs. Poor planning is one of the major reasons for cost and time overruns. too. D. B. The project plan is secondary because it is only the results that matter. A. The ability to develop internationally accepted contracts. D. A project management team is evaluating the causes that might contribute to unsatisfactory performance and quality. D. During a project the scope of product purchased on a cost reimbursable contract has increased. A great deal of effort is required to develop and update a project plan. C. C. What is active risk acceptance? A. The project is on schedule and on budget. B. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Projects should never be executed without a valid. B. Making additional resources available . A process can be optimized to limit the bandwidth of variations due to random causes. The project is behind schedule but on budget. C. Special causes are unusual events. C. C. Developing a plan to minimize probability. Neither the indirect costs nor the customer‘s payment for indirect costs will increase. You are performing a project management audit in your company and find that most of the project plans are neither consistent nor up-to-date. The contractor‘s indirect costs will increase but the customer‘s payment for them not. Answer: B 26. Answer: D 24. What are "Global Literacies"?. B. The contractor‘s indirect costs will increase and the customer‘s payment for them will increase. D. D. Creating contingency reserves in money and time. Answer: C 22. Normal process variation is attributable to random causes. What is most likely to be true? A. Answer: B 25. B.A.

CPI < 1. What is a quality audit? A. C. CPI < 0. D. The problem might be the customer disturbing project rhythm. B. B. C. You are assigned as the project manager in a project with an aggressive schedule. A structured review of quality management activities. Answer: C 29. Keep him on distance from the team. B. Cultural differences will always be an obstacle to be overcome. Answer: C 30. Use this information to enable you to make well-founded decisions earlier. There is a common ground for people from different cultures on which they can interact without unsolvable conflicts. Activity 3 of 5 days and Activity 4 of 6 days. CPI > 1. B. SPI = 1. Answer: B 28. D. D.Answer: A 27. C. Culture is a critical lever for competitive advantage. What is the minimum total duration between the Milestones A and B? . Try to obtain additional budget and time. Which of the following statements is not true? A. During a recent meeting your team complained about the high pressure applied and the many hours of overwork time. A meeting with the customer to identify quality requirements. A quality based inspection of work results. C. Activity 2 of 10 days. A team meeting dedicated to measuring and examinations. Project costs are over budget when A. Improve team communication and availability of high quality data on risks. Only those who realize that cultural differences are a resource to be fully utilized will survive. Apply fast tracking to shorten project duration without additional work. Activity 1 has a duration of 20 days. D. Answer: A 31. What is the preferred solution to handle the problem? A.

D."acceptable after rework" . Assumptions might prove to be wrong. C. Which of the following statements is true concerning Scope Definition? A."rejected". The Project Charter is a principle output and authorizes the project. Answer: B 34. B. civil action and imprisonment. D. D. D. Carefully considered whistleblowing can lead to the end of unethical business practices. Attribute sampling is the process of assessing whether results conform to specifications or not. Answer: C 35. Inspection means keeping errors out of the hands of the customer. The Work Breakdown Structure is a principle output and should be broken down to a level which allows sufficient accuracy in planning. B. C. Why should assumptions be documented? A. Prevention means keeping errors out of the process Variables sampling means that the result is classified into one of the 3 categories: "acceptable" .A. immoral or illegal actions at work to an authority figure. The Scope Statement is a principle output containing a narrative description of project work and deliverables. firing. Which of the following statements is not true? A. B. C. C. . It is the term used to define an employee’s decision to disclose information on unethical. An employee should always discuss the matter with people external to the company before following the "chain of command" and discuss it with the immediate superior. Answer: D 33. Knowing which assumptions were incorrect allows baseline adjustments in case of project crisis. All the following statements regarding "whistleblowing" are true except A. The Activity List is a principle output used for resource allocation and is an input to B. network diagramming. The consequences of whistleblowing are often extreme and include possible being branded as having bad judgment. 36 days 37 days 39 days 42 days Answer: B 32.

B. which can be passed to the team members with the lowest IQ. What are dummy activities? A. The primary benefit of meeting quality requirements is less rework. B. D. The performing organization is doing "management by projects". Which of the following statements about diagramming methods is not A. Prevention costs. which means higher productivity. Communicating across cultures should only be done using language. Arrows in ADM which represent dependencies between nodes without real activities. D. A project is managed by a project coordinator. Answer: B 37. ADM is the same as AOA. Answer: B 36. Assumptions limit the project management team's options for decision making. C. Which of the following statements concerning cross-cultural differences is true? A. The performing organization is projectized. GERT is the same as System Dynamics Model. Activities. Failure costs. C. B. Activities in PDM which are not performed by team members. and increased stakeholder satisfaction. The performing organization is a weak matrix. Answer: B 41. It is axiomatic of the quality management discipline that the benefits outweigh the costs. Answer: A 40. C. Transportation costs. C. B. Assumption analysis is a valuable tool and technique of Risk Identification. GERT and System Dynamic Model are examples of conditional diagramming methods Answer: C 38.B. Activities in PDM which are not necessary and can be dropped if time is running out. lower costs. some not. Some cultures have values. Which of the following are not cost of quality? A. B. The performing organization is a strong matrix. Answer: A 39. the documentation of assumptions supports a clear assignment of responsibility. Appraisal costs. . D. In case of schedule or budget overruns. There is no one "best way" for project organization. D. C. Quality should be tested and inspected into work results on a regular base. D. D. B. PDM is the same as AON. Cultural dilemmas should be denied to not allow them to disrupt project work. C. The nonverbal dimension bears too many risks. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true? A. The primary cost of meeting quality requirements is the expense associated with project quality management activities. D. C. All the following statements are true except A.

B. B. The project management team should delay payment for 2 weeks. What does the acronym RAM commonly stand for in project management? A. Remotely Applied Measurements. In a software company a large number of simultaneously performed projects utilize the same groups of human and other resources. C. D. C. Answer: b 43. How should the project management team react? A. The project management team should make the payment and reschedule the project plan. The project team received a note this morning informing them that the software delivery will be delayed by 2 weeks. According to the project plan. D. This morning. What is the term commonly used for this situation? A.Answer: c 42. An unexpected situation causing an unidentified risk event to occur. What is a trigger in project risk management? A. Resource over-allocation. Resource pooling. . D. a contractor is scheduled to deliver some software components at the end of the day. Answer: C 44. An unexpected situation causing an identified risk event to occur. A regular payment is due to be made to this contractor tomorrow. B. The project management team should conduct a meeting with the contractor to resolve the delivery issues before making the payment. Concurrent engineering. C. Program management Answer: c 45. Responsibility Assignment Matrix. A warning sign that an identified risk event might have occurred. C. The project management team must immediately find a different contractor. An expected situation causing an unidentified risk event to occur. B. the project team received a note that the software will be delayed by 2 weeks. Risk Aware Management.

000 EAC = 550.000. The managerial approach towards risk. What is not handled as a constraint in project management? A. D. Laws and regulations. AC 275. Randomly Accessible Material.000.000. Analogous estimating. Answer: D 51. Timing of risk management activities.000. Letter of credit. . C. EAC = 400. C.000 BAC is 500. B. PV: 200. Parametric modeling. Limits of authorization. What should not be part of a risk management plan? A.000 ETC = 75. Seller initial response. B. A precontract agreement that establishes the intent of a party to buy products or services is called a A. D. Answer: A 46. Roles and responsibilities for handling risks. C. Scope changes. The construction of a residential home will cost a certain amount per square foot of living space. Answer: C 48. C. Answer: B 50. B. D. Cost variances. C.D. Top-down estimating. Answer: C 47. Bottom-up estimating. B. This is an example of what type of estimating? A. Physical constraints. B. Letter of intent. D. B. Which of the following should not be reason for “rebaselining” in a project? A. D. Individual risks Answer: D 49. Team preferences. What is right? A. Seller immediate response. A project manager performs Earned Value Analysis and finds the following results: EV: 250.000 BTC = 400.

A strong link to local traditions. B. This was 2 weeks after the scheduled delivery date and 3 weeks after the date necessary to qualify for the incentive payment. D. C. They found that their initial work and costs were much higher than originally expected and they now wish to increase the second payment to 30% and reduce the final payment to 10%. Interest in the task. Answer: C 55. Changes must still be documented and captured so that they do not cause problems later in the project. Companies and institutions commonly hire leaders with A. Which of the following might be the most appropriate initial step? A. Point out that the contractor is not in a position to demand a change to the contract. A new change control board (CCB) should be established. You are the project manager and have contracted with a service provider to develop a complicated software solution This software is necessary to control the machinery equipment which your project team will develop. Which of the following is generally not regarded to be a motivator according to Frederick Herzberg? A. It is a lump-sum contract with additional incentives for meeting predefined schedule targets. . C. Working conditions and interpersonal relations.C. D. Integrity and expertise. When a change control system‘s provision for changes without formal review in case of emergency is being utilized A. Changes can be simply applied without further managerial activities if they help solving the problem. Responsibility for enlarged task. the manager of the contractor approached you to ask for changes to the payment schedule. The payment schedule and incentives are as follows:     10% with order 20% after submission of prototype (+ 5% if delivered one week early) 50% after product delivery (+ 5 % if delivered one week early) 20% after final product acceptance (+ 5 % if delivered one week early) Yesterday the company submitted the prototype to your project team. This morning. Recognition for achievement. Answer: B 53. B. B. The project baseline must be changed as well. New information indicating that the basis for the original project cost estimates was incorrec Answer: B 52. Major schedule changes. Offer to pay 25% now and to reduce the final payment down to 15%. B. During the discussion you got the impression that the company is in serious financial trouble. Answer: A 54. Demand an urgent meeting with the seller. A strong position in negotiating. Experience in tricking business partners. D. C. D. C.

N. L. Answer: D 60. R. Answer: D 56. Project management software has the capability to help organize resource pools. You are spending a lot of time discussing how to create a completely decomposed Work Breakdown Structure. You and your team are now going to create a Work Breakdown Structure. Testing and measuring. You are a member of your company's project office. K. Supporting project portfolio management is not the project office's business. Objectives specified with far more detail than necessary for a successful project. . Audit. Answer: C 58. T. A review of management processes and the associated documentation is commonly called E. J. O. What are SMART objectives? Q. Easily achievable objectives. Evaluating project management software is not the project office's business. Screening. F. It describes the coding structure used by the performing organization to report financial information in its general ledger. assignable. most of them share a resource pool. Understanding how resources are utilized across projects is seen as being essential to cost effectiveness and profitability. P. Answer: A 57. realistic and time-related specifications. Objectives that should be achieved in order to attain formal recognition. You recently received an inquiry to assess the benefits of using project management software to manage the company's project portfolio. Objectives that have specific. Inspection. It allows one to easily identify the breakdown level of the item in the resource structure. G. Which of the following is true in regard to the Code of Accounts? I. It is the collection of unique identifiers generally assigned to WBS items. Revisit the planning processes of project risk management to understand the upcoming risks in conjunction with the seller before any further decisions are made. The company is running many concurrent projects. Project management software will dramatically simplify the task of leveling resources across projects with different project management teams. You have been assigned to a new project and have finished the scope statement. S. Answer: A 59.D. Which of the following is true? M. H. It defines ethical behavior in the project and the responsibilities to the customer and the profession. measurable.

What do you think? A. B. V. CV = 30. Status/completion is measurable. Resource availability can be reliably foreseen. the project phases are known as the project life cycle. Collectively. CV = 0. The project lifecycle contains the repetitive elements inside a project phase Answer: B 65.000. you had the opportunity to talk to a colleague project manager. B. He told you that in his current project actual costs are 15% under cumulated costs scheduled for today. All of the following statements are true except A. D. The information available is not sufficient to assess project performance.000. B. C. A project is a unique endeavor undertaken to create a temporary service. A significant cost increase during the further course of the project will probably bring the costs back to baseline level. A project management team discusses what scope means in a project. AC: 220. B. Answer: D 61. CV = -30. EV: 220. D. Answer: A 63. A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service. . Start/end events are clearly defined. The project lifecycle contains the iterative incremental elements inside a project phase. C.Which of the following is not relevant to this discussion? U. and techniques used by project scope management are mostly depending on the application area.000.000. Which of the following statements describes the relationship between project phases and the project life cycle? A. C. CV = 1 Answer: A 62. Time/cost is easily estimated. X. A project is a unique service undertaken to create a temporary product. B. A project is a temporary product undertaken to create a unique endeavor or service Answer: C 64. Original cost planning must have been poor to allow this variance. During a company event. D. Which is true regarding projects? A. A. C.000. The project lifecycle is regarded as a sequence of project activities while phases are defined to control the overlapping of activities. The processes. PV: 250. tools. Product scope includes features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. The project will probably be completed with total costs remaining under budget. W. D.

Answer: B 68. D. where the term resources is limited to equipment and materials. D. Answer: D 67. Answer: A 66. A graph that is generated if a normal curve is integrated. The graph that describes the typical growth of earned value during the course of the project. A metaphoric description of the short term uncertainties that are present in every project. It is developed by summing estimated costs by period. Flat Activity List. A. It can be easily created and updated as necessary. . Hierarchically structured WBS. It is usually displayed in the form of an S-curve. The Project Charter for the project manager Answer: A 69. It is a time-phased budget that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project. A graph that is to be integrated to generate a normal curve. A. B. C. C. where the term resources is limited to human resources. Project scope includes the work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. for each element at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure. C.. In regards of a cost baseline all of the following is true except A. What is the S-curve in project management? A.. D. The output of the resource planning process is a document "resource requirements". B. C. The major output document of Scope definition is the. This a description of what types of resources are required in what quantities. Narrative Scope Statement.C. D. Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required and only the work required. D. B. to be obtained solely from the performing organization. B.

B. C. In making an investment in a project. Sacrifice of immediate use of cash for consumption or other investments. D. possibility of inflation and risk. direct and indirect costs and may include allowances for capital cost. Which is not true in regard of RoI (Return on Investment)? A. Regarding Delphi Technique all of the following statements are true except A. Subprojects C. and/or inflation. Answer: A . The experts are encouraged by the facilitator to make direct contact with each other during the assessment process to create a higher number of feedback loops. Dangler. C. The responses are submitted and are then circulated to the experts for further comment. Low quality is always a problem. It is the time when cumulated net income is equal to the investment. low grade may not be. Subtask. Milestone. Answer: D 71. Answer: B 75. WBS items Answer: B 74. D. upgrading requires additional expenses. It is generally stated in currency units. Regarding quality and grade all of the following statements are true except A. It includes investment. A summary activity in a network logic diagram is often referred to as a A. C. Quality can simply be improved through intelligent testing and examining. Programs D. as a percentage or as an index figure. It is a way to reach a consensus of experts. Answer: C 72. risk of loss. B. B. Experts are identified but participate anonymously while a facilitator uses a questionnaire to solicit ideas. Network templates which contain only portions of a network are often referred to as A. B. Grade is a category or rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for quality. Inflation and depreciation. Answer: D 73. D. Payback period in years x investment x (1 + discount rate)periods. Quality is the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs. C. D.Answer: B 70. Hammock. depreciation. It defines the cumulated net income from an investment at a given point in time or during a defined period. investors require compensation for which of the following? A. Subnets or fragnets B. The risk-free rate of return plus a risk premium plus a premium for inflation.

Answer: B 82. Project processes Answer: A 78. Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating present value of a business or organization? Note: R = Interest rate. Case project study B. C. Rolling wave planning B. D. A. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is called: A. this is also known as a ____. A. however. Activity planning D. Quality metrics Answer: A 77. Milestone C. a statement of work. A ______looks at determining if the project idea is a realistic project. D. Fixed cost D. Present Value = Future Value/(1+R)n Present Value = Future Value/(1-R)n Present Value = (1+R)n Present Value = (1-R)n / Future Value Answer: A 81. Buildup planning C. Matrix study D. Kill point B. Transient cost Answer: A 80. A.000-2500 employees will be attending. you are unsure exactly how many people will attend. Scope creep D. an exception report. Moreover. B. Variable cost B. C. Demand study Answer: B 79. Feasibility study C. When a project phase is finished. The cost of the furniture should be considered? A.76. the number of tables required will change depending on attendance. You are the project manager for a seminar and training session that approximately 2. n = time periods A. You have rented a hall for the seminar. An example of scope verification is: . Ongoing project planning is also known as ________. the project plan. B. Pareto analysis. Direct cost C.

striving to do the best job possible. contingency planning. B. parametric estimation. measuring their achievement. D. introducing technology that was not available when scope was originally defined. B. D. managing changes to the project schedule. D. reviewing the performance of an installed software module. + 1. . planning it into the project. D. The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives. The subdivision of major project deliverables. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by: A. a need to engage in bottom-up cost estimating.1. benefit-cost analysis. . management by objectives. decomposing the WBS to a work package level. D. Your most recent project status report contains the following information: BCWP = 3. B. + 500. D. Answer: B 85. Answer: A 83. C. more manageable components is called: A. C. B. the set of procedures developed to assure that project design criteria are met. Answer: A 88. conducting quality circle activities.000.500. ACWP = 3. a mechanism to track budget and schedule variances. used to ensure that the description of the project product is correct and complete. performing a benefit/cost analysis to determine if we should proceed with the project. C. D. alternative objectives inventory. B. a variation in government regulations. B. C. Answer: C 84. C.000. B. and BCWS = 4. C. The schedule variance is: A.000. strategic planning.000. Configuration management is: A. developing careful mechanisms to inspect for quality. Which of the following is not an example of a source of scope change? A. feasibility analysis.A. Answer: C 86. . failure to include a required feature in the design of a telecommunication system. scope definition. as identified in the scope statement. the creation of the work breakdown structure. Answer: A 87. and adjusting performance in accordance with the results of the measurement is called: A. C.500. into smaller.

B. D. cost plus award fee B. and risk management. risk mitigation. Answer: D 95. the client may use a ___________ contract. D. and risk response development and control. cost plus incentive fee C. fixed price Answer: D 93. work breakdown structure B. and risk mitigation.Answer: D 89. B. D. Answer: B 90. materials become cheaper when they are purchased in bulk. A. C. C. C. risk identification. activity lists. Answer: A 94. risk elimination. B. restructuring. historical information. The _________ is a time-phased budget that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance in the project. A. cost decreases as production rates increase. floating. risk quantification. profits are tied to meeting schedule deadlines. risk assessment. An appropriate sequence for risk management activities is: A. crashing. scalable. risk identification. B. and risk planning. D. C. average unit cost decreases as more units are produced. D. absenteeism is tied to poor working conditions. To transfer most of the cost risk to the contractor. Theory X holds that: A. quantifiable. All of the following are characteristics of parametric estimating except: A. C. risk identification. risk identification. quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles. cost plus fixed fee D. leveling. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance. D. C. Answer: B 91. . B. project schedule cost baseline cost budget Answer: C 92. Learning curve theory emphasizes that in producing many goods: A. laborers become more productive because of technological advances. Rearranging resources so that constant resource levels are maintained is called: A.

Answer: C 98. D. Answer: D 99. estimate at completion. decision trees. basis of estimates. revised cost estimates. Answer: A 100. project schedule Answer: A 97. C. C. work breakdown structure D. C. cost reimbursable. budget updates. B. D. D. B. make-or-buy.Inputs into overall change control include all of the following except: A. unit-price. budget/cost analysis. Answer: B . cost estimate C. project plan. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except: A. C. C. B. product description. D. B. C. B.Activity duration estimate inputs include all of the following except: A. cost baseline B. inputs to other processes.Answer: D 96. D. Answer: B 102. constraints. project charter. change requests. performance reports Answer: C 101. Cost control outputs include all of the following except: A. risk symptoms. change control system. activity lists. B. cost baseline. resource requirements.All of the following are contract types except: A. Inputs to cost budgeting include all of the following except: A. lump sum. Risk identification outputs include the following except: A. potential risk events. D. constraints.

progress reporting. mitigation. Answer: A 109.Constrained optimization methods of project selection include: A. D. Computer-aided design systems can improve quality. C. C. B. estimate the costs of WBS elements. Quality improvement depends upon better definit ion and increased awareness of the requirements/specifications. D. status reporting. unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions. scoring models. Answer: C 104. rejection. but only at the expense of an increase in the cost of design.Responses to risk threats include all of the following except: A. A. D. D. strategic plan. Answer: C 107. D. C.Initiation inputs for a project include all of the following except: A. C. cost reimbursable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential. B. D. project charter. B. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) numbering system should allow project staff to: identify the level at which individual WBS elements are found. benefit-cost ratios.103. selection criteria. a fixed price contract contains the most risk for the buyer. Answer: D 105. C. lump sum contracts offer sellers the greatest profit potential. C. Project quality management must address both management of the project and the product of the project. multi-objective programming algorithms. avoidance. identify configuration management milestones. subjective analyses.All of the following are true quality statements except: A. Answer: D 106. product description.The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except: A.Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct? A. . B. product analysis. forecasting. Answer: C 108. C. B. B. D. B. acceptance. Recognition of key actions required of each team member is necessary to meet quality objectives. provide project justification.

what is the expected value from this risk event? Probability Result .000 .96. Answer: B 115. increase the estimated cost of the project. C. C.14. C.Given the information in the following table. Answer: D 111. conduct a risk-benefit analysis. C.4 -10. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project. $27. A.All of the following are examples of tools often used in cost estimating except: A. conduct a needs analysis. analogous estimating. Including a contingency reserve in the project budget is intended to: reduce the probability of scope changes. D. A. D. A. increase the probability of scope changes. $30. bottom-up estimating. B. one of the first steps to take is to: A. parametric modeling. D. Answer: D 112.Answer: D 110. B. during the close-out phase. order of magnitude estimates. B. Answer: D 113. D. Answer: C 116. $29. C.12. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is: when a problem surfaces. $28. Of the following estimates. after the project schedule has been published. which most accurately reflect the actual cost of the project? conceptual estimates. increase the probability of a cost overrun.03. during the planning phase. preliminary estimates. B. Answer: B 114. B. activity duration estimates. revise project plan. B. bottom-up estimates. A. D. C. D. reduce the probability of a cost overrun.

Peer review B. A. the project no longer meets the company's objectives.500.A precise description of a physical item. the contractor's project manager informs their contract administrator that financial problems are making it difficult for them to pay their employees and subcontractors. Answer: D 121.2 -5. starting partial payments for work accomplished. B. C. One common way to compute estimated at completion (EAC) is to take the project budgeted-at-completion and: A. negotiating a change to the payment conditions in the contract. Answer: A 120. B. Expected value technique . procedure.500 .500 A. B. multiply it by the schedule performance index.. divide it by the cost performance index.Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment? A. paying for work accomplished to date. Delphi technique C.000. divide it by the schedule performance index.000 . multiply it by the cost performance. B. product description D. project funding has been significantly reduced. -7.7.000. The contractor asks for a partial payment for work accomplished. D. B. C. D. Answer: B 118. D. Answer: D 117. .500. Which of the following actions by the buyer is most likely to cause problems for the project? A. work package. Answer: C 119.3 -7. the resources are not available to complete project activities. A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single. A project should be terminated for all of the following reasons except: lack of team synergy.1 +2. C. + 2. C. About halfway through the contract. work breakdown structure (WBS) element. making no payments because it would violate the conditions of the contract. C. or service for implementation of an item or service is called a: A. D. baseline. lump sum payment upon satisfactory completion of the contract. -10.


Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Answer: B Explanation: The 'Delphi technique' is a commonly used tool to secure expert judgment while initiating a project. 'Peer review' is a project selection tool, 'Expected value' is a method quantitative risk analysis, and 'WBS' is a project-planning tool. 122.Based on the information provided below, which project would you recommend pursuing? Project I, with BCR (Benefit Cost ratio) of 1:1.6; Project II, with NPV of US $ 500,000; Project III, with IRR (Internal rate of return) of 15% Project IV, with opportunity cost of US $ 500,000. A. B. C. D. Project I Project III Either project II or IV Can not say from the data provided

Answer: B Explanation: Project III has an IRR of 15%, which means the revenues from the project equal the cost expended at an interest rate of 15%. This is a definitive and a favorable parameter, and hence can be recommended for selection. Project I have an unfavorable BCR and hence cannot be recommended. Information provided on projects II and IV is not definitive, and hence neither of projects II and IV qualifies for a positive recommendation. 123.What the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included should do? A. Create a contingency plan B. Create a risk management plan C. Create a WBS D. Create a scope statement Answer: C Explanation: A WBS is a deliverable oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project. 124.What kind of a relationship is implied when completion of a successor is dependent on initiation of its predecessor? A. finish-to-start (FS) B. finish-to-finish (FF) C. start-to-start (SS) D. start-to-finish (SF) Answer: D Explanation: A start-to-finish (SF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of successor is dependent on the initiation of its predecessor.

A finish-to-start (FS) relationship between two activities implies that the initiation of successor is dependent on the completion of predecessor. A finish-to-finish (FF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of successor is dependent on the completion of predecessor. A start-to-start (SS) relationship implies that the initiation of successor is dependent on the initiation of predecessor.. 125.What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project completion? A. Scope verification B. Complete a scope statement C. Scope definition D. Risk management plan Answer: B Explanation: The project team must complete a scope statement for developing a common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders. This lists project deliverables - summary level sub-products, whose full and satisfactory delivery marks the completion of the project. Scope verification is the process of securing a formal acceptance of the project scope by stakeholders. Scope definition is the process of subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components. A risk management plan involves setting up processes for identifying and dealing with project risks. 126.An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative identification during scope planning for a particular project has thrown up an expeditious approach to achieve a project need, but this involves a risk of environmental contamination. The team evaluates that the likelihood of the risk is very low. What should the project team do? A. Drop the alternative approach B. Work out a mitigation plan C. Procure an insurance against the risk D. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk Answer: A Explanation: The organization's reputation being at stake, the threshold for such a risk would be very low. Mitigation plan against an environmental contamination would mean reducing the impact, which may not be a plausible response. Procuring an insurance against the risk would only transfer the monetary impact of the risk, and not the intangible impact like, the reputation of the organization. Planning precautions against the occurrence would still leave an opportunity of occurrence. This cannot be completely avoided. The best option would be to drop the approach - that is, complete avoidance of the risk.

127.The following three tasks form the entire critical path of the project network. The three estimates of each of these tasks are tabulated below. How long would the project take to complete expressed with an accuracy of one standard deviation? Task Optimistic A B C A. B. C. D. 75.5 75.5 +/- 5.08 75.5 +/- 8.5 75.5 +/- 2.83 15 12 16 Most likely 25 22 27 Pessimistic 47 35 32

Answer: B Explanation: The critical path is the longest duration path through a network and determines the shortest time to complete the project. The PERT estimates of the tasks listed are 27, 22.5 & 26. Therefore, the length of the critical path of the project is 27+22.5+26 = 75.5. The standard deviations of the estimates of the three tasks are determined as (P-O)/6 = 2, 3.83 & 2.67 respectively. The standard deviation of the total path is determined as Sq. root (sum of variances), where variance = square of standard deviation. Thus, standard deviation of critical path = Sq. root (4+14.67+7.13) = 5.08. 128.After a study of the work processes on a project, a quality audit team reports to the project manager that irrelevant quality standards were being used by the project, which might lead to rework. What was the objective of the project manager in initiating this study? A. Quality control B. Quality planning C. Checking adherence to processes D. Quality assurance Answer: D Explanation: Determining validity of quality standards, followed by the project is a 'quality assurance' activity. Compliance of work results to required specifications is a 'quality control' activity. Determining quality standards is a 'quality planning' activity. 'Checking adherence to processes' is a quality audit activity to ensure that standard operating procedures or job instruction documents (SOPs or JIDs) are being followed for producing the deliverables of the process. 129.Which of the following provides the foundation for team development? A. Motivation B. Organizational development C. Conflict Management D. Individual Development Answer: D

making it more complex. Due to recent recommendations by an organizational quality audit team. Therefore. The project manager is aware of the importance of communication. 131. In a weak matrix organization. Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution? Work authorization system Project plan Corrective action Preventive action Answer: A Explanation: A Project plan is the basis of project plan execution and is a primary input. D. the power rests with the functional manager. to the project. In a balanced matrix organization. Weak Matrix organization Balanced Matrix organization Projectized organization Tight Matrix organization A. How many additional communication channels are introduced as a result of this organizational change in the project? A. a project manager would find it difficult to drive team development in a weak matrix organization. The project manager of a large multi-location software project team has 24 members. 132. the project team members have dual reporting to two bosses . D. C. the power is shared between the functional manager and the project manager. Corrective and Preventive actions are inputs to the project plan execution process from various controlling processes. B. 25 24 . 130. A projectized organization is grouped by projects and the project manager has complete control on the project and its team. Whereas. out of which 5 are assigned to testing. in order to assure quality levels of the project. A. the project manager is convinced to add a quality professional to lead the test team at additional cost. for the success of the project and takes this step of introducing additional communication channels.the project manager and the functional manager. C. Work authorization system is a tool used for orchestrating execution of various project tasks. B. B. Answer: A Explanation: In a functional organization.Explanation: Individual development (managerial and technical) is the foundation of a team. A Tight matrix organization refers to co-locating the project team and has nothing to do with a matrix organization.

Database C. Pareto Diagrams B. Project is over budget and ahead of schedule Answer: A Explanation: Positive Schedule Variance means the project is ahead of schedule. the complete set of project records should be put in which of the following? A. that is.Which of the following is a common format for performance reporting? A. 325-300 = 25. The project had provisions for contingency and management reserves. Secondary risks . which makes the total communication channels as 25*24/2 = 300. Responsibility Assignment Matrices D. D. Control Charts Answer: B Explanation: Common formats for Performance Reports are. Therefore. 133. the additional channels as a result of the change.C. Project is under budget and behind schedule B. Residual risks C. S-curves. How should these be accounted for? A. 1 5 Answer: A Explanation: Number of communication channels with "n" members = n*(n-1)/2 Originally the project has 25 members (including the project manager). With the addition of the quality professional as a member of the project team. Project Report Answer: A Explanation: Project records should be prepared for archiving by the appropriate parties. Bar charts C. Project is over budget and behind schedule C. 136. this indicates the: A. bar charts (also called Gantt Charts). Storage room D. Contingency reserves B. an identified risk event occurs that results in additional cost and time. the communication channels increase to 26*25/2 = 325. 134.If the cost variance is positive and the schedule variance is also positive. histograms and tables etc.During execution of a project. Management reserves D. Project is under budget and ahead of schedule D. Negative Cost Variance means the project is over-budget. Project Archives B.Once the project is complete. 135.

The 'project team' creates the lessons learned on the project. while "known unknowns" are risks that were identified and provisions were made for them. 138. Archives are complete C. Residual and secondary risks are remaining unmitigated risks and resultant risks of mitigation. the risk event is one of the identified risks and therefore. 139. 'stakeholders' should be involved in creation of lessons learned.Who should be involved in the creation of lessons learned. Stakeholders B. Client appreciates your product D. high value. Risk events are classified as "unknown unknowns" or "known unknowns". As lessons learned should capture all variations and what could have been done better for future deployment. Management of the performing organization D. at closure of a project? A. In this case. where "unknown unknowns" are risks that were are not identified and accounted for. These are not reserves. Project team C. engineering center located in a different country. Provisions for "unknown unknowns" are in management reserves while those for "known unknowns" are accommodated in contingency reserves. Client has accepted the product B.Answer: A Explanation: The question is about correct accounting for risk events that occur and updating the reserves. Project office Answer: A Explanation: 'Stakeholders' include everyone who are actively involved in the project or whose interests may be affected as a result of the project execution or completion. 'contingency reserve' is the one where the cost and schedule impact would be accommodated in. . An organization has recently started outsourcing work to a low cost. Management reserves are at the discretion of senior management while the contingency reserves are at the project manager's discretion. Lessons learnt are documented Answer: B Explanation: Archiving is the last step in the project closing. 137.Which one of the following is the last step of project closing? A. The role of the 'project office' depends on the function defined for it within the performing organization and it could be either facilitating best practices for all projects or could constitute the project team. to accommodate for consequences of risk events. Reserves are meant for making provisions in cost and schedule. respectively.

So. C. Closing Initiating. An attempt to solve the problem is the next best thing to do in this situation. Executing. for better teaming. A milestone. would be missed with the current implementation plan. that is. While reviewing the progress. Initiating. D. C. that is. 141. Closing Planning. Choice B. Planning. which is being mentioned as choice C. the project manager assesses that an activity has been missed out from the implementation plan.Which of the following should the project manager provide for the team as a proactive measure? A. Choice B. that is. D. Controlling. 'report the error and the expected delay' or 'report the error and the planned recovery actions' do not attempt to solve the problem. D. Planning. Controlling. ' a course on linguistic differences' would not serve the purpose of understanding and appreciating cultural differences. Choice D. that is. Controlling. Hence this would be the best approach. Report the error and the expected delay Omit the status update on the milestone Report the error and the planned recovery actions Assess alternatives to meet the milestone Answer: D Explanation: Choice D. Choices A and C. Answer: D . It is necessary for the project but does not help in bridging communication gaps across different cultures 140. that is. A training course on the laws of the country A course on linguistic differences An exposure to the cultural differences A communication management plan Answer: C Explanation: Understanding cultural differences is the first step towards an effective communication amongst the project team involving outsourced work from a different country. 'a training course on the laws of the country' is a subject of legal experts and not of the project team. Closing Initiating. 'a communication management plan' is a document that provides data gathering and dissemination amongst stakeholders of the project. Executing. Controlling. Executing. B. B. before reporting the issue correctly. 'assess alternatives to meet the milestone' indicates confronting the issue with an attempt to resolve the issue. Initiating. scheduled to be achieved within another week. Closing A. Which of the following is the next best action for the project manager in this situation? A. 'omit the status update on the milestone' is unethical. Choice A. B. C. that is. what is needed in this case is 'an exposure to the cultural differences'. Executing. Planning.

Cause and Effect Diagram B. A. 50/50 B. Cost Plus Percentage of Control B. Pareto Diagram D. A. C. 60/40 C. GERT B. Benchmark Answer: A 144. Safety C. 90/10 Answer: C . Self-actualization Answer: C 148. WBS D. Flow design D. Social needs B.Which of the following is another name for an Ishikawa diagram? A. A.142. Motivation D. B. ADM C. In which phase of a project would you estimate activity duration and resources? Initiating Executing Planning Controlling Answer: C 143. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost D. 80/20 D. Quality C.Which of the following is not considered part of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs? A. Cost Plus Percentage of Contract C.The acronym CPPC stands for? A.Parento diagrams work on the ___ rule. D. CQM Answer: C 146. Cost Plus Plus Cost Answer: A 147. Grade B. Trend Analysis Answer: A 145.Which of the following according to the PMBOK is described as.Refinements are considered updates for the ____. “a category or rank given to entities having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?” A. Bell Curve C.

A.Which of the following is a key aspect of quality control? A. The creator of the project charter is identified as the ______.149.. Constrained by limited resources B. because you have to manage several sub-projects to effectively do your job . because you are creating a unique product within specific time schedules Operations Manager. therefore. A product or service may be unique even if the category to which it belongs is large. Your role is that of a: Functional Manager. Minimal planning resources C. because you have good understanding functional knowledge of the pharmaceutical industry Project Manager. because you are creating a unique product within specific time schedules Operations Manager. D. Generic cost controls D. because you have to do several repetitive tasks Program Manager.. C. May be ongoing and repetitive Answer: D Explanation: Operations and projects differ primarily in that operations are ongoing and repetitive while projects are temporary and unique. Project wide focus Answer: D 150. A project can thus be defined in terms of its distinctive characteristics .Which of the following is not the feature of a project? A. Planned. unique. executed and controlled C. Project manager Outside senior manager Internal control expert Quality control expert Answer: B 151. D. A. C. B.a project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service 153.. Functional Manager. B. B. Limited in scope B. C. Creates unique product or service D. D. because you have to manage several sub-projects to effectively do your job A. A project to bring a new drug to market may require thousands of doses of he drug to support clinical trials 152. You are managing the release of a new drug in the market. Answer: B Explanation: Projects involve doing something that has not been done before and which is. because you have to do several repetitive tasks Program Manager. because you have good understanding functional knowledge of the pharmaceutical industry Project Manager.

Your IT company is responsible for making software virus programs. Project Manager Functional Manager Operations Manager Answer: A Explanation: A program is a group of projects managed in a co-ordinated way to obtain benefits which are not available from managing them individually. Ability to handle power struggles and organizational games Answer: D Explanation: Pfeffer defines power as "the potential ability to influence behavior. C. Standards after widespread adoption may become de facto regulations. power includes all the following except: A.Which of the following statement related to Standards and Regulations is not correct? A. Standard is a document approved by a recognized body . The influence of standards and regulations for a project is always known Answer: D Explanation: For many projects. The Potential to influence behavior B. Potential to change the course of events and overcome resistance C. C. B. C.there can be multiple standards for one product. Program Manager B. As defined by Pfeffer. Regulations are mandatory but Standards are not mandatory. 154. to change the course of events. unique.Answer: B Explanation: Projects involve doing something that has not been done before and which is. A product or service may be unique even if the category to which it belongs is large.Which of the following statement related to Standards and Regulations is not correct? A. D. and to get people to do things that they would not otherwise do. You are responsible for managing both the individual product releases and the co-ordination of multiple releases over time. B.there can be multiple standards for one product. A project to bring a new drug to market may require thousands of doses of he drug to support clinical trials. Ability to get people to do things that they would not otherwise do D."…The negative sense. The influence of standards and regulations for a project is always known . standards and regulations (by whatever definition) are well known and project plans can reflect their effects. to overcome resistance. the influence is unknown or uncertain and must be considered under Project Risk Management 155. Standards after widespread adoption may become de facto regulations. Many programs also involve elements of ongoing operations. Standard is a document approved by a recognized body . therefore. of course derives from the fact that attempts to reconcile these interests result in power struggles and organizational games that can sometimes take on a thoroughly unproductive life of their own. D. D. 157. A Project Manager must have good understanding of the mechanics of power and politics to be effective. Regulations are mandatory but Standards are not mandatory. Your role is that of a: A. In other cases. 156.

The Potential to influence behavior B. D. Providing support functions to Project Managers in the form of training. software. Kill Points C. to change the course of events. power includes all the following except: A. These phase-end reviews are after called phase exits. Providing Subject Matter Expertise in the Functional areas of the project answer: C Explanation: Project Office: There is a range of uses for what constitutes a project office. to a) determine if the project should continue into its next phase and b) detect and correct errors cost effectively. 158.You are working in the Project Office of your organization. to overcome resistance. Ability to get people to do things that they would not otherwise do D. of course derives from the fact that attempts to reconcile these interests result in power struggles and organizational games that can sometimes take on a thoroughly unproductive life of their own.Phase end review of projects is also referred to as: A. Always being responsible for the results of the project C. Potential to change the course of events and overcome resistance C. templates etc. and to get people to do things that they would not otherwise do. Managing the different activities of a project B.Answer: D Explanation: For many projects. In other cases. A Project Manager must have good understanding of the mechanics of power and politics to be effective. Ability to handle power struggles and organizational games Answer: D Explanation: Pfeffer defines power as "the potential ability to influence behavior. to actually being responsible for the results of the project Free PMP Exam Sample Questions and Answers Here are nine questions and answers from the PMP Practice Exam (featured in the July 2007 newsletter) . standards and regulations (by whatever definition) are well known and project plans can reflect their effects. A project office may operate on a continuum from providing support functions to project managers in the form of training. the influence is unknown or uncertain and must be considered under Project Risk Management. etc. What is your job responsibility? A. templates. As defined by Pfeffer. Phase Exits B. Stage Gates D. 159."…The negative sense. All the above Answer: D Explanation: The conclusion of a project phase is generally marked by a review of both key deliverables and project performance to date. stage gates or kill points 160.

and helps build a sense of community. Create the preliminary scope statement 7. C. Quality D. You find that bringing all of your team members into a single room to work increases their communication. Develop the project charter D. The person who makes a risk happen. Create the work breakdown structure B. You have just been authorized to manage a new project for your company. Virtual team C. Work performance information B. The person who meets with stakeholders to explain the risk. Which is the BEST definition of quality? A. the less important it is to the product D. Formal verbal 3. the easier it is to find B. Develop the project management plan C. Which of the following BEST describes your first action? A. Formal written D. A mistake made by a team member on the job B. Time C. This is referred to as a: A." A. Information about the project must be distributed to all stakeholders. all of the measurements you take on your project should help you see if what you are building will make your clients satisfied in the end. Informal written B. War room B. A product that satisfies the requirements of the people who pay for it. The person who is responsible for the response plan for the risk. Issue logs C. the faster it is to repair 6. A change request that’s been rejected by the change control board Answers 1. Which of the following is a defect? A. Status reports D. If you have done a good job of gathering and understanding those requirements.Questions 1. A change that the team needs to make in how they do the work C. B. D. A project management plan that does not meet its requirements D. You are managing a design project. C. Cost 8. Socially active team D. . Which of the following process outputs is used to report the status and cost of project activities? A. 2. Project records 9. A product that passes all of its tests. Complete the following sentence: "The later a defect is found. C Quality management is all about making sure that the product you are building conforms to your customer’s requirements. Informal verbal C. B. __________ . the more expensive it is to repair C. D. Which form of communication is appropriate? A. Common area 5. What is a risk owner? A. A product made with a lot of care by the team who built it. 4. A project manager is reporting the final status of the closed contract to the stakeholders. The person who monitors the watchlist that contains the risk. Scope B. A product made of very expensive materials. Which of the following is NOT one of the triple constraints? A.

Sometimes the room the co-located team meets in is called a war room. What do you see? A list of processes . D Every risk should have a risk owner listed in the register. Any time you make a change to one or more of these constraints. So which process comes next? The first thing you do after the project charter is signed is perform the Develop Preliminary Scope Statement process. When you do this. C Every project. That person is responsible for keeping the response plan up to date and make sure the right actions are taken if the risk does occur. But you’re not the only one who needs this . is affected by the triple constraint of time. B The reason we work to do quality planning up front is that it is most expensive to deal with problems if you find them late in the project. So what clues do you have to tell you where you are in the project lifecycle? Well. which is NOT one of the constraints. "Develop Project Management Plan". C It’s easy to get change. The best case is when you never inject the defects in the first place. A You create one of the most important outputs of your entire project when the team is doing the project work. Since the project charter is what authorizes a project manager to work on a project. it means that the Develop Project Charter process has just been performed."Create WBS". Work Performance Information tells you the status of each deliverable in the project. 9.defects can come from lots of . and all of the information you need to know in order to figure out how your project’s going. what the team’s accomplished. 7. 8. but anything that has to do with a contract DEFINITELY needs to be formal written. regardless of what is being produced or who is doing the work. That’s why you need to pay attention to all three constraints if you want your project to do well.your team members and stakeholders need to know what’s going on. and cost. 5. D Take a look at the answers to this question. you’ve just been authorized to manage a new project. scope. you can increase communication and help them build a sense of community. so they can adjust their work and correct problems early on. defects and corrective actions mixed up ." and "Develop Preliminary Scope Statement. then it doesn’t cost anything to deal with them. it can also affect the other two ." So your job is to figure out which of these processes comes next. A Co-location means that you have all of your team located in the same room. Not only that. 4.2. "Develop Project Charter. A defect is NOT always caused by a mistake . 3. 6. Prevention is always better than inspection.and the change can also affect quality.they’re all words that sound suspiciously similar! Just remember: a defect is any deliverable that does not meet its requirements. C All project reports must be communicated as formal written documents.

50 Answer: C Explanation: The expected monetary value (Ex$V) for risk A is calculated by 0. 1. Answer: D Explanation: Oligopoly: There are very few sellers and the actions of one seller will have a direct effect on the other seller's prices and the overall market condition. Most risk acceptance policies rely on a contingency allowance for the project. For example. Which of the following describes a characteristic or possibility that may occur in this type of contract? . Ltd. defines the details and requirements for acceptance of the project C. Which of the following best describes the project’s market for materials? A. plenty of defects are caused by equipment problems.50 D. C. and GIG Limited. The performing organization. which he described as an oligopoly. regarding the procurement of pre-screened T-shirts to be used for Project UR. Rose Hale is the project manager of Project UR.50 2. prefers to contract with JI Limited only. D.25 x -$50 = -$12. Project KIL has risks A and B. and expected monetary value of a risk event. JI Limited. -$12. used to rate and score proposals from the sellers Answer: C Explanation: An evaluation of the marketplace is needed to determine what products and services are available and from whom and on what terms and conditions they are available. Christian Zininski is the project manager of LOP Project. POLL Agency. and team members’ errors only cause some defects. A contingency allowance is an amount of money the project will likely need in the contingency reserve based on the impact. Only GIG Limited is the qualified seller that exists in the marketplace. his project assistant identified that the project has to depend on three procurement sources: HUH Limited. 3. A has 25% probability of occurring and a negative impact of -$50 while B has 45% probability of occurring and a negative impact of -$90. needed to determine what products and services are available and from whom and on what terms and conditions they are available D. Procurement planning is the process of identifying which part of the project should be procured from resources outside of the organization. 4.50 B.sources. defines the project work and only the required work to complete the project B. Only GIG Limited and HUH Limited want to contract with Christian’s performing organization. POLL Agency. Which of the following refers to market condition evaluation? A. What is the expected monetary value (Ex$V) for risk A? A. There are very few sellers and the actions of GIG Limited will have a direct effect on the other seller's prices and the overall market condition. During the procurement process. B. probability. -$40. -$1250 C. Rose signed a Cost-Reimbursable contract with Shirts. $12.

While working on a highly sensitive computer project at Company W. If she is wrong. 5. Based on previous work with this company. Examples include utilities. Which of the following refers to indirect costs? A. 7. Use the Decision Tree D. As the project manager of the new Project XZA. This contract may provide incentives for meeting or exceeding contract requirements such as meeting deadlines. This agreement does not procure or specify a firm quantity of supplies (other than a minimum or maximum quantity) and that provides for the issuance of orders for the delivery of supplies during the period of the contract C.A. costs of production that do not vary with output Answer: B Explanation: Indirect costs: costs attributed to the cost of doing business. B. Answer: D Explanation: Cost-reimbursable contracts require the buyer to assume the risk of cost overruns. B. Tori must disclosure her concerns clearly and succinctly to the project’s stakeholders as soon as possible.000. 6. Tori comes across a potential security leak in the system. Project Managers must report on projects accurately as possible. If she is right. The outsource developer you would use quotes the project cost at $175. Continuous probability distribution B. office space. Again. costs attributed to the cost of doing business C. Cost-Reimbursable Contracts pay the seller for the product.000. as well as report any possible legal violations immediately. Sensitivity analysis C. millions of records in the database have already been compromised. Project Simulation . you have to decide whether to create a new web application in-house or send the project out to a developer. The agreement requires Rose’s firm to assume the risk of cost overruns. What should Tori do according to the Code? A. Your in-house development team quotes the cost of the work as $165. The agreement defines a total price for the product the seller is to provide. Tori is not obligated to do anything unless she is sure there is a problem. C. costs that have fixed and variable elements B. you feel 75%t certain they can complete the work on time. costs of production that vary directly with output D. ANS: B Explanation: According to the Code. D. and other overhead costs. she risks losing the respect of her project team and stakeholders. you are 85% certain they will finish the work on time. Tori can hint to her manager that there may be a problem. The actual costs of the product fall into two categories. In the payment to the seller there is a profit margin-the difference between the actual costs of the product and the sales amount. which will result in a press release causing a lot of negative press. Which of the following quantitative risk analysis approaches should you use here? A. D. Tori can quietly investigate the situation further. based on previous experience with your in-house developers.

Right after the project has started. Offer an extra hand if they need more communication resources for this obligation. before exploring communication modalities. Early in the project. After identifying all of the stakeholders in these 5 projects. 10. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) C. At the middle phase of the project. B.Answer: C Explanation: Decision Tree: a method to determine which of two decisions is the best to make. Answer: D Explanation: The requirements of the contract should be evaluated against the demands of the project staff to determine if extra resources will be needed to handle the communications. Evaluate the requirements of the contract against the demands of the project staff. Project Mag. The project manager will rely on several pieces of information to prepare for team development. 9. C. Durdo Schmitt is the project manager for 5 new projects. Ken’s project team has identified BAYAG’s contractual obligations to the project’s sponsors as project constraints. She’s currently planning the communication requirements of a new project. When should she accurately assess stakeholder information needs? A. before exploring communication modalities. he decided to rank the major stakeholders of the 5 new projects according to their expected risk tolerance functions. D. Call the sponsor’s company and inquire on the communication modalities they prefer to be used when communicating with them. Answer: D. Staffing Management histogram Answer: C. Which of the following stakeholders will have a low risk tolerance? . Early in the project. The BAYAG Project Management Company designated Ken Toothe to be the project manager of the Pookey Project. 11. What should Ken do in order to determine if extra resources will be needed to handle the communications in this project? A. Resource histogram D. Nina Gouldman is the project manager of Ken Publishing. Send a notice to BAYAG’s communications office and remind them of their responsibilities regarding the communication requirements of the sponsor contract. Explanation: Management may also want to see a resource histogram so they may plan employees' time and activities accordingly. Evaluate BAYAG’s available communication channels C. Which of the following corresponds to the image below? A. 8. Explanation: Accurately assessing stakeholder information needs must be completed early in the project. Stakeholder demands during the first half of the project will accurately assess what kind of information stakeholders really need and how often they need it. D. after evaluating the project constraints and assumptions. He is currently in the planning stage of risk management. B. This will help Nina accurately estimate the kind of information that stakeholders actually need. Project Plan B.

2. especially in light of the upcoming project presentation.htm (1) A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. 3. Jordyn asks the Project Manager to intervene.A. Your quality metrics are based on the 80th percentile of each of the last three products developed. Orphaned children that will be entertained by Project FUN for Orphans (Creation of a new playground at the Gitamos Orphanage) B. They are arguing over a situation that has little to do with the project. Jordyn has just told her Project Manager that a sudden problem has come up between two critical project team C. Members of a local little baseball league who will rely on Project Grass (Free baseball field set up services) D. Single mothers who will rely on Project Sit (Free babysitting services or single mothers who work) C. Death row convict and his/her family members who will depend on Project Death Row (Providing transportation for families and kin of death row convicts during the convict’s execution day) Answer: D Explanation: Choice D is a matter of life and death while the other choices are not. http://www. but she throws her hands in the air and says: “I simply cannot deal with this right now!” What has she done? A. 4. B. Contract close out and scope verification . Answer: C Explanation: Withdrawing involves walking away from the problem. but each is convinced that he is absolutely right and the other is absolutely wrong. 2. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style: 1. 4. She has withdrawn. She has made a compromise. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. D. 12. although they are about to make a joint presentation to the sponsor.tutorialspoint. Statistical sampling Metrics Benchmarking Operational definitions Answer: C (3) The two closing procedures are called: 1. 3. Hierarchal Authoritarian Charismatic Associative Answer:C (2) You are in charge of developing a new product for an organization. She has solved the problem. She has smoothed over the issue. This is an example of: 1.

2. 2. 4. 4. PERT. 3. 4. All of the following are tools and techniques that may be used during this process: 1. 2. 3. 3. 4. Leads and Lags Answer:C (5) Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period. 3. 2. Contract close out and Close Project Project closure and product verification Project closure and lessons learned Answer: B (4) During the schedule development process the Project Manager may have to go through several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. but seldom resolves the issue in the long term? 1. 3. 5. 4. Mathematical Analysis. Problem solving Withdrawal Forcing Smoothing Answer:B (6) The receiver filters messages based on all but the following: 1. Calendars Duration compression. Team building Analysis of alternatives Convergent thinking Uninhibited verbalization Answer: C (9) The critical element in a project's communication system is the: . 4. Critical Path Method. PERT GERT. 2. GERT. Resource Leveling Heuristics. 40-60% 50-70% 60-80% 75-90% Answer: D (8) Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except: 1. Culture Semantics Language Distance Knowledge Answer: D (7) How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both formally and informally? 1. Resource Requirements Resource Leveling Heuristics.2. 3.

Correct the project manager's mistakes. 4.3. 4. 3.4 1. 2. 3. Functional Cross-functional Matrix Balanced Answer:C (13) Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1. Provide for answers for upper levels of management To assess project status or progress To apprise the project costs and cost trends of the project Answer: C (12) A complex project will fit best in what type of organization? 1.1. 4. 2.1. 3. 3. 4. 3. Scope Planning Initiation Scope Change Control Scope Definition Create WBS Answer:E . more manageable components? 1. 2.1. 5. 4. 1.1 1. 2.2.0? 1. 5. Assuring that the pieces of a project come together at the right time Planning for contingencies that may occur throughout the life cycle of the project The pieces of the project function as an integration unit a and c Answer: D (11) Performance reviews are held to: 1. 2.4 a and c b and c Answer:E (14) Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller. 2. 3. Progress report Project directive Project manager Customer Answer: C (10) System integration consists of: 1. 4.

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. 2. phase exit kill point stage gate a and c all of the above Answer:E (16) Project scope is: 1. a and d. 2. 3. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project. 4. 2. 5. Confirming the message is understood Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message Scheduling communication exchange Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner Answer: A (19) What are the best uses of PERT: 1. Assist in the controlling of changes to the project. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.(15) The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called: 1. Used in the planning phase to do " what if for the project. An external event such as a change in government regulation. 2. 2. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract. 5. 2. 3. To measure future consequences of activities. 3. 3. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product. 4. 4. 4. 3. Is used in the process of preparing a WBS for the project. 4. The work package codes The project identifiers The code of accounts The element accounts Answer:C (18) The sender of a message is responsible for: 1. a and b all of the above Answer:A (17)The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collectively as: 1. 3. 5. Answer: E (20) Change requests can occur due to: 1. 4. a and c all of the above . 5.

A process of considerable scope that implements a plan. and constrained by limited resources. Acquire Project Team and Develop Project Team Rewarding. 2. A formal. . A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.Answer:E (21) A project plan is: 1. Answer:A (22) Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report? 1. 3. project staff planning and team building HR planning. 3. 4. 4. performed by people. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service. which is planned. approved document used to guide both project execution and project control. Ease of use Cost of using it Available expertise Capability Realism Answer:E (24) What is Team Development? 1. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied. Setting up a team of people with the skills set that are required Sending you project team to a PMI seminar Motivating your project team members Enhancing the ability of stakeholders to contribute as individuals Enhancing the ability of the team to function as a team Answer:D&E (25) 3 major processes in Project HRM: 1. 4. 2. 4. 2. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. staff training. 2. 3. 3. 2. 3. 2. salary reviews and penalties Staff acquisition. 5. Staff recruitment. Gantt chart Milestone chart Fishbone diagram Network diagram Answer:C (23) The most important criteria in selecting project selection method is: 1. and controlled. 4. An endeavor. executed. 3. staff deployment Answer:B (26) A project is defined as: 1. 5.

executing. planning. Initiating. and closing Answer:D (29) ___________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan. executing. Stakeholder requirements Project performance Schedule progress Cost and schedule Answer:B (30) A project kick off meeting is usually conducted to: 1. 3. Answer:C (27) General management encompasses: 1. contracting. Organizational development. 4. Answer:A (28) Project management processes can be organized into: 1. contract administration. financial management. Changes in government regulations Natural hazards Unexpected environmental side effects Inflation Answer:D (32) Maslow ranked Human needs from the highest to lowest: 1. 4. procurement. and administration Designing. security and physiological . planning and controlling. Self actualization. business economics. and implementation Initiating. 2. security and physiological needs Self esteem. organizational behavior. 4. Setup project team and announce the PM assignment To draft project charter Build up team spirit Define project scope and develop WBS Answer:A (31) Which of the following is not an external-unpredictable risk? 1. and legal services necessary for operating an enterprise. 3. Business strategy.4. controlling. and controlling the operations of an ongoing enterprise. 4. 2. staffing. 2. and contract administration as part of an ongoing organization. designing. self promotion. organizing. and implementing Initiating. developing. 3. 2. Business policy. executing. and personnel administration required for managing the ongoing aspect of a business venture. Planning. marketing and sales. 3. 3. social. procurement. planning. staffing. 1. planning. 4. self actualization. testing. An objective based effort of temporary nature. controlling. social. 2. 2. executing.

social. 3. which was not budgeted in the project. 2. Replacement of the project manager or key project team members. 2. 3. resources. new knowledge about the deliverable. or cost . will lead to increased motivation. and technological uncertainty Errors in the initial assessment of how to achieve the goal of the project. self esteem. which. and a new mandate Unavailability of resources promised by the functional managers. Changes in the relative importance of time. A fixed price contract contains the most risk for the buyer. 3. social. and changes in customer requirements . Refuse to do the work Agree to do the work at no charge Do the work and bill him later Assess the cost and schedule impact and tell them you will decide later Answer:D (36) You are responsible for ensuring that your seller's performance meets contractual requirements. 4.3. cost overruns. Cost reimbursable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential. For effective contract administration. Hold a bidders conference Establish the appropriate contract type Implement the contract change control system Develop a statement of work Answer:C (37) The three major causes of change on a project are: 1. It is a small effort as compared to the total project and you need the goodwill for a multimillion dollar on the pipeline. Good supervision Job security Regular promotions Good salary A dental plan Answer:C (35) Your customer ask for a small change in the project. 4. if present. Answer:C (34) Herzberg identified factors. 2. A typical factor would be: 1. security and physiological Answer:C (33) Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct? 1. 2. self esteem. changes in priorities by senior management. 4. 2. 3. and contractual difficulties. 5. 4. Unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions. security and physiological Self fulfillment. 4. you should: 1. 3. 4. new information about the project deliverable. Lump sum contracts offer sellers the greatest profit potential. You will 1. Self actualization.

4. 2. and who will be its custodian on completion is the: . 2. Decision-making Cost Control Overhead rate estimating Team discussions Answer:A (41) Which of the following methods is least likely to be used for explaining project planning guidelines to the team? 1. 3. 3.Answer:C (38) The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is to: 1. Your customer meet you and requested that he will not accept the product unless you make several changes. the user acceptance test. In term of schedule. 2. It meets all the product specs and is under planned costs. 4. this project is ahead. 3. Determine how many resources are required to complete the project according to the project baseline Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase Answer:D (39) Your project is in the final test stage. If the total cost is still within the baseline. 2. 2. Stakeholder's pressure Business needs Technological obsolescence All of the above Answer:D (43) The party that needs the change resulting from the project. Get the list of the changes and estimate all of them. What you should do is: 1. 4. 3. Answer:C (40) The delphi Method is best suited for: 1. Project Office Memo Project office directive Project team meeting Formal project report Answer:D (42) Projects are initiated in response of: 1. 3. you just do it Estimate the costs and send this to your customer requesting contract modification Ask the customer to file a Change request Sit with the customer to review the product specs and tell him/her that you have completed the project. 4. 4.

Owner Sponsor Customer Client Answer:A (44) A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and taken off the project team is called a: 1. 4.1. 2. 5. 2. 4. 4. 4. 4. 3. 3. 3. 3. Resource Assignment Chart Answer:A (45) In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult? 1. 2. 2. Functional Projectized Matrix Project expediter Project coordinator Answer:C (46) A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project scope definition is called: 1. Scope Definition Matrix Responsibility Assignment Matrix Roles Assignment Matrix Project Scope and Roles Matrix Answer:B (47) Which of the following are outputs from the Communications Planning process? 1. 3. 4. 3. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS). 5. 2. Project records Communications management plan Performance reports Formal acceptance b and c Answer:B (48) The receiver filters messages based on all but the following: 1. Culture Semantics Language Distance Knowledge Answer:D . 2. 5. Staffing Management Plan Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM ).

2. 4. and non-verbal. 4. Answer:A (51) All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT: 1. Verbal. 4. Manager in a weak matrix Manager in a projectized environment Coordinator Expeditor Answer:D (53) What are the four parts of the communications model? 1. 3. 3. 2. Win-Lose Win-Win Lose-Lose None of the above Answer:C . 2. 3. Medium. Memos Verbal circulation of a rumor Videos Body language Inputting data into a spreadsheet Answer:E (52) Communication is the PRIME responsibility of a Project: 1. Receiver Communicator.(49) The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of: 1. 4. Verbal. Verbal. written. 2. Transmitting. Receiving. 4. 3. Receiver. Written. Message. Networking Transmitting Encrypting Promoting Answer:B (50) The three major types of communication are: 1. 3. Decoder Communicating. 5. Comprehending Answer:B (54) In negotiating with functional department managers. informal documentation. Decoding. project managers often find themselves using what two-party conflict management approach? 1. and Comprehending Sender. 4. written. and graphic. verbal. Message. formal documentation. Receiving. 2. and electronic. 2. Sending. 3.

4. 4. 2. 4. 3. 3. 3. 4.(55) A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group is called: 1. 3. 2. which of the following statements about contingency reserves is false? 1. 3. 2. 4. 2. 3. 5. Initiation Process Group Planning Process Group Executing Process Group Monitoring & Controlling Process Group Answer: B (58) In which of the following organizations is the project manager role likely to be part-time? 1. Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns. 2. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns. 5. 2. Autocratic Consultation in a group Consensus One-to-one consultation Answer:C (56) A type of organization in which the project manager has little formal authority and basically acts as a staff assistant to an executive who is ultimately responsible for the project is called: 1. . Functional Weak matrix Project coordinator Project expediter Answer:D (57) Create WBS process belongs to: 1. Risk Quantification Risk Identification Risk Analysis Risk Response Development Risk Response Control Answer:E (60) Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve. A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part. Weak matrix Functional Balanced matrix a and b All of the above Answer:C (59) Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes except: 1.

4. a and c a and b Answer:D (62) A contingency plan is: 1. 2. 5. 3. 2. Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss. 3. 2. a and c a and b Answer:A (63) Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories? 1. 3. 3. 4. which of the following is true? 1. A workaround A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part. Whether to procure How to procure and how much to procure What and when to procure b and c all of the above Answer:E (66) From a buyer's standpoint. 5. 4. No opportunities are associated with pure risk. The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy. 2. Answer:C (61) Which of the following is true about pure risk? 1. Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.4. 2. only losses. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur. 5. 4. Procurement planning should include consideration of potential subcontracts . Unknown unknowns Known unknowns business risks pure risks Answer:A (65) Which of the following is considered during the Procurement Planning Process? 1. Mitigation Acceptance Avoidance Analysis Answer:A (64) Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk? 1. 3. 4.

2. 3. 4. Salaries of corporate executives Salaries of full-time project staff Overhead costs a and b a and c Answer:E (70) Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller? 1. Subcontractors are first considered during the Solicitation Process none of the above Answer:A (67) Which of the following is true about procurement documents? 1. 4. 2. 3. 2. 5. 4. 5. 4. 3. Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers.2. 4. 4. 3. 2. Procurement planning does not include consideration of potential subcontracts since this is the duty of the contractor. Invitation for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents. 3. 3. Weighting system Screening system Selecting system none of the above all of the above Answer:A (69) Which of the following are examples of indirect costs? 1. 2. Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellers. b and c all of the above Answer:E (68) Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection? 1. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract Cost plus-incentive-fee contract Fixed-price-incentive contract Firm-fixed-price contract Answer:D (71) In which of the following contract types is the seller's profit limited? 1. 5. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract Fixed-price-plus-incentive b and c none of the above . 5.

The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor. 3. contract has a target cost of $130. 3. 2. all of them are appropriate Answer:C (76) In which stage of the negotiation meeting are points of concession identified? 1.000 with an agreed profit of 10% of the costs. Request for quotation (RFQ. Invitation for bid (IFB. 2. 3. What is the total reimbursement to the seller? 1. 4. 4. 4. 5.000. all the above a and c Answer:E (75) Which type of bilateral contract is used for high dollar.000 Answer:A (74) Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract? 1.000 $140. Purchase order Request for proposal (RFP. contract has an estimated cost of $120.000.000 $142.000. a ceiling price of $160. The actual cost of the project is $130. standard items? 1. 3. The actual cost of the project was $150. Probing Closure Agreement Scratch bargaining Answer:D (77) Which of the following is NOT a method of government procurement? . a target profit of $15. a target price of $145. The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does not have.000. 2.000. 3. $10.000 $15.000 $0 $5. and a share ratio of 80/20.000 $132. 5. 2. $143. How much profit does the seller make? 1. The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort.Answer:D (72) A cost-plus-percentage-cost (CPPC.000. 4. 4. 2.000 Answer:A (73) A fixed-price-plus-incentive-fee (FPI.

Seven consecutive points are ascending. or the same. Assistance Sealed Bidding Competitive proposals Acquisition Small purchases No answer provided Answer:D (78) The "rule of seven" as applied to process control charts means that : 1. 4.00001 this project is: 1. 4. 3. 4. descending. 3. If there are seven points on one side of mean. risk quantification. Overbudget and cannot recover Underbudget Overbudget and early in its evolution No interference cam be made Answer:D (80) A collection of generally sequential project phases whose name and number are determined by the control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project. 2. 2. 3. 6. 5.1. 3. A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside the lower and upper control limits. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees. risk Monitor and Control? 1. Project Communications Management Project human resource Management Project Procurement Management Project Risk Management Answer: D . 2. then an assignable cause must be found. 2. 4. 2. Really Dumb User Ready for Download Use Remaining Duration unassisted Remaining Duration Answer: D (82) Who is responsible for risk identification. 3. 3. is called: 1. risk response development. Project life cycle Product life cycle Project life event All of the above Answer: A (81) What does RDU stand for? 1.81 and TCPI=1. 4. 2. Answer:A (79) There is project with CPI of 0. 4.

2. The Best and Worst Case effort calculation: 1. Overall Project Chart Temporary Duration ANSWER: C (89) The smallest unit of time used in scheduling the project is known as: .(83) Three Point Statistical Estimating Formula Group. 3. 2. True False Both True and False Neither true nor false ANSWER: A (88) 7. 3. 4. 3. Time Quality Managed Target Quality Management Total Quality Management Time Quote Management ANSWER: C (86) Examples of Projects include: 1. 3. Calculate (Best + Worst) / 2 Calculate (Best +2 ) / Worst Calculate (2 + Worst) / Best none of the above Answer: A (85) What does TQM stand for? 1. 3. Implementing a new business procedure or process Constructing a building or facility Designing a new transportation vehicle All of the Above ANSWER: D (87) Projects are undertaken at all levels of the organization? 1. ________ means that every project has a definite beginning and a definite end. 2. 1. 4. 2. 2. Expected Value = 1. 4. 4. 4. 3. 4. 2. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) x 6 (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6 (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) x Pessimistic ) divided by 6 (Optimistic + (4 + Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6 Answer: B (84) Two Point Delphi Estimate.

100% inspection. The success of any project depends primarily on: 1. 4. 2. 3. Answer: C (92) Cost Plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) contracts provide: 1. A reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon percentage of the estimated cost as profit. The project team members. The Project Manager. Answer: A . 2. Answer: A (93) Project success depends on a no. 3. 3. 2. 4. Studying project results. A and C. Planning with top management. 3. The supplier with a fixed price for a delivered performance plus a predetermined fee for superior performance. Customer satisfaction. Answer: B (94) Which of the following is the most efficient means of product quality inspection: 1. 2. cost and scope control. including time. Variable lot inspection. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating. 4. 3. 5. 2. Talking with personnel. Calendar Unit Scope unit Time Measurement All of the Above ANSWER: A (90) Who should be involved in the project planning phase? 1. 4. A reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately as the contract progresses. Answer: E (91) The successful project managers spend most of their time: 1. Customer acceptance. Acceptance sampling.1. All of the above. of interrelated factors. None of the above. 4. The Sub-contractors/vendors. Customer compromise in defining its needs. Planning with their personnel. 2. The customer. 3. 4.

Conflict is bad. Conflict is caused by trouble makers. 4.(95) Constructive Team Role includes : 1. Conflict of interest. procurement schedule. All of the above. Conflict is often beneficial. B and C. and any limitations that top management wants to apply. Answer: C (96) Pareto Analysis. 5. Answer: D (100) In general a project charter covers: 1. a project schedule. Answer: B (98) A condition which will lead an organization towards conflict is: 1. 3. objectives. recognize and summary. Both A and B. Project justification. Differentiation in organization Resolved prior conflicts. 3. estimates. background. a project schedule. objectives. background. Compromise. Verification. Assurances. Investigates. Answer: D (99) The contemporary view of conflict is that: 1. 2. A. 2. blocker and closer. background. Control. 3. clarifier and closer. Negotiations. Answer: A (97) In a multi-cultural environment. scope. . 1. and any imitations that top management wants to apply. organizational apply. it is critical to establish a corporate culture that facilitates: 1. 3. Project justification. 4. objectives. and detailed procurement schedules responsibilities. 4. Partnerships. 5. 4. 4. 3. Planning. estimates. strong alliances and joint ventures. available resources. Learning and communication. 2. Initiate. 2. Conflict should be avoided. 2. Project justification. scope. detailed project schedules. cause and effect diagrams and flow charts are used in quality. encourage and gate keeper. 3. Problem-solving through different approaches. available resources. organizational responsibilities. organizational responsibilities. 2. scope. available resources. Investigates.

Answer: D (101) A project manager has increased project costs by US $75. 3. Lag is waiting time. procurement schedules. 4. Communicating authorized changes to senior management and key stakeholders. Lag may be determined by making a forward pass. Answer: D (104) The behavioral responsibilities of a project manager may also include dealing with: 1. Regulatory Personnel The legal environment Environmental Issues All of the above Answer: D (105) The major purpose of project status reports is to: 1. 2. 2. Lag is the maximum amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the early start of its successor. Organize and summarize the information so that all stakeholders were informed Inform upper management of the project problems Inform the client about the changes that have completed Provide information to management and client Answer: A (106) Most project management leadership theories focus on all of the following except : 1. Managing changes immediately as they surface. Resource leveling Duration compression Crashing Fast tracking Answer: C (102) Which of the following is most true? 1. 3. 2. 4. 3. 3. Preventing unnecessary changes. Lag is the maximum amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the project. 4. but completed the project six weeks earlier than planned. 2. Formally documenting all changes. Project scope. Answer: C (103) As project manager you should dedicate a primary focus to: 1. 2. a project schedule.000. and any limitations that top management wants to apply. 4. estimates.4. responsibilities. Personal characteristics of the project manager . 4. 3. objectives. available resources. What tool is best described here? 1.

Update the schedules and assume an active role since the client has not given you the specifics of the potential problem Make sure that the team has increased productivity so the client can see how efficient your team is performing Assemble the team and ask them to prepare an agenda for topics to discuss Make sure that each team member has his assignment in preparation for any handouts and needed plans Answer: C (110) The definitive terms of a contract are written during which of the following contract phases? 1. shortfalls Analyze strengths. What should you do to prepare for this meeting 1. 3. but now he wants a formal meeting. Predict trends. 3. 3. 4. 4. Gantt Chart WBS Project Charter Scope statement . If this occurs. it could be a major problem for your project. 2. 4. 3. 4. Contract phase Post award phase Award phase Pre award phase Requirement phase Answer: C (111) A document that formally recognizes the existence of a project is a : 1. 2. document results Justify results.2. All previous meetings were informal with this client. Conceptual Planning Implementation Execution Answer: A (108) Historical records during close-out are useful to __________ and ____________ for future projects: 1. 4. 2. The client is coming to your office in one week to discuss the problem and to see what your team can do to overcome this setback. 2. Personal traits of the subordinates Behavioral styles of the project manager Usefulness of authority and power and leadership Answer: B (107) Preliminary Cost estimates are developed during the______ phase of the project: 1. 3. 3. Analyze successes. 4. 2. 5. highlight problems. set standards Answer: A (109) Your client informs that his company has a problem with the current design specs of your product and how it will interface with the existing systems.

Initiation Process Solicitation Process Scoping Process Planning process Answer: A (116) A supplier has withdrawn from your project. Bring your team in for introductions and establish a communications exchange Bring out the communication management plan Bring out the project plan. His labor forces are due to arrive at the job site tomorrow. Initiating Planning Executing Controlling Answer: C (115) ______ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so: 1. 4. 3. 4. 2. Meet with the supplier and his forces and establish yourself as the authority in charge. 4. 3. 2. 4. Answer: A (117) A new project manager is about to begin creating the project's scope of work. . 2.Answer: C (112) Some organizations are now using 6 Sigma for quality control compared to the usual: 1. 3. 4. Which of the following would you advise the project manager to do? 1. A new supplier has been retained. Risk avoidance Risk acceptance Risk mitigation Contingency planning Answer: A (114) In which of the following project management process groups are the most time and money typically spent? 1. The scope of work should be general to allow the seller to make its own decisions. 2 sigma 3 sigma 4 sigma 5 sigma Answer: B (113) Reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the possibility of its occurrence is: 1. One stakeholder wants to add many items to the scope of work. You should : 1. The project is important for the project manager's company but a seller will do the work. 2. 2. The scope of work should be general to allow clarification later. Another stakeholder only wants to describe the functional requirements. 3. 3. 2.

the project manager should spend time reviewing a documented scope statement with the goal of identifying this and other false assumptions. The scope of work should be detailed to allow clarifications later. Perform project feedback on the team Obtain sign off from the customer Review project documentation for completeness Update the project plans Answer: B (122) Financial controls that need to be considered for project plan development do not include: 1. the second member confirms that the first member is mistaken. After talking to the project manager. 2. At the next project meeting. Risk monitoring and control. 3. The project manager should send out an e-mail to the team restating the project objectives and deliverables. 4. 4. The second team member should send the other team member an e-mail describing what he discovered. After five-and-a-half months of work. It is clear they heard different messages during the meeting. 3. the team member should ask the mistaken team member to describe his interpretation so the project manager can get everyone on the same page. the project is on schedule and budget. 3. what is the BEST course of action? 1. the customer neither acknowledges the deliverable nor says if it is acceptable. two team members engage in a casual conversation about the project objectives and deliverables. 2. although an approval is required. One member is so adamant that the other member gives up arguing the point. 2. a project team delivers a project deliverable to the customer. The MOST important process that could have prevented this situation is: 1. Answer: C (121) When you are closing out a project.3. This situation will delay the project completion by one month. Scope planning. but the sponsors are not satisfied with the deliverables. Answer: D (119) During project execution. At this point. Scope change control. The scope of work should be as detailed as necessary for the type of project. 2. What is the BEST thing to do? 1. At the next project meeting. Time reporting Standard contract provisions . Answer: D (118) After the kickoff meeting. what must you do? 1. 3. 4. Continue with the project Document the situation Contact management for help Call a meeting of the team Answer: C (120) You are managing a six months project and have held bi-weekly meetings with your project sponsors. However. 4. Schedule control. 4. 2.

2. However. 2.3. 2. Team C has repeatedly missed several deadlines in the past causing Team D to have to crash the critical path several times. 4. 3. What is each team member's favorite color Each team member's objectives for working on the project A list of each team member's tasks Each team member's role in the project plan Answer: D (127) An advisor to a new project manager tells the project manager to create lessons learned at the end of a project. 4. what should you do? 1. 3. Re-evaluate the effectiveness of the reward system the project manager has put in place talk to each team member's boss Re-plan the project Tell the team he needs its support Answer: A (124) A project has several teams. A lessons learned includes? 1. Based upon the reporting. 4. 3. Process audits Accounting codes Answer: C (123) A project manager has been working on a project for six months with the same team yet the team still shows a lack of support for the project. your team members know that a major milestone has just been missed and that the project will not meet its startup date. 3. 2. you have told the client that the project is on time. The best thing for the project manager to do would be to? 1. Any variances and the causes of the variances Reports from the customer Reports from management A list of all the plans . 4. Meet with management alone Meet with the project manager alone Meet with the project manager and management Meet with the project manager and the team C leader Answer: D (125) The current update to the schedule performance report shows no schedule variance. Communication management planning Scope management planning Team trust Schedule planning Answer: A (126) A project manager is assigned a project with a team that has already been selected. The first thing the project manager should find out about the team is? 1. 4. 2. 4. This is an indication of poor? 1. 3. As the project leader for Team D.

has finish-to-start task relationships and provides the flexibility of lead and lag time to the activities.Answer: A (128) A project management professional can compare earned value performance data to all of the following project management tools EXCEPT: 1. management and project teams b and c Answer: D (133) Ultimate responsibility for quality management in the project rests with the? 1. 4. 4. 2. and personnel of your project are now being integrated into the functional organization. 3. 3. 2. Critical path analysis Technical performance metrics Risk mitigation plans Forecasted final costs and schedule estimates Answer: D (129) The project is completed and the final deliverable given to the customer but the customer refuses to take any action to give final acceptance on the project. 4. 3. Your project is being terminated by: 1. materials. 4. 2. Answer: A (132) Gantt charts are great for: 1. 2. Extinction Addition Integration Starvation Answer: C (131) The Precedence Diagramming Method : 1. 4. The property. has the activity on the node. 3. Project engineer Purchasing agent Quality manager Team members . Repeatedly ask for final acceptance Ask the team for assistance Document the situation Do nothing because there is nothing that can be done Answer: C (130) Your new product development project has resulted in a highly successful new product. equipment. 2. Showing tasks relationships Tracking actual vs planned Good communications with customer. 2. The project manager should? 1. 3.

4. 4. Someone from the quality department comes to see you about beginning a quality audit of your project. 2. Discuss with team Use schedule reserves . Formal & expert Reward & penalty Expert & referent Formal & referent Answer: C (138) Your preferred resource is not available at the time needed. What is the best thing to do? 1. Negotiate with management to get the resource Assess your alternatives Begin the task early Use reserves to increase resources assigned to those tasks. 2. already under pressure to complete the project as soon as possible. 3. takes objection to the audit. 3. The most appropriate management style to use is: 1. 3. 2. 4. 2. The team. 3. 2. 2. Laissez-faire Democratic Autocratic Directive Answer: A (137) The types of power that have substantial influence on both subordinates and upper management are: 1. You should explain to the team that the purpose of a quality audit is? 1. What is the first thing to do? 1.Answer: D (134) Design of experiments? 1. identifies which variables have the most influence on a quality outcome identifies which variables have the least influence on a quality outcome determines what a quality outcome is is a method for research and development Answer: A (135) You are a project manager for a major information systems project. You want to encourage your staff to pool its knowledge on project issues to make the best decisions possible. Answer:B (139) An important piece of hardware will be late. 4. 3. part of an ISO 9000 investigation to check if the customer is following its quality process to identify lessons learned that can improve performance on the project to check the accuracy of the costs submitted by the team Answer: C (136) You manage a project whose team members have diverse skills and expertise. 4.

staff attrition. 3. but there is not enough reserve to accommodate the change. and controlled Answer:B (144) Which of the following is not a Project Management knowledge area? 1. Your new position: 1. What is the FIRST thing you should do? 1. performed personnel administrative functions and negotiated for more resources. Who should authorize the change? 1. and slow client reviews. These are examples of: 1. 2. managed conflict. 2. 3. Continuous Process Improvement. Is a project because the work will be performed by people Is not a project because Continuous Process Improvement will continue indefinitely Is a project because it is constrained by limited resources Is a project because improvements must be planned. 3. 2. Senior management The functional manager The project manager The team member performing the work Answer: C (142) During the course of a project you have motivated team members.3. 4. 3. Project Quality Management Project Procurement Management Project Configuration Management Project Risk Management Answer: C (145) The state of being totally answerable for the satisfactory completion of a specific assignment is called: . 4. 2. 2. 4. 3. The project is 40% complete and has used 60% of the available calendar time. 4. 4. 4. executed. Re-baseline the schedule to reflect the new date Analyze the critical path activities for potential to fast track or crash the schedule Document the lack of progress and associated issues to management Identify tasks that have required more time than planned Answer: D (141) A functional manager wants to make a change to the time associated with a task. Use alternate vendor Go to customer or management Answer: A (140) A project has experienced significant delays due to equipment problems. General Management Project Human Resource Management Project Execution A Projectized organization Answer:A (143) You have been promoted to Manager.

The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the current date The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project date A method of measuring project performance A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date Answer: C (150) A role of the change control board is to: 1. 3. 2. 3. Authority Accountability Responsibility Fiduciary Answer:B (146) You are responsible for the communication controls for the Genesis series of satellites. Project management Functional management Facility management Program management Answer:D (147) Work packages are used to : 1. 4. All of the above.1. 2. Limit work to be performed to relatively short periods of time. 2. and specifications schedule changes into PERT networks identify new areas of project work Answer: C . 3. issue change requests represent top management interests in initiating innovation review the impact of change requests on project costs. Represent units of work at a level where work is performed. 2. 3. 2. 4. 5. Are usually too complicated for practical use on most projects Require highly trained specialists for effective use Always require computer support to be practical Are based on flow charts and they allow observation of what happens to the project schedule when changes occur to a task's start and stop dates Answer: D (149) Earned value can be described as: 1. 2. 4. 4. Distinguish one package from all others assigned to a single functional group. 3. 4. Your current assignment is: 1. 4. Answer: D (148) Network planning methods(PERT/CPM/PDM): 1. schedule. 3.

2. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer assuming the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury Answer: B (152) Cost of quality is a concept that includes: 1. is a performance standard for management is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time" is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should do things right the first time A and C B and C Answer: D (156) When appointed. the cost necessary for ensuring conformance to requirements the life cycle cost of the project all research and development costs related to the project only the cost of the quality control function A and B Answer: A (153) The pillars) of quality is (are) : 1. 5. 5. 3. 4. 5. a project manager has the inherent forms of legitimate power conveyed to him. 4. 5. 3. 2. Quality is free Doing it right the first time Zero defects Process improvement B and C Answer: E (154) Quality assurance is: 1. 4. 2. 4. The three forms of legitimate power are: . 2. 3. 3. top management's intention regarding quality functions determining implementation of the quality policy actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements responsibilities and processes which implement quality management all of the above Answer: C (155) The zero defects concept: 1. 5. 3. 4.(151) Quality control is: 1. 2.

3.1. 5. type of risk category and probability of impact Risk event. reward. and penalty Answer: E (157) The five types of conflict resolution are listed below and represent. 4. and direct formal. 3. Severity of impact. duration of impact and cost of impact Identification. 4. 2. 5. 2. confrontation compromise smoothing forcing withdrawal Answer: A (158) The process of getting a group of diverse individuals to work effectively together as a team is the definition of 1. 2. in general order of importance. 5. reward. 2. 3. risk probability and the amount at stake Occurrence. 3. 5. 3. informal. the methods a project manager should use to manage conflict. coordination. Cost plus percentage of cost Cost plus incentive fee Lump sum Fixed price plus incentive fee C and D Answer: C (160) PMI suggests which of the following behaviors as part of contract negotiations? 1. Probing. 4. and liaison formal. 4. 4. 5. 2. absolute. and persuasive formal. scratching. The one used most often by project managers to resolve conflict is: 1. direct. 4. leadership project management the project manager's responsibilities implementation team building Answer: E (159) Which contract type should be used by the owner on a high risk project? 1. frequency and cost . 3. and indict direction. 2. and small bites Sniffing and smelling (olfactory) Touching and caressing (tactile) Mind-reading and extra-sensory perception None of the above Answer: A (161) Project risk is characterized by three factors: 1.

3. You should: . Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are currently working in. 4. 4. 4. 2. Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision. 4. Agreement Purchase Order Proposal Memorandum of Understanding Answer: C (164) Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMP. The action to take in this case would be: 1. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. 4. 2.Answer: C (162) Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP: 1. 2. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. 2. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. 2. Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which project management services are provided Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that may have an appearance of impropriety. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts. 3. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team. Answer: B (165) You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. 3. 3. Project Management Policy of Ethics Project Management Professional Standards Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct Answer: D (163) Which is not another term for contract? 1. Answer: C (166) An example of a conflict of interest would be: 1. Professional Code of Conduct? 1. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. 3. Answer: A (167) Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on your project.

This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. Protect conflict of interest. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property Promote the use of ad hoc project management Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed Answer: A (169) For a festival. You should: 1. 2. 3. 3. 3. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project Answer: B (172) Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should: 1. 4. Determine the risks associated with the violation Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response . 3. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. Comply with regulations. 4. it's not your problem Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated Talk to the corporate legal department Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations Answer: B (171) During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. Comply with the law. Answer: B (170) You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. 2. 4. 4. 3. 2. You should: 1. Provide accurate information. Follow instructions Inform the corporate auditors Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action Try to close down the project Answer: C (168) Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: 1. You are in violation of the responsibility to: 1. 2. Do nothing. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. 2. 2. you give your government client a leather brief case. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. 4. 4. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status.1. 3.

Initiation Process Group Planning Process Group Executing Process Group Monitoring & Controlling Process Group Answer: B (175) Acquire Project team process will be performed under: 1. 2. Initiation Process Group Planning Process Group Executing Process Group Monitoring & Controlling Process Group Answer: C (176) The terms "Facilitating Processes" and "Core Processes" are no longer used in new PMBOK. 4. Answer: D . PMBOK will be changed every year in December. PMI is not any more responsible form PMBOK. Work Item Work Package Workaround Work breakdown structure Answer: C (174) Qualitative Risk Analysis will be performed under : 1.Answer: B (173) A response to a negative risk event is known as a: 1. 3. 5 3 10 20 Answer: C (178) Which statement is correct : 1. 2. 3. 3. 3. 1. 4. These terms have been eliminated to ensure that all project management processes in the Project Management Process Groups have the same level of importance. 4. 4. True False Answer: A (177) In a group of 4 members. 1 member has been added. 2. 3. 2. How many communication channels are there now : 1. 4. New PMBOK has 9 process groups and 42 processes. 2. 2. There are some core processes and some facilitating processes.

3. 2. Activity Resource Requirements Resource Breakdown Structure Requested Changes Resource Management Plan Answer: D (183) Which of the following is a tool used in Activity Duration Estimating: 1. 3. 3. 5. 3. Schedule Development Activity Definition Create WBS Resource Allocation Answer: A . 3. 2.(179) Which of the following is not an input to Develop Project Charter: 1. 4. Organizational Process Assets Work Breakdown Structure Templates WBS Dictionary Configuration Management System Answer: B (181) Which of the following is not an input to Activity Definition process: 1. and Fast tracking are techniques used in the following process: 1. 5. Analogous Estimating Work Breakdown Structure Templates Critical Path Method Schedule Network Templates Answer: A (184) Crashing. 2. 4. 4. 2. 4. 2. WBS Dictionary Organizational Process Assets Project Scope Statement Work Breakdown Structure Schedule Network Templates Answer: E (182 ) Which of the following is not an output of Activity Resource Estimating: 1. Contract Project Statement of Work Enterprise Environmental Factors Organizational Process Assets Project Management Information System Answer: E (180) Which of the following is a tool used to Create WBS: 1. 4. 4. 2. 3.

4. 4. Analogous Estimating Bottom-up Estimating Parametric Estimating Vendor Bid Analysis Resource Leveling Answer: E (186) Which is not a tool used in Quality Planning process : 1. 4. Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to reduce the cost of the project Performing a complete project at a single location Performing a project at various locations. 4. 5. 3. 2. 4. 2. Flowcharting and Process Analysis Pareto Chart.(185) Which is not a technique used for cost estimation : 1. 2. 5. 3. 3. Human Resource Management Project Time Management Project Cost Management Project Communications Management Project Risk Management . 2. Human Resource Planning Acquire Project Team Develop Project Team Manage Project Team Answer: A (189) Co-Location is a techniques which means: 1. 3. 3. 2. Cost-Benefit Analysis Benchmarking Design of Experiments Cost of Quality (COQ) Process Analysis Answer: E (187) What are three tools used in Quality Control Process: 1. 2. Cost of Quality (COQ) and Cause and Effect Diagram Cost of Quality (COQ). 4. Control Charts and Cause and Effect Diagram Answer: D (188) Which of the following Human Resource process generates Roles & Responsibilities : 1. Cause and Effect Diagram and Control Charts Control Charts. 3. 5. Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team. Answer: B (190) Manage Stakeholders is a part which of the following process group: 1. Benchmarking.

Obtaining the human resources needed to complete the project Develop Project Team . bids. or proposals. quotations. 3. Answer: E (192) Which is not a tool used for Risk Response Planning: 1. such as memoranda. 3.Identifying and documenting project roles. Request Seller Responses . responsibilities. Acquire Project Team . Plan Purchases and Acquisitions .Answer: D (191) Which is not correct about Communications Management Plan document: 1. 5. 2. Team Building . as appropriate Plan Contracting . 5. choosing from among potential sellers. and negotiating a written contract with a seller. 3.obtaining information. such as weekly It contains Methods or technologies used to convey the information.Forming a team from scratch for a new project.Tracking team member performance. 5. services. 4. and closing each contract. offers.Improving the competencies and interaction of team members to enhance project performance Manage Project Team . 5.completing and settling each contract. and reporting relationships. Human Resource Planning . 4. 2. and results requirements and identifying potential sellers .documenting products. and coordinating changes to enhance project performance. providing feedback. 4. 3.reviewing offers. 4. 2. as well as creating the staffing management plan.selecting a buyer to purchase any product or service. 2. Select Sellers . resolving issues. e-mail. including the resolution of any open items. 3. Risk Audits Avoidance Transfer Mitigate Exploit Answer: A (193) Advertising is a technique used in which of the following process: 1. 4. Answer: E (195) Which of the following definition is not correct: 1. Contract Closure . Select Sellers Request Seller Responses Contract Administration Contract Closure Answer: B (194) Which of the following definition is not correct: 1. 2. and/or press releases It contains total cost required for performing communication. It contains Stakeholder communication requirements It contains Person responsible for communicating the information It contains Frequency of the communication.

Answer: E (198) Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following? 1.Resource Assignment Matrix RFP . 5. 2. 4. "noise" is the word used to describe factors and forces inhibiting the exchange of information between two or more parties. The path with the most activities with the longest durations. including description. Delphi PERT CPM Monte Carlo Analysis Answer: D (199) What is critical path? 1. 4. 4. category.Total Quality Management Answer: C (197) Which of the following is not correct : 1. 3. which represents the longest amount of time in which a project can be completed. 2. 3. cause. Noise includes all of the following but __________ 1. Culture Behavior Language Traditional way of doing things Loud talking Answer: E . impact(s) on objectives. proposed responses.Program Management Office RBS . 4.Request for Proposal TQM . The path with zero float. 3. 5. Total Quality Management: A common approach to implementing a quality improvement program within an organization Risk Register: The risk register details all identified risks. 2. which represents the shortest amount of time in which a project can be completed. and current status. Simulation: prototyping of a project to check if proposed design will work or not. 5. The longest path through the network. 2. probability of occurring. PMO . 2. owners. 5. 3. b and c Answer: C (200) In the communication process. 3. The shortest path through the network.Answer: B (196) Which of the following is not correct: 1. 4.Resource Breakdown Structure RAM . Cost of Quality (COQ): Determining the costs incurred to ensure quality Crashing: A specific type of project schedule compression technique performed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration.

210 320 3.000 308.800 6.98 99.0 .9% 62.0 4.If your yield is: 30.4 99.0 6.000 66.0 5.3 99.4 Your Sigma is: 1.0 2.9% 93.0 3.9997 Your DPMO is: 690.

Master your semester with Scribd & The New York Times

Special offer for students: Only $4.99/month.

Master your semester with Scribd & The New York Times

Cancel anytime.