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OBJECTIVE-TYPE QUESTIONS

General Awareness
Solved paper of U.P. PCS (Preliminary) Examination 2001
1. Assertion (A) : Woollen clothes keep us warm. 2. Growth promotion
Reason (R) : Wool fibres are made of a particular 3. Animal cloning
protein which is a bad conductor of heat. 4. Human cloning
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Of the above, that have been tried with certain amount
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of success include:
of A. (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
explanation of A. 10. Assertion (A) : A black hole is an astronomical entity
(c) A is true but R is false. that cannot be seen by telescope.
(d) A is false but R is true. Reason (R) : The gravitational field on a black hole is so
2. The length of its day and tilt of its axis are almost strong that it does not allow even light to escape.
identical to those of the earth. This is true of: Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Uranus (b) Neptune Codes:
(c) Saturn (d) Mars (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3. The milky way is classified as: explanation of A.
(a) Spiral Galaxy (b) Electrical Galaxy (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(c) Irregular Galaxy (d) Round Galaxy explanation of A.
4. Consider the following statements about (c) A is true but R is false.
haemoglobin: (d) A is false but R is true.
1. It contains iron. 11. Which of the following is/are used as biofertilizers?
2. It is a carrier of oxygen in the blood. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
3. It imparts red colour to the blood. 1. Azolla
4 It provides immunity against certain diseases. 2. Blue Green Algae
Of these statements: 3. Alfalfa
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 4. Nitrolin
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct Codes:
5. Which one of the following is not infotech (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
terminology: (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) cyberspace (b) upload 12. The energy of the sun is produced by:
(c) optical storage (d) modem (a) Ionisation (b) Nuclear fusion
6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched: (c) Nuclear fission (d) Oxidation
(a) Vikram Sarabhai Space — Sriharikota 13. Which one of the following is not correctly matched:
Centre (a) Decibel — unit of loudness of sound
(b) ISRO Satellite Centre — Thumba (b) Horse power — unit of power
(c) SHAR Centre — Bangalore (c) Nautical mile — unit of distance in
(d) Space Application Centre — Ahmedabad navigation
7. Which of the following is associated with potassium (d) Celsius — unit of heat
deficiency: 14. In which one of the following scientific fields Borlaug
(a) Kidney damage and paralysis of muscles award is given:
(b) Low blood pressure (a) Medicine (b) Space Research
(c) Anaemia (c) Agriculture (d) Atomic physics
(d) Pain in joints and blurred vision 15. The gas used in discharge tubes for optical decoration
8. In surgery, what is arthroplasty: and advertising is:
(a) Open heart surgery (b) Kidney transplant (a) carbon dioxide (b) ammonia
(c) Hip-joint replacement (d) Blood transfusion (c) sulphur dioxide (d) neon
9. Consider the following effects of genetic engineering: 16. The substances present at the centre of the sun are
1. Disease resistance in:

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OBJECTIVE-TYPE QUESTIONS

(a) solid, liquid and gaseous states reflection.


(b) liquid state only 2. In optical fibre communication system power
(c) gaseous state only consumption is extremely low.
(d) both liquid and gaseous states 3. Optical fibre communications are free from radio
17. Blank capsules used in dispensing are made of: frequency interference.
(a) egg-white (b) gum 4. In India, Reliance Group of Industries is engaged in
(c) starch (d) gelatine the manufacture of optical fibre.
18. Which one of the following is not an explosive: Of these statements:
(a) Trinitrotoluene (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(b) Trinitroglycerine (c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) Cyclotrimethylene Trinitramine 24. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
(d) Nitrochloroform matched:
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (a) Discovery of Meson — Hidiki Yukawa
matched: (b) Discovery of Positron — C.D. Anderson
(a) Fullerenes — organic compounds and U.F. Hess
containing fluorine (c) Theory of energy — H.A. Bethe
(b) Dry Ice — solid carbon dioxide production in the
(c) Keratin — protein found in the outer sun and stars
layer of human skin (d) Synthesis of — Enrico Fermi
(d) Mustard gas — poisonous liquid used in transuranic elements
chemical warfare 25. The vitamin which contains cobalt is:
20. Which hormone is known as ‘fight or flight’ hormone: (a) B1 (b) B2 (c) B6 (d) B12
(a) Insulin (b) Adrenaline 26. Who won Men’s Singles in U.S. Hopman Cup 2000:
(c) Estrogen (d) Oxytocin (a) Mahesh Bhupati (b) Leander Paes
21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer (c) Roger Federer (d) Michail Gambil
using the codes given below the lists: 27. Which one of the following is not a member of the
List I List II Ganga-Mekong Swarnbhoomi Cooperation Project:
A. Trishul 1. Anti-tank missile (a) India (b) Bangladesh
B. Prithvi 2. Intermediate range (c) Laos (d) Vietnam
ballistic system 28. Who won the Gold Flake Open Trophy 2001:
C. Agni 3. Short range surface to air (a) Byron Black (b) Barry Cowan
missile (c) Michael Tabara (d) Andrei Stoliarov
D. Nag 4. Surface to surface missile 29. The Plant Field Gene Bank at Banthra will:
Codes: (a) Preserve endangered varieties
A B C D (b) Check piracy of biodiversity
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) Identify economically important wild plants
(b) 4 3 2 1 (d) Take care of all the above
(c) 3 4 2 1 30. Who among the following is world’s first woman
(d) 2 1 4 3 cosmonaut:
22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer (a) Bachendri Pal (b) Junko Tabei
using the codes given below the lists: (c) Valentina Tereshkova (d) Sally Ride
List I List II 31. Who was the first woman among the following to
(Radioisotope) (Diagnostic use) become the Prime Minister of a country in the world:
A. Arsenic-74 1. Activity of thyroid gland (a) Benazir Bhutto (b) Indira Gandhi
B. Cobalt-60 2. Blood disorder (c) Margaret Thatcher (d) Srimavo Bandarnaike
C. Iodine-131 3. Tumour 32. According to the report of CAG appearing in the
D. Sodium-24 4. Cancer year 2000 on PDS, the government subsidy on food grains
Codes: increased from 1992-93 to 1998-99 by:
A B C D (a) more than two times (b) more than three times
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) more than four times (d) more than five times
(b) 4 3 1 2 33. The World Chess Championship 2000 was won by:
(c) 3 4 1 2 (a) Alexei Shirov (b) Vishwanathan Anand
(d) 4 3 2 1 (c) Alexander Khalifman (d) Kasparov
23. Consider the following statements: 34. While India’s human population is growing at an
1. Fibre optics is based on the principle of total internal astounding pace, the bird population is shrinking fastly

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OBJECTIVE-TYPE QUESTIONS

mainly because: (b) Voluntary Retirement Scheme


1. there has been an abnormal increase in the number of (c) Wishing bon voyage
hunters. (d) Receiving distinguished guests
2. bio-pesticides and organic manure are being used on 42. Who won the Legend Cup, 2000:
a large scale. (a) Bjorn Borg (b) Henri Leconte
3. there has been a large scale reduction in the habitats (c) Pot Cash (d) Vijai Amritraj
of the birds. 43. Karamchand Gandhi was a Dewan of:
4. there has been a large scale use of pesticides, chemical (a) Porbandar (b) Rajkot
fertilizers and mosquito repellents. (c) Wakaner (d) All the above States
Select your answer correctly using the codes given below: 44. Who one of the following persons called Irwin
Codes: and Gandhi as ‘the two Mahatmas’:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct (a) Mira Behn (b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 4 are correct (c) Madan Mohan Malviya (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
35. Which one of the following countries is not a member 45. The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna is:
of the Shanghai-5: (a) To augment road connectivity and provide food
(a) China (b) Kazakhstan grains to the poorest of the poor at cheaper rates
(c) Russia (d) Vietnam (b) To facilitate patrolling of the area to prevent misuse
36. ATF Asia Tennis Cup 2000 was won by: of electricity by unauthorised persons
(a) Leander Paes (b) Danai Udonchoke (c) To help the police to reach the place of crime more
(c) Hyung Taik (d) Lee swiftly to control crime-spurt
37. Who won Womens’ Singles in U.S. Hopman Cup 2000: (d) To develop community life in villages which are not
(a) Monica Seles (b) Martina Hingis well connected
(c) Anna Kournikov (d) Jalena Dokic 46. The two Indian families among the fifty richest in
38. Match the following Lists I and II and select the correct the world according to ‘Forbes billionaire list’ are:
answer from the code below: 1. Ratan Tata
List I List II 2. Azim Premji
(Authors) (Books) 3. Kumar Mangalam (Birla)
A. Mahatma Gandhi 1. India Divided 4. Dhirubhai Ambani
B. Ram Manohar Lohia 2. India Wins Freedom Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
C. Dr Rajendra Prasad 3. Hind Swaraj (a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
D. Abul Kalam Azad 4. The Wheel of History (c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) 2 and 4 are correct
Codes: 47. According to the report of CAG appearing in the
A B C D year 2000, per capita annual allocation of kerosene oil to the
(a) 1 3 4 2 following States was the lowest in the country. Select correct
(b) 4 3 2 1 answer from the codes given below:
(c) 3 4 1 2 1. U.P., Rajasthan, M.P.
(d) 2 3 4 1 2. Orissa, Bihar
39. Toilet revolution is: 3. Gujarat, Goa
(a) Construction of free public latrines in village 4. Punjab, Maharashtra, Delhi
Panchayats. Codes:
(b) Ending night soil collection by introducing flush (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
toilets in China. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
(c) A scheme of the Central government to make flush 48. ‘Global 500’ awards are given for achievements in:
toilets in each Nagar Nigam for the poorest of the (a) Population control
poor. (b) Campaign against terrorism
(d) To provide subsidy and loans by government to (c) Protection of environment
persons constructing flush toilets in villages and (d) Campaign against drugs
cities. 49. ‘Stri Shakti Puraskar‘ is given to woman for:
40. Which one of the following crops is the greatest 1. excellence in athletics
beneficiary of the Green Revolution in both production and 2. outstanding performance in games
productivity: 3. courage and enterprise for betterment of women
(a) Jawar (b) Maize (c) Rice (d) Wheat 4. contribution to the nation and the people
41. Which one of the following is referred to as the ‘Golden Select your answer from the codes given below:
Hand Shake’: Codes:
(a) Honouring VIPs (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

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OBJECTIVE-TYPE QUESTIONS

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Codes:


50. As a result of global warming there has been: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
1. Better global communication (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
2. Melting of glaciers 61. Moti Masjid in the Red Fort at Delhi was built by:
3. Flowering of mango trees before time (a) Akbar (b) Jehangir
4. Adverse impact on health (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: 62. Who among the following Mughal emperors wrote
Codes: his autobiography in Persian:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (a) Babar (b) Akbar
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (c) Jehangir (d) Aurangzeb
51. Aero-India, 2001, air show was conducted at: 63. Assertion (A) : Britain granted independence to India
(a) New Delhi (b) Chennai in 1947.
(c) Bangalore (d) Hyderabad Reason (R) : Britain was weakened in the World War II.
52. Which of the following has chosen Gross National Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Happiness as the index of progress: Codes:
(a) Sweden (b) Switzerland (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) Bhutan (d) Japan explanation for A.
53. Losoong is a festival which is celebrated in: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(a) Tibet (b) Arunachal Pradesh explanation for A.
(c) Sikkim (d) Kerala (c) A is true but R is false.
54. Given below is a list of traditional dresses of women (d) Both A and R are false.
along with States. Which one of them is not correctly 64. The INA was a brainchild of:
matched: 1. Giani Pritam Singh
(a) Boku — Sikkim 2. Mohan Singh
(b) Mekhala — Assam 3. Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Mundu — Chhattisgarh 4. Major Iwaichi Fujiwara
(d) Pheran — Kashmir Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
55. The first census in India during the British period Codes:
was held during the tenure of: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Lytton (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
(c) Lord Mayo (d) Lord Ripon 65. The most decisive battle that led to the establishment
56. Which one of the following was the first to impose of supremacy of the British in India was:
censorship of the Press: (a) The battle of Plassey
(a) Wellesley (b) Hastings (b) The battle of Buxar
(c) John Adams (d) Dalhousie (c) The battle of Wandiwash
57. MacDonald’s Communal Award did not provide (d) The third battle of Panipat
separate electorates and reserved seats in provincial legislatures 66. Alexander’s success in India was due to:
to: 1. There was no central power in India
(a) Muslims (b) Sikhs 2. He had a superior army
(c) Scheduled Castes (d) Buddhists 3. He received help from the traitorous Indian rulers
58. From the excavations of which ancient site 4. He was a good administrator
informations are gathered regarding brisk trade relations Select your answer from the following code:
between India and Rome during early centuries of Christian Codes:
era: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Madurai (b) Tamralipti (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) Tondi (d) Arikamedu 67. Which one of the following Sufis regarded Krishna
59. Persian translation of the Mahabharata is titled as: among the awliyas:
(a) Anwar-i-Suheli (b) Rajm Nama (a) Shah Mohammad Ghaus (b) Shah Waliullah
(c) Hasht Bahisht (d) Ayar Danish (c) Shah Abdul Azeez (d) Khwaja Mir Dard
60. Find the two main currencies of Sultanate period from 68. The Mughals borrowed the celebration of ‘Nauroz’
the codes given below: from:
1. Dam (a) Parsis (b) Jews
2. Jital (c) Mangols (d) Turks
3. Rupiya 69. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
4. Tanka with the help of the codes given below:

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OBJECTIVE-TYPE QUESTIONS

List I List II (a) Shipki La — Himachal Pradesh


A. Rigveda 1. Musical hymns (b) Lipu Lekh — Uttar Pradesh
B. Yajurveda 2. Hymns and rituals (c) Nathu La — Sikkim
C. Samaveda 3. Charms and spells (d) Jozila — Kashmir
D. Atharvaveda 4. Hymns and prayers 81. The world footballer of the year 2000 was:
Codes: (a) Diego Maradona (b) Sun Wen
A B C D (c) Pele (d) Zidane
(a) 4 2 1 3 82. Death rate in India in the year 2000, is estimated to
(b) 3 2 4 1 be:
(c) 4 1 2 3 (a) 16 per thousand (b) 14 per thousand
(d) 2 3 1 4 (c) 12 per thousand (d) 9 per thousand
70. In India the game of Polo was introduced by the: 83. Arrange the following States in descending order of
(a) Greeks (b) Englishmen per capita income of the year 1998-99 and select the correct
(c) Turks (d) Mughals answer from the codes given below:
71. The world famous rock cut Kailasa Temple at Ellora A. Maharashtra
was built by the: B. Gujarat
(a) Mauryas (b) Pallavas C. Uttar Pradesh
(c) Chalukyas (d) Rashtrakutas D. Punjab
72. Which one of the following Silsilas of Sufism was Codes:
against music: (a) DBAC (b) DACB (c) BDAC (d) ADBC
(a) Chishtiya (b) Suhrawardiya 84. Which one of the following is correctly matched:
(c) Qadiriya (d) Naqshbandiya (a) Mahatma Gandhi : Muk Naik
73. On November 1, 1858 Queen Victoria Proclamation (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak : Young India
was read out at Allahabad by: (c) Annie Besant : Commonweal
(a) Lord William Bentinck (d) B.R. Ambedkar : Kesari
(b) Lord Canning 85. The book “The Proudest Day” deals with the story
(c) Lord Burnham of:
(d) Sir Harcourt Butler (a) Integration of Indian States
74. What percentage of the education budget under 9th (b) India’s independence
Five-Year Year Plan has been allocated to primary education: (c) Pokhran nuclear explosion
(a) 33 per cent (b) 37 per cent (d) Formation of the NDA government at the Centre
(c) 47 per cent (d) 58 per cent 86. The prefix ‘Mahatma’ was added with the name of
75. Sustainable agriculture means: Gandhi:
(a) Self-sufficiency (a) during Champaran Satyagraha
(b) To be able to export and import under WTO norms (b) during the Satyagraha against Rowlatt Act
(c) To utilise land so that its quality remains intact (c) In the Amritsar Session of the Indian National
(d) To utilise waste land for agricultural purposes Congress 1919
76. The Budget 2001-02 has allocated to the PMGSY a (d) At the beginning of Khilafat movement
sum of: 87. Who was the first President of All India Trade Union
(a) Rs 1,800 crore (b) Rs 2,000 crore Congress:
(c) Rs 2,500 crore (d) Rs 3,000 crore (a) Dewan Chaman Lal (b) Lala Lajpat Rai
77. According to the Budget 2001-02 the largest central (c) N.G. Ranga (d) Swami Sahajanand
plan allocation is given to: 88. Kanpur Conspiracy Case was against leaders of:
(a) Energy sector (b) Social sector (a) Khilafat movement
(c) Transport (d) Rural development (b) Non-cooperation movement
78. As per the Budget 2001-02 the current fiscal deficit of (c) Communist movement
India is: (d) Revolutionary movement
(a) 4.7 per cent (b) 5.1 per cent 89. Of the following who was not a signatory to the
(c) 5.5 per cent (d) 6.1 per cent historic Poona Pact of 1932:
79. National Development Council is mainly concerned (a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) Madan Mohan Malviya
with: (c) C. Rajagopalachari (d) M.K. Gandhi
(a) Approval of five-year plans 90. On the first occasion, the Prime Minister of India was
(b) Implementation of rural development schemes appointed by:
(c) Preparation of development projects (a) The Governor General (b) The British Emperor
(d) Centre-State financial relations (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) The Viceroy
80. Which one of the following is not correctly matched: 91. The American publicist who was with Mahatma
1108 ■ JULY 2002 ■ THE COMPETITION MASTER
OBJECTIVE-TYPE QUESTIONS

Gandhi during his ‘Quit India’ movement was: (d) Economic and Social Planning
(a) Louis Fischer (b) William L. Shiver 100. The prestigious Asia Society held its first meeting
(c) Web Miller (d) Negley Farson in India in March 2001 at:
92. Find the correct sequence of the following events from (a) Bangalore (b) New Delhi
the codes given below: (c) Hyderabad (d) Kolkata
1. Chauri Chaura episode 101. Select the correct chronological order for the
2. Suspension of non-cooperation movement following Muslim rulers from the codes given below the
3. Bardoli resolution names:
Codes: 1. Ahmad Shah Abdali
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 1 2. Mohammad Shah
(c) 1, 3, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3 3. Jehangir
93. Assertion (A) : Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a 4. Bahadur Shah
Communalist. Codes:
Reason (R) : He used religion as a political weapon. (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
Select your answer using the codes given below: (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4
Codes: 102. Match List I with II and select your answer from the
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation code given below:
of A. List I List II
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (Articles of the (Subject matter)
explanation of A. Constitution)
(c) A is true but R is false. A. Article 40 1. Organisation of
(d) A is false but R is true. Village Panchayat
94. Who accused Indian National Congress of practising B. Article 41 2. Right to work
‘politics of pray, petition and protest’: C. Article 44 3. Uniform Civil Code
(a) Lala Hardayal D. Article 48 4. Organisation of
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak agriculture and
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose animal husbandry
(d) Sardar Bhagat Singh Codes:
95. The person who returned his token of Honour to A B C D
Government of India on May 30, 1919 was: (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) Jamnalal Bajaj (b) Tej Bahadur Sapru (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Rabindra Nath Tagore (c) 1 3 4 2
96. Which of the following Article/Articles read with (d) 3 2 4 1
the word ‘Socialist’ used in the Preamble of the Indian 103. Assertion (A) : The NDA government does not like
Constitution enabled the Supreme Court to deduce a discussion in Lok Sabha under Rule 184.
fundamental right to equal pay for equal work: Reason (R) : It provides for discussion and voting on the
(a) Article 14 motion.
(b) Articles 14 and 15 Select your answer using the codes given below:
(c) Articles 14, 15 and 16 Codes:
(d) Articles 14 and 16 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
97. Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, the total number of of A.
seats allotted to each province in the Constituent Assembly
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
was roughly in the ratio of one representative to the population
explanation of A.
of:
(c) A is true but R is false.
(a) 8 lakh persons (b) 10 lakh persons
(d) A is false but R is true.
(c) 12 lakh persons (d) 15 lakh persons
98. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with 104. Assertion (A) : Economic growth in India has
the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in connection generally remained stagnant for the last ten years.
with constitutional cases: Reason (R) : Food grains production has not increased
(a) Article 131 (b) Article 132 for several years.
(c) Article 132 read with Article 134 A Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
(d) Article 133 read with Article 134 A Codes:
99. Which one of the following is in the State list: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the reason for A
(a) Railway Police (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
(b) Corporation Tax (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) Census (d) A and R are false.
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OBJECTIVE-TYPE QUESTIONS

105. Which of the following causes have been mainly Codes:


responsible for the slow growth of real per capita income in (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
India: of A.
1. Rapid rise in population (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
2. Rapid rise in prices explanation of A.
3. Slow pace of progress in agricultural and industrial (c) A is true but R is false.
fields (d) A is false but R is true.
4. Non-availability of foreign exchange 114. Match List I with II and select the correct answer
Find correct answer from the code given below: using the codes given below:
Codes: List I List II
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (Industry) (Production Centre)
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of the above A. Jute Textile 1. Bhadohi
106. Which one of the following is an important tribe of B. Silk Textile 2. Ludhiana
the Dhauladhar Range: C. Woollen Hosiery 3. Bangalore
(a) Abor (b) Gaddi D. Woollen Carpet 4. Titagarh
(c) Lepcha (d) Tharu Codes:
107. Which of the following States is the largest producer A B C D
of mica in India: (a) 3 4 2 1
(a) Jharkhand (b) Karnataka (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) Rajasthan (d) Madhya Pradesh (c) 1 3 4 2
108. The industry for which Nepa Nagar is known is: (d) 4 1 3 2
(a) Cement (b) Fertilizer 115. Match List I with II and select the correct answer
(c) Handloom (d) Newsprint paper from the code given below:
109. Which one of the following cities is not connected List I List II
by National Highway No. 3: (State) (Atomic Power Station)
(a) Agra (b) Bhopal A. Gujarat 1. Narora
(c) Dhule (d) Gwalior B. Karnataka 2. Kakrapar
110. Which one of the following cities does not have the C. Rajasthan 3. Rawatbhata
special economic zone: D. Uttar Pradesh 4. Kaiga
(a) Chennai (b) Kandla Codes:
(c) Kochi (d) Surat A B C D
111. Which one of the following programmes is not (a) 1 2 3 4
included in the Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna: (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) IRDP (b) TRYSEM (c) 2 4 3 1
(c) DWCRA (d) JRY (d) 4 2 1 3
112. Match List I with II and select the correct answer 116. Assertion (A) : Coastal Gujarat has been called an
using the code given below: industrial workshop.
List I List II Reason (R) : It is dotted with manufacturing units of
(Forest) (Region) textiles and garments, pharmaceutical and
A. Tropical moist deciduous 1. Arunachal Pradesh petrochemicals.
B. Tropical dry deciduous 2. Sahyadris Codes:
C. Alpine 3. Middle (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
Ganga Plain of A.
D. Tropical wet evergreen 4. Tarai (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Codes: explanation of A.
A B C D (c) A is false but R is true.
(a) 4 3 1 2 (d) A is true but R is false.
(b) 4 2 1 3 117. Match Lists I and II and mark the correct answer
(c) 1 3 2 4 using the codes given below:
(d) 3 1 4 2 List I List II
113. Assertion (A) : The western region of U.P. is more (Places) (Minerals)
developed than the eastern U.P. A. Ankaleshwar 1. Iron ore
Reason (R) : It reflects their regional disparities in socio- B. Dalli-Rajhara 2. Petroleum
economic and infrastructural development. C. Koderma 3. Copper
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: D. Khetri 4. Mica

1110 ■ JULY 2002 ■ THE COMPETITION MASTER


OBJECTIVE-TYPE QUESTIONS

Codes: 129. The highest trophic level in an ecosystem is obtained


A B C D by:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) Herbivores (b) Cornivores
(b) 2 1 4 3 (c) Decomposers (d) Omnivores
(c) 4 3 2 1 130. Which one of the following States in India, has
(d) 3 2 1 4 recently introduced the ‘Greenhouse Farming’:
118. Which one of the following pairs of cities has recently (a) Haryana (b) Punjab
been connected by a six-lane express way: (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Ahmedabad and Vadodra 131. Which of the following statements are true for
(b) Dhaka and Chittagong bionomics:
(c) Islamabad and Lahore Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(d) Mumbai and Pune A. It literally means ‘management of life’.
119. Which one of the following statements is not true B. It is a synonym for ecology.
for laterite soils: C. It stresses on the value of natural systems which
(a) They are the soils of the humid tropical regions. influence human systems.
(b) They are highly leached soils. Code:
(c) Their fertility is low. (a) A is correct
(d) They are rich in lime. (b) A and B are correct
120. The ‘Bermuda Triangle’ lies in: (c) B and C are correct
(a) Western North Atlantic Ocean (d) All are correct
(b) Eastern South Atlantic Ocean 132. The missing numbers in the following series:
(c) North Pacific Ocean 4, 18, 8, 14, 12, 10 ... are
(d) South Indian Ocean (a) 6, 16 (b) 16, 6
121. When it is noon at IST meridian, what would be the (c) 8, 6 (d) None of the above
local time at 120° East longitude: 133. Which of the following will come next in the series
(a) 09.30 (b) 14.30 below:
(c) 17.30 (d) 20.00 KUZ, MOX, OIV, QET:
122. Which one of the following is correctly matched: (a) SUR (b) SAR
(a) Eskimo — Canada (c) SAQ (d) SDR
(b) Oran — Japan 134. Which of the following set is different from others:
(c) Lapps — India (a) 11, 3, 3, 17 (b) 41, 5, 3, 47
(d) Gonds — Africa (c) 71, 7, 3, 17 (d) 37, 14, 18, 7
123. The coniferous forests are not found in: 135. If ‘COLD’ is coded as DPME the code for CHINA
(a) Amazonia (b) Scandinavia will be:
(c) Canada (d) Finland (a) DHIMB (b) DJKMB
124. Which one of the following is not correctly matched: (c) DIJOB (d) DIJPB
(a) Fiji — Suva 136. A prime number n between 10 and 50 remains
(b) Finland — Oslo unchanged if its digits are reversed. Then the square of such
(c) Guyana — George Town a number is:
(d) Lebanon — Beirut (a) 121 (b) 484 (c) 1089 (d) 1936
125. As per World Development Report 2000, the highest 137. In a certain code, BEG = AM and GOD = 26; what
per capita income is in: number does BELL denote:
(a) Luxembourg (b) Switzerland (a) 29 (b) 30 (c) 31 (d) 32
(c) Norway (d) Japan 138. Suchitra is taller than Pushpa, but shorter than Malti.
126. What is the estimated replacement, reproduction Geeta is shorter than Viji and Viji is not as tall as Pushpa. Who
level per married couple to obtain zero population growth: will be in the middle if they stand in a row, according to their
(a) 2.0 (b) 2.1 (c) 2.6 (d) 3.0 height:
127. Which animal is the symbol of the World Wildlife (a) Malti (b) Suchitra
Fund: (c) Pushpa (d) Viji
(a) Tiger (b) Giant Panda 139. If ‘VICTORY’ be coded as ‘YLFWRUB’, how will
(c) Hornbill (d) White Bear ‘FAILURE’ be coded:
128. Which gas leaked out, in the Bhopal Gas Tragedy (a) JELOXUH (b) IDLOXUH
causing numerous deaths: (c) JDLKWUH (d) IDOLKUH
(a) Chlorine (b) M.I.C. 140. Assertion (A) : The Green Belt represents a planning
(c) Ammonia (d) Phosgene concept for controlling the physical expansion of large cities.

1111 ■ JULY 2002 ■ THE COMPETITION MASTER


OBJECTIVE-TYPE QUESTIONS

Reason (R) : It is an integral component of a city. (b) Japan, Russia, Brazil, Nigeria
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below: (c) U.K., Germany, Japan, Pakistan
Codes: (d) U.K., U.S.A., Japan, Bangladesh
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 148. The total fertility rate in India is the highest in:
of A. (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
explanation of A. 149. According to the Economic Survey 2000-01 the
(c) A is true but R is false. economic growth of India is:
(d) A is false but R is true. (a) 5.1 per cent (b) 5.5 per cent
141. Assertion (A) : Increase in the diversity of food webs (c) 6.0 per cent (d) 6.5 per cent
promotes ecosystem stability. 150. Assertion (A) : The Koyna region of Maharashtra is
Reason (R) : It increases the resilience of the ecosystem. likely to become more earthquake prone in near future.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Reason (R) : The Koyna dam is located on an old fault-
Codes: plane which may get activated more frequently with changes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation in water-level in Koyna reservoir.
of A. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Codes:
explanation of A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false. of A.
(d) A is false but R is true. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
142. Which one of the following Census decades has explanation of A.
witnessed the highest decadal growth of urban population in (c) A is true but R is false.
India: (d) A is false but R is true.
(a) 1941-51 (b) 1961-71
(c) 1971-81 (d) 1981-91 ANSWERS
143. Which of the following statements is not true as per 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c)
1991 Census: 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
(a) Maharashtra had the largest concentration of urban 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d)
population in India. 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b)
(b) Goa was the most urbanised State of the country. 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (d)
(c) Class IV towns had the highest number of urban 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
centres. 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d)
(d) Class I cities had the highest concentration of the 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d)
country’s urban population. 41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d)
144. Which of the following is the correct sequence in 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (b)
descending order of the persons, using as mother tongue: 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (d)
1. Bengali 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (d)
2. Marathi 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (b)
3. Tamil 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (c)
4. Telugu 71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (c)
Select correct answer using the codes given below: 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (b)
Codes: 81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (c)
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (a)
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3 91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (c)
145. The maternal mortality rates in Asia are the highest 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (b)
in: 101. (c) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (d) 105. (b)
(a) Bangladesh (b) India 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (b)
(c) Indonesia (d) Nepal 111. (d) 112. (a) 113. (a) 114. (b) 115. (c)
146. Which one of the following States of India is the 116. (a) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (a)
least densely populated: 121. (b) 122. (a) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (a)
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Sikkim 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (b)
(c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh 131. (c) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (d) 135. (c)
147. The population of Uttar Pradesh exceeds the total 136. (a) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139. (b) 140. (a)
population of each country of one of the groups given below: 141. (a) 142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (c) 145. (d)
(a) Germany, France, Indonesia, Brazil 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (c) 150. (b)

1112 ■ JULY 2002 ■ THE COMPETITION MASTER