EX0-100

QUESTION 1:

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity management? A. Drawing up back-out scenarios B. Analyzing risks C. Testing back-out arrangements D. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D QUESTION 2:

Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data? A. IT service continuity management B. Availability management C. Release management D. Security management Answer: D QUESTION 3:

Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include distributing information to users? A. Change management B. Service desk C. Customer relationship management D. Incident Management Answer: B QUESTION 4:

Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. Service Quality Plan (SQP) B. Service improvement program (SIP) C. Service catalogue

EX0-100 D. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: B QUESTION 5:

In the change management process, which role is ultimately responsible for the entire process? A. Change Advisory Board B. IT Manager C. Change Manager D. Change Coordinator Answer: C QUESTION 6:

In Certkiller .com, the purchasing department has relocated internally, not just the people, but also their IT resources. A service Desk employee has been commissioned to relocate this department's workstations. In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role? A. Configuration Management B. Incident Management C. Change Management D. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 7:

Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management? A. A report regarding the problem management process B. An urgent change C. A change request D. A trend analysis Answer: D QUESTION 8:

EX0-100

Which data, for a new configuration item (CI), is recorded in the configuration management database (CMDB)? A. The relationship to other configuration items B. The request for change number for the configuration item C. Repairs to the configuration item D. The impact of the configuration item Answer: A QUESTION 9:

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity management? A. Testing back-out arrangements B. Drawing up back-out scenarios C. Analyzing risks D. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D QUESTION 10:

Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors? A. Availability management B. Problem Management C. IT service continuity management D. Security Management Answer: B QUESTION 11:

Which activity is not a Service Desk activity? A. Relating an incident to a know Error B. Registering incidents C. Applying temporary fixes D. Solving a Problem Answer: D

By making a knowledge database available Answer: D QUESTION 15: Which activity is not a service Desk activity? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 12: Which of the following describes the basic concept of integrity in the Security Management process? A. Protection of the data against unauthorized access and use Answer: B QUESTION 13: Which ITIL process responsible for annually allocating the costs of underpinning contracts? A. Financial Management for IT services D. By evaluating incidents with the customer D. Availability Management C. Access to the data at any moment D. By analyzing open incidents C. By preventing incidents B. Service Level Management Answer: C QUESTION 14: How does Problem Management contribute to a higher solution percentage of first-line support? A. Relating an incident to a known error . Capacity Management B. The capacity to verify the correctness of the data B. The correctness of the data C.

Registering incidents D. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems C.EX0-100 B. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 18: How is a change that must be made quickly called? A. Availability management C. An unplanned change D. Applying temporary fixes Answer: B QUESTION 16: Which statement best describes the role of the service Desk? A. The service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer B. A standard change Answer: B QUESTION 19: . The service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available Answer: A QUESTION 17: When an organization decides to control the flow of incidents information within the IT organization. which ITIL process would it be putting in place? A. Solving a problem C. Incident Management D. The service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned D. A fast change B. An urgent change C. Change management B.

EX0-100 A powerful failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure. Change Management D. When the incident Manager thinks this is necessary Answer: C QUESTION 20: Which of the following statements about the service catalogue is correct? A. It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization C. It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA D. When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the ITSC Plan? A. Fortunately. Availability management Answer: A QUESTION 22: Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of the Change Advisor Board (CAB)? A. When the time within which the failure should be solved. When the continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum period of time mentioned in the service Level agreement D. as the IT service can no longer be used B. It can be used instead of an SLA Answer: B QUESTION 21: Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application? A. The whishes of customers to implement changes B. Immediately. C. It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) B. there is an ITSC Plan available. Configuration Management C. has exceeded. Ongoing or concluded changes . Capacity Management B.

The change manager C. That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster C. The registration of changes Answer: B QUESTION 23: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. Interrelated activities B.EX0-100 C. IT resources Answer: A QUESTION 25: Who decides the category of a change ? A. The customer Answer: B QUESTION 26: Changes are divided into categories. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services Answer: C QUESTION 24: What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management? A. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently D. Officals C. Reports from Service Level Management D. The problem manager D. Departments D. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services B. What criteria defines a category for a change? . The service desk B.

significant etc C. He asks whether he can be given another PC like this colleague's. Request for Change (RFC) B. Proactive Problem Management D. incident Answer: B . The sequence in which the change is made B. which is much faster. Incident D. Error Control B. Request For Change C.com calls the service Desk and Reports that the system is slow. substantial. The speed with which the change is made D. Problem B.EX0-100 A. Monitoring C. The consequences of the change such as limited. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned Answer: B QUESTION 27: Which activity in the problem management process is responsible for generating requests for change (RFCs)? A. Known Error C. Work-around D. Which term is applicable to this situation? A. Classification Answer: C QUESTION 29: Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified? A. Problem Analysis Answer: A QUESTION 28: Certkiller .

In the configuration management database (CMDB) . Problem Management staff Answer: B QUESTION 31: In the Service Level Management Process.EX0-100 QUESTION 30: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident? A. Problem Manager B. Identifying the needs of the customer Answer: A QUESTION 32: Which of the following questions can not be answered directly from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. Service Desk C. what happens during the activity called "monitoring"? A. Acquiring customers C. Which Requests for change have been submitted for a specific server? B. Which Configuration items does a specific service consist of? D. Guarding negotiations with the customer D. Which members of staff of department x have moved to department Y? Answer: D QUESTION 33: Where are the statuses of changes recorded? A. What incidents or problems have there been for this PC? C. In the known error database B. In the change database C. Service Level Manager D. Guarding agreements with the customer B.

Capacity Management D.What is the difference between a process and a project? . Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 35: Users have complained about email service. Financial Management for IT Services C. Which activity takes place after the evaluation of a service? A. Monitoring of service levels D. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently Answer: D QUESTION 37: . Availability Management B. An evaluation of the service has been performed. In the definitive software library (DSL) Answer: C QUESTION 34: Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation system? A. That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster D.EX0-100 D. Compilation of service level reports Answer: A QUESTION 36: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services B. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services C. Adjusting of the service B. Defining service levels C.

A process stops when the objective has been achieved. After every Change D. Planning D. What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the DSL? A. A project is continuous and has no end date. whereas with a process the result is important D. A process is continuous and has no end date. At the request of the person who submitted the change request C. In case of emergency changes . where a process has a finite lifespan Answer: B QUESTION 38: Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definite Software Library (DSL). Capacity Management C. Release Management B. Status monitoring B. whereas as project does not stop when the objective is met B. Identification C. In a project the focus is not on the result. Configuration Management D. Verification Answer: D QUESTION 40: When must a Post Implementation Review take place? A. whereas a project has a finite lifespan C.EX0-100 A. If another incident of the same type occurs again after a change has been made B. Application Management Answer: A QUESTION 39: For which of the following activities of configuration management are audits regularly implemented? A.

Security Management D. Capacity Management C. Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time. Average uptime of a service B. to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. Security C. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased. Resource Management B. Serviceability Answer: A QUESTION 43: An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information database. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period C. Change Management B.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 41: What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean? A. Maintainability D. Average downtime of a service D. Average time between two consecutive incidents Answer: C QUESTION 42: For what is capacity Management responsible? A. Availability Management Answer: B QUESTION 44: . to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient? A.

EX0-100 When is a known error identified? A. When the cause of the problem is known Answer: D QUESTION 45: What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same characteristics? A. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management D. A change request C. Capacity Management B. Service Level Management B. Problem Management Answer: D QUESTION 47: Which ITIL process provides an insight. additional resources are assigned to identify the cause. A service call D. into trends that could cause performance problems in the future? A. Incident Management . Which ITIL process is responsible for this? A. A problem B. Incident Management C. through the modeling activity. Service Level Management D. When the problem has been resolved C. Capacity Management D. Availability Management C. When the problem is known B. A known error Answer: A QUESTION 46: When the cause of one or more incidents is not known.

EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 48: Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures? A. Service Manager Answer: A QUESTION 50: What activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident? A. Solving and restoring B. Problem Management B. User B. Service Desk Answer: C QUESTION 49: Which of the following parties involved in an incident determines whether that incident can be closed? A. Employee of the service Desk D. Purchaser of the services C. Analysis and diagnosis C. Classification Answer: D QUESTION 51: What is the use of additional technical expertise in the incident management process called? . Matching D. Capacity Management C. ITService Continuity Management D.

The Network Manager B. The service Manager Answer: B QUESTION 54: Of which ITIL process are reliability.com plans on implementing a new network operating system. The Change Manager C. Standard Change Answer: D QUESTION 53: Certkiller . ITService Continuity Management C. Problem Management D. Under whose leadership is this discussion held? A. The Service Level Manager D.EX0-100 A. Problem analysis D. Functional escalation C. Service request C. Before the actual implementation takes place. Request of change D. Resolution and recovery of the incident B. Incident classification Answer: B QUESTION 52: What is the term used for a fully described and approved change that does not have to be evaluated by Change Management each time? A. Availability Management B. Urgent Change B. Service Level Management Answer: A . serviceability and maintainability components? A. the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is discussed.

Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 57: Reports of different types arrive at a Service Desk. Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 56: Which of the following is a department rather than a process? A. Availability Management C. Which of the following reports is an incident? A. A question about where the manual is Answer: B QUESTION 58: Where is the planning of changes kept up to date? A. The CAB (Change Advisory Board) . Service Desk D. Information about the departure time of the train to London D. A report that the printer is not working C. SIP (Service Improvement Program) C. The CMDB (Configuration Management Database) B.EX0-100 QUESTION 55: Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT infrastructure? A. Incident Management B. Problem Management D. Incident Management B. Problem Management C. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package B.

A document that states how the infrastructure must be dealt with in an organization (vision) D. Describing the process Answer: C QUESTION 61: How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Server Level Management process? A.EX0-100 D. Implementing the process B. A standard configuration (such as a standard workstation) C. By measuring customer satisfaction C. What is the process owner responsible for? A. The FSC (Forward Schedule of Changes) Answer: D QUESTION 59: What is a baseline in the IT infrastructure? A. A minimum value for Certkiller . The result of the process D. By defining server levels Answer: B QUESTION 62: . By reporting on all incidents B. By checking contracts with suppliers D.com service (must at least satisfy) Answer: B QUESTION 60: A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal. The most important infrastructure (such as a network) to which all kinds of workstations and services can be linked B. Setting up the process C.

Security Management Answer: D QUESTION 65: What is the first step when registering an incident? A. Determine the priority C. Availability Management B. IT service Continuity Management C. Record the incident data B. By checking contracts with suppliers D. By reporting on all incidents B. Service Level Management D.EX0-100 Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Software Library? A. By defining service levels C. Perform matching D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing C. Assign an incident number . Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure D. Copies of all software versions that are needed Answer: C QUESTION 63: How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process? A. By measuring customer satisfaction Answer: D QUESTION 64: Which ITIL process ensures that the information that has been made available satisfies the specified information security requirements? A. Copies of all live software programs B.

In a Definitive Software Library (DSL) Answer: C QUESTION 67: What is the primary task of Error Control? A. In a Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B. In a service Level Agreement (SLA) D. Classifying and defining the priorities of problems D. Correcting known errors Answer: D QUESTION 68: Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which supplementary emergency measures must be taken? A. In a Capacity Plan C. Problem Management B. Capacity Management Answer: B QUESTION 69: Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. IT Service Continuously Management C. Checking problems and incidents C. Providing information to the users B.EX0-100 Answer: D QUESTION 66: Where are agreements regarding Security Management recorded? A. Service Catalogue . Availability Management D.

Availability Management B. Control B. Maintenance Answer: C QUESTION 71: What is the first activity when implementing a release? A. Which activity of security management leads to a security sub-clause in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) ? A. Incident Management Answer: C QUESTION 73: . Compiling the release schedule B. Designing and building a release D. Financial Management for IT Services C.EX0-100 B. Implement C. Testing a release C. Communicating and preparing the release Answer: A QUESTION 72: Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra support of the service desk? A. Service Improvement Program (SIP) D. Service Quality Plan (SQP) C. Plan D. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: C QUESTION 70: Security Management includes a number of sub-processes. Service Level Management D.

Building and testing the change Answer: A QUESTION 76: According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in order to ensure good performance Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps? A.Check -Act . Request for Release B. Implementing the change D. Do .Do . a number of activities take place between the acceptance of a request for change and the completion of the change.Plan B. Incident Management C.Plan .Check .EX0-100 What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? A. Problem Management D. Service Request D. ACT . Which activity is performed after acceptance of a Request for Change? A. Request for change C.check . Replacement request Answer: B QUESTION 74: Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors? A. Capacity Management Answer: C QUESTION 75: In Change Management. Determining the urgency of the change B. Plan .Do . Scheduling the Request for change C.Act C. Security Management B.

Do Answer: B QUESTION 77: What is meant by the urgency of an incident? A. Asset Management monitors aspects such as depreciation and configuration management monitors aspects such as the relationships between the configuration items B. The degree two which the solution of an incident tolerates delay Answer: A QUESTION 78: Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) includes both Asset Management And Configuration Management. Check . The degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service level C. Urgency B. The time needed by IT services to resolve the incident B. Asset Management focuses exclusively on the book value and configuration management on the status of configuration items Answer: A QUESTION 79: What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a Request for change? A. so there are no differences between item D. Impact D.Plan . The relative importance of the incidents when handling them D.Act . What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management? A. Priority .EX0-100 D. Configuration Management is a component of Asset Management. Configuration Management makes an inventory of the configuration items and asset management registers them C. Content C.

RFCs from the Service Desk That Problem Management passes on to Change Management Answer: B . What information is this? A. RFCs from the users that problem management passes on to change management B. Change Management B. Measurement C. Configuration Management D. Which step in this model must be taken first? A. This could have consequences for other components.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 80: The deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality. Capacity Management Answer: C QUESTION 82: Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. Availability Management C. on the basis of which change management can generate requests for Change (RFCs) D. Implementation Answer: A QUESTION 81: In Certkiller . Planning B. RFCs resulting from known errors C.com a specific component of the IT infrastructure has been modified. Adjustment D. Known errors from problem management. What ITIL process should be set up in order to provide good insight into these consequences? A.

That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster C. The depth of the database structure Answer: D QUESTION 85: One of Problem Management's tasks is to proactively prevent incidents. Delivering second-line support.EX0-100 QUESTION 83: Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. The relationship between the different configuration items C. The company strategy D. The costs and expected revenue of the service offered Answer: B QUESTION 84: What does the term 'detail level' mean in the context of the configuration management database (CMDB)? A. The technology developments that can affect the service offered B. Which of the following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as being proactive? A. Analyzing reported incidents in order to mane recommendations Answer: D QUESTION 86: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. The quantity of the stored configuration items D. of the services offered C. should problems occur B. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently B. Making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements D. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT Services . The quality expressed in quality and costs. The location of the configuration item B. Employing more Problem Managers C.

Average downtime of a service B. Analyzing risks C. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D QUESTION 88: What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean? A.EX0-100 D. Problem management D. Testing back-out arrangements B. Which of the following is an incident ? . Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period D. Average time between two consecutive incidents Answer: A QUESTION 89: Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure? A. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services Answer: A QUESTION 87: Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity Management? A. Configuration management Answer: A QUESTION 90: The Service Desk receives different types of calls. IT service continuity management B. Drawing up back-out scenarios D. Average uptime of a service C. Capacity Management C.

This has very radical consequences for the business and has been reported as an incident. what should happen next? A. Release Management D. Application Management C. Release Management will implement the back-out plan C. A system message that a printer is not working Answer: D QUESTION 91: Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definite Software Library (DSL). Service Level Management will start a service improvement program (SIP) B. Service Desk C. Incident Management B. Configuration Management B. Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR) D. According to ITIL best practices. Information about the rollout of a specific application D. Service Level Management . A request to install a new bookkeeping package B.EX0-100 A. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer C. What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the DSL? A. Change Management D. Capacity Management Answer: C QUESTION 92: Release Management has distributed a defective Release. monthly invoicing has come to a standstill. As a result. Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC) Answer: B QUESTION 93: Which ITIL process is responsible for handling an application for a new workstation according to a standard working method? A.

Configuration Management B.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 94: Which activity in the ITIL process "Financial Management for IT services" is responsible for billing the services that were provided to the customer? A. Service Desk Answer: B QUESTION 97: . Modeling C. Charging D. Demand Management D. Accounting C. Reporting B. Change Management D. Budgeting Answer: C QUESTION 95: The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can be performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day. Application Management B. Problem Management C. Application Sizing Answer: C QUESTION 96: Which process or function ensures that change proposals are submitted with the aim of removing errors within the IT infrastructure? A. What part of the capacity Management process does this refer to? A.

monitoring the software modules (SoftwareCIs) D. ITService Continuity Management B. Service Level Management Answer: C QUESTION 100: Which process is responsible for monitoring agreements with network suppliers? A. Problem Management C. Incident Management D. Configuration Management Answer: C QUESTION 99: Which process provides a user insight into the status of a failure? A. Service Level Management Answer: D . monitoring the relationships between Configuration Items (CIs) B. monitoring the infrastructure capacity Answer: A QUESTION 98: Which process is responsible for coordinating the relocation of a number of workstations? A. Availability Management B. Release Management B. Capacity Management D.EX0-100 Which of the following is a task of Configuration Management? A. ITInfrastructure Management C. monitoring the status of changes C. Change Management D. Problem Management C.

applications approved and installed by Problem Management B. Change Management Answer: B QUESTION 104: In order to resolve a service failure. all applications installed on an end-user's system D. Which process is responsible for identifying the cause? A. Incident Management D.EX0-100 QUESTION 101: Which of the following documents would help provide insight into the load of the IT systems and the development of the organization in the mediumand long term? A. Availability Plan B. Problem Management C. while this is not the case with otherapplications. Which process must grant approval for implementing this change? . Capacity Plan D. a change must be made to a software package. applications tested and updated by the Service Desk C. Back-out Plan C. applications officially installed under the authority of Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 103: A user calls the Service Desk complaining that it is often impossible to print documents from a certain application. Availability Management B. Service Level Agreement Answer: C QUESTION 102: Which applications does the Service Desk support? A.

Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 105: Which process focuses specifically on tracing or finding the cause of recurring errors and documenting them? A. whether the CI registration in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is up-to-date C. whether the Management of the IT department is satisfied with the implementation of the Change D. Problem Management D. Service Catalog C. Problem Management D. ITService Continuity Management Answer: C QUESTION 106: Which item is required in the Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a Change? A. to which Configuration Items (CIs) the Change relates Answer: A QUESTION 107: Where can you find an overview of all IT services? A. Service Level Management C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: B . Known Error Management B. Service Window B. Configuration Management B.EX0-100 A. whether the Change has achieved the intended goal B. Operational Level Agreement (OLA) D. Incident Management C.

coordination C. C. Work is carried out using a process-oriented approach. There is a central Service Desk. which of the following is the greatest benefit? A. the applicable disciplinary measures B. The organization is more customer-oriented. classification Answer: D QUESTION 109: Which aspect is important when registering security incidents? A. scheduling B. a place meant for integrating the test and development departments more effectively with each other . recognizing the event as a security incident Answer: D QUESTION 110: . When an IT service provider adopts and adapts ITIL's best practices. D. qualified Service Desk employees C.EX0-100 QUESTION 108: Which Change Management activity indicates the priority and category of an accepted Request for Change (RFC)? A. Answer: B QUESTION 111: What is a Definitive Software Library (DSL)? A. the person who reported the incident D. Work is carried out using a project-oriented approach. B. registration D.

contracts between external suppliers of services and the IT department Answer: D QUESTION 113: What data is recorded when an incident is reported to the Service Desk? A. contracts between external suppliers and the customer B. a place where original software is physically stored D. a tool with which all software items can be distributed on the network C. Underpinning Contract (UC) B. contracts between internal IT departments C. Operational Level Agreement (OLA) D. Service Quality Plan (SQP) C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: C QUESTION 115: . the names of persons who are authorized to implement Changes in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) C. a database in which software Configuration Items (CIs) are registered Answer: C QUESTION 112: What does the term "Serviceability" refer to? A. the name of the person who approves the Request for Change (RFC) D. the name of the person handling the Problem B.EX0-100 B. the name of the person reporting the Incident Answer: D QUESTION 114: What type of agreement is made with internal IT departments assuring support of service components? A. contracts between IT management and the customer D.

information about the departure time of the train to London C. the Release Manager D. several Changes that are merged due to their minor impact C. which software version is being used . where the equipment has been set up D. the Security Manager C. the Board of Management Answer: B QUESTION 117: Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk.EX0-100 What does a package release consist of? A. the Change Manager B. several Changes that are merged due to their size Answer: C QUESTION 116: After a change. a single Change that consists of both hardware and software B. a request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package B. a question about where the manual is D. Which of the following events is an incident? A. who is responsible for ensuring that security measures maintain the security level? A. a report that the printer is not working Answer: D QUESTION 118: Which information does Financial Management for IT Services extract from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. which equipment is being used by whom B. which equipment is causing incidents C. a single Change made up of several separate Changes D.

date and time of the notification of disruption Answer: B QUESTION 122: Error Control and trend analysis of incidents are activities of which process? A.EX0-100 Answer: A QUESTION 119: What is produced when Problem Management identifies the cause of a Problem and a workaround? A. number of Configuration Items (CIs) involved D. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users C. a description and identification of the Configuration Items (CIs) involved C. type of problem involved B. one or more resolved incidents D. following up on Incidents D. Incident Management . a resolved Problem Answer: B QUESTION 120: Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager? A. ensuring the smooth running of the process B. a Request for Change B. a Known Error C. channeling data to Problem Management Answer: A QUESTION 121: What information must always be included in a Request for Change (RFC)? A.

delivering information on Service Levels to clients to determine the availability percentage D. managing the negotiations with the customer with regard to availability C. Incident Management focuses on registration and Problem Management does not. Service Level Management C. C. Problem Management generates reports and Incident Management does not. B. Configuration Management D.EX0-100 B. Release Management B. ensuring the reliability of components will carry out a required function under certain conditions over a certain period B. D. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 124: Which of the following is Availability Management responsible for? A. Availability Management D. Service Level Management C. Problem Management focuses on restoration of service and Incident Management focuses on finding the cause. Answer: C . Incident Management focuses on restoration of service and Problem Management focuses on finding the cause. Problem Management Answer: D QUESTION 123: Which process provides components of the IT infrastructure with a unique and systematic name (designation)? A. Demand Management Answer: A QUESTION 125: How does Problem Management differ from Incident Management? A.

a question about how an application works D. a standard request for change C. organizational chart C. a report of a breakdown Answer: B QUESTION 127: Which of the following is considered a Configuration Item (CI)? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 126: Which of the following is not regarded as an incident? A. Incident Management C. Change Management B. Configuration Management D. environment . a complaint about the service of the Service Desk B. IT personnel B. Financial Management for IT Services Answer: C QUESTION 129: Certain data is needed to describe an ITIL's process. What else is required? A. This includes the objectives and the output. process Answer: B QUESTION 128: Which of the following processes provides Problem Management with reports about the IT infrastructure? A. incident D.

prioritization B. Configuration Management Database (CMDB) C. Availability Management and Service Level Management D. ITService Continuity Management and Availability Management C.EX0-100 B. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 133: . classification D. ITService Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT Services Answer: B QUESTION 131: Which term is also used for routing or passing on incidents to another solution group? A. Problem Management and Capacity Management B. activities D. authorisations Answer: C QUESTION 130: Managing risk is an essential part of which processes? A. Change Management C. Configuration Management D. escalation Answer: D QUESTION 132: Which process is responsible for providing information about the IT infrastructure to all other processes? A. registration C. Capacity Management B.

Availability Management C. Tuning C. the requisite hardware and the costs. Which of the activities of Capacity Management is responsible for this? A. a risk analysis C. Monitoring D. initiating escalation procedures D. Capacity Planning B. solving incidents by looking for their underlying causes C. recognizing customer requirements and subsequently adjusting the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) Answer: C QUESTION 135: Which process includes developing a recovery plan? A. The predictions include data about the performance levels that can be expected. Capacity Management D. Problem Management B. a Service Level Agreement . Application Sizing Answer: D QUESTION 134: Which of the following tasks is a task of the Service Desk? A. a change request B. ITService Continuity Management Answer: D QUESTION 136: What is one of the possible outputs of the Problem Management process? A. officially approving Requests for Change (RFCs) B.EX0-100 One of the activities of Capacity Management involves making evaluations and predictions regarding the hardware that is required to run a new ormodified application.

the relationship between Configuration Items (parent-child relationships) D. a Service Desk that has knowledge in several locations in a system D. the CI level C. the starting point for testing new software B. One of the managers withinthe client company does not believe that this is achievable and requests a report from the network company. Problem Management B. Service Level Management Answer: D QUESTION 139: What is a distributed Service Desk? A. a Service Desk that handles both technical and functional calls C. Which process is responsible for providing this report? A. Change Management C. Availability Management D. a Service Desk that is located at multiple locations B.EX0-100 D. a Service Desk that provides service 24 hours a day from a single location Answer: A QUESTION 140: . the recorded composition (snapshot) of a CI or group of CI's to be used as a reference Answer: D QUESTION 138: The Service Catalog for a network company states that LAN authorization requests will be complete within three weeks. a modified Configuration Item Answer: A QUESTION 137: What is a Configuration Baseline? A.

a serious incident that occurs often D. All PCs freeze during a spelling check in a certain word processor when the documents concerned are larger than 150 pages. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 141: What is a Known Error? A. willcorrect the problem. The next version of the software. a Problem that cannot be matched Answer: A QUESTION 142: Problem Management has researched a number of incidents and has come to the conclusion that they all follow the same pattern. Inquiries to the supplier of the softwarehave determined that the cause of the problem is a bug in the software. a Problem for which the cause is known and a Workaround has been identified B. ITService Continuity Management D. a Problem that is resolved C. What should Problem Management do after the error has been acknowledged and registered as a Known-Error in the Known-Error database? A. a Request for Change (RFC) must be submitted to Change Management B. Capacity Management C.EX0-100 Within which process is the term Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) used? A. This means that the problem can only be solved at this moment by buying completely new software. Release Management must remove all distributed versions of the word-processing software from the IT infrastructure D. the word processing software must be replaced by another package C. the Service Desk must ask all users which replacement software they would like to use Answer: A QUESTION 143: . due to be released next year. Availability Management B.

When Service Level Management determines the customer demand. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 146: Which of the following is Proactive Problem Management? A. Release Management C. Incident Management B. analyzing trends and identifying potential incidents C.EX0-100 What is Demand Management? A. Problem Management D. Which process or function should have provided the back-out plan? A. drawing up a Capacity Plan B. Availability Management D. C. When Capacity Management determines and regulates the capacity demand. B. When Service Level Management determines the level of customer satisfaction. D. Answer: A QUESTION 144: The rollout of an application software upgrade has been planned. Change Management Answer: B QUESTION 145: Which process is responsible for establishing and maintaining a Known Error database? A. providing second-line support . However. a back-out plan has not been developed. analyzing incidents that have been reported and solving the underlying cause D. Service Desk B. When the Service Desk determines the information needs. Configuration Management C.

EX0-100

Answer: B QUESTION 147:

Among other things, ITIL describes the IT Service Management processes. What is always described with regard to the processes? A. exactly how the activities must be carried out B. how the processes fit into the ITIL'S framework C. the objective(s), the activities, the inputs and outputs D. the cost of implementing each process Answer: C QUESTION 148:

Which process ensures optimal and measurable availability of IT services? A. ITService Continuity Management B. Capacity Management C. Service Level Management D. Availability Management Answer: D QUESTION 149:

Which process pursues a charging policy of IT costs? A. Financial Management for IT Services B. ITService Continuity Management C. Capacity Management D. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 150:

What is a purpose of a Post Implementation Review (PIR) of an implemented Change? A. to be able to implement new Changes

EX0-100 B. to determine which problems are related to the Change C. to check whether the intended goal has been achieved D. to be able to complete the Change Answer: C QUESTION 151:

Which of the following is not one of the objectives of registering incidents? A. generating management information B. updating the incident database C. matching incidents D. identifying problems Answer: B QUESTION 152:

What do we call protecting information against unauthorised access and use? A. Safety B. Confidentiality C. Availability D. Integrity Answer: B QUESTION 153:

Who is responsible for accepting a Request for Change (RFC)? A. the recipient of the RFC B. the person who submitted the RFC C. the Change Manager D. the Change Advisory Board Answer: C QUESTION 154:

Who is responsible for ensuring that security measures are followed during changes?

EX0-100

A. the Release Manager B. the Security Manager C. the Change Manager D. the Board of Directors Answer: C QUESTION 155:

Which of the following processes is most closely related to Release Management? A. Configuration Management B. Service Level Management C. Capacity Management D. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 156:

Which process is aimed at restoring IT Services as soon as possible after the organization has been hit by a lengthy interruption? A. Problem Management B. ITService Continuity Management C. Availability Management D. Capacity Management Answer: B QUESTION 157:

Which process is responsible for implementing and maintaining access security? A. Security Management B. Change Management C. Availability Management D. Release Management Answer: A

Service Level Management D. analyzing the Service Windows C. registering all components in the CMDB D. Problem Management B. performing audits to check that the CMDB is accurate B. a Release of only modified software or hardware C. Change Management Answer: B QUESTION 159: Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management? A. a Release with a longer period of stability for the user B. a program. ensuring that the contents of the CMDB remain up to date C. creating and maintaining recovery options Answer: D QUESTION 160: What is a Delta Release? A. that is distributed D. including the modifications. Incident Management C. guaranteeing the Configuration Itemsare continuously updated B. providing reports on availability D. checking the CI-lifecycle .EX0-100 QUESTION 158: Which process ensures that an interruption in the provision of services is diagnosed as quickly as possible? A. a number of smaller improvements and fixes on Known Errors Answer: B QUESTION 161: What is an example of the 'control' activity in the Configuration Management process? A.

classifying a Request for Change (RFC) Answer: D QUESTION 163: Which process is responsible for recording the logical and physical relationships between the various components of the IT infrastructure? A. Incident Management Answer: B QUESTION 164: The incident reports from the previous month indicate that the average recovery period was two hours. This means that it took an average of two hours for the user to report the incident to the Service Desk. accepting a Request for Change (RFC) D. registering a Request for Change (RFC) B. This means that incidents lasted an average of two hours during that month. Release Management B. Availability Management D. C. This means that it took an average of two hours before the service.EX0-100 Answer: B QUESTION 162: In which of the following activities are the priority and the category of a Change determined? A. D. This means that in that month. a randomly selected incident was remedied within two hours. What does this mean? A. planning a change C. after repairs. B. Configuration Management C. was made available to the user. Answer: B .

because this allows incidents to be better tracked B. Underpinning Contract . because this means the incident can be resolved more quickly Answer: D QUESTION 167: What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of an organization? A. that the amount of money the IT organization is spending is known and has been calculated (for each service) Answer: D QUESTION 166: Why is it important that the Service Desk attempts to link an incident to a Known Error? A. that a certain percentage of profit is made for each service or product D. because this is part of the ITIL'S management model D. that a budget is allocated to the IT organization every year C. deviations from the specified service levels B. number of incidents per category C. growth of the IT infrastructure Answer: D QUESTION 168: A supplier of communication equipment offers the client a choice of three different maintenance contracts when purchasing a fax machine. time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each department D.EX0-100 QUESTION 165: In Financial Management for IT Services. that negotiations can be held about the price of a service B. because otherwise Problem Management cannot work C. In which document will the external supplier register the client's choice? A. what does the Accounting activity ensure? A.

Configuration Management B. Service Level Agreement D. Service Level Management C.EX0-100 B. Configuration Management Answer: B QUESTION 172: . Incident Management C. Problem Management B. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 171: What is the most common process that is associated with the Service Desk? A. Service Level Management B. Incident Management D. Incident Management Answer: A QUESTION 170: Which process reports about software failures resulting from software changes? A. Service Catalog C. Problem Management C. Change Management D. Release Management D. Operational Level Agreement Answer: C QUESTION 169: Which process provides input to Change Management for estimating the impact of a change? A.

Scheduling. Testing. Answer: C QUESTION 175: One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends. Which process is responsible for keeping the DSL and the DHS up-to-date? A. Scheduling. Completion D. Computer Installations and Acceptance B. Capacity Management C. Completion Answer: C QUESTION 173: The Definitive Software Library (DSL) and the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) are terms used when distributing software and hardware. The request is to replace all desktop hard disks of brand X and type Y. Implementation. Building. Reporting. Which sequential steps should be taken to carry out the change? A. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been formally authorized. As soon as there is a correct network plan for the change. B. Implementation. . As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory Board. Completion. Release Management Answer: D QUESTION 174: When can the building and testing of a Change begin? A. D. Recording. C. Recording. Acceptance of Request for Change. Testing. Configuration Management D. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been classified. Testing. Review. Review C. Review.EX0-100 Problem Management has submitted a Request for Change (RFC) to Change Management. Implementation. Reporting B. Implementation and Testing.

What type of request does this involve? A. Risk Analysis C. Security Plan B. a Standard Change Answer: A QUESTION 177: Which document or activity should be completed before a Recovery Plan can be formalized? A. Capacity Plan D. a Service Request B. Availability Plan Answer: B QUESTION 178: What is Error Control responsible for in Problem Management? A. managing the Known Errors B. tracing problems D. Error Control B. finding the root cause of the problem C. Proactive Problem Management D. an Information Request C. a Request for Change (RFC) D. Identification of root causes C. implementing a solution for the error Answer: A .EX0-100 Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this? A. Problem Control Answer: C QUESTION 176: A user has forgotten his password and asks the Service Desk for a new password.

Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 180: Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible? A. . Availability Management D.EX0-100 QUESTION 179: Which process is responsible for keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date? A. Release Management C. the time needed to solve problems D. ITService Continuity Management C. Incident management B. the time needed to compile a problem report B. the time needed to record problems C. Configuration Management D. dozens of requests have been received for expansion of the internal memory becauseits size has proven to be insufficient. the time needed to implement solutions Answer: C QUESTION 182: In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops. Problem Management Answer: A QUESTION 181: Which of the following indicators is a performance indicator for the Problem Management process? A. Incident Management B.

Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 183: Which of the following is an example of a Configuration Item (CI)? A. Service Catalog D. serial number B. the requisite resources C.EX0-100 Which process should have prevented this from happening? A. location of a server Answer: C QUESTION 184: Which of the following factors partly determines the priority of an incident? A. Service Level Management D. the category D. Service Level Manager Answer: C . the wishes of the customer B. Change Manager B. supplier of an Underpinning Contract (UC) C. Problem Management staff C. Service Desk staff D. Capacity Management B. Configuration Management C. the impact Answer: D QUESTION 185: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident resulting from an implemented change? A.

Functional Request C. Security Management Answer: D QUESTION 187: What is another name for a deviation from the standard operation of a service? A. the Problem Management D. the Service Management C.EX0-100 QUESTION 186: Which process is specifically responsible for preventing unauthorized access to data systems? A. the Change Advisory Board Answer: D QUESTION 189: IT Service Continuity Plans (ITSC Plans) are often forgotten and not being kept up-to-date for various reasons. Problem D. Incident Answer: D QUESTION 188: What group will the Change Manager convene in case of a complex change in the IT infrastructure? A. ITService Continuity Management B. Which process could assist IT Service Continuity Management in ensuring this does not happen? . Service Request B. Service Level Management C. Capacity Management D. the Management Team B.

Security Management B. the objective C. Change Management D.EX0-100 A. a Service Answer: B QUESTION 192: What information is not required to set up a process? A. the trigger (input) D. Service Level Agreement D. Service Improvement Plan B. a deployed infrastructure B. Underpinning Contract Answer: C QUESTION 191: A Change leads to a modification of an element of IT. Financial Management for IT Services C. Availability Management Answer: C QUESTION 190: In which of the following are the agreements on security between a customer and the IT organization recorded? A. a developed application D. Which of the following terms best describes the element being modified? A. the process owner B. a Configuration Item C. the desired results (output) Answer: A . Service Level Requirement C.

a contract with an external customer C. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 196: Which process involves the use of a CAB? A. Availability Management C. Capacity Management D. feasible and/or necessary? A. Capacity Management D. Configuration Management C. Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 194: What is an Underpinning Contract? A. Service Level Management .EX0-100 QUESTION 193: Which process checks whether Requests for Change (RFCs) regarding the IT infrastructure are logical. Change management B. Financial Management for IT Services B. a contract with an internal supplier Answer: C QUESTION 195: For which process is the Modeling activity a powerful instrument to make predictions about the behavior of the infrastructure? A. Service Level Management B. Supplier Management C. a contract with an internal customer B. a contract with an external supplier D.

is known as what? A. Availability Management C. RACI chart B. Integrity and Availability of an Organisation's Assets. Do. stipulates the definition of service requirements. QUESTION 199: Name the process that is defined under Service Design and that ensures the Confidentiality. Act C. Service Portfolio Management B. Plan. Choose one answer. information. data and IT Services. Definitive Media Library (DML) D. followed by service requirements validation and the planning of user acceptance testing? A. Assess Management System C. A. Check. where authorized versions of all media CIs are protected and stored.EX0-100 D. Service Assets and Configuration Management . Knowledge Management System (KMS) Answer: C Explanation: The DML or "Definitive Media Library" Stores all media Configuration Items. Information Security Management D. Configuration Management System (CMS) B. Service V-Model D. Problem Management Answer: QUESTION 197: What is the iterative model called that is associated with the waterfall lifecycle. Technical observation point (TOP) Answer: C QUESTION 198: A secure repository.

Service Catalogue Management D. A. Partners. People. People. Processes. controlled and documented D. Partners B. Products.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 200: Information Security Management ensures the Confidentiality. Performance D. Products. Integrity and Availability of an Organisation's Assets. Availability Management B. B. None of the other statements are true Answer: A. Controlled Processes can be repeated B. Only defined processes require control C. Profit. Partners C. Select the process that is NOT defined in Service Design: A. Select all that apply. What does each 'P' stand for? A. Service Level Management Answer: B Service Portfolio Management is a process defined by Service Strategy. Select the CORRECT statements regarding process control. information. People. C QUESTION 201: All processes require some level of control. Profit. QUESTION 202: ITIL describes a concept called 4 'P's that facilitates effective Service Management. data and IT Services. Planning Answer: B QUESTION 203: . Procedure. Productivity. Service Portfolio Management C. Processes should be defined. Profit.

Problem Evaluation and Review . Answer: A Explanation: Error Control is the process of monitoring and providing solutions for known errors until they are resolved. QUESTION 205: . B. When incidents related to the Known Error do not occur any more. Defining Solution . When a review of the change has led to a satisfactory result. a Post Implementation Review (PIR) is performed to evaluate the success of the solution and associated changes Closure . D.Assuming the problem review declares the solution as successful.After the change has been implemented. Emergency CAB (ECAB) B. A workaround is developed to feed back to Incident Management to handle further incidents that occur before a final solution is implemented. When can the Known Error be closed? A.Once the root cause has been determined. When the Request for Change is authorized by the Change Advisory Board. the problem status changes to known error.. C. Urgent Change Board (UCB) C. the problem is finally closed. Solution Investigated . This activity could consist of cross-functional teams to weigh different solutions on various criteria including costs and benefits. 4Urgent Change Authority (UCA) D. When the proposal for change is lodged with Change Management.EX0-100 A service level agreement is.A final solution is developed and a Request for Change (RFC) is made via the Change Management Process. The known error definition can also be sent to the known error database to be used in the matching process.An assessment is performed on what will be required to resolve the known error. On the basis of this Known Error a Request for Change may be raised. (select the most appropriate answer) A.. Error Control contains the following activities: Known Error Identification and Recording . CAB emergency committee (CAB/EC) Answer: B QUESTION 204: The successful diagnosis of a problem results in a Known Error.

or a reduction in. Change Management C.EX0-100 When an organization decides to control the flow of incident information within the IT organization. testing back-out arrangements C. or may cause. thus ensuring that the best possible levels of service quality and availability are maintained. in business terms and if not. QUESTION 207: Which activity is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management? A. which ITIL process would it be putting in place? A. It is used to answer the question: Did we achieve what we set out to do. in case of emergency changes D. analyzing risks B. executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D . QUESTION 206: When must a Post Implementation Review take place? A. after every Change B. drawing up back-out scenarios D. The first goal of the incident management process is to restore a normal service operation as quickly as possible and to minimize the impact on business operations. if another incident of the same type occurs again after a Change has been made Answer: A Explanation: A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is a formal review of a programme or project. an interruption to. what should be done? The PIR must be a part of every change process. Availability Management B. the quality of that service. Incident Management D. Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: ITIL terminology defines an incident as: Any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes. at the request of the person who submitted the Change request C.

Plan .Act D.CMDB) that contains details of the organisation's elements that are used in the provision and management of its IT services. Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps? A. categorisation. and problems experienced with the Configuration Items. Change Management C.Do C. and monitoring and tracking of incidents.Do . This is more than just an 'asset register'.Plan B. .Do .Plan .Check .Act Answer: D Explanation: The Deming's quality circle is also known as Deming's PDCA circle. The BCM process involves reducing the risk to an acceptable level and planning for the recovery of business processes should a risk materialize and a disruption to the business occur.Act. A structured Incident Management processes includes classification. a pre-determined minimum level.EX0-100 Explanation: Business Continuity Management (BCM) is concerned with managing risks to ensure that at all times an organisation can continue operating to. as it will contain information that relates to the maintenance. Capacity Management B.Act . at least.Check . impact and priority assessment. movement. QUESTION 208: Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services? A. Do .Check . Financial Management for IT services Answer: C Explanation: Configuration Management is the implementation of a database (Configuration Management Database . Plan .Do .Check . Check . Configuration Management D. Plan . QUESTION 209: According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in order to ensure good performance. Act .

QUESTION 212: What is the difference between a process and a project? A. measurement C. whereas a project has a finite lifespan. setting up the process B. implementing the process C. A process is continuous and has no end date. implementation Answer: C QUESTION 211: A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal. planning D.EX0-100 QUESTION 210: The Deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality. . Which step in this model must be taken first? A. What is the process owner responsible for? A. the result of the process Answer: D Explanation: The process owner is responsible for the result of the process and has to actively work with improving the structure and flow of the process. describing the process D. adjustment B.

QUESTION 214: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. but that's another story). In a project the focus is not on the result. that the organization around the IT services can be set up faster D.Decrease rework . that the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently C. whereas a project does not stop when the objective is met. whereas a process has a finite lifespan. C. Operational processes are those that continue ad infinitum and are typically sustaining in nature. and ITIL focuses on best practice (process) that can be utilized in different ways according to need. QUESTION 213: What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management? A. interrelated activities Answer: D Explanation: The definition of a process .EX0-100 B. that it is finally possible to charge for IT services Answer: B Explanation: By improving the processes around IT. whereas with a process the result is important. D. departments B. officials D. A project is continuous and has no end date.Improve resource utilization . that the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services B. IT resources C.Be more competitive . the organization can begin to: . Answer: A Explanation: Projects are objective-based and have clear start and end points (although I've been on some projects that never seemed to end. A process stops when the objective has been achieved.A process is a set of interrelated activities and/or subprocesses and/or (sub)stages with a common goal.

matching D. the purchasing department has relocated internally . classification C. analysis and diagnosis B.Learn from previous experience . reliability and security of mission critical IT-services .Improve availability.Document and communicate roles and responsibilities in service provision . A Service Desk employee has been commissioned to relocate this department's workstations.Integrate central processes .EX0-100 .Provide demonstrable performance indicators QUESTION 215: Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident? A.Justify the cost of service quality .Improve upon project deliverables and time .Provide services that meet business. In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role? .not just the people. solving and restoring Answer: B QUESTION 216: In an organization. but also their IT resources.Eliminate redundant work . customer and user demands .

hardware. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management D. planned for. Incident Management C. scheduled and implemented.EX0-100 A. Known Errors from Problem Management. components of the IT infrastructure (e. but is not limited to: 1. IT service organizations (e. on the basis of which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs) B. QUESTION 217: Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. Problem Management D.g. organizational structure and procedures). IT services (SLAs) 3. The scope of Change Management may include. software and documentation) 2.g. Configuration Management Answer: A Explanation: Change Management provides a way of managing and controlling the way changes are initiated. RFCs resulting from Known Errors C. Change Management B. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management Answer: B Explanation: As shown in the figure there is a Request For Change that is sent to . What information is this? A. assessed.

measurement and management of IT services to ensure the stated business requirements for availability are consistently met.EX0-100 the Change Management process once a solution is defined for a Known Error. . Incident Management and Problem Management provide a key input to ensure the appropriate corrective actions are being progressed. Availability Management B. Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure? A. for example using an emergency power provision. implementation. QUESTION 218: In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken. Change Management D. Availability Management requires an understanding of the reasons why IT service failures occur and the time taken to resume service. Incident Management Answer: A Explanation: Availability Management is concerned with design. Capacity management C.

The Service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available. QUESTION 220: Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include distributing information to users? A. Change Management B. The Service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned.EX0-100 QUESTION 219: Which statement best describes the role of the Service Desk? A. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems. Incident Management D. B.Identifying problems .Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs . Answer: A Explanation: The service desk is the single contact point for the customers to record their problems. Service Desk Answer: D Explanation: The common Service Desk functions include: .Keeping customers informed on request status and progress .Making an initial assessment of requests.Recording and tracking incidents and complaints .Coordinating second-line and third line support QUESTION 221: Which activity is not a Service Desk activity? .Receiving calls. if there is a direct solution or will create an incident.Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers . Customer Relationship Management C. D. It will try to resolve it. first-line customer liaison . The Service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer. C. attempting to resolve them or refer them to someone who can .

Identifying problems .Keeping customers informed on request status and progress .Receiving calls. QUESTION 222: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident? A. It is also a focal point for reporting Incidents and for users making service requests. attempting to resolve them or refer them to someone who can . Problem Manager B. It handles incidents and service requests.Recording and tracking incidents and complaints . Service Desk D. Problem. Service Level Manager Answer: C Explanation: The common Service Desk functions include: . The Service desk is the point of contact to the problem solvers and change managers but they do not perform these tasks themselves.Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers .Coordinating second-line and third line support QUESTION 223: The Service Desk receives different types of calls. Release. first-line customer liaison . relating an incident to a Known Error D. with users. registering Incidents B. applying temporary fixes Answer: B Explanation: The IT Infrastructure Library approach to a Service Desk acts as the central point of contact between service providers and users/customers.Making an initial assessment of requests.EX0-100 A. for other Service Management activities such as Change.Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs . Which of the following is an incident? . solving a Problem C. Service Level and IT Service Continuity Management. as well as providing an interface. Configuration. Problem Management staff C. on a day-to-day basis.

employing more Problem Managers Answer: A Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems. Incident Management C. a notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer C. a system message that a printer is not working D. an interruption to. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. Service Desk Answer: D Comment: While ITIL suggests that the Service Desk is a function and not a process. or may cause. QUESTION 224: Which of the following is a department rather than a process? A. QUESTION 225: One of Problem Management's tasks is to proactively prevent incidents. information about the rollout of a specific application B. The main . delivering second-line support. the quality of service. making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements D. analyzing reported incidents in order to make recommendations B.EX0-100 A. such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system. Problem Management D. a request to install a new bookkeeping package Answer: C Explanation: An incident is defined as: Any event which is not a part of the standard operation of a system that causes. Which of the following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as being proactive? A. or a reduction in. through to strategic decisions. Change Management B. it has been observed that the Service Request process followed by the service desk is in fact a process. Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. should problems occur C.

giving second-line support when problems occur C. Which activity needs to be carried out by Problem Management in order to achieve this? A. or Error Control. QUESTION 228: Which activity in the Problem Management process is responsible for generating Requests for Change (RFCs)? A. maintaining relations with suppliers D. this part of the Problem Management process is used once the root cause for a problem is identified. ensuring the availability of the IT infrastructure B. QUESTION 227: Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified? A. Known Error C. Work-around D. Problem Analysis . Request for Change (RFC) Answer: B Explanation: Once the root cause for a problem is identified the problem is transferred into the Error Control part of the Problem Management process and the problem is classified as a Known Error (possibly with a work-around). is a vital part of the Problem Management process. Without the Error Control there would never be any solutions and closure of problems. Incident B. QUESTION 226: One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimize the impact of problems on IT services.EX0-100 activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action. managing Known Errors Answer: D Explanation: Managing Known Errors.

Incident Management C. Service Level Management Answer: C Explanation: Refer to the Problem Management process which shows you how it is divided into two parts. additional resources are assigned to identify the cause. One that works with problems with an unknown cause and . Which ITIL process is responsible for this? A. Monitoring D. Error Control C. Problem Management D. once a solution is produced a RFC is sent to Change Management prior to deploying the solution. Proactive Problem Management Answer: B Explanation: Once a problem is classified as a Known Error it is transferred from Problem Control to Error Control. QUESTION 229: When the cause of one or more incidents is not known. Within the Error Control activity the work with defining a solution to the Known Error starts. Capacity Management B.EX0-100 B.

IT Service Continuity Management B. Security Management D. Problem Management Answer: D .EX0-100 one that works with known errors (problem with a known cause) QUESTION 230: Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors? A. Availability Management C.

Remember. Problem Management produces solutions and Change Management deploys the solutions throughout the organization. When the cause of the problem is known. managing Known Errors Answer: C Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems. QUESTION 233: . QUESTION 232: Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management? A. or Request for Change (RFC). registering frequently occurring errors C. The main activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action. Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. analyzing trends D. QUESTION 231: When is a Known Error identified? A. When the problem has been resolved. through to strategic decisions. When the problem is known. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management.EX0-100 Explanation: Once a solution is defined for a known error in the Problem Management process a change proposal. C. B. making a change to resolve a problem B. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system. D. is sent to the Change Management. Once the change is committed the Problem Management process continues with a Post Implementation Review (PIR) and if the changes made solved the problem then the process continues to the Problem Closure stage. Answer: A Explanation: Once the cause is known for a problem the problem is classified as a known error and a work-around may be provided until a solution is produced and deployed.

such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system. a report regarding the Problem Management process B. a trend analysis C. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. QUESTION 235: How does Problem Management contribute to a higher solution percentage of first-line support? A. Security Management Answer: C Explanation: In ITIL. Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. Problem Management D. a "Problem" is defined as: "An unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents. through to strategic decisions. Incident Management C. by making a knowledge database available . by evaluating incidents with the customer C. The main activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action." Therefore Problem Management should be responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors. a change request Answer: B Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems. an urgent change D.EX0-100 Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors? A. by preventing incidents D. by analyzing open incidents B. Capacity Management B. QUESTION 234: Which of the following is an example of proactive Problem Management? A.

checking problems and incidents B. QUESTION 236: What is the primary task of Error Control? A. a Service Call Answer: C Explanation: In ITIL. Checking problems and incidents. a "Problem" is defined as: "An unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents. Information to users is provided through the service desk. QUESTION 237: What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same characteristics? A. classifying and defining the priorities of problems C. correcting Known Errors D. a Known Error C." If you have a series of incidents with the same characteristics they probably have the same underlying cause and in order to solve these incidents before they appear in the future you should send this to the Problem Management process in order to solve the cause of the problem. a Problem D. and making them available to the service desk you empower tier one support to perform more diagnostic and repair tasks and freeing up tier three support for proactive management. providing information to the users Answer: C Explanation: Error control is all about finding the solution to a known error. and classifying and defining the priorities is in the Problem Control part of Problem Management. QUESTION 238: .EX0-100 Answer: D Explanation: By capturing all knowledge from solving problems into a knowledge database. a Change Request B.

com calls the Service Desk and reports that the system is slow. Impact . Urgency . Request for Change Answer: B Explanation: The reason for the call is the slow system which is an incident with an unknown underlying cause. a report that the printer is not working . Potential cost of non-resolution 6. Which term is applicable to this situation? A.Severity of the Incident. the relative importance of the incidents when handling them Answer: A Explanation: Impact and the Urgency of the Incident together decide the Priority. Severity can be mapped directly to the "Impact to the Business." What factors influence the Priority? 1.EX0-100 What is meant by the urgency of an incident? A. the degree to which the solution of an incident tolerates delay B. Classification B. the degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service level C. Incident C. QUESTION 240: Reports of different types arrive at a Service Desk. Severity comes from the events that are identified by the monitoring tools. a call from the CEO 4.ie. a question about where the manual is C. He asks whether he can be given another PC like his colleague's. Resources required to fix the issue 5. which is much faster. information about the departure time of the train to London B. Which of the following reports is an incident? A.How much delay can be tolerated in fixing the issue? How quickly it should be resolved 3. This is the measure of the impact to the business 2. Customer Importance . Disruption of service to the customer QUESTION 239: Certkiller . Problem D. the time needed by IT Services to resolve the incident D.

temporary fixes.The objective of Change Management is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes to controlled IT infrastructure. record the incident data B. in order to minimize the number and impact of any related Incidents upon service. Availability management focuses on optimizing the capability of the IT infrastructure. so that the user is hindered as little as possible.The objective of Problem Management is to minimize the economic impact of service disruption by diagnosing the root causes of incidents.EX0-100 D. an incident is active until service is verified as restored. Therefore. assign an incident number C. QUESTION 242: What is the first step when registering an incident? A. A. Change Management C. or a reduction in. determine the priority Answer: B . or may cause. the quality of that service. and permanent fixes. QUESTION 241: Which ITIL process has the following objective? Correcting malfunctions in the services as quickly as possible by minimizing the consequences of the malfunctions. gathering information on known errors and by providing workarounds. an interruption to. Incident Management D. services and supporting organizations to deliver a cost-effective and sustained level of availability that enables the business to satisfy its business objectives. Availability Management B. Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: The objective of Incident Management is to restore service as quickly as possible. a request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package Answer: C Explanation: ITIL terminology defines an incident as: Any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes. perform matching D.

purchaser of the services B. This ticket will also help tracing the incident through the various processes. Change Management B. Security Management Answer: B QUESTION 244: Which of the following parties involved in an incident determines whether that incident can be closed? A. employee of the Service Desk .EX0-100 Explanation: An incident number (or ticket) is assigned and given to the user who reports the incident so that he can return to check status on "his" incident. user C. Incident Management C. QUESTION 243: Which ITIL process has the task of classifying incoming interruption reports? A. Problem Management D.

problem analysis Answer: B Explanation: Escalation . Recoverability . Serviceability and Maintainability components? A.EX0-100 D. then and only then. Functional Escalation is sometimes called Referral. QUESTION 246: Of which ITIL process are Reliability. Service Level Management C. and includes the following elements: Serviceability . Service Manager Answer: B Explanation: If the user is satisfied with the solution to an incident.Where a service is provided by a 3rd party organization. IT Service Continuity Management B.the time for which a component can be expected to perform under specific conditions without failure. incident classification B. resolution and recovery of the incident D. QUESTION 245: What is the use of additional technical expertise in the Incident Management process called? A. this is the expected availability of a component. Availability Management Answer: D Explanation: Availability is usually calculated on a model involving the Availability Ratio and techniques such as Fault Tree Analysis. functional escalation C. can the incident be closed.Passing information and/or requesting action on an Incident. Problem Management D. Problem or Change to more senior staff (hierarchical escalation) or other specialists (functional escalation). Reliability .the time it should take to restore a component back to its operational .

QUESTION 249: Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an . which can e both remedial and preventative. Maintainability . Security . average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period Answer: B Explanation: While MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) measures the time between failures.Where a service is provided by a 3rd party organization. When changes are uncontrolled and unmanaged. average uptime of a service B. average time between two consecutive incidents D. QUESTION 248: What does Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) mean? A.EX0-100 state after a failure. this is the expected availability of a component. Resilience . the degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered B. MTTR includes problem diagnosis and problem repair. MTTR is dominated by problem diagnosis. the degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts D.the ease with which a component can be maintained. the degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied with Answer: C Explanation: Serviceability .the ability of components to withstand breaches of security. the degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer C.the ability to withstand failure. average downtime of a service C. QUESTION 247: What is the meaning of the term Serviceability? A. MTTR measures the time between the service interruption and service restoration.

Application Sizing ITIL 4.EX0-100 interruption of a Configuration Item? A. Demand forecasting 6. keeping the capacity used by the applications up-to-date D. Workload monitoring 3. Performance monitoring 2. Resource forecasting 5. checking how an application has grown C. These are inputs into the following Capacity Management processes: 1. and what the cost of this infrastructure will be. Modeling QUESTION 251: The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can . what level of Contingency will be needed. measuring the load that an application places on the hardware B. Incident Manager C. Application Sizing involves input from many areas of the business to identify what services are (or will be) required. What is Application Sizing? A. determining the hardware capacity required to support new (or adapted) applications Answer: D Explanation: Capacity Management is the discipline that ensures IT infrastructure is provided at the right time in the right volume at the right price. Service Level Manager Answer: A Explanation: Availability Management is the practice of identifying levels of IT Service availability for use in Service Level Reviews with Customers. Problem Manager D. and ensuring that IT is used in the most efficient manner. All areas of a service must be measurable and defined within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) and therefore any planed configurations must be reported to the Availability Manager so that he can check the interruption against SLA's in use. QUESTION 250: The Application Sizing activity is part of Capacity Management. what IT infrastructure is required to support these services. Availability Manager B.

Demand Management Answer: D Explanation: Through Demand Management the Capacity Manager can (by understand the demands being made currently. Resource Management C. What part of the Capacity Management process does this refer to? A. Application Management D. Change Management D. . Capacity Management C. QUESTION 253: Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application? A. Configuration Management Answer: B Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner. Security B. and how they will change over time) influence on demand for resources QUESTION 252: For what is Capacity Management responsible? A. Maintainability D. Availability Management B. Serviceability Answer: B Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner. Modeling C.EX0-100 be performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day. Application Sizing B.

to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. and 6 p.m. QUESTION 255: The cash registers in a supermarket experience network disruptions daily between 4 p. scheduling the Request for Change B. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased. Which activity is performed after acceptance of a Request for Change? A. Which ITIL process is responsible for solving these difficulties on a structural basis? A. Incident Management D. Availability Management B. to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient? A.m. Capacity Management C. a number of activities take place between the acceptance of a Request for Change and the completion of the change.EX0-100 QUESTION 254: An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information database. Availability Management B. QUESTION 256: In Change Management. Capacity Management C. building and testing the change . Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time. Change Management D. Security Management Answer: B Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner. Problem Management Answer: D Explanation: As this is a reoccurring incident it will be classed as a problem and the Problem Manager has to find the underlying cause of the network disruptions.

once a change is accepted it is sent to the Release Manager AND the Configuration Manager to be stored in the CMDB as . in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B. in the Known Error database C. in the Change database Answer: A Explanation: As shown in the exhibit below. in the Definitive Software Library (DSL) D. implementing the change Answer: C QUESTION 257: Where are the statuses of changes recorded? A.EX0-100 C. determining the urgency of the change D.

The solution is to exchange the hardware used by the user and therefore the incident process will hand over the case to the change process. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced within three hours? A. A Service Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue. but they do not configure the hardware themselves. QUESTION 259: . Service Level Management states how fast the users computer should be replaced. the PC will be replaced within three hours. Configuration Management D. Service Level Management Answer: B Explanation: The case was registered as an incident with an obvious solution. but they do not actually replace the hardware. Change Management C. Configuration Management handles the CMDB and tells people how the hardware should be configured.EX0-100 the change is something that should always be implemented in the future. Availability Management B. QUESTION 258: A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. Availability Management plans for short interruptions in everyday work but do not act to solve an interruption once there is one.

Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. the Network Manager Answer: A Explanation: The goal of Change Management is to manage the process of change through standardized methods and procedures. the Change Manager B. the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is discussed. the Service Manager D. the Problem Manager D. a standard change C. Under whose leadership is this discussion held? A. the Change Manager B. the Service Desk Answer: A Explanation: Classification .EX0-100 Who decides the category of a change? A. QUESTION 261: How is a change that must be made quickly called? A. a fast change B. an urgent change D. Only the Change Manager can determine the category of a specific change. thereby limiting incidents related to change and improving day-to-day operations. the Service Level Manager C. Successful Change Management results in fewer incidents being generated before the process was implemented. the customer C. an unplanned change Answer: C . QUESTION 260: An organization plans on implementing a new network operating system. Before the actual implementation takes place. All changes must be approved by the change management process. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources.

B. or is being by-passed by some support groups. significant. such as the change builder forgot to work on a previously requested change. the consequences of the change such as limited. even if it is the Release Manager who releases (executes) the change. Change Management plays a coordinating role in this phase. such as when the only way to get a customer back up during an Incident is to remove the root cause by performing a change. Change Management draws up the change request for this. QUESTION 263: When implementing a new version of an application both Change Management and Release Management are involved. QUESTION 262: Changes are divided into categories. Urgent changes should not be initiated because of incompetence. Change Management has the executive task in this phase. the sequence in which the change is made D. the speed with which the change is made C. Answer: B Explanation: A Change Manager should manage and coordinate all change processes.Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. C. the Request for Change number that the change is assigned Answer: A Explanation: Classification . B. substantial. Urgent Changes should be reserved for special circumstances. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. Change Management must check whether the new application functions properly.EX0-100 Explanation: Urgent Changes .A large number of urgent changes is a clear indicator that the Change Management process is not working properly. QUESTION 264: . What criterion defines a category for a change? A. What is the responsibility of the Change Management process here? A. D. etc.

which role is ultimately responsible for the entire process? A. IT Manager Answer: C Explanation: The change manager is responsible for systematically implementing any changes. The change manager evaluates Requests for Change (RfCs) in consultation with a Change Advisory Board (CAB). Change Advisory Board B. Change Coordinator C. QUESTION 265: In the Change Management process. Change Manager D. in order to minimize the impact of Change-related Incidents upon service quality. Service Request Answer: B Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes and replacements.EX0-100 What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? A. Request for Release D. The change manager also oversees the progress of the change process. after careful consideration of known risks. Service Level Management Answer: B . Incident Management B. Service Desk D. Replacement Request B. Change Management C. Request for Change C. QUESTION 266: Which ITIL process is responsible for handling an application for a new workstation according to a standard working method? A. and consequently to improve the day-to-day operations of the organisation.

Urgent Change Answer: C Explanation: The ITIL describes a Standard Change as "." QUESTION 269: Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT . is relatively common.The Projected Service Availability (PSA) contains details of changes to agreed SLAs and service availability because of the current FSC. Standard Change D.. the CMDB (Configuration Management Database) B.. Request for Change B. QUESTION 267: Where is the planning of changes kept up to date? A.a change to the infrastructure that follows an established path. and is the accepted solution to a specific requirement or set of requirements. the FSC (Forward Schedule of Changes) C. QUESTION 268: What is the term used for a fully described and approved Change that does not have to be evaluated by Change Management each time? A. Therefore they are also responsible for the change of the software on the workstation. PSA . Service Request C. SIP (Service Improvement Program) Answer: B Explanation: FSC The Forward Schedule of changes (FSC) contains details of all approved changes and their proposed implementation date. the CAB (Change Advisory Board) D.EX0-100 Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes.

When the Continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum period of time mentioned in the Service Level Agreement. ongoing or concluded Changes D. there is an ITSC Plan available. the registration of Changes C. QUESTION 270: Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of the Change Advisory Board (CAB)? A. D. Problem Management Answer: B Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes and replacements. the wishes of customers to implement Changes Answer: C Explanation: The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is a group of people who can give expert advice to the Change Management team on the implementation of Changes. in order to minimize the impact of Change-related Incidents upon service quality. When the Incident Manager thinks this is necessary. has exceeded. and consequently to improve the day-to-day operations of the organisation. Immediately. reports from Service Level Management B. Fortunately. This board is likely to be made up of representatives from all areas within IT and representatives from business units as well as any external parties that are deemed necessary. Availability Management B. B. When the time within which the failure should be solved.EX0-100 infrastructure? A. C. When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the ITSC Plan? A. Change Management C. Incident Management D. as the IT service can no longer be used. . QUESTION 271: A power failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure.

Capacity Management B. Service Desk D. IT Service Continuity Management D. Capacity Management C. QUESTION 272: Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures? A. QUESTION 273: Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which supplementary emergency measures must be taken? A. IT Service Continuity Management C. Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: IT service Continuity Management is concerned with managing an organization's ability to continue to provide a pre-determined and agreed level of IT Services to support the minimum business requirements following an interruption to the business. Availability Management B. Effective IT Service Continuity requires a balance of risk reduction measures such as resilient systems and recovery options including back-up facilities. . It is not just about reactive measures. Problem Management Answer: B Explanation: Continuity management is the process by which plans are put in place and managed to ensure that IT Services can recover and continue should a serious incident occur.reducing the risk of a disaster in the first instance. Configuration Management data is required to facilitate this prevention and planning.EX0-100 Answer: B Explanation: The IT Service Continuity plan should be executed as soon as it is expected that normal functionality will not be up within the time stated in SLA's to minimize damages. but also about proactive measures .

Answer: B Explanation: Service Catalogue lists all of the services that IT provides to the business. It is not just about reactive measures.EX0-100 QUESTION 274: Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure? A. It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement (SLA). of the services offered C. the quality. C.reducing the risk of a disaster in the first instance. This catalogue should list the services from a users perspective. Configuration Management B. It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA. B. It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization. but also about proactive measures . D. QUESTION 275: Which of the following statements about the Service Catalogue is correct? A. It can be used instead of an SLA. Problem Management D. IT Service Continuity Management C. the technological developments that can affect the services offered . the company strategy D. expressed in quantity and costs. Actual components required in a Service Catalogue will differ depending on the business situation. Capacity Management Answer: B Explanation: Continuity management is the process by which plans are put in place and managed to ensure that IT Services can recover and continue should a serious incident occur. QUESTION 276: Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. the costs and expected revenue of the services offered B.

the level of availability realised and the time not available per period C. by checking contracts with suppliers B.agreements between the customer and the Service Desk on the level of service provision delivered to the customer QUESTION 277: What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer? A. the percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target D.EX0-100 Answer: B Explanation: Service Level Agreements (SLAs) . QUESTION 278: How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process? A. QUESTION 279: Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra . not the cause of the violation. by measuring customer satisfaction C. by defining service levels D. the average utilization level of the Service Desk B. the successful and reverted Changes during a specific period Answer: A Explanation: The average utilization level of the Service Desk is not of interest to the customer as long as the SLA is not violated and even if a too high average utilization of the service desk could cause violations against the SLA. by reporting on all incidents Answer: B Explanation: The customer satisfaction level is the only way to determine if the Service Level Management process is working and delivering service according to the SLA. you still only report the violations.

defining Service Levels Answer: A QUESTION 281: Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. adjusting of the service B. monitoring of Service Levels C. compilation of Service Level Reports D. and can demonstrate to customers the value they are receiving from the Service Desk. Financial Management for IT Services C. Which activity takes place after the evaluation of a service? A. It also assists the Service Desk with managing external supplier relationships. Service Catalogue B. Service Improvement Program (SIP) C. Service Level Management can be used as a basis for charging for services. Availability Management B. An evaluation of the service has been performed. Service Level Management Answer: D Explanation: Implementing the Service Level Management process enables both the customer and the IT services provider to have a clear understanding of the expected level of delivered services and their associated costs for the organization.EX0-100 support of the Service Desk? A. Service Quality Plan (SQP) Answer: B Explanation: . by documenting these goals into formal agreements. and introduces the possibility of negotiating improved services and/or reduced costs. Incident Management D. QUESTION 280: Users have complained about the e-mail service. Service Level Agreement (SLA) D.

guarding agreements with the customer D. Configuration Management ensures any changes made to Configuration Item s are recorded and kept accurate.Detailed information on the performance of Information Services against Service Level targets . Incident Management Answer: B Explanation: Configuration Management assists Change Management by recording which Configuration Item have been changed and controlling the status of Configuration Item throughout the entire Configuration Item lifecycle. acquiring customers Answer: C Explanation: During the "monitoring" activity the Service Level Manager verifies that the service delivered is according to the SLA agreed on. QUESTION 282: In the Service Level Management Process.Enhanced customer satisfaction . . customer and user demands . guarding negotiations with the customer C. Availability Management B.Improved levels of service quality and agility in response to business requirements for change .EX0-100 When the SIP is implemented. consistent and self-improving . it will provide . Configuration Management C.Increased productivity of business and Information Services staff .Integrated centralised processes that are repeatable. QUESTION 283: Which ITIL process verifies that the modifications which have been made to the IT infrastructure have been properly documented? A. high quality support services.Cost justified IT infrastructure and IT services . identifying the needs of customers B. what happens during the activity called "monitoring"? A. Problem Management D.Services that meet business.Consistent.

This could have consequences for other components. B. QUESTION 285: In the Certkiller . procurement. Configuration Management Answer: D . C. Configuration Management is a component of Asset Management. total costs.EX0-100 QUESTION 284: Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) includes both Asset Management and Configuration Management. What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management? A. Availability Management B. cost accounting. warranties. Asset Management focuses exclusively on the book value and Configuration Management on the status of Configuration Items. leases. D. and contractual and regulatory compliance. Capacity Management C. so there are no differences between them. vendors. This CI information is to be stored in a single repository the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). retirement and disposal. maintaining. Asset Management monitors aspects such as depreciation and Configuration Management monitors aspects such as the relationships between the Configuration Items. Traditional ITAM activities include the management of inventory. Configuration Management makes an inventory of the Configuration Items and Asset Management registers them. What ITIL process should be set up in order to provide good insight into these consequences? A. software licenses. The goal of Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. Answer: B Explanation: IT Asset Management is the discipline of managing finances. controlling. Activities include identifying. Change Management D.com company a specific component of the IT infrastructure has been modified. contracts and usage of IT assets throughout their lifecycles for the purpose of maintaining an optimal balance between business service requirements. and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs). budget predictability.

the quantity of stored Configuration Items D. Configuration Management C. controlling. Problem Management D. This gives the depth of the database. and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs). the relationship between the different Configuration Items B. the depth of the database structure C. QUESTION 287: Which ITIL process includes the activity of describing and registering all components in the IT infrastructure? A. Service Level Management Answer: B Explanation: Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. maintaining. and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs). QUESTION 288: What is a baseline in the IT infrastructure? A.EX0-100 Explanation: Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. Activities include identifying. the location of the Configuration Item Answer: B Explanation: CIs should be recorded at a level of detail justified by the business need. the most important infrastructure (such as a network) to which all kinds of . controlling. QUESTION 286: What does the term 'detail level' mean in the context of the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. Activities include identifying. maintaining. Capacity Management B.

and the maintenance of this information. is recorded in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A.EX0-100 workstations and services can be linked B. planning C.this is the management of each Configuration Item.. a document that states how the infrastructure must be dealt with in an organization (vision) C. the relationship to other Configuration Items C. the impact of the Configuration Item B. Status .com service ('must at least satisfy. Control . QUESTION 289: For which of the following activities of Configuration Management are audits regularly implemented? A. a standard configuration (such as a standard workstation) Answer: D Explanation: A baseline is a standard configuration recorded in the CMDB that you use as a starting point when. specifying who is authorised to 'change' it.this task involves reviews and audits to ensure the information contained in the CMDB is accurate.this task is the recording of the status of all Configuration Items in the CMDB. creating a solution to a problem or testing a new software in a Change process. verification Answer: D Explanation: Configuration Management essentially consists of 4 tasks: Identification . Verification .') D. status monitoring D. a minimum value for Certkiller .this is the specification. the Request for Change number for the Configuration Item D. for a new Configuration item (CI). identification of all IT components and their inclusion in the CMDB. identification B. QUESTION 290: Which data. for example. repairs to the Configuration Item ..

Which members of staff of department X have moved to department Y? C. making available the necessary user's manuals D. Only "what" it is. Which Requests for Change have been submitted for a specific server? B. RFC's and repairs should not be recorded here.Personnel .Hardware . "where" it is and how it is connected to other CI's. Impact.Software .Documentation . QUESTION 292: Which of the following questions can not be answered directly from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. establishing the correct links in the Local Area Network B. recording data regarding the PCs Answer: D Explanation: The CMDB that contains details of the organization's elements (such as workstations) that are used in the provision and management of its IT services.EX0-100 Answer: B Explanation: The CMDB that contains details of the organization's elements that are used in the provision and management of its IT services. installing software C. Which Configuration Items does a specific service consist of? Answer: B Explanation: The CMDB holds a much wider range of information about items that the organisation's IT Services are dependant upon. This range of information includes: . QUESTION 291: A number of new PCs have been installed at a company's offices. What incidents or problems have there been for this PC? D. For which of the following activities was Configuration Management responsible? A.

Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. D.EX0-100 QUESTION 293: What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a Request for Change? A. planning the change. As a result. C. impact B. B. priority D. Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC). QUESTION 295: Release Management has distributed a defective Release. According to ITIL best practices. When it is found that something went wrong when building a Change. QUESTION 294: When is a back-out plan invoked? A. monthly invoicing has come to a standstill. When it is found that something went wrong when testing a Change. and having a back-out plan should the change result in an unexpected state of the Configuration Item during the implementation. This includes ensuring that there is a business reason behind each change. When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a Change. content C. identifying the specific Configuration Items and IT Services affected by the change. . B. testing the change. urgency Answer: A Explanation: Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. what should happen next? A. When it is found that something went wrong when scheduling resources. Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR). Answer: B Explanation: Change Management is the practice of ensuring all changes to Configuration Items are carried out in a planned and authorised manner. This has very radical consequences for the business and has been reported as an incident.

Release Management will implement the back-out plan. Planning the release involves coordination. drawing up a communication plan.EX0-100 C. is developed by the Release Manager and defines how and when releases are configured. scheduling. QUESTION 296: What is the first activity when implementing a release? A. information must be gathered about various aspects of the release. in case the change should result in an unexpected state of the Configuration item. compiling the release schedule D. D.A document. Service Level Management will start a Service Improvement Program (SIP). QUESTION 297: The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number . testing a release C. description of relevant IT service and service levels. communicating and preparing the release Answer: C Explanation: Policy and Planning . etc. constructing back-out and quality plans. defining roles and responsibilities. Answer: C Explanation: Every Change should have a back-out plan prior to implementation. and more. Prior to planning a release. such as product life cycle. authorization for relative RFCs. called the Release Policy. designing and building a release B.

Personnel. typically the Service Desk or Customer Relations. performance and integration testing by the appropriate personnel.Standard and reusable procedures and documentation should be used for designing. QUESTION 298: Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Software Library? . called the Release Policy. Configuration items within the release may come from internal or external bodies. Training sessions may be required to aid users with the release. Release Management Answer: D Explanation: The steps involved in the Release Management process is: Policy and Planning . Testing and Acceptance .EX0-100 of errors. Rollout Planning .A document. drawing up a communication plan. scheduling. Building and Configuration . constructing back-out and quality plans. such as product life cycle. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested? A. Design. defining roles and responsibilities. is developed by the Release Manager and defines how and when releases are configured.Includes a detailed timetable of release events including staff responsibilities and action items. documentation. Distribution and Installation . communicate the planned changes to users and the expected service impact.Lack of testing is the most common cause for unsuccessful changes and releases. Prior to planning a release. Releases should undergo functional. Acceptance should be performed for each step of the release process and be submitted to Change Management for approval. etc. operational. information must be gathered about various aspects of the release. and purchasing plans for required hardware and software. Communication . Once approved. laboratory-based development testing along with appropriate operational documentation should be prerequisites before a release is considered available for implementation. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version.Involves the distribution of software and supporting hardware identified and approved in the previous activities. Configuration Management B. and more. Planning the release involves coordination. the release can be rolled out and the relevant configuration changes can be integrated within the CMDB (see Configuration Management). authorization for relative RFCs. In either case. building and configuring releases. Incident Management C. Problem Management D. description of relevant IT service and service levels. Testing should include back-out plans.

copies of all software versions that are needed B. Application Management B. Capacity Management C.EX0-100 A. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. All spare hardware components and assemblies are stored within the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS). Financial Management for IT Services D. software awaiting user acceptance testing Answer: C Explanation: Release Management works with Configuration Management to ensure that the CMDB is kept up to date and that all new software releases are stored in the Definitive Software Library (DSL). Configuration Management D. Release Management Answer: D Explanation: Only authorized software should be accepted into the DSL. QUESTION 300: Which ITIL process is responsible for annually allocating the costs of Underpinning Contracts? A. authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure D. QUESTION 299: Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definitive Software Library (DSL). What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the DSL? A. copies of all live software programs C. Service Level Management Answer: C Explanation: IT Financial Management is the discipline of ensuring IT infrastructure is obtained at the most effective price (which does not necessarily . strictly controlled by Change and Release Management.

EX0-100 mean cheapest), and calculating the cost of providing IT services so that an organisation can understand the costs of its IT services. QUESTION 301:

Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation system? A. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. Financial Management for IT Services D. Service Level Management Answer: C Explanation: IT Financial Management is the discipline of ensuring IT infrastructure is obtained at the most effective price (which does not necessarily mean cheapest), and calculating the cost of providing IT services so that an organisation can understand the costs of its IT services. QUESTION 302:

Which activity in the ITIL process "Financial Management for IT Services" is responsible for billing the services that were provided to the customer? A. Accounting B. Budgeting C. Charging D. Reporting Answer: C Explanation: Charging provides the ability to assign costs of an IT Service proportionally and fairly to the users of that service. It may be used as a first step towards an IT organization operating as an autonomous business. It may also be used to encourage user to move in a strategically important direction - for example by subsidizing newer systems and imposing additional charges for the use of legacy systems. QUESTION 303:

Which ITIL process provides an insight, through the Modeling activity, into trends that could cause performance problems in the future?

EX0-100 A. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. Incident Management D. Service Level Management Answer: B Explanation: Capacity Management supports the optimum and cost effective provision of IT services by helping organizations match their IT resources to the business demands. The high level activities are: Application Sizing, Workload Management, Demand Management, Modeling, Capacity Planning, Resource Management, and Performance Management. QUESTION 304:

Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data? A. Availability Management B. IT Service Continuity Management C. Release Management D. Security Management Answer: D Explanation: A basic concept of the Security Management is the information security. The primary goal of information security is to guarantee safety of the information. Safety is to be protected against risks. Security is the means to be safe against risks. When protecting information it is the value of the information that has to be protected. These values are stipulated by the confidentiality, integrity and availability. QUESTION 305:

Where are agreements regarding Security Management recorded? A. in a Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B. in a Service Level Agreement (SLA) C. in a Definitive Software Library (DSL) D. in a Capacity Plan Answer: B Explanation: The goal of the Security Management is split up in two parts: 1. The realization of the security requirements defined in the Service Level Agreement

EX0-100 (SLA) and other external requirements which are specified in underpinning contracts, legislation and possible internal or external imposed policies. 2. The realization of a basic level of security. This is necessary to guarantee the continuity of the management organization. This is also necessary in order to reach a simplified Service Level Management for the information security, as it happens to be easier to manage a limited number of SLAs as it is to manage a large number of SLAs. QUESTION 306:

Which ITIL process handles the implementation of the policy for access management and access to information systems? A. Availability Management B. Incident Management C. Release Management D. Security Management Answer: D Explanation: The first activity in the Security Management Process is the "Control" sub-process. The Control sub-process organizes and manages the security Management process itself. The Control sub-process defines the processes, the allocation of responsibility the policy statements and the management framework.

QUESTION 307:

Which ITIL process ensures that the information that has been made available satisfies the specified information security requirements? A. Availability Management B. IT Service Continuity Management C. Security Management D. Service Level Management

Safeguarding the accuracy and completeness of information QUESTION 309: Security Management includes a number of sub-processes. the Plan sub-process contains activities that are related to the underpinning contracts which are specific for (information) security. QUESTION 310: Which process should have prevented this from happening? A. Maintenance C. Control Answer: C Explanation: The Plan sub-process contains activities that in cooperation with the Service Level Management lead to the (information) Security section in the SLA. QUESTION 308: Which of the following describes the basic concept of Integrity in the Security Management process? A. Which activity of Security Management leads to a security sub-clause in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A.EX0-100 Answer: C Explanation: A basic concept of Security Management is the information security. Implement B. the capacity to verify the correctness of the data B. The primary goal of information security is to guarantee safety of information. access to the data at any moment Answer: B Explanation: Integrity. Plan D. the correctness of the data C. protection of the data against unauthorized access and use D. Capacity Management . Furthermore.

Completion. Reporting D. Which sequential steps should be taken to carry out the change? A. the relationship between Configuration Items (parent-child relationships) D. Service Level Management C. Completion B. Review. a Release of only modified software or hardware Answer: D QUESTION 312: Problem Management has submitted a Request for Change (RFC) to Change Management. Configuration Management D. Review. Implementation. Testing. a Release with a longer period of stability for the user D. the CI level C. Testing. the starting point for testing new software Answer: A . a number of smaller improvements and fixes on Known Errors B. Completion C. Testing. Implementation. Scheduling. the recorded composition (snapshot) of a CI or group of CI's to be used as a reference B. Review Answer: A QUESTION 313: What is a Configuration Baseline? A.EX0-100 B. The request is to replace all desktop hard disks of brand X and type Y. Recording. Acceptance of Request for Change. including the modifications. Recording. Implementation and Testing. a program. Building. Implementation. that is distributed C. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 311: What is a Delta Release? A. Reporting. Scheduling.

Identification of root causes C. the time needed to implement solutions C. Problem Control Answer: C QUESTION 317: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident resulting from an implemented change? . the time needed to compile a problem report B. checking the CI-lifecycle B. Proactive Problem Management D. registering all components in the CMDB C. Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this? A. ensuring that the contents of the CMDB remain up to date Answer: D QUESTION 315: Which of the following indicators is a performance indicator for the Problem Management process? A. Error Control B. performing audits to check that the CMDB is accurate D.EX0-100 QUESTION 314: What is an example of the 'control' activity in the Configuration Management process? A. the time needed to record problems Answer: C QUESTION 316: One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends. the time needed to solve problems D.

Capacity Management C. the Change Advisory Board B. Problem Management staff C. Service Level Management Answer: C . Service Level Manager Answer: C QUESTION 318: In which of the following activities are the priority and the category of a Change determined? A. Change Manager B. accepting a Request for Change (RFC) B. Availability Management B. the Service Management Answer: A QUESTION 320: Which of the following processes is most closely related to Release Management? A. the Problem Management D. classifying a Request for Change (RFC) C.EX0-100 A. the Management Team C. Service Desk staff D. planning a change D. Configuration Management D. registering a Request for Change (RFC) Answer: B QUESTION 319: What group will the Change Manager convene in case of a complex change in the IT infrastructure? A.

a randomly selected incident was remedied within two hours. This means that incidents lasted an average of two hours during that month. Availability Management B. What does this mean? A. B. Configuration Management C. Capacity Management C. This means that it took an average of two hours for the user to report the incident to the Service Desk. Financial Management for IT Services Answer: B QUESTION 322: Which process is responsible for recording the logical and physical relationships between the various components of the IT infrastructure? A. D. Release Management D. This means that it took an average of two hours before the service.EX0-100 QUESTION 321: For which process is the Modeling activity a powerful instrument to make predictions about the behavior of the infrastructure? A. Change Management D. This means that in that month. after repairs. was made available to the user. C. Incident Management Answer: B QUESTION 323: The incident reports from the previous month indicate that the average recovery period was two hours. Availability Management B. Answer: C QUESTION 324: .

Underpinning Contract Answer: B QUESTION 326: Which process provides input to Change Management for estimating the impact of a change? A. Incident Management C.EX0-100 Among other things. the cost of implementing each process B. Configuration Management B. Service Level Requirement D. Release Management Answer: A QUESTION 327: Who is responsible for ensuring that security measures are followed during changes? A. the Board of Directors B. how the processes fit into the ITIL?framework D. What is always described with regard to the processes? A. the Change Manager C. the inputs and outputs Answer: D QUESTION 325: In which of the following are the agreements on security between a customer and the IT organization recorded? A. the objective(s). ITIL describes the IT Service Management processes. Problem Management D. the Release Manager D. the activities. Service Level Agreement C. exactly how the activities must be carried out C. Service Improvement Plan B. the Security Manager .

IT Service Continuity Management D. Incident Management D. Configuration Management C. to determine which problems are related to the Change Answer: A QUESTION 329: What is the most common process that is associated with the Service Desk? A. to be able to complete the Change C. Change Management B. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. Service Level Management Answer: C QUESTION 330: Which process is aimed at restoring IT Services as soon as possible after the organization has been hit by a lengthy interruption? A. to be able to implement new Changes D. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 331: What information is not required to set up a process? .EX0-100 Answer: B QUESTION 328: What is a purpose of a Post Implementation Review (PIR) of an implemented Change? A. to check whether the intended goal has been achieved B.

guaranteeing the Configuration Items are continuously updated Answer: B QUESTION 333: The Service Catalog for a network company states that LAN authorization requests will be complete within three weeks. Change Management C. Problem Management D. Which process is responsible for providing this report? A. providing reports on availability D. what does the Accounting activity ensure? A. One of the managers within the client company does not believe that this is achievable and requests a report from the network company. that negotiations can be held about the price of a service D. the desired results (output) Answer: A QUESTION 332: Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management? A. the process owner B. analyzing the Service Windows B. that a certain percentage of profit is made for each service or product . the objective D. Service Level Management Answer: D QUESTION 334: In Financial Management for IT Services. that a budget is allocated to the IT organization every year C. Availability Management B. the trigger (input) C.EX0-100 A. creating and maintaining recovery options C. that the amount of money the IT organization is spending is known and has been calculated (for each service) B.

Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 338: What is a Known Error? . Problem Management Answer: D QUESTION 337: Which process ensures that an interruption in the provision of services is diagnosed as quickly as possible? A. Change Management B. Incident Management C. Change Management C.EX0-100 Answer: A QUESTION 335: Which process is responsible for implementing and maintaining access security? A. Problem Management D. Release Management D. Availability Management B. Security Management Answer: D QUESTION 336: Which process is responsible for establishing and maintaining a Known Error database? A. Incident Management C. Configuration Management D. Change Management B.

When Service Level Management determines the customer demand. Answer: D QUESTION 342: . When Service Level Management determines the level of customer satisfaction. a Problem that is resolved C. a Problem that cannot be matched Answer: C QUESTION 339: Which of the following factors partly determines the priority of an incident? A. the category C. a Service Desk that has knowledge in several locations in a system B. a Service Desk that handles both technical and functional calls Answer: B QUESTION 341: What is Demand Management? A. a Service Desk that provides service 24 hours a day from a single location D. the requisite resources B. When the Service Desk determines the information needs. D. a Service Desk that is located at multiple locations C. B. C. the impact D. a Problem for which the cause is known and a Workaround has been identified D. the wishes of the customer Answer: C QUESTION 340: What is a distributed Service Desk? A. a serious incident that occurs often B.EX0-100 A. When Capacity Management determines and regulates the capacity demand.

EX0-100 IT Service Continuity Plans (ITSC Plans) are often forgotten and not being kept up-to-date for various reasons. IT Service Continuity Management D. Which process could assist IT Service Continuity Management in ensuring this does not happen? A. Change Management C. Financial Management for IT Services C. the person who submitted the RFC Answer: B QUESTION 345: What is an Underpinning Contract? A. Availability Management B. the Change Advisory Board B. a contract with an external supplier . a contract with an internal supplier D. the recipient of the RFC D. Security Management D. Capacity Management B. a contract with an internal customer B. Financial Management for IT Services Answer: B QUESTION 343: Which process pursues a charging policy of IT costs? A. a contract with an external customer C. Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 344: Who is responsible for accepting a Request for Change (RFC)? A. the Change Manager C.

EX0-100 Answer: D QUESTION 346: Which process ensures optimal and measurable availability of IT services? A. due to be released next year. This means that the problem can only be solved at this moment by buying completely new software. Inquiries to the supplier of the software have determined that the cause of the problem is a bug in the software. Change Management B. Availability Management B. the Service Desk must ask all users which replacement software they would like to use D. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 347: Problem Management has researched a number of incidents and has come to the conclusion that they all follow the same pattern. Capacity Management C. What should Problem Management do after the error has been acknowledged and registered as a Known-Error in the Known-Error database? A. will correct the problem. Configuration Management C. Incident Management . the word processing software must be replaced by another package Answer: A QUESTION 348: Which process is responsible for keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date? A. Release Management must remove all distributed versions of the word-processing software from the IT infrastructure C. The next version of the software. All PCs freeze during a spelling check in a certain word processor when the documents concerned are larger than 150 pages. IT Service Continuity Management D. a Request for Change (RFC) must be submitted to Change Management B.

Availability Management B. Release Management D. a back-out plan has not been developed. Release Management Answer: B QUESTION 349: Which process checks whether Requests for Change (RFCs) regarding the IT infrastructure are logical. Configuration Management C. Service Desk Answer: C QUESTION 352: . However. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 350: A user has forgotten his password and asks the Service Desk for a new password. What type of request does this involve? A. Which process or function should have provided the back-out plan? A. feasible and/or necessary? A. a Standard Change Answer: C QUESTION 351: The rollout of an application software upgrade has been planned. a Request for Change (RFC) C. Capacity Management D. an Information Request B. a Service Request D.EX0-100 D. Change Management B. Change Management C.

Problem Management D. Release Management Answer: D QUESTION 354: When can the building and testing of a Change begin? A. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been classified. Availability Plan B. Change Management B. D. Which process is responsible for keeping the DSL and the DHS up-to-date? A. Capacity Management B. B. Incident Management C. As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory Board. Computer Installations and Acceptance C. Risk Analysis .EX0-100 Which process reports about software failures resulting from software changes? A. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been formally authorized. Configuration Management D. Answer: C QUESTION 355: Which document or activity should be completed before a Recovery Plan can be formalized? A. C. As soon as there is a correct network plan for the change. Capacity Plan C. Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 353: The Definitive Software Library (DSL) and the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) are terms used when distributing software and hardware.

deviations from the specified service levels B. Functional Request B. Service Request Answer: B QUESTION 358: What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of an organization? A. time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each department Answer: B QUESTION 359: A supplier of communication equipment offers the client a choice of three different maintenance contracts when purchasing a fax machine. growth of the IT infrastructure C. number of incidents per category D.EX0-100 D. . generating management information C. Incident C. matching incidents D. updating the incident database Answer: D QUESTION 357: What is another name for a deviation from the standard operation of a service? A. Security Plan Answer: C QUESTION 356: Which of the following is not one of the objectives of registering incidents? A. Problem D. identifying problems B.

Service Catalog C. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 361: What do we call protecting information against unauthorised access and use? A. implementing a solution for the error Answer: B . Availability B. finding the root cause of the problem D. Operational Level Agreement B.EX0-100 In which document will the external supplier register the client's choice? A. Safety Answer: B QUESTION 362: What is Error Control responsible for in Problem Management? A. Availability Management B. Service Level Agreement D. Confidentiality C. managing the Known Errors C. tracing problems B. IT Service Continuity Management C. Underpinning Contract Answer: C QUESTION 360: Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible? A. Integrity D. Incident management D.

because this is part of the ITIL?management model B. because this means the incident can be resolved more quickly C. Service Level Management . providing second-line support D. because otherwise Problem Management cannot work Answer: B QUESTION 366: Within which process is the term Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) used? A. analyzing incidents that have been reported and solving the underlying cause B. a change request Answer: D QUESTION 364: Which of the following is Proactive Problem Management? A. a Service Level Agreement B. because this allows incidents to be better tracked D. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. analyzing trends and identifying potential incidents C. a modified Configuration Item C. IT Service Continuity Management D. drawing up a Capacity Plan Answer: B QUESTION 365: Why is it important that the Service Desk attempts to link an incident to a Known Error? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 363: What is one of the possible outputs of the Problem Management process? A. a risk analysis D.

Identify and record. classify. raise an RFC. classify. Recording that the change has been made . review the change D. investigate and diagnose. identify and record C. raise an RFC. raise an RFC. review the change B. supplier of an Underpinning Contract (UC) Answer: A QUESTION 368: With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to interface on a regular basis? A. classify.EX0-100 Answer: A QUESTION 367: Which of the following is an example of a Configuration Item (CI)? A. Investigate and diagnose. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 369: Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order: A. identify and record. exceptionally. IT Financial Management B. Incident Management D. investigate and diagnose. be omitted for an urgent change: 1. Identify and record. Change Management C. raise another RFC Answer: A QUESTION 370: Which of the following activities may. Service Catalog B. investigate and diagnose. Review a change. classify. serial number C. location of a server D.

EX0-100 2. Testing the change 3. Holding a CAB meeting 4. Establishing a back-out plan A. All of them B. 2 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4 Answer: C QUESTION 371: Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers? A. The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT B. It's the only way to manage IT in the Internet age C. It's contained within the IT Infrastructure Library D. It's the first non-proprietary initiative for the management of IT systems Answer: A QUESTION 372: Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management process? A. The physical aspects of software control B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained C. Helping to determine the software release policy D. Distributing software Answer: B QUESTION 373: A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA: A. Covers all services for a particular customer B. Covers a set of similar services, for a single customer C. Covers all services D. Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service Answer: D

EX0-100 QUESTION 374: Possible problems with Change Management include: A. Greater ability to absorb a large volume of change B. Increased visibility and communication of changes C. Lack of ownership of impacted services D. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs Answer: C QUESTION 375: Which of these is/are TRUE? 1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process 2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents 3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff A. 1 and 3 B. All three of them C. Only 1 D. 1 and 2 Answer: A QUESTION 376: Who must always authorise a Request for Change before the change is built and tested? A. The Configuration Manager B. The Change Initiator C. The Change Manager D. Release Management Answer: C QUESTION 377: Why is there sometimes conflict between the goals of Incident Management and those of Problem Management? A. Because specialist support staff do not properly document the work-arounds they identify which consequently prevents the 1st line support staff from applying them the next time the incident occurs B. Because Problem Management is often carried out by technical staff who also have

EX0-100 operations responsibilities and who cannot allocate enough resources to problem solving C. Because Problem Management is focusing on identifying permanent solutions and therefore the speed with which these solutions are found is of secondary importance D. Because Problem Management staff rarely give feedback spontaneously, forcing the 1st line support staff to chase them Answer: C QUESTION 378: Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of a Service Level Manager? A. Analysing and reviewing agreed service levels B. Maintaining the service catalogue C. Negotiating requests for service D. Assessing the full impact of proposed changes to services Answer: D QUESTION 379: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Urgent and non-urgent changes follow the same Change Management process B. High risk, urgent changes should be considered by the CAB Emergency Committee C. Urgent changes need not necessarily be reviewed, unless there is time to do so D. The justification for urgent changes should always be based on sound business reasons Answer: C QUESTION 380: In Availability Management, Confidentiality and Integrity are elements of: A. Reliability B. Serviceability C. Security D. Maintainability Answer: C QUESTION 381: From a well-informed User's perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence in the management of a service failure?

Problem Management Answer: B QUESTION 382: At what point should capacity requirements of a proposed system be first considered? A. Leave it until the system is implemented and see if the system works O. A manufacturer's serial number D. Change Management. Performing cost-benefit analyses to support decision making Answer: B . Incident Management.EX0-100 A. Release Management D. Change Management. Problem Management. Problem Management. service or activity D.K. The cost of the item C. Incident Management. Release Management C. B. Calculation of the costs of IT services B. Just before the system goes live Answer: B QUESTION 383: Which of the following is NOT a valid attribute of a hardware CI? A. Change Management. Release Management. Release Management. Identification of costs by customer. Problem Management. A supplier's part number B. When the Development Manager has completed testing and passes the system to Operations for operational testing D. Incident Management. The number of items held Answer: D QUESTION 384: Which of the following activities are NOT part of IT Accounting? A. Incident Management. Budgeting C. As early as possible C. Change Management B.

Incident volume reduction C. Improved user satisfaction B. Less disruption to both IT support staff and users Answer: B QUESTION 387: Which of the following definitions best describes the IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL)? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 385: The major difference between a CMDB and an asset register is that CMDB holds information on: A. investigation. communication. Detection. The IT environment D. Software C. Elimination of lost incidents D. initial support. A documented framework of proven best practices in Service Management B. Documentation B. resolution and closure D. Detection. Relationships Answer: D QUESTION 386: Which of the following is least likely to be a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process A. initial support. A quality standard in managing customer relationships Answer: A QUESTION 388: The stages in the Incident Management process are: A. Logging. recovery and closure . classification. recovery and closure C. allocation. recording. recording. resolution. classification. detection. A prescriptive process for managing Service Improvement Projects C. investigation. Logging. classification. diagnosis. resolution B. recording. investigation. recovery. A methodology for supporting and delivering IT services D. classification. initial support.

Co-ordinating and directing activities. Which of the following is NOT part of this responsibility? A. 2 and 4 Answer: D QUESTION 390: If the IT Service Continuity plan had to be invoked during a crisis. Monitoring performance and throughput of individual IT components B.EX0-100 Answer: D QUESTION 389: Which of the following terms or phrases are associated with resilience? 1. 2. 3 and 4 B. Progress reporting B. On-site spares 4. 1. Executing recovery instructions Answer: C QUESTION 391: Capacity Management is responsible for ensuring the capacity of the IT Infrastructure matches the evolving demands of the business in the most cost effective and timely manner. Duplexing A. Purchasing resources for the IT Infrastructure D. what would be the role of the organisation's senior managers? A. Tuning systems to make most effective use of IT resources C. Influencing customer behaviour to optimise the use of IT resources Answer: C QUESTION 392: . 1 and 4 D. Redundancy 2. Fault tolerance 3. arbitrating and allocating resources D. All of them C. Leading the recovery teams C.

A mainframe purchase D. Risk Assessment and Business Continuity Strategy Answer: D QUESTION 395: Which of these statements reflect the activities of IT Financial Management? 1. Initial testing. Consultancy C.EX0-100 Which of the following are NOT operational costs? A. Only 2 C. All known errors need to be resolved to user satisfaction C. Organisation and Implementation Planning and Risk Reduction Measures D. Staff B. IT Financial Management may calculate the prices to be charged for IT services 2. IT Financial Management ensures that the IT department charges those who benefit from IT A. Business Impact Analysis. Incidents are not the only source of known errors Answer: B QUESTION 394: The Requirements and Strategy phase of the Business Continuity Life-cycle comprises: A. 1 and 2 Answer: A . Accommodation rental Answer: C QUESTION 393: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Education and Awareness and Assurance B. Only 1 B. If the root cause and a temporary work-around have been identified for a problem it becomes a known error B. Neither D. Review and Audit C. A known error can be kept open when a work-around is being used D. Education and Awareness.

The Forward Schedule of Change. The level at which components will be independently changed C. A Service Catalogue plus an understanding of the business criticality of each of the services C. The suitability of the available software to hold the information D. The availability of spares for CIs Answer: B QUESTION 398: As part of your IT Continuity Planning you have been asked to undertake a comprehensive Risk Analysis.EX0-100 QUESTION 396: During the release planning stage you identify that the changes you are about to make to a service will necessitate changes in related software systems. Delta Release Answer: B QUESTION 397: Typically the decision on what should be the lowest level of CI recorded is influenced mostly by: A. Which of the following is most likely to be of use to you in drawing up your plan? A. Full Release B. A list of Services and Operational Level Agreements D. A report produced by Incident Management detailing the incidents affecting IT Services over the last month Answer: B QUESTION 399: An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following? . The reliability of the CIs B. Package Release C. Once all the changes have been fully tested. Emergency D. produced by Change Management B. which type of release will be used to deliver them into the live environment? A.

All of them B. Is updated by Configuration Management staff at the end of each working day C. Making more efficient use of processing capacity C.EX0-100 A. A direct cost Answer: C QUESTION 400: Consider the following activities: 1. Balancing workloads . Balancing disc traffic B. The identification of trends 3. Must be verified for accuracy monthly with trend reports on errors distributed to management quarterly Answer: C QUESTION 402: Which of the following is NOT a valid method of tuning? A. Must be available for update 7 x 24 if any of the services supported by the IT supplier are available 7 x 24 B. The definition of Service Management processes 4. The market price C. 2 and 4 Answer: D QUESTION 401: The CMDB: A. Installing a new server D. 1. None of them D. A discounted charge B. An indirect cost D. The implementation of preventive measures Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool? A. Holds information that will be useful to the majority of IT Service Management processes D. 2 and 3 C. The analysis of raw data 2.

Verification B. Reliability D.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 403: For an organisation implementing the ITIL IT Service Management processes which of the following statements is most accurate? A. Are customer perceptions of service improving? D. Security C. The full benefits will only be realised if all IT staff are fully qualified in IT Service Management. C. D. What percentage of services are covered by SLAs? B. Maintainability Answer: A QUESTION 406: Which of the following statements is TRUE? . The full benefits will only be realised if Incident & Problem Management processes are implemented first. Answer: C QUESTION 404: Which of the following would NOT be a performance measurement for the Service Level Management function? A. Are service review meetings held on time and correctly minuted? C. How many services are included within the CMDB? Answer: D QUESTION 405: Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management? A. The full benefits will only be realised if the business requirements are first ascertained and then the processes are implemented in an integrated way. B. The full benefits will only be realised if regular reviews are undertaken with customers.

A change may only be developed from non-definitive versions of software in the case of an urgent release Answer: B QUESTION 407: Which of the following metrics would you most associate with the Service Desk? A. The support team which resolves the greatest number of problems C.EX0-100 A. Lower insurance premiums 2. The DSL contains source code only D. The mean time between failure Answer: A QUESTION 408: Potential benefits from managing IT Service Continuity are: 1. Reduced business disruption in the event of a disaster 4. 1. 2 and 4 Answer: C . 2. The number of high priority incidents occurring B. Release Management is responsible for managing the organisation's rights and obligations regarding software C. 3 and 4 C. The number of problems solved in a day D. Better management of risk and the consequent reduction of the impact of failure A. Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL B. All of them D. 2 and 4 B. Fulfilment of mandatory or regulatory requirements 3.

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