EX0-100

QUESTION 1:

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity management? A. Drawing up back-out scenarios B. Analyzing risks C. Testing back-out arrangements D. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D QUESTION 2:

Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data? A. IT service continuity management B. Availability management C. Release management D. Security management Answer: D QUESTION 3:

Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include distributing information to users? A. Change management B. Service desk C. Customer relationship management D. Incident Management Answer: B QUESTION 4:

Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. Service Quality Plan (SQP) B. Service improvement program (SIP) C. Service catalogue

EX0-100 D. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: B QUESTION 5:

In the change management process, which role is ultimately responsible for the entire process? A. Change Advisory Board B. IT Manager C. Change Manager D. Change Coordinator Answer: C QUESTION 6:

In Certkiller .com, the purchasing department has relocated internally, not just the people, but also their IT resources. A service Desk employee has been commissioned to relocate this department's workstations. In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role? A. Configuration Management B. Incident Management C. Change Management D. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 7:

Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management? A. A report regarding the problem management process B. An urgent change C. A change request D. A trend analysis Answer: D QUESTION 8:

EX0-100

Which data, for a new configuration item (CI), is recorded in the configuration management database (CMDB)? A. The relationship to other configuration items B. The request for change number for the configuration item C. Repairs to the configuration item D. The impact of the configuration item Answer: A QUESTION 9:

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity management? A. Testing back-out arrangements B. Drawing up back-out scenarios C. Analyzing risks D. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D QUESTION 10:

Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors? A. Availability management B. Problem Management C. IT service continuity management D. Security Management Answer: B QUESTION 11:

Which activity is not a Service Desk activity? A. Relating an incident to a know Error B. Registering incidents C. Applying temporary fixes D. Solving a Problem Answer: D

Relating an incident to a known error . Financial Management for IT services D.EX0-100 QUESTION 12: Which of the following describes the basic concept of integrity in the Security Management process? A. Protection of the data against unauthorized access and use Answer: B QUESTION 13: Which ITIL process responsible for annually allocating the costs of underpinning contracts? A. Access to the data at any moment D. By analyzing open incidents C. Service Level Management Answer: C QUESTION 14: How does Problem Management contribute to a higher solution percentage of first-line support? A. By preventing incidents B. The correctness of the data C. By evaluating incidents with the customer D. Capacity Management B. By making a knowledge database available Answer: D QUESTION 15: Which activity is not a service Desk activity? A. The capacity to verify the correctness of the data B. Availability Management C.

Applying temporary fixes Answer: B QUESTION 16: Which statement best describes the role of the service Desk? A. Availability management C. A fast change B. The service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned D. which ITIL process would it be putting in place? A. An unplanned change D. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 18: How is a change that must be made quickly called? A. A standard change Answer: B QUESTION 19: . Change management B. An urgent change C. The service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer B. Incident Management D. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems C. Registering incidents D. The service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available Answer: A QUESTION 17: When an organization decides to control the flow of incidents information within the IT organization.EX0-100 B. Solving a problem C.

C. as the IT service can no longer be used B. Capacity Management B. The whishes of customers to implement changes B. Immediately. When the continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum period of time mentioned in the service Level agreement D. has exceeded. Availability management Answer: A QUESTION 22: Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of the Change Advisor Board (CAB)? A. It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization C. When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the ITSC Plan? A. Fortunately. Change Management D. It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) B. there is an ITSC Plan available. When the time within which the failure should be solved. It can be used instead of an SLA Answer: B QUESTION 21: Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application? A.EX0-100 A powerful failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure. Ongoing or concluded changes . When the incident Manager thinks this is necessary Answer: C QUESTION 20: Which of the following statements about the service catalogue is correct? A. Configuration Management C. It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA D.

The problem manager D. The service desk B. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently D. Reports from Service Level Management D. The change manager C. Officals C. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services Answer: C QUESTION 24: What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management? A. That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster C. The customer Answer: B QUESTION 26: Changes are divided into categories. Departments D. Interrelated activities B. What criteria defines a category for a change? . That it is finally possible to charge for IT services B. The registration of changes Answer: B QUESTION 23: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. IT resources Answer: A QUESTION 25: Who decides the category of a change ? A.EX0-100 C.

incident Answer: B . The consequences of the change such as limited. Incident D. The speed with which the change is made D. Request For Change C.EX0-100 A. Known Error C.com calls the service Desk and Reports that the system is slow. The sequence in which the change is made B. which is much faster. Which term is applicable to this situation? A. He asks whether he can be given another PC like this colleague's. Classification Answer: C QUESTION 29: Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified? A. Monitoring C. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned Answer: B QUESTION 27: Which activity in the problem management process is responsible for generating requests for change (RFCs)? A. Error Control B. Problem B. significant etc C. Problem Analysis Answer: A QUESTION 28: Certkiller . Request for Change (RFC) B. Proactive Problem Management D. Work-around D. substantial.

Which Configuration items does a specific service consist of? D. Guarding negotiations with the customer D. In the configuration management database (CMDB) . Guarding agreements with the customer B. In the change database C. Service Level Manager D. Identifying the needs of the customer Answer: A QUESTION 32: Which of the following questions can not be answered directly from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. what happens during the activity called "monitoring"? A. Service Desk C. What incidents or problems have there been for this PC? C. Acquiring customers C. Which Requests for change have been submitted for a specific server? B. In the known error database B. Which members of staff of department x have moved to department Y? Answer: D QUESTION 33: Where are the statuses of changes recorded? A. Problem Manager B.EX0-100 QUESTION 30: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident? A. Problem Management staff Answer: B QUESTION 31: In the Service Level Management Process.

Adjusting of the service B. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services B. Capacity Management D. Availability Management B. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services C. An evaluation of the service has been performed. Which activity takes place after the evaluation of a service? A. That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster D.EX0-100 D. Monitoring of service levels D. Financial Management for IT Services C. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently Answer: D QUESTION 37: .What is the difference between a process and a project? . Compilation of service level reports Answer: A QUESTION 36: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. Defining service levels C. In the definitive software library (DSL) Answer: C QUESTION 34: Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation system? A. Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 35: Users have complained about email service.

Identification C. After every Change D. What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the DSL? A. Configuration Management D. At the request of the person who submitted the change request C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved.EX0-100 A. In a project the focus is not on the result. If another incident of the same type occurs again after a change has been made B. Planning D. Release Management B. Status monitoring B. where a process has a finite lifespan Answer: B QUESTION 38: Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definite Software Library (DSL). A project is continuous and has no end date. Verification Answer: D QUESTION 40: When must a Post Implementation Review take place? A. In case of emergency changes . Capacity Management C. A process is continuous and has no end date. whereas with a process the result is important D. whereas a project has a finite lifespan C. Application Management Answer: A QUESTION 39: For which of the following activities of configuration management are audits regularly implemented? A. whereas as project does not stop when the objective is met B.

Serviceability Answer: A QUESTION 43: An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information database. Average time between two consecutive incidents Answer: C QUESTION 42: For what is capacity Management responsible? A. Average downtime of a service D. Security Management D. Change Management B. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period C. to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient? A. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased. Maintainability D. Availability Management Answer: B QUESTION 44: . Average uptime of a service B. Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time. Resource Management B.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 41: What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean? A. Capacity Management C. Security C. to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future.

When the problem is known B. When the problem has been resolved C. Incident Management .EX0-100 When is a known error identified? A. When the cause of the problem is known Answer: D QUESTION 45: What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same characteristics? A. Incident Management C. Availability Management C. A known error Answer: A QUESTION 46: When the cause of one or more incidents is not known. A change request C. Service Level Management B. additional resources are assigned to identify the cause. into trends that could cause performance problems in the future? A. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management D. A service call D. A problem B. through the modeling activity. Service Level Management D. Capacity Management B. Which ITIL process is responsible for this? A. Capacity Management D. Problem Management Answer: D QUESTION 47: Which ITIL process provides an insight.

Matching D.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 48: Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures? A. Service Desk Answer: C QUESTION 49: Which of the following parties involved in an incident determines whether that incident can be closed? A. Employee of the service Desk D. Solving and restoring B. Analysis and diagnosis C. User B. Problem Management B. ITService Continuity Management D. Purchaser of the services C. Classification Answer: D QUESTION 51: What is the use of additional technical expertise in the incident management process called? . Capacity Management C. Service Manager Answer: A QUESTION 50: What activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident? A.

The Service Level Manager D. Urgent Change B. Problem analysis D. serviceability and maintainability components? A. Resolution and recovery of the incident B. Availability Management B. The Change Manager C. the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is discussed.EX0-100 A. Incident classification Answer: B QUESTION 52: What is the term used for a fully described and approved change that does not have to be evaluated by Change Management each time? A. Request of change D.com plans on implementing a new network operating system. Before the actual implementation takes place. Problem Management D. Functional escalation C. Under whose leadership is this discussion held? A. The Network Manager B. The service Manager Answer: B QUESTION 54: Of which ITIL process are reliability. ITService Continuity Management C. Service Level Management Answer: A . Standard Change Answer: D QUESTION 53: Certkiller . Service request C.

The CMDB (Configuration Management Database) B. Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 56: Which of the following is a department rather than a process? A. The CAB (Change Advisory Board) . Service Desk D. Problem Management C. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package B. Which of the following reports is an incident? A. Information about the departure time of the train to London D. A report that the printer is not working C. A question about where the manual is Answer: B QUESTION 58: Where is the planning of changes kept up to date? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 55: Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT infrastructure? A. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 57: Reports of different types arrive at a Service Desk. Incident Management B. Problem Management D. Availability Management C. SIP (Service Improvement Program) C. Incident Management B.

By checking contracts with suppliers D. Setting up the process C. Implementing the process B. A standard configuration (such as a standard workstation) C. Describing the process Answer: C QUESTION 61: How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Server Level Management process? A.EX0-100 D. A minimum value for Certkiller . The result of the process D. The most important infrastructure (such as a network) to which all kinds of workstations and services can be linked B. By reporting on all incidents B. A document that states how the infrastructure must be dealt with in an organization (vision) D. The FSC (Forward Schedule of Changes) Answer: D QUESTION 59: What is a baseline in the IT infrastructure? A. What is the process owner responsible for? A. By defining server levels Answer: B QUESTION 62: . By measuring customer satisfaction C.com service (must at least satisfy) Answer: B QUESTION 60: A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal.

Record the incident data B. Service Level Management D. By measuring customer satisfaction Answer: D QUESTION 64: Which ITIL process ensures that the information that has been made available satisfies the specified information security requirements? A. Software awaiting user acceptance testing C. By reporting on all incidents B. By checking contracts with suppliers D. Availability Management B. Copies of all software versions that are needed Answer: C QUESTION 63: How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process? A. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure D.EX0-100 Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Software Library? A. IT service Continuity Management C. Copies of all live software programs B. Determine the priority C. Security Management Answer: D QUESTION 65: What is the first step when registering an incident? A. Assign an incident number . By defining service levels C. Perform matching D.

Capacity Management Answer: B QUESTION 69: Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. Problem Management B. Correcting known errors Answer: D QUESTION 68: Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which supplementary emergency measures must be taken? A. IT Service Continuously Management C. Providing information to the users B. Checking problems and incidents C. Availability Management D.EX0-100 Answer: D QUESTION 66: Where are agreements regarding Security Management recorded? A. In a Definitive Software Library (DSL) Answer: C QUESTION 67: What is the primary task of Error Control? A. In a Capacity Plan C. In a service Level Agreement (SLA) D. Service Catalogue . Classifying and defining the priorities of problems D. In a Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B.

Communicating and preparing the release Answer: A QUESTION 72: Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra support of the service desk? A. Testing a release C. Availability Management B. Implement C.EX0-100 B. Designing and building a release D. Maintenance Answer: C QUESTION 71: What is the first activity when implementing a release? A. Which activity of security management leads to a security sub-clause in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) ? A. Control B. Financial Management for IT Services C. Service Improvement Program (SIP) D. Compiling the release schedule B. Plan D. Incident Management Answer: C QUESTION 73: . Service Quality Plan (SQP) C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: C QUESTION 70: Security Management includes a number of sub-processes. Service Level Management D.

check .Do . Plan .EX0-100 What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? A. Service Request D. Implementing the change D. Incident Management C. Request for change C. Do . Replacement request Answer: B QUESTION 74: Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors? A. Request for Release B.Check . Scheduling the Request for change C. Security Management B.Do . Determining the urgency of the change B. Problem Management D. Which activity is performed after acceptance of a Request for Change? A.Check -Act . Building and testing the change Answer: A QUESTION 76: According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in order to ensure good performance Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps? A. ACT .Act C. Capacity Management Answer: C QUESTION 75: In Change Management.Plan . a number of activities take place between the acceptance of a request for change and the completion of the change.Plan B.

Plan . Check . Urgency B. Configuration Management makes an inventory of the configuration items and asset management registers them C.Do Answer: B QUESTION 77: What is meant by the urgency of an incident? A. The degree two which the solution of an incident tolerates delay Answer: A QUESTION 78: Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) includes both Asset Management And Configuration Management. What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management? A. Content C. The time needed by IT services to resolve the incident B. Configuration Management is a component of Asset Management. Asset Management focuses exclusively on the book value and configuration management on the status of configuration items Answer: A QUESTION 79: What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a Request for change? A. Impact D. so there are no differences between item D.Act .EX0-100 D. Priority . The degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service level C. The relative importance of the incidents when handling them D. Asset Management monitors aspects such as depreciation and configuration management monitors aspects such as the relationships between the configuration items B.

This could have consequences for other components. Measurement C. Adjustment D. Known errors from problem management. Change Management B. RFCs from the Service Desk That Problem Management passes on to Change Management Answer: B . Implementation Answer: A QUESTION 81: In Certkiller . What ITIL process should be set up in order to provide good insight into these consequences? A.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 80: The deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality. Which step in this model must be taken first? A. Availability Management C. on the basis of which change management can generate requests for Change (RFCs) D. RFCs from the users that problem management passes on to change management B. Capacity Management Answer: C QUESTION 82: Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. What information is this? A. RFCs resulting from known errors C. Planning B.com a specific component of the IT infrastructure has been modified. Configuration Management D.

Analyzing reported incidents in order to mane recommendations Answer: D QUESTION 86: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. The location of the configuration item B. The company strategy D. The technology developments that can affect the service offered B. Delivering second-line support.EX0-100 QUESTION 83: Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. Employing more Problem Managers C. The relationship between the different configuration items C. The quality expressed in quality and costs. The quantity of the stored configuration items D. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently B. The depth of the database structure Answer: D QUESTION 85: One of Problem Management's tasks is to proactively prevent incidents. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT Services . of the services offered C. Making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements D. Which of the following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as being proactive? A. That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster C. should problems occur B. The costs and expected revenue of the service offered Answer: B QUESTION 84: What does the term 'detail level' mean in the context of the configuration management database (CMDB)? A.

Drawing up back-out scenarios D. Analyzing risks C. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D QUESTION 88: What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean? A. Which of the following is an incident ? . Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period D. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services Answer: A QUESTION 87: Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity Management? A. Configuration management Answer: A QUESTION 90: The Service Desk receives different types of calls. Problem management D. Capacity Management C. Average time between two consecutive incidents Answer: A QUESTION 89: Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure? A. IT service continuity management B. Testing back-out arrangements B.EX0-100 D. Average uptime of a service C. Average downtime of a service B.

Application Management C. what should happen next? A. This has very radical consequences for the business and has been reported as an incident. Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR) D. A system message that a printer is not working Answer: D QUESTION 91: Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definite Software Library (DSL).EX0-100 A. A request to install a new bookkeeping package B. According to ITIL best practices. Release Management will implement the back-out plan C. Information about the rollout of a specific application D. Release Management D. Configuration Management B. Change Management D. Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC) Answer: B QUESTION 93: Which ITIL process is responsible for handling an application for a new workstation according to a standard working method? A. What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the DSL? A. Service Level Management . A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer C. Service Desk C. Capacity Management Answer: C QUESTION 92: Release Management has distributed a defective Release. Service Level Management will start a service improvement program (SIP) B. monthly invoicing has come to a standstill. Incident Management B. As a result.

Charging D. Problem Management C. Change Management D. Application Management B. Modeling C. Configuration Management B. Reporting B. Service Desk Answer: B QUESTION 97: . Accounting C.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 94: Which activity in the ITIL process "Financial Management for IT services" is responsible for billing the services that were provided to the customer? A. Demand Management D. Budgeting Answer: C QUESTION 95: The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can be performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day. Application Sizing Answer: C QUESTION 96: Which process or function ensures that change proposals are submitted with the aim of removing errors within the IT infrastructure? A. What part of the capacity Management process does this refer to? A.

ITService Continuity Management B. Release Management B. Service Level Management Answer: D . monitoring the status of changes C. Availability Management B. Change Management D. Incident Management D. monitoring the software modules (SoftwareCIs) D. Problem Management C. Problem Management C. ITInfrastructure Management C. Capacity Management D. Service Level Management Answer: C QUESTION 100: Which process is responsible for monitoring agreements with network suppliers? A. Configuration Management Answer: C QUESTION 99: Which process provides a user insight into the status of a failure? A.EX0-100 Which of the following is a task of Configuration Management? A. monitoring the relationships between Configuration Items (CIs) B. monitoring the infrastructure capacity Answer: A QUESTION 98: Which process is responsible for coordinating the relocation of a number of workstations? A.

a change must be made to a software package. applications tested and updated by the Service Desk C. Change Management Answer: B QUESTION 104: In order to resolve a service failure. applications officially installed under the authority of Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 103: A user calls the Service Desk complaining that it is often impossible to print documents from a certain application. Service Level Agreement Answer: C QUESTION 102: Which applications does the Service Desk support? A. all applications installed on an end-user's system D. Availability Plan B. Availability Management B. Problem Management C.EX0-100 QUESTION 101: Which of the following documents would help provide insight into the load of the IT systems and the development of the organization in the mediumand long term? A. Which process is responsible for identifying the cause? A. while this is not the case with otherapplications. Back-out Plan C. Which process must grant approval for implementing this change? . Incident Management D. Capacity Plan D. applications approved and installed by Problem Management B.

Service Catalog C. whether the CI registration in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is up-to-date C. to which Configuration Items (CIs) the Change relates Answer: A QUESTION 107: Where can you find an overview of all IT services? A. Configuration Management B. Operational Level Agreement (OLA) D. ITService Continuity Management Answer: C QUESTION 106: Which item is required in the Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a Change? A. Service Window B. Incident Management C. Known Error Management B. whether the Management of the IT department is satisfied with the implementation of the Change D. whether the Change has achieved the intended goal B. Service Level Management C. Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 105: Which process focuses specifically on tracing or finding the cause of recurring errors and documenting them? A.EX0-100 A. Problem Management D. Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: B . Problem Management D.

D. qualified Service Desk employees C. coordination C. Answer: B QUESTION 111: What is a Definitive Software Library (DSL)? A. recognizing the event as a security incident Answer: D QUESTION 110: . B. scheduling B. When an IT service provider adopts and adapts ITIL's best practices. the applicable disciplinary measures B. There is a central Service Desk. C.EX0-100 QUESTION 108: Which Change Management activity indicates the priority and category of an accepted Request for Change (RFC)? A. registration D. Work is carried out using a project-oriented approach. the person who reported the incident D. a place meant for integrating the test and development departments more effectively with each other . which of the following is the greatest benefit? A. Work is carried out using a process-oriented approach. classification Answer: D QUESTION 109: Which aspect is important when registering security incidents? A. The organization is more customer-oriented.

Service Level Agreement (SLA) Answer: C QUESTION 115: . the name of the person who approves the Request for Change (RFC) D. Service Quality Plan (SQP) C. the names of persons who are authorized to implement Changes in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) C. Underpinning Contract (UC) B. Operational Level Agreement (OLA) D. a database in which software Configuration Items (CIs) are registered Answer: C QUESTION 112: What does the term "Serviceability" refer to? A. the name of the person handling the Problem B. contracts between internal IT departments C. contracts between external suppliers of services and the IT department Answer: D QUESTION 113: What data is recorded when an incident is reported to the Service Desk? A. a place where original software is physically stored D.EX0-100 B. contracts between IT management and the customer D. a tool with which all software items can be distributed on the network C. contracts between external suppliers and the customer B. the name of the person reporting the Incident Answer: D QUESTION 114: What type of agreement is made with internal IT departments assuring support of service components? A.

the Board of Management Answer: B QUESTION 117: Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. several Changes that are merged due to their size Answer: C QUESTION 116: After a change. who is responsible for ensuring that security measures maintain the security level? A. where the equipment has been set up D. information about the departure time of the train to London C. several Changes that are merged due to their minor impact C. which equipment is being used by whom B. the Change Manager B. a request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package B. a report that the printer is not working Answer: D QUESTION 118: Which information does Financial Management for IT Services extract from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. which software version is being used . a single Change that consists of both hardware and software B.EX0-100 What does a package release consist of? A. the Release Manager D. which equipment is causing incidents C. the Security Manager C. Which of the following events is an incident? A. a question about where the manual is D. a single Change made up of several separate Changes D.

ensuring the smooth running of the process B. a Request for Change B. channeling data to Problem Management Answer: A QUESTION 121: What information must always be included in a Request for Change (RFC)? A. following up on Incidents D. a resolved Problem Answer: B QUESTION 120: Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager? A. date and time of the notification of disruption Answer: B QUESTION 122: Error Control and trend analysis of incidents are activities of which process? A.EX0-100 Answer: A QUESTION 119: What is produced when Problem Management identifies the cause of a Problem and a workaround? A. one or more resolved incidents D. a description and identification of the Configuration Items (CIs) involved C. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users C. type of problem involved B. Incident Management . number of Configuration Items (CIs) involved D. a Known Error C.

Configuration Management D. ensuring the reliability of components will carry out a required function under certain conditions over a certain period B. D. Service Level Management C. Problem Management focuses on restoration of service and Incident Management focuses on finding the cause. delivering information on Service Levels to clients to determine the availability percentage D. Problem Management generates reports and Incident Management does not. Incident Management focuses on registration and Problem Management does not. Availability Management D. Service Level Management C. Incident Management focuses on restoration of service and Problem Management focuses on finding the cause. Demand Management Answer: A QUESTION 125: How does Problem Management differ from Incident Management? A. Release Management B.EX0-100 B. B. Problem Management Answer: D QUESTION 123: Which process provides components of the IT infrastructure with a unique and systematic name (designation)? A. C. Answer: C . Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 124: Which of the following is Availability Management responsible for? A. managing the negotiations with the customer with regard to availability C.

incident D. environment . organizational chart C. a standard request for change C. a report of a breakdown Answer: B QUESTION 127: Which of the following is considered a Configuration Item (CI)? A. process Answer: B QUESTION 128: Which of the following processes provides Problem Management with reports about the IT infrastructure? A. IT personnel B.EX0-100 QUESTION 126: Which of the following is not regarded as an incident? A. What else is required? A. Configuration Management D. a complaint about the service of the Service Desk B. This includes the objectives and the output. a question about how an application works D. Change Management B. Financial Management for IT Services Answer: C QUESTION 129: Certain data is needed to describe an ITIL's process. Incident Management C.

Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 133: . Configuration Management Database (CMDB) C. ITService Continuity Management and Availability Management C.EX0-100 B. Configuration Management D. authorisations Answer: C QUESTION 130: Managing risk is an essential part of which processes? A. Problem Management and Capacity Management B. Availability Management and Service Level Management D. prioritization B. registration C. ITService Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT Services Answer: B QUESTION 131: Which term is also used for routing or passing on incidents to another solution group? A. Change Management C. escalation Answer: D QUESTION 132: Which process is responsible for providing information about the IT infrastructure to all other processes? A. Capacity Management B. activities D. classification D.

Tuning C.EX0-100 One of the activities of Capacity Management involves making evaluations and predictions regarding the hardware that is required to run a new ormodified application. Problem Management B. a Service Level Agreement . Monitoring D. Capacity Planning B. Capacity Management D. Which of the activities of Capacity Management is responsible for this? A. officially approving Requests for Change (RFCs) B. the requisite hardware and the costs. The predictions include data about the performance levels that can be expected. initiating escalation procedures D. solving incidents by looking for their underlying causes C. Application Sizing Answer: D QUESTION 134: Which of the following tasks is a task of the Service Desk? A. ITService Continuity Management Answer: D QUESTION 136: What is one of the possible outputs of the Problem Management process? A. Availability Management C. a change request B. a risk analysis C. recognizing customer requirements and subsequently adjusting the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) Answer: C QUESTION 135: Which process includes developing a recovery plan? A.

Problem Management B. a modified Configuration Item Answer: A QUESTION 137: What is a Configuration Baseline? A. the CI level C. the recorded composition (snapshot) of a CI or group of CI's to be used as a reference Answer: D QUESTION 138: The Service Catalog for a network company states that LAN authorization requests will be complete within three weeks. a Service Desk that is located at multiple locations B. One of the managers withinthe client company does not believe that this is achievable and requests a report from the network company. Change Management C. a Service Desk that has knowledge in several locations in a system D. the starting point for testing new software B. the relationship between Configuration Items (parent-child relationships) D. Service Level Management Answer: D QUESTION 139: What is a distributed Service Desk? A. Availability Management D.EX0-100 D. a Service Desk that provides service 24 hours a day from a single location Answer: A QUESTION 140: . a Service Desk that handles both technical and functional calls C. Which process is responsible for providing this report? A.

a Problem for which the cause is known and a Workaround has been identified B. What should Problem Management do after the error has been acknowledged and registered as a Known-Error in the Known-Error database? A. Availability Management B. The next version of the software. a Request for Change (RFC) must be submitted to Change Management B. a Problem that cannot be matched Answer: A QUESTION 142: Problem Management has researched a number of incidents and has come to the conclusion that they all follow the same pattern. a Problem that is resolved C. All PCs freeze during a spelling check in a certain word processor when the documents concerned are larger than 150 pages. due to be released next year. Release Management must remove all distributed versions of the word-processing software from the IT infrastructure D. This means that the problem can only be solved at this moment by buying completely new software. the Service Desk must ask all users which replacement software they would like to use Answer: A QUESTION 143: . a serious incident that occurs often D. willcorrect the problem.EX0-100 Within which process is the term Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) used? A. Inquiries to the supplier of the softwarehave determined that the cause of the problem is a bug in the software. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 141: What is a Known Error? A. Capacity Management C. ITService Continuity Management D. the word processing software must be replaced by another package C.

Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 146: Which of the following is Proactive Problem Management? A. Service Desk B. Answer: A QUESTION 144: The rollout of an application software upgrade has been planned. B. When Service Level Management determines the level of customer satisfaction. providing second-line support . D. a back-out plan has not been developed. However. Incident Management B. When Service Level Management determines the customer demand. C. Configuration Management C. drawing up a Capacity Plan B. Problem Management D. analyzing trends and identifying potential incidents C. Release Management C. analyzing incidents that have been reported and solving the underlying cause D. Availability Management D. Which process or function should have provided the back-out plan? A. When Capacity Management determines and regulates the capacity demand. Change Management Answer: B QUESTION 145: Which process is responsible for establishing and maintaining a Known Error database? A.EX0-100 What is Demand Management? A. When the Service Desk determines the information needs.

EX0-100

Answer: B QUESTION 147:

Among other things, ITIL describes the IT Service Management processes. What is always described with regard to the processes? A. exactly how the activities must be carried out B. how the processes fit into the ITIL'S framework C. the objective(s), the activities, the inputs and outputs D. the cost of implementing each process Answer: C QUESTION 148:

Which process ensures optimal and measurable availability of IT services? A. ITService Continuity Management B. Capacity Management C. Service Level Management D. Availability Management Answer: D QUESTION 149:

Which process pursues a charging policy of IT costs? A. Financial Management for IT Services B. ITService Continuity Management C. Capacity Management D. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 150:

What is a purpose of a Post Implementation Review (PIR) of an implemented Change? A. to be able to implement new Changes

EX0-100 B. to determine which problems are related to the Change C. to check whether the intended goal has been achieved D. to be able to complete the Change Answer: C QUESTION 151:

Which of the following is not one of the objectives of registering incidents? A. generating management information B. updating the incident database C. matching incidents D. identifying problems Answer: B QUESTION 152:

What do we call protecting information against unauthorised access and use? A. Safety B. Confidentiality C. Availability D. Integrity Answer: B QUESTION 153:

Who is responsible for accepting a Request for Change (RFC)? A. the recipient of the RFC B. the person who submitted the RFC C. the Change Manager D. the Change Advisory Board Answer: C QUESTION 154:

Who is responsible for ensuring that security measures are followed during changes?

EX0-100

A. the Release Manager B. the Security Manager C. the Change Manager D. the Board of Directors Answer: C QUESTION 155:

Which of the following processes is most closely related to Release Management? A. Configuration Management B. Service Level Management C. Capacity Management D. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 156:

Which process is aimed at restoring IT Services as soon as possible after the organization has been hit by a lengthy interruption? A. Problem Management B. ITService Continuity Management C. Availability Management D. Capacity Management Answer: B QUESTION 157:

Which process is responsible for implementing and maintaining access security? A. Security Management B. Change Management C. Availability Management D. Release Management Answer: A

ensuring that the contents of the CMDB remain up to date C. a program. a number of smaller improvements and fixes on Known Errors Answer: B QUESTION 161: What is an example of the 'control' activity in the Configuration Management process? A. registering all components in the CMDB D.EX0-100 QUESTION 158: Which process ensures that an interruption in the provision of services is diagnosed as quickly as possible? A. Incident Management C. analyzing the Service Windows C. Service Level Management D. that is distributed D. guaranteeing the Configuration Itemsare continuously updated B. Problem Management B. including the modifications. Change Management Answer: B QUESTION 159: Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management? A. a Release of only modified software or hardware C. providing reports on availability D. performing audits to check that the CMDB is accurate B. creating and maintaining recovery options Answer: D QUESTION 160: What is a Delta Release? A. checking the CI-lifecycle . a Release with a longer period of stability for the user B.

Incident Management Answer: B QUESTION 164: The incident reports from the previous month indicate that the average recovery period was two hours. Configuration Management C. Release Management B. classifying a Request for Change (RFC) Answer: D QUESTION 163: Which process is responsible for recording the logical and physical relationships between the various components of the IT infrastructure? A. registering a Request for Change (RFC) B. D. What does this mean? A. This means that it took an average of two hours for the user to report the incident to the Service Desk. Availability Management D. was made available to the user. B. C. accepting a Request for Change (RFC) D. planning a change C. a randomly selected incident was remedied within two hours.EX0-100 Answer: B QUESTION 162: In which of the following activities are the priority and the category of a Change determined? A. after repairs. This means that in that month. This means that incidents lasted an average of two hours during that month. This means that it took an average of two hours before the service. Answer: B .

deviations from the specified service levels B. because otherwise Problem Management cannot work C. because this is part of the ITIL'S management model D. because this means the incident can be resolved more quickly Answer: D QUESTION 167: What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of an organization? A. because this allows incidents to be better tracked B. Underpinning Contract . number of incidents per category C. In which document will the external supplier register the client's choice? A. that the amount of money the IT organization is spending is known and has been calculated (for each service) Answer: D QUESTION 166: Why is it important that the Service Desk attempts to link an incident to a Known Error? A. what does the Accounting activity ensure? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 165: In Financial Management for IT Services. time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each department D. that a budget is allocated to the IT organization every year C. growth of the IT infrastructure Answer: D QUESTION 168: A supplier of communication equipment offers the client a choice of three different maintenance contracts when purchasing a fax machine. that a certain percentage of profit is made for each service or product D. that negotiations can be held about the price of a service B.

Problem Management B. Configuration Management B. Incident Management D. Problem Management C. Service Level Agreement D. Service Level Management C. Release Management D. Service Catalog C. Configuration Management Answer: B QUESTION 172: . Operational Level Agreement Answer: C QUESTION 169: Which process provides input to Change Management for estimating the impact of a change? A. Incident Management Answer: A QUESTION 170: Which process reports about software failures resulting from software changes? A. Change Management D. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 171: What is the most common process that is associated with the Service Desk? A. Service Level Management B.EX0-100 B. Incident Management C.

Reporting B. Building. As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory Board. Review. B. D. Completion D. Computer Installations and Acceptance B. Acceptance of Request for Change. The request is to replace all desktop hard disks of brand X and type Y. Answer: C QUESTION 175: One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends. Testing. Recording. Scheduling. Recording. Which process is responsible for keeping the DSL and the DHS up-to-date? A. Testing. As soon as there is a correct network plan for the change. Implementation. Scheduling. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been classified. . Completion. Configuration Management D. Review.EX0-100 Problem Management has submitted a Request for Change (RFC) to Change Management. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been formally authorized. Review C. Implementation and Testing. Testing. Implementation. Which sequential steps should be taken to carry out the change? A. C. Completion Answer: C QUESTION 173: The Definitive Software Library (DSL) and the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) are terms used when distributing software and hardware. Release Management Answer: D QUESTION 174: When can the building and testing of a Change begin? A. Implementation. Capacity Management C. Reporting.

Identification of root causes C. a Service Request B. implementing a solution for the error Answer: A . Risk Analysis C. managing the Known Errors B. Problem Control Answer: C QUESTION 176: A user has forgotten his password and asks the Service Desk for a new password.EX0-100 Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this? A. Error Control B. Security Plan B. finding the root cause of the problem C. Proactive Problem Management D. an Information Request C. Availability Plan Answer: B QUESTION 178: What is Error Control responsible for in Problem Management? A. a Standard Change Answer: A QUESTION 177: Which document or activity should be completed before a Recovery Plan can be formalized? A. Capacity Plan D. tracing problems D. What type of request does this involve? A. a Request for Change (RFC) D.

the time needed to record problems C. . the time needed to compile a problem report B. Configuration Management D. the time needed to solve problems D. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 180: Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible? A. Release Management C. dozens of requests have been received for expansion of the internal memory becauseits size has proven to be insufficient. Incident management B.EX0-100 QUESTION 179: Which process is responsible for keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date? A. the time needed to implement solutions Answer: C QUESTION 182: In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops. Incident Management B. Problem Management Answer: A QUESTION 181: Which of the following indicators is a performance indicator for the Problem Management process? A. ITService Continuity Management C. Availability Management D.

the category D. the impact Answer: D QUESTION 185: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident resulting from an implemented change? A. serial number B. location of a server Answer: C QUESTION 184: Which of the following factors partly determines the priority of an incident? A. Service Level Manager Answer: C . Service Desk staff D.EX0-100 Which process should have prevented this from happening? A. supplier of an Underpinning Contract (UC) C. Service Catalog D. the wishes of the customer B. Service Level Management D. Problem Management staff C. Change Manager B. Configuration Management C. the requisite resources C. Capacity Management B. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 183: Which of the following is an example of a Configuration Item (CI)? A.

Service Level Management C. the Service Management C. the Change Advisory Board Answer: D QUESTION 189: IT Service Continuity Plans (ITSC Plans) are often forgotten and not being kept up-to-date for various reasons. the Problem Management D. Which process could assist IT Service Continuity Management in ensuring this does not happen? . Capacity Management D. Service Request B.EX0-100 QUESTION 186: Which process is specifically responsible for preventing unauthorized access to data systems? A. Security Management Answer: D QUESTION 187: What is another name for a deviation from the standard operation of a service? A. Incident Answer: D QUESTION 188: What group will the Change Manager convene in case of a complex change in the IT infrastructure? A. the Management Team B. ITService Continuity Management B. Functional Request C. Problem D.

Security Management B. Service Level Requirement C. a deployed infrastructure B. a Service Answer: B QUESTION 192: What information is not required to set up a process? A. Change Management D. the desired results (output) Answer: A . a developed application D. Underpinning Contract Answer: C QUESTION 191: A Change leads to a modification of an element of IT. Financial Management for IT Services C. the trigger (input) D. Availability Management Answer: C QUESTION 190: In which of the following are the agreements on security between a customer and the IT organization recorded? A. the process owner B. Which of the following terms best describes the element being modified? A. a Configuration Item C. Service Improvement Plan B. Service Level Agreement D. the objective C.EX0-100 A.

Configuration Management C. Financial Management for IT Services B. Availability Management C. Service Level Management B. Capacity Management D. a contract with an internal supplier Answer: C QUESTION 195: For which process is the Modeling activity a powerful instrument to make predictions about the behavior of the infrastructure? A. Change management B. Change Management Answer: D QUESTION 194: What is an Underpinning Contract? A. a contract with an external customer C. Capacity Management D. Change Management Answer: C QUESTION 196: Which process involves the use of a CAB? A. a contract with an internal customer B. feasible and/or necessary? A. Supplier Management C. a contract with an external supplier D.EX0-100 QUESTION 193: Which process checks whether Requests for Change (RFCs) regarding the IT infrastructure are logical. Service Level Management .

Check. A. where authorized versions of all media CIs are protected and stored. is known as what? A. Plan.EX0-100 D. RACI chart B. Knowledge Management System (KMS) Answer: C Explanation: The DML or "Definitive Media Library" Stores all media Configuration Items. Service Portfolio Management B. Service V-Model D. Technical observation point (TOP) Answer: C QUESTION 198: A secure repository. Assess Management System C. Act C. Problem Management Answer: QUESTION 197: What is the iterative model called that is associated with the waterfall lifecycle. followed by service requirements validation and the planning of user acceptance testing? A. data and IT Services. Do. Information Security Management D. information. Service Assets and Configuration Management . stipulates the definition of service requirements. Availability Management C. Configuration Management System (CMS) B. QUESTION 199: Name the process that is defined under Service Design and that ensures the Confidentiality. Integrity and Availability of an Organisation's Assets. Definitive Media Library (DML) D. Choose one answer.

What does each 'P' stand for? A. Performance D. People. QUESTION 202: ITIL describes a concept called 4 'P's that facilitates effective Service Management. Partners B. Integrity and Availability of an Organisation's Assets. Profit. Planning Answer: B QUESTION 203: . controlled and documented D. Controlled Processes can be repeated B. Procedure. Select the CORRECT statements regarding process control. Service Portfolio Management C. A.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 200: Information Security Management ensures the Confidentiality. B. C QUESTION 201: All processes require some level of control. Profit. Products. Processes should be defined. Partners C. Only defined processes require control C. None of the other statements are true Answer: A. Availability Management B. Service Catalogue Management D. Processes. People. People. Select the process that is NOT defined in Service Design: A. information. data and IT Services. Profit. Select all that apply. Partners. Products. Service Level Management Answer: B Service Portfolio Management is a process defined by Service Strategy. Productivity.

. A workaround is developed to feed back to Incident Management to handle further incidents that occur before a final solution is implemented. Error Control contains the following activities: Known Error Identification and Recording .Assuming the problem review declares the solution as successful. the problem status changes to known error. When can the Known Error be closed? A. When the proposal for change is lodged with Change Management. Problem Evaluation and Review . a Post Implementation Review (PIR) is performed to evaluate the success of the solution and associated changes Closure . Urgent Change Board (UCB) C.Once the root cause has been determined. This activity could consist of cross-functional teams to weigh different solutions on various criteria including costs and benefits.An assessment is performed on what will be required to resolve the known error. C.EX0-100 A service level agreement is. the problem is finally closed. B. Defining Solution . CAB emergency committee (CAB/EC) Answer: B QUESTION 204: The successful diagnosis of a problem results in a Known Error. Answer: A Explanation: Error Control is the process of monitoring and providing solutions for known errors until they are resolved. (select the most appropriate answer) A. The known error definition can also be sent to the known error database to be used in the matching process. QUESTION 205: . When a review of the change has led to a satisfactory result.A final solution is developed and a Request for Change (RFC) is made via the Change Management Process. Emergency CAB (ECAB) B. 4Urgent Change Authority (UCA) D.After the change has been implemented. When the Request for Change is authorized by the Change Advisory Board. Solution Investigated . On the basis of this Known Error a Request for Change may be raised. D.. When incidents related to the Known Error do not occur any more.

or may cause. Availability Management B. after every Change B. at the request of the person who submitted the Change request C. in case of emergency changes D. analyzing risks B. an interruption to. thus ensuring that the best possible levels of service quality and availability are maintained. Incident Management D. QUESTION 207: Which activity is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management? A. Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: ITIL terminology defines an incident as: Any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes.EX0-100 When an organization decides to control the flow of incident information within the IT organization. The first goal of the incident management process is to restore a normal service operation as quickly as possible and to minimize the impact on business operations. if another incident of the same type occurs again after a Change has been made Answer: A Explanation: A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is a formal review of a programme or project. which ITIL process would it be putting in place? A. executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities Answer: D . Change Management C. It is used to answer the question: Did we achieve what we set out to do. drawing up back-out scenarios D. what should be done? The PIR must be a part of every change process. testing back-out arrangements C. the quality of that service. in business terms and if not. or a reduction in. QUESTION 206: When must a Post Implementation Review take place? A.

Check . Do . The BCM process involves reducing the risk to an acceptable level and planning for the recovery of business processes should a risk materialize and a disruption to the business occur. a pre-determined minimum level. QUESTION 208: Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services? A. categorisation.EX0-100 Explanation: Business Continuity Management (BCM) is concerned with managing risks to ensure that at all times an organisation can continue operating to. movement. Plan .Check . Capacity Management B. QUESTION 209: According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in order to ensure good performance. Act .Do . Plan . impact and priority assessment. Configuration Management D.Plan .Do . This is more than just an 'asset register'.Do C.Check . at least.Act D. and monitoring and tracking of incidents. Check . Financial Management for IT services Answer: C Explanation: Configuration Management is the implementation of a database (Configuration Management Database .Plan B. as it will contain information that relates to the maintenance.Plan .Do .CMDB) that contains details of the organisation's elements that are used in the provision and management of its IT services.Act. Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps? A. and problems experienced with the Configuration Items.Act .Act Answer: D Explanation: The Deming's quality circle is also known as Deming's PDCA circle.Check . A structured Incident Management processes includes classification. . Change Management C.

implementing the process C. Which step in this model must be taken first? A. whereas a project has a finite lifespan. measurement C. implementation Answer: C QUESTION 211: A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal. adjustment B. A process is continuous and has no end date. planning D. . describing the process D.EX0-100 QUESTION 210: The Deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality. What is the process owner responsible for? A. setting up the process B. QUESTION 212: What is the difference between a process and a project? A. the result of the process Answer: D Explanation: The process owner is responsible for the result of the process and has to actively work with improving the structure and flow of the process.

that the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently C. whereas with a process the result is important. QUESTION 213: What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management? A. A process stops when the objective has been achieved. whereas a project does not stop when the objective is met. Operational processes are those that continue ad infinitum and are typically sustaining in nature. QUESTION 214: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL? A. In a project the focus is not on the result. D. that the organization around the IT services can be set up faster D. C. Answer: A Explanation: Projects are objective-based and have clear start and end points (although I've been on some projects that never seemed to end. that the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services B. departments B. A project is continuous and has no end date.A process is a set of interrelated activities and/or subprocesses and/or (sub)stages with a common goal. the organization can begin to: . IT resources C.EX0-100 B. interrelated activities Answer: D Explanation: The definition of a process . officials D. that it is finally possible to charge for IT services Answer: B Explanation: By improving the processes around IT.Improve resource utilization .Decrease rework . whereas a process has a finite lifespan. and ITIL focuses on best practice (process) that can be utilized in different ways according to need.Be more competitive . but that's another story).

A Service Desk employee has been commissioned to relocate this department's workstations.Learn from previous experience .not just the people. customer and user demands .Document and communicate roles and responsibilities in service provision .EX0-100 .Improve availability. solving and restoring Answer: B QUESTION 216: In an organization. matching D. the purchasing department has relocated internally . In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role? .Integrate central processes . but also their IT resources.Provide demonstrable performance indicators QUESTION 215: Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident? A.Improve upon project deliverables and time . analysis and diagnosis B.Eliminate redundant work .Justify the cost of service quality . reliability and security of mission critical IT-services . classification C.Provide services that meet business.

Known Errors from Problem Management. IT service organizations (e. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management Answer: B Explanation: As shown in the figure there is a Request For Change that is sent to . components of the IT infrastructure (e.g. Problem Management D. scheduled and implemented. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management D. on the basis of which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs) B.EX0-100 A. Change Management B. hardware. What information is this? A. assessed. but is not limited to: 1.g. QUESTION 217: Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. planned for. Incident Management C. The scope of Change Management may include. organizational structure and procedures). IT services (SLAs) 3. RFCs resulting from Known Errors C. software and documentation) 2. Configuration Management Answer: A Explanation: Change Management provides a way of managing and controlling the way changes are initiated.

Availability Management requires an understanding of the reasons why IT service failures occur and the time taken to resume service. for example using an emergency power provision. measurement and management of IT services to ensure the stated business requirements for availability are consistently met. Change Management D. . Availability Management B. Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure? A.EX0-100 the Change Management process once a solution is defined for a Known Error. implementation. Incident Management and Problem Management provide a key input to ensure the appropriate corrective actions are being progressed. QUESTION 218: In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken. Capacity management C. Incident Management Answer: A Explanation: Availability Management is concerned with design.

Answer: A Explanation: The service desk is the single contact point for the customers to record their problems.Keeping customers informed on request status and progress . C. Incident Management D.Making an initial assessment of requests.Recording and tracking incidents and complaints . Service Desk Answer: D Explanation: The common Service Desk functions include: .Coordinating second-line and third line support QUESTION 221: Which activity is not a Service Desk activity? . B. It will try to resolve it. D.Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs .Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers . if there is a direct solution or will create an incident. The Service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available. Change Management B. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems.Identifying problems . first-line customer liaison . Customer Relationship Management C. The Service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned.Receiving calls. attempting to resolve them or refer them to someone who can . The Service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer. QUESTION 220: Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include distributing information to users? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 219: Which statement best describes the role of the Service Desk? A.

Service Desk D.Keeping customers informed on request status and progress . Release.Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs . QUESTION 222: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident? A. Service Level and IT Service Continuity Management. It handles incidents and service requests. applying temporary fixes Answer: B Explanation: The IT Infrastructure Library approach to a Service Desk acts as the central point of contact between service providers and users/customers. for other Service Management activities such as Change.EX0-100 A. Problem. The Service desk is the point of contact to the problem solvers and change managers but they do not perform these tasks themselves. Service Level Manager Answer: C Explanation: The common Service Desk functions include: . It is also a focal point for reporting Incidents and for users making service requests.Recording and tracking incidents and complaints .Receiving calls.Identifying problems . relating an incident to a Known Error D. attempting to resolve them or refer them to someone who can . as well as providing an interface. Which of the following is an incident? . solving a Problem C.Making an initial assessment of requests. first-line customer liaison .Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers . registering Incidents B. Configuration. Problem Management staff C. with users. on a day-to-day basis. Problem Manager B.Coordinating second-line and third line support QUESTION 223: The Service Desk receives different types of calls.

a system message that a printer is not working D. or may cause.EX0-100 A. a request to install a new bookkeeping package Answer: C Explanation: An incident is defined as: Any event which is not a part of the standard operation of a system that causes. Problem Management D. a notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer C. through to strategic decisions. or a reduction in. the quality of service. making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements D. QUESTION 224: Which of the following is a department rather than a process? A. it has been observed that the Service Request process followed by the service desk is in fact a process. such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system. QUESTION 225: One of Problem Management's tasks is to proactively prevent incidents. Change Management B. delivering second-line support. information about the rollout of a specific application B. Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. employing more Problem Managers Answer: A Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems. should problems occur C. The main . Service Desk Answer: D Comment: While ITIL suggests that the Service Desk is a function and not a process. analyzing reported incidents in order to make recommendations B. Incident Management C. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. Which of the following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as being proactive? A. an interruption to.

this part of the Problem Management process is used once the root cause for a problem is identified. Which activity needs to be carried out by Problem Management in order to achieve this? A. maintaining relations with suppliers D. is a vital part of the Problem Management process.EX0-100 activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action. Without the Error Control there would never be any solutions and closure of problems. Problem Analysis . QUESTION 227: Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified? A. or Error Control. ensuring the availability of the IT infrastructure B. QUESTION 226: One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimize the impact of problems on IT services. Work-around D. QUESTION 228: Which activity in the Problem Management process is responsible for generating Requests for Change (RFCs)? A. Incident B. Request for Change (RFC) Answer: B Explanation: Once the root cause for a problem is identified the problem is transferred into the Error Control part of the Problem Management process and the problem is classified as a Known Error (possibly with a work-around). managing Known Errors Answer: D Explanation: Managing Known Errors. Known Error C. giving second-line support when problems occur C.

Service Level Management Answer: C Explanation: Refer to the Problem Management process which shows you how it is divided into two parts. QUESTION 229: When the cause of one or more incidents is not known. Problem Management D. Error Control C.EX0-100 B. once a solution is produced a RFC is sent to Change Management prior to deploying the solution. Incident Management C. Which ITIL process is responsible for this? A. Proactive Problem Management Answer: B Explanation: Once a problem is classified as a Known Error it is transferred from Problem Control to Error Control. Capacity Management B. Within the Error Control activity the work with defining a solution to the Known Error starts. additional resources are assigned to identify the cause. One that works with problems with an unknown cause and . Monitoring D.

Availability Management C. IT Service Continuity Management B.EX0-100 one that works with known errors (problem with a known cause) QUESTION 230: Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors? A. Security Management D. Problem Management Answer: D .

D. QUESTION 232: Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management? A. The main activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action. registering frequently occurring errors C. B. Problem Management produces solutions and Change Management deploys the solutions throughout the organization.EX0-100 Explanation: Once a solution is defined for a known error in the Problem Management process a change proposal. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management. through to strategic decisions. When the problem has been resolved. is sent to the Change Management. such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system. QUESTION 233: . C. or Request for Change (RFC). Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. QUESTION 231: When is a Known Error identified? A. making a change to resolve a problem B. Once the change is committed the Problem Management process continues with a Post Implementation Review (PIR) and if the changes made solved the problem then the process continues to the Problem Closure stage. Remember. When the problem is known. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. When the cause of the problem is known. managing Known Errors Answer: C Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems. Answer: A Explanation: Once the cause is known for a problem the problem is classified as a known error and a work-around may be provided until a solution is produced and deployed. analyzing trends D.

QUESTION 234: Which of the following is an example of proactive Problem Management? A. through to strategic decisions. such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. a trend analysis C. Capacity Management B. QUESTION 235: How does Problem Management contribute to a higher solution percentage of first-line support? A. by preventing incidents D. by making a knowledge database available ." Therefore Problem Management should be responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors. Security Management Answer: C Explanation: In ITIL. by analyzing open incidents B. by evaluating incidents with the customer C.EX0-100 Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors? A. a change request Answer: B Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems. an urgent change D. Incident Management C. The main activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action. Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. Problem Management D. a "Problem" is defined as: "An unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents. a report regarding the Problem Management process B.

a Change Request B. providing information to the users Answer: C Explanation: Error control is all about finding the solution to a known error. classifying and defining the priorities of problems C. Information to users is provided through the service desk. and making them available to the service desk you empower tier one support to perform more diagnostic and repair tasks and freeing up tier three support for proactive management. a Problem D. a "Problem" is defined as: "An unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents. and classifying and defining the priorities is in the Problem Control part of Problem Management. a Service Call Answer: C Explanation: In ITIL. correcting Known Errors D. QUESTION 237: What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same characteristics? A. QUESTION 238: . checking problems and incidents B. QUESTION 236: What is the primary task of Error Control? A.EX0-100 Answer: D Explanation: By capturing all knowledge from solving problems into a knowledge database." If you have a series of incidents with the same characteristics they probably have the same underlying cause and in order to solve these incidents before they appear in the future you should send this to the Problem Management process in order to solve the cause of the problem. Checking problems and incidents. a Known Error C.

Incident C. Request for Change Answer: B Explanation: The reason for the call is the slow system which is an incident with an unknown underlying cause. Potential cost of non-resolution 6. Which term is applicable to this situation? A." What factors influence the Priority? 1. Customer Importance .com calls the Service Desk and reports that the system is slow. the relative importance of the incidents when handling them Answer: A Explanation: Impact and the Urgency of the Incident together decide the Priority.EX0-100 What is meant by the urgency of an incident? A.ie. a call from the CEO 4. Problem D. Urgency . the degree to which the solution of an incident tolerates delay B. He asks whether he can be given another PC like his colleague's. the degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service level C. a report that the printer is not working . Severity comes from the events that are identified by the monitoring tools. This is the measure of the impact to the business 2. Severity can be mapped directly to the "Impact to the Business. a question about where the manual is C.Severity of the Incident. Which of the following reports is an incident? A. Disruption of service to the customer QUESTION 239: Certkiller . Impact . information about the departure time of the train to London B. QUESTION 240: Reports of different types arrive at a Service Desk. Resources required to fix the issue 5.How much delay can be tolerated in fixing the issue? How quickly it should be resolved 3. Classification B. which is much faster. the time needed by IT Services to resolve the incident D.

an incident is active until service is verified as restored.The objective of Problem Management is to minimize the economic impact of service disruption by diagnosing the root causes of incidents. Availability management focuses on optimizing the capability of the IT infrastructure. QUESTION 241: Which ITIL process has the following objective? Correcting malfunctions in the services as quickly as possible by minimizing the consequences of the malfunctions. Incident Management D. services and supporting organizations to deliver a cost-effective and sustained level of availability that enables the business to satisfy its business objectives. Availability Management B. in order to minimize the number and impact of any related Incidents upon service. assign an incident number C. and permanent fixes. Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: The objective of Incident Management is to restore service as quickly as possible. a request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package Answer: C Explanation: ITIL terminology defines an incident as: Any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes. or may cause. Change Management C. perform matching D. determine the priority Answer: B . temporary fixes. Therefore. gathering information on known errors and by providing workarounds.The objective of Change Management is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes to controlled IT infrastructure.EX0-100 D. so that the user is hindered as little as possible. A. the quality of that service. an interruption to. record the incident data B. or a reduction in. QUESTION 242: What is the first step when registering an incident? A.

This ticket will also help tracing the incident through the various processes. Incident Management C. Security Management Answer: B QUESTION 244: Which of the following parties involved in an incident determines whether that incident can be closed? A. Problem Management D. Change Management B.EX0-100 Explanation: An incident number (or ticket) is assigned and given to the user who reports the incident so that he can return to check status on "his" incident. purchaser of the services B. QUESTION 243: Which ITIL process has the task of classifying incoming interruption reports? A. user C. employee of the Service Desk .

this is the expected availability of a component. Recoverability . problem analysis Answer: B Explanation: Escalation . QUESTION 245: What is the use of additional technical expertise in the Incident Management process called? A.Passing information and/or requesting action on an Incident.EX0-100 D. Reliability . Service Level Management C. Service Manager Answer: B Explanation: If the user is satisfied with the solution to an incident. Problem Management D. resolution and recovery of the incident D. QUESTION 246: Of which ITIL process are Reliability.Where a service is provided by a 3rd party organization. Serviceability and Maintainability components? A. then and only then.the time for which a component can be expected to perform under specific conditions without failure. can the incident be closed. functional escalation C. and includes the following elements: Serviceability . IT Service Continuity Management B.the time it should take to restore a component back to its operational . incident classification B. Problem or Change to more senior staff (hierarchical escalation) or other specialists (functional escalation). Functional Escalation is sometimes called Referral. Availability Management Answer: D Explanation: Availability is usually calculated on a model involving the Availability Ratio and techniques such as Fault Tree Analysis.

average uptime of a service B. Resilience .the ability of components to withstand breaches of security.Where a service is provided by a 3rd party organization. the degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied with Answer: C Explanation: Serviceability . QUESTION 247: What is the meaning of the term Serviceability? A.EX0-100 state after a failure. average downtime of a service C. this is the expected availability of a component.the ability to withstand failure. MTTR measures the time between the service interruption and service restoration.the ease with which a component can be maintained. the degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts D. average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period Answer: B Explanation: While MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) measures the time between failures. When changes are uncontrolled and unmanaged. average time between two consecutive incidents D. MTTR includes problem diagnosis and problem repair. QUESTION 249: Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an . QUESTION 248: What does Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) mean? A. the degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered B. Security . the degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer C. which can e both remedial and preventative. Maintainability . MTTR is dominated by problem diagnosis.

Availability Manager B. determining the hardware capacity required to support new (or adapted) applications Answer: D Explanation: Capacity Management is the discipline that ensures IT infrastructure is provided at the right time in the right volume at the right price. measuring the load that an application places on the hardware B. What is Application Sizing? A. All areas of a service must be measurable and defined within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) and therefore any planed configurations must be reported to the Availability Manager so that he can check the interruption against SLA's in use. Demand forecasting 6. and ensuring that IT is used in the most efficient manner. Problem Manager D. Modeling QUESTION 251: The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can . Resource forecasting 5. Application Sizing involves input from many areas of the business to identify what services are (or will be) required. checking how an application has grown C. keeping the capacity used by the applications up-to-date D. QUESTION 250: The Application Sizing activity is part of Capacity Management. Service Level Manager Answer: A Explanation: Availability Management is the practice of identifying levels of IT Service availability for use in Service Level Reviews with Customers. Workload monitoring 3. Application Sizing ITIL 4. Performance monitoring 2. and what the cost of this infrastructure will be. Incident Manager C. These are inputs into the following Capacity Management processes: 1.EX0-100 interruption of a Configuration Item? A. what level of Contingency will be needed. what IT infrastructure is required to support these services.

Configuration Management Answer: B Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner. Capacity Management C. QUESTION 253: Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application? A. Availability Management B. and how they will change over time) influence on demand for resources QUESTION 252: For what is Capacity Management responsible? A.EX0-100 be performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day. Demand Management Answer: D Explanation: Through Demand Management the Capacity Manager can (by understand the demands being made currently. What part of the Capacity Management process does this refer to? A. Maintainability D. Change Management D. Serviceability Answer: B Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner. . Security B. Modeling C. Application Management D. Resource Management C. Application Sizing B.

scheduling the Request for Change B. Security Management Answer: B Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner.m. Which activity is performed after acceptance of a Request for Change? A. Incident Management D. and 6 p. QUESTION 256: In Change Management. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased. QUESTION 255: The cash registers in a supermarket experience network disruptions daily between 4 p. Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time. Which ITIL process is responsible for solving these difficulties on a structural basis? A. Problem Management Answer: D Explanation: As this is a reoccurring incident it will be classed as a problem and the Problem Manager has to find the underlying cause of the network disruptions. Capacity Management C.EX0-100 QUESTION 254: An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information database.m. Availability Management B. a number of activities take place between the acceptance of a Request for Change and the completion of the change. Capacity Management C. to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient? A. building and testing the change . Change Management D. Availability Management B. to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future.

implementing the change Answer: C QUESTION 257: Where are the statuses of changes recorded? A.EX0-100 C. in the Change database Answer: A Explanation: As shown in the exhibit below. once a change is accepted it is sent to the Release Manager AND the Configuration Manager to be stored in the CMDB as . determining the urgency of the change D. in the Definitive Software Library (DSL) D. in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B. in the Known Error database C.

QUESTION 258: A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue. Service Level Management Answer: B Explanation: The case was registered as an incident with an obvious solution. Availability Management B. Configuration Management D. Availability Management plans for short interruptions in everyday work but do not act to solve an interruption once there is one. but they do not actually replace the hardware. the PC will be replaced within three hours. Service Level Management states how fast the users computer should be replaced. Change Management C. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced within three hours? A. QUESTION 259: . Configuration Management handles the CMDB and tells people how the hardware should be configured.EX0-100 the change is something that should always be implemented in the future. The solution is to exchange the hardware used by the user and therefore the incident process will hand over the case to the change process. but they do not configure the hardware themselves.

the Network Manager Answer: A Explanation: The goal of Change Management is to manage the process of change through standardized methods and procedures. the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is discussed. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. the Problem Manager D. thereby limiting incidents related to change and improving day-to-day operations. Only the Change Manager can determine the category of a specific change. a standard change C. the Service Desk Answer: A Explanation: Classification . Under whose leadership is this discussion held? A. Successful Change Management results in fewer incidents being generated before the process was implemented.EX0-100 Who decides the category of a change? A. the Service Level Manager C.Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. QUESTION 260: An organization plans on implementing a new network operating system. the customer C. Before the actual implementation takes place. the Service Manager D. a fast change B. an unplanned change Answer: C . the Change Manager B. an urgent change D. All changes must be approved by the change management process. the Change Manager B. QUESTION 261: How is a change that must be made quickly called? A.

What criterion defines a category for a change? A.A large number of urgent changes is a clear indicator that the Change Management process is not working properly. such as the change builder forgot to work on a previously requested change.Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. Change Management must check whether the new application functions properly. Change Management has the executive task in this phase. the consequences of the change such as limited. such as when the only way to get a customer back up during an Incident is to remove the root cause by performing a change. B. D. B. even if it is the Release Manager who releases (executes) the change. QUESTION 263: When implementing a new version of an application both Change Management and Release Management are involved. Urgent changes should not be initiated because of incompetence. etc. C. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. the Request for Change number that the change is assigned Answer: A Explanation: Classification . Answer: B Explanation: A Change Manager should manage and coordinate all change processes. the sequence in which the change is made D.EX0-100 Explanation: Urgent Changes . significant. QUESTION 264: . the speed with which the change is made C. substantial. QUESTION 262: Changes are divided into categories. What is the responsibility of the Change Management process here? A. Change Management draws up the change request for this. Urgent Changes should be reserved for special circumstances. or is being by-passed by some support groups. Change Management plays a coordinating role in this phase.

Service Level Management Answer: B . Change Advisory Board B. Service Request Answer: B Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes and replacements. and consequently to improve the day-to-day operations of the organisation. after careful consideration of known risks. in order to minimize the impact of Change-related Incidents upon service quality. Replacement Request B. The change manager evaluates Requests for Change (RfCs) in consultation with a Change Advisory Board (CAB). Request for Change C. The change manager also oversees the progress of the change process. which role is ultimately responsible for the entire process? A. QUESTION 265: In the Change Management process. Service Desk D. Change Management C. IT Manager Answer: C Explanation: The change manager is responsible for systematically implementing any changes. Change Manager D.EX0-100 What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? A. QUESTION 266: Which ITIL process is responsible for handling an application for a new workstation according to a standard working method? A. Request for Release D. Change Coordinator C. Incident Management B.

the CMDB (Configuration Management Database) B.The Projected Service Availability (PSA) contains details of changes to agreed SLAs and service availability because of the current FSC. Request for Change B.. PSA .. QUESTION 267: Where is the planning of changes kept up to date? A." QUESTION 269: Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT . and is the accepted solution to a specific requirement or set of requirements. Service Request C. Standard Change D. is relatively common. QUESTION 268: What is the term used for a fully described and approved Change that does not have to be evaluated by Change Management each time? A.a change to the infrastructure that follows an established path. SIP (Service Improvement Program) Answer: B Explanation: FSC The Forward Schedule of changes (FSC) contains details of all approved changes and their proposed implementation date.EX0-100 Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes. the FSC (Forward Schedule of Changes) C. Urgent Change Answer: C Explanation: The ITIL describes a Standard Change as ". Therefore they are also responsible for the change of the software on the workstation. the CAB (Change Advisory Board) D.

QUESTION 270: Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of the Change Advisory Board (CAB)? A. When the Continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum period of time mentioned in the Service Level Agreement. QUESTION 271: A power failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure. there is an ITSC Plan available. Change Management C.EX0-100 infrastructure? A. D. Fortunately. B. Problem Management Answer: B Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes and replacements. Availability Management B. . in order to minimize the impact of Change-related Incidents upon service quality. When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the ITSC Plan? A. Incident Management D. reports from Service Level Management B. ongoing or concluded Changes D. has exceeded. and consequently to improve the day-to-day operations of the organisation. the wishes of customers to implement Changes Answer: C Explanation: The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is a group of people who can give expert advice to the Change Management team on the implementation of Changes. the registration of Changes C. When the time within which the failure should be solved. C. When the Incident Manager thinks this is necessary. Immediately. as the IT service can no longer be used. This board is likely to be made up of representatives from all areas within IT and representatives from business units as well as any external parties that are deemed necessary.

Capacity Management C. Capacity Management B. . It is not just about reactive measures. IT Service Continuity Management D. QUESTION 272: Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures? A. Problem Management Answer: B Explanation: Continuity management is the process by which plans are put in place and managed to ensure that IT Services can recover and continue should a serious incident occur. IT Service Continuity Management C.reducing the risk of a disaster in the first instance. but also about proactive measures .EX0-100 Answer: B Explanation: The IT Service Continuity plan should be executed as soon as it is expected that normal functionality will not be up within the time stated in SLA's to minimize damages. Effective IT Service Continuity requires a balance of risk reduction measures such as resilient systems and recovery options including back-up facilities. Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: IT service Continuity Management is concerned with managing an organization's ability to continue to provide a pre-determined and agreed level of IT Services to support the minimum business requirements following an interruption to the business. QUESTION 273: Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which supplementary emergency measures must be taken? A. Service Desk D. Configuration Management data is required to facilitate this prevention and planning. Availability Management B.

It is not just about reactive measures. It can be used instead of an SLA. QUESTION 276: Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. Configuration Management B. It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement (SLA). IT Service Continuity Management C.EX0-100 QUESTION 274: Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure? A. B. D. C. It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization. of the services offered C. the technological developments that can affect the services offered . Actual components required in a Service Catalogue will differ depending on the business situation. the costs and expected revenue of the services offered B.reducing the risk of a disaster in the first instance. the company strategy D. Capacity Management Answer: B Explanation: Continuity management is the process by which plans are put in place and managed to ensure that IT Services can recover and continue should a serious incident occur. expressed in quantity and costs. QUESTION 275: Which of the following statements about the Service Catalogue is correct? A. It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA. This catalogue should list the services from a users perspective. the quality. but also about proactive measures . Problem Management D. Answer: B Explanation: Service Catalogue lists all of the services that IT provides to the business.

QUESTION 279: Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra .agreements between the customer and the Service Desk on the level of service provision delivered to the customer QUESTION 277: What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer? A. QUESTION 278: How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process? A. by reporting on all incidents Answer: B Explanation: The customer satisfaction level is the only way to determine if the Service Level Management process is working and delivering service according to the SLA. you still only report the violations. the level of availability realised and the time not available per period C. the successful and reverted Changes during a specific period Answer: A Explanation: The average utilization level of the Service Desk is not of interest to the customer as long as the SLA is not violated and even if a too high average utilization of the service desk could cause violations against the SLA. the percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target D. the average utilization level of the Service Desk B.EX0-100 Answer: B Explanation: Service Level Agreements (SLAs) . by measuring customer satisfaction C. by checking contracts with suppliers B. by defining service levels D. not the cause of the violation.

and introduces the possibility of negotiating improved services and/or reduced costs. Service Improvement Program (SIP) C. Incident Management D. Service Level Management Answer: D Explanation: Implementing the Service Level Management process enables both the customer and the IT services provider to have a clear understanding of the expected level of delivered services and their associated costs for the organization. monitoring of Service Levels C. QUESTION 280: Users have complained about the e-mail service. compilation of Service Level Reports D. Service Quality Plan (SQP) Answer: B Explanation: . Availability Management B. Service Level Management can be used as a basis for charging for services. and can demonstrate to customers the value they are receiving from the Service Desk. Service Catalogue B. It also assists the Service Desk with managing external supplier relationships. by documenting these goals into formal agreements. An evaluation of the service has been performed. defining Service Levels Answer: A QUESTION 281: Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service? A. adjusting of the service B. Which activity takes place after the evaluation of a service? A. Service Level Agreement (SLA) D.EX0-100 support of the Service Desk? A. Financial Management for IT Services C.

Availability Management B.Enhanced customer satisfaction . it will provide . Incident Management Answer: B Explanation: Configuration Management assists Change Management by recording which Configuration Item have been changed and controlling the status of Configuration Item throughout the entire Configuration Item lifecycle. guarding agreements with the customer D. customer and user demands .Services that meet business. Configuration Management ensures any changes made to Configuration Item s are recorded and kept accurate. guarding negotiations with the customer C. Configuration Management C.EX0-100 When the SIP is implemented.Consistent.Improved levels of service quality and agility in response to business requirements for change . acquiring customers Answer: C Explanation: During the "monitoring" activity the Service Level Manager verifies that the service delivered is according to the SLA agreed on. consistent and self-improving . identifying the needs of customers B.Increased productivity of business and Information Services staff . high quality support services. QUESTION 282: In the Service Level Management Process. QUESTION 283: Which ITIL process verifies that the modifications which have been made to the IT infrastructure have been properly documented? A. what happens during the activity called "monitoring"? A.Integrated centralised processes that are repeatable.Cost justified IT infrastructure and IT services .Detailed information on the performance of Information Services against Service Level targets . . Problem Management D.

This CI information is to be stored in a single repository the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). Availability Management B. Change Management D. What ITIL process should be set up in order to provide good insight into these consequences? A. leases.com company a specific component of the IT infrastructure has been modified. QUESTION 285: In the Certkiller . Traditional ITAM activities include the management of inventory. B. C. Capacity Management C.EX0-100 QUESTION 284: Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) includes both Asset Management and Configuration Management. Configuration Management makes an inventory of the Configuration Items and Asset Management registers them. procurement. maintaining. Answer: B Explanation: IT Asset Management is the discipline of managing finances. and contractual and regulatory compliance. The goal of Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. contracts and usage of IT assets throughout their lifecycles for the purpose of maintaining an optimal balance between business service requirements. controlling. vendors. warranties. Asset Management focuses exclusively on the book value and Configuration Management on the status of Configuration Items. and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs). This could have consequences for other components. Activities include identifying. total costs. What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management? A. D. budget predictability. Configuration Management Answer: D . software licenses. retirement and disposal. Configuration Management is a component of Asset Management. Asset Management monitors aspects such as depreciation and Configuration Management monitors aspects such as the relationships between the Configuration Items. cost accounting. so there are no differences between them.

QUESTION 287: Which ITIL process includes the activity of describing and registering all components in the IT infrastructure? A. Capacity Management B. the relationship between the different Configuration Items B.EX0-100 Explanation: Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. controlling. Configuration Management C. QUESTION 288: What is a baseline in the IT infrastructure? A. the location of the Configuration Item Answer: B Explanation: CIs should be recorded at a level of detail justified by the business need. Problem Management D. the depth of the database structure C. the quantity of stored Configuration Items D. the most important infrastructure (such as a network) to which all kinds of . and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs). Activities include identifying. QUESTION 286: What does the term 'detail level' mean in the context of the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs). maintaining. maintaining. Service Level Management Answer: B Explanation: Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. controlling. This gives the depth of the database. Activities include identifying.

this task is the recording of the status of all Configuration Items in the CMDB. status monitoring D. the Request for Change number for the Configuration Item D. the impact of the Configuration Item B. a standard configuration (such as a standard workstation) Answer: D Explanation: A baseline is a standard configuration recorded in the CMDB that you use as a starting point when. verification Answer: D Explanation: Configuration Management essentially consists of 4 tasks: Identification ..EX0-100 workstations and services can be linked B. the relationship to other Configuration Items C. QUESTION 290: Which data. Verification .. repairs to the Configuration Item . Control . planning C.this task involves reviews and audits to ensure the information contained in the CMDB is accurate. is recorded in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A. Status . QUESTION 289: For which of the following activities of Configuration Management are audits regularly implemented? A.com service ('must at least satisfy. creating a solution to a problem or testing a new software in a Change process.this is the specification. a document that states how the infrastructure must be dealt with in an organization (vision) C.') D. identification of all IT components and their inclusion in the CMDB.this is the management of each Configuration Item. and the maintenance of this information. for example. a minimum value for Certkiller . identification B. specifying who is authorised to 'change' it. for a new Configuration item (CI).

establishing the correct links in the Local Area Network B. Which members of staff of department X have moved to department Y? C. recording data regarding the PCs Answer: D Explanation: The CMDB that contains details of the organization's elements (such as workstations) that are used in the provision and management of its IT services. Impact.Documentation . QUESTION 291: A number of new PCs have been installed at a company's offices. What incidents or problems have there been for this PC? D. Which Configuration Items does a specific service consist of? Answer: B Explanation: The CMDB holds a much wider range of information about items that the organisation's IT Services are dependant upon.Software . "where" it is and how it is connected to other CI's. Only "what" it is. Which Requests for Change have been submitted for a specific server? B. making available the necessary user's manuals D. QUESTION 292: Which of the following questions can not be answered directly from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? A.EX0-100 Answer: B Explanation: The CMDB that contains details of the organization's elements that are used in the provision and management of its IT services. This range of information includes: .Personnel . For which of the following activities was Configuration Management responsible? A. installing software C.Hardware . RFC's and repairs should not be recorded here.

what should happen next? A. B. D. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC). When it is found that something went wrong when building a Change. monthly invoicing has come to a standstill. impact B. When it is found that something went wrong when scheduling resources. As a result. urgency Answer: A Explanation: Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. planning the change. This includes ensuring that there is a business reason behind each change. QUESTION 295: Release Management has distributed a defective Release. . content C. This has very radical consequences for the business and has been reported as an incident. QUESTION 294: When is a back-out plan invoked? A. Answer: B Explanation: Change Management is the practice of ensuring all changes to Configuration Items are carried out in a planned and authorised manner. When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a Change. and having a back-out plan should the change result in an unexpected state of the Configuration Item during the implementation. C. identifying the specific Configuration Items and IT Services affected by the change. When it is found that something went wrong when testing a Change. B. priority D. testing the change. According to ITIL best practices.EX0-100 QUESTION 293: What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a Request for Change? A. Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR).

description of relevant IT service and service levels. D. information must be gathered about various aspects of the release. drawing up a communication plan. communicating and preparing the release Answer: C Explanation: Policy and Planning .A document.EX0-100 C. Prior to planning a release. in case the change should result in an unexpected state of the Configuration item. such as product life cycle. constructing back-out and quality plans. authorization for relative RFCs. compiling the release schedule D. Answer: C Explanation: Every Change should have a back-out plan prior to implementation. designing and building a release B. Service Level Management will start a Service Improvement Program (SIP). QUESTION 297: The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number . QUESTION 296: What is the first activity when implementing a release? A. testing a release C. called the Release Policy. and more. Planning the release involves coordination. defining roles and responsibilities. etc. Release Management will implement the back-out plan. scheduling. is developed by the Release Manager and defines how and when releases are configured.

typically the Service Desk or Customer Relations. Training sessions may be required to aid users with the release. constructing back-out and quality plans. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Acceptance should be performed for each step of the release process and be submitted to Change Management for approval. building and configuring releases.Lack of testing is the most common cause for unsuccessful changes and releases. Configuration items within the release may come from internal or external bodies. etc.Personnel. such as product life cycle. Design. and purchasing plans for required hardware and software. performance and integration testing by the appropriate personnel. and more. called the Release Policy. documentation. Testing and Acceptance . Prior to planning a release. Problem Management D. Testing should include back-out plans. description of relevant IT service and service levels. authorization for relative RFCs. Incident Management C. Releases should undergo functional.EX0-100 of errors. Planning the release involves coordination. QUESTION 298: Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Software Library? . In either case. defining roles and responsibilities.A document. Release Management Answer: D Explanation: The steps involved in the Release Management process is: Policy and Planning . Building and Configuration . Rollout Planning . Configuration Management B. Distribution and Installation . Communication . is developed by the Release Manager and defines how and when releases are configured. the release can be rolled out and the relevant configuration changes can be integrated within the CMDB (see Configuration Management). information must be gathered about various aspects of the release. communicate the planned changes to users and the expected service impact. laboratory-based development testing along with appropriate operational documentation should be prerequisites before a release is considered available for implementation.Includes a detailed timetable of release events including staff responsibilities and action items.Standard and reusable procedures and documentation should be used for designing. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested? A. drawing up a communication plan. Once approved.Involves the distribution of software and supporting hardware identified and approved in the previous activities. operational. scheduling.

Service Level Management Answer: C Explanation: IT Financial Management is the discipline of ensuring IT infrastructure is obtained at the most effective price (which does not necessarily . software awaiting user acceptance testing Answer: C Explanation: Release Management works with Configuration Management to ensure that the CMDB is kept up to date and that all new software releases are stored in the Definitive Software Library (DSL). authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure D. copies of all software versions that are needed B. strictly controlled by Change and Release Management. QUESTION 299: Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definitive Software Library (DSL). Application Management B. Financial Management for IT Services D.EX0-100 A. Release Management Answer: D Explanation: Only authorized software should be accepted into the DSL. Availability Management B. What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the DSL? A. copies of all live software programs C. Capacity Management C. Configuration Management D. QUESTION 300: Which ITIL process is responsible for annually allocating the costs of Underpinning Contracts? A. All spare hardware components and assemblies are stored within the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS). Capacity Management C.

EX0-100 mean cheapest), and calculating the cost of providing IT services so that an organisation can understand the costs of its IT services. QUESTION 301:

Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation system? A. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. Financial Management for IT Services D. Service Level Management Answer: C Explanation: IT Financial Management is the discipline of ensuring IT infrastructure is obtained at the most effective price (which does not necessarily mean cheapest), and calculating the cost of providing IT services so that an organisation can understand the costs of its IT services. QUESTION 302:

Which activity in the ITIL process "Financial Management for IT Services" is responsible for billing the services that were provided to the customer? A. Accounting B. Budgeting C. Charging D. Reporting Answer: C Explanation: Charging provides the ability to assign costs of an IT Service proportionally and fairly to the users of that service. It may be used as a first step towards an IT organization operating as an autonomous business. It may also be used to encourage user to move in a strategically important direction - for example by subsidizing newer systems and imposing additional charges for the use of legacy systems. QUESTION 303:

Which ITIL process provides an insight, through the Modeling activity, into trends that could cause performance problems in the future?

EX0-100 A. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. Incident Management D. Service Level Management Answer: B Explanation: Capacity Management supports the optimum and cost effective provision of IT services by helping organizations match their IT resources to the business demands. The high level activities are: Application Sizing, Workload Management, Demand Management, Modeling, Capacity Planning, Resource Management, and Performance Management. QUESTION 304:

Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data? A. Availability Management B. IT Service Continuity Management C. Release Management D. Security Management Answer: D Explanation: A basic concept of the Security Management is the information security. The primary goal of information security is to guarantee safety of the information. Safety is to be protected against risks. Security is the means to be safe against risks. When protecting information it is the value of the information that has to be protected. These values are stipulated by the confidentiality, integrity and availability. QUESTION 305:

Where are agreements regarding Security Management recorded? A. in a Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B. in a Service Level Agreement (SLA) C. in a Definitive Software Library (DSL) D. in a Capacity Plan Answer: B Explanation: The goal of the Security Management is split up in two parts: 1. The realization of the security requirements defined in the Service Level Agreement

EX0-100 (SLA) and other external requirements which are specified in underpinning contracts, legislation and possible internal or external imposed policies. 2. The realization of a basic level of security. This is necessary to guarantee the continuity of the management organization. This is also necessary in order to reach a simplified Service Level Management for the information security, as it happens to be easier to manage a limited number of SLAs as it is to manage a large number of SLAs. QUESTION 306:

Which ITIL process handles the implementation of the policy for access management and access to information systems? A. Availability Management B. Incident Management C. Release Management D. Security Management Answer: D Explanation: The first activity in the Security Management Process is the "Control" sub-process. The Control sub-process organizes and manages the security Management process itself. The Control sub-process defines the processes, the allocation of responsibility the policy statements and the management framework.

QUESTION 307:

Which ITIL process ensures that the information that has been made available satisfies the specified information security requirements? A. Availability Management B. IT Service Continuity Management C. Security Management D. Service Level Management

the correctness of the data C. the capacity to verify the correctness of the data B. Furthermore. Capacity Management . the Plan sub-process contains activities that are related to the underpinning contracts which are specific for (information) security. Implement B. QUESTION 310: Which process should have prevented this from happening? A. Control Answer: C Explanation: The Plan sub-process contains activities that in cooperation with the Service Level Management lead to the (information) Security section in the SLA. Plan D. protection of the data against unauthorized access and use D. Which activity of Security Management leads to a security sub-clause in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. access to the data at any moment Answer: B Explanation: Integrity.Safeguarding the accuracy and completeness of information QUESTION 309: Security Management includes a number of sub-processes. The primary goal of information security is to guarantee safety of information. QUESTION 308: Which of the following describes the basic concept of Integrity in the Security Management process? A. Maintenance C.EX0-100 Answer: C Explanation: A basic concept of Security Management is the information security.

Testing. Implementation and Testing. Completion. Recording. Completion B. including the modifications. Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 311: What is a Delta Release? A. a program. Implementation.EX0-100 B. Service Level Management C. The request is to replace all desktop hard disks of brand X and type Y. Review Answer: A QUESTION 313: What is a Configuration Baseline? A. Recording. the relationship between Configuration Items (parent-child relationships) D. Configuration Management D. Building. Reporting D. a Release of only modified software or hardware Answer: D QUESTION 312: Problem Management has submitted a Request for Change (RFC) to Change Management. the recorded composition (snapshot) of a CI or group of CI's to be used as a reference B. Acceptance of Request for Change. Review. Testing. Reporting. a number of smaller improvements and fixes on Known Errors B. the CI level C. a Release with a longer period of stability for the user D. Scheduling. Testing. Implementation. Which sequential steps should be taken to carry out the change? A. Review. Scheduling. Implementation. that is distributed C. the starting point for testing new software Answer: A . Completion C.

Error Control B. registering all components in the CMDB C. Proactive Problem Management D. checking the CI-lifecycle B. ensuring that the contents of the CMDB remain up to date Answer: D QUESTION 315: Which of the following indicators is a performance indicator for the Problem Management process? A. Identification of root causes C. the time needed to implement solutions C. performing audits to check that the CMDB is accurate D. Problem Control Answer: C QUESTION 317: Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident resulting from an implemented change? . the time needed to solve problems D. the time needed to record problems Answer: C QUESTION 316: One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends. Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this? A.EX0-100 QUESTION 314: What is an example of the 'control' activity in the Configuration Management process? A. the time needed to compile a problem report B.

Configuration Management D.EX0-100 A. Service Level Manager Answer: C QUESTION 318: In which of the following activities are the priority and the category of a Change determined? A. Availability Management B. classifying a Request for Change (RFC) C. the Management Team C. registering a Request for Change (RFC) Answer: B QUESTION 319: What group will the Change Manager convene in case of a complex change in the IT infrastructure? A. the Problem Management D. the Change Advisory Board B. accepting a Request for Change (RFC) B. Capacity Management C. the Service Management Answer: A QUESTION 320: Which of the following processes is most closely related to Release Management? A. Change Manager B. planning a change D. Service Desk staff D. Service Level Management Answer: C . Problem Management staff C.

D. Availability Management B. Change Management D. Capacity Management C. B. C. This means that it took an average of two hours before the service. This means that in that month. after repairs. Answer: C QUESTION 324: . was made available to the user. Incident Management Answer: B QUESTION 323: The incident reports from the previous month indicate that the average recovery period was two hours. Release Management D. a randomly selected incident was remedied within two hours. Availability Management B. What does this mean? A. Configuration Management C. Financial Management for IT Services Answer: B QUESTION 322: Which process is responsible for recording the logical and physical relationships between the various components of the IT infrastructure? A. This means that incidents lasted an average of two hours during that month. This means that it took an average of two hours for the user to report the incident to the Service Desk.EX0-100 QUESTION 321: For which process is the Modeling activity a powerful instrument to make predictions about the behavior of the infrastructure? A.

Underpinning Contract Answer: B QUESTION 326: Which process provides input to Change Management for estimating the impact of a change? A. the inputs and outputs Answer: D QUESTION 325: In which of the following are the agreements on security between a customer and the IT organization recorded? A. Service Level Requirement D. Incident Management C. ITIL describes the IT Service Management processes. Configuration Management B. how the processes fit into the ITIL?framework D. Problem Management D. Service Level Agreement C. Release Management Answer: A QUESTION 327: Who is responsible for ensuring that security measures are followed during changes? A. the cost of implementing each process B. the activities.EX0-100 Among other things. What is always described with regard to the processes? A. the objective(s). the Release Manager D. the Board of Directors B. the Change Manager C. exactly how the activities must be carried out C. Service Improvement Plan B. the Security Manager .

Change Management B. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 331: What information is not required to set up a process? .EX0-100 Answer: B QUESTION 328: What is a purpose of a Post Implementation Review (PIR) of an implemented Change? A. Incident Management D. to check whether the intended goal has been achieved B. Configuration Management C. Service Level Management Answer: C QUESTION 330: Which process is aimed at restoring IT Services as soon as possible after the organization has been hit by a lengthy interruption? A. to determine which problems are related to the Change Answer: A QUESTION 329: What is the most common process that is associated with the Service Desk? A. to be able to complete the Change C. to be able to implement new Changes D. Capacity Management C. IT Service Continuity Management D. Availability Management B.

the desired results (output) Answer: A QUESTION 332: Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management? A. that negotiations can be held about the price of a service D. guaranteeing the Configuration Items are continuously updated Answer: B QUESTION 333: The Service Catalog for a network company states that LAN authorization requests will be complete within three weeks. that a budget is allocated to the IT organization every year C. Service Level Management Answer: D QUESTION 334: In Financial Management for IT Services. the process owner B.EX0-100 A. Change Management C. providing reports on availability D. Which process is responsible for providing this report? A. creating and maintaining recovery options C. the objective D. analyzing the Service Windows B. One of the managers within the client company does not believe that this is achievable and requests a report from the network company. the trigger (input) C. that a certain percentage of profit is made for each service or product . Problem Management D. that the amount of money the IT organization is spending is known and has been calculated (for each service) B. Availability Management B. what does the Accounting activity ensure? A.

Configuration Management D. Change Management B. Incident Management C. Security Management Answer: D QUESTION 336: Which process is responsible for establishing and maintaining a Known Error database? A. Change Management C. Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 338: What is a Known Error? . Incident Management C. Problem Management Answer: D QUESTION 337: Which process ensures that an interruption in the provision of services is diagnosed as quickly as possible? A. Problem Management D.EX0-100 Answer: A QUESTION 335: Which process is responsible for implementing and maintaining access security? A. Change Management B. Availability Management B. Release Management D.

Answer: D QUESTION 342: . a Problem that is resolved C.EX0-100 A. a Problem that cannot be matched Answer: C QUESTION 339: Which of the following factors partly determines the priority of an incident? A. the wishes of the customer Answer: C QUESTION 340: What is a distributed Service Desk? A. a serious incident that occurs often B. the category C. When Service Level Management determines the customer demand. a Service Desk that handles both technical and functional calls Answer: B QUESTION 341: What is Demand Management? A. C. the requisite resources B. a Service Desk that provides service 24 hours a day from a single location D. B. When Capacity Management determines and regulates the capacity demand. a Problem for which the cause is known and a Workaround has been identified D. When the Service Desk determines the information needs. a Service Desk that is located at multiple locations C. D. a Service Desk that has knowledge in several locations in a system B. the impact D. When Service Level Management determines the level of customer satisfaction.

the person who submitted the RFC Answer: B QUESTION 345: What is an Underpinning Contract? A. a contract with an external supplier . Security Management D. the recipient of the RFC D. Capacity Management B. Availability Management B. the Change Advisory Board B. the Change Manager C. Financial Management for IT Services C. IT Service Continuity Management D. Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 344: Who is responsible for accepting a Request for Change (RFC)? A. Which process could assist IT Service Continuity Management in ensuring this does not happen? A. a contract with an internal supplier D.EX0-100 IT Service Continuity Plans (ITSC Plans) are often forgotten and not being kept up-to-date for various reasons. Change Management C. Financial Management for IT Services Answer: B QUESTION 343: Which process pursues a charging policy of IT costs? A. a contract with an external customer C. a contract with an internal customer B.

Capacity Management C. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 347: Problem Management has researched a number of incidents and has come to the conclusion that they all follow the same pattern.EX0-100 Answer: D QUESTION 346: Which process ensures optimal and measurable availability of IT services? A. What should Problem Management do after the error has been acknowledged and registered as a Known-Error in the Known-Error database? A. All PCs freeze during a spelling check in a certain word processor when the documents concerned are larger than 150 pages. a Request for Change (RFC) must be submitted to Change Management B. The next version of the software. Incident Management . will correct the problem. the word processing software must be replaced by another package Answer: A QUESTION 348: Which process is responsible for keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date? A. the Service Desk must ask all users which replacement software they would like to use D. Change Management B. Configuration Management C. This means that the problem can only be solved at this moment by buying completely new software. Availability Management B. Release Management must remove all distributed versions of the word-processing software from the IT infrastructure C. IT Service Continuity Management D. due to be released next year. Inquiries to the supplier of the software have determined that the cause of the problem is a bug in the software.

a Standard Change Answer: C QUESTION 351: The rollout of an application software upgrade has been planned. Which process or function should have provided the back-out plan? A. Service Desk Answer: C QUESTION 352: . an Information Request B. Configuration Management C.EX0-100 D. feasible and/or necessary? A. What type of request does this involve? A. Change Management B. a Service Request D. However. Capacity Management D. a Request for Change (RFC) C. a back-out plan has not been developed. Release Management Answer: B QUESTION 349: Which process checks whether Requests for Change (RFCs) regarding the IT infrastructure are logical. Change Management C. Service Level Management Answer: A QUESTION 350: A user has forgotten his password and asks the Service Desk for a new password. Availability Management B. Release Management D.

As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory Board.EX0-100 Which process reports about software failures resulting from software changes? A. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been classified. D. Change Management B. Problem Management D. Availability Plan B. As soon as there is a correct network plan for the change. As soon as the Request for Change (RFC) has been formally authorized. Computer Installations and Acceptance C. Service Level Management Answer: B QUESTION 353: The Definitive Software Library (DSL) and the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) are terms used when distributing software and hardware. C. Configuration Management D. Incident Management C. Capacity Management B. Release Management Answer: D QUESTION 354: When can the building and testing of a Change begin? A. Which process is responsible for keeping the DSL and the DHS up-to-date? A. Capacity Plan C. Risk Analysis . B. Answer: C QUESTION 355: Which document or activity should be completed before a Recovery Plan can be formalized? A.

. deviations from the specified service levels B. Problem D. identifying problems B. Incident C.EX0-100 D. generating management information C. matching incidents D. updating the incident database Answer: D QUESTION 357: What is another name for a deviation from the standard operation of a service? A. Service Request Answer: B QUESTION 358: What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of an organization? A. growth of the IT infrastructure C. time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each department Answer: B QUESTION 359: A supplier of communication equipment offers the client a choice of three different maintenance contracts when purchasing a fax machine. Functional Request B. Security Plan Answer: C QUESTION 356: Which of the following is not one of the objectives of registering incidents? A. number of incidents per category D.

managing the Known Errors C. Safety Answer: B QUESTION 362: What is Error Control responsible for in Problem Management? A. Confidentiality C. Underpinning Contract Answer: C QUESTION 360: Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible? A. finding the root cause of the problem D. Operational Level Agreement B. Integrity D. implementing a solution for the error Answer: B . Availability Management B. tracing problems B.EX0-100 In which document will the external supplier register the client's choice? A. Service Catalog C. Incident management D. Problem Management Answer: C QUESTION 361: What do we call protecting information against unauthorised access and use? A. IT Service Continuity Management C. Availability B. Service Level Agreement D.

a change request Answer: D QUESTION 364: Which of the following is Proactive Problem Management? A. Capacity Management C. providing second-line support D. a risk analysis D. because otherwise Problem Management cannot work Answer: B QUESTION 366: Within which process is the term Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) used? A. Service Level Management . because this allows incidents to be better tracked D. drawing up a Capacity Plan Answer: B QUESTION 365: Why is it important that the Service Desk attempts to link an incident to a Known Error? A. because this means the incident can be resolved more quickly C. analyzing trends and identifying potential incidents C.EX0-100 QUESTION 363: What is one of the possible outputs of the Problem Management process? A. Availability Management B. a Service Level Agreement B. because this is part of the ITIL?management model B. IT Service Continuity Management D. analyzing incidents that have been reported and solving the underlying cause B. a modified Configuration Item C.

Service Catalog B. review the change B. be omitted for an urgent change: 1. investigate and diagnose. raise an RFC. classify. review the change D. Identify and record. investigate and diagnose. classify. IT Financial Management B. classify. raise an RFC. classify. identify and record C. serial number C. Identify and record. Recording that the change has been made . Availability Management Answer: A QUESTION 369: Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order: A. exceptionally. Incident Management D.EX0-100 Answer: A QUESTION 367: Which of the following is an example of a Configuration Item (CI)? A. supplier of an Underpinning Contract (UC) Answer: A QUESTION 368: With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to interface on a regular basis? A. investigate and diagnose. identify and record. Review a change. raise an RFC. Change Management C. location of a server D. Investigate and diagnose. raise another RFC Answer: A QUESTION 370: Which of the following activities may.

EX0-100 2. Testing the change 3. Holding a CAB meeting 4. Establishing a back-out plan A. All of them B. 2 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4 Answer: C QUESTION 371: Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers? A. The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT B. It's the only way to manage IT in the Internet age C. It's contained within the IT Infrastructure Library D. It's the first non-proprietary initiative for the management of IT systems Answer: A QUESTION 372: Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management process? A. The physical aspects of software control B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained C. Helping to determine the software release policy D. Distributing software Answer: B QUESTION 373: A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA: A. Covers all services for a particular customer B. Covers a set of similar services, for a single customer C. Covers all services D. Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service Answer: D

EX0-100 QUESTION 374: Possible problems with Change Management include: A. Greater ability to absorb a large volume of change B. Increased visibility and communication of changes C. Lack of ownership of impacted services D. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs Answer: C QUESTION 375: Which of these is/are TRUE? 1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process 2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents 3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff A. 1 and 3 B. All three of them C. Only 1 D. 1 and 2 Answer: A QUESTION 376: Who must always authorise a Request for Change before the change is built and tested? A. The Configuration Manager B. The Change Initiator C. The Change Manager D. Release Management Answer: C QUESTION 377: Why is there sometimes conflict between the goals of Incident Management and those of Problem Management? A. Because specialist support staff do not properly document the work-arounds they identify which consequently prevents the 1st line support staff from applying them the next time the incident occurs B. Because Problem Management is often carried out by technical staff who also have

EX0-100 operations responsibilities and who cannot allocate enough resources to problem solving C. Because Problem Management is focusing on identifying permanent solutions and therefore the speed with which these solutions are found is of secondary importance D. Because Problem Management staff rarely give feedback spontaneously, forcing the 1st line support staff to chase them Answer: C QUESTION 378: Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of a Service Level Manager? A. Analysing and reviewing agreed service levels B. Maintaining the service catalogue C. Negotiating requests for service D. Assessing the full impact of proposed changes to services Answer: D QUESTION 379: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Urgent and non-urgent changes follow the same Change Management process B. High risk, urgent changes should be considered by the CAB Emergency Committee C. Urgent changes need not necessarily be reviewed, unless there is time to do so D. The justification for urgent changes should always be based on sound business reasons Answer: C QUESTION 380: In Availability Management, Confidentiality and Integrity are elements of: A. Reliability B. Serviceability C. Security D. Maintainability Answer: C QUESTION 381: From a well-informed User's perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence in the management of a service failure?

K. Incident Management. Change Management. Leave it until the system is implemented and see if the system works O. B. When the Development Manager has completed testing and passes the system to Operations for operational testing D. Problem Management. Just before the system goes live Answer: B QUESTION 383: Which of the following is NOT a valid attribute of a hardware CI? A. Change Management B. As early as possible C. Incident Management.EX0-100 A. Budgeting C. Identification of costs by customer. The cost of the item C. Release Management. Incident Management. Release Management C. Problem Management Answer: B QUESTION 382: At what point should capacity requirements of a proposed system be first considered? A. A supplier's part number B. service or activity D. Performing cost-benefit analyses to support decision making Answer: B . Release Management D. Incident Management. Release Management. Change Management. Problem Management. Calculation of the costs of IT services B. Change Management. Problem Management. A manufacturer's serial number D. The number of items held Answer: D QUESTION 384: Which of the following activities are NOT part of IT Accounting? A.

classification. A quality standard in managing customer relationships Answer: A QUESTION 388: The stages in the Incident Management process are: A. resolution and closure D. Logging. A documented framework of proven best practices in Service Management B. investigation. detection. Improved user satisfaction B. classification. Logging.EX0-100 QUESTION 385: The major difference between a CMDB and an asset register is that CMDB holds information on: A. investigation. A prescriptive process for managing Service Improvement Projects C. resolution. classification. communication. recording. investigation. Detection. initial support. A methodology for supporting and delivering IT services D. Less disruption to both IT support staff and users Answer: B QUESTION 387: Which of the following definitions best describes the IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL)? A. resolution B. recovery. initial support. initial support. Software C. Elimination of lost incidents D. diagnosis. recording. classification. Documentation B. The IT environment D. recovery and closure C. Incident volume reduction C. Relationships Answer: D QUESTION 386: Which of the following is least likely to be a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process A. Detection. recording. allocation. recovery and closure .

Progress reporting B. Monitoring performance and throughput of individual IT components B.EX0-100 Answer: D QUESTION 389: Which of the following terms or phrases are associated with resilience? 1. Redundancy 2. 1. arbitrating and allocating resources D. 2. Fault tolerance 3. Purchasing resources for the IT Infrastructure D. All of them C. Tuning systems to make most effective use of IT resources C. Co-ordinating and directing activities. On-site spares 4. what would be the role of the organisation's senior managers? A. Leading the recovery teams C. 3 and 4 B. Executing recovery instructions Answer: C QUESTION 391: Capacity Management is responsible for ensuring the capacity of the IT Infrastructure matches the evolving demands of the business in the most cost effective and timely manner. 2 and 4 Answer: D QUESTION 390: If the IT Service Continuity plan had to be invoked during a crisis. Which of the following is NOT part of this responsibility? A. Duplexing A. Influencing customer behaviour to optimise the use of IT resources Answer: C QUESTION 392: . 1 and 4 D.

Staff B. Only 1 B. Business Impact Analysis. Initial testing. A mainframe purchase D. 1 and 2 Answer: A . Neither D. Accommodation rental Answer: C QUESTION 393: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Education and Awareness and Assurance B. Risk Assessment and Business Continuity Strategy Answer: D QUESTION 395: Which of these statements reflect the activities of IT Financial Management? 1. All known errors need to be resolved to user satisfaction C. A known error can be kept open when a work-around is being used D. IT Financial Management ensures that the IT department charges those who benefit from IT A. Only 2 C.EX0-100 Which of the following are NOT operational costs? A. Consultancy C. Review and Audit C. IT Financial Management may calculate the prices to be charged for IT services 2. If the root cause and a temporary work-around have been identified for a problem it becomes a known error B. Incidents are not the only source of known errors Answer: B QUESTION 394: The Requirements and Strategy phase of the Business Continuity Life-cycle comprises: A. Education and Awareness. Organisation and Implementation Planning and Risk Reduction Measures D.

The Forward Schedule of Change. Once all the changes have been fully tested. The reliability of the CIs B. The suitability of the available software to hold the information D. produced by Change Management B.EX0-100 QUESTION 396: During the release planning stage you identify that the changes you are about to make to a service will necessitate changes in related software systems. A Service Catalogue plus an understanding of the business criticality of each of the services C. Full Release B. A report produced by Incident Management detailing the incidents affecting IT Services over the last month Answer: B QUESTION 399: An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following? . The availability of spares for CIs Answer: B QUESTION 398: As part of your IT Continuity Planning you have been asked to undertake a comprehensive Risk Analysis. Delta Release Answer: B QUESTION 397: Typically the decision on what should be the lowest level of CI recorded is influenced mostly by: A. which type of release will be used to deliver them into the live environment? A. Package Release C. A list of Services and Operational Level Agreements D. The level at which components will be independently changed C. Emergency D. Which of the following is most likely to be of use to you in drawing up your plan? A.

An indirect cost D. Making more efficient use of processing capacity C. None of them D. A discounted charge B. Must be verified for accuracy monthly with trend reports on errors distributed to management quarterly Answer: C QUESTION 402: Which of the following is NOT a valid method of tuning? A. Holds information that will be useful to the majority of IT Service Management processes D. The definition of Service Management processes 4. A direct cost Answer: C QUESTION 400: Consider the following activities: 1. The analysis of raw data 2. Installing a new server D. Balancing workloads . All of them B. The market price C. 2 and 4 Answer: D QUESTION 401: The CMDB: A. The identification of trends 3.EX0-100 A. Balancing disc traffic B. The implementation of preventive measures Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool? A. 1. Is updated by Configuration Management staff at the end of each working day C. Must be available for update 7 x 24 if any of the services supported by the IT supplier are available 7 x 24 B. 2 and 3 C.

The full benefits will only be realised if regular reviews are undertaken with customers.EX0-100 Answer: C QUESTION 403: For an organisation implementing the ITIL IT Service Management processes which of the following statements is most accurate? A. The full benefits will only be realised if the business requirements are first ascertained and then the processes are implemented in an integrated way. What percentage of services are covered by SLAs? B. B. How many services are included within the CMDB? Answer: D QUESTION 405: Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management? A. Are service review meetings held on time and correctly minuted? C. Answer: C QUESTION 404: Which of the following would NOT be a performance measurement for the Service Level Management function? A. The full benefits will only be realised if Incident & Problem Management processes are implemented first. Verification B. Are customer perceptions of service improving? D. C. Security C. The full benefits will only be realised if all IT staff are fully qualified in IT Service Management. D. Maintainability Answer: A QUESTION 406: Which of the following statements is TRUE? . Reliability D.

A change may only be developed from non-definitive versions of software in the case of an urgent release Answer: B QUESTION 407: Which of the following metrics would you most associate with the Service Desk? A. 2. The number of high priority incidents occurring B. Lower insurance premiums 2. Better management of risk and the consequent reduction of the impact of failure A. The mean time between failure Answer: A QUESTION 408: Potential benefits from managing IT Service Continuity are: 1. 2 and 4 B. Fulfilment of mandatory or regulatory requirements 3. Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL B. 2 and 4 Answer: C . The number of problems solved in a day D. The DSL contains source code only D. Release Management is responsible for managing the organisation's rights and obligations regarding software C.EX0-100 A. Reduced business disruption in the event of a disaster 4. 3 and 4 C. 1. All of them D. The support team which resolves the greatest number of problems C.

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