100 | Incident Management | Itil

EX0-100

QUESTION 1:

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity management? A. Drawing up back-out scenarios B. Analyzing risks C. Testing back-out arrangements D. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D QUESTION 2:

Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data? A. IT service continuity management B. Availability management C. Release management D. Security management Answer: D QUESTION 3:

Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include distributing information to users? A. Change management B. Service desk C. Customer relationship management D. Incident Management Answer: B QUESTION 4:

Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. Service Quality Plan (SQP) B. Service improvement program (SIP) C. Service catalogue

EX0-100 D. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: B QUESTION 5:

In the change management process, which role is ultimately responsible for the entire process? A. Change Advisory Board B. IT Manager C. Change Manager D. Change Coordinator Answer: C QUESTION 6:

In Certkiller .com, the purchasing department has relocated internally, not just the people, but also their IT resources. A service Desk employee has been commissioned to relocate this department's workstations. In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role? A. Configuration Management B. Incident Management C. Change Management D. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 7:

Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management? A. A report regarding the problem management process B. An urgent change C. A change request D. A trend analysis Answer: D QUESTION 8:

EX0-100

Which data, for a new configuration item (CI), is recorded in the configuration management database (CMDB)? A. The relationship to other configuration items B. The request for change number for the configuration item C. Repairs to the configuration item D. The impact of the configuration item Answer: A QUESTION 9:

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity management? A. Testing back-out arrangements B. Drawing up back-out scenarios C. Analyzing risks D. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D QUESTION 10:

Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors? A. Availability management B. Problem Management C. IT service continuity management D. Security Management Answer: B QUESTION 11:

Which activity is not a Service Desk activity? A. Relating an incident to a know Error B. Registering incidents C. Applying temporary fixes D. Solving a Problem Answer: D

By analyzing open incidents C. Service Level Management Answer: C QUESTION 14: How does Problem Management contribute to a higher solution percentage of first-line support? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 12: Which of the following describes the basic concept of integrity in the Security Management process? A. Financial Management for IT services D. The capacity to verify the correctness of the data B. By evaluating incidents with the customer D. By preventing incidents B. Capacity Management B. Relating an incident to a known error . Availability Management C. Protection of the data against unauthorized access and use Answer: B QUESTION 13: Which ITIL process responsible for annually allocating the costs of underpinning contracts? A. Access to the data at any moment D. The correctness of the data C. By making a knowledge database available Answer: D QUESTION 15: Which activity is not a service Desk activity? A.

The service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer B. The service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available Answer: A QUESTION 17: When an organization decides to control the flow of incidents information within the IT organization. An unplanned change D. Change management B. Applying temporary fixes Answer: B QUESTION 16: Which statement best describes the role of the service Desk? A. Solving a problem C. An urgent change C. Registering incidents D.EX0-100 B. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 18: How is a change that must be made quickly called? A. A standard change Answer: B QUESTION 19: . A fast change B. Incident Management D. The service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned D. which ITIL process would it be putting in place? A. Availability management C. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems C.

Configuration Management C. When the incident Manager thinks this is necessary Answer: C QUESTION 20: Which of the following statements about the service catalogue is correct? A. C. has exceeded. there is an ITSC Plan available. Change Management D. Fortunately. as the IT service can no longer be used B. It can be used instead of an SLA Answer: B QUESTION 21: Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application? A. When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the ITSC Plan? A. It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) B.EX0-100 A powerful failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure. It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA D. When the time within which the failure should be solved. The whishes of customers to implement changes B. Immediately. Ongoing or concluded changes . Capacity Management B. It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization C. When the continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum period of time mentioned in the service Level agreement D. Availability management Answer: A QUESTION 22: Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of the Change Advisor Board (CAB)? A.

Interrelated activities B. Departments D. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services Answer: C QUESTION 24: What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management? A. IT resources Answer: A QUESTION 25: Who decides the category of a change ? A. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services B. The service desk B. That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster C. The registration of changes Answer: B QUESTION 23: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. What criteria defines a category for a change? . The customer Answer: B QUESTION 26: Changes are divided into categories. The problem manager D. Reports from Service Level Management D.EX0-100 C. Officals C. The change manager C. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently D.

The Request for Change number that the change is assigned Answer: B QUESTION 27: Which activity in the problem management process is responsible for generating requests for change (RFCs)? A. Error Control B. incident Answer: B . substantial. which is much faster. Which term is applicable to this situation? A. The consequences of the change such as limited. The sequence in which the change is made B. Problem Analysis Answer: A QUESTION 28: Certkiller . Known Error C. Request For Change C.com calls the service Desk and Reports that the system is slow. Incident D. Work-around D. Problem B. Classification Answer: C QUESTION 29: Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified? A. He asks whether he can be given another PC like this colleague's. Request for Change (RFC) B. significant etc C. The speed with which the change is made D. Proactive Problem Management D. Monitoring C.EX0-100 A.

Acquiring customers C. What incidents or problems have there been for this PC? C. what happens during the activity called "monitoring"? A. In the change database C.EX0-100 QUESTION 30: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident? A. Which members of staff of department x have moved to department Y? Answer: D QUESTION 33: Where are the statuses of changes recorded? A. Service Desk C. Which Requests for change have been submitted for a specific server? B. In the configuration management database (CMDB) . Which Configuration items does a specific service consist of? D. Service Level Manager D. Problem Manager B. In the known error database B. Guarding agreements with the customer B. Guarding negotiations with the customer D. Identifying the needs of the customer Answer: A QUESTION 32: Which of the following questions can not be answered directly from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. Problem Management staff Answer: B QUESTION 31: In the Service Level Management Process.

Defining service levels C. Compilation of service level reports Answer: A QUESTION 36: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. Capacity Management D. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services B.EX0-100 D. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services C. Which activity takes place after the evaluation of a service? A. Monitoring of service levels D. Adjusting of the service B. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently Answer: D QUESTION 37: . That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster D.What is the difference between a process and a project? . Financial Management for IT Services C. Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 35: Users have complained about email service. In the definitive software library (DSL) Answer: C QUESTION 34: Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation system? A. An evaluation of the service has been performed. Availability Management B.

At the request of the person who submitted the change request C. A process is continuous and has no end date. Release Management B. In a project the focus is not on the result. Verification Answer: D QUESTION 40: When must a Post Implementation Review take place? A. A project is continuous and has no end date. where a process has a finite lifespan Answer: B QUESTION 38: Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definite Software Library (DSL). After every Change D. whereas with a process the result is important D.EX0-100 A. What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the DSL? A. whereas a project has a finite lifespan C. Identification C. Application Management Answer: A QUESTION 39: For which of the following activities of configuration management are audits regularly implemented? A. Configuration Management D. whereas as project does not stop when the objective is met B. Planning D. A process stops when the objective has been achieved. In case of emergency changes . If another incident of the same type occurs again after a change has been made B. Capacity Management C. Status monitoring B.

to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. Capacity Management C. Serviceability Answer: A QUESTION 43: An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information database. to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient? A. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased. Resource Management B. Security Management D. Security C. Average time between two consecutive incidents Answer: C QUESTION 42: For what is capacity Management responsible? A. Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time. Change Management B. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period C. Average downtime of a service D.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 41: What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean? A. Maintainability D. Average uptime of a service B. Availability Management Answer: B QUESTION 44: .

When the incident has been sent to Problem Management D. Availability Management C. A problem B. When the problem is known B. into trends that could cause performance problems in the future? A. A change request C. A service call D. Capacity Management B. Incident Management C. Incident Management .EX0-100 When is a known error identified? A. Service Level Management B. When the cause of the problem is known Answer: D QUESTION 45: What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same characteristics? A. through the modeling activity. additional resources are assigned to identify the cause. Service Level Management D. Capacity Management D. A known error Answer: A QUESTION 46: When the cause of one or more incidents is not known. Which ITIL process is responsible for this? A. When the problem has been resolved C. Problem Management Answer: D QUESTION 47: Which ITIL process provides an insight.

User B. Analysis and diagnosis C. Service Desk Answer: C QUESTION 49: Which of the following parties involved in an incident determines whether that incident can be closed? A. Capacity Management C. Service Manager Answer: A QUESTION 50: What activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident? A. Purchaser of the services C.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 48: Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures? A. Problem Management B. Classification Answer: D QUESTION 51: What is the use of additional technical expertise in the incident management process called? . Solving and restoring B. ITService Continuity Management D. Matching D. Employee of the service Desk D.

the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is discussed. Availability Management B. The Network Manager B. Request of change D.com plans on implementing a new network operating system. Urgent Change B. serviceability and maintainability components? A. Service Level Management Answer: A . Problem analysis D. The Change Manager C. The service Manager Answer: B QUESTION 54: Of which ITIL process are reliability. Functional escalation C. Standard Change Answer: D QUESTION 53: Certkiller . Under whose leadership is this discussion held? A.EX0-100 A. ITService Continuity Management C. Problem Management D. Resolution and recovery of the incident B. Service request C. Before the actual implementation takes place. The Service Level Manager D. Incident classification Answer: B QUESTION 52: What is the term used for a fully described and approved change that does not have to be evaluated by Change Management each time? A.

SIP (Service Improvement Program) C. The CMDB (Configuration Management Database) B. Incident Management B. Service Desk D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package B. The CAB (Change Advisory Board) . Availability Management C. Problem Management D. Which of the following reports is an incident? A. Information about the departure time of the train to London D. Problem Management C. A report that the printer is not working C. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 57: Reports of different types arrive at a Service Desk.EX0-100 QUESTION 55: Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT infrastructure? A. A question about where the manual is Answer: B QUESTION 58: Where is the planning of changes kept up to date? A. Incident Management B. Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 56: Which of the following is a department rather than a process? A.

Setting up the process C. The result of the process D. What is the process owner responsible for? A. Describing the process Answer: C QUESTION 61: How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Server Level Management process? A. By defining server levels Answer: B QUESTION 62: . A document that states how the infrastructure must be dealt with in an organization (vision) D. By measuring customer satisfaction C. The most important infrastructure (such as a network) to which all kinds of workstations and services can be linked B. Implementing the process B.com service (must at least satisfy) Answer: B QUESTION 60: A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal. A standard configuration (such as a standard workstation) C. The FSC (Forward Schedule of Changes) Answer: D QUESTION 59: What is a baseline in the IT infrastructure? A. By reporting on all incidents B.EX0-100 D. By checking contracts with suppliers D. A minimum value for Certkiller .

Copies of all live software programs B. Determine the priority C. Service Level Management D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing C. Copies of all software versions that are needed Answer: C QUESTION 63: How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process? A. Availability Management B. Security Management Answer: D QUESTION 65: What is the first step when registering an incident? A.EX0-100 Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Software Library? A. Assign an incident number . By defining service levels C. By checking contracts with suppliers D. Record the incident data B. By reporting on all incidents B. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure D. Perform matching D. IT service Continuity Management C. By measuring customer satisfaction Answer: D QUESTION 64: Which ITIL process ensures that the information that has been made available satisfies the specified information security requirements? A.

Checking problems and incidents C. In a Capacity Plan C. IT Service Continuously Management C. Service Catalogue . Problem Management B. Classifying and defining the priorities of problems D. Capacity Management Answer: B QUESTION 69: Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. Providing information to the users B.EX0-100 Answer: D QUESTION 66: Where are agreements regarding Security Management recorded? A. In a Definitive Software Library (DSL) Answer: C QUESTION 67: What is the primary task of Error Control? A. Correcting known errors Answer: D QUESTION 68: Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which supplementary emergency measures must be taken? A. Availability Management D. In a Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B. In a service Level Agreement (SLA) D.

Financial Management for IT Services C. Compiling the release schedule B. Implement C. Which activity of security management leads to a security sub-clause in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) ? A. Communicating and preparing the release Answer: A QUESTION 72: Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra support of the service desk? A. Control B. Plan D. Service Quality Plan (SQP) C. Availability Management B. Designing and building a release D. Service Level Management D. Testing a release C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: C QUESTION 70: Security Management includes a number of sub-processes. Incident Management Answer: C QUESTION 73: . Maintenance Answer: C QUESTION 71: What is the first activity when implementing a release? A.EX0-100 B. Service Improvement Program (SIP) D.

Problem Management D. Do . Security Management B. Scheduling the Request for change C.Check .check .Plan . Request for Release B. Determining the urgency of the change B.Do . Service Request D. Building and testing the change Answer: A QUESTION 76: According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in order to ensure good performance Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps? A.Act C.Plan B. Plan .Check -Act . ACT . Incident Management C. Capacity Management Answer: C QUESTION 75: In Change Management. Replacement request Answer: B QUESTION 74: Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors? A. Request for change C. a number of activities take place between the acceptance of a request for change and the completion of the change. Which activity is performed after acceptance of a Request for Change? A.EX0-100 What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? A.Do . Implementing the change D.

Configuration Management makes an inventory of the configuration items and asset management registers them C.Act . Asset Management monitors aspects such as depreciation and configuration management monitors aspects such as the relationships between the configuration items B.Do Answer: B QUESTION 77: What is meant by the urgency of an incident? A. The degree two which the solution of an incident tolerates delay Answer: A QUESTION 78: Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) includes both Asset Management And Configuration Management. Check . so there are no differences between item D. Impact D. The relative importance of the incidents when handling them D. Configuration Management is a component of Asset Management. Priority . The time needed by IT services to resolve the incident B. Asset Management focuses exclusively on the book value and configuration management on the status of configuration items Answer: A QUESTION 79: What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a Request for change? A. What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management? A. Urgency B.Plan . The degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service level C.EX0-100 D. Content C.

Configuration Management D. Implementation Answer: A QUESTION 81: In Certkiller . This could have consequences for other components.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 80: The deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality. Which step in this model must be taken first? A. Change Management B.com a specific component of the IT infrastructure has been modified. RFCs from the Service Desk That Problem Management passes on to Change Management Answer: B . What ITIL process should be set up in order to provide good insight into these consequences? A. Capacity Management Answer: C QUESTION 82: Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. on the basis of which change management can generate requests for Change (RFCs) D. RFCs resulting from known errors C. Measurement C. RFCs from the users that problem management passes on to change management B. Planning B. Known errors from problem management. Availability Management C. What information is this? A. Adjustment D.

That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster C. Which of the following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as being proactive? A. Delivering second-line support. Analyzing reported incidents in order to mane recommendations Answer: D QUESTION 86: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. The quantity of the stored configuration items D. Making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements D. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT Services . The relationship between the different configuration items C. The costs and expected revenue of the service offered Answer: B QUESTION 84: What does the term 'detail level' mean in the context of the configuration management database (CMDB)? A. The depth of the database structure Answer: D QUESTION 85: One of Problem Management's tasks is to proactively prevent incidents. The location of the configuration item B.EX0-100 QUESTION 83: Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. The technology developments that can affect the service offered B. Employing more Problem Managers C. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently B. The quality expressed in quality and costs. should problems occur B. of the services offered C. The company strategy D.

Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period D. Capacity Management C. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D QUESTION 88: What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean? A. Drawing up back-out scenarios D. Testing back-out arrangements B. Average time between two consecutive incidents Answer: A QUESTION 89: Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure? A. Problem management D. Average uptime of a service C. Configuration management Answer: A QUESTION 90: The Service Desk receives different types of calls. Which of the following is an incident ? . That it is finally possible to charge for IT services Answer: A QUESTION 87: Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity Management? A. IT service continuity management B. Average downtime of a service B.EX0-100 D. Analyzing risks C.

what should happen next? A. Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR) D. Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC) Answer: B QUESTION 93: Which ITIL process is responsible for handling an application for a new workstation according to a standard working method? A. Configuration Management B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer C. Application Management C.EX0-100 A. Release Management will implement the back-out plan C. Capacity Management Answer: C QUESTION 92: Release Management has distributed a defective Release. Service Level Management . A system message that a printer is not working Answer: D QUESTION 91: Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definite Software Library (DSL). monthly invoicing has come to a standstill. According to ITIL best practices. What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the DSL? A. Service Desk C. A request to install a new bookkeeping package B. As a result. Incident Management B. Release Management D. This has very radical consequences for the business and has been reported as an incident. Change Management D. Service Level Management will start a service improvement program (SIP) B. Information about the rollout of a specific application D.

Demand Management D. Service Desk Answer: B QUESTION 97: . Budgeting Answer: C QUESTION 95: The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can be performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day. Accounting C. What part of the capacity Management process does this refer to? A. Modeling C. Reporting B. Application Sizing Answer: C QUESTION 96: Which process or function ensures that change proposals are submitted with the aim of removing errors within the IT infrastructure? A. Configuration Management B. Charging D. Change Management D.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 94: Which activity in the ITIL process "Financial Management for IT services" is responsible for billing the services that were provided to the customer? A. Problem Management C. Application Management B.

Change Management D. monitoring the status of changes C. Availability Management B. ITInfrastructure Management C. monitoring the software modules (SoftwareCIs) D. Problem Management C. Service Level Management Answer: D . Incident Management D. Capacity Management D. Release Management B. ITService Continuity Management B. monitoring the relationships between Configuration Items (CIs) B. monitoring the infrastructure capacity Answer: A QUESTION 98: Which process is responsible for coordinating the relocation of a number of workstations? A. Configuration Management Answer: C QUESTION 99: Which process provides a user insight into the status of a failure? A. Problem Management C.EX0-100 Which of the following is a task of Configuration Management? A. Service Level Management Answer: C QUESTION 100: Which process is responsible for monitoring agreements with network suppliers? A.

applications officially installed under the authority of Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 103: A user calls the Service Desk complaining that it is often impossible to print documents from a certain application. Service Level Agreement Answer: C QUESTION 102: Which applications does the Service Desk support? A. Availability Plan B. applications tested and updated by the Service Desk C. Incident Management D. Which process is responsible for identifying the cause? A. Change Management Answer: B QUESTION 104: In order to resolve a service failure. Capacity Plan D. applications approved and installed by Problem Management B. Which process must grant approval for implementing this change? . while this is not the case with otherapplications. all applications installed on an end-user's system D. Back-out Plan C. a change must be made to a software package. Availability Management B. Problem Management C.EX0-100 QUESTION 101: Which of the following documents would help provide insight into the load of the IT systems and the development of the organization in the mediumand long term? A.

Problem Management D. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: B . Operational Level Agreement (OLA) D. ITService Continuity Management Answer: C QUESTION 106: Which item is required in the Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a Change? A. Known Error Management B. Service Catalog C. to which Configuration Items (CIs) the Change relates Answer: A QUESTION 107: Where can you find an overview of all IT services? A. Configuration Management B.EX0-100 A. Problem Management D. whether the Change has achieved the intended goal B. Service Level Management C. whether the Management of the IT department is satisfied with the implementation of the Change D. whether the CI registration in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is up-to-date C. Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 105: Which process focuses specifically on tracing or finding the cause of recurring errors and documenting them? A. Incident Management C. Service Window B.

registration D. recognizing the event as a security incident Answer: D QUESTION 110: . classification Answer: D QUESTION 109: Which aspect is important when registering security incidents? A. scheduling B. Answer: B QUESTION 111: What is a Definitive Software Library (DSL)? A. coordination C. the person who reported the incident D. D. C. The organization is more customer-oriented. There is a central Service Desk. the applicable disciplinary measures B.EX0-100 QUESTION 108: Which Change Management activity indicates the priority and category of an accepted Request for Change (RFC)? A. qualified Service Desk employees C. which of the following is the greatest benefit? A. When an IT service provider adopts and adapts ITIL's best practices. Work is carried out using a process-oriented approach. a place meant for integrating the test and development departments more effectively with each other . Work is carried out using a project-oriented approach. B.

the names of persons who are authorized to implement Changes in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) C. a place where original software is physically stored D. contracts between internal IT departments C. Underpinning Contract (UC) B. contracts between external suppliers of services and the IT department Answer: D QUESTION 113: What data is recorded when an incident is reported to the Service Desk? A. a database in which software Configuration Items (CIs) are registered Answer: C QUESTION 112: What does the term "Serviceability" refer to? A. contracts between IT management and the customer D. a tool with which all software items can be distributed on the network C. contracts between external suppliers and the customer B. Operational Level Agreement (OLA) D. the name of the person handling the Problem B. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: C QUESTION 115: . Service Quality Plan (SQP) C. the name of the person reporting the Incident Answer: D QUESTION 114: What type of agreement is made with internal IT departments assuring support of service components? A.EX0-100 B. the name of the person who approves the Request for Change (RFC) D.

the Release Manager D. the Board of Management Answer: B QUESTION 117: Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. which equipment is causing incidents C. which software version is being used . a question about where the manual is D. who is responsible for ensuring that security measures maintain the security level? A. a request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package B. several Changes that are merged due to their size Answer: C QUESTION 116: After a change.EX0-100 What does a package release consist of? A. a single Change that consists of both hardware and software B. Which of the following events is an incident? A. several Changes that are merged due to their minor impact C. which equipment is being used by whom B. the Security Manager C. where the equipment has been set up D. the Change Manager B. information about the departure time of the train to London C. a single Change made up of several separate Changes D. a report that the printer is not working Answer: D QUESTION 118: Which information does Financial Management for IT Services extract from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A.

type of problem involved B. following up on Incidents D. a resolved Problem Answer: B QUESTION 120: Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager? A. a Request for Change B. ensuring the smooth running of the process B. one or more resolved incidents D. a Known Error C.EX0-100 Answer: A QUESTION 119: What is produced when Problem Management identifies the cause of a Problem and a workaround? A. Incident Management . a description and identification of the Configuration Items (CIs) involved C. number of Configuration Items (CIs) involved D. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users C. channeling data to Problem Management Answer: A QUESTION 121: What information must always be included in a Request for Change (RFC)? A. date and time of the notification of disruption Answer: B QUESTION 122: Error Control and trend analysis of incidents are activities of which process? A.

B. Answer: C . ensuring the reliability of components will carry out a required function under certain conditions over a certain period B. Problem Management generates reports and Incident Management does not. Incident Management focuses on restoration of service and Problem Management focuses on finding the cause. Incident Management focuses on registration and Problem Management does not. Problem Management focuses on restoration of service and Incident Management focuses on finding the cause. Release Management B. Availability Management D. Service Level Management C. D. Configuration Management D. delivering information on Service Levels to clients to determine the availability percentage D. managing the negotiations with the customer with regard to availability C. Service Level Management C. C. Demand Management Answer: A QUESTION 125: How does Problem Management differ from Incident Management? A. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 124: Which of the following is Availability Management responsible for? A. Problem Management Answer: D QUESTION 123: Which process provides components of the IT infrastructure with a unique and systematic name (designation)? A.EX0-100 B.

Incident Management C. Configuration Management D. organizational chart C. What else is required? A. IT personnel B. This includes the objectives and the output. Change Management B. a report of a breakdown Answer: B QUESTION 127: Which of the following is considered a Configuration Item (CI)? A. process Answer: B QUESTION 128: Which of the following processes provides Problem Management with reports about the IT infrastructure? A. a question about how an application works D. Financial Management for IT Services Answer: C QUESTION 129: Certain data is needed to describe an ITIL's process. a standard request for change C. a complaint about the service of the Service Desk B. incident D. environment .EX0-100 QUESTION 126: Which of the following is not regarded as an incident? A.

Problem Management and Capacity Management B. Change Management C. classification D. Configuration Management Database (CMDB) C. Configuration Management D. ITService Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT Services Answer: B QUESTION 131: Which term is also used for routing or passing on incidents to another solution group? A. activities D. Availability Management and Service Level Management D. authorisations Answer: C QUESTION 130: Managing risk is an essential part of which processes? A. registration C.EX0-100 B. ITService Continuity Management and Availability Management C. Capacity Management B. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 133: . escalation Answer: D QUESTION 132: Which process is responsible for providing information about the IT infrastructure to all other processes? A. prioritization B.

Which of the activities of Capacity Management is responsible for this? A. Application Sizing Answer: D QUESTION 134: Which of the following tasks is a task of the Service Desk? A. Problem Management B. Capacity Planning B. Monitoring D. solving incidents by looking for their underlying causes C. The predictions include data about the performance levels that can be expected. officially approving Requests for Change (RFCs) B. Capacity Management D. a change request B. a Service Level Agreement . Tuning C. ITService Continuity Management Answer: D QUESTION 136: What is one of the possible outputs of the Problem Management process? A. the requisite hardware and the costs. a risk analysis C. recognizing customer requirements and subsequently adjusting the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) Answer: C QUESTION 135: Which process includes developing a recovery plan? A. initiating escalation procedures D. Availability Management C.EX0-100 One of the activities of Capacity Management involves making evaluations and predictions regarding the hardware that is required to run a new ormodified application.

the relationship between Configuration Items (parent-child relationships) D. the starting point for testing new software B. Problem Management B. Service Level Management Answer: D QUESTION 139: What is a distributed Service Desk? A.EX0-100 D. a Service Desk that provides service 24 hours a day from a single location Answer: A QUESTION 140: . a Service Desk that handles both technical and functional calls C. Availability Management D. a modified Configuration Item Answer: A QUESTION 137: What is a Configuration Baseline? A. the CI level C. a Service Desk that is located at multiple locations B. One of the managers withinthe client company does not believe that this is achievable and requests a report from the network company. Change Management C. Which process is responsible for providing this report? A. the recorded composition (snapshot) of a CI or group of CI's to be used as a reference Answer: D QUESTION 138: The Service Catalog for a network company states that LAN authorization requests will be complete within three weeks. a Service Desk that has knowledge in several locations in a system D.

Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 141: What is a Known Error? A. This means that the problem can only be solved at this moment by buying completely new software. Release Management must remove all distributed versions of the word-processing software from the IT infrastructure D. Availability Management B. a Problem that cannot be matched Answer: A QUESTION 142: Problem Management has researched a number of incidents and has come to the conclusion that they all follow the same pattern. ITService Continuity Management D. willcorrect the problem. All PCs freeze during a spelling check in a certain word processor when the documents concerned are larger than 150 pages. Inquiries to the supplier of the softwarehave determined that the cause of the problem is a bug in the software. The next version of the software. the Service Desk must ask all users which replacement software they would like to use Answer: A QUESTION 143: . What should Problem Management do after the error has been acknowledged and registered as a Known-Error in the Known-Error database? A. due to be released next year. Capacity Management C.EX0-100 Within which process is the term Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) used? A. a Problem for which the cause is known and a Workaround has been identified B. a Request for Change (RFC) must be submitted to Change Management B. a serious incident that occurs often D. a Problem that is resolved C. the word processing software must be replaced by another package C.

Change Management Answer: B QUESTION 145: Which process is responsible for establishing and maintaining a Known Error database? A. Configuration Management C. C. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 146: Which of the following is Proactive Problem Management? A. Release Management C. Answer: A QUESTION 144: The rollout of an application software upgrade has been planned. Availability Management D. When Service Level Management determines the customer demand. Incident Management B. D.EX0-100 What is Demand Management? A. Problem Management D. analyzing incidents that have been reported and solving the underlying cause D. However. When Service Level Management determines the level of customer satisfaction. analyzing trends and identifying potential incidents C. When Capacity Management determines and regulates the capacity demand. drawing up a Capacity Plan B. B. Service Desk B. Which process or function should have provided the back-out plan? A. a back-out plan has not been developed. When the Service Desk determines the information needs. providing second-line support .

EX0-100

Answer: B QUESTION 147:

Among other things, ITIL describes the IT Service Management processes. What is always described with regard to the processes? A. exactly how the activities must be carried out B. how the processes fit into the ITIL'S framework C. the objective(s), the activities, the inputs and outputs D. the cost of implementing each process Answer: C QUESTION 148:

Which process ensures optimal and measurable availability of IT services? A. ITService Continuity Management B. Capacity Management C. Service Level Management D. Availability Management Answer: D QUESTION 149:

Which process pursues a charging policy of IT costs? A. Financial Management for IT Services B. ITService Continuity Management C. Capacity Management D. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 150:

What is a purpose of a Post Implementation Review (PIR) of an implemented Change? A. to be able to implement new Changes

EX0-100 B. to determine which problems are related to the Change C. to check whether the intended goal has been achieved D. to be able to complete the Change Answer: C QUESTION 151:

Which of the following is not one of the objectives of registering incidents? A. generating management information B. updating the incident database C. matching incidents D. identifying problems Answer: B QUESTION 152:

What do we call protecting information against unauthorised access and use? A. Safety B. Confidentiality C. Availability D. Integrity Answer: B QUESTION 153:

Who is responsible for accepting a Request for Change (RFC)? A. the recipient of the RFC B. the person who submitted the RFC C. the Change Manager D. the Change Advisory Board Answer: C QUESTION 154:

Who is responsible for ensuring that security measures are followed during changes?

EX0-100

A. the Release Manager B. the Security Manager C. the Change Manager D. the Board of Directors Answer: C QUESTION 155:

Which of the following processes is most closely related to Release Management? A. Configuration Management B. Service Level Management C. Capacity Management D. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 156:

Which process is aimed at restoring IT Services as soon as possible after the organization has been hit by a lengthy interruption? A. Problem Management B. ITService Continuity Management C. Availability Management D. Capacity Management Answer: B QUESTION 157:

Which process is responsible for implementing and maintaining access security? A. Security Management B. Change Management C. Availability Management D. Release Management Answer: A

that is distributed D. a Release of only modified software or hardware C.EX0-100 QUESTION 158: Which process ensures that an interruption in the provision of services is diagnosed as quickly as possible? A. Service Level Management D. guaranteeing the Configuration Itemsare continuously updated B. registering all components in the CMDB D. a program. including the modifications. analyzing the Service Windows C. ensuring that the contents of the CMDB remain up to date C. a Release with a longer period of stability for the user B. creating and maintaining recovery options Answer: D QUESTION 160: What is a Delta Release? A. a number of smaller improvements and fixes on Known Errors Answer: B QUESTION 161: What is an example of the 'control' activity in the Configuration Management process? A. Incident Management C. performing audits to check that the CMDB is accurate B. checking the CI-lifecycle . providing reports on availability D. Problem Management B. Change Management Answer: B QUESTION 159: Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management? A.

Incident Management Answer: B QUESTION 164: The incident reports from the previous month indicate that the average recovery period was two hours. This means that in that month. accepting a Request for Change (RFC) D. a randomly selected incident was remedied within two hours. What does this mean? A. This means that it took an average of two hours before the service.EX0-100 Answer: B QUESTION 162: In which of the following activities are the priority and the category of a Change determined? A. Release Management B. after repairs. classifying a Request for Change (RFC) Answer: D QUESTION 163: Which process is responsible for recording the logical and physical relationships between the various components of the IT infrastructure? A. Answer: B . C. was made available to the user. B. Configuration Management C. Availability Management D. This means that it took an average of two hours for the user to report the incident to the Service Desk. registering a Request for Change (RFC) B. D. planning a change C. This means that incidents lasted an average of two hours during that month.

growth of the IT infrastructure Answer: D QUESTION 168: A supplier of communication equipment offers the client a choice of three different maintenance contracts when purchasing a fax machine. number of incidents per category C. that negotiations can be held about the price of a service B. because this means the incident can be resolved more quickly Answer: D QUESTION 167: What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of an organization? A. Underpinning Contract . In which document will the external supplier register the client's choice? A. time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each department D. because this is part of the ITIL'S management model D. what does the Accounting activity ensure? A. that the amount of money the IT organization is spending is known and has been calculated (for each service) Answer: D QUESTION 166: Why is it important that the Service Desk attempts to link an incident to a Known Error? A. that a budget is allocated to the IT organization every year C. because this allows incidents to be better tracked B. that a certain percentage of profit is made for each service or product D.EX0-100 QUESTION 165: In Financial Management for IT Services. deviations from the specified service levels B. because otherwise Problem Management cannot work C.

Operational Level Agreement Answer: C QUESTION 169: Which process provides input to Change Management for estimating the impact of a change? A. Service Catalog C. Service Level Management C. Configuration Management B. Incident Management D. Change Management D.EX0-100 B. Configuration Management Answer: B QUESTION 172: . Service Level Management B. Release Management D. Service Level Agreement D. Incident Management Answer: A QUESTION 170: Which process reports about software failures resulting from software changes? A. Problem Management C. Incident Management C. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 171: What is the most common process that is associated with the Service Desk? A. Problem Management B.

D. Implementation and Testing. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been classified. Configuration Management D. Scheduling. As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory Board. Reporting B. C. Reporting. Completion Answer: C QUESTION 173: The Definitive Software Library (DSL) and the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) are terms used when distributing software and hardware. Computer Installations and Acceptance B. Completion. . Implementation. Recording. As soon as there is a correct network plan for the change. Implementation. Acceptance of Request for Change. Implementation.EX0-100 Problem Management has submitted a Request for Change (RFC) to Change Management. Review. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been formally authorized. Testing. Release Management Answer: D QUESTION 174: When can the building and testing of a Change begin? A. Review. Recording. Which sequential steps should be taken to carry out the change? A. Scheduling. Review C. Completion D. Testing. The request is to replace all desktop hard disks of brand X and type Y. Testing. Answer: C QUESTION 175: One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends. B. Capacity Management C. Building. Which process is responsible for keeping the DSL and the DHS up-to-date? A.

an Information Request C. managing the Known Errors B. Identification of root causes C. tracing problems D. finding the root cause of the problem C. Security Plan B. Proactive Problem Management D. Risk Analysis C.EX0-100 Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this? A. Problem Control Answer: C QUESTION 176: A user has forgotten his password and asks the Service Desk for a new password. a Request for Change (RFC) D. Capacity Plan D. Error Control B. Availability Plan Answer: B QUESTION 178: What is Error Control responsible for in Problem Management? A. a Standard Change Answer: A QUESTION 177: Which document or activity should be completed before a Recovery Plan can be formalized? A. What type of request does this involve? A. implementing a solution for the error Answer: A . a Service Request B.

the time needed to solve problems D.EX0-100 QUESTION 179: Which process is responsible for keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date? A. Problem Management Answer: A QUESTION 181: Which of the following indicators is a performance indicator for the Problem Management process? A. Release Management C. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 180: Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible? A. ITService Continuity Management C. Incident Management B. the time needed to compile a problem report B. the time needed to record problems C. Incident management B. the time needed to implement solutions Answer: C QUESTION 182: In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops. Availability Management D. dozens of requests have been received for expansion of the internal memory becauseits size has proven to be insufficient. Configuration Management D. .

location of a server Answer: C QUESTION 184: Which of the following factors partly determines the priority of an incident? A. the wishes of the customer B. Service Level Manager Answer: C . Capacity Management B. serial number B. the impact Answer: D QUESTION 185: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident resulting from an implemented change? A. the requisite resources C. Problem Management staff C.EX0-100 Which process should have prevented this from happening? A. Configuration Management C. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 183: Which of the following is an example of a Configuration Item (CI)? A. supplier of an Underpinning Contract (UC) C. Change Manager B. Service Desk staff D. the category D. Service Catalog D. Service Level Management D.

the Management Team B. Security Management Answer: D QUESTION 187: What is another name for a deviation from the standard operation of a service? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 186: Which process is specifically responsible for preventing unauthorized access to data systems? A. Incident Answer: D QUESTION 188: What group will the Change Manager convene in case of a complex change in the IT infrastructure? A. the Change Advisory Board Answer: D QUESTION 189: IT Service Continuity Plans (ITSC Plans) are often forgotten and not being kept up-to-date for various reasons. ITService Continuity Management B. Service Level Management C. Problem D. Service Request B. Functional Request C. the Service Management C. Which process could assist IT Service Continuity Management in ensuring this does not happen? . Capacity Management D. the Problem Management D.

the process owner B. Which of the following terms best describes the element being modified? A. Availability Management Answer: C QUESTION 190: In which of the following are the agreements on security between a customer and the IT organization recorded? A. a Configuration Item C. Service Improvement Plan B. a Service Answer: B QUESTION 192: What information is not required to set up a process? A. Financial Management for IT Services C. the objective C. Security Management B. a deployed infrastructure B. a developed application D. Service Level Agreement D.EX0-100 A. the desired results (output) Answer: A . Service Level Requirement C. Change Management D. the trigger (input) D. Underpinning Contract Answer: C QUESTION 191: A Change leads to a modification of an element of IT.

a contract with an internal supplier Answer: C QUESTION 195: For which process is the Modeling activity a powerful instrument to make predictions about the behavior of the infrastructure? A. Capacity Management D. feasible and/or necessary? A. Configuration Management C.EX0-100 QUESTION 193: Which process checks whether Requests for Change (RFCs) regarding the IT infrastructure are logical. Supplier Management C. Capacity Management D. a contract with an external supplier D. Availability Management C. Service Level Management . Financial Management for IT Services B. Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 194: What is an Underpinning Contract? A. Service Level Management B. a contract with an external customer C. Change management B. a contract with an internal customer B. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 196: Which process involves the use of a CAB? A.

Information Security Management D. Check.EX0-100 D. Choose one answer. A. Service V-Model D. information. Integrity and Availability of an Organisation's Assets. Availability Management C. Service Assets and Configuration Management . Plan. Problem Management Answer: QUESTION 197: What is the iterative model called that is associated with the waterfall lifecycle. stipulates the definition of service requirements. Definitive Media Library (DML) D. Configuration Management System (CMS) B. where authorized versions of all media CIs are protected and stored. QUESTION 199: Name the process that is defined under Service Design and that ensures the Confidentiality. Do. data and IT Services. Technical observation point (TOP) Answer: C QUESTION 198: A secure repository. is known as what? A. Assess Management System C. RACI chart B. Knowledge Management System (KMS) Answer: C Explanation: The DML or "Definitive Media Library" Stores all media Configuration Items. Service Portfolio Management B. Act C. followed by service requirements validation and the planning of user acceptance testing? A.

People. Partners C. Profit. Profit.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 200: Information Security Management ensures the Confidentiality. Select the CORRECT statements regarding process control. QUESTION 202: ITIL describes a concept called 4 'P's that facilitates effective Service Management. Integrity and Availability of an Organisation's Assets. Controlled Processes can be repeated B. Products. A. Availability Management B. Performance D. Profit. information. Service Level Management Answer: B Service Portfolio Management is a process defined by Service Strategy. Procedure. Partners. B. Service Catalogue Management D. People. C QUESTION 201: All processes require some level of control. Service Portfolio Management C. Processes. What does each 'P' stand for? A. Select the process that is NOT defined in Service Design: A. Productivity. data and IT Services. Products. Processes should be defined. None of the other statements are true Answer: A. Partners B. Planning Answer: B QUESTION 203: . Select all that apply. controlled and documented D. Only defined processes require control C. People.

Once the root cause has been determined. When a review of the change has led to a satisfactory result. QUESTION 205: . CAB emergency committee (CAB/EC) Answer: B QUESTION 204: The successful diagnosis of a problem results in a Known Error. the problem status changes to known error. Answer: A Explanation: Error Control is the process of monitoring and providing solutions for known errors until they are resolved. 4Urgent Change Authority (UCA) D. When the proposal for change is lodged with Change Management.. A workaround is developed to feed back to Incident Management to handle further incidents that occur before a final solution is implemented. This activity could consist of cross-functional teams to weigh different solutions on various criteria including costs and benefits.Assuming the problem review declares the solution as successful. When can the Known Error be closed? A. Emergency CAB (ECAB) B. the problem is finally closed. On the basis of this Known Error a Request for Change may be raised. When incidents related to the Known Error do not occur any more.A final solution is developed and a Request for Change (RFC) is made via the Change Management Process. C. The known error definition can also be sent to the known error database to be used in the matching process. Urgent Change Board (UCB) C.After the change has been implemented.. D.An assessment is performed on what will be required to resolve the known error. Error Control contains the following activities: Known Error Identification and Recording .EX0-100 A service level agreement is. When the Request for Change is authorized by the Change Advisory Board. Defining Solution . Problem Evaluation and Review . B. (select the most appropriate answer) A. a Post Implementation Review (PIR) is performed to evaluate the success of the solution and associated changes Closure . Solution Investigated .

The first goal of the incident management process is to restore a normal service operation as quickly as possible and to minimize the impact on business operations. drawing up back-out scenarios D. Change Management C. at the request of the person who submitted the Change request C. what should be done? The PIR must be a part of every change process. in business terms and if not. testing back-out arrangements C. executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D . or a reduction in. in case of emergency changes D. QUESTION 207: Which activity is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management? A. if another incident of the same type occurs again after a Change has been made Answer: A Explanation: A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is a formal review of a programme or project. an interruption to. after every Change B. It is used to answer the question: Did we achieve what we set out to do. Incident Management D. analyzing risks B. or may cause. which ITIL process would it be putting in place? A. QUESTION 206: When must a Post Implementation Review take place? A.EX0-100 When an organization decides to control the flow of incident information within the IT organization. the quality of that service. thus ensuring that the best possible levels of service quality and availability are maintained. Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: ITIL terminology defines an incident as: Any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes. Availability Management B.

Do . at least. categorisation.Do .Plan . Check . Do .Do C.EX0-100 Explanation: Business Continuity Management (BCM) is concerned with managing risks to ensure that at all times an organisation can continue operating to.Plan B. movement. Plan . Financial Management for IT services Answer: C Explanation: Configuration Management is the implementation of a database (Configuration Management Database . This is more than just an 'asset register'. a pre-determined minimum level.Act .Check .Act Answer: D Explanation: The Deming's quality circle is also known as Deming's PDCA circle.Check . Configuration Management D. Plan . impact and priority assessment. and monitoring and tracking of incidents. as it will contain information that relates to the maintenance.Act. and problems experienced with the Configuration Items.Act D. Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps? A. Change Management C.Plan .Check .Do . QUESTION 208: Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services? A.CMDB) that contains details of the organisation's elements that are used in the provision and management of its IT services. A structured Incident Management processes includes classification. Capacity Management B. Act . The BCM process involves reducing the risk to an acceptable level and planning for the recovery of business processes should a risk materialize and a disruption to the business occur. QUESTION 209: According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in order to ensure good performance. .Check .

planning D. A process is continuous and has no end date. QUESTION 212: What is the difference between a process and a project? A. .EX0-100 QUESTION 210: The Deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality. the result of the process Answer: D Explanation: The process owner is responsible for the result of the process and has to actively work with improving the structure and flow of the process. setting up the process B. describing the process D. adjustment B. Which step in this model must be taken first? A. measurement C. implementing the process C. implementation Answer: C QUESTION 211: A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal. What is the process owner responsible for? A. whereas a project has a finite lifespan.

C. QUESTION 214: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A.EX0-100 B. D. whereas a process has a finite lifespan. officials D. and ITIL focuses on best practice (process) that can be utilized in different ways according to need.Be more competitive . In a project the focus is not on the result. that the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services B. that the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently C. departments B. the organization can begin to: . that the organization around the IT services can be set up faster D. QUESTION 213: What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management? A. Operational processes are those that continue ad infinitum and are typically sustaining in nature. A project is continuous and has no end date.Decrease rework . but that's another story). whereas with a process the result is important.Improve resource utilization .A process is a set of interrelated activities and/or subprocesses and/or (sub)stages with a common goal. that it is finally possible to charge for IT services Answer: B Explanation: By improving the processes around IT. A process stops when the objective has been achieved. whereas a project does not stop when the objective is met. IT resources C. interrelated activities Answer: D Explanation: The definition of a process . Answer: A Explanation: Projects are objective-based and have clear start and end points (although I've been on some projects that never seemed to end.

Eliminate redundant work .EX0-100 .Improve upon project deliverables and time . but also their IT resources. In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role? . analysis and diagnosis B. reliability and security of mission critical IT-services .not just the people.Document and communicate roles and responsibilities in service provision . the purchasing department has relocated internally .Improve availability. solving and restoring Answer: B QUESTION 216: In an organization.Provide demonstrable performance indicators QUESTION 215: Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident? A. customer and user demands .Learn from previous experience . classification C. matching D.Integrate central processes .Justify the cost of service quality .Provide services that meet business. A Service Desk employee has been commissioned to relocate this department's workstations.

g. What information is this? A. Change Management B. assessed. but is not limited to: 1. IT services (SLAs) 3. on the basis of which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs) B. organizational structure and procedures). RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management Answer: B Explanation: As shown in the figure there is a Request For Change that is sent to . QUESTION 217: Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. The scope of Change Management may include. components of the IT infrastructure (e. Incident Management C. software and documentation) 2. Configuration Management Answer: A Explanation: Change Management provides a way of managing and controlling the way changes are initiated. RFCs resulting from Known Errors C. Problem Management D.g. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management D. hardware. scheduled and implemented. planned for. IT service organizations (e.EX0-100 A. Known Errors from Problem Management.

for example using an emergency power provision. . Incident Management Answer: A Explanation: Availability Management is concerned with design. Capacity management C. Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure? A. Availability Management requires an understanding of the reasons why IT service failures occur and the time taken to resume service. Change Management D.EX0-100 the Change Management process once a solution is defined for a Known Error. Incident Management and Problem Management provide a key input to ensure the appropriate corrective actions are being progressed. measurement and management of IT services to ensure the stated business requirements for availability are consistently met. QUESTION 218: In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken. implementation. Availability Management B.

The Service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available. if there is a direct solution or will create an incident.Making an initial assessment of requests. Customer Relationship Management C.Recording and tracking incidents and complaints . Incident Management D. The Service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer. The Service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned.EX0-100 QUESTION 219: Which statement best describes the role of the Service Desk? A. Service Desk Answer: D Explanation: The common Service Desk functions include: . The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems. D.Keeping customers informed on request status and progress . Answer: A Explanation: The service desk is the single contact point for the customers to record their problems. B. attempting to resolve them or refer them to someone who can . C.Receiving calls. first-line customer liaison .Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers .Identifying problems . QUESTION 220: Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include distributing information to users? A. It will try to resolve it. Change Management B.Coordinating second-line and third line support QUESTION 221: Which activity is not a Service Desk activity? .Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs .

Problem. QUESTION 222: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident? A. Service Level Manager Answer: C Explanation: The common Service Desk functions include: . Problem Manager B. first-line customer liaison . The Service desk is the point of contact to the problem solvers and change managers but they do not perform these tasks themselves. It handles incidents and service requests. attempting to resolve them or refer them to someone who can . applying temporary fixes Answer: B Explanation: The IT Infrastructure Library approach to a Service Desk acts as the central point of contact between service providers and users/customers. relating an incident to a Known Error D.Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers . Service Desk D.Keeping customers informed on request status and progress . on a day-to-day basis. solving a Problem C. Which of the following is an incident? .Receiving calls. Configuration. registering Incidents B. for other Service Management activities such as Change. with users.Coordinating second-line and third line support QUESTION 223: The Service Desk receives different types of calls.Making an initial assessment of requests. Release. as well as providing an interface.Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs . Problem Management staff C.Recording and tracking incidents and complaints .EX0-100 A.Identifying problems . It is also a focal point for reporting Incidents and for users making service requests. Service Level and IT Service Continuity Management.

Change Management B. employing more Problem Managers Answer: A Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems. through to strategic decisions. QUESTION 225: One of Problem Management's tasks is to proactively prevent incidents. The main . a notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer C. it has been observed that the Service Request process followed by the service desk is in fact a process. making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements D. or may cause. should problems occur C. Problem Management D. Which of the following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as being proactive? A. Service Desk Answer: D Comment: While ITIL suggests that the Service Desk is a function and not a process. QUESTION 224: Which of the following is a department rather than a process? A. such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system. or a reduction in. analyzing reported incidents in order to make recommendations B. a request to install a new bookkeeping package Answer: C Explanation: An incident is defined as: Any event which is not a part of the standard operation of a system that causes. a system message that a printer is not working D.EX0-100 A. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. Incident Management C. information about the rollout of a specific application B. the quality of service. Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. delivering second-line support. an interruption to.

QUESTION 226: One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimize the impact of problems on IT services. Which activity needs to be carried out by Problem Management in order to achieve this? A. Known Error C. Request for Change (RFC) Answer: B Explanation: Once the root cause for a problem is identified the problem is transferred into the Error Control part of the Problem Management process and the problem is classified as a Known Error (possibly with a work-around). QUESTION 227: Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified? A. Problem Analysis . Work-around D. or Error Control. ensuring the availability of the IT infrastructure B. Incident B. is a vital part of the Problem Management process. QUESTION 228: Which activity in the Problem Management process is responsible for generating Requests for Change (RFCs)? A. managing Known Errors Answer: D Explanation: Managing Known Errors.EX0-100 activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action. maintaining relations with suppliers D. giving second-line support when problems occur C. this part of the Problem Management process is used once the root cause for a problem is identified. Without the Error Control there would never be any solutions and closure of problems.

Proactive Problem Management Answer: B Explanation: Once a problem is classified as a Known Error it is transferred from Problem Control to Error Control. One that works with problems with an unknown cause and . once a solution is produced a RFC is sent to Change Management prior to deploying the solution. Problem Management D. QUESTION 229: When the cause of one or more incidents is not known. additional resources are assigned to identify the cause.EX0-100 B. Incident Management C. Monitoring D. Service Level Management Answer: C Explanation: Refer to the Problem Management process which shows you how it is divided into two parts. Which ITIL process is responsible for this? A. Within the Error Control activity the work with defining a solution to the Known Error starts. Capacity Management B. Error Control C.

Availability Management C.EX0-100 one that works with known errors (problem with a known cause) QUESTION 230: Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors? A. IT Service Continuity Management B. Security Management D. Problem Management Answer: D .

QUESTION 231: When is a Known Error identified? A. QUESTION 232: Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management? A. The main activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action. When the cause of the problem is known. When the problem has been resolved. D. through to strategic decisions. C. Remember. When the problem is known. Answer: A Explanation: Once the cause is known for a problem the problem is classified as a known error and a work-around may be provided until a solution is produced and deployed. managing Known Errors Answer: C Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems.EX0-100 Explanation: Once a solution is defined for a known error in the Problem Management process a change proposal. analyzing trends D. B. making a change to resolve a problem B. is sent to the Change Management. or Request for Change (RFC). Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. Once the change is committed the Problem Management process continues with a Post Implementation Review (PIR) and if the changes made solved the problem then the process continues to the Problem Closure stage. QUESTION 233: . Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. Problem Management produces solutions and Change Management deploys the solutions throughout the organization. registering frequently occurring errors C. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management. such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system.

a change request Answer: B Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems. through to strategic decisions. a report regarding the Problem Management process B. a trend analysis C." Therefore Problem Management should be responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors. Incident Management C. an urgent change D. Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system. QUESTION 235: How does Problem Management contribute to a higher solution percentage of first-line support? A. QUESTION 234: Which of the following is an example of proactive Problem Management? A. Security Management Answer: C Explanation: In ITIL. The main activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action. Problem Management D.EX0-100 Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors? A. by preventing incidents D. Capacity Management B. a "Problem" is defined as: "An unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents. by analyzing open incidents B. by evaluating incidents with the customer C. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. by making a knowledge database available .

" If you have a series of incidents with the same characteristics they probably have the same underlying cause and in order to solve these incidents before they appear in the future you should send this to the Problem Management process in order to solve the cause of the problem. Information to users is provided through the service desk. a Change Request B. a Known Error C. correcting Known Errors D. checking problems and incidents B. providing information to the users Answer: C Explanation: Error control is all about finding the solution to a known error. QUESTION 236: What is the primary task of Error Control? A. and classifying and defining the priorities is in the Problem Control part of Problem Management.EX0-100 Answer: D Explanation: By capturing all knowledge from solving problems into a knowledge database. a Problem D. QUESTION 237: What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same characteristics? A. a "Problem" is defined as: "An unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents. a Service Call Answer: C Explanation: In ITIL. Checking problems and incidents. QUESTION 238: . and making them available to the service desk you empower tier one support to perform more diagnostic and repair tasks and freeing up tier three support for proactive management. classifying and defining the priorities of problems C.

How much delay can be tolerated in fixing the issue? How quickly it should be resolved 3. Classification B. a call from the CEO 4. Which term is applicable to this situation? A. Urgency .EX0-100 What is meant by the urgency of an incident? A.ie. Request for Change Answer: B Explanation: The reason for the call is the slow system which is an incident with an unknown underlying cause. a question about where the manual is C. the degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service level C. the relative importance of the incidents when handling them Answer: A Explanation: Impact and the Urgency of the Incident together decide the Priority.com calls the Service Desk and reports that the system is slow. Which of the following reports is an incident? A. Severity comes from the events that are identified by the monitoring tools.Severity of the Incident. the degree to which the solution of an incident tolerates delay B. This is the measure of the impact to the business 2. Severity can be mapped directly to the "Impact to the Business. Problem D. Disruption of service to the customer QUESTION 239: Certkiller . the time needed by IT Services to resolve the incident D. Potential cost of non-resolution 6. Incident C. information about the departure time of the train to London B. a report that the printer is not working . He asks whether he can be given another PC like his colleague's. Resources required to fix the issue 5. QUESTION 240: Reports of different types arrive at a Service Desk." What factors influence the Priority? 1. Customer Importance . which is much faster. Impact .

so that the user is hindered as little as possible. QUESTION 242: What is the first step when registering an incident? A. and permanent fixes.The objective of Change Management is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes to controlled IT infrastructure. perform matching D. A. temporary fixes. or a reduction in. Change Management C. Incident Management D.EX0-100 D. QUESTION 241: Which ITIL process has the following objective? Correcting malfunctions in the services as quickly as possible by minimizing the consequences of the malfunctions. or may cause. an interruption to. a request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package Answer: C Explanation: ITIL terminology defines an incident as: Any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes. determine the priority Answer: B . services and supporting organizations to deliver a cost-effective and sustained level of availability that enables the business to satisfy its business objectives. Therefore. in order to minimize the number and impact of any related Incidents upon service. Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: The objective of Incident Management is to restore service as quickly as possible. an incident is active until service is verified as restored. record the incident data B. assign an incident number C. gathering information on known errors and by providing workarounds.The objective of Problem Management is to minimize the economic impact of service disruption by diagnosing the root causes of incidents. the quality of that service. Availability Management B. Availability management focuses on optimizing the capability of the IT infrastructure.

EX0-100 Explanation: An incident number (or ticket) is assigned and given to the user who reports the incident so that he can return to check status on "his" incident. This ticket will also help tracing the incident through the various processes. purchaser of the services B. Change Management B. Problem Management D. Security Management Answer: B QUESTION 244: Which of the following parties involved in an incident determines whether that incident can be closed? A. user C. QUESTION 243: Which ITIL process has the task of classifying incoming interruption reports? A. employee of the Service Desk . Incident Management C.

the time for which a component can be expected to perform under specific conditions without failure. QUESTION 246: Of which ITIL process are Reliability. Recoverability . this is the expected availability of a component. Functional Escalation is sometimes called Referral. then and only then. Serviceability and Maintainability components? A.Passing information and/or requesting action on an Incident. Problem or Change to more senior staff (hierarchical escalation) or other specialists (functional escalation). Service Level Management C.the time it should take to restore a component back to its operational . IT Service Continuity Management B.Where a service is provided by a 3rd party organization. can the incident be closed. functional escalation C. resolution and recovery of the incident D. Problem Management D. Service Manager Answer: B Explanation: If the user is satisfied with the solution to an incident. and includes the following elements: Serviceability . problem analysis Answer: B Explanation: Escalation . incident classification B. QUESTION 245: What is the use of additional technical expertise in the Incident Management process called? A. Reliability . Availability Management Answer: D Explanation: Availability is usually calculated on a model involving the Availability Ratio and techniques such as Fault Tree Analysis.EX0-100 D.

EX0-100 state after a failure. the degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied with Answer: C Explanation: Serviceability . average time between two consecutive incidents D. QUESTION 249: Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an . the degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered B.Where a service is provided by a 3rd party organization. average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period Answer: B Explanation: While MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) measures the time between failures. Security . this is the expected availability of a component. Maintainability . QUESTION 248: What does Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) mean? A. MTTR includes problem diagnosis and problem repair. the degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer C. average uptime of a service B. MTTR measures the time between the service interruption and service restoration.the ease with which a component can be maintained. average downtime of a service C. MTTR is dominated by problem diagnosis. which can e both remedial and preventative. QUESTION 247: What is the meaning of the term Serviceability? A.the ability of components to withstand breaches of security.the ability to withstand failure. the degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts D. When changes are uncontrolled and unmanaged. Resilience .

and ensuring that IT is used in the most efficient manner. Service Level Manager Answer: A Explanation: Availability Management is the practice of identifying levels of IT Service availability for use in Service Level Reviews with Customers. Resource forecasting 5. Problem Manager D. Incident Manager C. checking how an application has grown C. Demand forecasting 6. Application Sizing ITIL 4. Application Sizing involves input from many areas of the business to identify what services are (or will be) required. QUESTION 250: The Application Sizing activity is part of Capacity Management. These are inputs into the following Capacity Management processes: 1. keeping the capacity used by the applications up-to-date D. What is Application Sizing? A. Modeling QUESTION 251: The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can .EX0-100 interruption of a Configuration Item? A. and what the cost of this infrastructure will be. what IT infrastructure is required to support these services. Availability Manager B. Performance monitoring 2. Workload monitoring 3. All areas of a service must be measurable and defined within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) and therefore any planed configurations must be reported to the Availability Manager so that he can check the interruption against SLA's in use. determining the hardware capacity required to support new (or adapted) applications Answer: D Explanation: Capacity Management is the discipline that ensures IT infrastructure is provided at the right time in the right volume at the right price. what level of Contingency will be needed. measuring the load that an application places on the hardware B.

Demand Management Answer: D Explanation: Through Demand Management the Capacity Manager can (by understand the demands being made currently. Security B. and how they will change over time) influence on demand for resources QUESTION 252: For what is Capacity Management responsible? A. Serviceability Answer: B Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner.EX0-100 be performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day. Resource Management C. Change Management D. Configuration Management Answer: B Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner. Availability Management B. QUESTION 253: Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application? A. . Application Sizing B. Modeling C. Capacity Management C. Application Management D. What part of the Capacity Management process does this refer to? A. Maintainability D.

EX0-100 QUESTION 254: An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information database. QUESTION 256: In Change Management. building and testing the change . to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. Problem Management Answer: D Explanation: As this is a reoccurring incident it will be classed as a problem and the Problem Manager has to find the underlying cause of the network disruptions. Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time.m. Capacity Management C. and 6 p. Change Management D. Availability Management B. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased. scheduling the Request for Change B. Which ITIL process is responsible for solving these difficulties on a structural basis? A. Which activity is performed after acceptance of a Request for Change? A. to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient? A. Security Management Answer: B Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner. Availability Management B. a number of activities take place between the acceptance of a Request for Change and the completion of the change. QUESTION 255: The cash registers in a supermarket experience network disruptions daily between 4 p. Incident Management D. Capacity Management C.m.

in the Change database Answer: A Explanation: As shown in the exhibit below. once a change is accepted it is sent to the Release Manager AND the Configuration Manager to be stored in the CMDB as . in the Known Error database C. determining the urgency of the change D. in the Definitive Software Library (DSL) D. in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B. implementing the change Answer: C QUESTION 257: Where are the statuses of changes recorded? A.EX0-100 C.

but they do not configure the hardware themselves. Configuration Management D. Service Level Management Answer: B Explanation: The case was registered as an incident with an obvious solution. the PC will be replaced within three hours. Change Management C. QUESTION 258: A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced within three hours? A. Configuration Management handles the CMDB and tells people how the hardware should be configured. but they do not actually replace the hardware.EX0-100 the change is something that should always be implemented in the future. Availability Management B. The solution is to exchange the hardware used by the user and therefore the incident process will hand over the case to the change process. Availability Management plans for short interruptions in everyday work but do not act to solve an interruption once there is one. Service Level Management states how fast the users computer should be replaced. A Service Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue. QUESTION 259: .

the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is discussed. the Change Manager B. the Problem Manager D. All changes must be approved by the change management process. an unplanned change Answer: C . a standard change C. Successful Change Management results in fewer incidents being generated before the process was implemented. a fast change B.Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. the Service Level Manager C. the Change Manager B. thereby limiting incidents related to change and improving day-to-day operations. Before the actual implementation takes place. the Network Manager Answer: A Explanation: The goal of Change Management is to manage the process of change through standardized methods and procedures. the Service Manager D. the customer C. an urgent change D. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. QUESTION 260: An organization plans on implementing a new network operating system. the Service Desk Answer: A Explanation: Classification . Under whose leadership is this discussion held? A. QUESTION 261: How is a change that must be made quickly called? A.EX0-100 Who decides the category of a change? A. Only the Change Manager can determine the category of a specific change.

Urgent Changes should be reserved for special circumstances. QUESTION 264: .A large number of urgent changes is a clear indicator that the Change Management process is not working properly. What is the responsibility of the Change Management process here? A.EX0-100 Explanation: Urgent Changes . significant. substantial. Answer: B Explanation: A Change Manager should manage and coordinate all change processes. D. QUESTION 262: Changes are divided into categories. Urgent changes should not be initiated because of incompetence. What criterion defines a category for a change? A. etc. the consequences of the change such as limited. such as the change builder forgot to work on a previously requested change. the sequence in which the change is made D. the speed with which the change is made C. QUESTION 263: When implementing a new version of an application both Change Management and Release Management are involved. Change Management must check whether the new application functions properly. Change Management plays a coordinating role in this phase. Change Management draws up the change request for this. even if it is the Release Manager who releases (executes) the change. such as when the only way to get a customer back up during an Incident is to remove the root cause by performing a change. B. B.Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. C. Change Management has the executive task in this phase. the Request for Change number that the change is assigned Answer: A Explanation: Classification . or is being by-passed by some support groups.

QUESTION 266: Which ITIL process is responsible for handling an application for a new workstation according to a standard working method? A. Change Manager D. and consequently to improve the day-to-day operations of the organisation. Request for Release D. Service Request Answer: B Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes and replacements. which role is ultimately responsible for the entire process? A. Request for Change C. Change Coordinator C. Change Advisory Board B.EX0-100 What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? A. IT Manager Answer: C Explanation: The change manager is responsible for systematically implementing any changes. Change Management C. Incident Management B. QUESTION 265: In the Change Management process. after careful consideration of known risks. The change manager also oversees the progress of the change process. Replacement Request B. in order to minimize the impact of Change-related Incidents upon service quality. The change manager evaluates Requests for Change (RfCs) in consultation with a Change Advisory Board (CAB). Service Desk D. Service Level Management Answer: B .

Urgent Change Answer: C Explanation: The ITIL describes a Standard Change as ". PSA ." QUESTION 269: Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT . Therefore they are also responsible for the change of the software on the workstation.. Standard Change D. the CMDB (Configuration Management Database) B. SIP (Service Improvement Program) Answer: B Explanation: FSC The Forward Schedule of changes (FSC) contains details of all approved changes and their proposed implementation date.EX0-100 Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes.The Projected Service Availability (PSA) contains details of changes to agreed SLAs and service availability because of the current FSC. QUESTION 268: What is the term used for a fully described and approved Change that does not have to be evaluated by Change Management each time? A.. the CAB (Change Advisory Board) D. Request for Change B. Service Request C. is relatively common. QUESTION 267: Where is the planning of changes kept up to date? A.a change to the infrastructure that follows an established path. the FSC (Forward Schedule of Changes) C. and is the accepted solution to a specific requirement or set of requirements.

Incident Management D. QUESTION 271: A power failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure. has exceeded. .EX0-100 infrastructure? A. Fortunately. Change Management C. as the IT service can no longer be used. Availability Management B. reports from Service Level Management B. in order to minimize the impact of Change-related Incidents upon service quality. When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the ITSC Plan? A. ongoing or concluded Changes D. there is an ITSC Plan available. When the Incident Manager thinks this is necessary. Problem Management Answer: B Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes and replacements. the registration of Changes C. QUESTION 270: Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of the Change Advisory Board (CAB)? A. This board is likely to be made up of representatives from all areas within IT and representatives from business units as well as any external parties that are deemed necessary. D. B. C. When the time within which the failure should be solved. When the Continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum period of time mentioned in the Service Level Agreement. Immediately. the wishes of customers to implement Changes Answer: C Explanation: The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is a group of people who can give expert advice to the Change Management team on the implementation of Changes. and consequently to improve the day-to-day operations of the organisation.

Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: IT service Continuity Management is concerned with managing an organization's ability to continue to provide a pre-determined and agreed level of IT Services to support the minimum business requirements following an interruption to the business. Capacity Management C.reducing the risk of a disaster in the first instance. . QUESTION 272: Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures? A. Availability Management B. IT Service Continuity Management C. but also about proactive measures . Service Desk D. Effective IT Service Continuity requires a balance of risk reduction measures such as resilient systems and recovery options including back-up facilities. Capacity Management B. IT Service Continuity Management D.EX0-100 Answer: B Explanation: The IT Service Continuity plan should be executed as soon as it is expected that normal functionality will not be up within the time stated in SLA's to minimize damages. QUESTION 273: Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which supplementary emergency measures must be taken? A. Problem Management Answer: B Explanation: Continuity management is the process by which plans are put in place and managed to ensure that IT Services can recover and continue should a serious incident occur. Configuration Management data is required to facilitate this prevention and planning. It is not just about reactive measures.

the quality.EX0-100 QUESTION 274: Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure? A. Capacity Management Answer: B Explanation: Continuity management is the process by which plans are put in place and managed to ensure that IT Services can recover and continue should a serious incident occur. It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA. the technological developments that can affect the services offered . Configuration Management B. It can be used instead of an SLA.reducing the risk of a disaster in the first instance. Problem Management D. QUESTION 275: Which of the following statements about the Service Catalogue is correct? A. Actual components required in a Service Catalogue will differ depending on the business situation. expressed in quantity and costs. It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement (SLA). Answer: B Explanation: Service Catalogue lists all of the services that IT provides to the business. This catalogue should list the services from a users perspective. It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization. D. C. It is not just about reactive measures. the costs and expected revenue of the services offered B. QUESTION 276: Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. IT Service Continuity Management C. but also about proactive measures . B. of the services offered C. the company strategy D.

by defining service levels D.EX0-100 Answer: B Explanation: Service Level Agreements (SLAs) . the average utilization level of the Service Desk B. you still only report the violations. the level of availability realised and the time not available per period C. not the cause of the violation.agreements between the customer and the Service Desk on the level of service provision delivered to the customer QUESTION 277: What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer? A. the percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target D. QUESTION 279: Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra . by reporting on all incidents Answer: B Explanation: The customer satisfaction level is the only way to determine if the Service Level Management process is working and delivering service according to the SLA. QUESTION 278: How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process? A. the successful and reverted Changes during a specific period Answer: A Explanation: The average utilization level of the Service Desk is not of interest to the customer as long as the SLA is not violated and even if a too high average utilization of the service desk could cause violations against the SLA. by measuring customer satisfaction C. by checking contracts with suppliers B.

Service Quality Plan (SQP) Answer: B Explanation: . QUESTION 280: Users have complained about the e-mail service. Availability Management B. compilation of Service Level Reports D. It also assists the Service Desk with managing external supplier relationships. adjusting of the service B. Service Catalogue B. Service Level Management can be used as a basis for charging for services. defining Service Levels Answer: A QUESTION 281: Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. and introduces the possibility of negotiating improved services and/or reduced costs. Service Improvement Program (SIP) C. Service Level Management Answer: D Explanation: Implementing the Service Level Management process enables both the customer and the IT services provider to have a clear understanding of the expected level of delivered services and their associated costs for the organization. Incident Management D.EX0-100 support of the Service Desk? A. An evaluation of the service has been performed. Which activity takes place after the evaluation of a service? A. Financial Management for IT Services C. and can demonstrate to customers the value they are receiving from the Service Desk. monitoring of Service Levels C. by documenting these goals into formal agreements. Service Level Agreement (SLA) D.

high quality support services.Cost justified IT infrastructure and IT services . consistent and self-improving . guarding negotiations with the customer C.Detailed information on the performance of Information Services against Service Level targets .Improved levels of service quality and agility in response to business requirements for change . guarding agreements with the customer D.Increased productivity of business and Information Services staff . . Availability Management B. QUESTION 283: Which ITIL process verifies that the modifications which have been made to the IT infrastructure have been properly documented? A. it will provide . QUESTION 282: In the Service Level Management Process.EX0-100 When the SIP is implemented. what happens during the activity called "monitoring"? A. Problem Management D.Integrated centralised processes that are repeatable. Incident Management Answer: B Explanation: Configuration Management assists Change Management by recording which Configuration Item have been changed and controlling the status of Configuration Item throughout the entire Configuration Item lifecycle. Configuration Management C. acquiring customers Answer: C Explanation: During the "monitoring" activity the Service Level Manager verifies that the service delivered is according to the SLA agreed on. customer and user demands . identifying the needs of customers B.Services that meet business. Configuration Management ensures any changes made to Configuration Item s are recorded and kept accurate.Enhanced customer satisfaction .Consistent.

budget predictability. retirement and disposal. so there are no differences between them.com company a specific component of the IT infrastructure has been modified. software licenses. warranties. Activities include identifying. This CI information is to be stored in a single repository the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). Change Management D.EX0-100 QUESTION 284: Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) includes both Asset Management and Configuration Management. vendors. Answer: B Explanation: IT Asset Management is the discipline of managing finances. What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management? A. Configuration Management Answer: D . procurement. B. Traditional ITAM activities include the management of inventory. maintaining. contracts and usage of IT assets throughout their lifecycles for the purpose of maintaining an optimal balance between business service requirements. total costs. and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs). Asset Management focuses exclusively on the book value and Configuration Management on the status of Configuration Items. C. Asset Management monitors aspects such as depreciation and Configuration Management monitors aspects such as the relationships between the Configuration Items. This could have consequences for other components. Availability Management B. leases. Capacity Management C. controlling. D. and contractual and regulatory compliance. cost accounting. Configuration Management is a component of Asset Management. QUESTION 285: In the Certkiller . Configuration Management makes an inventory of the Configuration Items and Asset Management registers them. What ITIL process should be set up in order to provide good insight into these consequences? A. The goal of Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them.

Problem Management D. the quantity of stored Configuration Items D. maintaining. QUESTION 287: Which ITIL process includes the activity of describing and registering all components in the IT infrastructure? A. Capacity Management B. QUESTION 286: What does the term 'detail level' mean in the context of the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. the location of the Configuration Item Answer: B Explanation: CIs should be recorded at a level of detail justified by the business need. Configuration Management C.EX0-100 Explanation: Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. maintaining. and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs). Service Level Management Answer: B Explanation: Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. This gives the depth of the database. the most important infrastructure (such as a network) to which all kinds of . and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs). Activities include identifying. the depth of the database structure C. the relationship between the different Configuration Items B. controlling. Activities include identifying. QUESTION 288: What is a baseline in the IT infrastructure? A. controlling.

for example. creating a solution to a problem or testing a new software in a Change process. status monitoring D. for a new Configuration item (CI). repairs to the Configuration Item . identification of all IT components and their inclusion in the CMDB.this task is the recording of the status of all Configuration Items in the CMDB. QUESTION 289: For which of the following activities of Configuration Management are audits regularly implemented? A. identification B. is recorded in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. Status .com service ('must at least satisfy.. verification Answer: D Explanation: Configuration Management essentially consists of 4 tasks: Identification .this is the management of each Configuration Item.EX0-100 workstations and services can be linked B.this is the specification.this task involves reviews and audits to ensure the information contained in the CMDB is accurate.. and the maintenance of this information. the Request for Change number for the Configuration Item D. Verification . Control . a document that states how the infrastructure must be dealt with in an organization (vision) C. the impact of the Configuration Item B. a minimum value for Certkiller . QUESTION 290: Which data.') D. specifying who is authorised to 'change' it. planning C. a standard configuration (such as a standard workstation) Answer: D Explanation: A baseline is a standard configuration recorded in the CMDB that you use as a starting point when. the relationship to other Configuration Items C.

establishing the correct links in the Local Area Network B. This range of information includes: . Impact. Which Configuration Items does a specific service consist of? Answer: B Explanation: The CMDB holds a much wider range of information about items that the organisation's IT Services are dependant upon. installing software C. "where" it is and how it is connected to other CI's. QUESTION 292: Which of the following questions can not be answered directly from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. What incidents or problems have there been for this PC? D. Which members of staff of department X have moved to department Y? C.Hardware . Only "what" it is.Software . RFC's and repairs should not be recorded here. Which Requests for Change have been submitted for a specific server? B. For which of the following activities was Configuration Management responsible? A.Documentation . QUESTION 291: A number of new PCs have been installed at a company's offices. making available the necessary user's manuals D. recording data regarding the PCs Answer: D Explanation: The CMDB that contains details of the organization's elements (such as workstations) that are used in the provision and management of its IT services.EX0-100 Answer: B Explanation: The CMDB that contains details of the organization's elements that are used in the provision and management of its IT services.Personnel .

Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC). impact B. This includes ensuring that there is a business reason behind each change. According to ITIL best practices. C.EX0-100 QUESTION 293: What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a Request for Change? A. identifying the specific Configuration Items and IT Services affected by the change. Answer: B Explanation: Change Management is the practice of ensuring all changes to Configuration Items are carried out in a planned and authorised manner. QUESTION 295: Release Management has distributed a defective Release. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. testing the change. urgency Answer: A Explanation: Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. and having a back-out plan should the change result in an unexpected state of the Configuration Item during the implementation. B. . content C. monthly invoicing has come to a standstill. what should happen next? A. B. When it is found that something went wrong when testing a Change. When it is found that something went wrong when scheduling resources. Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR). As a result. When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a Change. QUESTION 294: When is a back-out plan invoked? A. This has very radical consequences for the business and has been reported as an incident. When it is found that something went wrong when building a Change. D. planning the change. priority D.

EX0-100 C. authorization for relative RFCs.A document. is developed by the Release Manager and defines how and when releases are configured. and more. D. Prior to planning a release. testing a release C. defining roles and responsibilities. such as product life cycle. constructing back-out and quality plans. communicating and preparing the release Answer: C Explanation: Policy and Planning . description of relevant IT service and service levels. information must be gathered about various aspects of the release. QUESTION 296: What is the first activity when implementing a release? A. QUESTION 297: The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number . designing and building a release B. etc. in case the change should result in an unexpected state of the Configuration item. drawing up a communication plan. Answer: C Explanation: Every Change should have a back-out plan prior to implementation. scheduling. Service Level Management will start a Service Improvement Program (SIP). Planning the release involves coordination. called the Release Policy. Release Management will implement the back-out plan. compiling the release schedule D.

Incident Management C.Involves the distribution of software and supporting hardware identified and approved in the previous activities.Standard and reusable procedures and documentation should be used for designing. Planning the release involves coordination. Building and Configuration .Lack of testing is the most common cause for unsuccessful changes and releases. the release can be rolled out and the relevant configuration changes can be integrated within the CMDB (see Configuration Management). Training sessions may be required to aid users with the release. In either case.Includes a detailed timetable of release events including staff responsibilities and action items. description of relevant IT service and service levels. laboratory-based development testing along with appropriate operational documentation should be prerequisites before a release is considered available for implementation. information must be gathered about various aspects of the release. Releases should undergo functional. drawing up a communication plan. typically the Service Desk or Customer Relations. defining roles and responsibilities. is developed by the Release Manager and defines how and when releases are configured.EX0-100 of errors. QUESTION 298: Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Software Library? . such as product life cycle. and purchasing plans for required hardware and software. operational. Design. called the Release Policy. etc. Prior to planning a release. Once approved. authorization for relative RFCs. performance and integration testing by the appropriate personnel.Personnel. Configuration Management B. scheduling. Configuration items within the release may come from internal or external bodies. Testing should include back-out plans. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested? A. Acceptance should be performed for each step of the release process and be submitted to Change Management for approval. communicate the planned changes to users and the expected service impact.A document. building and configuring releases. and more. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Distribution and Installation . Rollout Planning . Testing and Acceptance . constructing back-out and quality plans. Release Management Answer: D Explanation: The steps involved in the Release Management process is: Policy and Planning . Communication . Problem Management D. documentation.

Capacity Management C. Application Management B. All spare hardware components and assemblies are stored within the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS). QUESTION 300: Which ITIL process is responsible for annually allocating the costs of Underpinning Contracts? A. Financial Management for IT Services D. What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the DSL? A. authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure D. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. copies of all live software programs C. Release Management Answer: D Explanation: Only authorized software should be accepted into the DSL. Service Level Management Answer: C Explanation: IT Financial Management is the discipline of ensuring IT infrastructure is obtained at the most effective price (which does not necessarily . software awaiting user acceptance testing Answer: C Explanation: Release Management works with Configuration Management to ensure that the CMDB is kept up to date and that all new software releases are stored in the Definitive Software Library (DSL).EX0-100 A. Configuration Management D. copies of all software versions that are needed B. strictly controlled by Change and Release Management. QUESTION 299: Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definitive Software Library (DSL).

EX0-100 mean cheapest), and calculating the cost of providing IT services so that an organisation can understand the costs of its IT services. QUESTION 301:

Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation system? A. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. Financial Management for IT Services D. Service Level Management Answer: C Explanation: IT Financial Management is the discipline of ensuring IT infrastructure is obtained at the most effective price (which does not necessarily mean cheapest), and calculating the cost of providing IT services so that an organisation can understand the costs of its IT services. QUESTION 302:

Which activity in the ITIL process "Financial Management for IT Services" is responsible for billing the services that were provided to the customer? A. Accounting B. Budgeting C. Charging D. Reporting Answer: C Explanation: Charging provides the ability to assign costs of an IT Service proportionally and fairly to the users of that service. It may be used as a first step towards an IT organization operating as an autonomous business. It may also be used to encourage user to move in a strategically important direction - for example by subsidizing newer systems and imposing additional charges for the use of legacy systems. QUESTION 303:

Which ITIL process provides an insight, through the Modeling activity, into trends that could cause performance problems in the future?

EX0-100 A. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. Incident Management D. Service Level Management Answer: B Explanation: Capacity Management supports the optimum and cost effective provision of IT services by helping organizations match their IT resources to the business demands. The high level activities are: Application Sizing, Workload Management, Demand Management, Modeling, Capacity Planning, Resource Management, and Performance Management. QUESTION 304:

Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data? A. Availability Management B. IT Service Continuity Management C. Release Management D. Security Management Answer: D Explanation: A basic concept of the Security Management is the information security. The primary goal of information security is to guarantee safety of the information. Safety is to be protected against risks. Security is the means to be safe against risks. When protecting information it is the value of the information that has to be protected. These values are stipulated by the confidentiality, integrity and availability. QUESTION 305:

Where are agreements regarding Security Management recorded? A. in a Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B. in a Service Level Agreement (SLA) C. in a Definitive Software Library (DSL) D. in a Capacity Plan Answer: B Explanation: The goal of the Security Management is split up in two parts: 1. The realization of the security requirements defined in the Service Level Agreement

EX0-100 (SLA) and other external requirements which are specified in underpinning contracts, legislation and possible internal or external imposed policies. 2. The realization of a basic level of security. This is necessary to guarantee the continuity of the management organization. This is also necessary in order to reach a simplified Service Level Management for the information security, as it happens to be easier to manage a limited number of SLAs as it is to manage a large number of SLAs. QUESTION 306:

Which ITIL process handles the implementation of the policy for access management and access to information systems? A. Availability Management B. Incident Management C. Release Management D. Security Management Answer: D Explanation: The first activity in the Security Management Process is the "Control" sub-process. The Control sub-process organizes and manages the security Management process itself. The Control sub-process defines the processes, the allocation of responsibility the policy statements and the management framework.

QUESTION 307:

Which ITIL process ensures that the information that has been made available satisfies the specified information security requirements? A. Availability Management B. IT Service Continuity Management C. Security Management D. Service Level Management

Control Answer: C Explanation: The Plan sub-process contains activities that in cooperation with the Service Level Management lead to the (information) Security section in the SLA. Which activity of Security Management leads to a security sub-clause in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. the correctness of the data C. QUESTION 308: Which of the following describes the basic concept of Integrity in the Security Management process? A. protection of the data against unauthorized access and use D. Capacity Management . the Plan sub-process contains activities that are related to the underpinning contracts which are specific for (information) security. Furthermore. the capacity to verify the correctness of the data B. access to the data at any moment Answer: B Explanation: Integrity. Plan D. QUESTION 310: Which process should have prevented this from happening? A. Implement B.Safeguarding the accuracy and completeness of information QUESTION 309: Security Management includes a number of sub-processes. Maintenance C.EX0-100 Answer: C Explanation: A basic concept of Security Management is the information security. The primary goal of information security is to guarantee safety of information.

Acceptance of Request for Change. Review. Implementation. Reporting D. the starting point for testing new software Answer: A . Completion C. Scheduling. Completion. the recorded composition (snapshot) of a CI or group of CI's to be used as a reference B. a number of smaller improvements and fixes on Known Errors B. Testing. that is distributed C. the CI level C. Which sequential steps should be taken to carry out the change? A. Scheduling. Implementation. a Release of only modified software or hardware Answer: D QUESTION 312: Problem Management has submitted a Request for Change (RFC) to Change Management. including the modifications.EX0-100 B. Implementation and Testing. Recording. Reporting. Review Answer: A QUESTION 313: What is a Configuration Baseline? A. a Release with a longer period of stability for the user D. Testing. a program. Service Level Management C. Configuration Management D. Completion B. Building. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 311: What is a Delta Release? A. Review. the relationship between Configuration Items (parent-child relationships) D. Recording. Implementation. The request is to replace all desktop hard disks of brand X and type Y. Testing.

Error Control B. the time needed to record problems Answer: C QUESTION 316: One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends. Problem Control Answer: C QUESTION 317: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident resulting from an implemented change? . the time needed to solve problems D.EX0-100 QUESTION 314: What is an example of the 'control' activity in the Configuration Management process? A. Proactive Problem Management D. Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this? A. the time needed to implement solutions C. the time needed to compile a problem report B. checking the CI-lifecycle B. ensuring that the contents of the CMDB remain up to date Answer: D QUESTION 315: Which of the following indicators is a performance indicator for the Problem Management process? A. Identification of root causes C. performing audits to check that the CMDB is accurate D. registering all components in the CMDB C.

the Change Advisory Board B. classifying a Request for Change (RFC) C. Change Manager B. Problem Management staff C. Configuration Management D. accepting a Request for Change (RFC) B. Capacity Management C. the Service Management Answer: A QUESTION 320: Which of the following processes is most closely related to Release Management? A. planning a change D. Service Level Manager Answer: C QUESTION 318: In which of the following activities are the priority and the category of a Change determined? A. Service Level Management Answer: C . registering a Request for Change (RFC) Answer: B QUESTION 319: What group will the Change Manager convene in case of a complex change in the IT infrastructure? A. the Management Team C. Availability Management B. the Problem Management D. Service Desk staff D.EX0-100 A.

This means that it took an average of two hours before the service. Capacity Management C. This means that it took an average of two hours for the user to report the incident to the Service Desk. Availability Management B. a randomly selected incident was remedied within two hours. Release Management D. Configuration Management C. Answer: C QUESTION 324: . Change Management D.EX0-100 QUESTION 321: For which process is the Modeling activity a powerful instrument to make predictions about the behavior of the infrastructure? A. This means that in that month. Incident Management Answer: B QUESTION 323: The incident reports from the previous month indicate that the average recovery period was two hours. C. D. What does this mean? A. Financial Management for IT Services Answer: B QUESTION 322: Which process is responsible for recording the logical and physical relationships between the various components of the IT infrastructure? A. B. This means that incidents lasted an average of two hours during that month. was made available to the user. after repairs. Availability Management B.

the Board of Directors B. the Change Manager C. Service Level Requirement D. Underpinning Contract Answer: B QUESTION 326: Which process provides input to Change Management for estimating the impact of a change? A.EX0-100 Among other things. Configuration Management B. Release Management Answer: A QUESTION 327: Who is responsible for ensuring that security measures are followed during changes? A. how the processes fit into the ITIL?framework D. the Security Manager . What is always described with regard to the processes? A. Service Level Agreement C. exactly how the activities must be carried out C. Incident Management C. the objective(s). Service Improvement Plan B. the inputs and outputs Answer: D QUESTION 325: In which of the following are the agreements on security between a customer and the IT organization recorded? A. ITIL describes the IT Service Management processes. the Release Manager D. the activities. the cost of implementing each process B. Problem Management D.

Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 331: What information is not required to set up a process? . IT Service Continuity Management D. Configuration Management C. Availability Management B. Incident Management D.EX0-100 Answer: B QUESTION 328: What is a purpose of a Post Implementation Review (PIR) of an implemented Change? A. to check whether the intended goal has been achieved B. Capacity Management C. Change Management B. Service Level Management Answer: C QUESTION 330: Which process is aimed at restoring IT Services as soon as possible after the organization has been hit by a lengthy interruption? A. to be able to complete the Change C. to determine which problems are related to the Change Answer: A QUESTION 329: What is the most common process that is associated with the Service Desk? A. to be able to implement new Changes D.

that a budget is allocated to the IT organization every year C. Service Level Management Answer: D QUESTION 334: In Financial Management for IT Services. Availability Management B. what does the Accounting activity ensure? A. the objective D. the trigger (input) C. One of the managers within the client company does not believe that this is achievable and requests a report from the network company. Change Management C. that a certain percentage of profit is made for each service or product . creating and maintaining recovery options C. the desired results (output) Answer: A QUESTION 332: Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management? A. providing reports on availability D. that the amount of money the IT organization is spending is known and has been calculated (for each service) B. analyzing the Service Windows B. guaranteeing the Configuration Items are continuously updated Answer: B QUESTION 333: The Service Catalog for a network company states that LAN authorization requests will be complete within three weeks. Problem Management D.EX0-100 A. the process owner B. that negotiations can be held about the price of a service D. Which process is responsible for providing this report? A.

Configuration Management D. Release Management D. Change Management B. Change Management B.EX0-100 Answer: A QUESTION 335: Which process is responsible for implementing and maintaining access security? A. Incident Management C. Security Management Answer: D QUESTION 336: Which process is responsible for establishing and maintaining a Known Error database? A. Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 338: What is a Known Error? . Problem Management Answer: D QUESTION 337: Which process ensures that an interruption in the provision of services is diagnosed as quickly as possible? A. Incident Management C. Change Management C. Availability Management B. Problem Management D.

the category C. a Service Desk that provides service 24 hours a day from a single location D. a Problem that cannot be matched Answer: C QUESTION 339: Which of the following factors partly determines the priority of an incident? A. B. the impact D. C. When the Service Desk determines the information needs. the wishes of the customer Answer: C QUESTION 340: What is a distributed Service Desk? A. Answer: D QUESTION 342: .EX0-100 A. a Problem that is resolved C. When Service Level Management determines the customer demand. When Capacity Management determines and regulates the capacity demand. a Problem for which the cause is known and a Workaround has been identified D. a Service Desk that is located at multiple locations C. a serious incident that occurs often B. When Service Level Management determines the level of customer satisfaction. the requisite resources B. a Service Desk that has knowledge in several locations in a system B. D. a Service Desk that handles both technical and functional calls Answer: B QUESTION 341: What is Demand Management? A.

a contract with an external supplier . a contract with an internal customer B. Financial Management for IT Services Answer: B QUESTION 343: Which process pursues a charging policy of IT costs? A. a contract with an external customer C. the recipient of the RFC D. the Change Advisory Board B. Which process could assist IT Service Continuity Management in ensuring this does not happen? A. a contract with an internal supplier D. Security Management D. the person who submitted the RFC Answer: B QUESTION 345: What is an Underpinning Contract? A. the Change Manager C. Availability Management B. Financial Management for IT Services C. Capacity Management B. Change Management C. IT Service Continuity Management D. Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 344: Who is responsible for accepting a Request for Change (RFC)? A.EX0-100 IT Service Continuity Plans (ITSC Plans) are often forgotten and not being kept up-to-date for various reasons.

due to be released next year. will correct the problem. Configuration Management C. The next version of the software. Release Management must remove all distributed versions of the word-processing software from the IT infrastructure C. All PCs freeze during a spelling check in a certain word processor when the documents concerned are larger than 150 pages.EX0-100 Answer: D QUESTION 346: Which process ensures optimal and measurable availability of IT services? A. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 347: Problem Management has researched a number of incidents and has come to the conclusion that they all follow the same pattern. IT Service Continuity Management D. the word processing software must be replaced by another package Answer: A QUESTION 348: Which process is responsible for keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date? A. Availability Management B. Incident Management . Change Management B. Capacity Management C. This means that the problem can only be solved at this moment by buying completely new software. a Request for Change (RFC) must be submitted to Change Management B. the Service Desk must ask all users which replacement software they would like to use D. What should Problem Management do after the error has been acknowledged and registered as a Known-Error in the Known-Error database? A. Inquiries to the supplier of the software have determined that the cause of the problem is a bug in the software.

feasible and/or necessary? A. a Request for Change (RFC) C. a Service Request D. Change Management C.EX0-100 D. Service Desk Answer: C QUESTION 352: . Release Management Answer: B QUESTION 349: Which process checks whether Requests for Change (RFCs) regarding the IT infrastructure are logical. Configuration Management C. However. an Information Request B. Availability Management B. Capacity Management D. Which process or function should have provided the back-out plan? A. Change Management B. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 350: A user has forgotten his password and asks the Service Desk for a new password. What type of request does this involve? A. Release Management D. a Standard Change Answer: C QUESTION 351: The rollout of an application software upgrade has been planned. a back-out plan has not been developed.

Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 353: The Definitive Software Library (DSL) and the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) are terms used when distributing software and hardware. Incident Management C. Availability Plan B. Configuration Management D. Risk Analysis . Answer: C QUESTION 355: Which document or activity should be completed before a Recovery Plan can be formalized? A. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been classified. Release Management Answer: D QUESTION 354: When can the building and testing of a Change begin? A. Problem Management D. As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory Board. C. D. Capacity Management B. Change Management B. As soon as there is a correct network plan for the change. Computer Installations and Acceptance C.EX0-100 Which process reports about software failures resulting from software changes? A. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been formally authorized. Which process is responsible for keeping the DSL and the DHS up-to-date? A. Capacity Plan C. B.

Functional Request B. . growth of the IT infrastructure C. matching incidents D. time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each department Answer: B QUESTION 359: A supplier of communication equipment offers the client a choice of three different maintenance contracts when purchasing a fax machine. identifying problems B. deviations from the specified service levels B. Service Request Answer: B QUESTION 358: What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of an organization? A. Incident C. generating management information C. number of incidents per category D. updating the incident database Answer: D QUESTION 357: What is another name for a deviation from the standard operation of a service? A. Problem D. Security Plan Answer: C QUESTION 356: Which of the following is not one of the objectives of registering incidents? A.EX0-100 D.

Availability Management B. Operational Level Agreement B. Service Catalog C. Service Level Agreement D. finding the root cause of the problem D. Safety Answer: B QUESTION 362: What is Error Control responsible for in Problem Management? A. Underpinning Contract Answer: C QUESTION 360: Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible? A. implementing a solution for the error Answer: B . Confidentiality C. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 361: What do we call protecting information against unauthorised access and use? A.EX0-100 In which document will the external supplier register the client's choice? A. Incident management D. Integrity D. IT Service Continuity Management C. Availability B. tracing problems B. managing the Known Errors C.

because otherwise Problem Management cannot work Answer: B QUESTION 366: Within which process is the term Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) used? A. a modified Configuration Item C. a change request Answer: D QUESTION 364: Which of the following is Proactive Problem Management? A. because this means the incident can be resolved more quickly C. Capacity Management C. Service Level Management . Availability Management B. because this is part of the ITIL?management model B. IT Service Continuity Management D. providing second-line support D. because this allows incidents to be better tracked D. analyzing incidents that have been reported and solving the underlying cause B. a risk analysis D. drawing up a Capacity Plan Answer: B QUESTION 365: Why is it important that the Service Desk attempts to link an incident to a Known Error? A. analyzing trends and identifying potential incidents C.EX0-100 QUESTION 363: What is one of the possible outputs of the Problem Management process? A. a Service Level Agreement B.

IT Financial Management B. raise an RFC. classify. investigate and diagnose. classify.EX0-100 Answer: A QUESTION 367: Which of the following is an example of a Configuration Item (CI)? A. be omitted for an urgent change: 1. Service Catalog B. Identify and record. Incident Management D. raise an RFC. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 369: Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order: A. identify and record. raise an RFC. investigate and diagnose. classify. investigate and diagnose. Review a change. serial number C. review the change D. Identify and record. review the change B. Change Management C. location of a server D. Recording that the change has been made . classify. Investigate and diagnose. exceptionally. identify and record C. raise another RFC Answer: A QUESTION 370: Which of the following activities may. supplier of an Underpinning Contract (UC) Answer: A QUESTION 368: With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to interface on a regular basis? A.

EX0-100 2. Testing the change 3. Holding a CAB meeting 4. Establishing a back-out plan A. All of them B. 2 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4 Answer: C QUESTION 371: Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers? A. The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT B. It's the only way to manage IT in the Internet age C. It's contained within the IT Infrastructure Library D. It's the first non-proprietary initiative for the management of IT systems Answer: A QUESTION 372: Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management process? A. The physical aspects of software control B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained C. Helping to determine the software release policy D. Distributing software Answer: B QUESTION 373: A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA: A. Covers all services for a particular customer B. Covers a set of similar services, for a single customer C. Covers all services D. Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service Answer: D

EX0-100 QUESTION 374: Possible problems with Change Management include: A. Greater ability to absorb a large volume of change B. Increased visibility and communication of changes C. Lack of ownership of impacted services D. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs Answer: C QUESTION 375: Which of these is/are TRUE? 1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process 2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents 3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff A. 1 and 3 B. All three of them C. Only 1 D. 1 and 2 Answer: A QUESTION 376: Who must always authorise a Request for Change before the change is built and tested? A. The Configuration Manager B. The Change Initiator C. The Change Manager D. Release Management Answer: C QUESTION 377: Why is there sometimes conflict between the goals of Incident Management and those of Problem Management? A. Because specialist support staff do not properly document the work-arounds they identify which consequently prevents the 1st line support staff from applying them the next time the incident occurs B. Because Problem Management is often carried out by technical staff who also have

EX0-100 operations responsibilities and who cannot allocate enough resources to problem solving C. Because Problem Management is focusing on identifying permanent solutions and therefore the speed with which these solutions are found is of secondary importance D. Because Problem Management staff rarely give feedback spontaneously, forcing the 1st line support staff to chase them Answer: C QUESTION 378: Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of a Service Level Manager? A. Analysing and reviewing agreed service levels B. Maintaining the service catalogue C. Negotiating requests for service D. Assessing the full impact of proposed changes to services Answer: D QUESTION 379: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Urgent and non-urgent changes follow the same Change Management process B. High risk, urgent changes should be considered by the CAB Emergency Committee C. Urgent changes need not necessarily be reviewed, unless there is time to do so D. The justification for urgent changes should always be based on sound business reasons Answer: C QUESTION 380: In Availability Management, Confidentiality and Integrity are elements of: A. Reliability B. Serviceability C. Security D. Maintainability Answer: C QUESTION 381: From a well-informed User's perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence in the management of a service failure?

Budgeting C. Leave it until the system is implemented and see if the system works O. Identification of costs by customer. Calculation of the costs of IT services B. As early as possible C. The cost of the item C. service or activity D. Release Management C. Change Management. Incident Management. Release Management. Change Management B. Problem Management Answer: B QUESTION 382: At what point should capacity requirements of a proposed system be first considered? A. Problem Management. Incident Management. Change Management. Incident Management. A supplier's part number B. Release Management. Performing cost-benefit analyses to support decision making Answer: B . When the Development Manager has completed testing and passes the system to Operations for operational testing D. Incident Management.K.EX0-100 A. Problem Management. A manufacturer's serial number D. Release Management D. Just before the system goes live Answer: B QUESTION 383: Which of the following is NOT a valid attribute of a hardware CI? A. Change Management. B. Problem Management. The number of items held Answer: D QUESTION 384: Which of the following activities are NOT part of IT Accounting? A.

investigation. The IT environment D. Relationships Answer: D QUESTION 386: Which of the following is least likely to be a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process A. investigation. classification. resolution and closure D. resolution B. initial support. initial support. investigation. diagnosis. communication. Less disruption to both IT support staff and users Answer: B QUESTION 387: Which of the following definitions best describes the IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL)? A. recording. Logging. detection. classification. resolution. Logging.EX0-100 QUESTION 385: The major difference between a CMDB and an asset register is that CMDB holds information on: A. A prescriptive process for managing Service Improvement Projects C. Detection. Software C. classification. allocation. classification. Detection. A documented framework of proven best practices in Service Management B. Documentation B. A methodology for supporting and delivering IT services D. recovery. Incident volume reduction C. Elimination of lost incidents D. recovery and closure C. recording. recovery and closure . Improved user satisfaction B. initial support. A quality standard in managing customer relationships Answer: A QUESTION 388: The stages in the Incident Management process are: A. recording.

On-site spares 4. what would be the role of the organisation's senior managers? A.EX0-100 Answer: D QUESTION 389: Which of the following terms or phrases are associated with resilience? 1. Influencing customer behaviour to optimise the use of IT resources Answer: C QUESTION 392: . Tuning systems to make most effective use of IT resources C. Redundancy 2. Leading the recovery teams C. All of them C. Co-ordinating and directing activities. 1. Duplexing A. arbitrating and allocating resources D. 3 and 4 B. Executing recovery instructions Answer: C QUESTION 391: Capacity Management is responsible for ensuring the capacity of the IT Infrastructure matches the evolving demands of the business in the most cost effective and timely manner. 2. Progress reporting B. Purchasing resources for the IT Infrastructure D. Which of the following is NOT part of this responsibility? A. Monitoring performance and throughput of individual IT components B. Fault tolerance 3. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 4 Answer: D QUESTION 390: If the IT Service Continuity plan had to be invoked during a crisis.

Education and Awareness. Incidents are not the only source of known errors Answer: B QUESTION 394: The Requirements and Strategy phase of the Business Continuity Life-cycle comprises: A. Business Impact Analysis. Staff B. A mainframe purchase D. Only 1 B. 1 and 2 Answer: A . IT Financial Management ensures that the IT department charges those who benefit from IT A. Consultancy C. Review and Audit C. If the root cause and a temporary work-around have been identified for a problem it becomes a known error B. Accommodation rental Answer: C QUESTION 393: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Risk Assessment and Business Continuity Strategy Answer: D QUESTION 395: Which of these statements reflect the activities of IT Financial Management? 1. Neither D.EX0-100 Which of the following are NOT operational costs? A. Education and Awareness and Assurance B. Initial testing. Organisation and Implementation Planning and Risk Reduction Measures D. A known error can be kept open when a work-around is being used D. IT Financial Management may calculate the prices to be charged for IT services 2. All known errors need to be resolved to user satisfaction C. Only 2 C.

The availability of spares for CIs Answer: B QUESTION 398: As part of your IT Continuity Planning you have been asked to undertake a comprehensive Risk Analysis. which type of release will be used to deliver them into the live environment? A. Which of the following is most likely to be of use to you in drawing up your plan? A. The Forward Schedule of Change. The level at which components will be independently changed C. Delta Release Answer: B QUESTION 397: Typically the decision on what should be the lowest level of CI recorded is influenced mostly by: A. Emergency D.EX0-100 QUESTION 396: During the release planning stage you identify that the changes you are about to make to a service will necessitate changes in related software systems. A list of Services and Operational Level Agreements D. A report produced by Incident Management detailing the incidents affecting IT Services over the last month Answer: B QUESTION 399: An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following? . A Service Catalogue plus an understanding of the business criticality of each of the services C. The reliability of the CIs B. Full Release B. Once all the changes have been fully tested. The suitability of the available software to hold the information D. Package Release C. produced by Change Management B.

A discounted charge B. The identification of trends 3. An indirect cost D. Making more efficient use of processing capacity C. Must be verified for accuracy monthly with trend reports on errors distributed to management quarterly Answer: C QUESTION 402: Which of the following is NOT a valid method of tuning? A. 2 and 4 Answer: D QUESTION 401: The CMDB: A. The analysis of raw data 2. All of them B. The definition of Service Management processes 4. A direct cost Answer: C QUESTION 400: Consider the following activities: 1. Balancing workloads . The market price C. Installing a new server D. Is updated by Configuration Management staff at the end of each working day C.EX0-100 A. None of them D. Must be available for update 7 x 24 if any of the services supported by the IT supplier are available 7 x 24 B. Balancing disc traffic B. 2 and 3 C. Holds information that will be useful to the majority of IT Service Management processes D. 1. The implementation of preventive measures Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool? A.

What percentage of services are covered by SLAs? B. Verification B. Maintainability Answer: A QUESTION 406: Which of the following statements is TRUE? . D. The full benefits will only be realised if Incident & Problem Management processes are implemented first. C. The full benefits will only be realised if regular reviews are undertaken with customers. Are customer perceptions of service improving? D. Are service review meetings held on time and correctly minuted? C. B. Reliability D. Answer: C QUESTION 404: Which of the following would NOT be a performance measurement for the Service Level Management function? A. How many services are included within the CMDB? Answer: D QUESTION 405: Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management? A.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 403: For an organisation implementing the ITIL IT Service Management processes which of the following statements is most accurate? A. The full benefits will only be realised if the business requirements are first ascertained and then the processes are implemented in an integrated way. The full benefits will only be realised if all IT staff are fully qualified in IT Service Management. Security C.

Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL B. All of them D. 1. 2 and 4 B. Better management of risk and the consequent reduction of the impact of failure A. Reduced business disruption in the event of a disaster 4. The DSL contains source code only D. The mean time between failure Answer: A QUESTION 408: Potential benefits from managing IT Service Continuity are: 1. 2. A change may only be developed from non-definitive versions of software in the case of an urgent release Answer: B QUESTION 407: Which of the following metrics would you most associate with the Service Desk? A. The number of problems solved in a day D. The support team which resolves the greatest number of problems C. Lower insurance premiums 2. Release Management is responsible for managing the organisation's rights and obligations regarding software C. 3 and 4 C. The number of high priority incidents occurring B. 2 and 4 Answer: C .EX0-100 A. Fulfilment of mandatory or regulatory requirements 3.

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