# Contents

**TWO USEFUL SUBSTITUTIONS 2
**

ALWAYS CAUCHY-SCHWARZ 11

EQUATIONS AND BEYOND 25

LOOK AT THE EXPONENT! 38

PRIMES AND SQUARES 53

T

2

’S LEMMA 65

ONLY GRAPHS, NO SUBGRAPHS! 81

COMPLEX COMBINATORICS 90

FORMAL SERIES REVISITED 101

NUMBERS AND LINEAR ALGEBRA 117

ARITHMETIC PROPERTIES OF POLYNOMIALS 130

LAGRANGE INTERPOLATION 144

HIGHER ALGEBRA IN COMBINATORICS 166

GEOMETRY AND NUMBERS 184

THE SMALLER, THE BETTER 195

DENSITY AND REGULAR DISTRIBUTION 204

THE SUM OF DIGITS OF A POSITIVE INTEGER 218

ANALYSIS AGAINST NUMBER THEORY? 233

QUADRATIC RECIPROCITY 249

SOLVING ELEMENTARY INEQUALITIES WITH

INTEGRALS 264

1

TWO USEFUL SUBSTITUTIONS

We know that in most inequalities with a constraint such as abc = 1

the substitution a =

x

y

, b =

y

z

, c =

z

x

simpliﬁes the solution (don’t kid

yourself, not all problems of this type become easier!). But have you ever

thought about other similar substitutions? For example, what if we had

the conditions x, y, z > 0 and xyz = x + y + z + 2? Or x, y, z > 0 and

xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1? There are numerous problems that reduce

to these conditions and to their corresponding substitutions. You will

be probably surprised when ﬁnding out that the ﬁrst set of conditions

implies the existence of positive real numbers a, b, c such that

x =

b +c

a

, y =

c +a

b

, z =

a +b

c

.

Let us explain why. The condition xyz = x+y+z +2 can be written

in the following equivalent way:

1

1 +x

+

1

1 +y

+

1

1 +z

= 1.

Proving this is just a matter of simple computations. Take now

a =

1

1 +x

, b =

1

1 +y

, c =

1

1 +z

.

Then a + b + c = 1 and x =

1 −a

a

=

b +c

a

. Of course, in the same

way we ﬁnd y =

c +a

b

, z =

a +b

c

. The converse (that is,

b +c

a

,

c +a

b

,

a +b

c

satisfy xyz = x+y +z = 2) is much easier and is settled again by

basic computations. Now, what about the second set of conditions? If

you look carefully, you will see that it is closely related to the ﬁrst one.

Indeed, x, y, z > 0 satisfy xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1 if and only if

1

x

,

1

y

,

1

z

verify

1

xyz

=

1

x

+

1

y

+

1

z

+ 2, so the substitution here is

x =

a

b +c

, y =

b

c +a

, z =

c

a +b

.

2

So, let us summarize: we have seen two nice substitutions, with even

nicer proofs, but we still have not seen any applications. We will see

them in a moment ... and there are quite a few inequalities that can be

solved by using these ”tricks”.

First, an easy and classical problem, due to Nesbitt. It has so many

extensions and generalizations, that we must discuss it ﬁrst.

Example 1. Prove that

a

b +c

+

b

c +a

+

c

a +b

≥

3

2

for all a, b, c > 0.

Solution. With the ”magical” substitution, it suﬃces to prove that

if x, y, z > 0 satisfy xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1, then x + y + z =

3

2

.

Let us suppose that this is not the case, i.e. x + y + z <

3

2

. Because

xy + yz + zx ≤

(x +y +z)

2

3

, we must have xy + yz + zx <

3

4

and

since xyz ≤

x +y +z

3

3

, we also have 2xyz <

1

4

. It follows that

1 = xy +yz +zx + 2xyz <

3

4

+

1

4

= 1, a contradiction, so we are done.

Let us now increase the level of diﬃculty and make an experiment:

imagine that you did not know about these substitutions and try to

solve the following problem. Then look at the solution provided and you

will see that sometimes a good substitution can solve a problem almost

alone.

Example 2. Let x, y, z > 0 such that xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1.

Prove that

1

x

+

1

y

+

1

z

≥ 4(x +y +z).

Mircea Lascu, Marian Tetiva

Solution. With our substitution the inequality becomes

b +c

a

+

c +a

b

+

a +b

c

≥ 4

a

b +c

+

b

c +a

+

c

a +b

.

3

But this follows from

4s

b +c

≤

a

b

+

a

c

,

4b

c +a

≤

b

c

+

b

a

,

4c

a +b

≤

c

a

+

c

b

.

Simple and eﬃcient, these are the words that characterize this sub-

stitution.

Here is a geometric application of the previous problem.

Example 3. Prove that in any acute-angled triangle ABC the fol-

lowing inequality holds

cos

2

Acos

2

B+cos

2

Bcos

2

C+cos

2

C cos

2

A ≤

1

4

(cos

2

A+cos

2

B+cos

2

C).

Titu Andreescu

Solution. We observe that the desired inequality is equivalent to

cos Acos B

cos C

+

cos Bcos C

cos A

+

cos Acos C

cos B

≤

≤

1

4

cos A

cos Bcos C

+

cos B

cos C cos A

+

cos C

cos Acos B

Setting

x =

cos Bcos C

cos A

, y =

cos Acos C

cos B

, z =

cos Acos B

cos C

,

the inequality reduces to

4(x +y +z) ≤

1

x

+

1

y

+

1

z

.

But this is precisely the inequality in the previous example. All that

remains is to show that xy +yz +zx + 2xyz = 1. This is equivalent to

cos

2

A+ cos

2

B + cos

2

C + 2 cos Acos Bcos C = 1,

a well-known identity, proved in the chapter ”Equations and beyond”.

The level of diﬃculty continues to increase. When we say this, we

refer again to the proposed experiment. The reader who will try ﬁrst to

solve the problems discussed without using the above substitutions will

certainly understand why we consider these problems hard.

4

Example 4. Prove that if x, y, z > 0 and xyz = x +y +z +2, then

2(

√

xy +

√

yz +

√

zx) ≤ x +y +z + 6.

Mathlinks site

Solution. This is tricky, even with the substitution. There are two

main ideas: using some identities that transform the inequality into

an easier one and then using the substitution. Let us see. What does

2(

√

xy +

√

yz +

√

zx) suggest? Clearly, it is related to

(

√

x +

√

y +

√

z)

2

−(x +y +z).

Consequently, our inequality can be written as

√

x +

√

y +

√

z ≤

2(x +y +z + 3).

The ﬁrst idea that comes to mind (that is using the Cauchy-

Schwarz inequality in the form

√

x +

√

y +

√

z ≤

3(x +y +z) ≤

**2(x +y +z + 3)) does not lead to a solution. Indeed, the last inequal-
**

ity is not true: setting x+y+z = s, we have 3s ≤ 2(s+3). This is because

from the AM-GM inequality it follows that xyz ≤

s

3

27

, so

s

3

27

≥ s + 2,

which is equivalent to (s −6)(s + 3)

2

≥ 0, implying s ≥ 6.

Let us see how the substitution helps. The inequality becomes

b +c

a

+

c +a

b

+

a +b

c

≤

2

b +c

a

+

c +a

b

+

a +b

c

+ 3

**The last step is probably the most important. We have to change
**

the expression

b +c

a

+

c +a

b

+

a +b

c

+ 3 a little bit.

We see that if we add 1 to each fraction, then a +b +c will appear

as common factor, so in fact

b +c

a

+

c +a

b

+

a +b

c

+ 3 = (a +b +c)

1

a

+

1

b

+

1

c

.

5

And now we have ﬁnally solved the problem, amusingly, by employ-

ing again the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality:

b +c

a

+

c +a

b

+

a +b

c

≤

(b +c +c +a +a +b)

1

a

+

1

b

+

1

c

.

We continue with a 2003 USAMO problem. There are many proofs

for this inequality, none of them easy. The following solution is again not

easy, but it is natural for someone familiar with this kind of substitution.

Example 5. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c the

following inequality holds

(2a +b +c)

2

2a

2

+ (b +c)

2

+

(2b +c +a)

2

2b

2

+ (c +a)

2

+

(2c +a +b)

2

2c

2

+ (a +b)

2

≤ 8.

Titu Andreescu, Zuming Feng, USAMO 2003

Solution. The desired inequality is equivalent to

1 +

b +c

a

2

2 +

b +c

a

2

+

2 +

c +a

b

2

2 +

c +a

b

2

+

1 +

a +b

c

2

2 +

a +b

c

2

≤ 8.

Taking our substitution into account, it suﬃces to prove that if xyz =

x +y +z + 2, then

(2 +x)

2

2 +x

2

+

(2 +y)

2

2 +y

2

+

(2 +z)

2

2 +z

2

≤ 8.

This is in fact the same as

2x + 1

x

2

+ 2

+

2y + 1

y

2

+ 2

+

2z + 1

z

2

+ 2

≤

5

2

.

Now, we transform this inequality into

(x −1)

2

x

2

+ 2

+

(y −1)

2

y

2

+ 2

+

(z −1)

2

z

2

+ 2

≥

1

2

.

This last form suggests using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality to prove

that

(x −1)

2

x

2

+ 2

+

(y −1)

2

y

2

+ 2

+

(z −1)

2

z

2

+ 2

≥

(x +y +z −3)

2

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+ 6

.

6

So, we are left with proving that 2(x+y +z −3)

2

≥ x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+6.

But this is not diﬃcult. Indeed, this inequality is equivalent to

2(x +y +z −3)

2

≥ (x +y +z)

2

−2(xy +yz +zx) + 6.

Now, from xyz ≥ 8 (recall who x, y, z are and use the AM-GM

inequality three times), we ﬁnd that xy +yz +zx ≥ 12 and x+y +z ≥ 6

(by the same AM-GM inequality). This shows that it suﬃces to prove

that 2(s−3)

2

≥ s

2

−18 for all s ≥ 6, which is equivalent to (s−3)(s−6) ≥

0, clearly true. And this diﬃcult problem is solved!

The following problem is also hard. We have seen a diﬃcult solution

in the chapter ”Equations and beyond”. Yet, there is an easy solution

using the substitutions described in this unit.

Example 6. Prove that if x, y, z ≥ 0 satisfy xy +yz +zx +xyz = 4

then x +y +z ≥ xy +yz +zx.

India, 1998

Solution. Let us write the given condition as

x

2

y

2

+

y

2

z

2

+

z

2

x

2

+ 2

x

2

y

2

z

2

= 1.

Hence there are positive real numbers a, b, c such that

x =

2a

b +c

, y =

2b

c +a

, z =

2c

a +b

.

But now the solution is almost over, since the inequality

x +y +z ≥ xy +yz +zx

is equivalent to

a

b +c

+

b

c +a

+

c

a +b

≥

2ab

(c +a)(c +b)

+

2bc

(a +b)(a +c)

+

2ca

(b +a)(b +c)

.

After clearing denominators, the inequality becomes

a(a +b)(a +c) +b(b +a)(b +c) +c(c +a)(c +b) ≥

7

≥ 2ab(a +b) + 2bc(b +c) + 2ca(c +a).

After basic computations, it reduces to

a(a −b)(a −c) +b(b −a)(b −c) +c(c −a)(c −b) ≥ 0.

But this is Schur’s inequality!

We end the discussion with a diﬃcult problem, in which the substi-

tution described plays a key role. But this time using the substitution

only will not suﬃce.

Example 7. Prove that if x, y, z > 0 satisfy xyz = x + y + z + 2,

then xyz(x −1)(y −1)(z −1) ≤ 8.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Using the substitution

x =

b +c

a

, y =

c +a

b

, z =

a +b

c

,

the inequality becomes

(a +b)(b +c)(c +a)(a +b −c)(b +c −a)(c +a −b) ≤ 8a

2

b

2

c

2

(1)

for any positive real numbers a, b, c. It is readily seen that this form is

stronger than Schur’s inequality (a +b −c)(b +c −a)(c +a −b) ≤ abc.

First, we may assume that a, b, c are the sides of a triangle ABC, since

otherwise the left-hand side in (1) is negative. This is true because no

more than one of the numbers a+b−c, b+c−a, c+a−b can be negative.

Let R be the circumradius of the triangle ABC. It is not diﬃcult to ﬁnd

the formula

(a +b −c)(b +c −a)(c +a −b) =

a

2

b

2

c

2

(a +b +c)R

2

.

Consequently, the desired inequality can be written as

(a +b +c)R

2

≥

(a +b)(b +c)(c +a)

8

.

8

But we know that in any triangle ABC, 9R

2

≥ a

2

+ b

2

+ c

2

. Hence

it suﬃces to prove that

8(a +b +c)(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

) ≥ 9(a +b)(b +c)(c +a).

This inequality follows from the following ones:

8(a +b +c)(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

) ≥

8

3

(a +b +c)

3

and

9(a +b)(b +c)(c +a) ≤

1

3

(a +b +c)

3

.

The ﬁrst inequality reduces to

a

2

+b

2

+c

2

≥

1

3

(a +b +c)

2

,

while the second is a consequence of the AM-GM inequality. By com-

bining these two results, the desired inequality follows.

Problems for training

1. Prove that if x, y, z > 0 satisfy xy +yz +zx + 2xyz = 1, then

xyz ≤

1

8

and xy +yz +zx ≥

3

4

.

2. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c the following in-

equality holds

b +c

a

+

c +a

b

+

a +b

c

≥

a

b +c

+

b

c +a

+

c

a +b

+

9

2

.

J. Nesbitt

3. Prove that if x, y, z > 0 and xyz = x +y +z + 2, then

xy +yz +zx ≥ 2(x +y +z) and

√

x +

√

y +

√

z ≤

3

2

√

xyz.

4. Let x, y, z > 0 such that xy +yz +zx = 2(x +y +z). Prove that

xyz ≤ x +y +z + 2.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Mircea Lascu

9

5. Prove that in any triangle ABC the following inequality holds

cos A+ cos B + cos C ≥

1

4

(3 + cos(A−B) + cos(B −C) + cos(C −A)).

Titu Andreescu

6. Prove that in every acute-angled triangle ABC,

(cos A+ cos B)

2

+ (cos B + cos C)

2

+ (cos C + cos A)

2

≤ 3.

7. Prove that if a, b, c > 0 and x = a +

1

b

, y = b +

1

c

, z = c +

1

a

, then

xy +yz +zx ≥ 2(x +y +z).

Vasile Cartoaje

8. Prove that for any a, b, c > 0,

(b +c −a)

2

(b +c)

2

+a

2

+

(c +a −b)

2

(c +a)

2

+b

2

+

(a +b −c)

2

(a +b)

2

+c

2

≥

3

5

.

Japan, 1997

10

ALWAYS CAUCHY-SCHWARZ

In recent years the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality has become one of

the most used results in elementary mathematics, an indispensable tool

of any serious problem solver. There are countless problems that reduce

readily to this inequality and even more problems in which the Cauchy-

Schwarz inequality is the key idea of the solution. In this unit we will

not focus on the theoretical results, since they are too well-known. Yet,

seeing the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality at work is not so well spread out.

This is the reason why we will see this inequality in action in several

simple examples ﬁrst, employing then gradually the Cauchy-Schwarz

inequality in some of the most diﬃcult problems.

Let us begin with a very simple problem, a direct application of the

inequality. Yet, it underlines something less emphasized: the analysis of

the equality case.

Example 1. Prove that the ﬁnite sequence a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

n

of positive

real numbers is a geometrical progression if and only if

(a

2

0

+a

2

1

+ +a

2

n−1

)(a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

) = (a

0

a

1

+a

1

a

2

+ +a

n−1

a

n

)

2

.

Solution. We see that the relation given in the problem is in fact

the equality case in the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. This is equivalent to

the proportionality of the n-tuples (a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

n−1

) and (a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

),

that is

a

0

a

1

+

a

1

a

2

= =

a

n−1

a

n

.

But this is just actually the deﬁnition of a geometrical progression.

Hence the problem is solved. Note that Lagrange’s identity allowed us

to work with equivalences.

Another easy application of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality is the

following problem. This time the inequality is hidden in a closed form,

11

which suggests using calculus. There exists a solution by using deriva-

tives, but it is not as elegant as the featured one:

Example 2. Let p be a polynomial with positive real coeﬃcients.

Prove that p(x

2

)p(y

2

) ≥ p

2

(xy) for any positive real numbers x, y.

Russian Mathematical Olympiad

Solution. If we work only with the closed expression p(x

2

)p(y

2

) ≥

p

2

(xy), the chances of seeing a way to proceed are small. So, let us write

p(x) = a

0

+a

1

x + +a

n

x

n

. The desired inequality becomes

(a

0

+a

1

x

2

+ +a

n

x

2n

)(a

0

+a

1

y

2

+ +a

n

y

2n

)

≥ (a

0

+a

1

xy + +a

n

x

n

y

n

)

2

.

And now the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality comes into the picture:

(a

0

+a

1

xy + +a

n

x

n

y

n

)

2

= (

√

a

0

√

a

0

+

a

1

x

2

a

2

y

2

+ +

√

a

n

x

n

√

a

n

y

n

)

2

≤ (a

0

+a

1

x

2

+ +a

n

x

2n

)(a

0

+a

1

y

2

+ +a

n

y

2n

).

And the problem is solved. Moreover, we see that the conditions

x, y > 0 are useless, since we have of course p

2

(xy) ≤ p

2

([xy[). Addi-

tionally, note an interesting consequence of the problem: the function

f : (0, ∞) → (0, ∞), f(x) = ln p(e

x

) is convex, that is why we said in

the introduction to this problem that it has a solution based on calculus.

The idea of that solution is to prove that the second derivative of is non-

negative. We will not prove this here, but we note a simple consequence:

the more general inequality

p(x

k

1

)p(x

k

2

) . . . p(x

k

k

) ≥ p

k

(x

1

x

2

. . . x

k

),

which follows the Jensen’s inequality for the convex function f(x) =

ln p(e

x

).

12

Here is another application of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, though

this time you might be surprised why the ”trick” fails at a ﬁrst approach:

Example 3. Prove that if x, y, z > 0 satisfy

1

x

+

1

y

+

1

z

= 2, then

√

x −1 +

y −1 +

√

z −1 ≤

√

x +y +z.

Iran, 1998

Solution. The obvious and most natural approach is to apply the

Cauchy-Schwarz inequality in the form

√

x −1 +

y −1 +

√

z −1 ≤

3(x +y +z −3)

and then to try to prove the inequality

3(x +y +z −3) ≤

√

x +y +z,

which is equivalent to x + y + z ≤

9

2

. Unfortunately, this inequality is

not true. In fact, the reversed inequality holds, that is x + y + z ≥

9

2

,

since 2 =

1

x

+

1

y

+

1

z

≥

9

x +y +z

. Hence this approach fails. Then, we

try another approach, using again the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, but

this time in the form

√

x −1 +

y −1 +

√

z −1 =

√

a

x −1

a

+

√

b

y −1

b

+

√

c

z −1

c

≤

(a +b +c)

x −1

a

+

y −1

b

+

z −1

c

.

We would like to have the last expression equal to

√

x +y +z. This

encourages us to take a = x, b = y, c = z, since in this case

x −1

a

+

y −1

b

+

z −1

c

= 1 and a +b +c = x +y +z.

So, this idea works and the problem is solved.

We continue with a classical result, the not so well-known inequality

of Aczel. We will also see during our trip through the exciting world of

the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality a nice application of Aczel’s inequality.

13

Example 4. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

, b

1

, b

2

, . . . , b

n

be real numbers and let

A, B > 0 such that

A

2

≥ a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

or B

2

≥ b

2

1

+b

2

2

+ +b

2

n

.

Then

(A

2

−a

2

1

−a

2

2

− −a

2

n

)(B

2

−b

2

1

−b

2

2

− −b

2

n

)

≤ (AB −a

1

b

1

−a

2

b

2

− −a

n

b

n

)

2

.

Solution. We observe ﬁrst that we may assume that

A

2

> a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

and B

2

> b

2

1

+b

2

2

+ +b

2

n

.

Otherwise the left-hand side of the desired inequality is smaller than

or equal to 0 and the inequality becomes trivial. From our assumption

and the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we infer that

a

1

b

1

+a

2

b

2

+ +a

n

b

n

≤

a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

b

2

1

+b

2

2

+ +b

2

n

< AB

Hence we can rewrite the inequality in the more appropriate form

a

1

b

1

+a

2

b

2

+ +a

n

b

n

+

(A

2

−a)(B

2

−b) ≤ AB,

where a = a

2

1

+ a

2

2

+ + a

2

n

and b = b

2

1

+ b

2

2

+ + b

2

n

. Now, we can

apply the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, ﬁrst in the form

a

1

b

1

+a

2

b

2

+ +a

n

b

n

+

(A

2

−a)(B

2

−b) ≤

√

ab+

(A

2

−a)(B

2

−b)

and then in the form

√

ab +

(A

2

−a)(B

2

−b) ≤

(a +A

2

−a)(b +B

2

−b) = AB.

And by combining the last two inequalities the desired inequality

follows.

As a consequence of this inequality we discuss the following problem,

in which the condition seems to be useless. In fact, it is the key that

suggests using Aczel’s inequality.

14

Example 5. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

, b

1

, b

2

, . . . , b

n

be real numbers such

that

(a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

−1)(b

2

1

+b

2

2

+ +b

2

n

−1) > (a

1

b

1

+a

2

b

2

+ +a

n

b

n

−1)

2

.

Prove that a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

> 1 and b

2

1

+b

2

2

+ +b

2

n

> 1.

Titu Andreescu, Dorin Andrica, TST 2004, USA

Solution. At ﬁrst glance, the problem does not seem to be related

to Aczel’s inequality. Let us take a more careful look. First of all, it

is not diﬃcult to observe that an indirect approach is more eﬃcient.

Moreover, we may even assume that both numbers a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

−1

and b

2

1

+ b

2

2

+ + b

2

n

− 1 are negative, since they have the same sign

(this follows immediately from the hypothesis of the problem). Now, we

want to prove that

(a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

−1)(b

2

1

+b

2

2

+ +b

2

n

−1)

≤ (a

1

b

1

+a

2

b

2

+ +a

n

b

n

−1)

2

(1)

in order to obtain the desired contradiction. And all of a sudden we

arrived at the result in the previous problem. Indeed, we have now the

conditions 1 > a

2

1

+ a

2

2

+ + a

2

n

and 1 > b

2

1

+ b

2

2

+ + b

2

n

, while the

conclusion is (1). But this is exactly Aczel’s inequality, with A = 1 and

B = 1. The conclusion follows.

Of a diﬀerent kind, the following example shows that an apparently

very diﬃcult inequality can become quite easy if we do not complicate

things more than necessary. It is also a reﬁnement of the Cauchy-Schwarz

inequality, as we can see from the solution.

Example 6. For given n > k > 1 ﬁnd in closed form the best con-

stant T(n, k) such that for any real numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

the following

15

inequality holds:

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(x

i

−x

j

)

2

≥ T(n, k)

¸

1≤i<j≤k

(x

i

−x

j

)

2

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. In this form, we cannot make any reasonable conjecture

about T(n, k), so we need an eﬃcient transformation. We observe that

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(x

i

−x

j

)

2

is nothing else than n

n

¸

i=1

x

2

i

−

n

¸

i=1

x

i

2

and also

¸

1≤i<j≤k

(x

i

−x

j

)

2

= k

k

¸

i=1

x

2

i

−

k

¸

i=1

x

i

2

,

according to Lagrange’s identity. Consequently, the inequality can be

written in the equivalent form

n

n

¸

i=1

x

2

i

−

n

¸

i=1

x

i

2

≥ T(n, k)

k

k

¸

i=1

x

2

i

−

k

¸

i=1

x

i

2

¸

¸

.

And now we see that it is indeed a reﬁnement of the Cauchy-Schwarz

inequality, only if in the end it turns out that T(n, k) > 0. We also

observe that in the left-hand side there are n − k variables that do not

appear in the right-hand side and that the left-hand side is minimal

when these variables are equal. So, let us take them all to be zero. The

result is

n

k

¸

i=1

x

2

i

−

k

¸

i=1

x

i

2

≥ T(n, k)

k

k

¸

i=1

x

2

i

−

k

¸

i=1

x

i

2

¸

¸

,

which is equivalent to

(T(n, k) −1)

k

¸

i=1

x

i

2

≥ (kT(n, k) −n)

k

¸

i=1

x

2

i

(1)

16

Now, if kT(n, k) −n > 0, we can take a k-tuple (x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

k

) such

that

k

¸

i=1

x

i

= 0 and

k

¸

i=1

x

2

i

= 0 and we contradict the inequality (1).

Hence we must have kT(n, k) − n ≤ 0 that is T(n, k) ≤

n

k

. Now, let us

proceed with the converse, that is showing that

n

n

¸

i=1

x

2

i

−

n

¸

i=1

x

i

2

≥

n

k

k

k

¸

i=1

x

2

i

−

k

¸

i=1

x

i

2

¸

¸

(2)

for any real numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

. If we manage to prove this inequality,

then it will follow that T(n, k) =

n

k

. But (2) is of course equivalent to

n

n

¸

i=k+1

x

2

i

≥

n

¸

i=1

x

i

2

−

n

k

k

¸

i=1

x

i

2

.

Now, we have to apply the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, because we

need

n

¸

i=k+1

x

i

. We ﬁnd that

n

n

¸

i=k+1

x

2

i

≥

n

n −k

n

¸

i=k+1

x

i

2

and so it suﬃces to prove that

n

n −k

A

2

≥ (A+B)

2

−

n

k

B

2

, (3)

where we have taken A =

n

¸

i=k+1

x

i

and B =

k

¸

i=1

x

i

. But (3) is straight-

forward, since it is equivalent to

(kA−(n −k)B)

2

+k(n −k)B

2

≥ 0,

which is clear. Finally, the conclusion is settled: T(n, k) =

n

k

is the best

constant.

We continue the series of diﬃcult inequalities with a very nice prob-

lem of Murray Klamkin. This time, one part of the problem is obvious

17

from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, but the second one is not immedi-

ate. Let us see.

Example 7. Let a, b, c be positive real numbers. Find the extreme

values of the expression

a

2

x

2

+b

2

y

2

+c

2

z

2

+

b

2

x

2

+c

2

y

2

+a

2

z

2

+

c

2

x

2

+a

2

y

2

+b

2

z

2

where x, y, z are real numbers such that x

2

+y

2

+z

2

= 1.

Murray Klamkin, Crux Mathematicorum

Solution. Finding the upper bound does not seem to be too diﬃcult,

since from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality it follows that

a

2

x

2

+b

2

y

2

+c

2

z

2

+

b

2

x

2

+c

2

y

2

+a

2

z

2

+

c

2

x

2

+a

2

y

2

+b

2

z

2

≤

≤

3(a

2

x

2

+b

2

y

2

+c

2

z

2

+c

2

y

2

+a

2

z

2

+c

2

x

2

+a

2

y

2

+b

2

z

2

)

=

3(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

).

We have used here the hypothesis x

2

+ y

2

+ z

2

= 1. Thus,

3(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

) is the upper bound and this value if attained for

x = y = z =

√

3

3

.

But for the lower bound things are not so easy. Investigating what

happens when xyz = 0, we conclude that the minimal value should be

a +b +c, attained when two variables are zero and the third one is 1 or

−1. Hence, we should try to prove the inequality

a

2

x

2

+b

2

y

2

+c

2

z

2

+

b

2

x

2

+c

2

y

2

+a

2

z

2

+

c

2

x

2

+a

2

y

2

+b

2

z

2

≥ a +b +c.

Why not squaring it? After all, we observe that

a

2

x

2

+b

2

y

2

+c

2

z

2

+b

2

x

2

+c

2

y

2

+a

2

z

2

+c

2

x

2

+a

2

y

2

+b

2

z

2

= a

2

+b

2

+c

2

,

so the new inequality cannot have a very complicated form. It becomes

a

2

x

2

+b

2

y

2

+c

2

z

2

b

2

x

2

+c

2

y

2

+a

2

z

2

18

+

b

2

x

2

+c

2

y

2

+a

2

z

2

c

2

x

2

+a

2

y

2

+b

2

z

2

+

c

2

x

2

+a

2

y

2

+b

2

z

2

a

2

x

2

+b

2

y

2

+c

2

z

2

≥ ab +bc +ca

which has great chances to be true. And indeed, it is true and it follows

from what else?, the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality:

a

2

x

2

+b

2

y

2

+c

2

z

2

b

2

x

2

+c

2

y

2

+a

2

z

2

≥ abx

2

+bxy

2

+caz

2

and the other two similar inequalities. This shows that the minimal value

is indeed a +b +c, attained for example when (x, y, z) = (1, 0, 0).

It is now time for the champion inequalities. We will discuss two

hard inequalities and after that we will leave for the reader the pleasure

of solving many other problems based on these techniques.

Example 8. Prove that for any nonnegative numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

such that

n

¸

i=1

a

i

=

1

2

, the following inequality holds

¸

1≤i<j≤n

a

i

a

j

(1 −a

i

)(1 −a

j

)

≤

n(n −1)

2(2n −1)

2

.

Vasile Cartoaje

Solution. This is a very hard problem, in which intuition is better

than technique. We will concoct a solution using a combination between

the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality and Jensen’s inequality, but we warn the

reader that such a solution cannot be invented easily. Fasten your seat

belts! Let us write the inequality in the form

n

¸

i=1

a

i

1 −a

i

2

≤

n

¸

i=1

a

2

i

(1 −a

i

)

2

+

n(n −1)

(2n −1)

2

.

We apply now the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality to ﬁnd that

n

¸

i=1

a

i

1 −a

i

2

≤

n

¸

i=1

a

i

n

¸

i=1

a

i

(1 −a

i

)

2

=

n

¸

i=1

a

i

2

(1 −a

i

)

2

.

19

Thus, it remains to prove the inequality

n

¸

i=1

a

i

2

(1 −a

i

)

2

≤

n

¸

i=1

a

2

i

(1 −a

i

)

2

+

n(n −1)

(2n −1)

2

.

The latter can be written of course in the following form:

n

¸

i=1

a

i

(1 −2a

i

)

(1 −a

i

)

2

≤

2n(n −1)

(2n −1)

2

.

This encourages us to study the function

f :

¸

0,

1

2

→R, f(x) =

x(1 −2x)

(1 −x)

2

and to see if it is concave. This is not diﬃcult, for a short computa-

tion shows that f

tt

(x) =

−6x

(1 −x)

4

≤ 0. Hence we can apply Jensen’s

inequality to complete the solution.

We end this discussion with a remarkable solution, found by the

member of the Romanian Mathematical Olympiad Committee, Claudiu

Raicu, to the diﬃcult problem given in 2004 in one of the Romanian

Team Selection Tests.

Example 9. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

be real numbers and let S be a non-

empty subset of ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦. Prove that

¸

i∈S

a

i

2

≤

¸

1≤i≤j≤n

(a

i

+ +a

j

)

2

.

Gabriel Dospinescu, TST 2004, Romania

Solution. Let us deﬁne s

i

= a

1

+a

2

+ +a

i

for i ≥ 1 and s

0

= 0.

Now, partition S into groups of consecutive numbers. Then

¸

i∈S

a

i

is of

the forms

j

1

−s

i

1

+s

j

2

−s

i

2

+ +s

j

k

−s

i

k

, with 0 ≤ i

1

< i

2

< < i

k

≤ n,

j

1

< j

2

< < j

k

and also i

1

< j

1

, . . . , i

k

< j

k

. Now, let us observe that

20

the left-hand side is nothing else than

n

¸

i=1

s

2

i

+

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(s

j

−s

i

)

2

=

¸

1≤i<j≤n+1

(s

j

−s

i

)

2

.

Hence we need to show that

(s

j

1

−s

i

1

+s

j

2

−s

i

2

+ +s

j

k

−s

i

k

)

2

≤

¸

0≤i<j≤n+1

(s

j

−s

i

)

2

.

Let us take a

1

= s

i

1

, a

2

= s

j

1

, . . . , a

2k−1

= s

i

k

, a

2k

= s

j

k

and observe

the obvious (but important) inequality

¸

0≤i<j≤n+1

(s

j

−s

i

)

2

≥

¸

1≤i<j≤2k

(a

i

−a

j

)

2

.

And this is how we arrived at the inequality

(a

1

−a

2

+a

3

− +a

2k−1

−a

2k

)

2

≤

¸

1≤i<j≤2k

(a

i

−a

j

)

2

(1)

The latter inequality can be proved by using the Cauchy-Schwarz

inequality k-times:

(a

1

−a

2

+a

3

− +a

2k−1

−a

2k

)

2

≤ k((a

1

−a

2

)

2

+ (a

3

−a

4

)

2

+ + (a

2k−1

−a

2k

)

2

)

(a

1

−a

2

+a

3

− +a

2k−1

−a

2k

)

2

≤ k((a

1

−a

4

)

2

+ (a

3

−a

6

)

2

+ + (a

2k−1

−a

2

)

2

)

. . .

(a

1

−a

2

+a

3

− +a

2k−1

−a

2k

)

2

≤ k((a

1

−a

2k

)

2

+ (a

3

−a

2

)

2

+ + (a

2k−1

−a

2k−2

)

2

)

and by summing up all these inequalities. In the right-hand side we

obtain an even smaller quantity than

¸

1≤i<j≤2k

(a

i

− a

j

)

2

, which proves

that (1) is correct. The solution ends here.

21

Problems for training

1. Let a, b, c be nonnegative real numbers. Prove that

(ax

2

+bx +c)(cx

2

+bx +a) ≥ (a +b +c)

2

x

2

for all nonnegative real numbers x.

Titu Andreescu, Gazeta Matematica

2. Let p be a polynomial with positive real coeﬃcients. Prove that

if p

1

x

≥

1

p(x)

is true for x = 1, then it is true for all x > 0.

Titu Andreescu, Revista Matematica Timisoara

3. Prove that for any real numbers a, b, c ≥ 1 the following inequality

holds:

√

a −1 +

√

b −1 +

√

c −1 ≤

a(bc + 1).

4. For any positive integer n ﬁnd the number of ordered n-tuples of

integers (a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

) such that

a

1

+a

2

+ +a

n

≥ n

2

and a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

≤ n

3

+ 1.

China, 2002

5. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c,

1

a +b

+

1

b +c

+

1

c +a

+

1

2

3

√

abc

≥

(a +b +c +

3

√

abc)

2

(a +b)(b +c)(c +a)

.

Titu Andreescu, MOSP 1999

6. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

, b

1

, b

2

, . . . , b

n

be real numbers such that

¸

1≤i<j≤n

a

i

a

j

> 0.

Prove the inequality

¸

¸

1≤i,=j≤n

a

i

b

j

¸

2

≥

¸

¸

1≤i,=j≤n

a

i

a

j

¸

¸

¸

1≤i,=j≤n

b

i

b

j

¸

**Alexandru Lupas, AMM
**

22

7. Let n ≥ 2 be an even integer. We consider all polynomials of the

form x

n

+a

n−1

x

n−1

+ +a

1

x +1, with real coeﬃcients and having at

least one real zero. Determine the least possible value of a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +

a

2

n−1

.

Czech-Polish-Slovak Competition, 2002

8. The triangle ABC satisﬁes the relation

cot

A

2

2

+

2 cot

B

2

2

+

3 cot

C

2

2

=

6s

7r

2

.

Show that ABC is similar to a triangle whose sides are integers and

ﬁnd the smallest set of such integers.

Titu Andreescu, USAMO 2002

9. Let x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

be positive real numbers such that

1

1 +x

1

+

1

1 +x

2

+ +

1

1 +x

n

= 1.

Prove the inequality

√

x

1

+

√

x

2

+ +

√

x

n

≥ (n −1)

1

√

x

1

+

1

√

x

2

+ +

1

√

x

n

.

Vojtech Jarnik Competition, 2002

10. Given are real numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

10

∈

0,

π

2

such that

sin

2

x

1

+ sin

2

x

2

+ + sin

2

x

10

= 1.

Prove that

3(sin x

1

+ sin x

2

+ + sin x

10

) ≤ cos x

1

+ cos x

2

+ + cos x

10

.

Saint Petersburg, 2001

11. Prove that for any real numbers a, b, c, x, y, z the following in-

equality holds

ax +by +cz +

(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

)(x

2

+y

2

+z

2

) ≥

2

3

(a +b +c)(x +y +z).

Vasile Cartoaje, Kvant

23

12. Prove that for any real numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

the following in-

equality holds

n

¸

i=1

n

¸

i=1

[x

i

−x

j

[

2

≤

2(n

2

−1)

3

¸

n

¸

i=1

n

¸

j=1

[x

i

−x

j

[

2

¸

.

IMO 2003

13. Let n > 2 and x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

be positive real numbers such that

(x

1

+x

2

+ +x

n

)

1

x

1

+

1

x

2

+ +

1

x

n

= n

2

+ 1.

Prove that

(x

2

1

+x

2

2

+ +x

2

n

)

1

x

2

1

+

1

x

2

2

+ +

1

x

2

n

> n

2

+ 4 +

2

n(n −1)

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

14. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c, x, y, z such that

xy +yz +zx = 3,

a

b +c

(y +z) +

b

c +a

(x +z) +

c

a +b

(x +y) ≥ 3.

Titu Andreescu, Gabriel Dospinescu

15. Prove that for any positive real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

, x

1

,

x

2

, . . . , x

n

such that

¸

i≤i<j≤n

x

i

x

j

=

n

2

,

the following inequality holds

a

1

a

2

+ +a

n

(x

2

+ +x

n

) + +

a

n

a

1

+ +a

n−1

(x

1

+ +x

n−1

) ≥ n.

Vasile Cartoaje, Gabriel Dospinescu

24

EQUATIONS AND BEYOND

Real equations with multiple unknowns have in general inﬁnitely

many solutions if they are solvable. In this case, an important task char-

acterizing the set of solutions by using parameters. We are going to

discuss two real equations and two parameterizations, but we will go

beyond, showing how a simple idea can generate lots of nice problems,

some of them really diﬃcult.

We begin this discussion with a problem. It may seem unusual, but

this problem is in fact the introduction that leads to the other themes

in this discussion.

Example 1. Consider three real numbers a, b, c such that abc = 1

and write

x = a +

1

a

, y = b +

1

b

, z = c +

1

c

(1)

Find an algebraic relation between x, y, z, independent of a, b, c.

Of course, without any ideas, one would solve the equations from

(1) with respect to a, b, c and then substitute the results in the relation

abc = 1. But this is a mathematical crime! Here is a nice idea. To

generate a relation involving x, y, z, we compute the product

xyz =

a +

1

a

b +

1

b

c +

1

c

=

a

2

+

1

a

2

+

b

2

+

1

b

2

+

c

2

+

1

c

2

+ 2

= (x

2

−2) + (y

2

−2) + (z

2

−2) + 2.

Thus,

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

−xyz = 4 (2)

and this is the answer to the problem.

Now, another question appears: is the converse true? Obviously not

(take for example the numbers (x, y, z) = (1, 1, −1)). But looking again

25

at (1), we see that we must have min¦[x[, [y[, [z[¦ ≥ 2. We will prove the

following result.

Example 2. Let x, y, z be real numbers with max¦[x[, [y[, [z[¦ > 2.

Prove that there exist real numbers a, b, c with abc = 1 satisfying (1).

Whenever we have a condition of the form max¦[x[, [y[, [z[¦ > 2, it is

better to make a choice. Here, let us take [x[ > 2. This shows that there

exists a nonzero real number u such that x = u+

1

u

, (we have used here

the condition [x[ > 2). Now, let us regard (2) as a second degree equation

with respect to z. Since this equation has real roots, the discriminant

must be nonnegative, which means that (x

2

−4)(y

2

−4) ≥ 0. But since

[x[ > 2, we ﬁnd that y

2

≥ 4 and so there exist a non-zero real number

v for which y = v +

1

v

. How do we ﬁnd the corresponding z? Simply by

solving the second degree equation. We ﬁnd two solutions:

z

1

= uv +

1

uv

, z

2

=

u

v

+

v

u

and now we are almost done. If z = uv+

1

uv

we take (a, b, c) =

u, v,

1

uv

and if z =

u

v

+

v

u

, then we take (a, b, c) =

1

u

, v,

u

v

**. All the conditions
**

are satisﬁed and the problem is solved.

A direct consequence of the previous problem is the following:

If x, y, z > 0 are real numbers that verify (2), then there exist

α, β, χ ∈ R such that

x = 2ch(α), y = 2ch(β), z = 2ch(χ),

where ch : R → (0, ∞), ch(x) =

e

x

+e

−x

2

. Indeed, we write (1), in

which this time it is clear that a, b, c > 0 and we take α = ln a, β = ln b,

χ = ln c.

Inspired by the previous equation, let us consider another one

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+xyz = 4, (3)

26

where x, y, z > 0. We will prove that the set of solutions of this equation

is the set of triples (2 cos A, 2 cos B, 2 cos C) where A, B, C are the angles

of an acute triangle. First, let us prove that all these triples are solutions.

This reduces to the identity

cos

2

A+ cos

2

B + cos

2

C + 2 cos Acos Bcos C = 1.

This identity can be proved readily by using the sum-to-product

formulas, but here is a nice proof employing geometry and linear algebra.

We know that in any triangle we have the relations

a = c cos B +b cos C

b = a cos C +c cos A

c = b cos A+a cos B

which are simple consequences of the Law of Cosines. Now, let us con-

sider the system

x −y cos C −z cos B = 0

−xcos C +y −z cos A = 0

−xcos B +y cos A−z = 0

From the above observation, it follows that this system has a non-

trivial solution, that is (a, b, c) and so we must have

1 −cos C −cos B

−cos C 1 −cos A

−cos B −cos A 1

= 0,

which expanded gives

cos

2

A+ cos

2

B + cos

2

C + 2 cos Acos Bcos C = 1.

For the converse, we see ﬁrst that 0 < x, y, z < 2, hence there are

numbers A, B ∈

0,

π

2

**such that x = 2 cos A, y = 2 cos B. Solving the
**

equation with respect to z and taking into account that z ∈ (0, 2) we

27

obtain z = −2 cos(A + B). Thus we can take C = π − A − B and we

will have (x, y, z) = (2 cos A, 2 cos B, 2 cos C). All in all we have solved

the following problem.

Example 3. The positive real numbers x, y, z satisfy (3) if and only

if there exists an acute-angled triangle ABC such that

x = 2 cos A, y = 2 cos B, z = 2 cos C.

With the introduction and the easy problems over it is now time to

see some nice applications of the above results.

Example 4. Let x, y, z > 2 satisfying (2). We deﬁne the sequences

(a

n

)

n≥1

, (b

n

)

n≥1

, (c

n

)

n≥1

by

a

n+1

=

a

2

n

+x

2

−4

a

n−1

, b

n+1

=

b

2

n

+y

2

−4

b

n−1

, c

n+1

=

c

2

n

+z

2

−4

c

n−1

,

with a

1

= x, b

1

= y, c

1

= z and a

2

= x

2

− 2, b

2

= y

2

− 2, c

2

= z

2

− 2.

Prove that for all n ≥ 1 the triple (a

n

, b

n

, c

n

) also satisﬁes (2).

Solution. Let us write x = a+

1

a

, y = b+

1

b

, z = c+

1

c

, with abc = 1.

Then

a

2

= a

2

+

1

a

2

, b

2

= b

2

+

1

b

2

, c

2

= c

2

+

1

c

2

.

So, a reasonable conjecture is that

(a

n

, b

n

, c

n

) =

a

n

+

1

a

n

, b

n

+

1

b

n

, c

n

+

1

c

n

.

Indeed, this follows by induction from

a

n

+

1

a

n

2

+a

2

+

1

a

2

−2

a

n−1

+

1

a

n−1

= a

n+1

+

1

a

n+1

and two similar identities. We have established that

(a

n

, b

n

, c

n

) =

a

n

+

1

a

n

, b

n

+

1

b

n

, c

n

+

1

c

n

28

But if abc = 1, then certainly a

n

b

n

c

n

= 1, which shows that indeed

the triple (a

n

, b

n

, c

n

) satisﬁes (2).

The following problem is a nice characterization of the equation (2)

by polynomials and also teaches us some things about polynomials in

two or three variables.

Example 5. Find all polynomials f(x, y, z) with real coeﬃcients

such that

f

a +

1

a

, b +

1

b

, c +

1

c

= 0

whenever abc = 1.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. From the introduction, it is now clear that the polyno-

mials divisible by x

2

+ y

2

+ z

2

− xyz − 4 are solutions to the problem.

But it is not obvious why any desired polynomial should be of this form.

To show this, we use the classical polynomial long division. There are

polynomials g(x, y, z), h(y, z), k(y, z) with real coeﬃcients such that

f(x, y, z) = (x

2

+y

2

+z

2

−xyz −4)g(x, y, z) +xh(y, z) +k(y, z)

Using the hypothesis, we deduce that

0 =

a +

1

a

h

b +

1

b

, c +

1

c

+k

b +

1

b

, c +

1

c

**whenever abc = 1. Well, it seems that this is a dead end. Not exactly.
**

Now we take two numbers x, y such that min¦[x[, [y[¦ > 2 and we write

x = b +

1

b

, y = c +

1

c

with b =

x +

√

x

2

−4

2

, c =

y +

y

2

−4

2

.

Then it is easy to compute a+

1

a

. It is exactly xy+

(x

2

−4)(y

2

−4).

So, we have found that

(xy +

(x

2

−4)(y

2

−4))h(x, y) +k(x, y) = 0

whenever min¦[x[, [y[¦ > 2. And now? The last relation suggests that we

should prove that for each y with [y[ > 2, the function x →

√

x

2

−4 is

29

not rational, that is, there aren’t polynomials p, q such that

√

x

2

−4 =

p(x)

q(x)

. But this is easy because if such polynomials existed, than each

zero of x

2

−4 should have even multiplicity, which is not the case. Con-

sequently, for each y with [y[ > 2 we have h(x, y) = k(x, y) = 0 for all

x. But this means that h(x, y) = k(x, y) = 0 for all x, y, that is our

polynomial is divisible with x

2

+y

2

+z

2

−xyz −4.

O a diﬀerent kind, the following problem and the featured solution

prove that sometimes an eﬃcient substitution can help more than ten

complicated ideas.

Example 6. Let a, b, c > 0. Find all triples (x, y, z) of positive real

numbers such that

x +y +z = a +b +c

a

2

x +b

2

y +c

2

z +abc = 4xyz

Titu Andreescu, IMO Shortlist, 1995

Solution. We try to use the information given by the second equa-

tion. This equation can be written as

a

2

yz

+

b

2

zx

+

c

2

xy

+

abc

xyz

= 4

and we already recognize the relation

u

2

+v

2

+w

2

+uvw = 4

where u =

a

√

yz

, v =

b

√

zx

, w =

c

√

xy

. According to example 3, we can

ﬁnd an acute-angled triangle ABC such that

u = 2 cos A, v = 2 cos B, w = 2 cos C.

We have made use of the second condition, so we use the ﬁrst one

to deduce that

x +y +z = 2

√

xy cos C + 2

√

yz cos A+ 2

√

zxcos B.

30

Trying to solve this as a second degree equation in

√

x, we ﬁnd the

discriminant

−4(

√

y sin C −

√

z sin B)

2

.

Because this discriminant is nonnegative, we infer that

√

y sin C =

√

z sin B and

√

x =

√

y cos C +

√

z cos B.

Combining the last two relations, we ﬁnd that

√

x

sin A

=

√

y

sin B

=

√

z

sin C

Now we square these relations and we use the fact that

cos A =

a

2

√

yz

, cos B =

b

2

√

zx

, cos C =

c

2

√

xy

.

The conclusion is:

x =

b +c

2

, y =

c +a

2

, z =

a +b

2

and it is immediate to see that this triple satisﬁes both conditions. Hence

there is a unique triple that is solution to the given system. Notice that

the condition

x +y +z = 2

√

xy cos C + 2

√

yz cos A+ 2

√

zxcos B

is the equality case in the lemma stated in the solution of the following

problem. This could be another possible solution of the problem.

We have discussed the following very diﬃcult problem in the chapter

”An useful substitution”. We will see that example 3 helps us ﬁnd a nice

geometric solution to this inequality.

Example 7. Prove that if the positive real numbers x, y, z satisfy

xy +yz +zx +xyz = 4, then

x +y +z ≥ xy +yz +zx.

India, 1998

31

Solution. It is not diﬃcult to observe that at ﬁrst glance, the con-

dition xy +yz +zx +xyz = 4 it’s not the same as the equation (3). Let

us write the condition xy +yz +zx +xyz = 4 in the form

√

xy

2

+

√

yz

2

+

√

zx

2

+

√

xy

√

yz

√

zx = 4.

Now, we can use the result from example 3 and we deduce the exis-

tence of an acute-angled triangle ABC such that

√

yz = 2 cos A

√

zx = 2 cos B

√

xy = 2 cos C

We solve the system and we ﬁnd the triplet

(x, y, z) =

2 cos Bcos C

cos A

,

2 cos Acos C

cos B

,

2 cos Acos B

cos C

**Hence we need to prove that
**

2 cos Bcos C

cos A

+

2 cos Acos C

cos B

+

2 cos Acos B

cos C

≥ 2(cos

2

A+cos

2

B+cos

2

C).

This one is a hard inequality and it follows from a more general

result.

Lemma. If ABC is a triangle and x, y, z are arbitrary real numbers,

then

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

≥ 2yz cos A+ 2zxcos B + 2xy cos C.

Proof of the lemma. Let us consider points P, Q, R on the lines

AB, BC, CA, respectively, such that AP = BQ = CR = 1 and P, Q, R

and do not lie on the sides of the triangle. Then we see that the inequality

is equivalent to

(x

−→

AP +y

−−→

BQ+z

−→

CR)

2

≥ 0,

which is obviously true.

32

The lemma being proved, we just have to take

x =

2 cos Bcos C

cos A

y =

2 cos Acos C

cos B

, z =

2 cos Acos B

cos C

in the above lemma and the problem will be solved.

But of course, this type of identities does not appear only in inequal-

ities. We are going to discuss two problems in which the identity is very

well masked.

Example 8. Find all continuous functions f : (0, ∞) → (0, ∞)

satisfying

f(x)f(y) = f(xy) +f

x

y

.

Sankt Petersburg

Solution. First of all, observe that by symmetry in x, y we must

have f

x

y

= f

y

x

and so f(x) = f

1

x

. Next, by taking x = y = 1

we obtain f(1) = 2 and then f(x

2

) = f

2

(x) −2. These relations should

now ring a bell! It seems that we are searching for something like f(x) =

x

k

+

1

x

k

. We are right, but still far from the solution. Let’s make another

small step: proving that f(x) ≥ 2 for all x. Indeed, this is going to be

easy, since f(x

2

) = f

2

(x) − 2 implies that f(x) >

√

2 for all x. Thus,

f

2

(x) = f(x

2

) + 2 > 2 +

√

2. Repeating this argument, we ﬁnd that for

all x we have

f(x) >

2 +

2 +

√

2 +. . . = 2

(the last equality being immediate for a beginner in analysis).

Yet, till now nothing related to our theme. Wrong! Let’s observe that

f(x

2

) +f(y

2

) = f(xy)f

x

y

**for all x, y. Indeed, it suﬃces to write
**

x

2

= xy

x

y

, y

2

=

xy

x

y

.

33

With this information, let us make one more step and write

f

2

(x) +f

2

(y) −4 = f(x

2

) +f(y

2

) = f(xy)(f(x)f(y) −f(xy)).

We are now on the right track, since we ﬁnd that

f

2

(x) +f

2

(y) +f

2

(xy) = f(x)f(y)f(xy) + 4.

Using also the fact that f(x) ≥ 2, we deduce the existence of a con-

tinuous function g : (0, ∞) → [1, ∞) such that f(x) = g(x) +

1

g(x)

. The

above relation implies of course that g(xy) = g(x)g(y). By considering

h(x) = ln g(e

x

), we obtain that h is a continuous solution of Cauchy’s

functional equation f(x+y) = f(x) +f(y), thus h(x) = kx for a certain

k. This shows that g(x) = x

k

and that our thoughts were right; these are

all solutions of the equation (the veriﬁcation of the identity is immediate

for this class of functions).

And ﬁnally, an apparently inextricable recursive relation.

Example 9. Let (a

n

)

n≥0

be a non-decreasing sequence of positive

integers such that

a

0

= a

1

= 47 and a

2

n−1

+a

2

n

+a

2

n+1

−a

n−1

a

n

a

n+1

= 4 for all n ≥ 1.

Prove that 2 +a

n

and 2 +

√

2 +a

n

are perfect squares for all n ≥ 0.

Titu Andreescu

Solution. Using the idea from the chapter with real equations, we

write a

n

= x

n

+

1

x

n

, with x

n

> 1. The the given condition becomes

x

n+1

= x

n

x

n−1

(we have used here explicitly that x

n

> 1), which shows

that (ln x

n

)

n≥0

is a Fibonacci-type sequence. Since x

0

= x

1

, we deduce

that x

n

= x

F

n

0

, where F

0

= F

1

= 1, F

n+1

= F

n

+F

n−1

. Now, we have to

do more: who is x

0

? And the answer x

0

=

47 +

√

47

2

−1

2

won’t suﬃces.

Let us remark that

√

x

0

+

1

√

x

0

2

= 49

34

from where we ﬁnd that

√

x

0

+

1

√

x

0

= 7.

Similarly, we obtain that

4

√

x

0

+

1

4

√

x

0

= 3.

Solving the equation, we obtain

4

√

x

0

=

1 +

√

5

2

2

= λ

2

that is x

0

= λ

8

. And so we have found the general formula a

n

= λ

8F

n

+

λ

−8F

n

. And now the problem becomes easy, since

a

n

+ 2 = (λ

4F

n

+λ

−4F

n

)

2

and 2 +

√

2 +a

n

= (λ

2F

n

+λ

−2F

n

)

2

.

All we are left to prove is that λ

2k

+

1

λ

2k

∈ R for all k ∈ R. But this

isn’t diﬃcult, since

λ

2

+

1

λ

2

∈ R, λ

4

+

1

λ

4

∈ R

and

λ

2(k+1)

+

1

λ

2(k+1)

=

λ

2

+

1

λ

2

λ

2k

+

1

λ

2k

−

λ

2(k−1)

+

1

λ

2(k−1)

.

Problems for training

1. Find all triples x, y, z of positive real numbers, solutions to the

system:

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

= xyz + 4

xy +yz +zx = 2(x +y +z)

2. Let x, y, z > 0 such that x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+xyz = 4. Prove that

(2 −a)(2 −b)

(2 +a)(2 +b)

+

(2 −b)(2 −c)

(2 +b)(2 +c)

+

(2 −c)(2 −a)

(2 +c)(2 +a)

= 1.

Cristinel Mortici, Romanian Inter-county Contest

35

3. Prove that if a, b, c ≥ 0 satisfy the condition [a

2

+b

2

+c

2

−4[ = abc,

then

(a −2)(b −2) + (b −2)(c −2) + (c −2)(a −2) ≥ 0.

Titu Andreescu, Gazeta Matematica

4. Find all triples (a, b, c) of positive real numbers, solutions to the

system

a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+abc = 4

a +b +c = 3

Cristinel Mortici, Romanian Inter-county Contest

5. Prove that in any triangle the following inequality holds

sin

A

2

+ sin

B

2

+ sin

C

2

2

≤ cos

2

A

2

+ cos

2

B

2

+ cos

2

C

2

.

6. Let x, y, z > 0 such that xy +yz +zx +xyz = 4. Prove that

3

1

√

x

+

1

√

y

+

1

√

z

2

≥ (x + 2)(y + 2)(z + 2).

Gabriel Dospinescu

7. Prove that in any acute-angled triangle the following inequality

holds

cos A

cos B

2

+

cos B

cos C

2

+

cos C

cos A

2

+ 8 cos Acos Bcos C ≥ 4.

Titu Andreescu, MOSP 2000

8. Solve in positive integers the equation

(x + 2)(y + 2)(z + 2) = (x +y +z + 2)

2

.

Titu Andreescu

9. Let n > 4 be a given positive integer. Find all pairs of positive

integers (x, y) such that

xy −

(x +y)

2

n

= n −4.

36

Titu Andreescu

10. Let the sequence (a

n

)

n≥0

, where a

0

= a

1

= 97 and a

n+1

=

a

n−1

a

n

+

(a

2

n

−1)(a

2

n−1

−1) for all n ≥ 1. Prove that 2 +

√

2 + 2a

n

is

a perfect square for all n ≥ 0.

Titu Andreescu

11. Find all triplets of positive integers (k, l, m) with sum 2002 and

for which the system

x

y

+

y

x

= k

y

z

+

z

y

= l

z

x

+

x

y

= m

has real solutions.

Titu Andreescu, proposed for IMO 2002

12. Find all functions f : (0, ∞) → (0, ∞) with the following prop-

erties:

a) f(x)+f(y)+f(z)+f(xyz) = f(

√

xy)f(

√

yz)f(

√

zx) for all x, y, z;

b) if 1 ≤ x < y then f(x) < f(y).

Hojoo Lee, IMO Shortlist 2004

13. Prove that if a, b, c ≥ 2 satisfy the condition a

2

+b

2

+c

2

= abc+4,

then

a +b +c +ac +bc ≥ 2

(a +b +c + 3)(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

−3).

Marian Tetiva

14. Prove that if a, b, c ≥ 0 satisfy a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+abc = 4 then

0 ≤ ab +bc +ca −abc ≤ 2.

Titu Andreescu, USAMO 2001

37

LOOK AT THE EXPONENT!

Most of the times, proving divisibility reduces to congruences and

the famous theorems from this ﬁeld, such as Fermat, Euler, or Wil-

son. But what do we do when we have to prove for example that

lcm(a, b, c)

2

[lcm(a, b) lcm(b, c) lcm(c, a) for any positive integers a, b, c?

Then one thing is sure: the above methods fail. Yet, another smart idea

appears: if we have to prove that a[b, then it is enough to prove that

the exponent of any prime number in the decomposition of a is at least

the exponent of that prime number in the decomposition of b. For sim-

plicity, let us denote by v

p

(a) the exponent of the prime number p in

the decomposition of a. Of course, if p doesn’t divide a, then v

p

(a) = 0.

Also, it is easy to prove the following properties of v

p

(a):

1) min¦v

p

(a), v

p

(b)¦ ≤ v

p

(a +b) ≤ max¦v

p

(a), v

p

(b)¦

2) v

p

(ab) = v

p

(a) +v

p

(b)

for any positive integer numbers a, b. Now, let us repeat the above idea

in terms of v

p

(a): we have a[b if and only if for any prime number p

we have v

p

(a) ≤ v

p

(b) and we have a = b if and only if for any prime

number p, v

p

(a) = v

p

(b).

Some other useful properties of v

p

(a) are:

3) v

p

(gcd(a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

)) = min¦v

p

(a

1

), v

p

(a

2

), . . . , v

p

(a

n

)¦,

4) v

p

(lcm(a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

)) = max¦v

p

(a

1

), v

p

(a

2

), . . . , v

p

(a

n

)¦ and

5) v

p

(n!) =

¸

n

p

+

¸

n

p

2

+

¸

n

p

3

+ =

n −s

p

(n)

p −1

whenever p[n. Here,

s

p

(n) is the sum of digits of n when written in base b. Observe that 3)

and 4) are simple consequences of the deﬁnitions. Less straightforward is

5). This follows from the fact that there are

¸

n

p

multiples of p,

¸

n

p

2

are

multiples of p

2

and so on. The other equality is not diﬃcult. Indeed, let

us write n = a

0

+a

1

p+ +a

k

p

k

, where a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

k

∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , p−1¦

38

and a

k

= 0. Then

¸

n

p

+

¸

n

p

2

+ = a

1

+a

2

p+ +a

k

p

k−1

+a

2

+a

3

p+ +a

k

p

k−2

+ +a

k

and now using the formula

1 +p + +p

i

=

p

i+1

−1

p −1

,

we ﬁnd exactly 5). Enough with the introduction, let’s see some concrete

results. We have chosen with intention the ﬁrst problem (the classical

one) a very nasty one, so that the reader doesn’t think that all the above

formulas were for nothing and because it oﬀers us the opportunity to

prove a very nice inequality. There are hundreds of variants of it in all

contests around the world and in all elementary magazines. Let us see.

Example 1. Prove that

(3a + 3b)!(2a)!(3b)!(2b)!

(2a + 3b)!(a + 2b)!(a +b)!a!(b!)

2

∈ Z for

any positive integers a, b.

Richard Askey, AMM 6514

Solution. First, let us clearify something. When we write

¸

n

p

+

¸

n

p

2

+

¸

n

p

3

+. . . ,

we write in fact

¸

k≥1

¸

n

p

k

**and this sum has clearly a ﬁnite number of
**

non-zero terms. Now, let us take a prime p and let us apply formula 5),

as well as the ﬁrst observations. We ﬁnd that

v

p

((3a+3b)!(2a)!(3b)!(2b)!) =

¸

k≥1

¸

3a + 3b

p

k

+

¸

2a

p

k

+

¸

3b

p

k

+

¸

2b

p

k

and also

v

p

= ((2a + 3b)!(a + 2b)!(a +b)!a!(b!)

2

)

=

¸

k≥1

¸

2a + 3b

p

k

+

¸

a + 2b

p

k

+

¸

a +b

p

k

+

¸

a

p

k

+ 2

¸

b

p

k

39

Of course, it is enough to prove that for each k ≥ 1 the term cor-

responding to k in the ﬁrst sum is greater than or equal to the term

corresponding to k in the second sum. With the substitution x =

a

p

k

,

y =

b

p

k

, we have to prove that for any nonnegative real numbers x, y we

have

[3x +3y] +[2x] +[3y] +[2y] ≥ [2x +3y] +[x +2y] +[x +y] +[x] +2[y].

This isn’t easy, but with another useful idea the inequality will be-

come easy. The idea is that

[3x + 3y] = 3[x] + 3[y] + [3¦x¦ + 3¦y¦]

and similar relations for the other terms of the inequality. After this

operation, we see that it suﬃces to prove the inequality only for 0 ≤

x, y < 1. Why is the new inequality easy? Because we can easily compute

all terms, after splitting in some cases, so that to see when [2¦x¦], [3¦y¦],

[2¦y¦] are 0, 1 or 2.

We won’t continue studying these cases, since another beautiful

problem is waiting.

Example 2. Let a, b be positive integers such that a[b

2

, b

3

[a

4

, a

5

[b

6

,

b

7

[a

8

, . . . . Prove that a = b.

Solution. Let us take a prime p and try to prove that v

p

(a) = v

p

(b).

We see that the hypothesis a[b

2

, b

3

[a

4

, a

5

[b

6

, b

7

[a

8

, . . . is the same as

a

4n+1

[b

4n+2

and b

4n+3

[a

4n+4

for all natural number n. But the relation

a

4n+1

[b

4n+2

can be interpreted as (4n + 1)v

p

(a) ≤ (4n + 2)v

p

(b) for all

n, that is

v

p

(a) ≤ lim

n→∞

4n + 2

4n + 1

v

p

(b) = v

p

(b).

Similarly, the condition b

4n+3

[a

4n+4

implies v

p

(a) ≥ v

p

(b) and so

v

p

(a) = v

p

(b). The conclusion follows: a = b.

40

We have mentioned in the beginning of the discussion a nice and

easy problem, so probably it’s time to solve it, although for sure the

reader has already done this.

Example 3. Prove that lcm(a, b, c)

2

[lcm(a, b) lcm(b, c) lcm(c, a)

for any positive integers a, b, c.

Solution. Let p an arbitrary prime number. We have

v

p

(lcm(a, b, c)

2

) = 2 max¦x, y, z¦

and

v

p

(lcm(a, b) lcm(b, c) lcm(c, a)) = max¦x, y¦ +max¦y, z¦ +max¦z, x¦,

where x = v

p

(a), y = v

p

(b), z = v

p

(c). So, we need to prove that

max¦x, y¦ + max¦y, z¦ + max¦z, x¦ ≥ 2 max¦x, y, z¦

for any nonnegative integers x, y, z. But this is easy, since we may assume

that x ≥ y ≥ z (the symmetry allows us this supposition) and the

inequality becomes 2x +y ≥ 2x, obviously true.

It is time for some diﬃcult problems, which are all based on the

observations from the beginning of the discussion.

Example 4. Prove that there exists a constant c such that for any

positive integers a, b, n that verify a! b![n! we have a +b < n +c ln n.

Paul Erdos

Solution. This time the other formula for v

p

(n!) is useful. Of course,

there is no reasonable estimation of this constant, so we should better

see what happens if a! b![n!. Then v

2

(a!) + v

2

(b!) ≤ v

2

(n!), which can

be translated as a − s

2

(a) + b − s

2

(b) ≤ n − s

2

(n) < n. So, we have

found almost exactly what we needed: a + b < n + s

2

(a) + s

2

(b). Now,

we need another observation: the sum of digits of a number A when

written in binary is at most the number of digits of A in base 2, which

is 1 + [log

2

A] (this follows from the fact that 2

k−1

≤ A < 2

k

, where

41

k is the number of digits of A in base 2). So, we have the estimations

a + b < n + s

2

(a) + s

2

(b) ≤ n + 2 + log

2

ab ≤ n + 2 + 2 log

2

n (since we

have of course a, b ≤ n). And now the conclusion is immediate.

The following problem appeared in Kvant as a hard problem. It took

quite a long time before an olympic found an extraordinary solution. We

shall not present his solution; but another one, even easier.

Example 5. Is there an inﬁnite set of positive integers such that

no matter how we choose some elements of this set, their sum is not an

integer power of exponent at least 2?

Kvant

Solution. Let us take A = ¦2

n

3

n+1

[n ≥ 1¦ If we consider some

diﬀerent numbers from this set, their sum will be of the form 2

x

3

x+1

y,

where (y, 6) = 1. This is surely not a power of exponent at least 2, since

otherwise the exponent should divide both x and x +1. Thus this set is

actually a good choice.

The following problem shows the beauty of elementary number-

theory. It combines diverse ideas and techniques and the result is at

least beautiful. This one is also a classic problem, that appeared in lots

of mathematics competitions.

Example 6. Prove that for any natural number n, n! is a divisor of

n−1

¸

k=0

(2

n

−2

k

).

Solution. So, let us take a prime number p. Of course, for the ar-

gument to be non-trivial, we take p ≤ n (otherwise doesn’t divide n!).

First, let us see what happens with p = 2. We have

v

2

(n!) = n −s

2

(n) ≤ n −1

42

and also

v

2

n−1

¸

k=0

(2

n

−2

k

)

=

n−1

¸

k=0

v

2

(2

n

−2

k

) ≥ n −1

(since 2

n

−2

k

is even for k ≥ 1), so we are done with this case. Now, let

us assume that p > 2. We have p[2

p−1

−1 from Fermat’s theorem, so we

also have p[2

k(p−1)

−1 for all k ≥ 1. Now,

n−1

¸

k=0

(2

n

−2

k

) = 2

n(n−1)

2

n

¸

k=1

(2

k

−1)

and so, from the above remarks we infer that

v

2

n−1

¸

k=0

(2

n

−2

k

)

=

n

¸

k=1

v

2

(2

k

−1)

≥

¸

1≤k(p−1)≤n

v

2

(2

k(p−1)

−1) ≥ card¦k[1 ≤ k(p −1) ≤ n¦

Since

card¦k[1 ≤ k(p −1) ≤ n¦ =

¸

n

p −1

,

we have found that

v

2

n−1

¸

k=0

(2

n

−2

k

)

≥

¸

n

p −1

.

But we know that

v

2

(n!) =

n −s

p

(n)

p −1

≤

n −1

p −1

<

n

p −1

and since v

2

(n!) ∈ R, we must have

v

2

(n!) ≤

¸

n

p −1

.

From these two inequalities, we conclude that

v

2

n−1

¸

k=0

(2

n

−2

k

)

≥ v

2

(n!)

and now the problem is solved.

43

Diophantine equations can also be solved using the methods em-

ployed in this topic. Here is a diﬃcult one, given in a russian olympiad.

Example 7. Prove that the equation

1

10

n

=

1

n

1

!

+

1

n

2

!

+ +

1

n

k

!

does not have integer solutions such that 1 ≤ n

1

< n

2

< < n

k

.

Tuymaada Olimpiad

Solution. Suppose we have found a solution of the equation and let

us consider

P = n

1

!n

2

! . . . n

k

!.

We have

10

n

((n

1

+ 1) . . . (n

k

−1)n

k

+ + (n

k−1

+ 1) . . . (n

k

−1)n

k

+ 1) = n

k

!

which shows that n

k

divides 10

n

. Let us write n

k

= 2

x

5

y

. First of

all, suppose that x, y are positive. Thus, (n

1

+ 1) . . . (n

k

− 1)n

k

+ +

(n

k−1

+ 1) . . . (n

k

− 1)n

k

+ 1 is relatively prime with 10 and it follows

that v

2

(n

k

!) = v

5

(n

k

!). This implies of course that

n

k

2

j

=

n

k

5

j

for all

j (because we clearly have

n

k

2

j

>

n

k

5

j

) and so n

k

≤ 3. A veriﬁcation

by hand shows that there is no solution in this case.

Next, suppose that y = 0. Then (n

1

+1) . . . (n

k

−1)n

k

+ +(n

k−1

+

1) . . . (n

k

− 1)n

k

+ 1 is odd and thus v

2

(n

k

!) = n ≤ v

5

(n

k

!). Again this

implies v

2

(n

k

!) = v

5

(n

k

!) and we have seen that this gives no solution.

So, actually x = 0. A crucial observation is that if n

k

> n

k−1

+ 1,

then (n

1

+1) . . . (n

k

−1)n

k

+ +(n

k−1

+1) . . . (n

k

−1)n

k

+1 is again

odd and thus we ﬁnd again that v

2

(n

k

!) = n ≤ v

5

(n

k

!), impossible. So,

n

k

= n

k−1

+1. But then, taking into account that n

k

is a power of 5, we

deduce that (n

1

+1) . . . (n

k

−1)n

k

+ +(n

k−1

+1) . . . (n

k

−1)n

k

+1 is

congruent to 2 modulo 4 and thus v

2

(n

k

!) = n+1 ≤ v

5

(n

k

!)+1. It follows

that

n

k

2

≤ 1 +

n

k

5

and thus n

k

≤ 6. Since n

k

is a power of 5, we

44

ﬁnd that n

k

= 5, n

k−1

= and a quick research of all possibilities shows

that there are no solutions. Thus, the given equation has no solution in

natural numbers.

A tricky APMO problem asked once upon a time to prove there is a

number 2 < n < 2000 such that n[2

n

+ 2. We will let to the reader the

job to verify that 2 11 43 is a solution (and especially the job to ﬁnd

how we arrived at this number) and also the exercise to prove that there

are actually inﬁnitely many such numbers. Yet... small veriﬁcations show

that all such numbers are even. Proving this turns out to be a diﬃcult

problem and this was proved for the ﬁrst time by Sierpinski.

Note. After the quadratic reciprocity law topic, it will be proved that

2 11 43 is a solution of the problem.

Example 8. Prove that for any n > 1 we cannot have n[2

n−1

+ 1.

Solution. Although very short, the proof is tricky. Let n =

s

¸

i=1

p

k

i

i

where p

1

< < p

s

are prime numbers. The idea is to look at v

2

(p

i

−1).

Choose that p

i

which minimizes this quantity and write p

i

= 1 + 2

r

i

m

i

with m

i

odd. Then of course we have n ≡ 1 (mod 2

m

i

). Hence we can

write n − 1 = 2

m

t. We have 2

2

m

t

≡ −1 (mod p

i

) thus we surely have

−1 ≡ 2

2

m

tm

i

≡ 2

(p

i

−1)t

≡ 1 (mod p

i

) (the last congruence being derived

from Fermat’s theorem). Thus p

i

= 2, which is clearly impossible.

We continue with a very nice and hard problem, in which the idea of

looking at the exponents really saves us. This problem seemed to appear

for the ﬁrst time in AMM , proposed by Armond E. Spencer. In the last

years, it appeared in various contests.

Example 9. Prove that for any integers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

the number

¸

1≤i<j≤n

a

i

−a

j

i −j

is an integer.

Armond Spencer, AMM E 2637

45

Solution. This time, we consider a prime number p and we prove

that for each k ≥ 1, there are more numbers divisible by p

k

in the se-

quence of diﬀerences (a

i

−a

j

)

1≤i<j≤n

than in the sequence (i−j)

1≤i<j≤n

.

Since

v

p

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(a

i

−a

j

)

¸

=

¸

k≥1

N

p

k

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(a

i

−a

j

)

¸

(here N

x

¸

¸

y∈A

y

¸

**is the number of terms from the sequence A that are
**

multiples of x) and

v

p

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(i −j)

¸

=

¸

k≥1

N

p

k

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(i −j)

¸

,

the problem will be solved if we prove our claim. Now, let us ﬁx k ≥ 1

and let us suppose that there are exactly b

i

indices j ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ such

that a

j

≡ i (mod p

k

), for each i ∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , p

k

−1¦. Then we have

N

p

k

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(a

i

−a

j

)

¸

=

p

k

−1

¸

i=0

b

i

2

.

We see that if a

i

= i, then b

i

=

¸

n +i

p

k

(there are

¸

n +i

p

k

numbers

congruent with i (mod p) between 1 and n; any of them is of the form

i +jp, with 0 ≤ j ≤

n −i

p

, of course, if i = 0 we have 1 ≤ j ≤

n

p

). So,

N

p

k

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(i −j)

¸

=

p

k

−1

¸

i=0

¸

n

i

p

k

2

¸

**and it suﬃces to prove that
**

p

k

−1

¸

i=0

b

i

2

≥

p

k

−1

¸

i=0

¸

n

i

p

k

2

¸

.

46

Now, observe that we are practically asked to ﬁnd the minimal

value of

p

k

−1

¸

i=0

x

i

2

, when

p

k

−1

¸

i=0

x

i

= n (it is clear that

p

k

−1

¸

i=0

b

i

= n =

p

k

−1

¸

i=0

¸

n

i

p

k

**from the deﬁnition of b
**

i

). For this, let us suppose that

x

1

≤ x

2

≤ ≤ x

p

k

−1

is the n-tuple which attains the minimal

value (such a n-tuple exists since the equation

p

k

−1

¸

i=0

x

i

= n has a ﬁnite

number of solutions). If x

p

k

−1

> x

0

+ 1, then we consider the n-tuple

(x

0

+ 1, x

1

, . . . , x

p

k

−2

, x

p

k

−1

− 1) which has the sum of the components

n, but for which

x

0

+ 1

2

+

x

1

2

+ +

x

p

k

−2

2

+

x

p

k

−1

−1

2

<

x

0

2

+

x

1

2

+ +

x

p

k

−2

2

+

x

p

k

−1

2

.

The last inequality is true, since it is equivalent with x

p

k

−1

> x

0

+1, so it

is true. But this contradicts the minimality of (x

0

, x

1

, . . . , x

2

, . . . , x

p

k

−1

).

So, we must have x

p

k

−1

≤ x

0

+ 1 and from here it follows that

x

i

∈ ¦x

0

, x

0

+ 1¦ for all i ∈ ¦0, 1, 2, . . . , p

k

− 1¦. Thus, there is

j ∈ ¦0, 1, 2, . . . , p

k

− 1¦ such that x

0

= x

1

= = x

j

and x

j+1

=

x

j+2

= = x

p

k

−1

= x

0

+ 1. This easily implies that the minimal

n-tuple is in fact

¸

n +i

p

k

i=0,p

k

−1

and the problem is solved.

Finally, it is time for a challenge.

Example 10. Let a, b two diﬀerent positive rational numbers such

that for inﬁnitely many numbers n, a

n

−b

n

is integer. Then prove that

a, b are also integers.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Mathlinks Contest

Solution. Let us start by writing a =

x

z

, b =

y

z

, where x, y, z are

diﬀerent natural numbers relatively prime. We know thus that z

n

[x

n

−y

n

47

for inﬁnitely many numbers n. Let M be the set of those numbers n.

Now, assume that z > 1 and take p a prime divisor of z. Assuming that

p does not divide x, it obviously follows that it can’t divide y. We have

thus two cases:

i) If p = 2, then let n such that 2

n

[x

n

− y

n

and write n = 2

u

n

v

n

,

where v

n

is odd. From the identity

x

2

u

n

v

n

−y

2

u

n

v

n

= (x

v

n

−y

v

n

)(x

v

n

+y

v

n

) . . . (x

2

u

n

−1

v

n

−y

2

u

n

−1

v

n

)

it follows that

v

2

(x

n

−y

n

) = v

2

(x

v

n

−y

v

n

) +

u

n

−1

¸

k=0

v

2

(x

2

k

v

n

+y

2

k

v

n

).

But x

v

n

−1

+ x

v

n

−2

+ + xy

v

n

−2

+ y

v

n

−1

is obviously odd (since

v

n

, x, y are odd), hence

v

2

(x

v

n

−y

v

n

) = v

2

(x −y).

Similarly, we can prove that

v

2

(x

v

n

+y

v

n

) = v

2

(x +y).

Since for k > 0 we have

x

2

k

v

n

+y

2

k

v

n

≡ 2 (mod 4),

we ﬁnally deduce that

2

u

n

v

n

≤ v

2

(x

n

−y

n

) ≤ v

2

(x +y) +v

2

(x −y) +u

n

−1 (∗)

Consequently, (2

u

n

)

n∈M

is bounded, a simple reason being the in-

equality 2

u

n

≤ v

2

(x+y) +v

2

(x−y) +u

n

−1. Hence (u

n

)

n∈M

takes only

a ﬁnite number of values and from (∗) it follows that (v

n

)

n∈M

also takes

a ﬁnite number of values, that is M is ﬁnite.

ii) If p is odd, then let d the smallest positive integer k such that

p[x

k

−y

k

. Then for any n in M we will have p[x

n

−y

n

. Let x = tu, y = tv,

48

where (u, v) = 1. Obviously, tuv is not a multiple of p. It follows then

that p[(u

d

−v

d

, u

n

−v

n

) = u

(n,d)

−v

(n,d)

[x

(n,d)

−y

(n,d)

and by the choice of

d, we must have d[n. Take now n in M and write it in the form n = md,

with m natural. Let A = x

d

, B = y

d

. Then p

m

[p

n

[x

n

− y

n

= A

m

− B

m

and this happens for inﬁnitely many numbers m. Moreover, p[A − B.

Let R the inﬁnite set of those numbers m. For any m in R we have

m ≤ v

p

(A

m

− B

m

). Now, let us write m = p

i

j, where j is relatively

prime with p. We clearly have

A

m

−B

m

= (A

j

−B

j

)

A

pj

−B

pj

A

j

−B

j

. . .

A

jp

i

−B

jp

i

A

jp

i−1

−B

jp

i−1

(we have assumed that i > 1, since the ﬁnal conclusion will be obvi-

ous in any other case). An essential observation is that we cannot have

p

2

[

A

jp

k

−B

jp

k

A

jp

k−1

−B

jp

k−1

for a certain k > 1. Indeed, otherwise we would have

p

2

[A

jp

k

− B

jp

k

⇒ p

2

[A

pj

− B

pj

(Euler’s theorem). Yet, we also have

p

2

[A

jp

k−1

(p−1)

+ A

jp

k−1

(p−2)

B

jp

k−1

+ + b

jp

k−1

(p−1)

. From p

2

[A

j

−B

j

we have

A

jp

k−1

(p−1)

+A

jp

k−1

(p−2)

B

jp

k−1

+ +B

jp

k−1

(p−1)

≡ pA

jp

k−1

(p−1)

(mod p

2

),

so we should have p[A, that is p[x, false.

Let us prove now that we cannot have p

2

[

A

pj

−B

pj

A

j

−B

j

. Indeed, oth-

erwise (since p[A − B), we can write A

j

= B

j

+ wp and then a simple

computation using Newton’s binomial formula shows that

A

pj

−B

pj

A

j

−B

j

= A

j(p−1)

+A

j(p−2)

+ +B

j(p−1)

≡ pB

j(p−1)

+

p −1

2

B

j(p−2)

p

2

≡ pB

j(p−1)

(mod p

2

)

and thus it would follow that p[B, that is p[y, false.

49

After all, we have shown that in this case we must have

m ≤ v

p

(A

m

−B

m

) ≤ v

p

(A

j

−B

j

) +i.

Using again the fact that A ≡ B (mod p), we infer that

A

j−1

+A

j−2

B + +B

j−1

≡ jA

p−1

≡ j (mod p),

which shows that

v

p

(A

j

−B

j

) = v

p

(A−B).

Thus, for inﬁnitely many numbers m we have

m ≤ v

p

(A−B) + [log

2

m],

which is clearly impossible.

Thus, we must have p[x and p[y, contradiction with the fact that

x, y, z are relatively prime. This shows that z = 1 and a, b are integers.

Problems for training

1. Prove the identity

lcm(a, b, c)

2

lcm(a, b) lcm(b, c) lcm(c, a)

=

gcd(a, b, c)

2

gcd(a, b) gcd(b, c) gcd(c, a)

for any positive integers a, b, c.

USAMO, 1972

2. Let a, b, c, d be positive integers such that ab = cd. Prove that

gcd(a, c) gcd(a, d) = a gcd(a, b, c, d).

Polish Mathematical Olympiad

3. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

k

, b

1

, b

2

, . . . , b

k

be positive integers such that

gcd(a

i

, b

i

) = 1 for all i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , k¦. Let m−lcm[b

1

, b

2

, . . . , b

k

]. Prove

that

gcd

a

1

m

1

b

1

,

a

2

m

2

b

2

, . . . ,

a

k

m

k

b

k

= gcd(a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

k

).

IMO Shortlist 1974

50

4. Let n such that 2

n−2005

[n!. Prove that this number has at most

2005 non-zero digits when written in base 2.

5. Prove that for any natural number n we have

(n

2

)!

n

n

n + 1

n

. . .

2n −1

n

n!

n

∈ R.

R.M Grassl, T. Porter, AMM E 3123

6. Prove the identity

(n + 1)lcm

k=0,n

n

k

= lcm(1, 2, . . . , n + 1)

for any positive integer n.

Peter L Montgomery, AMM E 2686

7. Let 0 < a

1

< < a

n

be integers. Find the maximal value of the

number m for which we can ﬁnd the integers 0 < b

1

< < b

m

such

that

n

¸

k=1

2

a

k

=

m

¸

k−1

b

k

and

n

¸

k=1

(2

a

k

)! =

m

¸

k=1

b

k

!.

Gabriel Dospinescu

8. Prove that the least common multiple of the numbers 1, 2, . . . , n

equals the least common multiple of the numbers

n

1

,

n

2

, . . . ,

n

n

**if and only if n + 1 is a prime.
**

Laurentiu Panaitopol, TST 1990 Romania

9. Prove that for any n ∈ N we have n!(n + 1)!(n + 2)![(3n)!.

Komal

10. Prove that the product of the numbers between 2

1917

+ 1 and

2

1991

−1 is not a perfect square.

Tournament of the Towns, 1991

11. Show that if n is a positive integer and a and b are integers, then

n! divides a(a +b)(a + 2b) . . . (a + (n −1)b)bn −1.

51

IMO Shortlist, 1985

12. Prove that k!

k

2

+k+1

divides (k

3

)!.

Poland Olympiad

13. Let x, y be relatively prime diﬀerent natural numbers. Prove that

for inﬁnitely many primes p the exponent of p in x

p−1

−y

p−1

is odd.

AMM

14. Let a

1

, . . . , a

n

> 0 such that whenever k is a prime number of a

power of a prime number, we have

a

1

k

¸

+ +

a

n

k

¸

< 1.

Prove that there is a unique index i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ such that a

1

+

+a

n

< 1 + [a

i

].

16. Find the exponent of 2 in the decomposition of the number

2

n+1

2

n

−

2

n

2

n−1

.

AMM

17. Prove that (x

n

)

n≥1

the exponent of 2 in the decomposition of

the numerator of

2

1

+

2

2

2

+ +

2

n

n

, goes to inﬁnity as n → ∞. Even

more, prove that x

2

n ≥ 2

n

− n + 1 (hint: try to prove ﬁrst the identity

2

1

+

2

2

2

+ +

2

n

n

=

2

n

n

n−1

¸

k=0

1

n −1

k

).

Adapted after a Kvant problem

18. Prove that the product of at most 25 consecutive integers is not

a square.

Narumi’s theorem

52

PRIMES AND SQUARES

The study of the properties of the prime numbers is so well developed

(yet, many old conjectures and open questions wait their solution), that

some properties have become classical and need to be known. In this unit,

we will try to present a unitary view over the properties of some classes of

primes and also some classical results related to representations as sum

of two squares. These things are not new, but they must be included

in the mathematical culture of a serious problem-solver. Yet, in the end

of the unit, we will discuss as usual some non-classical and surprising

problems. So, don’t skip this unit!

Since we will use some facts several times in this paper, we prefer to

make some notations before discussing the problems. So, we will consider

A, B the sets of all prime numbers of the form 4k + 1 and 4k + 3,

respectively. Also, let C be the set of all numbers which can be written as

the sum of two perfect squares. Our purpose is to present some classical

things related to A, B, C. The most spectacular property of the set A

is surely the fact that any element is the sum of two squares of positive

integers. This is not a trivial property and we will see a beautiful proof

for this theorem of Fermat, which is far from easy.

Example 1. Prove that A is a subset of C.

Solution. Thus, we need to prove that any prime number of the form

4k+1 is the sum of two squares. We will use a very nice theorem of Thue,

which says that if n is a positive integer and a is relatively prime with

n, then there exist integers 0 < x, y ≤

√

n such that xa ≡ ±y (mod n)

for a suitable choice of the signs + and −. The proof is simple, but the

theorem itself is a diamond. Indeed, let us consider all the pairs xa −y,

with 0 ≤ x, y ≤ [

√

n]. So, we have a list of ([

√

n] +1)

2

> n numbers and

it follows that two numbers among them give the same remainder when

divided by n, let them be ax

1

−y

1

and ax

2

−y

2

. It is not diﬃcult to see

53

that we may assume that x

1

> x

2

(we certainly cannot have x

1

= x

2

or

y

1

= y

2

). If we take x = x

1

− x

2

, y = [y

1

− y

2

[, all the conditions are

satisﬁed and the theorem is proved.

We will use now Wilson’s theorem to ﬁnd an integer n such that

p[n

2

+ 1. Indeed, let us write p = 4k + 1 and observe that we can take

n = (2k)!. Why? Because from Wilson’s theorem we have

−1 ≡ (p −1)! (mod p) ≡ 1 2 . . .

p −1

2

p −

p −1

2

. . . (p −1)

≡ (−1)

p−1

2

p −1

2

!

2

≡ (2k)!

2

(mod p)

and the claim is proved. Now, since p[n

2

+ 1, it is clear that p and n

are relatively prime. Hence we can apply Thue’s theorem and we ﬁnd

the existence of positive integers 0 < x, y <

√

p (since

√

p ∈ R) such

that p[n

2

x

2

−y

2

. Because p[n

2

+ 1, we ﬁnd that p[x

2

+ y

2

and because

0 < x, y <

√

p, we conclude that we have in fact p = x

2

+ y

2

. The

theorem is proved.

Now, it is time now to study some properties of the set B. Since they

are easier, we will discuss them all in a single example.

Example 2. Let p ∈ B and suppose that x, y are integers such that

p[x

2

+ y

2

. Then p[(x, y). Consequently, any number of the form n

2

+ 1

has only prime factors that belong to A or are equal to 2. Conclude that

A is inﬁnite and then that B is inﬁnite.

Solution. Let us focus on the ﬁrst question. Suppose that p[(x, y)

is not true. Then, it is obvious that xy is not a multiple of p. Because

p[x

2

+ y

2

, we can write x

2

≡ −y

2

(mod p). Combining this with the

observation that (x, p) = (y, p) = 1 and with Fermat’s theorem, we

ﬁnd that 1 ≡ x

p−1

≡ (−1)

p−1

2

≡ (−1)

p−1

2

≡ −1 (mod p), which is

clearly impossible. This settles the ﬁrst question. The second one follows

clearly from the ﬁrst one. Now, it remains to prove the third assertion.

54

Proving that B is inﬁnite is almost identical with the proof that there

exist inﬁnitely many primes. Indeed, suppose that p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

n

are all

the elements of B greater than 3 and consider the odd number N =

4p

1

p

2

. . . p

n

+ 3. Because N ≡ 3 (mod 4), N must have a prime factor

that belongs to B. But since p

i

is not a divisor of N for any i = 1, n

the contradiction is reached and thus B is inﬁnite. In the same manner

we can prove that A is inﬁnite, but this time we must use the second

question. Indeed, we consider this time the number M = (q

1

q

2

. . . q

m

)

2

+

1, where q

1

, q

2

, . . . , q

m

are all the elements of A and then simply apply

the result from the second question. The conclusion is plain.

It is not diﬃcult to characterize the elements of the set C. A number

is a sum of two squares if and only if any prime factor of it that also

belongs to B appears at an even exponent in the decomposition of that

number. The proof is just a consequence of the ﬁrst examples and we

will not insist. Having presented some basic results that we will use in

this unit, it is time to see how many applications these two examples

have. An easy consequence of the previous observations is the following.

As a simple application of the ﬁrst example, we consider the following

problem, which is surely easy for someone who knows Fermat’s theorem

regarding the elements of A and very diﬃcult otherwise.

Example 3. Find the number of integers x ∈ ¦−1997, . . . , 1997¦ for

which 1997[x

2

+ (x + 1)

2

.

India, 1998

Solution. We know that any congruence of the second degree re-

duces to the congruence x

2

≡ a (mod p). So, let us proceed and reduce

the given congruence to this special form. This is not diﬃcult, since

x

2

+(x+1)

2

≡ 0 (mod 1997) is of course equivalent to 2x

2

+2x+1 ≡ 0

(mod 1997), which in turn becomes (2x + 1)

2

+ 1 ≡ 0 (mod 1997).

Since 1997 ∈ A, the congruence n

2

≡ −1 (mod 1997) surely has at

55

least a solution. More precisely, there are exactly two solutions that

belong to ¦1, 2, . . . , 1996¦ because if n

0

is a solution, so is 1997 − n

0

and it is clear that it has at most two non-congruent solutions mod

1997. Because (2, 1997) = 1, the function x → 2x + 1 is a permutation

of R

1997

and so the initial congruence has exactly two solutions with

x ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , 1996¦. In a similar way, we ﬁnd that there are exactly two

solutions with x ∈ ¦−1997, −1996, . . . , −1¦. Therefore there are exactly

four numbers x ∈ ¦−1997, . . . , 1997¦ such that 1997[x

2

+ (x + 1)

2

.

From a previous observation, we know that the condition that a

number is a sum of two squares is quite restrictive. This suggests that

the set X is quite RARA. This conclusion can be translated in the

following nice problem.

Example 4. Prove that C doesn’t have bounded gaps, that is there

are arbitrarily long sequences of integers, no term of which can be written

as the sum of two perfect squares.

AMM

Solution. The statement of the problem suggests using the Chinese

Remainder Theorem, but here the main idea is to use the complete

characterization of the set C, that we have just discussed: C = ¦n ∈

R[ if p[n and p ∈ B, then v

p

(n) ∈ 2R¦. Hence we know what we have

to do. We will take long sequences of consecutive integers, each of them

having a prime factor that belongs to B and has exponent 1. More

precisely, we take diﬀerent elements of B, let them p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

n

(we can

take as many as we need, since B is inﬁnite) and then we look for a

56

solution of the system of congruences

x ≡ p

1

−1 (mod p

2

1

)

x ≡ p

2

−2 (mod p

2

2

)

. . .

x ≡ p

n

−n (mod p

2

n

)

The existence of such a solution follows from the Chinese Remainder

Theorem. Thus, the numbers x+1, x+2, . . . , x+n cannot be written as

the sum of two perfect squares, since p

i

[x

i

, but p

2

i

does not divide x +i.

Since n is as large as we want, the conclusion follows.

The Diophantine equation x(x +1)(x +2) . . . (x +n) = y

k

has been

extensively studied by many mathematicians and great results have been

obtained. But these results are very diﬃcult to prove and we prefer to

present a related problem, with a nice ﬂavor of elementary mathematics.

Example 5. Prove that a set of p −1 consecutive positive integers,

where p ∈ B, cannot be partitioned into two subsets, each having the

same product of the elements.

Solution. Let us suppose that the positive integers x + 1, x +

2, . . . , x + p − 1 have been partitioned into two classes X, Y , each of

them having the same product of the elements. If at least one of them is

a multiple of p, then there must be another one divisible by p (since in

this case both the products of elements from X and Y must be multi-

ples of p), which is clearly impossible. Thus, none of these numbers is a

multiple of p, which means that the set of remainders of these numbers

when divided by p is exactly 1, 2, . . . , p −1. Also, from the hypothesis it

follows that there exists a positive integer n such that

(x + 1)(x + 2) . . . (x +p −1) = n

2

.

Hence n

2

≡ 1 2(p − 1) ≡ −1 (mod p), the last congruence being

true by Wilson’s theorem. But from the second example we know that

57

the congruence n

2

≡ −1 (mod p) is impossible for p ∈ B and this is the

needed contradiction.

The results stated in the second example are an useful tool in solving

non-standard Diophantine equations. The technique is better explained

in the following two examples.

Example 6. Prove that the equation x

4

= y

2

+z

2

+4 does not have

integer solutions.

Reid Barton, Rookie Contest, 1999

Solution. Practically, we have to show that x

4

−4 does not belong

to C. Hence we need to ﬁnd an element of B that has an odd exponent

in the decomposition of x

4

−4. The ﬁrst case is when x is odd. Using the

factorization x

4

−4 = (x

2

−2)(x

2

+2) and the observation that x

2

+2 ≡ 3

(mod 4), we deduce that there exists p ∈ B such that v

p

(x

2

+2) is odd.

But since p cannot divide x

2

−2 (otherwise p[x

2

+2 −(x

2

−2), which is

not the case), we conclude that v

p

(x

4

−4) is odd and so x

4

−4 does not

belong to C. We have thus shown that in any solution of the equation x

is even, let us say x = 2k. Then, we must also have 4k

4

−1 ∈ C, which

is clearly impossible since 4k

4

− 1 ≡ 3 (mod 4) and thus 4k

4

− 1 has

a prime factor that belongs to B and has odd exponent. Moreover, it

worth noting that the equation x

2

+y

2

= 4k+3 can be solved directly, by

working modulo 4. We leave to the reader the details, which are trivial.

The following problem is much more diﬃcult, but the basic idea is

the same. Yet, the details are not so obvious and, most important, it

is not clear how to begin. It has become a classical problem due to its

beauty and diﬃculty.

Example 7. Let p ∈ B and suppose that x, y, z, t are integers such

that x

2p

+y

2p

+z

2p

= t

2p

. Prove that at least one of the numbers x, y, z, t

is a multiple of p.

58

Barry Powel, AMM

Solution. First of all, we observe that it is enough to assume that

x, y, z, t are relatively prime. Next, we prove that t is odd. Supposing

the contrary, we obtain that x

2p

+ y

2p

+ z

2p

≡ 0 (mod 4). Since a

2

(mod 4) ∈ ¦0, 1¦, the latter implies that x, y, z are even, contradicting

the assumption that (x, y, z, t) = 1. Hence t is odd. This implies that

at least one of the numbers x, y, z is odd. Suppose that it is z. Now,

another step is required. We write the equation in the form

x

2p

+y

2p

=

t

2p

−z

2p

t

2

−z

2

(t

2

−z

2

)

and we look for a prime number q ∈ B with an odd exponent in the

decomposition of a factor that appears in the right-hand side. The best

candidate for this factor seems to be

t

2p

−z

2p

t

2

−z

2

= (t

2

)

p−1

+ (t

2

)

p−2

z

2

+ + (z

2

)

p−1

,

which is congruent to 3 (mod 4). This follows from the hypothesis p ∈ B

and the fact that a

2

≡ 1 (mod 4) for any odd number a. Thus, there

exists q ∈ B such that v

q

t

2p

−z

2p

t

2

−z

2

is odd. Since x

2p

+ y

2p

∈ C, it

follows that v

q

(x

2p

+y

2p

) is even and so v

q

(t

2

−z

2

) is odd. In particular

q[t

2

−z

2

and, because q[(t

2

)

p−1

+(t

2

)

p−2

z

2

+ +(z

2

)

p−1

, we deduce that

q[pt

2(p−1)

. If q = p, then q[t, hence q[z and also q[x

2p

+y

2p

. Because q ∈

B, we infer that q[(x, y, z, t) = 1, which is clearly impossible. Therefore

q = p and so p[x

2p

+y

2p

. Because p ∈ B, we ﬁnd that p[x and p[y. The

conclusion follows.

It’s time for a hard problem.

Example 8. Find the smallest nonnegative integer n for which there

exists a non-constant function f : Z → [0, ∞) with the following prop-

erties:

a) f(xy) = f(x)f(y);

59

b) 2f(x

2

+y

2

) −f(x) −f(y) ∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , n¦ for all integers x and y.

For this n, ﬁnd all the functions with the above properties.

Solution. We will use all results proved in the beginning of the note.

First, we will prove that for n = 1 there are functions which verify a)

and b). We remind that A and B are the sets of all primes of the form

4k + 1 and 4k + 3, respectively. For any p ∈ B we deﬁne:

f

p

: Z →Z, f

p

(x) =

0, if p[x

1, otherwise

Using properties of sets A and B, one can easily verify that f

p

veriﬁes

the restrictions of the problem. Hence f

p

is a solution of the problem for

any p ∈ B.

We will prove now that if f is non-constant and veriﬁes the conditions

of the problem, then n > 0. Suppose not. Then 2f(x

2

+y

2

) = f(x)+f(y)

and hence 2f

2

(x) = 2f(x

2

+ 0

2

) = f(x) + f(0). It is clear that we

have f

2

(0) = f(0). Since f is non-constant, we must have f(0) = 0.

Consequently, we must have 2f

2

(x) = f(x) for every integer x. But if

there exists x such that f(x) =

1

2

, then f

2

(x

2

) = 2f(x

2

), contradiction.

Thus, f(x) = 0 for any integer x and f is constant, contradiction. So,

n = 1 is the smallest number for which there are non-constant functions

which verify a) and b).

We will prove now that any non-constant function f which veriﬁes

a) and b) must be of the form f

p

. We have already seen that f(0) = 0.

Since f

2

(1) = f(1) and f is non-constant, we must have f(1) = 1. Also,

2f

2

(x) −f(x) = 2f(x

2

+ 0

2

) −f(x) −f(0) ∈ ¦0, 1¦ for every integer x.

Thus, f(x) ∈ ¦0, 1¦.

Since

f

2

(−1) = f(1) = 1 and f(−1) ∈ [0, ∞), we must have f(−1) = 1

and f(−x) = f(−1)f(x) = f(x) for any integer x. Then, since f(xy) =

f(x)f(y), it is enough to ﬁnd f(p) for any prime p. We prove that there is

60

exactly one prime number p for which f(p) = 0. Since f is non-constant,

there exists a prime number p for which f(p) = 0. Suppose there is

another prime q for which f(q) = 0. Then 2f(p

2

+ q

2

) ∈ ¦0, 1¦, which

means f(p

2

+q

2

) = 0. Then for any integers a and b we must have: 0 =

2f(a

2

+b

2

)f(p

2

+q

2

) = 2f((ap+bq)

2

+(aq−bp)

2

). Since 0 ≤ f(x)+f(y) ≤

2f(x

2

+y

2

) for any x and y, we must have f(ap +bq) = f(aq −bp) = 0.

Since p and q are relatively prime, there are integers a and b such that

aq −bp = 1. Then we have 1 = f(1) = f(aq −bp) = 0, contradiction. So

,there is exactly one prime number p for which f(p) = 0. Let us suppose

that p = 2. Then f(x) = 0 for any even x and 2f(x

2

+y

2

) = 0 for any odd

numbers x and y. This implies that f(x) = f(y) = 0 for any odd numbers

x and y and thus f is constant, contradiction. Therefore p ∈ A ∪ B.

Suppose p ∈ A. According to proposition 2, there are positive integers

a and b such that p = a

2

+b

2

. Then we must have f(a) = f(b) = 0. But

max¦a, b¦ > 1 and there is a prime number q such that q[ max¦a, b¦ and

f(q) = 0 (otherwise, we would have f(max¦a, b¦ = 1). But it is clear

that q < p and thus we have found two distinct primes p and q such

that f(p) = f(q) = 0, which, as we have already seen, is impossible.

Consequently, p ∈ B and we have f(x) = 0 for any x divisible by p and

f(x) = 1 for any x which is not divisible by p. Hence, f must be f

p

and

the conclusion follows.

Problems for training

1. Prove that if p ∈ A, then it can be represented in exactly one way

as the sum of the squares of two integers, except for the order of the

terms.

2. Prove that a positive integer can be written as the sum of two

perfect squares if and only if it can be written as the sum of the squares

of two rational numbers.

61

Euler

3. Find all positive integers n with the property that the equation

n = x

2

+y

2

, where 0 ≤ x ≤ y and (x, y) = 1 has exactly one solution.

4. Here is another proof of the theorem from example 1. Suppose

that p = 4k + 1 ∈ A and let x, y ∈ Z such that max¦[x[, [y[¦ <

p

2

and

2xε

2k

k

**(mod p), y ≡ (2k)!x (mod p). Prove that p = x
**

2

+y

2

.

Gauss

5. Find all pairs of positive integers (m, n) such that

m

2

−1[3

m

+ (n! −1)

m

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

6. The positive integers a, b have the property that the numbers

15a + 16b and 16a − 15b are both perfect squares. What is the least

possible value that can be taken on by the smallest of the two squares?

IMO CE AN?

7. Prove that the number 4mn −m−n cannot be a perfect square

if m, n are positive integers.

IMO 1984 Shortlist

8. Find all n-tuples of positive integers (a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

) such that

(a

1

! −1)(a

2

! −1) . . . (a

n

! −1) −16

is a perfect square.

Gabriel Dospinescu

9. Find all pairs of positive integers (x, y) such that the number

x

2

+y

2

x −y

is a divisor of 1995.

Bulgaria, 1995

62

10. Prove that the equation y

2

= x

5

− 4 does not have integer

solutions.

Balkan, 1998

11. Solve in integer numbers the equation x

2

= y

7

+ 7.

ROMOP, 2001

12. Find all positive integers n such that the number 2

n

− 1 has a

multiple of the form m

2

+ 9.

IMO Shortlist, 1999

13. Prove that there exists inﬁnitely many pairs of consecutive num-

bers, no two of them having any prime factor that belongs to B.

14. Prove that if n

2

+a ∈ C for any positive integer n, then a ∈ C.

Gabriel Dospinescu

15. Let T the set of the positive integers n for which the equation

n

2

= a

2

+b

2

has solutions in positive integers. Prove that T has density

1.

Moshe Laub, 6583

16. a) Prove that for any real number x and any natural number N

one can ﬁnd integer numbers p, q such that [qx −p[ ≤

1

N + 1

.

b) Suppose that a ∈ Z is a divisor of a number of the form n

2

+ 1.

Then prove that a ∈ C.

17. Find all functions f : N →Z with the properties:

1. if a[b then f(a) ≥ f(b)

2. for any natural numbers a, b we have

f(ab) +f(a

2

+b

2

) = f(a) +f(b).

Gabriel Dospinescu, Mathlinks Contest

63

18. (for the die hards) Let L

0

= 2, L

1

= 1 and L

n+2

= L

n+1

+ L

n

be the famous Lucas’s sequence. Then the only n > 1 such that L

n

is a

perfect square is n = 3.

Cohn’s theorem

64

T

2

’S LEMMA

T

2

’s lemma is clearly a direct application of the Cauchy-Schwarz in-

equality. Some will say that it is actually the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality

and they are not wrong. Anyway, this particular lemma has become very

popular among the American students who attended the training of the

USA IMO team. This happened after a lecture delivered by the ﬁrst

author at the Mathematical Olympiad Summer Program (MOSP) held

at Georgetown University in June, 2001.

But what exactly does this lemma say? It says that for any real

numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

and any positive real numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

the

inequality

a

2

1

x

1

+

a

2

2

x

2

+ +

a

2

n

x

n

≥

(a

1

+a

2

+ +a

n

)

2

x

1

+x

2

+ +x

n

(1)

holds. And now we see why calling it also the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality

is natural, since it is practically an equivalent form of this inequality:

a

2

1

x

1

+

a

2

2

x

2

+ +

a

2

n

x

n

(x

1

+x

2

+ +x

n

)

≥

¸

a

2

1

x

1

√

x

1

+

a

2

2

x

2

√

x

2

+ +

a

2

n

x

n

√

x

n

¸

2

.

But there is another nice proof of (1), by induction. The inductive

step is reduced practically to the case n = 2, which is immediate. Indeed,

it boils down to (a

1

x

2

−a

2

x

1

)

2

≥ 0 and the equality occurs if and only

if

a

1

x

1

=

a

2

x

2

. Applying this result twice it follows that

a

2

1

x

1

+

a

2

2

x

2

+

a

2

3

x

3

≥

(a

1

+a

2

)

2

x

1

+x

2

+

a

2

3

x

3

≥

(a

1

+a

2

+a

3

)

2

x

1

+x

2

+x

3

and we see that a simple inductive argument ﬁnishes the proof. With this

brief introduction, let us discuss some problems. And there are plenty

65

of them given in mathematical contests or proposed in mathematical

magazines!

First, an old problem, that became classical. We will see that with

T

2

’s lemma it becomes straightforward and even more, we will obtain a

reﬁnement of the inequality.

Example 1. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c

a

3

a

2

+ab +b

2

+

b

3

b

2

+bc +c

2

+

c

3

c

2

+ca +a

2

≥

a +b +c

3

.

Tournament of the Towns, 1998

Solution. We will change the left-hand side of the inequality so that

we could apply T

2

’s lemma. This is not diﬃcult: we just have to write it

in the form

a

4

a(a

2

+ab +b

2

)

+

b

4

b(b

2

+bc +c

2

)

+

c

4

c(c

2

+ca +a

2

)

.

It follows that the left-hand side is greater than or equal to

(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

)

2

a

3

+b

3

+c

3

+ab(a +b) +bc(b +c) +ca(c +a)

But we can easily observe that

a

3

+b

3

+c

3

+ab(a +b) +bc(b +c) +ca(c +a) = (a +b +c)(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

),

so we have proved an even stronger inequality, that is

a

3

a

2

+ab +b

2

+

b

3

b

2

+bc +c

2

+

c

3

c

2

+ca +a

2

≥

a

2

+b

2

+c

2

a +b +c

.

The second example also became representative for a whole class of

problems. There are countless examples of this type in numerous contests

and mathematical magazines, so we ﬁnd it necessary to discuss it at this

point.

66

Example 2. For arbitrary positive real numbers a, b, c, d prove the

inequality

a

b + 2c + 3d

+

b

c + 2d + 3a

+

c

d + 2a + 3b

+

d

a + 2b + 3c

≥

2

3

.

Titu Andreescu, IMO 1993 Shortlist

Solution. If we write the left-hand side in the form

a

2

a(b + 2c + 3d)

+

b

2

b(c + 2d + 3a)

+

c

2

c(d + 2a + 3b)

+

d

2

d(a + 2b + 3c)

,

then the way to continue is clear, since from the lemma we obtain

a

b + 2c + 3d

+

b

c + 2d + 3a

+

c

d + 2a + 3b

+

d

a + 2b + 3c

≥

(a +b +c +d)

2

4(ab +bc +cd +da +ac +bd)

.

Hence it suﬃces to prove the inequality

3(a +b +c +d)

2

≥ 8(ab +bc +cd +da +ac +bd).

But it is not diﬃcult to see that

(a +b +c +d)

2

= a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+d

2

+ 2(ab +bc +cd +da +ac +bd),

implies

8(ab +bc +cd +da +ac +bd) = 4(a +b +c +d)

2

−4(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+d

2

).

Consequently, we are left with the inequality

4(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+d

2

) ≥ (a +b +c +d)

2

,

which is just the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for four variables.

The problem below, given at the IMO 1995, was discussed exten-

sively in many publications. It could be also solved by using the above

lemma.

67

Example 3. Let a, b, c be positive real numbers such that abc = 1.

Prove that

1

a

3

(b +c)

+

1

b

3

(c +a)

+

1

c

3

(a +b)

≥

3

2

.

Solution. We have:

1

a

3

(b +c)

+

1

b

3

(c +a)

+

1

c

3

(a +b)

=

1

a

2

a(b +c)

+

1

b

2

b(c +a)

+

1

c

2

c(c +a)

≥

1

a

+

1

b

+

1

c

2

2(ab +bc +ca)

=

(ab +bc +ca)

2

2(ab +bc +ca)

=

ab +bc +ca

2

≥

3

2

,

the last inequality following from the AM-GM inequality.

The following problem is also not diﬃcult, but it uses a nice combi-

nation between this lemma and the Power-Mean inequality. It is another

example in which proving the intermediate inequality (that is, the in-

equality that remains to be proved after using the lemma) is not diﬃcult.

Example 4. Let n ≥ 2. Find the minimal value of the expression

x

5

1

x

2

+x

3

+ +x

n

+

x

5

2

x

1

+x

3

+ +x

n

+ +

x

5

n

x

1

+x

2

+ +x

n−1

,

where x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

are positive real numbers satisfying x

2

1

+x

2

2

+ +

x

2

n

= 1.

Turkey, 1997

Solution. Usually, in such problems the minimal value is attained

when the variables are equal. So, we conjecture that the minimal value

is

1

n(n −1)

attained when x

1

= x

2

= = x

n

=

1

√

n

. Indeed, by using

the lemma, it follows that the left-hand side is greater than or equal to

n

¸

i=1

x

3

i

2

n

¸

i=1

x

i

(x

1

+ +x

i−1

+x

i+1

+ +x

n

)

.

68

But it is not diﬃcult to observe that

n

¸

i=1

x

i

(x

1

+ +x

i−1

+x

i+1

+ +x

n

) =

n

¸

i=1

x

i

2

−1.

So, proving that

x

5

1

x

2

+x

3

+ +x

n

+

x

5

2

x

1

+x

3

+ +x

n

+ +

x

5

n

x

1

+x

2

+ +x

n−1

≥

1

n(n −1)

reduces to proving the inequality

n

¸

i=1

x

3

i

2

≥

n

¸

i=1

x

i

2

−1

n(n −1)

.

But this is a simple consequence of the Power-Mean inequality. In-

deed, we have

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

n

¸

i=1

x

3

i

n

¸

1

3

≥

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

n

¸

i=1

x

2

i

n

¸

1

2

≥

n

¸

i=1

x

i

n

,

implying

n

¸

i=1

x

3

i

≥

1

√

n

and

n

¸

i=1

√

x

i

≤

√

n.

The conclusion follows.

In 1954, H.S.Shapiro asked whether the following inequality is true

for any positive real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

:

a

1

a

2

+a

3

+

a

2

a

3

+a

4

+ +

a

n

a

1

+a

2

≥

n

2

.

The question turned out to be extremely diﬃcult. The answer is

really unexpected: one can prove that the inequality is true for all n =

3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (and for all small values of n the shortest proof is based on

69

this lemma), but it is false for all even numbers n ≥ 14 as well as for

suﬃciently large odd numbers n. Let us examine the case n = 5, a

problem proposed for MOSP 2001.

Example 5. Prove that for any positive real numbers a

1

, a

2

, a

3

, a

4

,

a

5

,

a

1

a

2

+a

3

+

a

2

a

3

+a

4

+

a

3

a

4

+a

5

+

a

4

a

5

+a

1

+

a

5

a

1

+a

2

≥

5

2

.

Solution. Again, we apply the lemma and we conclude that it suf-

ﬁces to prove the inequality

(a

1

+a

2

+a

3

+a

4

+a

5

)

2

≥

5

2

[a

1

(a

2

+a

3

) +a

2

(a

3

+a

4

) +a

3

(a

4

+a

5

) +a

4

(a

5

+a

1

) +a

5

(a

1

+a

2

)]

Let us denote a

1

+a

2

+a

3

+a

4

+a

5

= S. Then we observe that

a

1

(a

2

+a

3

) +a

2

(a

3

+a

4

) +a

3

(a

4

+a

5

) +a

4

(a + 5 +a

1

) +a

5

(a

1

+a

2

)

=

a

1

(S −a

1

) +a

2

(S −a

2

) +a

3

(S −a

3

) +a

4

(S −a

4

) +a

5

(S −a

5

)

2

=

S

2

−a

2

1

−a

2

2

−a

2

3

−a

2

4

−a

2

5

2

.

With this identity, we infer that the intermediate inequality is in fact

(a

1

+a

2

+a

3

+a

4

+a

5

)

2

≥

5

4

(S

2

−a

2

1

−a

2

2

−a

2

3

−a

2

4

−a

2

5

),

equivalent to 5(a

2

1

+a

2

2

+a

2

3

+a

2

4

+a

2

5

) ≥ S

2

, which is nothing else then

the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.

Another question arises: is there a positive real number such that

for any positive real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

and any n ≥ 3 the following

inequality holds:

a

1

a

2

+a

3

+

a

2

a

3

+a

4

+ +

a

n

a

1

+a

2

≥ cn.

This time, the answer is positive, but ﬁnding the best such constant

is an extremely diﬃcult task. It was ﬁrst solved by Drinﬁeld (who, by

the way, is a Fields’ medalist). The answer is quite complicated and we

70

will not discuss it here (for a detailed presentation of Drinﬁeld’s method

the interested reader can consult the written examination given at ENS

in 1997). The following problem, given at the Moldavian TST in 2005,

shows that c =

√

2 −1 is such a constant (not optimal).

For any a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

and any n ≥ 3 the following inequality holds:

a

1

a

2

+a

3

+

a

2

a

3

+a

4

+ +

a

n

a

1

+a

2

≥ (

√

2 −1)n.

The proof is completely elementary, yet very diﬃcult to ﬁnd. An in-

genious argument using the arithmetic-geometric means inequality does

the job: let us write the inequality in the form

a

1

+a

2

+a

3

a

2

+a

3

+

a

2

+a

3

+a

4

a

3

+a

4

+ +

a

n

+a

1

+a

2

a

1

+a

2

≥

√

2 n.

Now, using the AM-GM inequality, we see that it suﬃces to prove

the stronger inequality:

a

1

+a

2

+a

3

a

2

+a

3

a

2

+a

3

+a

4

a

3

+a

4

. . .

a

n

+a

1

+a

2

a

1

+a

2

≥ (

√

2)

n

.

Observe that

(a

i

+a

i+1

+a

i+2

)

2

=

a

i

+

a

i+1

2

+

a

i+1

2

+a

i+2

2

≥ 4

a

i

+

a

i+1

2

a

i+1

2

+a

i+2

**(the last inequality being again a consequence of the AM-GM inequal-
**

ity). Thus,

n

¸

i=1

(a

i

+a

i+1

+a

i+2

)

2

≥

n

¸

i=1

(2a

i

+a

i+1

)

n

¸

i=1

(2a

i+2

+a

i+1

).

Now, the real trick is to rewrite appropriately the last products. Let

us observe that

n

¸

i=1

(2a

i+2

+a

i+1

) =

n

¸

i=1

(2a

i+1

+a

i

),

71

so

n

¸

i=1

(2a

i

+a

i+1

)

n

¸

i=1

(2a

i+2

+a

i+1

) =

n

¸

i=1

[(2a

i

+a

i+1

)(a

i

+ 2a

i+1

)]

≥

n

¸

i=1

(2(a

i

+a

i+1

)

2

) = 2

n

n

¸

i=1

(a

i

+a

i+1

)

2

.

The conclusion now follows.

This lemma came handy even at the IMO 2005 (problem 3). In order

to prove that for any positive real numbers x, y, z such that xyz ≥ 1 the

following inequality holds

¸

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

x

5

+y

2

+z

2

≤ 3,

a few students successfully used the above mentioned lemma. For exam-

ple, a student from Ireland applied this result and called it ”SQ Lemma”.

During the coordination, the Irish deputy leader explained what ”SQ”

stood for: ”...escu”. A typical solution using this lemma is as follows:

x

5

+y

2

+z

2

=

x

4

1

x

+

y

4

y

2

+

z

4

z

2

≥

(x

2

+y

2

+z

2

)

2

1

x

+y

2

+z

2

,

hence

¸

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

x

5

+y

2

+z

2

≤

¸

1

x

+y

2

+z

2

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

= 2 +

xy +yz +zx

xyz(x

2

+y

2

+z

2

)

≤ 3.

It is now time for the champions. We begin with a diﬃcult geometric

inequality for which we have found a direct solution using T

2

’s lemma.

Here it is.

Example 6. Prove that in any triangle ABC the following inequality

holds

r

a

r

b

m

a

m

b

+

r

b

r

c

m

b

m

c

+

r

c

r

a

m

c

m

a

≥ 3.

Ji Chen, Crux Mathematicorum

72

Solution. Of course, we start by translating the inequality into an

algebraic one. Fortunately, this is not diﬃcult, since using Heron’s rela-

tion and the formulas

r

a

=

K

s −a

, m

a

=

√

2b

2

+ 2c

2

−a

2

2

and the likes the desired inequality takes the equivalent form

(a +b +c)(b +c −a)

√

2a

2

+ 2b

2

−c

2

√

2a

2

+ 2c

2

−b

2

+

(a +b +c)(c +a −b)

√

2b

2

+ 2a

2

−c

2

√

2b

2

+ 2c

2

−a

2

+

(a +b +c)(a +b −c)

√

2c

2

+ 2b

2

−a

2

√

2c

2

+ 2a

2

−b

2

≥ 3.

In this form, the inequality is more that monstrous, so we try to

see if a weaker form holds, by applying the AM-GM inequality to each

denominator. So, let us try to prove the stronger inequality

2(a +b +c)(c +b −a)

4a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+

2(a +b +c)(c +a −b)

4b

2

+c

2

+a

2

+

2(a +b +c)(a +b −c)

4c

2

+a

2

+b

2

≥ 3.

Written in the more appropriate form

c +b −a

4a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+

c +a −b

4b

2

+c

2

+a

2

+

a +b −c

4c

2

+a

2

+b

2

≥

3

2(a +b +c)

we see that by T

2

’s lemma the left-hand side is at least

(a + b + c)

2

(b + c −a)(4a

2

+ b

2

+ c

2

) + (c + a −b)(4b

2

+ a

2

+ c

2

) + (a + b −c)(4c

2

+ a

2

+ b

2

)

.

Basic computations show that the denominator of the last expression

is equal to

4a

2

(b +c) + 4b

2

(c +a) + 4c

2

(a +b) −2(a

3

+b

3

+c

3

)

and consequently the intermediate inequality reduces to the simpler form

3(a

3

+b

3

+c

3

) + (a +b +c)

3

≥ 6[a

2

(b +c) +b

2

(c +a) +c

2

(a +b)].

73

Again, we expand (a +b +c)

3

and obtain the equivalent inequality

4(a

3

+b

3

+c

3

) + 6abc ≥ 3[a

2

(b +c) +b

2

(c +a) +c

2

(a +b)],

which is not diﬃcult at all. Indeed, it follows from the inequalities

4(a

3

+b

3

+c

3

) ≥ 4[a

2

(b +c) +b

2

(c +a) +c

2

(a +b)] −12abc

and

a

2

(b +c) +b

2

(c +a) +c

2

(a +b) ≥ 6abc.

The ﬁrst one is just an equivalent form of Schur’s inequality, while

the second follows immediately from the identity

a

2

(b +c) +b

2

(c +a) +c

2

(a +b) −6abc = a(b −c)

2

+b(c −a)

2

+c(a −b)

2

.

After all, we have managed to prove the intermediate inequality,

hence the problem is solved.

The journey continues with a very diﬃcult problem, given at the

Japanese Mathematical Olympiad in 1997 and which became famous due

to its diﬃculty. We will present two solutions for this inequality. The ﬁrst

one uses a nice combination between this lemma and the substitution

discussed in the unit ”Two useful substitutions”.

Example 7. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c the

following inequality holds

(b +c −a)

2

a

2

+ (b +c)

2

+

(c +a −b)

2

b

2

+ (c +a)

2

+

(a +b −c)

2

c

2

+ (a +b)

2

≥

3

5

.

Japan, 1997

Solution. Of course, from the introduction to this problem, the

reader has already noticed that it is useless to try a direct application of

the lemma, since any such approach is doomed. But with the substitution

x =

b +c

a

, y =

c +a

b

, z =

a +b

c

,

74

we have to prove that for any positive real numbers x, y, z satisfying

xyz = x +y +z + 2, the inequality

(x −1)

2

x

2

+ 1

+

(y −1)

2

y

2

+ 1

+

(z −1)

2

z

2

+ 1

≥

3

5

holds. It is now time to use T

2

’s lemma in the form

(x −1)

2

x

2

+ 1

+

(y −1)

2

y

2

+ 1

+

(z −1)

2

z

2

+ 1

≥

(x +y +z −3)

2

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+ 3

.

Hence it is enough to prove the inequality

(x +y +z −3)

2

x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+ 3

≥

3

5

.

But this is equivalent to

(x +y +z)

2

−15(x +y +z) + 3(xy +yz +zx) + 18 ≥ 0.

This is not an easy inequality. We will use the proposed problem 3

from the unit ”Two useful substitutions” to reduce the above inequality

to the form

(x +y +z)

2

−9(x +y +z) + 18 ≥ 0,

which follows from the inequality x + y + z ≥ 6. And the problem is

solved.

But here is another original solution.

Alternative solution. Let us apply T

2

’s lemma in the following

form:

(b +c −a)

2

a

2

+ (b +c)

2

+

(c +a −b)

2

b

2

+ (c +a)

2

+

(a +b −c)

2

c

2

+ (a +b)

2

=

((b +c)

2

−a(b +c))

2

a

2

(b +c)

2

+ (b +c)

4

+

((c +a)

2

−b(c +a))

2

b

2

(c +a)

2

+ (c +a)

4

+

((a +b)

2

−c(a +b))

2

c

2

(a +b)

2

+ (a +b)

4

≥

4(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

)

2

a

2

(b +c)

2

+b

2

(c +a)

2

+c

2

(a +b)

2

+ (a +b)

4

+ (b +c)

4

+ (c +a)

4

.

75

Consequently, it suﬃces to prove that the last quantity is greater

than or equal to

3

5

. This can be done by expanding everything, but here

is an elegant proof using the observation that

a

2

(b +c)

2

+b

2

(c +a)

2

+c

2

(a +b)

2

+ (a +b)

4

+ (b +c)

4

+ (c +a)

4

= [(a +b)

2

+ (b +c)

2

+ (c +a)

2

](a

2

+b

2

+c

2

)

+2ab(a +b)

2

+ 2bc(b +c)

2

+ 2ca(c +a)

2

.

Because

(a +b)

2

+ (b +c)

2

+ (c +a)

2

≤ 4(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

),

we observe that the desired inequality reduces to

2ab(a +b)

2

+ 2bc(b +c)

2

+ 2ca(c +a)

2

≤

8

3

(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

)

2

.

But this inequality is not so diﬃcult. Indeed, ﬁrst we observe that

2ab(a +b)

2

+ 2bc(b +c)

2

+ 2ca(c +a)

2

≤ 4ab(a

2

+b

2

) + 4bc(b

2

+c

2

) + 4ca(c

2

+a

2

).

Then, we also ﬁnd that

4ab(a

2

+b

2

) ≤ a

4

+b

4

+ 6a

2

b

2

,

since (a −b)

4

≥ 0. Hence

4ab(a

2

+b

2

) + 4bc(b

2

+c

2

) + 4ca(c

2

+a

2

) ≤ 2(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

)

2

+2(a

2

b

2

+b

2

c

2

+c

2

a

2

) ≤

8

3

(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

)

2

and so the problem is solved. With minor changes, we can readily see

that this solution works without the assumption that a, b, c are positive.

We end this discussion (which remains probably permanently open)

with a diﬃcult problem, based on two hidden applications of T

2

’s lemma.

76

Example 8. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

> 0 such that a

1

+a

2

+ +a

n

= 1.

Prove that:

(a

1

a

2

+a

2

a

3

+ +a

n

a

1

)

a

1

a

2

2

+a

2

+

a

2

a

2

3

+a

3

+ +

a

n

a

2

1

+a

1

≥

n

n + 1

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. How can we get to a

1

a

2

+ a

2

a

3

+ + a

n

a

1

? Probably

from

a

2

1

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

2

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

2

n

a

n

a

1

after we use the lemma. So, let us try

this the following estimation:

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

n

a

1

=

a

2

1

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

2

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

2

n

a

n

a

1

≥

1

a

1

a

2

+a

2

a

3

+ +a

n

a

1

.

The new problem, proving that

a

1

a

2

2

+a

2

+

a

2

a

2

3

+a

3

+ +

a

n

a

2

1

+a

1

≥

n

n + 1

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

n

a

1

**seems even more diﬃcult, but we will see that we have to make one more
**

step in order to solve it. Again , we look at the right-hand side and we

write

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

n

a

1

as

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

n

a

1

2

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

n

a

1

.

After applying T

2

’s lemma, we ﬁnd that

a

1

a

2

2

+a

2

+

a

2

a

2

3

+a

3

+ +

a

n

a

2

1

+a

1

=

a

1

a

2

2

a

1

+

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

a

3

2

a

2

+

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

n

a

1

2

a

n

+

a

n

a

1

≥

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

n

a

1

2

1 +

a

1

a

2

+

a

2

a

3

+ +

a

n

a

1

.

77

And we are left with an easy problem: if t =

a

1

a

2

+ +

a

n

a

1

, then

t

2

1 +t

≥

nt

n + 1

, or t ≥ n. But this follows immediately from the AM-GM

inequality.

Problems for training

1. Let a, b, c, d be positive real numbers such that a +b +c +d = 1.

Prove that

a

2

a +b

+

b

2

b +c

+

c

2

c +d

+

d

2

d +a

≥

1

2

.

Ireland, 1999

2. Let a, b, c, be positive real numbers satisfying a

2

+b

2

+c

2

= 3abc.

Prove that

a

b

2

c

2

+

b

c

2

a

2

+

c

a

2

b

2

≥

9

a +b +c

.

India

3. Let x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

, y

1

, y

2

, . . . , y

n

be positive real numbers such that

x

1

+x

2

+ +x

n

≥ x

1

y

1

+x

2

y

2

+ +x

n

y

n

.

Prove that

x

1

+x

2

+ +x

n

≤

x

1

y

1

+

x

2

y

2

+ +

x

n

y

n

.

Romeo Ilie, Romanian Olympiad, 1999

4. For arbitrary positive real numbers a, b, c prove the inequality

a

b + 2c

+

b

c + 2a

+

c

a + 2b

≥ 1.

Czech-Slovak Competition, 1999

5. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c satisfying a+b+c =

1,

a

1 +bc

+

b

1 +ca

+

c

1 +ab

≥

9

10

.

India

78

6. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c, d satisfying ab +

bc +cd +da = 1 the following inequality is true

a

3

b +c +d

+

b

3

c +d +a

+

c

3

d +a +b

+

d

3

a +b +c

≥

1

3

.

IMO 1990 Shortlist

7. Prove that if the positive real numbers a, b, c satisfy abc = 1, then

a

b +c + 1

+

b

c +a + 1

+

c

a +b + 1

≥ 1.

Vasile Cartoaje, Gazeta Matematica

8. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c the following in-

equality holds

a

2

+bc

b +c

+

b

2

+ca

c +a

+

c

2

+ab

a +b

≥ a +b +c.

Cristinel Mortici, Gazeta Matematica

9. Prove that for any nonnegative real numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

,

x

1

x

n

+x

2

+

x

2

x

1

+x

3

+ +

x

n

x

n−1

+x

1

≥ 2.

Tournament of the Towns, 1982

10. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c, d, e satisfying

abcde = 1,

a +abc

1 +ab +abcd

+

b +bcd

1 +bc +bcde

+

c +cde

1 +cd +cdea

+

d +dea

1 +de +deab

+

e +eab

1 +ea +eabc

≥

10

3

.

Waldemar Pompe, Crux Mathematicorum

11. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c the following

inequality holds

a

b +c

2

+

b

c +a

2

+

c

a +b

2

≥

3

4

a

2

+b

2

+c

2

ab +bc +ca

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

79

12. Let n ≥ 4 an integer and let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

be positive real num-

bers such that a

2

1

+a

2

2

+ +a

2

n

= 1. Prove that

a

1

a

2

2

+ 1

+

a

2

a

2

3

+ 1

+ +

a

n

a

2

1

+ 1

≥

4

5

(a

1

√

a

1

+a

2

√

a

2

+ +a

n

√

a

n

)

2

.

Mircea Becheanu, Bogdan Enescu, TST 2002, Romania

13. Find the best constant k(n) such that for any positive real

numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

satisfying a

1

a

2

. . . a

n

= 1 the following inequality

holds

a

1

a

2

(a

2

1

+a

2

)(a

2

2

+a

1

)

+

a

2

a

3

(a

2

2

+a

3

)(a

2

3

+a

2

)

+ +

a

n

a

1

(a

2

n

+a

1

)(a

2

1

+a

2

)

≤ k

n

.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Mircea Lascu

14. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c,

(2a +b +c)

2

2a

2

+ (b +c)

2

+

(2b +c +a)

2

2b

2

+ (c +a)

2

+

(2c +a +b)

2

2c

2

+ (a +b)

2

≤ 8.

Titu Andreescu, Zuming Feng, USAMO 2003

80

ONLY GRAPHS, NO SUBGRAPHS!

There were so many strategies and useful ideas till now, that the

reader might say: enough with this game of tricks! When shall we go

to serious facts? Not only that we will ”dissapoint” him again, but we

will try also to convince him that these are more than simple tools and

tricks. They help to create a good base, which is absolutely indispensable

for someone who enjoys mathematics and moreover, they are the ﬁrst

step to some really beautiful and diﬃcult theorems or problems. And the

reader must admit that the last problems discussed in the previous units

are quite serious facts. It is worth mentioning that they are not panacea.

This assertion is proved by the fact that each year problems that are

based on well-known ”tricks” prove to be very diﬃcult in contests.

We will focus in this unit on a very familiar theme: graphs without

complete subgraphs. Why do we say familiar? Because there are hun-

dreds of problems proposed to diﬀerent contests around the world and in

mathematical magazines that deal with this subject and each one seems

to add something. Before passing to the ﬁrst problem, we will assume

that the basic knowledge about graphs is known and we will denote by

d(A) and C(A) the number, respectively the set of vertices adjacent to

A. Also, we will say that a graph does not have a complete k subgraph

if there aren’t k vertices any two of them connected. For simplicity, we

will say that G is k-free. First, we will discuss probably the ﬁrst classical

result about triangles-free graphs, the famous Turan’ theorem. But be-

fore that, an useful lemma, which is also known as Zarankiewicz lemma

and which is the main idea in Turan’ theorem’ proof.

Example 1. If G is a k-free graph, then there exists a vertex having

degree at most

¸

k −2

k −1

n

.

Zarankiewicz

81

Solution. Suppose not and take an arbitrary vertex A

1

. Then

[C(A

1

)[ >

¸

k −2

k −1

n

,

so there exists A

2

∈ C(A

1

). Moreover,

[C(A

1

) ∩ C(A

2

)[ = d(A

1

) +d(A

2

) −[C(A

1

∪ A

2

)[

≥ 2

1 +

¸

k −2

k −1

n

−n > 0.

Pick a vertex A

3

∈ C(A

1

) ∩ C(A

2

). A similar argument shows that

[C(A

1

) ∩ C(A

2

) ∩ C(A

3

)[ ≥ 3

1 +

¸

k −2

k −1

n

−2n.

Repeating this argument, we ﬁnd

A

4

∈ C(A

1

) ∩ C(A

2

) ∩ C(A

3

), . . . , A

k−1

∈

k−2

¸

i=1

C(A

i

).

Also, we have

j

¸

i=1

C(A

i

)

≥ j

1 +

¸

k −2

k −1

n

−(j −1)n.

This can be proved easily by induction. Thus,

k−1

¸

i=1

C(A

i

)

≥ (k −1)

1 +

¸

k −2

k −1

n

−(k −2)n > 0

and consequently we can choose

A

k

∈

k−1

¸

i=1

C(A

i

).

But it is clear that A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

k

form a complete k graph, which

contradicts the assumption that G is k-free.

We are now ready to prove Turan’ theorem.

Example 2. The maximal number of edges of a k-free graph with

vertices is

k −2

2

n

2

−r

2

k −1

+

r

2

,

82

where r = n (mod k −1).

Turan’ theorem

Solution. The theorem will be proved by induction on n. Since the

ﬁrst case is trivial, let us suppose the theorem true for all k-free graphs

having n − 1 vertices and let G a k-free graph with n vertices. Using

Zarankiewicz’ lemma, we can ﬁnd a vertex A such that

d(A) ≤

¸

k −2

k −1

n

.

Since the subgraph determined by the other n−1 vertices is obviously

k-free, using the inductive hypothesis we ﬁnd that G has at most

¸

k −2

k −1

n

+

k −2

k −1

(n −1)

2

−r

2

1

2

+

r

1

2

edges, where r

1

= n −1 (mod k −1).

Let n = q(k −1) +r = q

1

(k −1) +r

1

+1. Then r

1

∈ ¦r −1, r +k −2¦

(this is because r −r

1

≡ 1 (mod k −1)) and it is easy to check that

¸

k −2

k −1

n

+

k −2

k −1

(n −1)

2

−r

2

1

2

+

r

1

2

=

k −2

2

n

2

−r

2

k −1

+

r

2

**and the inductive step is proved. Now, it remains to construct a k-
**

free graph with n vertices and

k −2

2

n

2

−r

2

k −1

+

r

2

edges. This is

not diﬃcult. Just consider k − 1 classes of vertices, r of them having

q + 1 elements and the rest q elements and join the vertices situated in

diﬀerent groups. It is immediate to prove that this graph is k-free, has

k −2

2

n

2

−r

2

k −1

+

r

2

**edges and also the minimal degree of the vertices
**

is

¸

k −2

k −1

n

**. This graph is called Turan’ graph and it is denoted by
**

T(n, k).

These two examples generate lots of beautiful and diﬃcult problems.

For example, knowing them means a straightforward solution for the

following bulgarian problem.

83

Example 3. There are 2001 towns in a country, every one of which is

connected with at least 1600 towns by a direct bus line. Find the largest

n for which it is always possible to ﬁnd n towns, any two of which are

connected by a direct bus line.

Spring Mathematics Tournament, 2001

Solution. Practically, the problem asks to ﬁnd the maximal n such

that any graph G with 2001 vertices and minimum degree at least 1600

is not n-free. But Zarankiewicz’ lemma implies that if G is n-free, then

at least one vertex has degree at most

¸

n −2

n −1

2001

. So, we need the

maximal n for which

¸

n −2

n −1

2001

**< 1600. It is immediate to see that
**

it is n = 5. Thus, if n = 5 then any such graph G is not n-free. It

suﬃces to construct a graph with all degrees of the vertices at least

1600, which is 6-free. We will take of course T(2001, 6), whose minimal

degree is

¸

4

4

2001

**= 1600 and which is of course 6-free. Thus, the answer
**

is n = 5.

Here is a beautiful application of Turan’ theorem in combinatorial

geometry.

Example 4. Given are 21 points on a circle. Show that at least 100

pairs of points subtend an angle smaller than or equal to 120 at the

center.

Tournament of the Towns, 1986

Solution. In such problems, it is more important to choose the

right graph than to apply the theorem, because as soon as the graph is

appropriately chosen, the solution is more or less straightforward. Here,

we will consider the graph with vertices in the points and we will connect

two points if they subtend an angle smaller than or equal to 120 at the

center. Therefore, we need to prove that this graph has at least 100

edges. It seems that this is a reversed form of Turan’ theorem, which

84

maximizes the number of edges in a k-free graph. Yet, the reversed form

of a reversed form is the natural one. In the aim of this principle, let

us look at the ”reversed” graph, the complementary one. We must show

that it has at most

21

2

**−100 = 110 edges. But this is immediate, since
**

it is clear that this new graph does not have triangles and so, by Turan’

theorem it has at most

21

2

−1

4

= 110 edges. And the problem is solved.

At ﬁrst glance, the following problem seem to have no relation with

the previously examples, but, as we will see, it is a simple consequence

of Zarankiewicz’ lemma. This problem is an adaptation of a USAMO

1978 problem. Anyway, this is trickier than the contest problem.

Example 5. There are n delegates at a conference, each of them

knowing at most k languages. Anyway, among any three delegates, at

least two speak a common language. Find the smallest number n (in

terms of k) such that it is always possible to ﬁnd a language spoken by

at least three delegates.

Solution. We will prove that n = 2k + 3. First, we prove that if

there are 2k + 3 delegates,then the conclusion of the problem holds.

The condition ”among any three of them there are at least two who

can communicate” suggests us to take the 3-free graph with vertices

in the persons and whose edges join persons that cannot communicate.

From Zarankiewicz’ lemma, there exists a vertex whose degree is at most

n

2

**= k +1. Thus, it is not connected with at least k +1 other vertices.
**

Therefore, there exists a person A and k + 1 persons A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

k+1

that can communicate with A. Since A knows at most k languages, there

are two persons among A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

p

that know a language also known

by A. But that language is known by at least three delegates and we are

done. It remains to prove now that we can create a situation in which

there are 2k + 2 delegates, but no language is known by more than two

delegates. We use again Turan’ graph, by creating two groups of k + 1

85

delegates. In each group a person will have a common language with

each other person from the group and will not have common languages

with the members of the other group. Of course, any language is spoken

by at most two delegates and there are no triangles.

The following problem turned out to be a surprise at one of the Team

Selection Tests for 2004 IMO, being solved by 4 contestants. The idea is

even easier than in the previous problems, but this time we need a little

observation, that is not so obvious.

Example 6. Let A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

101

be diﬀerent subsets of the set

¦1, 2, . . . , n¦. Suppose that the union of any 50 subsets has more than

50

51

n elements. Prove that there are three subsets among them, any two

of them having common elements.

Gabriel Dospinescu, TST 2004 Romania

Solution. Of course, as the conclusion suggests, we should take a

graph with vertices in the subsets, connecting two subsets if they have

common elements. Let us assume that this graph is 3-free. The main

idea is not to use Zarankiewicz’ lemma, but to ﬁnd much more vertices

with small degrees. In fact, we will prove that there are at least 51

vertices whose degree are smaller than or equal to 50. Suppose this is

not the case, thus there are at least 51 vertices whose degrees are greater

than 51. Let us pick such a vertex A. It is connected with at least 51

vertices, thus it must be adjacent to a vertex B, whose degree is at

least 51. Since A and B are each connected with at least 51 vertices,

there is a vertex adjacent to both, so we have a triangle, contradicting

our assumption. Therefore, we can ﬁnd A

i

1

, . . . , A

i

51

, all of them having

degrees at most 50. Consequently, A

i

1

is disjoint from at least 50 subsets.

Since the union of these subsets has more than

50

51

n elements, we infer

that [A

i

1

[ < n −

50

51

n =

n

51

. In a similar way, we obtain that [A

i

j

[ ≤

n

51

86

for all j ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , 51¦ and so

[A

i

1

∪ A

i

2

∪ ∪ A

i

50

[ ≤ [A

i

1

[ + +[A

i

50

[ <

50

51

n,

which contradicts the hypothesis. And the solution ends here.

We end the discussion with an adaptation of a very nice and quite

challenging problem from the American Mathematical Monthly.

Example 7. Prove that the complementary of any 3-free graph with

n vertices and m edges has at least

n(n −1)(n −5)

24

+

2

n

m−

n

2

−n

4

2

triangles.

A.W Goodman, AMM

Solution. Believe it or not, the number of triangles from the com-

plementary graph can be expressed only in terms of the degrees of the

vertices of the graph. More precisely, if G is the graph, then the number

of triangles from the complementary graph is

n

3

−

1

2

¸

x∈X

d(x)(n −1 −d(x)),

where X is the set of vertices of G. Indeed, consider all triples (x, y, z) of

vertices of G. We will count the triples that do not form a triangle in the

complementary graph G. Indeed, consider the sum

¸

x∈X

d(x)(n−1−d(x)).

It counts twice every triple (x, y, z) in which are connected, while z is not

adjacent to any of x, y: once for x and once for y. But it also counts twice

every triple (x, y, z) in which y is connected with both x, z: once for x and

once for z. Therefore,

1

2

¸

x∈X

d(x)(n −1 −d(x)) is exactly the number of

triples (x, y, z) that do not form a triangle in the complementary graph

(here we have used the fact that G is 3-free). Now, it is enough to prove

87

that

n

3

−

1

2

¸

x∈X

d(x)(n−1−d(x)) ≥

n(n −1)(n −5)

24

+

2

n

m−

n

2

−n

4

2

.

Using the observation that

¸

x∈X

d(x) = 2m, after a few computations

we ﬁnd the equivalent form of the inequality

¸

x∈X

d

2

(x) ≥

4m

2

n

.

But this is exactly the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality combined with

the observation that

¸

x∈X

d(x) = 2m.

Problems for training

1. In a country there are 1998 cities. In each group of three cities,

at least two are not directly connected. What is the maximal number of

direct ﬂights?

Japan, 1998

2. Let x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

be real numbers. Prove that there are at most

n

2

4

pairs (i, j) ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ such that 1 < [x

i

−x

j

[ < 2.

MOSP, CE AN?

3. If n points lie on a circle, then at most

n62

3

segments connecting

them have length greater than

√

2.

Poland, 1997

4. Let G be a graph with no triangles and such that no point is

adjacent to all the other vertices. Also, if A and B are not joined by

an edge, then there exists a vertex C such that AC and BC are edges.

Prove that all vertices have the same degree.

APMO 1990

88

5. Show that a graph with n vertices and k edges has at least

k

3n

(4k−

n

2

) triangles.

APMO 1989

6. Let A be a subset of the set S = ¦1, 2, . . . , 1000000¦ having exactly

101 elements. Prove that there exist t

1

, t

2

, . . . , t

100

∈ S such that the sets

A

j

= ¦x +t

j

[x ∈ A¦ are pairwise disjoint.

IMO 2003

6. There are 1999 people participating in an exhibition. Out of any

50 people, at least 2 do not know each other. Prove that we can ﬁnd at

least 41 people who each know at most 1958 other people.

Taiwan, 1999

7. A graph with n vertices and k edges is 3-free. Prove that we

can choose a vertex such that the subgraph induced by the remaining

vertices has at most k

1 −

4k

n

2

vertices.

USAMO 1995

8. Prove that for every n one can construct a graph with no triangles

and whose chromatic number is at least n.

9. A graph with n

2

+1 edges and 2n vertices is given. Prove that it

contains two triangles sharing a common edge.

China TST, 1987

10. We are given 5n points in a plane and we connect some of them,

so that 10n

2

+ 1 segments are drawn. We color these segments in 2

colours. Prove that we can ﬁnd a monochromatic triangle.

89

COMPLEX COMBINATORICS

When reading the title, one will surely expect a hard unit, which will

show what a complex ﬁeld is combinatorics. Unfortunately, this was not

our intention. We ”just” want to discuss some combinatorial problems

that can be solved elegantly using complex numbers. In this moment,

the reader will probably say we are crazy, but we will continue our

idea and say that complex numbers can play a very important role in

counting problems and also in problems related to tilings. There are also

numerous applications in combinatorial number theory, so our purpose

is to present a little bit from each of these situations. After that, the

reader will surely have the pleasure of solving the proposed problems

using this technique. For fear of useless repetition, we will present in the

beginning of the discussion a useful result

Lemma. If p is a prime number and a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

p−1

∈ Q satisfy the

relation

a

0

+a

1

ε +a

2

ε

2

+ +a

p−1

ε

p−1

= 0,

where

ε = cos

2π

p

+i sin

2π

p

,

then a

0

= a

1

= = a

p−1

.

We will say just a few words about the proof, which is not diﬃcult. It

is enough to observe that the polynomials a

0

+a

1

x+a

2

x

2

+ +a

p−1

x

p−1

and 1+x+x

2

+ +x

p−1

cannot be relatively prime-because they share

a common root-and since 1 + x + x

2

+ + x

p−1

is irreducible over Q,

1 + x + x

2

+ + x

p−1

must divide a

0

+ a

1

x + a

2

x

2

+ + a

p−1

x

p−1

,

which can only happen if a

0

= a

1

= = a

p−1

. Therefore, the lemma

is proved and it is time to solve some nice problems. Not before saying

that in the following examples m(A) will denote the sum of the elements

of the set A. By convention m(∅) = 0.

90

The ﬁrst example is an adaptation from a problem given in the Inter-

County Contest ”Traian Lalescu”. Of course, there is a solution using

recurrent sequences, but it is by far less elegant than the following one.

Example 1. How many numbers with n digits, all equal to 1, 3, 4,

6, 7, 9 are divisible by 7?

Solution. Let a

(k)

n

be the number of n-digits numbers, formed using

only the digits 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 9 and which are congruent to k modulo 7.

It is clear that

6

¸

k=0

a

(k)

n

ε

k

=

¸

x

1

,x

2

,...,x

n

∈|1,3,4,6,7,9¦

ε

x

1

+x

2

++x

n

= (ε +ε

3

+ε

4

+ε

6

+ε

7

+ε

9

)

n

,

where ε = cos

2π

7

+ i sin

2π

7

. The remark that 1 + ε + ε

2

+ + ε

6

= 0

helps us to bring (ε+ε

3

+ε

4

+ε

6

+ε

7

+ε

9

)

n

to the simpler form (−ε

5

)

n

.

Let us assume that n is divisible by 7, for example (the other cases can

be discussed similarly). Then

6

¸

k=0

a

(k)

n

ε

k

= (−1)

n

and from the lemma we infer that a

(0)

n

−(−1)

n

= a

(1)

n

= = a

(6)

n

. Let

k be the common value. Then 7k =

6

¸

k=0

a

(k)

n

−(−1)

n

= 6

n

−(−1)

n

- this

is because exactly 6

n

numbers have n digits, all equal to 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 9.

Thus, in this case we have a

(0)

n

= (−1)

n

+

6

n

−(−1)

n

7

. We leave to the

reader the study of the other cases: n ≡ 12, 3, 4, 5, 6 (mod 7).

The same simple, but tricky idea can oﬀer probably the most beau-

tiful solution for the diﬃcult IMO 1995 problem 6. It worth saying that

Nikolai Nikolov won a special prize for the following magniﬁcent solu-

tion.

91

Example 2. Let p > 2 be a prime number and A = ¦1, 2, . . . , 2p¦.

Find the number of subsets of A, each having p elements and the sum

of the elements divisible by p.

Marcin Kuczma, IMO 1995

Solution. Consider ε = cos

2π

p

+ i sin

2π

p

and let x

j

the number of

subsets x ⊂ A such that [X[ = p and m(X) ≡ j (mod p). Then it is

clear that

p−1

¸

j=0

x

j

ε

j

=

¸

B⊂A,[B[=p

ε

m(B)

=

¸

1≤c

1

<c

2

<<c

p

≤2p

ε

c

1

+c

2

++c

p

.

But

¸

1≤c

1

<c

2

<<c

p

≤2p

ε

c

1

+c

2

++c

p

is exactly the coeﬃcient of x

p

in

the expansion (X + ε)(X + ε

2

) . . . (X + ε

2p

). Since X

p

− 1 = (X −

1)(X − ε) . . . (X − ε

p−1

), we easily ﬁnd that (X + ε)(X + ε

2

) . . . (X +

ε

2p

) = (X

p

+ 1)

2

. Thus,

p−1

¸

j=0

x

j

ε

j

= 2 and lemma implies the equality

x

0

−2 = x

1

= = x

p−1

. Since there are

2p

p

**subsets with p elements,
**

we have

x

0

+x

1

+ +x

p−1

=

2p

p

.

Therefore,

x

0

= 2 +

1

p

2p

p

−2

.

With a somewhat diﬀerent, but closely related idea we can solve the

following nice problem.

Example 3. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

m

be natural numbers and let f(k) the

number of m-tuples (c

1

, c

2

, . . . , c

m

) such that 1 ≤ c

i

≤ a

i

, i = 1, m and

c

1

+c

2

+ +c

m

≡ k (mod n), where n > 1 is a natural number.

Prove that f(0) = f(1) = = f(n − 1) if and only if there exists

an index i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , m¦ such that n[a

i

.

Reid Burton, Rookie Contest ,1999

92

Solution. It is not diﬃcult to observe that

n−1

¸

k=0

f(k)ε

k

=

¸

1≤c

i

≤a

i

ε

c

1

+c

2

++c

m

=

m

¸

i=1

(ε +ε

2

+ +ε

a

i

)

for any complex number ε such that ε

n−1

+ε

n−2

+ +ε +1 = 0. Thus,

one part of the problem is already proved, since if f(0) = f(1) = =

f(n −1) then of course we can ﬁnd i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , m¦ such that ε +ε

2

+

+ε

a

i

= 0, where we have chosen here a primitive root of the unity ε.

We infer that ε

a

i

= 1 and so n[a

i

. Now, suppose there exists an index

i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , m¦ such that n[a

i

. Then for any root ε of the polynomial

n−1

¸

k=0

X

k

we have

n−1

¸

k=0

f(k)ε

k

and so the polynomial

n−1

¸

k=0

X

k

divides the

polynomial

n−1

¸

k=0

f(k)X

k

. This is because the polynomial

n−1

¸

k=0

X

k

has only

simple roots. By a simple degree consideration, this is possible only if

f(0) = f(1) = = f(n −1). The solution ends here.

The enthusiasm determined by the above solutions will surely be

ATENUAT by the following problem, in which e need some tricky ma-

nipulations.

Example 4. Let p > 2 be a prime number and let m, n be multiples

of p such that n is odd. For any function f : ¦1, 2, . . . , m¦ → ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦

that satisﬁes p[f(1) +f(2) + +f(m), consider the product f(1)f(2)

f(m). Prove that the sum of these products is divisible by

n

p

m

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Let ε = cos

2π

p

+ i sin

2π

p

and x

k

be the sum of all

the numbers f(1)f(2) . . . f(m), after all functions f : ¦1, 2, . . . , m¦ →

¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ that satisfy f(1) + f(2) + + f(m) ≡ k (mod p). It is

93

clear that:

p−1

¸

k=0

x

k

ε

k

=

¸

c

1

,c

2

,...,c

m

∈|1,2,...,n¦

c

1

c

2

. . . c

m

ε

c

1

+c

2

++c

m

= (ε + 2ε

2

+ +nε

n

)

m

.

Recall the identity

1 + 2x + 3x

2

+ +nx

n−1

=

nx

n+1

−(n + 1)x

n

+ 1

(x −1)

2

.

Plugging ε in the previous identity, we ﬁnd that

ε + 2ε

2

+ +nε

n

=

nε

n+2

−(n + 1)ε

n+1

+ε

(ε −1)

2

=

nε

ε −1

.

Consequently,

p−1

¸

k=0

x

k

ε

k

=

n

m

(ε −1)

m

.

On the other hand, it is not diﬃcult to deduce the relations

ε

p−1

+ε

p−2

+ +ε + 1 = 0 ⇔

1

ε −1

= −

1

p

(ε

p−2

+ 2ε

p−3

+ + (p −2)ε +p −1).

Thus, if we consider

(X

p−2

+2X

p−3

+ +(p−2)X+p−1)

m

= b

0

+b

1

X+ +b

m(p−2)

X

m(p−2)

,

then we have

n

m

(ε −1)

m

=

−

n

p

m

(c

0

+c

1

ε + +c

p−1

ε

p−1

),

where

c

k

=

¸

k≡k (mod p)

b

j

.

If r =

−

n

p

m

, then we have the relation

x

0

−rc

0

+ (x

1

rc

1

)ε + + (x

p−1

−rc

p−1

)ε

p−1

= 0.

94

From the lemma, it follows that x

0

−rc

0

= x

1

−rc

1

= = x

p−1

−

rc

p−1

= k. Because clearly c

0

, c

1

, . . . , c

p−1

∈ R, it remains to prove that

r[k. Since

pk = x

0

+x

1

+ +x

p−1

−r(c

0

+c

1

+ +c

p−1

)

= (1 + 2 + +n)

m

−r(b

0

+b

1

+ +b

m(p−2)

)

=

n(n + 1)

2

m

−r

p(p −1)

2

m

,

it is clear that r[k. Here we have used the hypothesis. The problem is

solved.

It is time now to leave this kind of problems and to speak a little bit

about some nice applications of complex numbers in tilings. The idea is

to put a complex number in each square of a table and then to translate

the hypothesis and the conclusion in terms of complex numbers. But

we will better see how this technique works by solving a few problems.

First, some easy problems.

Example 5. Consider a rectangle which can be tiled with a ﬁnite

combination of 1m or n1 rectangles, where m, n are natural numbers.

Prove that it is possible to tile this rectangle using only rectangles 1m

or only with rectangles n 1.

Gabriel Carrol ,BMC Contest,2000

Solution. It is obvious that the rectangle has natural dimensions,

let them be a, b. Now, let us partition the rectangle into 1 1 squares

and denote this squares

(1, 1), (1, 2), . . . , (a, 1), . . . , (a, 1), (a, 2), . . . , (a, b).

Next, put the number ε

i

1

ε

j

2

in the square whose label is (i, j), where

ε

1

= cos

2π

n

+i sin

2π

n

, ε

2

= cos

2π

m

+i sin

2π

m

.

95

The main observation is that the sum of the numbers in any 1 m

or n 1 rectangle is 0. This is immediate, but the consequence of this

simple observation is really surprising. Indeed, it follows that the sum

of the numbers from all the squares is 0 and so

0 =

¸

1≤i≤a

1≤j≤b

ε

i

1

ε

j

2

=

a

¸

i=1

ε

i

1

b

¸

j=1

ε

j

2

.

Thus, at least one of the numbers

a

¸

i=1

ε

i

1

and

b

¸

j−1

ε

j

2

is 0. But this

means that n[a or m[b. In any of these cases, it is clear that we can tile

the rectangle using only horizontal or vertical rectangles.

The idea in the previous problem is quite useful, many tilings prob-

lems having straightforward solutions by using it. An example is the

following problem, given in Baltic Contest in 1998.

Example 6. Can we tile a 13 13 table using only 1 4, 4 1

rectangles, such that only the center of the table does not belong to any

rectangle?

Baltic Contest,1998

Solution. Suppose such a tiling is possible and label the squares of

the table as in the previous problem. Next, associate to square (k, j) the

number i

k+2j

. Obviously, the sum of the numbers from each 1 4, 4 1

rectangle is 0. Therefore, the sum of all numbers from the squares of the

table is equal to the number in the square situated at the center of the

table. Thus,

i

21

= (i +i

2

+ +i

13

)(i

2

+i

4

+ +i

26

) = i

i

13

−1

i −1

i

2

i

26

−1

i

2

−1

= i

3

,

which clearly cannot hold. Thus, the assumption was wrong and such a

tiling does not exist.

96

The following example we are going to discuss is based on the same

idea, but here complex numbers are more involved.

Example 7. On a 8 9 table we put rectangles 3 1 and ﬁgures

formed by rectangles 1 3 by cutting the median 1 1 square. The

rectangles and the ﬁgures do not intersect and cannot be rotated. Prove

that there exists a set S of 18 squares of the table such that if there are

exactly two uncovered squares, then they belong to S.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Again, we label the squares of the table (1, 1), (1, 2), . . . ,

(8, 9) by starting from the up-left corner. In the square labeled (k, j) we

will put the number i

j

ε

k

, where i

2

= −1 and ε

2

+ε+1 = 0. The sum of

the numbers from any ﬁgure or rectangle is 0. The sum of the numbers

from the table is

8

¸

k=1

ε

k

¸

9

¸

j=1

i

j

¸

= −i.

Let us suppose that the squares (a

1

, b

1

), (a

2

, b

2

) are the only un-

covered squares. Then we have of course i

b

1

ε

a

1

+ i

b

2

ε

a

2

= −i. Let

z

1

= i

b

1

−1

ε

a

1

, z

2

= i

b

2

−1

ε

a

2

. We have [z

1

[ = [z

2

[ = 1 and z

1

+ z

2

= −1.

It follows that

1

z

1

+

1

z

2

= −1 and so z

3

1

= z

3

2

= 1. This in turn im-

plies the equalities i

3(b

1

−1)

= i

3(b

2

−1)

= 1, from where we conclude that

b

1

≡ b

2

≡ 1 (mod 4). Therefore, the relation z

1

+ z

2

= −1 becomes

ε

a

1

+ ε

a

2

= −1, which is possible if and only if the remainders of the

numbers a

1

, a

2

when divided by 3 are 1 and 2. Thus, we can take S the

set of squares that lie at the intersection of the lines 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8 with

the columns 1, 5, 9. From the above argument, if two squares remain

uncovered, then surely they belong to S. The conclusion is immediate.

97

Problems for training

1. Three persons A, B, C play the following game: a subset with k

elements of the set ¦1, 2, . . . , 1986¦ is selected randomly, all selections

having the same probability. The winner is A, B or C, according to the

case when the sum of the elements of the selected subset is congruent

to 0, 1, or 2 modulo 3. Find all values of k for which A, B, C have equal

chances of winning.

Imo Shortlist, 1987

2. The faces of a die are labeled with the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

We throw the die n times. What is the probability that the sum of the

numbers shown by the die is a multiple of 5?

IMC, 1999

3. Let a

k

, b

k

, c

k

∈ R, k = 1, n. Let f(p) be the number of ordered

triples (A, B, C) of subsets (not necessarily non-empty) of the set M =

¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ whose union is M and for which

¸

i∈M\A

a

i

+

¸

i∈M\B

b

i

+

¸

i∈M\C

c

i

≡ 3 (mod p).

We assume that

¸

i∈∅

x

i

= 0 and f(0) = f(1) = f(2).

Prove that there exists i ∈ M such that 3[a

i

+b

i

+c

i

.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Recreat ¸ii Matematice

4. How many subsets with 100 elements of the set ¦1, 2, . . . , 2000¦

have the sum of their elements divisible by 5?

Qihong Xie, High School-Mathematics

5. There are 2000 white balls in a box. There are also unlimited

supplies of white, green and red balls, initially outside the box. At each

step, we can replace two balls in the box with one or two balls according

98

to the following rules: two whites or two reds with a green, two greens

with a white and red, a white and green with a red or a green and red

with a white.

a) After some ﬁnite number of steps, in the box there are exactly

three balls. Prove that at least one of them is green.

b) Is it possible that after a ﬁnite number of steps there is just one

ball in the box?

Bulgaria, 2000

6. A 7 7 table is tiled with 16 rectangles 1 3 such that only one

square remains uncovered. What is the position of this square?

Tournament of the Towns, 1984

7. Let k > 2 be an integer. For which odd natural numbers n can

we tile a n n table with 1 k or k 1 rectangles such that only the

square in the center of the table does not belong to any rectangle?

Arhimede Magazine, Gabriel Dospinescu

8. Let n ≥ 2 be an integer. In each point (i, j) having integer coordi-

nates we write the number i +j (mod n). Find all pairs (a, b) of natural

numbers such that any residue modulo n appears the same number of

times on the frontier of the rectangle of vertices (0, 0), (a, 0), (a, b), (0, b)

and also any residue modulo n appears the same number of times in the

interior of the same rectangle.

Bulgaria, 2001

9. Let F be the family of the subsets of the set A = ¦1, 2, . . . , 3n¦

which have the sum of their elements divisible by 3. For each element of

F, compute the square of sum of its elements. What is the value of the

sum of all the obtained numbers?

Gabriel Dospinescu

99

10. Let p > 3 be a prime number and let h be the number of se-

quences (a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

p−1

) ⊂ ¦0, 1, 2¦

p−1

such that p[

p−1

¸

j=0

ja

j

. Also, let

k be the number of sequences (a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

p−1

) ⊂ ¦0, 1, 3¦

p−1

such that

p[

p−1

¸

j=0

ja

j

. Prove that h ≤ k and that the equality appears only for p = 5.

IMO 1999 Shortlist

100

FORMAL SERIES REVISITED

We start with a riddle and a challenge for the reader: what is the

connection between the following problems:

1. The set of natural numbers (including 0) is partitioned into a

ﬁnite number n ≥ 2 of inﬁnite arithmetic progressions having ratios

r

1

, r

2

, . . . , r

n

and ﬁrst term a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

. Then the following relation is

satisﬁed:

a

1

r

1

+

a

2

r

2

+ +

a

n

r

n

=

n −1

2

.

2. The vertices of a regular polygon are colored in some fashion so

that each set of vertices having the same colour is the set of vertices of

a regular polygon. Then there are two congruent polygons among them.

The ﬁrst problem was discussed during the preparation for IMO of

the USA team, but it seems it is a classical result. As for the second one,

well, it is a famous problem given in a Russian olympiad and proposed

by N. Vasiliev.

If the reader has no clue, then let’s give him one small hint: the

methods used to solve both problems are very similar and can be in-

cluded into a larger ﬁeld, that of formal series. What is that? Well,

given a commutative ring A, we can deﬁne another ring, called the ring

of formal series with coeﬃcients in A and denoted A[X]. An element of

A[X] is of the form

¸

n≥0

a

n

X

n

, where a

n

∈ A. As we are going to see

in what follows, these formal series have some very nice applications in

diﬀerent ﬁelds: algebra, combinatorics, number theory. But let’s start

working now, reminding that the reader is supposed to be familiar with

some basic analysis tools:

Example 1. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

be some complex numbers such that

for any 1 ≤ k ≤ n we have a

k

1

+a

k

2

+ +a

k

n

= 0. Then all numbers are

equal to 0.

101

Solution. Of course, experienced reader has already noticed that

this problem is a trivial consequence of Newton’s relations. But what

can we do if don’t know them? Here is a nice way to solve the problem

(and a way to prove Newton’s relations too).

First of all, observe that the given condition implies that

a

k

1

+a

k

2

+ +a

k

n

= 0

for all positive integer k. Indeed, let

f(X) = X

n

+b

n−1

X

n−1

+ +b

1

X +b

0

the polynomial

n

¸

i−1

(x −a

i

). Then for all k ≥ n + 1 we have

a

k

i

+b

n−1

a

k−1

i

+ +b

0

a

k−n

i

= 0.

Then it suﬃces to add these relations and to prove the statement by

strong induction.

Now, let us consider the function

f(z) =

n

¸

i=1

1

1 −za

i

.

Developing it by using

1

1 −x

= 1 +x +x

2

+. . . (for [x[ < 1),

we obtain that f(z) = n for all suﬃciently small z (which means that

[z[ max([a

i

[) < 1). Assume that not all numbers are zero and take

a

1

, . . . , a

s

(s ≥ 1) to be the collection of numbers of maximal modu-

lus among the n numbers. Let the common value of the modulus be r.

By taking a sequence z

p

→

1

r

such that

z

p

r

< 1, we obtain a contra-

diction with the relation

n

¸

i=1

1

1 −z

p

a

i

= n (indeed, it suﬃces to observe

that the left-hand side is unbounded, while the second one is bounded).

This shows that all numbers are equal to 0.

102

We are going to discuss a nice number theory problem, whose solu-

tion is practically based on the same idea. Yet, there are some details

that make the problem more diﬃcult.

Example 2. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

q

, x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

q

and m some integers

such that m[a

1

x

k

1

+a

2

x

k

2

+ +a

q

x

k

q

for all k ≥ 0. Then

m[a

1

q

¸

i=2

(x

1

−x

i

).

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Consider this time the formal series

f(z) =

q

¸

i=1

a

i

1 −zx

i

.

By using the same formula as in the ﬁrst problem, we deduce immedi-

ately that

f(z) =

q

¸

i=1

a

i

+

q

¸

i=1

a

i

x

i

z +. . . ,

which shows that all coeﬃcients of this formal series are integers multi-

ples of m. Obviously, it follows that the formal series

¸

a

1

(1 −x

2

z) . . . (1 −x

q

z)

also has all coeﬃcients multiples of m. Now, consider S

(i)

t

the i-th

fundamental symmetric sum in x

j

(j = i). Since all coeﬃcients of

¸

a

1

(1 − x

2

z) . . . (1 − x

q

z) are multiples of m, a simple computation

shows that we have the divisibility relation:

m[x

q−1

1

q

¸

i=1

a

i

−x

q−2

i

q

¸

i=1

a

i

S

(i)

1

+ + (−1)

q−1

q

¸

i=1

a

i

S

(i)

q−1

.

This can also be rewritten in the nicer form

m[

q

¸

i=1

a

i

(x

q−1

1

−x

q−2

1

S

(i)

1

+ + (−1)

q−1

S

(i)

q−1

).

103

Now, the trivial identity

(x

1

−x

1

) . . . (x

1

−x

i−1

(x

1

−x

i+1

) . . . (x

1

−x

n

) = 0

gives us the not-so obvious relation

x

q−1

1

−x

q−2

1

S

(i)

1

+ + (−1)

q−1

S

(i)

q−1

= 0

for i ≥ 2. Therefore we can conclude, since

x

q−1

1

−x

q−2

q

S

(1)

1

+ + (−1)

q−1

S

(1)

q−1

= (x

1

−x

2

) . . . (x

1

−x

n

).

In order to solve the problem announced in the very beginning of

the presentation, we need a little lemma, which is interesting itself and

which we prefer to present as a separate problem:

Example 3. Suppose that the set of natural numbers (including

0) is partitioned into a ﬁnite number of inﬁnite arithmetic progressions

of ratios r

1

, r

2

, . . . , r

n

and ﬁrst term a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

. Then the following

relation is satisﬁed:

1

r

1

+

1

r

2

+ +

1

r

n

= 1.

Solution. Let us observe that for any [x[ < 1 we have the identity:

¸

k≥0

x

a

1

+kr

1

+

¸

k≥0

x

a

2

+kr

2

+ +

¸

k≥0

x

a

n

+kr

n

=

¸

k≥0

x

k

.

Indeed, all we did was to write the fact that each natural number is

exactly in one of the arithmetic progressions. The above relation becomes

of course the very useful relation:

x

a

1

1 −x

r

1

+

x

a

2

1 −x

r

2

+ +

x

a

n

1 −x

r

n

=

1

1 −x

(1)

Let us multiply the relation (1) with 1 − x and use the fact that

lim

x→1

1 −x

a

1 −x

= a. We ﬁnd of course the desired relation

1

r

1

+

1

r

2

+ +

1

r

n

= 1.

104

It’s time to solve the ﬁrst problem. We will just a small, but not

obvious step and we’ll be done. The fundamental relation is again (1).

So:

Example 4. The set of natural numbers (including 0) is partitioned

into a ﬁnite number n ≥ 2 of inﬁnite arithmetic progressions having

ratios r

1

, r

2

, . . . , r

n

and ﬁrst term a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

. Then the following re-

lation is satisﬁed:

a

1

r

1

+

a

2

r

2

+ +

a

n

r

n

=

n −1

2

.

MOSP

Solution. Let us write the relation (1) in the more appropriate form:

x

a

1

1 +x + +x

r

1

−1

+ +

x

a

n

1 +x + +x

r

n

−1

= 1 (2)

Now, let us derive the relation (2) and then make x → 1 in the

resulting expression. A small computation let to the reader will show

that

n

¸

i=1

a

i

r

i

−

r

i

(r

i

−1)

2

r

2

i

= 0.

But it suﬃces to use the result proved in example 3 in order to

conclude that we must have

a

1

r

1

+

a

2

r

2

+ +

a

n

r

n

=

n −1

2

.

Some commentaries about these two relations are necessary. First of

all, using a beautiful and hard result due to Erdos, we can say that the

relation

1

r

1

+

1

r

2

+ +

1

r

n

= 1

implies that max(r

1

, r

2

, . . . , r

n

) < 2

2

n−1

. Indeed, this remarkable theo-

rem due to Erdos asserts that if x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

k

are natural numbers whose

105

sum of inverses is strictly smaller than 1, then

1

x

1

+

1

x

2

+ +

1

x

k

≤

1

u

1

+

1

u

2

+ +

1

u

k

,

where u

1

= 2, u

n+1

= u

2

n

−u

n

+1. But the reader can verify immediately

that

1

u

1

+

1

u

2

+ +

1

u

k

= 1 −

1

u

1

u

2

. . . u

k

(it is trivial by induction). Thus we can write

1 −

1

r

n

≤ 1 −

1

u

1

u

2

. . . u

n−1

,

or even better r

n

≤ u

1

u

2

. . . u

n−1

= u

n

− 1 (the last relation being

again a simple induction). Once again, the reader will do a short in-

duction to prove that u

n

≤ 2

2

n−1

. And here is how we can prove

that max(r

1

, r

2

, . . . , r

n

) < 2

2

n−1

(since of course any number among

r

1

, r

2

, . . . , r

n

can be taken as r

n

). Using the relation proved in example

4, we also deduce that max(a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

) < (n−1) 2

2

n−1

−1

. This shows

that for ﬁxed n not only there is a ﬁnite number of ways to partition

the set of natural numbers into n arithmetic progressions, but we also

have some explicit (even though huge) bounds on ratios and ﬁrst terms.

It is now time to solve the remarkable problem discussed in the

beginning of this note. We will see that in the framework of the previous

results proved here, the solution becomes natural. However, it is not at

all true, the problem is really diﬃcult.

Example 5. The vertices of a regular polygon are colored such that

vertices having the same colour form regular polygons. Prove that there

are at least two congruent polygons among them.

N. Vasiliev, Russian Olympiad

Solution. Let us assume that the initial polygon (which we will call

big from now on) has n edges and that it is inscribed in the unit circle,

the vertices having as aﬃxes the numbers 1, ε, ε

2

, . . . , ε

n−1

, where ε =

106

e

2iπ

n

(of course, we will not loose generality with all these restrictions).

Consider now n

1

, n

2

, . . . , n

k

the number of edges of each monochromatic

polygon and let us assume that all these numbers are diﬀerent. Let

ε

j

= e

2iπ

n

j

; observe that the aﬃxes of the vertices of each monochromatic

polygon are z

j

, z

j

ε

j

, . . . , z

j

ε

n

j

−1

j

, for some z

j

complex numbers on the

unit circle. First, a technical result.

Lemma 1. For any complex number z, if ζ = e

2iπ

p

then we have the

identity

1

1 −z

+

1

1 −zζ

+ +

1

1 −zζ

p−1

=

p

1 −z

p

.

Proving this lemma is a very simple task. Indeed, it suﬃces to observe

that z, zζ, . . . , zζ

p−1

are exactly the roots of P(X) = X

p

− z

p

. Or, we

know that

P

t

(x)

P(X)

=

1

X −z

+ +

1

X −zζ

p−1

.

By taking X = 1, we obtain exactly the desired identity.

Now, the hypothesis of the problem and lemma 1 allow to write

n

1

1 −(zz

1

)

n

1

+ +

n

k

1 −(zz

k

)

n

k

=

n

1 −z

n

.

Also, the simple observation that n

1

+n

2

+ +n

k

= n allows the

new identity

n

1

z

n

1

1

1 −(zz

1

)

n

1

z

n

1

+

n

2

z

n

2

2

1 −(zz

2

)

n

2

z

n

2

+ +

n

k

z

n

k

k

1 −(zz

k

)

n

k

z

n

k

=

nz

n

1 −z

n

. (1)

Let us assume now that n

1

< min(n

2

, . . . , n

k

) and let us divide (1)

by z

n

1

. It follows that for non-zero z we have

n

1

z

n

1

1

1 −(zz

1

)

n

1

+

n

2

z

n

2

2

1 −(zz

2

)

n

2

z

n

2

−n

1

+ +

n

k

z

n

k

k

1 −(zz

k

)

n

k

z

n

k

−n

1

=

nz

n−n

1

1 −z

n

.

(2)

107

Well, we are done: it suﬃces to observe that if we make z → 0

(by non-zero values) in (2) , we obtain that z

n

1

1

= 0, which is surely

impossible since [z

1

[ = 1. The proof ends here.

The following problem that we are going to discuss appeared in var-

ious contests under diﬀerent forms. It is a very nice identity that can be

proved elementary in a quite messy way. Here is a magical proof using

formal series.

Example 6. For any complex numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

∈ C, the fol-

lowing identity holds:

n

¸

i=1

a

i

n

−

n

¸

i=1

¸

¸

j,=i

a

j

¸

n

+

¸

1≤i<j≤n

¸

¸

k,=i,j

a

k

¸

n

− + (−1)

n−1

n

¸

i=1

a

n

i

= n!

n

¸

i=1

a

i

.

Solution. Consider the formal series

f(z) =

n

¸

i=1

(e

za

i

−1).

We are going to compute it in two diﬀerent ways. First of all, it is

clear that

f(z) =

n

¸

i=1

za

i

+

z

2

a

2

i

2!

+. . .

**thus we can say that the coeﬃcient of z
**

n

in this formal series is

n

¸

i=1

a

i

.

On the other hand, we can write

f(z) = e

z

n

i=1

a

i

−

n

¸

i=1

e

z

j=i

a

j

+ + (−1)

n−1

n

¸

i=1

e

za

i

+ (−1)

n

.

Indeed, the reader is right: now everything is clear, since the coeﬃ-

cient of z

n

in e

kz

is

k

n

n!

. The conclusion is clear: not only the identity is

true, but it has a four-line solution!!!

108

There aren’t only algebra problems that can be solved in an elegant

manner using formal series, but also some beautiful concocts of numbers

theory and combinatorics. We shall focus a little bit more on such type

of problems in the sequel.

Example 7. Let 0 = a

0

< a

1

< a

2

< . . . be a sequence of positive

integers such that the equation a

i

+2a

j

+4a

k

= n has a unique solution

i, j, k. Find a

1998

.

IMO Shortlist, 1998

Solution. Here is a very nice answer: 9817030729. Let A =

¦a

0

, a

1

, . . . ¦ and b

n

= 1 if n ∈ A and 0 otherwise. Next, consider the for-

mal series f(x) =

¸

n≥0

b

n

x

n

, the generating function of the set A (we can

write in a more intuitive way f(x) =

¸

n≥0

x

a

n

). The hypothesis imposed

on the set A translates into

f(x)f(x

2

)f(x

4

) =

1

1 −x

.

Replace x by x

2

k

. We obtain the recursive relation

f(x

2

k

)f(x

2

k+1

)f(x

2

k+2

) =

1

1 −x

2

k

.

Now, observe two relations:

¸

k≥0

f(x

2

k

) =

¸

k≥0

(f(x

2

3k

)f(x

2

3k+1

)f(x

2

3k+2

)) =

¸

k≥0

1

1 −x

2

3k

and

¸

k≥1

f(x

2

k

) =

¸

k≥0

(f(x

2

3k+1

)f(x

2

3k+2

)f(x

2

3k+3

)) =

¸

k≥0

1

1 −x

2

3k+1

.

Therefore (the reader has observed that rigor was not the strong

point in establishing these relations) we have

f(x)=

¸

k≥0

1 −x

2

3k+1

1 −x

2

3k

=

¸

k≥0

(1+x

8

k

)f(x) =

¸

k≥0

1 −x

2

3k+1

1 −x

2

3k

=

¸

k≥0

(1+x

8

k

).

109

This shows that the set A is exactly the set of nonnegative integers

that use only the digits 0 and 1 when written in base 8. A quick com-

putation based on this observation shows that the magical term asked

by the problem is 9817030729.

The following problem is an absolute classic. It appeared, under dif-

ferent forms, in Olympiads from all over the world. We will present the

latest one, given in a Putnam competition:

Example 8. Find all partitions with two classes A, B of the set

of nonnegative integers having the property that for all nonnegative

integers n the equation x + y = n with x < y has as many solutions

(x, y) ∈ AA as in B B.

Solution. Consider f, g the generating functions of A, B and write

them in explicit form

f(x) =

¸

n≥0

a

n

x

n

, g(x) =

¸

n≥0

b

n

x

n

(as in the previous problem, a

n

equals 1 if n ∈ A and 0 otherwise). The

fact that A, B form a partition of the set of nonnegative integers can be

also rewritten as

f(x) +g(x) =

¸

n≥0

x

n

=

1

1 −x

.

Also, the hypothesis made on the number of solutions of the equation

x +y = n imposes that

f

2

(x) −f(x

2

) = g

2

(x) −g(x

2

).

Therefore,

f(x

2

) −g(x

2

) =

f(x) −g(x)

1 −x

,

which can also be rewritten as

f(x) −g(x)

f(x

2

) −g(x

2

)

= 1 −x.

110

Now, the idea is the same as in the previous problems: replace x by

x

2

k

and iterate the process. After multiplication, we deduce that

f(x) −g(x) =

¸

k≥0

(1 −x

2

k

) lim

x→∞

1

f(x

2

n

) −g(x

2

n

)

.

Let us assume without loss of generality that 0 ∈ A. Then the reader

can easily verify that

lim

n→∞

f(x

2

n

) = 1 and lim

n→∞

g(x

2

n

) = 0.

This shows that actually

f(x) −g(x) =

¸

k≥0

(1 −x

2

k

) =

¸

k≥0

(−1)

s

2

(k)

x

k

,

where s

2

(x) is the sum of digits of binary representation of x. Taking

into account the relation

f(x) +g(x) =

¸

n≥0

x

n

=

1

1 −x

,

we ﬁnally deduce that A, B are respectively the set of nonnegative inte-

gers having even (respectively odd) sum of digits when written in binary.

We will discuss two nice problems in which formal series and complex

numbers appear in a quite spectacular way:

Example 9. Let n, k be positive integers such that n ≥ 2

k−1

and

let S = ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦. Prove that the number of subsets A ⊂ S such that

¸

x∈A

x ≡ m (mod 2

k

) does not depend on m ∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , 2

k

−1¦.

Balkan Olympiad Shortlist 2005

Solution. Let us consider the function (call it formal series, if you

want)

f(x) =

n

¸

i=1

(1 +x

i

).

If we prove that 1 + x + + x

2

k

−1

divides f(x), then we have

certainly done the job. In order to prove this, it suﬃces of course to

111

prove that any 2

k

th root of unity, except for 1 is a root of f. But it

suﬃces to observe that for any l ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , 2

k−1

−1¦ we have

cos

2lπ

2

k

+i sin

2lπ

2

k

2

k−2−v

2

(l)

= −1

and so

f

cos

2lπ

2

k

+i sin

2lπ

2

k

= 0,

which proves our claim and ﬁnishes the solution.

Example 10. Let m, n ≥ 2 be positive integers and a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

integers, none of them divisible by m

n−1

. Prove that one can ﬁnd integers

e

1

, e

2

, . . . , e

n

, not all zero, such that [e

i

[ < m for all i and such that

m

n

[e

1

a

1

+e

2

a

2

+ +e

n

a

n

.

IMO Shortlist 2002

Solution. Look at the set A =

n

¸

i=1

e

i

a

i

[ 1 ≤ e

i

≤ m

¸

and observe

that we can assume that A is a complete system of residues modulo m

n

(otherwise, the conclusion is immediate). Now, consider f(x) =

¸

p∈A

x

a

.

On one hand, we have

f(x) =

n

¸

i=1

¸

m−1

¸

j=0

x

ja

i

¸

=

n

¸

i=1

1 −x

ma

i

1 −x

a

i

.

On the other hand, take ε = e

2iπ

m

n

. Since A is a complete system of

residues modulo m

n

, we must have f(ε) = 0. Therefore (the hypothesis

ensures that ε

a

i

= 1) we must have

n

¸

i=1

(1 − ε

ma

i

) = 0. But this surely

contradicts the fact that none of the numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

is a multiple

of m

n−1

.

Finally, it is time for a tough problem. Of course, it will be a com-

binatorial problem, whose nice solution below was found by Constantin

Tanasescu.

112

Example 11. Let A be the set of all words which can be formed

using m ≥ 2 given letters. For any c ∈ A, let l(c) be its length. Also,

let C ⊆ A be a set of words. We know that any word from A can be

obtained in at most one way by concatenating words from C. Prove the

inequality:

¸

c∈C

1

m

l(c)

≤ 1.

Adrian Zahariuc

Solution. Let S be the set of all words which can be obtained by

concatenating words from C. Let

f(x) =

¸

c∈C

x

l(c)

, g(x) =

¸

s∈S

x

l(s)

.

By the deﬁnition of S, we have that:

g(x) = 1 +f(x) +f

2

(x) + =

1

1 −f(x)

.

Therefore,

f(x)g(x) = g(x) −1. (∗)

Now, S (and C) has at most m

k

elements of length k, thus g(x) < ∞

and f(x) < ∞ for x <

1

m

. Thus, for all x ∈

0,

1

m

:

f(x)g(x) = g(x) −1 < g(x)

and so f(x) < 1 for all x ∈

0,

1

m

**. All we need now is to make x tend
**

to

1

m

and we will obtain that f

1

m

**≤ 1, which is nothing else than
**

the desired inequality.

Proposed problems

1. Let z

1

, z

2

, . . . , z

n

be some arbitrary complex numbers. Prove that

for any ε > 0 there are inﬁnitely many numbers n such that

k

[z

k

1

+z

k

2

+ +z

k

n

[ > max([z

1

[, [z

2

[, . . . , [z

n

[) −ε.

113

2. Find the general formula for the sequence (x

n

)

n≥1

given by

x

n+k

= a

1

x

n+k−1

+ +a

k

x

n

in function of x

0

, x

1

, . . . , x

k−1

. Here a

1

, . . . , a

k

are arbitrary complex

numbers.

3. Prove that if we partition the natural numbers into a ﬁnite number

of inﬁnite arithmetic progressions, then there will be two of them having

the same ratio.

4. How many polynomials P with coeﬃcients 0, 1, 2 or 3 satisfy

P(2) = n, where n is a given positive integer?

Romanian TST, 1994

5. Deﬁne A

1

= ∅, B

1

= ¦0¦ and A

n+1

= ¦1 + x[ x ∈ B

n

¦, B

n+1

=

(A

n

` B

n

) ∪(B

n

` A

n

). What are the positive integers n such that B

n

=

¦0¦?

AMM

6. In how many ways can we parenthesis a non-associative product

a

1

a

2

. . . a

n

?

Catalan’s problem

7. For which positive integers n can we ﬁnd real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . ,

a

n

such that

¦[a

i

−a

j

[ [ 1 ≤ i < j ≤ n¦ =

1, 2, . . . ,

n

2

?

China TST 2002

8. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

relatively prime positive integers. Find in closed

form a sequence (x

n

)

n≥1

such that if (y

n

)

n≥1

is the number of positive

integral solutions to the equation a

1

x

1

+ a

2

x

2

+ + a

n

x

n

= k, then

lim

n→∞

x

n

y

n

= 1.

114

9. Let A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

k

∈ M

n

(C) be some complex nθn matrices such

that

|A

p

1

+A

p

2

+ +A

p

k

| ≤

C

p!

for any natural number p ≥ 1. Here C does not depend on p ≥ 1 and

|X| = max

1≤i,j≤n

[x

ij

[. Then prove that A

n

i

= 0 for all 1 ≤ i ≤ k.

Gabriel Dospinescu

10. Is there an inﬁnite set of natural numbers such that all suﬃ-

ciently large integer can be represented in the same number of ways as

the sum of two elements of the set?

D. Newman

11. Find all possibilities to color a regular polygon in the way pre-

sented in example 5.

12. Find all positive integers n with the following property: for any

real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

, knowing the numbers a

i

+ a

j

, i < j, deter-

mines a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

uniquely.

Erdos and Selfridge

13. Suppose that a

0

= a

1

= 1, (n + 3)a

n+1

= (2n + 3)a

n

+ 3na

n−1

.

Prove that all terms of this sequence are integers.

Komal

14. Deﬁne two sequences of integer numbers (a

n

), (b

n

) : a

1

= b

1

= 0

and

a

n

= nb

n

+a

1

b

n−1

+a

2

b

n−2

+ +a

n−1

b

1

.

Prove that for any prime number p we have p[a

p

.

Komal

15. Is it possible to partition the set of all 12-digit numbers into

groups of 4 numbers such that the numbers in each group have the same

digits in 11 places and four consecutive digits in the remaining place?

115

Saint Petersburg Olympiad

16. Prove the following identity

n

¸

k=1

¸

1≤i

1

<i

2

<<i

k

≤n

¸

ε

1

,ε

2

,...,ε

n

∈|−1,1¦

(−1)

k

2

k

(ε

1

a

i

1

+ε

2

a

i

2

+ +ε

k

a

i

k

)

2n

=

(−1)

n

(2n)!a

2

1

a

2

2

. . . a

2

n

2

n

for any real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

17. A set of positive integers A has the property that for some

positive integers b

i

, c

i

, the sets b

i

A + c

i

, 1 ≤ i ≤ n are disjoint subsets

of A. Prove that

n

¸

i=1

1

b

i

≤ 1.

IMO Shortlist 2004

116

NUMBERS AND LINEAR ALGEBRA

We have seen how analysis can help in solving number theory prob-

lems. But linear algebra has an important role as well, especially because

it makes a beautiful connection between number theory and algebra.

This discussion practically started from the following diﬃcult problem

that we solved in the chapter ”Look at the exponent!” and which ap-

peared in the American Mathematical Monthly a long time ago.

For any integers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

the number

¸

1≤i<j≤n

a

j

−a

i

j −i

is an in-

teger.

You will see a nice and short solution to this problem. At the ap-

propriate time... But ﬁrst, we need some basic facts about matrices,

determinants, and systems of linear equations. For example, the fact

that any homogeneous linear system

a

11

x

1

+a

12

x

2

+ +a

1n

x

n

= 0

a

21

x

1

+a

22

x

2

+ +a

2n

x

n

= 0

a

n1

x

1

+a

n2

x

2

+ +a

nn

x

n

= 0

in which

a

11

a

12

. . . a

1n

a

21

a

22

. . . a

2n

. . . . . . . . . . . .

a

n1

a

n2

. . . a

nn

= 0

has only the trivial solution. Secondly, we need Vandermonde’s identity

1 x

1

x

2

1

. . . x

n−1

1

1 x

2

x

2

2

. . . x

n−1

2

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

1 x

n

x

2

n

. . . x

n−1

n

=

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(x

j

−x

i

). (1)

117

With these basic facts (of course, for a better understanding, the

reader should have some more knowledge on linear algebra), we are

ready to begin the discussion. As usual, we start with an easy and clas-

sical problem. This time, we will prove a result from the theory of per-

mutations. Here is a nice solution.

Example 1. Let σ be a permutation of the numbers 1, 2, . . . , n.

Then

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(σ(j) −σ(i))

= 1! 2! . . . (n −1)!.

Solution. The formula in the left-hand side suggests that we might

use Vandermonde’s identity (1). But we also need a small trick. Using

the fact that det A = det

t

A for any matrix A, we get

1 1 1 . . . 1

σ(1) σ(2) σ(3) . . . σ(n)

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

σ(1)

n−1

σ(2)

n−1

σ(3)

n−1

. . . σ(n)

n−1

=

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(σ(j) −σ(i)).

So, by multiplying the two determinants we ﬁnd

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(σ(j) −σ(i))

¸

2

=

1 1 1 . . . 1

σ(1) σ(2) σ(3) . . . σ(n)

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

σ(1)

n−1

σ(2)

n−1

σ(3)

n−1

. . . σ(n)

n−1

1 σ(1) . . . σ(1)

n−1

1 σ(2) . . . σ(2)

n−1

. . . . . . . . . . . .

1 σ(n) . . . σ(n)

n−1

=

S

0

S

1

. . . S

n−1

S

1

S

2

. . . S

n

. . . . . . . . . . . .

S

n−1

. . . . . . S

2n−2

,

118

where

S

i

= σ(1)

i

+σ(2)

i

+ +σ(n)

i

.

But since σ is a permutation of the numbers 1, 2, . . . , n, we have

S

i

= 1

i

+ 2

i

+ +n

i

and repeating the arguments we conclude that

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(σ(j) −σ(i))

¸

2

=

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(j −i)

¸

2

.

Hence

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(σ(j) −σ(i))

=

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(j −i) = (n −1)!(n −2)! . . . 1!.

Using this result, we can answer immediately the following question:

Example 2. Given a polynomial with complex coeﬃcients, can we

decide if it has a double zero only by performing additions, multiplica-

tions, and divisions on its coeﬃcients?

Solution. Yes, we can. Let f(x) = a

0

+a

1

x + +a

n

x

n

. Then this

polynomial has a double root if and only if

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(x

i

−x

j

)

¸

2

= 0,

where x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

are the zeros of the polynomial. But we have seen

that

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(x

i

−x

j

)

¸

2

=

S

0

S

1

. . . S

n−1

S

1

S

2

. . . S

n

. . . . . . . . . . . .

S

n−1

. . . . . . S

2n−2

,

where S

i

= x

i

1

+x

i

2

+ +x

i

n

. So, we need to express S

i

= x

i

1

+x

i

2

+ +x

i

n

in terms of the coeﬃcients of the polynomial. But this is a consequence

of Newton’s and Vieta’s formulas, which combined yield

a

n

S

i

+a

n−1

S

i−1

+ +a

n−i+1

S

1

+ia

n−i

S

i

= 0, i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , ¦.

119

The last formula allows us to prove by induction that S

i

can be ex-

pressed only in terms of the coeﬃcients of the polynomial (this could

have been shown much easier, since after all S

i

is a symmetric polyno-

mial in n variables, hence it can be expressed only in terms of the fun-

damental symmetric polynomials, which can also be expressed in terms

of the coeﬃcients due to Vieta’s formulas). Consequently, we can decide

whether

¸

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(x

i

−x

j

)

¸

2

= 0

only by using the described operations on the coeﬃcients of the polyno-

mial, which shows that the answer to the problem is positive.

You may know the following classical problem: if a, b, c ∈ Q verify

a + b

3

√

2 + c

3

√

4 = 0, then a = b = c = 0. Have you ever thought about

the general case? This cannot be done only with simple tricks. We need

much more. Of course, a direct solution could be the following: from

Eisenstein’s criterion, the polynomial f(X) = X

n

− 2 is irreducible,

so if a

0

+ a

1

n

√

2 + + a

n−1

n−1

√

2

n−1

= 0 for some rational numbers

a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

n−1

, then the polynomial g(x) = a

0

+ a

1

x + + a

n−1

x

n−1

is not relatively prime with f. Hence gcd(f, g) is a polynomial of degree

at most n−1 that divides an irreducible polynomial f of degree n. This

cannot happen, unless g = 0, i.e. a

0

= a

1

= = a

n−1

= 0. But here

is a beautiful proof using linear algebra. This time we will have to be

careful to work in the most appropriate ﬁeld.

Example 3. Prove that if a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

n−1

∈ Q satisfy

a

0

+a

1

n

√

2 + +a

n−1

n−1

√

2

n−1

= 0,

then a

0

= a

1

= = a

n−1

= 0.

Solution. If a

0

+a

1

n

√

2 + +a

n−1

n−1

√

2

n−1

= 0, then

ka

0

+ka

1

n

√

2 + +ka

n−1

n−1

√

2

n−1

= 0

120

for any real number k. Thus, we may assume that a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

n−1

∈ Z

(for example, we can choose k to be the least common multiple of all de-

nominators of the numbers a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

n−1

). The idea is to choose n val-

ues for k so that to obtain a system of linear equations, having nontrivial

solutions. Then, the determinant of the system must be zero and this

will imply a

0

= a

1

= = a

n−1

= 0. Now, let us ﬁll in the blanks. What

are the best values for k? This can be seen by noticing that

n

√

2

n−1

n

√

2 =

2 ∈ Z. So, the values (k

1

, k

2

, . . . , k

n

) = (1,

n

√

2, . . . ,

n

√

2

n−1

) are good and

the system becomes

a

0

+a

1

n

√

2 + +a

n−1

n

√

2

n−1

= 0

a

0

n

√

2 +a

1

n

√

2

2

+ + 2a

n−1

= 0

. . .

a

0

n

√

2

n−1

+ 2a

1

+ +a

n−1

n

√

2

n−2

= 0

Viewing (1,

n

√

2, . . . ,

n

√

2

n−1

) as a nontrivial solution to the system,

we conclude that

a

0

a

1

. . . a

n−1

2a

n−1

a

0

. . . a

n−2

. . . . . . . . . . . .

2a

1

2a

2

. . . a

0

= 0.

But what can we do now? Expanding the determinant leads nowhere.

As we said before passing to the solution, we should always work in the

most appropriate ﬁeld. This time the ﬁeld is Z

2

, since in this case the

determinant can be easily computed. It equals a

n

0

= 0. Hence a

0

must

be even, that is a

0

= 2b

0

and we have

b

0

a

1

. . . a

n−1

a

n−1

a

0

. . . a

n−2

. . . . . . . . . . . .

a

1

2a

2

. . . a

0

= 0.

121

Now, we interchange the ﬁrst two lines of the determinant. Its value

remains 0, but when we expand it in Z

2

, it is a

n

1

= 0. Similarly, we

ﬁnd that all a

i

are even. Let us write a

i

= 2b

i

. Then we also have

b

0

+b

1

n

√

2 + +b

n−1

n−1

√

2

n−1

= 0 and with the same reasoning we

conclude that all b

i

are even. But of course, we can repeat this as long

as we want. By the method of inﬁnite descent, we ﬁnd that a

0

= a

1

=

= a

n−1

= 0.

The above solution might seem exaggeratedly diﬃcult compared

with the one using Eisenstein’s criterion, but the idea was too nice not

to be presented here.

The following problem can become a nightmare despite its simplicity.

Example 4. Let A = ¦a

3

+ b

3

+ c

3

− 3abc[ a, b, c ∈ Z¦. Prove that

if x, y ∈ A then xy ∈ A.

Proof. The observation that

a

3

+b

3

+c

3

−3abc =

a c b

b a c

c b a

leads to a quick solution. Indeed, it suﬃces to note that

¸

¸

¸

a c b

b a c

c b a

¸

¸

¸

¸

x z y

y x z

z y x

¸

=

=

¸

¸

¸

ax +cy +bz az +by +cx ay +bx +cz

ay +bx +cz ax +cy +bz az +by +cx

az +by +cx ay +bx +cz ax +cy +bz

¸

and thus

(a

3

+b

3

+c

3

−3abc)(x

2

+y

3

+z

3

−3xyz) = A

3

+B

3

+C

3

−3ABC,

122

where A = ax +cy +bz, B = az +by +cx, C = ax +cy +bz. You see,

identities are not so hard to ﬁnd...

We all know the famous Bezout’s theorem, stating that if a

1

, a

2

, . . . ,

a

n

are relatively prime, then one can ﬁnd integers k

1

, k

2

, . . . , k

n

such

that k

1

a

1

+ k

2

a

2

+ + k

n

a

n

= 1. The following problem claims more,

at least for n = 3.

Example 5. Prove that if a, b, c are relatively prime integers, then

there are integers x, y, z, u, v, w such that

a(yw −zv) +b(zu −xw) +c(xv −yu) = 1.

Solution. First of all, there is a crucial observation to be made: the

given condition can be also written in the form det A = 1, where

A =

¸

¸

¸

a x u

b y v

c z w

¸

.

So, let us prove a much more general result.

Theorem. Any vector v whose integer components are relatively

prime is the ﬁrst column of an integral matrix with determinant equal

to 1.

There is a simple proof of this theorem, using clever manipulations of

determinant properties and induction on the dimension n of the vector

v. Indeed, for n = 2 it is exactly Bezout’s theorem. Now, assume that

it is true for vectors in Z

n−1

and take v = (v

1

, v

2

, . . . , v

n

) such that v

i

are relatively prime. Consider the numbers

v

1

g

, . . . ,

v

n−1

g

, where g is the

greatest common divisor of v

1

, . . . , v

n−1

. They are relatively prime and

123

thus we can ﬁnd an integral matrix

¸

¸

¸

¸

v

1

g

a

12

. . . a

1,n−1

. . . . . . . . . . . .

v

n−1

g

a

n−1,2

. . . a

n−1,n

¸

**having determinant equal to 1. Now, using Bezout’s theorem, we can
**

ﬁnd α, β such that αg +βv

n

= 1. In this case, it is not diﬃcult to verify

that the following matrix has integral entries and determinant equal to

1:

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

v

1

a

12

. . . a

1,n−1

(−1)

n−1

β

v

1

g

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

v

n−1

a

n−1,2

. . . a

n−1,n−1

(−1)

n−1

β

v

n−1

g

v

n

0 . . . 0 (−1)

n−1

α

¸

.

We said at the beginning that the discussion started from the diﬃcult

problem that appeared in AMM, but yet we did not present its solution

yet. It is now time to do it.

Example 6. For any integers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

then

¸

1≤i<j≤n

a

j

−a

i

j −i

∈ Z.

Armond Spencer, AMM E 2637

Solution. With this introduction, the way to proceed is clear. What

does the expression

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(a

j

− a

i

suggest? It is the Vandermonde’s

identity (1), associated to a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

. But we have a hurdle here. We

might want to use the same formula for the expression

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(j − i).

This is a dead end. But we have seen what is

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(j −i) equal to in

124

the ﬁrst problem. It equals (n −1)!(n −2)! . . . 1!. Now, we can write

¸

1≤i<j≤n

a

j

−a

i

j −i

=

1

1! 2! . . . (n −1)!

1 1 1 . . . 1

a

1

a

2

a

3

. . . a

n

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

a

n−1

1

a

n−1

2

a

n−1

3

a

n−1

n

.

As usual, the last step is the most important. The above formula

can be rewritten as

¸

1≤i<j≤n

a

j

−a

i

j −i

=

1 1 1 . . . 1

a

1

1!

a

2

1!

a

3

1!

. . .

a

n

1!

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

a

n−1

1

(n −1)!

a

n−1

2

(n −1)!

a

n−1

2

(n −1)!

. . .

a

n−1

n

(n −1)!

.

And now we recognize the form

¸

1≤i<j≤n

a

j

−a

i

j −i

=

1 1 . . . 1

a

1

1

a

2

1

. . .

a

n

1

a

1

2

a

2

2

. . .

a

n

2

. . . . . . . . . . . .

a

1

n −1

a

2

n −1

. . .

a

n

n −1

,

which can be proved easily by subtracting lines. Because each number

a

i

j

**is an integer, the determinant itself is an integer and the conclusion
**

follows.

We end the unit with a very nice and diﬃcult problem that also

appeared in AMM in 1998. A variant of this problem was given in 2004

at a TST in Romania and turned out to be a hard problem.

125

Example 7. Consider the sequence (x

n

)

n≥0

deﬁned by x

0

= 4,

x

1

= x

2

= 0, x

3

= 3 and x

n+4

= x

n

+x

n+1

. Prove that for any prime p

the number x

p

is a multiple of p.

AMM

Solution. Let us consider the matrix

A =

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

¸

**and let trX be the sum of the entries of the main diagonal of the matrix
**

X. We will ﬁrst prove that x

n

= TrA

n

(here A

0

= I

4

). This is going to

be the easy part of the solution. Indeed, for n = 1, 2, 3 it is not diﬃcult to

verify it. Now, assume that the statement is true for all i = 1, 2, . . . , n−1

and prove that it is also true for n. This is true because

x

n

= x

n−4

+x

n−3

= TrA

n−4

+TrA

n−3

= Tr(A

n−4

(A+I

4

)) = TrA

n

.

We have used here the relation A

4

= A + I

4

, which can be easily

veriﬁed by a simple computation. Hence the claim is proved.

Now, let us prove an important result, that is TrA

p

≡ TrA (mod p)

for any integral matrix and any prime p. The proof is not trivial at

all. A possible advanced solution is to start by considering the matrix A

obtained by reducing all entries of A modulo p, then by placing ourselves

in a ﬁeld in which the characteristic polynomial of A has all its zeroes

λ

1

, λ

2

, . . . , λ

n

. This ﬁeld has clearly characteristic p (it contains Z

p

) and

so we have (using the binomial formula and the fact that all coeﬃcients

p

k

, 1 ≤ k ≤ p −1 are multiples of p)

trA

p

=

n

¸

i=1

λ

p

i

=

n

¸

i=1

λ

i

p

= (TrA)

p

,

126

from where the conclusion is immediate via Fermat’s little theorem.

But there is a beautiful elementary solution. Let us consider two

integral matrices A, B and write

(A+B)

p

=

¸

A

1

,...,A

p

∈|A,B¦

A

1

A

2

. . . A

p

.

Observe that for any A, B we have Tr(AB) = Tr(BA) and by in-

duction, for any X

1

, . . . , X

n

and any cyclic permutation σ,

Tr(X

1

. . . X

n

) = Tr(X

σ(1)

. . . X

σ(n)

).

Now, note that in the sum

¸

A

1

,...,A

p

∈|A,B¦

A

1

A

2

. . . A

p

we can form

2

p

−2

p

groups of p-cycles and we have two more terms A

p

and B

p

. Thus

¸

A

1

,...,A

p

∈|A,B¦

Tr(A

1

A

2

. . . A

p

) ≡ TrA

p

+TrB

p

modulo p (the reader has

already noticed that Fermat’s little theorem comes handy once again),

since the sum of Tr(A

1

A

2

. . . A

p

) is a multiple of p in any cycle. Thus

we have proved that

Tr(A+B)

p

≡ TrA

p

+TrB

p

(mod p)

and by an immediate induction we also have

Tr(A

1

+ +A

k

)

p

≡

k

¸

i=1

TrA

p

i

.

Next, consider the matrices E

ij

that have 1 in position (i, j) and 0

elsewhere. For these matrices we clearly have TrA

p

≡ TrA (mod p) and

by using the above result we can write (using Fermat’s little theorem

one more time):

TrA

p

= Tr

¸

¸

i,j

a

ij

E

ij

¸

p

≡

¸

i,j

Tr(a

p

ij

E

p

ij

) ≡

¸

i,j

a

ij

TrE

ij

= TrA (mod p).

127

The result is proved and with it the fact that x

p

is a multiple of p.

Problems for training

1. Let F

1

= 1, F

2

= 1 and F

n

= F

n−1

+ F

n−2

for all n ≥ 3 be the

Fibonacci sequence. Prove that

F

n+1

F

n−1

−F

2

n

= (−1)

n

and F

m+n

= F

n

F

m−1

+F

n+1

F

m

.

2. Let the sequence of polynomials (f

n

)

n≥1

be deﬁned by f

1

(x) = 1,

f

2

(x) = x and f

n+1

(x) = xf

n

(x) + f

n−1

(x). Prove that this sequence

satisﬁes the following Fibonacci-type relations f

m+n

= f

n

f

m−1

+f

n+1

f

m

.

3. Prove that the number

√

2 +

√

3 +

√

5 +

√

7 is irrational.

4. Compute the product

¸

0≤i<j≤n−1

(ε

j

−ε

i

)

2

, where

ε

k

= cos

2kπ

n

+i sin

2kπ

n

for all k ∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , n −1¦.

5. Consider 2005 real numbers with the following property: whenever

we eliminate one number, the rest can be divided into two groups of 1002

numbers each and having the same sum per group. Prove that all the

2005 numbers are equal.

6. Let a, b, c be relatively prime nonzero integers. Prove that for any

relatively prime integers u, v, w satisfying au + bv + cw = 0, there are

integers m, n, p such that

a = nw −pv, b = pu −mw, c = mv −nu.

Octavian Stanasila, TST 1989, Romania

7. Let p be a prime and suppose that the real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . ,

a

p+1

have the property: no matter how we eliminate one of them, the

rest of the numbers can be divided into at least two nonempty classes,

128

any two of them being disjoint and each class having the same arithmetic

mean. Prove that a

1

= a

2

= = a

p+1

.

Marius Radulescu, TST 1994 ,Romania

8. Let a, b, c be integers and deﬁne the sequence (x

n

)

n≥0

by x

0

= 4,

x

1

= 0, x

2

= 2c, x

3

= 3b and x

n+3

= ax

n−1

+ bx

n

+ cx

n+1

. Prove that

for any prime p and any positive integer m, the number x

p

m is divisible

by p.

Calin Popescu, TST 2004, Romania

9. Prove that for any integers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

the following number

lcm(a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

)

a

1

a

2

. . . a

n

¸

1≤i<j≤n

(a

j

−a

i

)

is an integer divisible by 1!2! . . . (n − 2)!. Moreover, we cannot replace

1!2! . . . (n −2)! by any other multiple of 1!2! . . . (n −2)!.

10. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

∈ R. A move is transforming the n-tuple

(x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

) into the n-tuple

x

1

+x

2

2

,

x

2

+x

3

2

, . . . ,

x

n−1

+x

n

2

,

x

n

+x

1

2

.

Prove that if we start with an arbitrary n-tuple (a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

), after

ﬁnitely many moves we obtain an n-tuple (A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

n

) such that

max

1≤i<j≤n

[A

i

−A

j

[ <

1

2

2005

.

11. Let a

(0)

1

, a

(0)

2

, . . . , a

(0)

n

∈ R and deﬁne a

(k)

i

=

a

(k−1)

i

+a

(k−1)

i+2

2

for

all k ≥ 1 and 1 ≤ i ≤ n (the indices are taken modulo n). Prove that

n

¸

k=0

(−2)

k

n

k

a

(k)

i

= (−1)

n

a

(0)

i

for all 1 ≤ i ≤ n.

Gabriel Dospinescu

129

ARITHMETIC PROPERTIES OF POLYNOMIALS

Another topic with old fashioned tricks... will surely say the reader

at ﬁrst about this small note. Yet, how many times happened to pass

too many time on a problem just because we neglected basic and triv-

ial aspects of it? This is why we think that speaking about these ”old

fashioned tricks” is not lack of imagination, but rather an imperious

need. In this small note we joined together some classical arithmetic

properties of polynomials. Of course, as usual, the list is just a small

and insigniﬁcant introduction to this ﬁeld, but some basic things should

become reﬂex and between them there are also some problems we shall

discuss. As usual, we kept some chestnuts for the end of the note, so the

tough solver will have his own part of lecture, especially in a chapter

like this one, when extremely diﬃcult problems with extremely simple

statements can be asked...

There is one result that should be remembered, that is for any poly-

nomial f ∈ Z[X] and any diﬀerent integers a, b, a−b divides f(a)−f(b).

Practically, this is the fundamental result that we shall use continuously.

We will start with an essential result, due to Schur, and which ap-

peared in many variants in contests. Although in the topic Analysis

against number theory we proved an even more general result using a

nice analytical argument, we prefer to present here a purely arithmetic

proof.

Example 1. (Schur) Let f ∈ Z[X] be a non constant polynomial.

Then the set of prime numbers dividing at least one non-zero number

between f(1), f(2), . . . , f(n), . . . is inﬁnite.

Proof. First, suppose that f(0) = 1 and consider the numbers f(n!).

For suﬃciently large n, they are non-zero integers. Moreover, f(n!) ≡ 1

(mod n!) and so if we pick a prime divisor of each of the numbers f(n!).

we obtain the conclusion (since in particular any such prime divisor is

130

greater than n). Now, if f(0) = 0, the conclusion is obvious. Suppose thus

that f(0) = 0 and consider the polynomial g(x) =

f(xf(0))

f(0)

. Obviously,

g ∈ Z[X] and g(0) = 1. Applying now the ﬁrst part of the solution, we

easily get the conclusion.

This result has, as we have already said, important consequences.

Here is a nice application.

Example 2. Suppose that f, g ∈ Z[X] are monic non constant irre-

ducible polynomials such that for all suﬃciently large n, f(n) and g(n)

have the same set of prime divisors. Then f = g.

Solution. Indeed, by Gauss’s lemma, the two polynomials are ir-

reducible in Q[X]. Even more, if they are not equal, then the above

remark and the fact that they have the same leading coeﬃcient implies

they are relatively prime in Q[X]. Using Bezout’s theorem we conclude

instantly that we can ﬁnd a non zero integer N and P, Q ∈ Z[X] such

that fP +gQ = N. This shows that for all suﬃciently large n, all prime

factors of f(n) divide N. But, of course, this contradicts Schur’s result.

The result of example 2 remains true if we assume the same property

valuable for inﬁnitely many numbers n. Yet, the proof uses some highly

non elementary results of Erdos in this ﬁeld. Interested reader will ﬁnd

a rich literature on this ﬁeld.

A reﬁnement of Schur’s lemma is discussed in the following example.

The ingredient is, as usual, the Chinese remainder theorem.

Example 3. Let f ∈ Z[X] be a non constant polynomial and n, k

some positive integers. Then prove that there exists a positive integer

a such that each of the numbers f(a), f(a + 1), . . . , f(a +n −1) has at

least k distinct prime divisors.

Bulgarian Olympiad

131

Solution. Let us consider an array of diﬀerent prime numbers

(p

ij

)

i,j=1,k

such that for some positive integers x

ij

such that f(x

ij

) ≡ 0

(mod p

ij

). We know that this is possible from Schur’s theorem. Now,

using the Chinese remainder theorem we can ﬁnd a positive integer a

such that a

i

−1 ≡ x

ij

(mod p

ij

). Using the fundamental result, it follows

that each of the numbers f(a), f(a + 1), . . . , f(a +n −1) has at least k

distinct prime divisors.

Classical arithmetic ”tricks” and the fundamental result that a − b

divides f(a) −f(b) are the main ingredients of the following problem.

Example 4. Find all polynomials with integer coeﬃcients f such

that for all suﬃciently large n, f(n)[n

n−1

−1.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Since clearly f(X) = X −1 is a solution, let us consider

an arbitrary solution and write it in the form f(X) = (X−1)

r

g(X) with

r ≥ 0 and g ∈ Z[X] such that g(1) = 0. Thus, there exists M such that

for all n > M we have g(n)[n

n−1

−1.

We will prove that g is constant. Supposing the contrary, then, since

changing g and his opposite has no eﬀect, we may assume that the

leading coeﬃcient of g is positive. Thus one can ﬁnd k > M such that

for all n > k we have g(n) > 2 and g(n)[n

n−1

− 1. Now, since n +

g(n) −n[g(n+g(n)) −g(n), we deduce that g(n)[g(n+g(n)) for all n. In

particular, for all n > k we have g(n)[g(n+g(n))[(n+g(n))

n+g(n)−1

−1

and g(n)[n

n−1

− 1. Of course, this implies that g(n)[n

n+g(n)−1

− 1 =

(n

n−1

− 1)n

g(n)

+ n

g(n)

− 1, that is g(n)[n

g(n)

− 1 for all n > k. Now,

let us consider a prime number p > k and let us look at the smallest

prime divisor of g(p+1) > 2. We clearly have q[g(p+1)[(p+1)

g(p+1)

−1

and q[(p +1)

q−1

−1. Since gcd(g(p +1), q −1) = 1 (by minimality) and

gcd((p + 1)

g(p+1)

− 1, (p + 1)

q−1

− 1) = (p + 1)

gcd(g(p+1),q−1)

− 1 = p, it

follows that we actually have p = q. This shows that p[g(p +q) and thus

132

(again using the fundamental result) p[g(1). Since this happens for any

prime number p > k, we must have g(1) = 0. This contradiction shows

that g is indeed constant.

Let g(X) = c. Thus, c[2

n(2

n

−1)−1

−1 for all n > M. (2

n

> M). Since

gcd(2

a

−1, 2

b

−1) = 2

gcd(a,b)

−1, in order to show that [c[ = 1, it suﬃces to

exhibit k < m < n such that gcd(m(2

m

−1), n(2

n

−1)) = 1. This is very

simple to realize. Indeed, it suﬃces to take m a prime number greater

than M, k and to choose n a prime number greater than m(2

m

− 1).

A simple argument shows that gcd(m(2

m

− 1), n(2

n

− 1)) = 1 and so

[c[ = 1.

Finally, let us prove that r ≤ 2. Supposing the contrary, we deduce

that

(n −1)

3

[n

n−1

−1 ⇔ (n −1)

1

[n

n−2

+n

n−3

+ +n + 1

for all suﬃciently large n and since

n

n−2

+n

n−3

+ +n + 1 =

= n −1 + (n −1)[n

n−3

+ 2n

n−4

+ + (n −3)n + (n −2)],

we obtain that n −1[n

n−3

+2n

n−4

+ +(n −3)n +(n −2) +1 for all

suﬃciently large n, which is clearly impossible, since

n

n−3

+ 2n

n−4

+ + (n −3)n + (n −2) + 1 ≡ 1 + 2 + + (n −2) + 1

≡

(n −1)(n −2

2

+ 1 (mod n −1).

Hence r ≤ 2. Finally, the relation

n

n−1

−1 = (n −1)

2

[n

n−3

+ 2m

n−4

+ + (n −3)n + (n −2) + 1]

shows that (n − 1)

2

[n

n−1

− 1 for all n > 1 and allows to conclude that

all solutions are the polynomials ±(X −1)

r

, with r ∈ ¦0, 1, 2¦.

After reading the solution of the following problem, the reader will

have the impression the problem is very simple. Actually, it is extremely

133

diﬃcult. There are many possible approaches that fail and the time spent

for solving such a problem can very well tend to inﬁnity.

Example 5. Let f ∈ Z[X] be a non constant polynomial and k ≥ 2

a positive integer such that

k

**f(n) ∈ Q for all positive integers n. Then
**

there exists a polynomial g ∈ Z[X] such that f = g

k

.

Folklore

Solution. Let us assume the contrary and let us decompose f =

p

k

1

1

. . . p

k

s

s

g

k

where 1 ≤ k

i

< k and p

i

are diﬀerent irreducible polyno-

mials in Q[X]. Suppose that s ≥ 1 (which is the same as denying the

conclusion). Since p

1

is irreducible in Q[X], it is relatively prime with

p

1

p

2

. . . p

s

and thus (using Bezout’s theorem and multiplication with in-

tegers) there exist some polynomials with integer coeﬃcients Q, R and

a positive integer c such that

Q(x)p

1

(x) +R(x)p

1

(x)p

2

(x) . . . p

s

(x) = c.

Now, using the result from example 1, we can take a prime number

q > [c[ and a number n such that q[p

1

(n) = 0. We shall have of course

q[p

1

(n+q) (since p

1

(n+q) ≡ p

1

(n) (mod q)). The choice q > [c[ ensures

that q does not divide p

1

(n)p

2

(n) . . . p

s

(n) and so v

q

(f(n)) = v

q

(p

1

(n))+

kv

q

(g(n)). But the hypothesis says that k[v

q

(f(n)), so we must have

v

q

(p

1

(n)) > 2. In exactly the same way we obtain v

q

(p

1

(n+q)) ≥ 2. Yet,

using the binomial formula, we can easily establish the congruency

p

1

(n +q) ≡ p

1

(n) +qp

t

1

(n) (mod q

2

).

Therefore, we must have q[p

1

(n), which contradicts q > [c[ and

Q(x)p

1

(x) +R(x)p

1

(x)p

2

(x) . . . p

s

(x) = c.

This contradiction shows that the hypothesis s ≥ 1 was wrong and

thus the result of the problem follows.

134

The next problem was given in the USA TST 2005 and uses a nice

combination of arithmetic considerations and computations using com-

plex numbers. There are many arithmetic properties of polynomials spec-

ulated in this problem, although the problem itself is not so diﬃcult, if

we ﬁnd the good way to solve it, of course...

Example 6. Let us call a polynomial f ∈ Z[X] special if for any

positive integer k > 1, in the sequence f(1), f(2), f(3), . . . one can ﬁnd

numbers which are relatively prime with k. Prove that for any n > 1, at

least 71% of all monic polynomials of degree n, with coeﬃcient in the

set ¦1, 2, . . . , n!¦ are special.

Titu Andreescu, Gabriel Dospinescu, USA TST 2005

Solution. Of course, before counting such polynomials, it would be

better to ﬁnd an easier characterization for them.

Let p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

r

all prime numbers at most equal to n and let us

consider the sets A

i

= ¦f ∈ M[ p

i

[f(m), ∀ m ∈ N

∗

¦, where M is

the set of monic polynomials of degree n, with coeﬃcient in the set

¦1, 2, . . . , n!¦. We shall prove that the set T of special polynomials is

exactly M `

r

¸

i=1

A

i

. Obviously, we have T ⊂ M `

¸

i≤r

A

i

. The converse,

however is not that easy. Let us suppose that f ∈ Z[X] belongs to

M `

r

¸

i=1

A

i

and let p be a prime number greater than n. Since f is

monic, Lagrange’s theorem ensures that we can ﬁnd m such that p is

not a divisor of f(m). It follows then that for any prime number q at

least one of the numbers f(1), f(2), f(3), . . . is not a multiple of q. Let

now k > 1 and q

1

, q

2

, . . . , q

s

its prime divisors. Then we know we can

ﬁnd u

1

, . . . , u

s

such that q

i

does not divide f(u

i

). Using the Chinese

remainder theorem, we can ﬁnd a positive integer x such that x ≡ u

i

(mod q

i

). Then f(x) ≡ f(u

i

) (mod q

i

) and thus q

i

does not divide f(x),

thus gcd(f(x), k) = 1. The equality of the two sets is thus proved.

135

Using a brutal estimation, we obtain

[T[ = [M[ −

r

¸

i=1

A

i

≥ [M[ −

r

¸

i=1

[A

i

[.

Let’s compute now [A

i

[. Actually, we will show that

(n!)

n

p

p

i

i

. Let f a

monic polynomial in A

i

,

f(X) = X

n

+a

n−1

X

n−1

+ +a

1

X +a

0

.

Then for any m > 1 we have

0 ≡ f(m) ≡ a

0

+ (a

1

+a

p

+a

2p−1

+a

3p−2

+. . . )m

+(a

2

+a

p+1

+a

2p

+. . . )m

2

+ +(a

p−1

+a

2p−2

+a

3p−3

+. . . )m

p−1

(mod p),

where, for simplicity, we put p = p

i

. Using Lagrange’s theorem it follows

that p[a

0

, p[a

1

+a

p

+a

2p−1

+. . . , . . . , p[a

p−1

+a

2p−2

+. . . We are going

to use this later, but we still need a small observation. Let us count the

number of s-tuples (x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

s

) ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n!¦

s

such that x

1

+x

2

+

+x

s

≡ u (mod p), where u is ﬁxed. Let

ε = cos

2π

p

+i sin

2π

p

.

Let us observe that

0 = (ε +ε

2

+ +ε

n!

)

s

=

p−1

¸

k=0

ε

k

[¦(x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

s

) ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n!¦

s

[ x

1

+ +x

s

≡ k (mod p)¦[.

A simple argument related to the irreducibility of the polynomial

1 + X + X

2

+ + X

p−1

shows that all cardinals that appear in the

above sum are equal and that their sum is (n!)

s

, thus each cardinal

equals

(n!)

s

p

.

We are now ready to ﬁnish the proof. Assume that among the

numbers a

1

, a

p

, a

2p−1

, . . . there are exactly v

1

numbers that among

136

a

p−1

, a

2p−2

, . . . there are v

p−1

numbers. Using the above observations,

it follows that we have

[A

i

[ =

n!

p

(n!)

v

1

p

. . .

(n!)

v

p−1

p

=

(n!)

n

p

p

.

Hence, we obtain

[T[ ≥ (n!)

n

−

¸

p prime

(n!)

n

p

p

.

But

1

5

5

+

1

7

7

+ <

1

5

5

1 +

1

5

+

1

5

2

+. . .

<

1

1000

and so the percent of special polynomials is at least

100

1 −

1

4

−

1

27

−

1

1000

= 75 −

100

27

−

1

10

> 71.

The solution of the problem ends here.

Example 7. Suppose that the non constant polynomial f with in-

teger coeﬃcients has no double roots. Then for any positive integer r

there exists n such that f(n) has at least r distinct prime divisors, all of

them appearing with exponent 1 in the decomposition of f(n) in prime

factors.

Iran Olympiad

Solution. Already for r = 1 the problem is in no way obvious, so

let’s not try to attack it directly and concentrate at ﬁrst on the case

r = 1. Suppose the contrary, that is for all n, all prime divisors of

f(n) appear with exponent at least 2. Since f has no double root, we

deduce that gcd(f, f

t

) = 1 in C[X] and thus also in Q[X] (because of

the division algorithm and Euclid’s algorithm). Using Bezout’s theorem

in Q[X], we deduce that we can ﬁnd integer polynomials P, Q such that

P(n)f(n) + Q(n)f

t

(n) = c for a certain positive integer c. Using the

result stated in the ﬁrst example, we can choose q > c a prime divisor

137

of a certain f(n). The hypothesis made ensures that q

2

[f(n). But then

we also have q[f(n + q) and so q

2

[f(n + q). Using Newton’s binomial

formula, we deduce immediately that f(n+q) ≡ f(n)+qf

t

(n) (mod q

2

).

We ﬁnally deduce that q[p

t

(n) and so q[c, impossible since our choice was

q > c. Thus the case r = 1 was proved.

Let us try to prove the property by induction and suppose it is true

for r. Of course, the existence of P, Qsuch that P(n)f(n)+Q(n)f

t

(n) = c

for a certain positive integer c did not depend on r, so we keep the above

notations. By inductive hypothesis, there is n such that at least r prime

divisors of f(n) appear with exponent 1. Let these prime factors be

p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

r

. But it is obvious that n +kp

2

1

p

2

2

. . . p

2

r

has the same prop-

erty: all prime divisors p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

r

have exponent 1 in the decomposi-

tion of f(n+kp

2

1

p

2

2

. . . p

2

r

). Since at most a ﬁnite number among them can

be roots of f, we may very well suppose from the beginning that n is not

a root of f. Consider now the polynomial g(X) = f(n + (p

1

. . . p

r

)

2

X),

which is obviously non constant. Thus, using again the result in exam-

ple 1, we can ﬁnd q > max¦[c[, p

1

, . . . , p

r

, [p(n)[¦ a prime number and

a number u such that q[g(u). If v

q

(g(u)) = 1, victory is ours, since

a trivial veriﬁcation shows that q, p

1

, . . . , p

r

are diﬀerent prime num-

bers whose exponents in f(n +(p

1

. . . p

r

)

2

u) are all 1. The diﬃcult case

is when v

q

(g(u)) ≥ 2. In this case, we shall consider the number N =

n+u(p

1

. . . p

r

)

2

+uq(p

1

. . . p

r

)

2

. Let us prove that in the decomposition of

f(N), all prime numbers q, p

1

, . . . , p

r

appear with exponent 1. For any p

i

,

this is obvious since f(N) ≡ f(n) (mod (p

1

. . . p

r

)

2

). Using once again

binomial formula, we easily obtain that f(N) ≡ f(n + (p

1

. . . p

r

)

2

u) +

uq(p

1

. . . p

r

)

2

f

t

(N) (mod q

2

). Now, if v

q

(f(n)) ≥ 2, then since v

q

(f(n +

(p

1

. . . p

r

)

2

u)) = v

q

(g(u)) ≥ 2, we have q[u(p

1

. . . p

r

)

2

f

t

(N). Remember

that the choice was q > max¦[c[, p

1

, . . . , p

r

, [p(n)[¦ so necessarily q[u (if

q[f

t

(N) ⇒ q[(f(N), f

t

(N))[c ⇒ q ≤ [c[, contradiction). But since q[g(u),

138

we must have q[g(0) = f(n). But hopefully, we ensured that n is not a

roof of our polynomial and also that q > max¦[c[, p

1

, . . . , p

r

, [p(n)[¦ so

that the last divisibility relation cannot hold. This allows to ﬁnish the

induction step and to solve the problem.

Example 8. Find all non constant polynomials f with integer coef-

ﬁcients and with the following property: for any relatively prime positive

integers a, b, the sequence (f(an+b))

n≥1

contains an inﬁnite number of

terms, any two of which are relatively prime.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. We will prove that the only polynomials with the spec-

iﬁed property are those of the form X

n

, −X

n

with n a positive inte-

ger. Because changing f with its opposite does not modify the property

of the polynomial, we can suppose that the leading coeﬃcient of f is

positive. Thus, there exists a constant M such that for any n > M

we have f(n) > 2. From now on, we consider only n > M. Let us

prove that we have gcd(f(n), n) = 1 for any such n. Suppose that

there is n > M such that gcd(f(n), n) = 1. Consequently, the sequence

(f(n+kf(n))

n≥1

will contain at least two relatively prime numbers. Let

them be s, r. Since f(n)[kf(n) = kf(n) + n − n[f(kf(n) + n) − f(n),

we have f(n)[f(n + kf(n)) for any positive integer k. Hence ,we ob-

tain that s, r are multiples of f(n) > 2, impossible. We have shown

that gcd(f(n), n) = 1 for any n > M. Thus ,for any prime p > M we

have p[f(p) and so p[f(0). Since any integer diﬀerent from zero has a

ﬁnite number of divisors, we conclude that f(0) = 0. Thus, there is a

polynomial q with integer coeﬃcients such that f(X) = Xq(X). It is

obvious that q has positive leading coeﬃcient and the same property

as f. Repeating the above argument, we infer that if q is non-constant,

then q(0) = 0 and q(X) = Xh(X). Since f is not constant, the above

argument cannot be repeated inﬁnitely many times and thus one of the

139

polynomials g, h must be constant. Consequently, there are positive inte-

gers n, k such that f(X) = kX

n

. But since the sequence (f(2n +3))

n≥1

contains at least two relatively prime integers, we must have k = 1. We

have obtained that f must have the form X

n

. But since f is a solution

if and only if −f is a solution, we infer that any solution of the problem

is a polynomial of the form X

n

, −X

n

.

Now let us prove that the polynomials of the form X

n

, −X

n

are solu-

tions. It is enough to prove for X

n

and even for X. But this follows triv-

ially from Dirichlet’s theorem. Let us observe that there is another, more

elementary approach. Let us suppose that x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

p

are terms of the

sequence, any two of which are relatively prime. We prove that we can

add another term x

p+1

so that x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

p+1

has the same property. It

is clear that x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

p

are relatively prime with a, so we can apply

the Chinese remainder theorem to ﬁnd x

p+1

greater than x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

p

,

such that x

p+1

≡ (1 −b)a

−1

i

(mod x

i

), i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , p¦, where a

−1

i

is a’s

inverse in Z

∗

x

i

. Then gcd(x

p+1

, x

i

) = 1 for i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , p¦ and thus we

can add x

p+1

.

Here is an absolute classic, that appears in at least one Olympiad

around the world each year. Very easy, it uses only the fundamental

result.

Example. Suppose that

Fie n natural nenul. Care este gradul minim al unui polinom monic

cu coeﬁcienti intregi f astfel incat n[f(k) pentru orice k natural?

Proposed problems

1. Let (a

n

)

n≥1

be an increasing sequence of positive integers such

that for a certain polynomial f ∈ Z[X] we have a

n

≤ f(n) for all n.

Suppose also that m−n[a

m

−a

n

for all distinct positive integers m, n.

140

Prove that there exists a polynomial g ∈ Z[X] such that a

n

= g(n) for

all n.

USAMO 1995

2. We call the sequence of positive integers (a

n

)

n≥1

relatively prime

if gcd(a

m

, a

n

) = 1 for any diﬀerent positive integers m, n. Find all integer

polynomials f ∈ Z[X] such that for any positive integer c, the sequence

(f

[n]

(c))

n≥1

is relatively prime. Here f

[n]

is the composition of f with

itself n times.

Leo Mosser

3. Are there polynomials p, q, r with positive integer coeﬃcients such

that

p(x) + (x

2

−3x + 2)q(x) and q(x) =

x

2

20

−

x

15

+

1

12

r(x)?

Vietnam Olympiad

4. Given is a ﬁnite family of polynomials with integer coeﬃcients.

Prove that for inﬁnitely many numbers n, if we evaluate any member of

the family in n, we obtain only composite numbers.

Folklore

5. Find all polynomials with integer coeﬃcients such that f(n)[2

n

−1

for any positive integer n.

Poland Olympiad

6. Suppose that f ∈ Z[X] is a non constant polynomial. Also, sup-

pose that for some positive integers r, k, the following property is sat-

isﬁed: for any positive integer n, at most r prime factors of f(n) have

appear with exponent at most equal to k. Does it follow that any root

of this polynomial appears with multiplicity at least equal to k + 1?

7. Is it true that any polynomial f ∈ Z[X] that has a root modulo

n for any positive integer n must necessarily have a rational root?

141

8. Let f, g ∈ Z[X] some non zero polynomials. Let us consider the

set D

f,g

= ¦gcd(f(n), g(n))[ n ∈ N¦. Prove that the two polynomials are

relatively prime in Q[X] if and only if D

f,g

.

M. Andronache, Gazeta Matematica 1985

9. Prove that there are no polynomials f ∈ Z[X] with the property:

there exists n > 3 and integers x

1

, . . . , x

n

such that f(x

i

) = x

i−1

, i = 1, n

(indices are taken mod n).

10. Let f ∈ Z[X] a polynomial of degree n at least 2, with integer

coeﬃcients. Prove that the polynomial f(f(X))−X has at most n integer

roots.

Gh. Eckstein, Romanian TST

11. Find all trinomials f ∈ Z[X] with the property that for any

relatively prime integers m, n, the numbers f(M), f(n) are also relatively

prime.

Sankt Petersburg Olympiad

12. For the die hard: ﬁnd all polynomials with the above property.

13. Let f ∈ Z[X] be a non constant polynomial. Show that the

sequence f(3

n

) (mod b) is not bounded.

14. Is there a second degree polynomial f ∈ Z[X] such that for any

positive integer n all prime factors of f(n) are of the form 4k + 3?

AMM

15. Prove that for any n there exists a polynomial f ∈ Z[X] such

that all numbers f(1) < f(2) < < f(n) are

a) prime numbers b) powers of 2.

Folklore

16. Find all integers n > 1 for which there exists a polynomial

f ∈ Z[X] such that for any integer k we have f(k) ≡ 0, 1 (mod n) and

both these congruences have solutions.

142

17. Let p be a prime number. Find the maximal degree of a poly-

nomial f ∈ Z[X] having coeﬃcients in the set ¦0, 1, . . . , p −1¦, knowing

that its degree is at most p and that if p divides f(m) − f(n) then it

also divides m−n.

18. Use example 1 and properties of the cyclotomic polynomials

φ

n

(X) =

¸

1≤k≤n

(k,n)=1

(X −e

2iπk

n

)

to prove that there are inﬁnitely many prime numbers of the form 1+kn

for any given n ≥ 2. You may be interested to characterize those numbers

m, n for which p[φ

m

(n), but p does not divide any other number of the

form φ

d

(n), where d is a divisor of m diﬀerent from m

Classical result

143

LAGRANGE INTERPOLATION

Almost everyone knows the Chinese Remainder Theorem, which is a

remarkable tool in number theory. But does everyone know the analogous

form for polynomials? Stated like this, this question may seem impossible

to answer. Then, let us make it easier and also reformulate it: is it true

that given some pair wise distinct real numbers x

0

, x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

and

some arbitrary real numbers a

0

, a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

, we can ﬁnd a polynomial

f with real coeﬃcients such that f(x

i

) = a

i

for i ∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , n¦? The

answer turns out to be positive and a possible solution to this question

is based on Lagrange’s interpolation formula. It says that an example of

such polynomial is

f(x) =

n

¸

i=0

a

i

¸

0≤j,=i≤n

x −x

j

x

i

−x

j

(1)

Indeed, it is immediate to see that f(x

i

) = a

i

for i ∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , n¦.

Also, from the above expression we can see that this polynomial has

degree less than or equal to n. Is this the only polynomial with this

supplementary property? Yes, and the proof is not diﬃcult at all. Just

suppose we have another polynomial g of degree smaller than or equal

than n and such that g(x

i

) = a

i

for i ∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , n¦. Then the polyno-

mial g − f also has degree smaller than or equal to n and vanishes at

0, 1, . . . , n. Thus, it must be null and the uniqueness is proved.

What is Lagrange’s interpolation theorem good for? We will see in

the following problems that it helps us to ﬁnd immediately the value of a

polynomial in a certain point if we know the values in some given points.

And the reader has already noticed that this follows directly from the

formula (1), which shows that if we know the value in 1 + deg f points,

then we can ﬁnd easily the value in any other point without solving a

complicated linear system. Also, we will see that it helps in establishing

144

some inequalities and bounds for certain special polynomials and will

even help us in ﬁnding and proving some beautiful identities.

Now, let us begin the journey trough some nice examples of problems

where this idea can be used. As promised, we will see ﬁrst how we can

compute rapidly the value in a certain point for some polynomials. This

was one of the favorite’s problems in the old Olympiads, as the following

examples will show. The ﬁrst example is just an immediate application

of formula (1) and became a classical problem.

Example 1.

Let f be a polynomial of degree n such that

f(0) = 0, f(1) =

1

2

, f(2) =

2

3

, . . . , f(n) =

n

n + 1

.

Find f(n + 1).

USAMO 1975, Great Britain 1989

Solution. A ﬁrst direct approach would be to write

f(x) =

n

¸

k=0

a

k

x

k

and to determine a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

n

from the linear system

f(0) = 0, f(1) =

1

2

, f(2) =

2

3

, . . . , f(n) =

n

n + 1

.

But this is terrible, since the determinants that must be computed

are really complicated. This is surely a dead end. But for someone who

knows Lagrange’s Interpolation Theorem, the problem is straightfor-

ward. Indeed, we have

f(x) =

n

¸

i=0

i

i + 1

¸

j,=i

x −j

i −j

,

so that

f(n + 1) =

n

¸

i=0

i

i + 1

¸

n≤i

n + 1 −j

i −j

.

145

Now, how do we compute this? The reader might say: but we have

already found the value of f(n+1)! Well, it is tacit that the answer should

be expressed in the closest possible form. But, after all, computing the

above sum is not so diﬃcult. Indeed, we can see that

¸

j,=i

n + 1 −j

i −j

=

(n + 1)!

(n + 1 −i) i! (n −i)!

(−1)

n−i

just by writing

¸

j,=i

n + 1 −j

i −j

=

(n + 1)n. . . (n + 1 −(i −1))(n + 1 −(i + 1)) . . . 1

i(i −1) . . . 1 (−1) . . . (−(n −i))

.

According to these small observations, we can write

f(n + 1) =

n

¸

i=0

i

i + 1

(n + 1)!

(n + 1 −i) i! (n −i)!

(−1)

n−i

=

n

¸

i=1

(n + 1)!

(n + 1 −i)! (i −1)!

(−1)

n−i

= (n + 1)

n

¸

i=1

n

i −1

(−1)

n−i

= (n + 1)

n−1

¸

i=0

n

i

(−1)

n+1−i

.

And we have arrived at a familiar formula: the binomial theorem.

According to this,

n−1

¸

i=0

n

i

(−1)

n+1−i

= −

n

¸

i=0

n

i

(−1)

n−i

−1

= 1.

This shows that f(n + 1) = n + 1.

The ﬁrst example was straightforward because we didn’t ﬁnd any

diﬃculties after ﬁnding the idea. It’s not the case with the following

problem.

Example 2. Let F

1

= F

2

= 1, F

n+2

= F

n

+ F

n+1

and let f be a

polynomial of degree 990 such that f(k) = F

k

for k ∈ ¦992, . . . , 1982¦.

Show that f(1983) = F

1983

−1.

Titu Andreescu, IMO 1983 Shortlist

146

Solution. So, we have f(k + 992) = F

k+992

for k = 0, 990 and we

need to prove that f(992 + 991) = F

1983

− 1. This simple observation

shows that we don’t have to bother too much with k + 992, since we

could work as well with the polynomial g(x) = f(x+992), which also has

degree 990. Now, the problem becomes: if g(k) = F

k+992

, for k = 0, 990,

then g(991) = F

1983

−1. But we know how to compute g(991). Indeed,

looking again at the previous problem, we ﬁnd that

g(991) =

990

¸

k=0

g(k)

991

k

(−1)

k

=

990

¸

k=0

991

k

F

k+992

(−1)

k

which shows that we need to prove the identity

990

¸

k=0

991

k

F

k+992

(−1)

k

= F

1983

−1.

This isn’t so easy, but with a little bit of help it can be done. The

device is: never complicate things more than necessary! Indeed, we could

try to establish a more general identity that could be proved by induc-

tion. But why, since it can be done immediately with the formula for

F

n

. Indeed, we know that

F

n

=

a

n

−b

n

√

5

,

where a =

√

5 + 1

2

and b =

1 −

√

5

2

. Having this in mind, we can of

course try a direct approach:

990

¸

k=0

991

k

F

k+992

(−1)

k

=

1

√

5

¸

990

¸

k=0

991

k

a

k+992

(−1)

k

−

990

¸

k=0

991

k

b

k+992

(−1)

k

¸

.

But using the binomial theorem, the above sums vanish:

990

¸

k=0

991

k

a

k+992

(−1)

k

= a

992

990

¸

k=0

991

k

(−a)

k

= a

992

[(1 −a)

991

+a

991

].

147

Since a

2

= a + 1, we have

a

992

[(1 −a)

991

+a

991

] = a(a −a

2

)

991

+a

1983

= −a +a

1983

.

Since in all this argument we have used only the fact that a

2

= a+1

and since b also veriﬁes this relation, we ﬁnd that

990

¸

k=0

991

k

F

k+992

(−1)

k

=

1

√

5

(a

1983

−b

1983

−a +b)

=

a

1983

−b

1983

√

5

−

a −b

√

5

= F

1983

−1.

And this is how with the help of a precious formula and with some

smart computations we could solve this problem and also ﬁnd a nice

property of the Fibonacci numbers.

The following example is a very nice problem proposed for IMO 1997.

Here, the following steps after using Lagrange’s Interpolation formula are

even better hidden in some congruencies. It is the typical example of a

good Olympiad problem: no matter how much the contestant knows in

that ﬁeld, it causes great diﬃculties in solving.

Example 3. Let f be a polynomial with integer coeﬃcients and let

p be a prime such that f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1 and f(k) = 0, 1 (mod p) for

all positive integer k. Show that deg f is at least p −1.

IMO Shortlist 1997

Solution. As usual, such a problem should be solved indirectly,

arguing by contradiction. So, let us suppose that deg f ≤ p − 2. Then,

using the Interpolation formula, we ﬁnd that

f(x) =

p−1

¸

k=0

f(k)

¸

j,=k

x −j

k −j

.

148

Now, since deg f ≤ p − 2, the coeﬃcient of x

p−1

in the right-hand

side of the identity must be zero. Consequently, we have

p−1

¸

k=0

(−1)

p−k−1

k!(p −1 −k)!

f(k) = 0.

From here we have one more step. Indeed, let us write the above

relation in the form

p−1

¸

k=0

(−1)

k

p −1

k

f(k) = 0

and let us take this equality modulo p. Since

k!

p −1

k

= (p −k)(p −k + 1) . . . (p −1) ≡ (−1)

k

k! (mod p)

we ﬁnd that

p −1

k

≡ (−1)

k

(mod p)

and so

p−1

¸

k=0

(−1)

k

p −1

k

f(k) ≡

p−1

¸

k=0

f(k) (mod p).

Thus,

p−1

¸

k=0

f(k) ≡ 0 (mod p),

which is impossible, since f(k) ≡ 0, 1 (mod p) for all k and not all of

the numbers f(k) have the same remainder modulo p (for example, f(0)

and f(1)). This contradiction shows that our assumption was wrong and

the conclusion follows.

It’s time now for some other nice identities, where polynomials do

not appear at ﬁrst sight. We will see how some terrible identities are

simple consequences of the Lagrange Interpolation formula.

149

Example 4. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

be pairwise distinct positive integers.

Prove that for any positive integer k the number

n

¸

i=1

a

k

i

¸

j,=i

(a

i

−a

j

)

is an

integer.

Great Britain

Solution. Just by looking at the expression, we recognize the La-

grange Interpolation formula for the polynomial f(x) = x

k

. But we may

have some problems when the degree of this polynomial is greater than

or equal to n. But this can be solved by working with the remainder of

f modulo g(x) = (x − a

1

)(x − a

2

) . . . (x − a

n

). So, let us proceed, by

writing f(x) = g(x)h(x) + r(x), where r is a polynomial of degree at

most n − 1. This time we don’t have to worry, since the formula works

and we obtain

r(x) =

n

¸

i=1

r(a

i

)

¸

j,=i

x −a

j

a

i

−a

j

.

Now, we need three observations. The ﬁrst one is r(a

i

) = a

k

i

, the sec-

ond one is that the polynomial r has integer coeﬃcients and the third one

is that

n

¸

i=1

a

k

i

¸

j,=i

(a

i

−a

j

)

is just the coeﬃcient of x

n−1

in the polynomial

n

¸

i=1

r(a

i

)

¸

j,=i

x −a

j

a

i

−a

j

. All these observations are immediate. Combining

them, we ﬁnd that

n

¸

i=1

a

k

i

¸

j,=i

(a

i

−a

j

)

is the coeﬃcient of x

n−1

in r, which

is an integer. Thus, not only that we have solved the problem, but we

also found a rapid way to compute the sums of the form

n

¸

i=1

a

k

i

¸

j,=i

(a

i

−a

j

)

.

150

The following two problems we are going to discuss refer to combi-

natorial sums. If the ﬁrst one is relatively easy to prove using a combi-

natorial argument (it is a very good exercise for the reader to ﬁnd this

argument), the second problem is much more diﬃcult. But we will see

that both are immediate consequences of the Interpolation Formula.

Example 5. Let f(x) =

n

¸

k=0

a

k

x

n−k

. Prove that for any non-zero

real number h and any real number A we have

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

n−k

n

k

f(A+kh) = a

0

h

n

n!.

Alexandru Lupas

Solution. Since this polynomial has degree at most n, we have no

problems in applying the Interpolation formula

f(x) =

n

¸

k=0

f(A

k

h)

¸

j,=k

x −A−jh

(k −j)h

.

Now, let us identify the leading coeﬃcients in both polynomials that

appear in the equality. We ﬁnd that

a

0

=

n

¸

k=0

f(A+kh)

1

¸

j,=k

[(k −j)h]

=

1

n!h

n

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

n−k

n

k

f(A+kh),

which is exactly what we had to prove. Simple and elegant! Notice that

the above problem implies the well-known combinatorial identities

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

k

n

k

k

p

= 0

for all p ∈ ¦0, 1, 2, . . . , n −1¦ and

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

n−k

n

k

k

n

= n!.

As we promised, we will discuss a much more diﬃcult problem. The

reader might say after reading the solution: but this is quite natural! Yes,

it is natural for someone who knows very well the Lagrange Interpolation

151

formula and especially for someone who thinks that using it could lead

to a solution. Unfortunately, this isn’t always so easy.

Example 6. Prove the identity

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

n−k

n

k

k

n+1

=

n(n + 1)!

2

.

Solution. We take the polynomial f(x) = x

n

(why don’t we take the

polynomial f(x) = x

n+1

? Simply because (−1)

n−k

n

k

appears when

writing the formula for a polynomial of degree at most n) and we write

the Interpolation Formula

x

n

=

n

¸

k=0

k

n

x(x −1) . . . (x −k −1)(x −k + 1) . . . (x −n)

(n −k)!k!

(−1)

n−k

Now, we identify the coeﬃcient of x

n−1

in both terms. We ﬁnd that

0 =

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

n−k

n

k

k

n

(1 + 2 + +n −k).

And now the problem is solved, since we found that

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

n−k

n

k

k

n+1

=

n(n + 1)

2

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

n−k

n

k

k

n

and we also know that

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

n−k

n

k

k

n

= n!

from the previous problem.

Were Lagrange interpolation formula good only to establish identi-

ties and to compute values of polynomials, it wouldn’t have been such

a great discovery. Of course it is not the case, it plays a fundamental

role in analysis. Yet, we are not going to enter this ﬁeld and we prefer to

concentrate on another elementary aspect of this formula and see how

it can help us establish some remarkable inequalities. And some of them

will be really tough.

152

We begin with a really diﬃcult inequality, in which the interpola-

tion formula is really well hidden. Yet, the denominators give sometimes

precious indications...

Example 7. Prove that for any real numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

∈ [−1, 1]

the following inequality is true:

n

¸

i=1

1

¸

j,=i

[x

j

−x

i

[

≥ 2

n−2

.

Iran Olympiad

Solution. The presence of

¸

j,=i

[x

j

−x

i

[ is the only hint to this prob-

lem. But even if we know it, how do we choose the polynomial? The

answer is simple: we will choose it to be arbitrary and only in the end

we will decide which is one is optimal. So, let us proceed by taking

f(x) =

n−1

¸

k=0

a

k

x

k

an arbitrary polynomial of degree n −1. Then we have

f(x) =

n

¸

k=1

f(x

k

)

¸

j,=k

x −x

j

x

k

−x

j

.

Combining this with the triangular inequality , we arrive at a new

inequality

[f(x)[ ≤

n

¸

k=1

[f(x

k

)[

¸

j,=k

x −x

j

x

k

−x

j

.

Only now comes the beautiful idea, which is in fact the main step.

From the above inequality we ﬁnd that

f(x)

x

n−1

≤

n

¸

k=1

[f(x

k

)[

¸

j,=k

[x

k

−x

j

[

¸

j,=k

1 −

x

j

x

153

and since this is true for all non-zero real numbers x, we may take the

limit when x → ∞ and the result is pretty nice

[a

n−1

[ ≤

n

¸

k=1

[f(x

k

)[

¸

j,=k

[x

k

−x

j

[

.

This is the right moment to decide what polynomial to take. We

need a polynomial f such that [f(x)[ ≤ 1 for all x ∈ [−1, 1] and such

that the leading coeﬃcient is 2

n−2

. This time our mathematical culture

will decide. And it says that Chebyshev polynomials are the best, since

they are the polynomials with the minimum deviation on [−1, 1] (the

reader will wait just a few seconds and he will see a beautiful proof of

this remarkable result using Lagrange’s interpolation theorem). So, we

take the polynomial deﬁned by f(cos x) = cos(n −1)x. It is easy to see

that such a polynomial exists, has degree n − 1 and leading coeﬃcient

2

n−2

, so this choice solves our problem.

Note also that the inequality [a

n−1

[ ≤

n

¸

k=1

[f(x

k

)[

¸

j,=k

[x

k

−x

j

[

can be

proved by identifying the leading coeﬃcients in the identity

f(x) =

n

¸

k=1

f(x

k

)

¸

j,=k

x −x

j

x

k

−x

j

and then using the triangular inequality.

The following example is a ﬁne concoct of ideas. The problem is not

simple at all, since many possible approaches fail. Yet, in the frame-

work of the previous problems and with the experience of Lagrange’s

interpolation formula, it is not so hard after all.

Example 8. Let f ∈ R[X] be a polynomial of degree n with leading

coeﬃcient 1 and let x

0

< x

1

< x

2

< < x

n

be some integers. Prove

154

that there exists k ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ such that

[f(x

k

)[ ≥

n!

2

n

.

Crux Matematicorum

Solution. Naturally (but would this be naturally without having

discussed so many related problems before?), we start with the identity

f(x) =

n

¸

k=0

f(x

k

)

¸

j,=k

x −x

j

x

k

−x

j

.

Now, repeating the argument in the previous problem and using the

fact that the leading coeﬃcient is 1, we ﬁnd that

n

¸

k=0

[f(x

k

)[

¸

j,=k

[x

k

−x

j

[

≥ 1.

It is time to use that we are dealing with integers. This will allow us

to ﬁnd a good inferior bound for

¸

j,=k

[x

k

−x

j

[ ≥ 1. This is easy, since

¸

j,=k

[x

k

−x

j

[ = (x

k

−x

0

)(x

k

−x

1

) . . . (x

k

−x

k−1

)(x

k+1

−x

k

) . . . (x

n

−x

k

)

≥ k(k −1)(k −2) . . . 1 1 2 . . . (n −k) = k!(n −k)!.

And yes, we are done, since using these inequalities, we deduce that

n

¸

k=0

[f(x

k

)[

k!(n −k)![

≥ 1.

Now, since

n

¸

k=0

1

k!(n −k)!

=

1

n!

n

¸

k=0

n

k

=

2

n

n!

,

it follows trivially that

[f(x

k

)[ ≥

n!

2

n

.

We shall discuss one more problem before entering in a more detailed

study of Chebyshev polynomials and their properties, a problem given

155

in the Romanian mathematical Olympiad and which is a very nice ap-

plication of Lagrange’s interpolation formula. It is useless to say that it

follows trivially using a little bit of integration theory and Fourier series.

Example 9. Prove that for any polynomial f of degree n and with

leading coeﬃcient 1 there exists a point z such that

[z[ = 1 and [f(z)[ ≥ 1.

Marius Cavachi, Romanian Olympiad

Solution. Of course, the idea is always the same, but this time

it is necessary to ﬁnd the good points in which we should write the

interpolation formula. As usual, we shall be blind and we shall try to

ﬁnd these points. Till then, let us call them simply x

0

, x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

and

write

n

¸

k=0

[f(x

k

)[

¸

j,=k

[x

k

−x

j

[

≥ 1.

This inequality was already proved in the two problems above. Now,

consider the polynomial

g(x) =

n

¸

i=0

(x −x

i

).

We have then

[g

t

(x

i

)[ =

¸

j,=i

(x

i

−x

j

)

.

Now, of course we would like, if possible, to have [x

i

[ = 1 and also

n

¸

k=0

1

[g

t

(x

k

)[

≤ 1. In this case it would follow from

n

¸

k=0

[f(x

k

)[

¸

j,=k

[x

k

−x

j

[

≥ 1

that at least one of the numbers [f(x

k

)[ is at least equal to 1 and the

problem would be solved. Thus, we should ﬁnd a monic polynomial g of

degree n +1 with all roots of modulus 1 and such that

n

¸

k=0

1

[g

t

(x

k

)[

≤ 1.

156

This is trivial: it suﬃces of course to consider g(x) = x

n+1

− 1. The

conclusion follows.

We have an explanation to give: we said the problem follows trivially

with a little bit of integration theory tools. Indeed, if we write f(x) =

n

¸

k=0

a

k

x

k

then one can check with a trivial computation that

a

k

=

1

2π

2π

0

f(e

it

)e

−ikt

dt

and from here the conclusion follows since we will have

2π =

2π

0

f(e

it

)e

−int

dt

≤

2π

0

[f(e

it

[dt ≤ 2π max

[z[=1

[f(z)[.

Of course, knowing already this in 10-th grade (the problem was

given to students in 10-th grade) is not something common...

The next problems will be based on a very nice identity that will

allow us to prove some classical results about norms of polynomials,

to ﬁnd the polynomials having minimal deviation on [−1, 1] and also to

establish some new inequalities. In order to do all this, we need two quite

technical lemmas, which is not diﬃcult to establish, but very useful.

Lemma 1. If we put t

k

= cos

kπ

n

, 0 ≤ k ≤ n, then

f(x) =

n

¸

k=0

(x −t

k

) =

√

x

2

−1

2

n

[(x +

x

2

−1)

n

−(x −

x

2

−1)

n

].

Proof. The proof is simple. Indeed, if we consider

g(x) =

√

x

2

−1

2

n

[(x +

x

2

−1)

n

−(x −

x

2

−1)

n

],

using the binomial formula we can establish immediately that it is a

polynomial. Moreover, from the obvious fact that lim

x→∞

g(x)

x

n+1

= 1, we

deduce that it is actually a monic polynomial of degree n + 1. The fact

157

that g(t

k

) = 0 for all 0 ≤ k ≤ n is easily veriﬁed using Moivre’s formula.

All this proves the ﬁrst lemma.

A little bit more computational is the second lemma.

Lemma 2. The following relations are true:

i)

¸

j,=k

(t

k

−t

j

) =

(−1)

k

n

2

n−1

if 1 ≤ k ≤ n −1;

ii)

n

¸

j=1

(t

0

−t

j

) =

n

2

n−2

;

iii)

n−1

¸

j=0

(t

n

−t

j

) =

(−1)

n

n

2

n−2

.

Proof. Simple computations, left to the reader, allow us to write:

f

t

(x) =

n

2

n

[(x +

x

2

−1)

n

+ (x −

x

2

−1)

n

]

+

x

2

n

√

x

2

−1

[(x +

x

2

−1)

n

−(x −

x

2

−1)

n

].

Using this formula and Moivre’s formula we easily deduce i). To

prove ii) and iii) it suﬃces to compute lim

x→±1

f

t

(x), using the above for-

mula. We leave the computations to the reader.

Of course, the reader hopes that all these computations will have a

honourable purpose. He’s right, since these lemmas will allow us to prove

some very nice results. The ﬁrst one is a classical theorem of Chebyshev,

about minimal deviation of polynomials on [−1, 1].

Example 10. (Chebyshev theorem) Let f ∈ R[X] be a monic poly-

nomial of degree n. Then

max

x∈[−1,1]

[f(x)[ ≥

1

2

n−1

and this bound cannot be improved.

Solution. Using again the observation from problem 7, we obtain

the identity:

I =

n

¸

k=0

f(t

k

)

¸

j,=k

1

t

k

−t

j

.

158

Thus, we have

1 ≤ max

0≤k≤n

[f(t

k

)[

n

¸

k=0

1

¸

j,=k

(t

k

−t

j

)

.

Now, it suﬃces to apply lemma 2 to conclude that we actually have

n

¸

k=0

1

¸

j,=k

(t

k

−t

j

)

= 2

n−1

.

This shows that max

x∈[−1,1]

[f(x)[ ≥

1

2

n−1

and so the result is proved.

To prove that this result is optimal, it suﬃces to use the polynomial

T

n

(x) = cos(narccos(x)). It is an easy exercise to prove that this is

really a polynomial (called the nth polynomial of Chebyshev of the ﬁrst

kind) and that it has leading coeﬃcient 2

n−1

and degree n. Then the

polynomial

1

2

n−1

T

n

is monic of degree n and

max

x∈[−1,1]

1

2

n−1

T

n

(x)

=

1

2

n−1

.

There are many other proof of this result , many of them are much

easier, but we chosen this one because it shows the power of Lagrange

interpolation theory. Not to say that the use of the two lemmas allowed

us to prove that the inequality presented in example 7 is actually the

best.

Some years ago, Walther Janous presented in Crux the following

problem as open problem. It is true that it is a very diﬃcult one, but

here is a very simple solution using the results already achieved.

Example 11. Suppose that a

0

, a

1

, . . . , a

n

are real numbers such that

for all x ∈ [−1, 1] we have

[a

0

+a

1

x + +a

n

x

n

[ ≤ 1.

159

Then for all x ∈ [−1, 1] we also have

[a

n

+a

n−1

x + +a

0

x

n

[ ≤ 2

n−1

.

Walther Janous, Crux Matematicorum

Solution. Actually, we are going to prove a stronger result, that is:

Lemma. Denote

|f| = max

x∈[−1,1]

[f(x)[.

Then for any polynomial f ∈ R[X] of degree n the following inequal-

ity is satisﬁed:

[f(x)[ ≤ [T

n

(x)[ |f| for all [x[ ≥ 1.

Proof. Using Lagrange’s interpolation formula and modulus in-

equality, we deduce that for all u ∈ [−1, 1] we have:

f

1

u

≤

1

[u[

n

|f|

n

¸

k=0

¸

j,=k

1 −t

j

u

[t

k

−t

j

[

.

The very nice idea is to use now again Lagrange interpolation for-

mula, this time for the polynomial T

n

. We shall then have

T

n

1

u

=

1

[u[

n

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

k

¸

j,=k

1 −ut

j

t

k

−t

j

=

1

[u[

n

n

¸

k=0

¸

j,=k

1 −ut

j

[t

k

−t

j

[

(the last identity being ensured by lemma 2). By combining the two

results, we obtain

f

1

u

≤

T

n

1

u

|f| for all u ∈ [−1, 1]

and the conclusion follows.

Coming back to the problem and considering the polynomial f(x) =

n

¸

k=0

a

k

x

k

, the hypothesis says that |f| ≤ 1 and so by the lemma we have

[f(x)[ ≤ [T

n

(x)[ for all [x[ ≥ 1.

160

We will then have for all x ∈ [−1, 1]:

[a

n

+a

n−1

x + +a

0

x

n

[ =

x

n

f

1

x

≤

x

n

T

n

1

x

.

It suﬃces to prove that

x

n

T

n

1

x

≤ 2

n−1

,

which can be also written as

(1 +

1 −x

2

)

n

+ (1 −

1 −x

2

)

n

≤ 2

n

.

But this inequality is very easy to prove: just set a =

√

1 −x

2

∈ [0, 1]

and observe that h(a) = (1−a)

n

+(1+a)

n

is a convex function on [0, 1],

thus its superior bound is attained in 0 or 1 and there the inequality is

trivially veriﬁed. Therefore we have

[a

n

+a

n−1

x + +a

0

x

n

[ ≤ 2

n−1

and the problem is solved.

We end this topic with a very diﬃcult problem, that reﬁnes a prob-

lem given in a Japanese mathematical Olympiad in 1994. The problem

has a nice story: given initially in an old Russian Olympiad, it asked to

prove that

max

x∈[0,2]

n

¸

i=1

[x −a

i

[ ≤ 108

n

max

x∈[0,1]

n

¸

i=1

[x −a

i

[

for any real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

. The Japanese problems asked only

to prove the existence of a constant that could replace 108. A brutal

choice of points in Lagrange interpolation theorem gives a better bound

of approximately 12 for this constant. Recent work by Alexandru Lupas

reduces this bound to 1 +2

√

6. In the following, we present the optimal

bound.

161

Example 12. For any real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

, the following in-

equality holds:

max

x∈[0,2]

n

¸

i=1

[x −a

i

[ ≤

(3 + 2

√

2)

n

+ (3 −2

√

2)

n

2

max

x∈[0,1]

n

¸

i=1

[x −a

i

[.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Let us denote

|f|

[a,b]

= max

x∈[a,b]

[f(x)[

for a polynomial f and let, for simplicity,

c

n

=

(3 + 2

√

2)

n

+ (3 −2

√

2)

n

2

.

We thus need to prove that |f|

[0,2]

≤ c

n

|f|

[0,1]

where

f(x) =

n

¸

i=1

(x −a

i

).

We shall prove that this inequality is true for any polynomial f,

which allows us to suppose that |f|

[0,1]

= 1. We shall prove that for

all x ∈ [1, 2] we have [f(x)[ ≤ x

n

. Let us ﬁx x ∈ [1, 2] and consider the

numbers x

k

=

1 +t

k

2

. Using Lagrange interpolation formula, we deduce

that

[f(x)[ ≤

n

¸

k=0

¸

j,=k

x −x

k

x

k

−x

j

=

n

¸

k=0

¸

j,=k

x −x

j

[x

k

−x

j

[

≤

n

¸

k=0

¸

j,=k

2 −x

j

[x

k

−x

j

[

=

n

¸

k=0

¸

j,=k

3 −t

j

[t

k

−t

j

[

.

Using lemma 2, we can write

n

¸

k=0

¸

j,=k

3 −t

j

[t

k

−t

j

[

=

2

n−1

n

n−1

¸

k=1

¸

j,=k

(3 −t

j

)

+

2

n−2

n

n−1

¸

j=0

(3 −t

j

) +

n

¸

j=1

(3 −t

j

)

¸

¸

.

162

Using again the two lemmas, we obtain:

n

2

n

[(3 + 2

√

2)

n

+ (3 −2

√

2)

n

] +

3

2

n+1

√

2

[(3 + 2

√

2)

n

−(3 −2

√

2)

n

]

=

n−1

¸

k=1

¸

j,=k

(3 −t

j

) +

n−1

¸

j=0

(3 −t

j

) +

n

¸

j=1

(3 −t

j

).

All we have to do now is to compute

n−1

¸

j=0

(3 −t

j

) +

n

¸

j=1

(3 −t

j

) = 6

n−1

¸

j=1

(3 −t

j

).

But using lemma 1, we deduce immediately that

n−1

¸

j=1

(3 −t

j

) =

1

2

n+1

√

2

[(3 + 2

√

2)

n

−(3 −2

√

2)

n

].

Putting all these observations together and making a small compu-

tation, that we let to the reader, we easily deduce that [f(x)[ ≤ c

n

. This

proves that |f|

[0,2]

≤ c

n

|f|

[0,1]

and solves the problem.

Problems for training

1. A polynomial of degree 3n takes the value 0 at 2, 5, 8, . . . , 3n −1,

the value 1 at 1, 4, 7, . . . , 3n − 2 and the value 2 at 0, 3, 6, . . . , 3n. It’s

value at 3n + 1 is 730. Find n.

USAMO 1984

2. A polynomial of degree n veriﬁes p(k) = 2

k

for all k = 1, n + 1.

Find its value at n + 2.

Vietnam 1988

3. Prove that for any real number a we have the following identity

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

k

n

k

(a −k)

n

= n!.

Tepper’s identity

163

4. Find

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

k

n

k

k

n+2

and

n

¸

k=0

(−1)

k

n

k

k

n+3

.

AMM

5. Prove that

n

¸

k=0

x

n+1

k

¸

j,=k

(x

k

−x

j

)

=

n

¸

k=0

x

k

and compute

n

¸

k=0

x

n+2

k

¸

j,=k

(x

k

−x

j

)

.

6. Prove the identity

n

¸

k=1

(−1)

k−1

n

k

k

(n −k)

n

= n

n

n

¸

k=2

1

k

.

Peter Ungar, AMM E 3052

7. Let a, b, c be real numbers and let f(x) = ax

2

+bx +c such that

max¦[f(±1)[, [f(0)[¦ ≤ 1. Prove that if [x[ ≤ 1 then

[f(x)[ ≤

5

4

and

x

2

f

1

x

≤ 2.

Spain, 1996

8. Let f ∈ R[X] a polynomial of degree n that veriﬁes [f(x)[ ≤ 1 for

all x ∈ [0, 1], then

f

−

1

n

≤ 2

n+1

−1.

9. Let a, b, c, d ∈ R such that [ax

3

+bx

2

+cx+d[ ≤ 1 for all x ∈ [−1, 1].

What is the maximal value of [c[? Which are the polynomials in which

the maximum is attained?

Gabriel Dospinescu

164

10. Let a ≥ 3 be a real number and p be a real polynomial of degree

n. Prove that

max

i=0,n+1

[a

i

−p(i)[ ≥ 1.

India, 2001

11. Find the maximal value of the expression a

2

+b

2

+c

2

if [ax

2

+

bx +c[ ≤ 1 for all x ∈ [−1, 1].

Laurentiu Panaitopol

12. Let a, b, c, d ∈ R such that [ax

3

+ bx

2

+ cx + d[ ≤ 1 for all

x ∈ [−1, 1]. Prove that

[a[ +[b[ +[c[ +[d[ ≤ 7.

IMO Shortlist, 1996

13. Let A =

p ∈ R[X][ deg p ≤ 3, [p(±1)[ ≤ 1,

p

±

1

2

≤ 1

.

Find sup

p∈A

max

[x[≤1

[p

tt

(x)[.

IMC, 1998

14. a) Prove that for any polynomial f having degree at most n, the

following identity is satisﬁed:

xf

t

(x) =

n

2

f(x) +

1

n

n

¸

k=1

f(xz

k

)

2z

k

(1 −z

k

)

2

,

where z

k

are the roots of the polynomial [X

n

+ 1.

b) Deduce Bernstein’s inequality: |f

t

| ≤ n|f| where

|f| = max

[x[≤1

[f(x)[.

P.J. O’Hara, AMM

15. Deﬁne F(a, b, c) = max

x∈[0,3]

[x

3

− ax

2

− bx − c[. What is the least

possible value of this function over R

3

?

China TST 2001

165

HIGHER ALGEBRA IN COMBINATORICS

Till now, we have seen numerous applications of analysis and higher

algebra in number theory and algebra. It is time to see the contribution

of this ”non-elementary mathematics” to combinatorics. It is quite hard

to imagine that behind a simple game, such as football for example

or behind a quotidian situation such as handshakes there exists such

complicated machinery, but this happens sometimes and we will prove it

in the next. For the beginning of the discussion, the reader doesn’t need

any special knowledge, just imagination and the most basic properties

of the matrices, but, as soon as we advance, things change. Anyway,

the most important fact is not the knowledge, but the ideas and, as we

will see, it is not easy to discover that ”non-elementary” fact that hides

after a completely elementary problem. Since we have clariﬁed what is

the purpose of the unit, we can begin the battle.

The ﬁrst problem we are going to discuss is not classical, but it is easy

and a very nice application of how linear-algebra can solve elementary

problems. Here it is.

Example 1. Let n ≥ 3 and let A

n

, B

n

be the sets of all even,

respectively, odd permutations of the set ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦. Prove the equality

¸

σ∈A

n

n

¸

i=1

[i −σ(i)[ =

¸

σ∈B

n

n

¸

i=1

[i −σ(i)[.

Nicolae Popescu, Gazeta Matematica

Solution. Writing the diﬀerence

¸

σ∈A

n

n

¸

i=1

[i −σ(i)[ −

¸

σ∈B

n

n

¸

i=1

[i −σ(i)[

as

¸

σ∈S

n

ε(σ)

n

¸

i=1

[i −σ(i)[ = 0,

166

where

ε(σ) =

1, if σ ∈ A

n

−1, if σ ∈ B

n

reminds us about the formula

det A =

¸

σ∈S

n

ε(σ)a

1σ(1)

a

2σ(2)

. . . a

nσ(n)

.

We have taken here S

n

= A

n

∪ B

n

. But we don’t have any product

in our sum! That is why we will take an arbitrary positive number a and

we will consider the matrix A = (a

[i−j[

)

1≤i,j≤n

. This time,

det A =

¸

σ∈S

n

(−1)

ε(α)

a

[1−σ(1)[

. . . a

[−nσ(n)[

=

¸

σ∈A

n

a

n

i=1

[i−σ(i)[

−

¸

σ∈B

n

a

n

i=1

[i−σ(i)[

This is how we have obtained the identity

1 x x

2

. . . x

n−2

x

n−1

x 1 x . . . x

n−3

x

n−2

x

2

x 1 . . . x

n−4

x

n−3

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

x

n−1

x

n−2

. . . . . . x 1

=

¸

σ∈S

n

σ par˘a

x

n

i=1

[i−σ(i)[

−

¸

σ∈S

n

σ impar˘a

x

n

i=1

[i−σ(i)[

. (1)

Anyway, we still do not have the desired diﬀerence. What can we do

to obtain it? The most natural way is to derive the last relation, which is

nothing else than a polynomial identity, and then to take x = 1. Before

167

doing that, let us observe that the polynomial

1 x x

2

. . . x

n−2

x

n−1

x 1 x . . . x

n−3

x

n−2

x

2

x 1 . . . x

n−4

x

n−3

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

x

n−1

x

n−2

. . . . . . x 1

is divisible by (x − 1)

2

. This can be easily seen by subtracting the ﬁrst

line from the second and the third one and taking from each of these

line x − 1 as common factor. Thus, the derivative of this polynomial is

a polynomial divisible by x − 1, which shows that after we derive the

relation (1) and take x = 1, in the left-hand side we will obtain 0. Since

in the right-hand side we obtain exactly

¸

σ∈A

n

n

¸

i=1

[i −σ(i)[ −

¸

σ∈B

n

n

¸

i=1

[i −σ(i)[

the identity is established.

Here is another nice application of this trick. We have seen how many

permutation do not have a ﬁxed point. The question that arises is how

many of them are even. Here is a direct answer to the question, using

determinants.

Example 2. Find the number of even permutations of the set

¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ that do not have ﬁxed points.

Solution. Let us consider C

n

, D

n

, respectively, the sets of even and

odd permutations of the set ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦, that do not have any ﬁxed

points. We know how to ﬁnd the sum [C

n

[ + [D

n

[. We have seen it in

the unit ”Principiul includerii si excluderii” that it is equal to

n!

1 −

1

1!

+

1

2!

− +

(−1)

n

n!

.

168

Hence if we manage to compute the diﬀerence [C

n

[ − [D

n

[, will be

able to answer to the question. If we write

[C

n

[ −[D

n

[ =

¸

σ∈A

n

σ(i),=i

1 −

¸

σ∈B

n

σ(i),=i

1,

we observe that this reduces to computing the determinant of the matrix

T = (t

ij

)

1≤i,j≤n

, where

t

ij

=

1, if i = j

0, if i = j

That is,

[C

n

[ −[D

n

[ =

0 1 1 . . . 1

1 0 1 . . . 1

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

1 1 1 . . . 0

.

But it is not diﬃcult to compute this determinant. Indeed, we add

all columns to the ﬁrst one and we give n − 1 as common factor, then

we subtract the ﬁrst column from each of the other columns. The result

is [C

n

[ −[D

n

[ = (−1)

n−1

(n −1) and the conclusion is quite surprising:

[C

n

[ =

1

2

n!

1 −

1

2!

+

1

3!

− +

(−1)

n−2

(n −2)!

+ (−1)

n−1

(n −1).

We will focus in the next problems on a very important combina-

torial tool, that is the incidence matrix (cum se spune la matricea de

incidenta?). What is this? Suppose we have a set X = ¦x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

¦

and X

1

, X

2

, . . . , X

k

a family of subsets of X. Now, deﬁne the matrix

A = (a

ij

)

i=1,n

j=1,k

, where

a

ij

=

1, if x

i

∈ X

j

0, if x

i

∈ X

j

169

This is the incidence matrix of the family X

1

, X

2

, . . . , X

k

and the

set X. In many situations, computing the product

t

A A helps us to

modelate algebraically the conditions and the conclusions of a certain

problem. From this point, the machinery activates and the problem is

on its way of solving.

Let us discuss ﬁrst a classical problem, though a diﬃcult one. It ap-

peared in USAMO 1979, Tournament of the Towns 1985 and in Bulgar-

ian Spring Mathematical Competition 1995. This says something about

the classical character and beauty of this problem.

Example 3. Let A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

n+1

be distinct subsets of the set

¦1, 2, . . . , n¦, each of which having exactly three elements. Prove that

there are two distinct subsets among them that have exactly one point

in common.

Solution. Of course, we argue by contradiction and suppose that

[A

i

∩ A

j

[ ∈ ¦0, 2¦ for all i = j. Now, let T be the incidency matrix of

the family A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

n+1

and compute the product

t

T T =

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

n

¸

k=1

t

2

k1

n

¸

k=1

t

k1

t

k2

. . .

n

¸

k=1

t

k

t

kn+1

. . . . . . . . . . . .

n

¸

k=1

t

kn+1

t

k1

n

¸

k=1

t

kn+11

t

k2

. . .

n

¸

k=1

t

2

kn+1

¸

.

But we have of course

n

¸

k=1

x

2

ki

= [A

i

[ = 3

and

n

¸

k=1

x

ki

x

kj

= [A

i

∩ A

j

[ ∈ ¦0, 2¦.

170

Thus, considered in the ﬁeld (R

2

, +, ), we have

t

T T =

¸

¸

¸

´

1

´

0 . . .

´

0

´

0

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

´

0

´

0 . . .

´

0

´

1

¸

,

where X is the matrix having as elements the residues classes of the

elements of the matrix X. Since of course det X = det X, the previous

relation shows that det

t

T T is odd, hence non-zero. This means that

t

TyT is an invertible matrix of size n+1, thus rank

t

T T = n+1 which

contradicts the inequality rank

t

T T ≤ rankT ≤ n. This shows that our

assumption was wrong and there exist indeed indices i = j such that

[A

i

∩ A

j

[ = 1.

The following problem is very diﬃcult to solve by elementary means,

but the solution using linear-algebra is straightforward.

Example 4. Let n be an even number and A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

n

be distinct

subsets of the set ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦, each of them having an even number of

elements. Prove that among these subsets there are two having an even

number of elements in common.

Solution. Indeed, if T is the incidency matrix of the family

A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

n

, we obtain as in the previous problem the following rela-

tion

t

T T =

¸

¸

¸

[A

1

[ [A

1

∩ A

2

[ . . . [A

1

∩ A

n

[

. . . . . . . . . . . .

[A

n

∩ A

1

[ [A

n

∩ A

2

[ . . . [A

n

[

¸

.

Now, let us suppose that all the numbers [A

i

∩ A

j

[ are odd and

interpret the above relation in the ﬁeld (R

2

, +, ). We ﬁnd that

t

T T =

¸

¸

¸

´

0

´

1 . . .

´

1

´

1

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

´

1

´

1 . . .

´

1

´

0

¸

,

171

which means again that det

t

T . . . T is odd. Indeed, if we work in

(R

2

, +, ), we obtain

´

0

´

1 . . .

´

1

´

1

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

´

1

´

1 . . .

´

1

´

0

=

´

1.

The technique used is exactly the same as in the second example,

only this time we work in a diﬀerent ﬁeld. Note that this is the moment

when we use the hypothesis that n is even. Now, since det

t

TT = det

2

T,

we obtain that det T is also an odd number. Hence we should try to prove

that in fact det T is an even number and the problem will be solved. Just

observe that the sum of elements of the column i of T is [A

i

[, hence an

even number. Thus, if we add all lines to the ﬁrst line, we will obtain

only even numbers on the ﬁrst line. Since the value of the determinant

doesn’t change under this operation, the conclusion is plain: det T is

an even number. Since a number cannot be both even and odd, our

assumption was wrong and the problem is solved.

Working in a simple ﬁeld such as (R

2

, +, ) can allow us to ﬁnd quite

interesting solutions. For example, we will discuss the following problem,

used for the IMO preparation of the Romanian IMO team in 2004.

Example 5. The squares of a nn table are colored with white and

black. Suppose that there exists a non-empty set of lines A such that

any column of the table has an even number of white squares that also

belong to A. Prove that there exists a non-empty set of columns B such

that any line of the table contains an even number of white squares that

also belong to B.

Gabriel Dospinescu

172

Solution. This is just the combinatorial translation of the well-

known fact that a matrix T is invertible in a ﬁeld if and only if its

transpose is also invertible in that ﬁeld. But this is not that easy to see.

Let us proceed easily. In each white square we write the number 1

and in each black square we put a 0. We thus obtain a binary matrix

T = (t

ij

)

1≤i,j≤n

. From now on, we work only in (R

2

, +, ). Suppose that

A contains the columns a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

k

. It follows that

k

¸

i=1

t

a,j

= 0 for all

j = 1, n. Now, let us take

x

i

=

1, if i ∈ A

0, if i ∈ A

It follows that the system

t

11

z

1

+t

21

z

2

+ +t

n1

z

n

= 0

t

12

z

1

+t

22

z

2

+ +t

n2

z

n

= 0

. . .

t

1n

z

1

+t

2n

z

2

+ +t

nm

z

n

= 0

admits the non-trivial solution (x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

). Thus, det T = 0 and

consequently det

t

T = 0. But this means that the system

u

11

y

1

+u

12

y

2

+ +u

1n

y

n

= 0

u

21

y

1

+u

22

y

2

+ +u

2n

y

n

= 0

. . .

u

n1

y

1

+u

n2

y

2

+ +u

nn

y

n

= 0

also has a non-trivial solution in R

2

. Now, we take B = ¦i[ y

i

= 0¦ and

we will clearly have B = ∅ and

¸

x∈B

u

ix

= 0, i = 1, n. But this mean that

any line of the table contains an even number of white squares that also

belong to B and the problem is solved.

In the end of this sub-unit, we will discuss a very diﬃcult problem,

in which just knowing the trick of computing

t

A A does not suﬃce. It

173

is true that it is one of the main steps, but there are much more things

to do after we compute

t

A A. And if for these ﬁrst problems we have

used only intuitive or well-known properties of the matrices and ﬁelds,

this time we need a more sophisticated machinery: the properties of the

characteristic polynomial and eingenvalues of a matrix. It is exactly that

kind of problem that kills you just when we feel most strong.

Example 6. Let S = ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ and A be a family of pairs of

elements from S with the following property: for any i, j ∈ S there exist

exactly m indices k ∈ S for which (i, k), (k, j) ∈ A. Find all possible

values of m, n for which this is possible.

Gabriel Carrol

Solution. This time, it is easy to see what hides after the problem.

Indeed, if we take T = (t

ij

)

1≤i,j≤n

, where

a

ij

=

1, if (i, j) ∈ A

0, otherwise

the existence of the family A reduces to

T

2

=

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

m m . . . m

m m . . . m

. . . . . . . . . . . .

m m . . . m

¸

.

So, we must ﬁnd all values of m, n for which there exist a binary

matrix T such that

T

2

=

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

m m . . . m

m m . . . m

. . . . . . . . . . . .

m m . . . m

¸

.

174

Let us consider

TB =

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

m m . . . m

m m . . . m

. . . . . . . . . . . .

m m . . . m

¸

.

and ﬁnd the eigenvalues of B. This is not diﬃcult, since if x is an ein-

genvalue, then

m−x m . . . m

m m . . . m

. . . . . . . . . . . .

m m . . . m−x

.

If we add all columns to the ﬁrst one and then take the common

factor mn −x, we obtain the equivalent form

(mn −x)

1 m . . . m

1 m−x . . . m

. . . . . . . . . . . .

1 m . . . m−x

= 0.

In this ﬁnal determinant, we subtract from each column the ﬁrst

column multiplied by m and we obtain in the end the equation

x

n−1

(mn −x) = 0, which shows that the eigenvalues of B are precisely

0, 0, . . . , 0

. .. .

n−1

, mn. But these are exactly the squares of the eigenvalues of

T. Thus, T has the eingevalues 0, 0, . . . , 0

. .. .

n−1

,

√

mn, because the sum of the

eingenvalues is nonnegative (being equal to the sum of the elements of

the matrix situated on the main diagonal). Since TrT ∈ R, we ﬁnd that

mn must be a perfect square. Also, because TrT ≤ n, we must have

m ≤ n.

175

Now, let us prove the converse. So, suppose that m ≤ n and mn is

a perfect square and write m = du

2

, n = dv

2

. Let us take the matrices

I = (11 . . . 11

. .. .

dv

), O = (00 . . . 00

. .. .

dv

).

Now, let us deﬁne the circulant matrix

S =

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

111 . . . 1

. .. .

u

00 . . . 0

. .. .

v−u

0 11 . . . 1

. .. .

u

00 . . . 0

. .. .

v−u−1

. . .

111 . . . 1

. .. .

u−1

00 . . . 0

. .. .

v−u

1

¸

∈ M

v,n

(¦0, 1¦).

Finally, we take

A =

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

S

S

. . .

S

¸

∈ M

n

(¦0, 1¦).

It is not diﬃcult to see that

A

2

=

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

¸

m m . . . m

m m . . . m

. . . . . . . . . . . .

m m . . . m

¸

.

The last idea that we present here (but certainly these are not all

the methods of higher mathematics applied to combinatorics) is the use

of vector spaces. Again, we will not insist on complicated notions from

the theory of vector spaces, just the basic notions and theorems. Maybe

the most useful fact is that if V is a vector space of dimension n (that is,

V has a basis of cardinal n), then any n+1 or more vectors are linearly

dependent. As a direct application, we will discuss the following problem,

176

which is very diﬃcult to solve by means of elementary mathematics. Try

ﬁrst to solve it elementary and you will see how hard it is. The following

example is classical, too, but few people know the trick behind it.

Example 7. Let n be a positive integer and let A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

n+1

be nonempty subsets of the set ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦. Prove that there ex-

ist nonempty and disjoint index sets I

1

= ¦i

1

, i

2

, . . . , i

k

¦ and I

2

=

¦j

1

, j

2

, . . . , j

m

¦ such that

A

i

1

∪ A

i

2

∪ ∪ A

i

k

= A

j

1

∪ A

j

2

∪ ∪ A

j

m

.

Solution. Let us associate to each subset A

i

a vector v

i

∈ R

n

, where

v

i

= (x

1

i

, x

2

i

, . . . , x

n

i

) and

x

j

i

=

0, if j ∈ A

i

1, if j ∈ A

i

Since dimR

n

= n, these vectors we have just constructed must be

linearly dependent. So, we can ﬁnd a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n+1

∈ R, not all of them

0, such that

a

1

v

1

a

2

v

2

+ +a

n+1

v

n+1

= 0.

Now, we take I

1

= ¦i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n + 1¦[ a

i

> 0¦ and I

2

= ¦i ∈

¦1, 2, . . . , n+1¦[ a

i

< 0¦. It is plain that I

1

, I

2

are nonempty and disjoint.

Now, let us prove that

¸

i∈I

1

A

i

=

¸

i∈I

2

A

i

and the solution will be complete.

Let us take x ∈

¸

i∈I

1

A

i

and suppose that x ∈

¸

i∈I

2

A

i

. Then the vectors v

i

with i ∈ I

2

have zero on their xth component, so the xth component of

the vector a

1

v

1

+a

2

v

2

+ +a

n+1

v

n+1

is

¸

x∈A

j

j∈I

1

a

j

> 0, which is impossible,

since a

1

v

1

+a

2

v

2

+ +a

n+1

v

n+1

= 0. This shows that

¸

i∈I

1

A

i

⊂

¸

i∈I

2

A

i

.

But the reversed inclusion can be proved in exactly the same way, so we

conclude that

¸

i∈I

1

A

i

=

¸

i∈I

2

A

i

.

177

In the end of this ”non-elementary” discussion, we solve another

problem, proposed for the TST 2004 in Romania, whose idea is also

related to vector spaces.

Example 8. 30 boys and 20 girls are preparing for the 2004 Team

Selection Test. They observed that any two boys have an even number

of common acquaintances among the girls and exactly 9 boys know an

odd number of girls. Prove that there exists a group of 16 boys such that

any girls attending the preparation is known by an even number of boys

from this group.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Let us consider the matrix A = (a

ij

) where

a

ij

=

1, if B

i

knows F

j

0, otherwise

We have considered here that B

1

, B

2

, . . . , B

30

are the boys and

F

1

, F

2

, . . . , F

20

are the girls. Now, consider the matrix T = A

t

A. We

observe that all the elements of the matrix T, except those from the

main diagonal are even (because t

ij

=

20

¸

k=1

a

ik

a

jk

is the number of com-

mon acquaintances among the girls of the boys B

i

, B

j

). The elements on

the main diagonal of T are exactly the number of girls known by each

boy. Thus, if we consider the matrix T in (R

2

, +, ), it will be diagonal,

with exactly nine non-zero elements on its main diagonal. From now on,

we will work only in (R

2

, +, ). We have seen till now that rankT = 9.

Using Sylvester inequality, it follows that

9 = rankT ≥ rankA+rank

t

A−20 = 2rank

t

A−20

178

hence r = rank

t

A ≤ 14. Let us consider now the linear system in

(R

2

, +, ):

a

11

x

1

+a

21

x

2

+ +a

301

x

30

= 0

a

12

x

1

+a

22

x

2

+ +a

302

x

30

= 0

. . .

a

120

x

1

+a

220

x

2

+ +a

3020

x

30

= 0

The set of solutions of this system is a vector space of dimension

30 − r ≥ 16. That is why we can choose a solution (x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

30

) of

the system, having at least 16 components equal to

´

1. Finally, consider

the set M = ¦i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , 30¦[ x

i

=

´

1¦. We have proved that [M[ ≥ 16

and also

¸

j∈M

a

ji

= 0 for all i = 1, 20. But we observe that

¸

j∈M

a

ji

is just

the number of boys B

k

with k ∈ M such that B

k

knows F

i

. Thus, if we

choose the group of those boys B

k

with k ∈ M, then each girl is known

by an even number of boys from this group and the problem is solved.

Problems for training

1. Let p > 2 be an odd prime and let n ≥ 2. For any permutation

σ ∈ S

n

, we consider

S(σ) =

n

¸

k=1

kσ(k).

Let A

j

, B

j

, respectively, be the set of even, respectively odd permu-

tations σ for which S(σ) ≡ j (mod p). Prove that n > p if and only if

A

j

and B

j

have the same number of elements for all j ∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , p−1¦.

Gabriel Dospinescu

2. Let n ≥ 2. Find the greatest number p such that for all k ∈

¦1, 2, . . . , p¦ we have

¸

σ∈A

n

n

¸

i=1

if(i)

k

=

¸

σ∈B

n

n

¸

i=1

if(i)

k

,

179

where A

n

, B

n

are, respectively, the sets of all even, respectively, odd

permutations of the set ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦.

Gabriel Dospinescu

3. Is there in the plane a conﬁguration of 22 circles and 22 points

on their union (the union of their circumferences) such that any circle

contains at least 7 points and any point belongs to at least 7 circles?

Gabriel Dospinescu, Moldova TST 2004

4. Let A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

m

be distinct subsets of a set A with n ≥ 2 ele-

ments. Suppose that any two of these subsets have exactly one elements

in common. Prove that m ≤ n.

5. The edges of a regular 2

n

-gon are colored red and blue. A step

consists of recoloring each edge which is the same color as both of its

neighbours in red, and recoloring each other edge in blue. Prove that

after 2

n−1

steps all of the edges will be red and show that this need not

hold after fewer steps.

Iran Olympiad, 1998

6. Problema de la Vietnamezi cu cunostintele

7. n ≥ 2 teams compete in a tournament and each team plays against

any other team exactly once. In each game, 2 points are given to the

winner, 1 point for a draw and 0 points for the looser. It is known that

for any subset S of teams, one can ﬁnd a team (possibly in S) whose

total score in the games with teams in S is odd. Prove that n is even.

D. Karpov, Russian Olympiad,1972

8. On an m n sheet of paper is drawn a grid dividing the sheet

into unit squares. The two sides of length n are taped together to form a

cylinder. Prove that it is possible to write a real number in each square,

not all zero, so that each number is the sum of the numbers in the

neighboring squares, if and only if there exist integers k, l such that

180

n + 1 does not divide k and

cos

2lπ

m

+ cos

kπ

n + 1

=

1

2

.

Ciprian Manolescu, Romanian TST 1998

9. In a contest consisting of n problems, the jury deﬁnes the diﬃculty

of each problem by assigning it a positive integral number of points (the

same number of points may be assigned to diﬀerent problems). Any

participant who answers the problem correctly receives that number

of points for the problem; any other participant receives 0 points. After

the participants submitted their answers, the jury realizes that given any

ordering of the participants (where ties are not permitted), it could have

deﬁned the problems’ diﬃculty levels to make that ordering coincide

with the participants’ ranking according to their total scores. Determine,

in terms of n, the maximum number of participants for which such a

scenario could occur.

Russian Olympiad, 2001

10. Let S = ¦x

0

, x

1

, . . . , x

n

¦ ⊂ [0, 1] be a ﬁnite set of real numbers

with x

0

= 0, x

1

= 1, such that every distance between pairs of elements

occurs at least twice, except for the distance 1. Prove that S consists of

rational numbers only.

Iran Olympiad

11. Let x

1

, . . . , x

n

be real numbers and suppose that the vector space

spanned by x

i

−x

j

over the rationals has dimension m. Then the vector

space spanned only by those x

i

−x

j

for which x

i

−x

j

= x

k

−x

l

whenever

(i, j) = (k, l) also has dimension m.

Strauss theorem

181

12. Let A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

m

some subsets of ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦. Then there are

disjoint sets I, J with non-empty union such that

¸

i∈I

A

i

=

¸

j∈J

A

j

and

¸

i∈I

A

i

=

¸

j∈J

A

j

.

Lindstrom theorem

13. There is no partition of the set of edges of the complete graph

on n vertices into (strictly) fewer than n −1 complete bipartite graphs.

Graham-Pollak theorem

14. Let 2n+1 real numbers with the property that no matter how we

eliminate one of them, the rest of them can be divided into two groups

of n numbers, the sum of the numbers in the two groups being the same.

Then all numbers are equal.

15. In a society, acquaintance is mutual and even more, any two

persons have exactly one friend. Then there is a person that knows all

the others.

Universal friend theorem

16. Let A

1

, . . . , A

m

and B

1

, . . . , B

p

subsets of ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ such that

A

i

∩ B

j

is an odd number for all i, j. Then mp ≤ 2

n−1

.

Benyi Sudakov

17. Let A

1

, . . . , A

n

, B

1

, . . . , B

n

⊂ A = ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ with the proper-

ties:

a) for any nonempty subset T of A, there is i ∈ A such that [A

i

∩T[

is odd.

b) for any i, j ∈ A, A

i

and B

j

have exactly one common element.

Then prove that B

1

= B

2

= = B

n

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

182

18. A symmetric matrix of zeros and ones has only ones on the main

diagonal. Prove that we can ﬁnd some rows in this matrix such that their

sum is a vector having all of its components odd.

Iran Olympiad

183

GEOMETRY AND NUMBERS

Again an apparently paradoxical note!!! Indeed, it may look weird,

but geometry it really useful in number theory and sometimes it can

help proving diﬃcult results with some extremely simple arguments. In

the sequel we are going to show some applications of geometry in num-

ber theory, almost all of them playing around the celebrated Minkowski

theorem. We will see that this theorem gives a very simple criterion for

a nice region (we are also going to explain what we understand by nice)

to have a non-trivial lattice point and the existence of this point will

have important consequences in the theory of representation of numbers

by quadratic forms or in approximation of real numbers with rational

numbers. As usual, we will content to present only a mere introduc-

tion to this ﬁeld, extremely well developed. The reader will surely have

the pleasure to read some reference books about this fascinating ﬁeld,

mentioned in the bibliographies.

First of all, let us state the conditions in which we will work and

what is a nice ﬁgure. In general, we will work in R

n

and we will call

convex body a bounded subset A of R

n

which is convex (that is for all

a, b ∈ A and all 0 ≤ t ≤ 1 we have ta+(1−t)b ∈ A), which is symmetric

about the origin (that is, for all x ∈ A we also have −x ∈ A). We will

admit that convex bodies have volumes (just think about it in the plane

or space, which will be practically always used in our applications).

Let us start by proving the celebrated Minkowski’s theorem.

Theorem. (Minkowski) Suppose that A is a convex body in R

n

hav-

ing volume strictly greater than 2

n

. Then there is a lattice point in A

diﬀerent from the origin.

The proof is surprisingly simple. Indeed, let us start by making a sort

of partition of R

n

in cubes of edge 2, having as centers the points that

have all coordinates even numbers. It is clear that any two such cubes will

184

have disjoint interiors and that they cover all space. That is why we can

say that the volume of the convex body is equal to the sum of volumes of

the intersections of the body with each cube (since the body is convex,

it is clear that the sum will be ﬁnite). But of course, one can bring any

cube into the cube centered around the origin by using a translation by

a vector all of whose coordinates are even. Since translations preserve

volume, we will have now an agglomeration of bodies in the central cube

(the one centered in the origin) and the sum of volumes of all these

bodies is strictly greater that 2

n

. Necessarily there will be two bodies

which intersect in a point X. Now, look at the cubes where these two

bodies where taken from and look at the points in these cubes that give

by translations the point X. We have found two diﬀerent points x, y

in our convex body such that x − y ∈ 2Z

n

. But since A is centrally

symmetric and convex, it follows that

x −y

2

is a lattice point diﬀerent

from the origin and belonging to A. The theorem is thus proved.

Here is a surprising result that follows directly from this theorem.

Problem 1. Suppose that in each lattice point in space except for

the origin one draws a ball of radius r > 0 (common for all the balls).

Then any line that passes through the origin will intercept a certain ball.

Solution. Let us suppose the contrary and let us consider a very long

cylinder having as axe the line and basis a circle of radius

r

2

. We choose

it suﬃciently long to ensure that it will have a volume strictly greater

than 8. This is clearly a convex body in space and using Minkowski’s

theorem we deduce the existence of a non-trivial lattice point in this

cylinder (or on the border). This means that the line will intercept the

ball centered around this point.

Actually, the theorem proved before admits a more general formula-

tion, which is even more useful.

185

Theorem 2. (Minkowski) Let A is a convex body in R

n

and

v

1

, v

2

, . . . , v

n

some linearly independent vectors in R

n

. Also consider

the fundamental parallelepiped P =

n

¸

i=1

x

i

v

i

[ 0 ≤ x

i

≤ 1

¸

and de-

note V ol(P) its volume. Assuming that A has a volume strictly greater

than 2

n

V ol(P), A must contain at least a point of the lattice L =

Zv

1

+ +Zv

n

diﬀerent from the origin.

With all these terms, it would seem that this is extremely diﬃcult

to prove. Actually, it follows trivially from the ﬁrst theorem. Indeed,

by considering the linear application f sending v

i

into the vector e

i

=

(0, 0, . . . , 1, 0, . . . , 0) one can easily see that P is sent into the ”normal”

cube in R

n

(that is, the set of vectors all of whose components are

between 0 and 1) and that f maps L into Z

n

. Since the transformation

is linear, it will send A into a convex body of volume

V ol(A)

V ol(P)

> 2

n

. It

suﬃces to apply the ﬁrst theorem to this convex body and to look at

the preimage of the lattice point (in Z

n

), in order to ﬁnd a non-trivial

point of A∩ L. The second theorem is thus proved.

We have already proved that any prime number of the form 4k + 1

is the sum of two squares. Let us prove it diﬀerently, using Minkowski’s

theorem.

Problem 2. Any prime number of the form 4k +1 is the sum of two

squares.

Proof. We have already proved that for any prime number of the

form 4k + 1, call it p, one can ﬁnd a such that p[a

2

+ 1. Then let us

consider v

1

= (p, 0), v

2

= (a, 1). Visibly, they are linearly independent

and moreover for any point (x, y) in the lattice L = Zv

1

+Zv

2

we have

p[x

2

+ y

2

. Indeed, there are m, n ∈ Z such that x = mp + na, y = n

and thus x

2

+ y

2

≡ n

2

(a

2

+ 1) ≡ 0 (mod p). Moreover, the area of the

fundamental parallelogram is |v

1

∧ v

2

| = p. Next, consider as convex

186

body the disc centered in the origin and having as radius

√

2p. Obviously,

its area is strictly greater than four times the area of the fundamental

parallelogram. Thus, there is a point (x, y) diﬀerent from the origin that

lies in this disc and also in the lattice L = Zv

1

+Zv

2

. For this point we

have p[x

2

+y

2

and x

2

+y

2

< 2p, which shows that p = x

2

+y

2

.

Proving that a certain Diophantine equation has no solution is a very

classical problem, but what can we do when we are asked to prove that

a certain equation has solutions? Minkowski’s theorem and in general

geometry of numbers allow quick responses to such problems. Here is an

example, taken from a polish Olympiad.

Problem 3. Consider positive integers such that ac = b

2

+ b + 1.

Then the equation ax

2

−(2b + 1)xy +cy

2

= 1 has integer solutions.

Poland Olympiad

Solution. Here is a very quick approach: consider in R

2

the set

of points verifying ax

2

− (2b + 1)xy + cy

2

< 2. A simple computation

shows that it is an elliptical disc having as area

4π

√

3

> 4. An elliptical

disc is obviously a convex body and even more this elliptical disc is

symmetric about the origin. Thus, by Minkowski’s theorem we can ﬁnd

a point of this region diﬀerent from the origin. Since ac = b

2

+b +1, we

have for all x, y not both 0 the inequality ax

2

− (2b + 1)xy + cy

2

> 0.

Thus for (x, y) ∈ Z

2

` ¦(0, 0)¦ a lattice point of this region, we have

ax

2

−(2b+1)xy+cy

2

= 1 and the existence of a solution of the equation

is proved.

The following problem (as the above one) has a quite diﬃcult elemen-

tary solution. The solution using geometry of numbers is more natural,

but it is not at all obvious how to proceed. Yet... the experience of the

preceding problem should ring a bell.

187

Problem 4. Suppose that n is a natural number for which the

equation x

2

+xy +y

2

= n has rational solutions. Then this equation has

integer solutions as well.

Komal

Solution. Of course, the problem reduces to: if there are integer

numbers a, b, c such that a

2

+ ab + b

2

= c

2

n, then x

2

+ xy + y

2

= n

has integer solutions. We will assume that a, b, c are non-zero (otherwise

the conclusion follows trivially). Even more, a classical argument allows

to assume that a, b are relatively prime. We will try again to ﬁnd a

couple of integers (x, y) ∈ Z

2

` ¦(0, 0)¦ such that x

2

+ xy + y

2

< 2n

and n divides x

2

+ xy + y

2

. In this case we will have x

2

+ xy + y

2

= n

and the conclusion will follow. First, let us look at the region deﬁned

by x

2

+ xy + y

2

< 2n. Again, simple computations show that it is an

elliptical disc of area

4π

√

3

n. Next, consider the lattice formed by the

points (x, y) such that n divides ax − by. The area of the fundamental

parallelepiped is clearly at most n. By Minkowski’s theorem, we can ﬁnd

(x, y) ∈ Z

2

` ¦(0, 0)¦ such that x

2

+xy +y

2

< 2n and n divides ax −by.

We claim that this will give an integer solution of the equation. Observe

that ab(x

2

+xy +y

2

) = c

2

xyn+(ax−by)(bx−ay) and so n also divides

x

2

+ xy + y

2

(since n is relatively prime with a, b). This allows us to

conclude.

Before continuing with some more diﬃcult problems, let us remind

that for any symmetric real matrix A such that

¸

1≤i,j≤n

a

ij

x

i

x

j

> 0

for all x = (x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

) ∈ R

n

` ¦0¦ the set of points verifying

¸

1≤i,j≤n

a

ij

x

i

x

j

≤ 1

188

has a volume equal to

V ol(B

n

)

√

det A

, where

V ol(B

n

) =

π

n

2

Γ

1 +

n

2

(here Γ(x) =

∞

0

e

−t

t

x−1

dt is Euler’s gamma function). The proof of this

result is non elementary and we invite the reader to read more about it

in any decent book of multivariate integral calculus. In particular, the

reader has noticed that these results can be applied to previous problems

to facilitate the computations of diﬀerent areas and volumes. With these

results (that we will admit) in mind, let’s attack some serious problems.

If we spoke about squares, why not present the beautiful classical

proof of Lagrange’s theorem on representations using 4 squares.

Problem 5. (Lagrange’s theorem) Any natural number is a sum of

4 squares.

Proof. This is going to be much more complicated, but the idea is

always the same. The main diﬃculty is ﬁnding the appropriate lattice

and convex body. First of all, let us prove the result for prime numbers.

Let thus p > 2 a prime number and consider the sets A = ¦x

2

[ x ∈ Z

p

¦,

B = ¦−y

2

− 1[ y ∈ Z

p

¦. Since there are

p + 1

2

squares in Z

p

(as we

have already seen in previous notes), these two sets cannot be disjoint.

In particular, there are x, y such that 0 ≤ x, y ≤ p −1 and p[x

2

+y

2

+1.

This is the observation that will allow us to ﬁnd a good lattice. Consider

now the vectors

v

1

= (p, 0, 0, 0), v

2

= (0, p, 0, 0), v

3

= (x, y, 1, 0), v

4

= (y, −x, 0, 1)

and the lattice L generated by these vectors. A simple computation

(using the above formulas) allows to prove that the volume of the fun-

damental parallelepiped is p

2

. Moreover, one can easily verify that for

all point (x, y, z, t) ∈ L one has p[x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+t

2

. Even more, one can

189

also prove (by employing the non-elementary results stated before this

problem) that the volume of the convex body A = ¦x = (a, b, c, d) ∈

R

4

[ a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+d

2

< 2p¦ is equal to 2π

2

p

2

> 16V ol(P), thus A∩ L is

not empty. It suﬃces then to choose a point (x, y, z, t) ∈ L ∩ A and we

will clearly have x

2

+ y

2

+ z

2

+ t

2

= p. Thus the theorem is proved for

prime numbers.

Of course, everything would be nice if the product of two sums of 4

squares is always a sum of 4 squares. Hopefully, it is the case, but the

proof is not obvious at all. It follows form the miraculous identity:

(a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+d

2

)(x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+t

2

) = (ax +by +cz +dt)

2

= (ay −bx +ct −dz)

2

+ (az −bt +dy −cx)

2

+ (at +bz −cy −dx)

2

.

Of course, very nice, but how could one think at such an identity?

The eternal question... Well, this time there is a very nice reason: instead

of thinking in eight variables, let us reason only with four. Consider the

numbers z

1

= a +bi, z

2

= c +di, z

3

= x +yi, z

4

= z +ti. Introduce the

matrices

M =

z

1

z

2

−z

2

z

1

, N =

z

3

z

4

−z

4

z

3

.

We have

det(M) = [z

1

[

2

+[z

2

[

2

= a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+d

2

and similarly

det(N) = x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+t

2

.

It is then normal to try to express (a

2

+b

2

+c

2

+d

2

)(x

2

+y

2

+z

2

+t

2

)

as det(MN). But surprise! We have

MN =

z

1

z

3

−z

2

z

4

z

1

z

4

+z

2

z

3

−z

1

z

4

+z

2

z

3

z

1

z

3

−z

2

z

4

190

and so det(MN) is again a sum of 4 squares. The identity appears thus

naturally...

Let us concentrate a little bit more on approximations of real num-

bers. We have some beautiful results of Minkowski that deserve to be

presented after this small introduction to geometry of numbers.

Problem 6. (Minkowski’s linear forms’ theorem) Let A = (a

ij

) be

a nn invertible matrix of real numbers and suppose that c

1

, c

2

, . . . , c

n

are positive real numbers such that c

1

c

2

. . . c

n

> [ det A[. Then there

are integers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

, not all 0, such that

n

¸

j=1

a

ij

x

j

< c

i

for all

i = 1, . . . , n.

Solution. We need to prove that there exists a non-zero vector

X that also belongs to the region ¦Y ∈ R

n

[ [A

−1

Y [

i

< c

i

, i =

1, . . . , n¦ (here A

−1

Y = ([A

−1

Y [

1

, . . . , [A

−1

Y [

n

). But observe that

¦Y ∈ R

n

[ [A

−1

Y [

i

< c

i

, i = 1, . . . , n¦ is exactly the image trough

A

−1

of the parallelepiped ¦Y ∈ R

n

[ −c

i

< Y

i

< c

i

, i = 1, . . . , n¦ which

has volume 2

n

c

1

. . . c

n

, thus ¦Y ∈ R

n

[ [A

−1

Y [

i

< c

i

, i = 1, . . . , n¦ is

a convex body of volume

1

det A

2

n

c

1

. . . c

n

> 2

n

. By Minkowski’s theo-

rem, this body will contain a non-zero lattice point, which will verify

the conditions of the problem.

And here is a nice consequence of the previous theorem.

Problem 7. Suppose A = (a

ij

)

1≤i≤m

1≤j≤n

is a matrix with m, n real

numbers and a ≥ 1 is a real number. Then one can ﬁnd x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

integers between −a and a, not all 0, such that

n

¸

j=1

a

ij

x

j

< a

−

n

m

for all 1 ≤ i ≤ m.

Solution. All we need to do is to apply the result in problem 6 for

the invertible matrix

A I

m

I

n

0

**, whose determinant equals 1 or −1
**

191

and make the choice c

1

= = c

m

= a

−

n

m

, c

m+i

= a, 1 ≤ i ≤ n.

Incredibly, but the proof ends here!!!

Proposed problems

1. Suppose that a, b, c are positive integers such that ac = b

2

+ 1.

Then there exist x, y, z, t integers such that a = x

2

+ y

2

, b = z

2

+ t

2

,

c = xz +yt.

Imo Shortlist

2. Suppose that a natural number is the sum of three squares of

rational numbers. Then prove that it is also a sum of squares of three

natural numbers (the use of three squares theorem is forbidden!).

Davenport-Cassels lemma

3. Consider a disc of radius R. At each lattice point of this disc,

except for the origin, one plants a circular tree of radius r. Suppose that

r is optimal with respect to the following property: if one regards from

the origin, he can see at least a point situated at the exterior of the disc.

Then prove that

1

√

R

2

+ 1

≤ r <

1

R

.

AMM

4. Suppose that a, b, c are positive integers such that a > b > c.

Prove that we can ﬁnd three integers x, y, z, not all 0, such that

ax +by +cz = 0 and max¦[x[, [y[, [z[¦ <

2

√

3

a + 1.

Miklos Schweitzer competition

5. Suppose that a, b, c are positive integers such that ac = b

2

+ 1.

Prove that the equation ax

2

+ 2bxy +cy

2

= 1 is solvable in integers.

6. Suppose that a

ij

(1 ≤ i, j ≤ n) are rational numbers such that

for any x = (x

1

, . . . , x

n

) ∈ R

n

` ¦0¦ we have

¸

1≤i,j≤n

a

ij

x

i

x

j

> 0. Then

192

there are integers (not all zero) x

1

, . . . , x

n

such that

¸

1≤i,j≤n

a

ij

x

i

x

j

< n

n

√

det A,

where A = (a

ij

).

Minkowski

7. Suppose that x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

are algebraic integers such that for

any 1 ≤ i ≤ n there is at least a conjugate of x

i

which is not between

x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

. Then the set of n-tuples (f(x

1

), f(x

2

), . . . , f(x

n

)) with

f ∈ Z[X] is dense in R

n

.

8. Suppose that a, b are rational numbers such that the equation

ax

2

+ by

2

= 1 has at least one rational solution. Then it has inﬁnitely

many rational solutions.

Kurschak contest

9. Let us denote A(C, r) the set of points w on the unit sphere in

R

n

with the property that [wk[ ≥

C

|k|

r

for any non-zero vector k ∈ Z

n

(here wk is the usual scalar product and |k| is the Euclidean norm of

the vector k ∈ Z

n

). Prove that if r > n −1 there exists C > 0 such that

A(C, r) is non-empty, but if r < n −1 there is no such C > 0.

Mathlinks contest (after an ENS entrance exam problem)

10. Using the non-elementary results presented in the topic, prove

that if A = (a

ij

)

1≤i,j≤n

is a symmetric integer matrix such that

¸

1≤i,j≤n

a

ij

x

i

x

j

> 0 for all x = (x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

) ∈ R

n

` ¦0¦, then we

can ﬁnd an integer matrix B such that A = B

t

B. Deduce the result

from problem 1.

11. Let n ≥ 5 and a

1

, . . . , a

n

, b

1

, . . . , b

n

some integers verifying that

all pairs (a

i

, b

i

) are diﬀerent and [a

i

b

i+1

− a

i+1

b

i

[ = 1, 1 ≤ i ≤ n (here

(a

n+1

, b

n+1

) = (a

1

, b

1

)). Prove that one can ﬁnd 1 < [i −j[ < n−1 such

that [a

i

b

j

−a

j

b

i

[ = 1.

193

Korea TST

12. Let a, b, c, d be positive integers such that there are 2004 pairs

(x, y) such that x, y ∈ [0, 1] and ax + by, cx + dy ∈ Z. If (a, c) = 6, ﬁnd

(b, d).

Nikolai Nikolov, Bulgaria Olympiad

13. A polygon of area greater than n is given in a plane. Prove that

it contains n + 1 points A

i

(x

i

, y

i

) such that x

i

− x

j

, y

i

− y

j

∈ Z for all

1 ≤ i, j ≤ n + 1.

China TST 1988

194

THE SMALLER, THE BETTER

Often, a large amount of simple ideas can solve very diﬃcult prob-

lems. We have seen or will see a few such examples in our journey through

the world of numbers: clever congruences that readily solve Diophantine

equations, properties of the primes of the form 4k + 3 or even complex

numbers and analysis. All these can be called ”tricks”, but in fact they

are much more, as you are going to see soon.

In this unit, we will discuss a fundamental concept in number theory,

the order of an element. It may seem contradictory for us to talk about

simple ideas and then say ”a fundamental concept”. Well, what we are

going to discuss about is the bridge between simplicity and complexity.

The reason for which we say it is a simple idea can be easily guessed

from the deﬁnition: given are the positive integer n > 1 and the integer a

such that gcd(a, n) = 1, the smallest possible integer d for which n[a

d

−1

is called the order of a modulo n. The deﬁnition is correct, since from

Euler’s theorem we have n[a

ϕ(n)

−1 so such numbers d indeed exist. The

complexity of this concept will follow from the examples.

In what follows we will denote by o

n

(a) the order of a modulo n.

There is a simple property of o

n

(a), which has important consequences:

if k is a positive integer such that n[a

k

− 1, then d[k. Indeed, because

n[a

k

−1 and n[a

d

−1, we ﬁnd that n[a

gcd(k,d)

−1. But from the deﬁnition

of d it follows that d ≤ gcd(k, d), which cannot hold unless d[k. Nice and

easy. But could such a simple idea be good at anything? The answer

is positive and will follow from the solutions of the problems to come.

But, before that, we note a ﬁrst application of this simple observation:

o

n

(a)[ϕ(n). This is a consequence of the above property and of Euler’s

theorem.

Now, an old and nice problem, which may seem really trivial after

this introduction. But do not get excited so easily, the problem has an

195

extremely short solution, but this does not mean that it is obvious.

It appeared in Saint Petersburg Mathematical Olympiad and also in

Gazeta Matematica.

Example 1. Prove that n[ϕ(a

n

−1) for all positive integers a, n.

Solution. What is o

a

n

−1

(a)? It may seem a silly question, since

of course o

a

n

−1

(a) = n. Using the observation in the introduction, we

obtain exactly n[ϕ(a

n

−1).

Here is another beautiful application of the order of an element. It

is the ﬁrst case case of Dirichlet’s theorem that we intend to discuss and

is also a classical property.

Example 2. Prove that any prime factor of the nth Fermat number

2

2

n

+ 1 is congruent to 1 modulo 2

n+1

. Show that there are inﬁnitely

many prime numbers of the form 2

n

k + 1 for any ﬁxed n.

Solution. Let us consider a prime p such that p[2

2

n

+ 1. Then

p[2

2

n+1

− 1 and consequently o

p

(2)[2

n+1

. This ensures the existence of

a positive integer k ≤ n + 1 such that o

p

(2) + 2

k

. We will prove that in

fact k = n + 1. The proof is easy. Indeed, if this is not the case, then

o

p

(2)[2

n

and so p[2

o

p

(2)

−1[2

2

n

−1. But this is impossible, since p[2

2

n

+1.

Therefore, we have found that o

p

(2) = 2

n+1

and we have to prove that

o

p

(2)[p −1 to ﬁnish the ﬁrst part of the question. But this follows from

the introduction.

The second part is a direct consequence of the ﬁrst. Indeed, it is

enough to prove that there exists an inﬁnite set of Fermat’s numbers

(2

2

n

k

+ 1)

n

k

>a

any two relatively prime. Then we could take a prime

factor of each such Fermat’s number and apply the ﬁrst part to obtain

that each such prime is of the form 2

n

k + 1. But not only it is easy to

ﬁnd such a sequence of Fermat’s coprime numbers, but in fact any two

diﬀerent Fermat’s numbers are relatively prime. Indeed, suppose that

d[gcd(2

2

n

+1, 2

2

n+k

+1). Then d[2

2

n+1

−1 and so d[2

2

n+k

−1. Combining

196

this with d[2

2

n+k

+1, we obtain a contradiction. Hence both parts of the

problem are solved.

We continue with another special case of the well-known diﬃcult

theorem of Dirichlet on arithmetical sequences. Though classical, the

following problem is not straightforward and this explains probably its

presence on a Korean TST in 2003.

Example 3. For a prime p, let f

p

(x) = x

p−1

+x

p−2

+ +x + 1.

a) If p[m, prove that there exists a prime factor of f

p

(m) that is

relatively prime with m(m−1).

b) Prove that there are inﬁnitely many numbers n such that pn + 1

is prime.

Solution.

a) is straightforward. In fact, we will prove that any prime factor of

f

p

(m) is relatively prime with m(m− 1). Take such a prime divisor q.

Because q[1+m+ +m

p−1

, it is clear that gcd(q, m) = 1. Moreover, if

gcd(q, m−1) = 1, then q[m−1 and because q[1+m+ +m

p−1

, it follows

that q[p. But p[m and we ﬁnd that q[m, which is clearly impossible.

More diﬃcult is b). But we are tempted to use a) and to explore the

properties of f

p

(m), just like in the previous problem. So, let us take a

prime q[f

p

(m) for a certain positive integer m divisible by p. Then we

have of course q[m

p

−1. But this implies that o

q

(m)[q and consequently

o

q

(m) ∈ ¦1, p¦. If o

q

(m) = p, then q ≡ 1 (mod p). Otherwise, q[m− 1

and because q[f

p

(m), we deduce that q[p, hence q = p. But we have seen

while solving a) that this is not possible, so the only choice is p[q−1. Now,

we need to ﬁnd a sequence (m

k

)

k≥1

of multiples of p such that f

p

(m

k

)

are pairwise relatively prime. This is not as easy as in the ﬁrst example.

Anyway, just by trial and error, it is not diﬃcult to ﬁnd such a sequence.

There are many other approaches, but we like the following one: take

m

1

= p and m

k

= pf(m

1

)f

p

(m

2

) . . . f

p

(m

k−1

). Let us prove that f

p

(m

k

)

197

is relatively prime to f

p

(m

1

), f

p

(m

2

), . . . , f

p

(m

k−1

). Fortunately, this is

easy, since f

p

(m

1

)f

p

(m

2

) . . . f

p

(m

k−1

)[f

p

(m

k

) − f

p

(0)[f

p

(m

k

) − 1. The

solution ends here.

The following problem became classical and variants of it have been

given in contests for years. It seems to be a favorite Olympiad problem,

since it uses elementary facts and the method is more than beautiful.

Example 4. Find the smallest number n with the property that

2

2005

[17

n

−1.

Solution. The problem actually asks for o

2

2005(17). We know

that o

2

2005(17)[ϕ(2

2005

) = 2

2004

, so o

2

2005(17) = 2

k

, where k ∈

¦1, 2, . . . , 2004¦. The order of an element has done its job. Now, it is

time to work with exponents. We have 2

2005

[17

2

k

−1. Using the factor-

ing

17

2

k

−1 = (17 −1)(17 + 1)(17

2

+ 1) . . . (17

2

k−1

+ 1),

we proceed by ﬁnding the exponent of 2 in each factor of this product.

But this is not diﬃcult, because for all i ≥ 0 the number 17

2

t

+ 1 is

a multiple of 2, but not a multiple of 4. Thus, v

2

(17

2

k

− 1) = 4 + k

and the order is found by solving the equation k + 4 = 2005. Thus,

o

2

2005(17) = 2

2001

is the answer to the problem.

Another simple, but not straightforward application of the order

of an element is the following divisibility problem. Here, we also need

some properties of the prime numbers, that we have already studied in

a previous unit.

Example 5. Find all primes p, q such that p

2

+ 1[2003

q

+ 1 and

q

2

+ 1[2003

p

+ 1.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Let us suppose that p ≤ q. We discuss ﬁrst the trivial case

p = 2. In this case, 5[2003

q

+ 1 and it is easy to deduce that q is even,

198

hence q = 2, which is a solution of the problem. Now, suppose that p > 2

and let r be a prime factor of p

2

+ 1. Because r[2003

2q

− 1, it follows

that o

r

(2003)[2q. Suppose that (q, o

r

(2003)) = 1. Then o

r

(2003)[2 and

r[2003

2

−1 = 2

3

3 7 11 13 167. It seems that this is a dead end, since

there are too many possible values for r. Another simple observation

narrows the number of possible cases: because r[p

2

+ 1, must be of the

form 4k + 1 or equal to 2 and now we do not have many possibilities:

r ∈ ¦2, 13¦. The case r = 13 is also impossible, because 2003

q

+ 1 ≡ 2

(mod 13) and r[2003

q

+ 1. So, we have found that for any prime factor

r of p

2

+ 1, we have either r = 2 or q[o

r

(2003), which in turn implies

q[r−1. Because p

2

+1 is even, but not divisible by 4 and because any odd

prime factor of it is congruent to 1 modulo q, we must have p

2

+ 1 ≡ 2

(mod q). This implies that p

2

+ 1 ≡ 2 (mod q), that is q[(p −1)(p + 1).

Combining this with the assumption that p ≤ q yields q[p + 1 and in

fact q = p+1. It follows that p = 2, contradicting the assumption p > 2.

Therefore the only pair is (2,2).

More diﬃcult is the following problem, proposed by Reid Barton

for the USA TST in 2003. Anyway, using the order of an element, the

problem is not very diﬃcult and the solution follows naturally. Let us

see...

Example 6. Find all ordered triples of primes (p, q, r) such that

p[q

r

+ 1, q[r

p

+ 1, r[p

q

+ 1.

Reid Barton, TST USA 2003

Solution. It is quite clear that p, q, r are distinct. Indeed, if for

example p = q, then the relation p[q

r

+ 1 is impossible. We will prove

that we cannot have p, q, r > 2. Suppose this is the case. The ﬁrst

condition p[q

r

+ 1 implies p[q

2r

− 1 and so o

p

(q)[2r. If o

p

(q) is odd, it

follows that p[q

r

−1, which combined with p[q

r

+ 1 yields p = 2, which

199

is impossible. Thus, o

p

(q) is either 2 or 2r. Could we have o

p

(q) = 2r?

No, since this would imply that 2r[p −1 and so 0 ≡ p

q

+1 (mod r) ≡ 2

(mod r), that is r = 2, false. Therefore, the only possibility is o

p

(q) = 2

and so p[q

2

−1. We cannot have p[q−1, because p[q

r

+1 and p = 2. Thus,

p[q + 1 and in fact p[

q + 1

2

. In the same way, we ﬁnd that q[

r + 1

2

and

r[

p + 1

2

. This is clearly impossible, just by looking at the largest among

p, q, r. So, our assumption was wrong and indeed one of the three primes

must equal 2. Suppose without loss of generality that p = 2. Then q is

odd, q[r

2

+1 and r[2

q

+1. Similarly, o

r

(2)[2q. If q[o

r

(2), then q[r −1 and

so q[r

2

+1−(r

2

−1) = 2, which contradicts the already established result

that q is odd. Thus, o

r

(2)[2 and r[3. As a matter of fact, this implies

that r = 3 and q = 5, yielding the triple (2,5,3). It is immediate to

verify that this triple satisﬁes all conditions of the problem. Moreover,

all solutions are given by cyclic permutations of the components of this

triple.

Can you ﬁnd the smallest prime factor of the number 2

2

5

+ 1. Yes,

with a large amount of work, you will probably ﬁnd it. But what about

the number 12

2

15

+1? It has more than 30000 digits, so you will probably

be bored before ﬁnding its smallest prime factor. But here is a beautiful

and short solution, which does not need a single division.

Example 7. Find the smallest prime factor of the number 12

2

15

+1.

Solution. Let p be this prime number. Because p[12

2

16

−1, we ﬁnd

that o

p

(12)[2

16

. Exactly as in the solution of the ﬁrst example, we ﬁnd

that o

p

(12) = 2

16

and so 2

16

[p −1. Therefore p ≥ 1 +2

16

. But it is well-

known that 2

16

+1 is a prime (and if you do not believe, you can check;

it is not that diﬃcult). So, we might try to see if this number divides

12

2

15

+ 1. Let q = 2

16

+ 1. Then 12

2

15

+ 1 = 2

q−1

3

q−1

2

+ 1 ≡ 3

q−1

2

+ 1

(mod q). It remains to see whether

3

q

**= −1. But this is done in
**

the unit Quadratic reciprocity and the answer is positive, so indeed

200

3

q−1

2

+ 1 ≡ 0 (mod 2) and 2

16

+ 1 is the smallest prime factor of the

number 12

2

15

+ 1.

Ok, you must be already tired of this old fashioned idea that any

prime factor of 2

2

n

+ 1 is congruent to 1 modulo 2

n+1

. Yet, here is a

problem that will keep you occupied for a certain period of time, even

if it uses only this simple idea.

Example 8. Prove that for any n > 1 the largest prime factor of

2

2

n

+ 1 is at least equal to n 2

n+2

+ 1.

China TST, 2005

Solution. The reader will not imagine how simple this problem re-

ally is. If the start is correct... Indeed, let us write 2

2

n

+ 1 = p

k

1

1

. . . p

k

r

r

with p

1

< . . . , p

r

prime numbers. We know that we can ﬁnd q

i

∈ N

such that p

i

= 1 +2

n+1

q

i

. Now, reduce the relation 2

2

n

+1 = p

k

1

1

. . . p

k

r

r

modulo 2

2n+2

. It follows that 1 ≡ 1 + 2

n+1

r

¸

i=1

k

i

q

i

(mod 2

2n+2

) and so

r

¸

i=1

k

i

q

i

≥ 2

n+1

. But then q

r

r

¸

i=1

k

i

≥ 2

n+1

. Now everything becomes sim-

ple, since we have 2

2

n

+1 > (1+2

n+1

)

k

1

++k

r

and so k

1

+ +k

r

≤

2

n

n + 1

.

This shows that q

r

≤ 2(n + 1) and the proof ﬁnishes here.

Problems for training

1. Let a, n > 2 be positive integers such that n[a

n−1

−1 and n does

not divide any of the numbers a

x

− 1, where x < n − 1 and x[n − 1.

Prove that n is a prime number.

2. Let p be a nonzero polynomial with integral coeﬃcients. Prove

that there are at most ﬁnitely many numbers n for which p(n) and

2

2

n

+ 1 are not relatively prime.

3. Let p > 3 be a prime. Prove that any positive divisor of the

number

2

p

+ 1

3

is of the form 2kp + 1.

201

Fermat

4. Let a > b > 1 and n > 1 be positive integers. Prove that any

positive divisor of the number a

n

− b

n

is either of the form nk + 1 or

divides a number of the form a

d

−b

d

, with d[n, d < n.

5. Find all positive integers m, n for which n[1 +m

3

n

+m

23

n

.

Bulgaria, 1997

6. Find the smallest repunit divisible by 19.

Gazeta Matematica

7. Let p be a prime and q > 5 a prime factor of the number 2

p

+3

p

.

Prove that q > p.

Laurentiu Panaitopol, TST Romania

8. Let m > 1 be an odd number. Find the smallest number n such

that 2

1989

[m

n

−1.

IMO 1989 Shortlist

9. Let 0 < m < n be integers such that 1978

m

and 1978

n

have the

same last three digits. Find the least possible value of m+n.

IMO 1978

10. Let p be a prime number and let d a positive divisor of p − 1.

Prove that there is a positive integer n such that o

p

(n) = d.

11. Let q = k 2

m

+ 1 be a divisor of the number 2

2

n

+ 1, where k

is odd. Find o

q

(k) in terms of n and v

2

(m)

J. van de Lune

12. Let n be a positive integer such that n −1 = FR, where all the

prime factors of F are known and gcd(F, R) = 1. Suppose further that

there is an integer a such that n[a

n−1

−1 and for all primes p dividing

n −1 we have gcd(n, a

n−1

p

−1) = 1. Prove that any prime factor of n is

congruent to 1 modulo F.

202

Proth, Pocklington, Lehmer Test

13. Let a > 1 be an integer and let us deﬁne o

p

(a) = 0 if p[a. Prove

that the function f : ¦2, 3, 5, 7, 11, . . . ¦ →N, f(p) =

p −1

o

p

(a)

is unbounded.

Jon Froemke, Jerrold W Grossman, AMM

14. Let d = o

p

(n) and let k = v

p

(n

d

−1).

a) If k > 1 then o

p

j (n) = d for j ≤ k and o

p

j (n) = p

j−k

d for all

j ≥ k.

b) If k = 1 then let l = v

p

(n

pd

−1). Prove that o

p

(n) = d, o

p

j (n) = pd

for 2 ≤ j ≤ l and o

p

j (n) = p

j−l+1

d, for all j ≥ l.

15. Let A be a ﬁnite set of prime numbers and let a ≥ 2 be a positive

integer. Prove that there are only ﬁnitely many positive integers n such

that all prime factors of a

n

−1 are in A.

Iran Olympiad

16. Prove that for any prime p there is a prime number q that does

not divide any of the numbers n

p

−p, with n ≥ 1.

IMO 2003

17. Let a > 1 be a positive integer. Prove that for inﬁnitely many n

the largest prime factor of a

n

−1 is greater than nlog

a

n.

Gabriel Dospinescu

203

DENSITY AND REGULAR DISTRIBUTION

Everyone knows that (¦na¦)

n≥1

is dense in [0,1] if a is an irrational

number, a classical theorem of Kronecker. Various applications of this

nice result have appeared in diﬀerent contests and will probably make

the object of Olympiad problems in the future. Yet, there are some

examples in which this result is ineﬀective. A simple one is as follows:

using Kronecker’s theorem one can easily prove that for any positive

integer a that is not a power of 10 there exists n such that a

n

begins with

2006. The natural question: what fraction of numbers between 1 and n

have this property (speaking here about large values of n) is much more

diﬃcult and to answer it we need some stronger tools. This is the reason

for which we will try to discuss some classical approximation theorems,

particularly the very eﬃcient Weil criterion and its consequences. The

proofs are non-trivial and require some heavy-duty analysis. Yet, the

consequences that will be discussed here are almost elementary.

Of course, one cannot start a topic about approximation theorems

without talking ﬁrst about Kronecker’s theorem. We skip the proof, not

only because it is very well-known, but because we will prove a much

stronger result about the sequence (¦na¦)

n≥1

. Instead, we will discuss

two beautiful problems, consequences of this theorem.

Example 1. Prove that the sequence ([n

√

2003])

n≥1

contains arbi-

trarily long geometric progressions with arbitrarily large ratio.

Radu Gologan, IMO TST Romania

Solution. Let us take p a very large number. We will prove that

there are arbitrarily long geometric sequences with ratio p. Given

n ≥ 3, let us prove that we can ﬁnd a positive integer m such that

[p

k

m

√

2003] = p

k

[m

√

2003] for all 1 ≤ k ≤ n. If the existence of such a

number is proved, then the conclusion is immediate. But observe that

204

[p

k

m

√

2003] = p

k

[m

√

2003] is equivalent to [p

k

¦m

√

2003¦] = 0, or to

¦m

√

2003¦ <

1

p

n

. The existence of a positive integer m with the last

property is ensured by Kronecker’s theorem.

Here is a problem that is apparently very diﬃcult, but which is again

a simple consequence of Kronecker’s theorem.

Example 2. Consider k ≥ 1 and a such that log a is irrational.

Deﬁne the sequence x

n

as the number formed by the ﬁrst k digits of

the number [a

n

] with n ≥ 1. Prove that this sequence is not eventually

periodical.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Mathlinks Contest

Solution. The solution is based on certain simple, but useful re-

marks. First of all, the number formed with the ﬁrst k digits of a num-

ber m is [10

k−1+|log m¦

]. The proof of this claim is not diﬃcult. Indeed,

let us write m = x

1

x

2

. . . x

p

, with p ≥ k. Then m = x

1

. . . x

k

10

p−k

+

x

k+1

. . . x

p

, hence x

1

. . . x

k

10

p−k

≤ m < (x

1

. . . x

k

+1) 10

p−k

. It follows

that x

1

. . . x

k

=

m

10

p−k

**and, since p = 1 +[log m], the claim is proved.
**

Another remark is the following: there is a positive integer r such

that x

rT

> 10

k−1

. Indeed, assuming the contrary, we ﬁnd that for all

r > 0 we have x

rT

= 10

k−1

. Using the ﬁrst observation, it follows that

k −1 +¦log[a

rT

]¦ < log(1 + 10

k−1

) for all r. Thus

log

1 +

1

10

k−1

> log[a

rT

] −[log[a

rT

]] > log(a

rT

−1) −[log a

rT

]

= ¦rT log a¦ −log

a

rT

a

rT

−1

.

It suﬃces now to consider a sequence of positive integers (r

n

) such

that 1 −

1

n

< ¦r

n

T log a¦ (the existence is a simple consequence of Kro-

necker’s lemma) and we will deduce that:

log

1 +

1

10

k−1

+

1

n

+ log

a

r

n

T

a

r

n

T

−1

> 1 for all n.

205

The last inequality is clearly impossible.

Finally, assume the existence of such an r. It follows that for n > r

we have x

nT

= x

rT

, thus

¦log[a

nT

]¦ ≥ log

1 +

1

10

k−1

.

This shows that

log

1 +

1

10

k−1

≤ log[a

nT

] −[log[a

nT

]] ≤ nT log a −[log a

nT

]

= ¦nT log a¦ for all n > r.

But this contradicts Kronecker’s theorem.

Before passing to the quantitative results stated at the beginning

of this chapter, we must speak about a simple, yet surprising result,

which turns out to be very useful when dealing with real numbers and

their properties. Sometimes, it can even help us reducing the problem

to integers, as we will see in one of the examples. But ﬁrst, let us state

and prove this result.

Example 3. (Dirichlet) Let x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

k

be some real numbers and

let ε > 0. There exists a positive integer n and integers p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

k

such

that [nx

i

−p

i

[ < ε for all i.

Solution. Thus we need to prove that if we have a ﬁnite set of real

numbers, we can multiply all its elements by a suitable integer such that

the elements of the new set are as close to integers as we want.

Let us choose an integer N >

1

ε

and partition the interval [0, 1) in

N intervals,

[0, 1) =

N

¸

s=1

J

s

, J

s

=

¸

s −1

N

,

s

N

.

Now, choose n = N

k

+ 1 and associate to any positive integer

q ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ a sequence of k positive integers α

1

, α

2

, . . . , α

k

, where

206

α

i

= s if and only if ¦qx

i

¦ ∈ J

s

. We obtain at most N

k

sequences cor-

responding to these numbers and so by Dirichlet’s criterion we can ﬁnd

1 ≤ u < v ≤ n such that the same sequence is associated to u and v.

This means that for all 1 ≤ i ≤ k we have

[¦ux

i

¦ −¦vx

i

¦[ <

1

N

≤ ε.

It suﬃces thus to pick n = v −u, p

i

= [vx

i

] −[ux

i

].

And here is how we can use this result in problems where it is more

comfortable to work with integers. But don’t kid yourself, there are

not many such problems. The one we are going to discuss has had a

circuitous itinerary between world’s Olympiads: proposed for IMO long

time ago, it appeared next at the W.L. Putnam Competition and later

on in a Japanese Mathematical Olympiad.

Example 4. Let x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

2n+1

be positive real numbers with the

property: for any 1 ≤ i ≤ 2n+1 one can make two groups of n numbers

by using x

j

, j = i, such that the sum of the numbers in each group is

the same. Prove that all numbers are equal.

Solution. Of course, the problem for integers is very well-known and

easy: it suﬃces to observe that in this case all numbers x

i

have the same

parity and the use of inﬁnite descent solves the problem (either they are

all even and in this case we divide each one by two and obtain a new

set with smaller sum and the same properties; otherwise, we subtract 1

from each one and then divide by 2).

Now, assume that they are real numbers, which is clearly much more

subtle. First of all, if they are all rational, it suﬃces to multiply by their

common denominator and apply the ﬁrst case. Thus assume that at least

one of the numbers is irrational. Consider ε > 0, a positive integer n,

and some integers p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

k

such that [nx

i

− p

i

[ < ε for all i. We

claim that if ε > 0 is small enough, the corresponding p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

k

have

207

the same property as x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

2n+1

. Indeed, take some i and write

the partition condition in the form

¸

j,=i

a

ij

nx

j

= 0 or

¸

j,=i

a

ij

(nx

j

−p

j

) = −

¸

j,=i

a

ij

p

j

(where of course a

ij

∈ ¦−1, 1¦). Then

¸

j,=i

a

ij

p

j

=

¸

j,=i

a

ij

(nx

j

−p

j

)

≤ 2nε.

Thus if we choose ε <

1

2n

, then

¸

j,=i

a

ij

p

j

= 0 and so p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

k

have the same property. Since they are all integers, they must be equal

(again, because of the ﬁrst case). Thus we have proved that for any

N > 2n there are integers n

N

, p

N

such that [n

N

x

i

−p

N

[ ≤

1

N

.

Because at least one of the numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

2n+1

is irrational, it

is not diﬃcult to prove that the sequence (n

N

)

N>2n

is unbounded. But

2

N

> [n

N

[ max

i,j

[x

i

− x

j

[, hence max

i,j

[x

i

− x

j

[ = 0 and the problem is

solved.

Now, let us turn to more quantitative results about the set of frac-

tional parts of natural multiples of diﬀerent real numbers. The following

criterion, due to Weil, is famous and deserves to be discussed because of

its beauty and apparent simplicity.

Weil criterion. Let (a

n

)

n≥1

be a sequence of real numbers from the

interval [0,1]. Then the following statements are equivalent:

a) For any real numbers 0 ≤ a ≤ b ≤ 1,

lim

n→∞

[¦i[ 1 ≤ i ≤ n, a

i

∈ [a, b]¦[

n

= b −a;

b) For any continuous function f : [0, 1] →R,

lim

n→∞

1

n

n

¸

k=1

f(a

k

) =

1

0

f(x)dx;

208

c) For any positive integer p ≥ 1,

lim

n→∞

1

n

n

¸

k=1

e

2iπpa

k

= 0.

In this case we will say that the sequence is equidistributed.

We will present just a sketch of the solution, containing yet all the

necessary ingredients.

First of all, we observe that a) says precisely that b) is true for

the characteristic function of any sub-interval of [0,1]. By linearity, this

remains true for any piecewise function. Now, there is a well-known and

easy to verify property of continuous functions: they can be uniformly

approximated with piecewise functions. That is, given ε > 0, we can ﬁnd

a piecewise function g such that [g(x) −f(x)[ < ε for all x ∈ [0, 1]. But

then if we write

1

n

n

¸

k=1

f(a

k

) −

1

0

f(x)dx

≤

1

n

n

¸

k=1

[f(a

k

) −g(a

k

)[ +

1

0

[f(x) −g(x)[dx

+

1

n

n

¸

k=1

g(a

k

) −

1

0

g(x)dx

**and apply the result in b) for the function g, we easily deduce that b)
**

is true for any continuous function.

The fact that b) implies c) is immediate. More subtle is that b)

implies a). Let us consider the subinterval I = [a, b] with 0 < a < b < 1.

Next, consider two sequences of continuous functions f

k

, g

k

such that f

k

is zero on [0, a], [b, 1] and 1 on

¸

a +

1

k

, b −

1

k

**(being aﬃne otherwise),
**

while g

k

has ”the same” properties but is greater than or equal to λ

I

(the characteristic function of I = [a, b]). Therefore

1

n

n

¸

j=1

f

k

(a

j

) ≤

[¦i[ 1 ≤ i ≤ n, a

i

∈ [a, b]¦[

n

≤

1

n

n

¸

j=1

g

k

(a

j

).

209

But from the hypothesis,

1

n

n

¸

j=1

f

k

(a

j

) →

1

0

f

k

(x)dx = b −a −

1

k

and

1

n

n

¸

j=1

g

k

(a

j

) →

1

0

g

k

(x)dx = b −a +

1

k

.

Now, let us take ε > 0 and k suﬃciently large. The above inequalities

show that actually for all suﬃciently large positive integer n

[¦i[ 1 ≤ i ≤ n, a

i

∈ [a, b]¦[

n

−b +a

≤ 2ε

and the conclusion follows. The reader has already seen how to adapt

this proof for the case a = 0 or b = 1.

Finally, let us prove that c) implies b). Of course, a linearity argu-

ment allows us to assume that b) is true for any trigonometric poly-

nomials of any degree. Because any continuous function f : [0, 1] → R

satisfying f(0) = f(1) can be uniformly approximated by trigonometric

polynomials (this is a really non-trivial result due to Weierstrass), we

deduce that b) is true for continuous functions f for which f(0) = f(1).

Now, given f : [0, 1] →R continuous, it is immediate that for any ε > 0

we can ﬁnd two continuous functions g, h, both having equal values at

0 and 1 and such that

[f(x) −g(x)[ ≤ h(x) and

1

0

h(x)dx ≤ ε.

Using the same arguments as those used to prove that b) implies a),

one can easily see that b) is true for any continuous function.

The ﬁrst problem that we discuss is in fact the most common result

about equidistribution. We invite the reader to ﬁnd an elementary proof

in order to appreciate the power of Weil’s criterion. Before presenting the

second problem, we need another deﬁnition: we say that the sequence

210

(a

n

)

n≥1

is uniformly distributed mod 1 if the sequence of fractional parts

of a

n

is equidistributed. So, here is the classical example.

Example 5. Let a be an irrational number. Then the sequence

(na)

n≥1

is uniformly distributed mod 1.

Solution. Well, after so much work, we deserve a reward: this is a

simple consequence of Weil’s criterion. Indeed, it suﬃces to prove that

c) is veriﬁed, which reduces to proving that

lim

n→∞

1

n

n

¸

k=1

e

2iπpka

= 0 (∗)

for all integers p ≥ 1. But this is just a geometric series!!! A one-line

computation shows that (∗) is trivially satisﬁed and thus we have the

desired result.

It’s probably time to solve the problem presented in the very begin-

ning of this note: how to compute the density of those numbers n for

which 2

n

begins with 2006 (for example). Well, again a reward: this is

going to be equally easy (of course, the reader needs some rest before

looking at some deeper results...).

Example 6. What is the density of the set of positive integers n for

which 2

n

begins with 2006?

Solution. Indeed, 2

n

begins with 2006 if and only if there is a

p ≥ 1 and some digits a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

p

∈ ¦0, 1, . . . , 9¦ such that 2

n

−

2006a

1

a

2

. . . a

p

, which is clearly equivalent to the existence of p ≥ 1

such that

2007 10

p

> 2

n

≥ 2006 10

p

.

This can be rewritten in the form

log 2007 +p > nlog 2 ≥ log 2006 +p

This implies [nlog 2] = p +3 hence log

2007

1000

> ¦nlog 2¦ > log

2006

1000

.

Thus the density of the desired set is exactly the density of the set of

211

positive integers n satisfying

log

2007

1000

> ¦nlog 2¦ > log

2006

1000

.

From example 5, the last set has density log

2007

2006

and so this is the

answer to our problem.

We have seen a beautiful proof of the fact that if a is irrational, then

(na)

n≥1

is uniformly distributed mod 1. Actually, much more is true,

but this much more is also much more diﬃcult to prove. The next two

examples are two important theorems. The ﬁrst is due to Van der Corput

and shows how a brilliant combination of algebraic manipulations and

Weil’s criterion can yield diﬃcult and nice results.

Example 7. (Van der Corput) Let (x

n

) be a sequence of real num-

bers such that the sequences (x

n+p

− x

n

)

n≥1

are equidistributed for all

p ≥ 1. Then the sequence (x

n

) is also equidistributed.

This is not an Olympiad problem!!! But mathematics is not just

Olympiad and from time to time (in fact, from a certain time on) one

should try to discover what is behind such great results. This is the

reason for which we present a proof of this theorem, a diﬃcult proof

that uses the ”well-known” but not easy to remember inequality of Van

der Corput.

Lemma. (Van der Corput) For any complex numbers z

1

, z

2

, . . . , z

n

and any h ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦, the following inequality is true (with the con-

vention that z

i

= 0 for any integer i not in ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦):

h

2

n

¸

i=1

z

i

2

≤ (n +h −1)

¸

2

p−1

¸

r=1

(h −r)Re

n−r

¸

i=1

z

i

z

i+r

+h

n

¸

i=1

[z

i

[

2

¸

.

Unbelievable, but true! Not to mention that the proof of this in-

equality is anything but easy. We will limit to give the main idea of the

212

proof, the computations being very technical. The idea behind this fun-

damental inequality is another fundamental one. You would have never

guessed: the Cauchy Schwarz inequality!!! The simple observation that

h

n

¸

i=1

z

i

=

n+h−1

¸

i=1

h−1

¸

j=0

z

i−j

allows us to write (via Cauchy Schwarz’s inequality):

h

2

n

¸

i=1

z

i

2

≤ (n +h −1)

n+h−1

¸

i=1

h−1

¸

j=0

z

i−j

2

.

And next ? Well... this is where the readers will get some satisfac-

tion... if they have the patience to expand

n+p−1

¸

i=1

p−1

¸

j=0

z

i−j

2

and see that

it is nothing else than

2

p−1

¸

r=1

(p −r)Re

n−r

¸

i=1

z

i

z

i+r

+p

n

¸

i=1

[z

i

[

2

.

Wishing them good luck with the computations, we will now prove

Van der Corput’s theorem, by using this lemma and Weil’s criterion.

Of course, the idea is to prove that

lim

n→∞

1

n

n

¸

k=1

e

2iπpx

k

= 0 for all p ≥ 1.

Fix such a p ≥ 1 and take for the moment a positive real number h and

ε ∈ (0, 1) (h may depend on ε). Also, denote z

j

= e

2iπpx

j

. Using the

lemma, we have:

1

n

n

¸

j=1

z

j

2

≤

1

n

2

n +h −1

h

2

hn + 2

h−1

¸

i=1

(h −i)Re

¸

n−i

¸

j=1

z

j

z

i+j

¸

¸

¸

.

213

Now, let us regard

Re

¸

n−i

¸

j=1

z

j

z

i+j

¸

= Re

¸

n−i

¸

j=1

e

2iπp(x

j

−x

i+j

)

¸

≤

n−i

¸

j=1

e

2iπp(x

j

−x

i+j

)

.

Using Weil’s criterion for the sequences (x

n+i

− x

n

) for i =

1, 2, . . . , h −1 we deduce that for all suﬃciently large n we have

n−i

¸

j=1

e

2iπp(x

j

−x

i+j

)

≤ εn.

Therefore

1

n

n

¸

j=1

z

j

2

≤

1

n

2

n +h −1

h

2

¸

hn + 2εn

h−1

¸

i=1

(h −i)

¸

<

n +h −1

nh

(1 +ε) <

2(1 +ε)

h

for all suﬃciently large n. Now, by choosing h >

2(1 +ε)

ε

2

, we deduce

that for all suﬃciently large n we have

1

n

n

¸

j=1

z

j

≤ ε.

This shows that Weil’s criterion is veriﬁed and thus (x

n

) is equidis-

tributed.

This was surely the most diﬃcult result of this unit, but why not

taking one more step once we are already here? Let us prove the following

weaker (but as the reader will probably agree, absolutely nontrivial)

version of famous theorem of Weil. It is related to the equidistribution

of the sequence (¦f(n)¦)

n≥1

where is a real polynomial having at least

one irrational coeﬃcient except for the free term. We will not prove this

here, but focus on the following result.

214

Example 8. (Weil) Let f be a polynomial with real coeﬃcients and

irrational leading coeﬃcient. Then the sequence (¦f(n)¦)

n≥1

is equidis-

tributed.

The reader has probably noticed that this is an immediate conse-

quence of Van der Corput’s theorem (but just imagine the amount of

work done to arrive at this conclusion!!!). Indeed, the proof by induction

is immediate.

Indeed, if f has degree 1, then the conclusion is immediate (see

example 5). Now, if the result holds for polynomials of degree at most k,

it suﬃces (by Van der Corput’s theorem) to prove that for all positive

integers p, the sequence (f(n + p) − (f(n)) is equidistributed. But this

is exactly the induction hypothesis applied to the polynomial (whose

leading coeﬃcient is clearly irrational) f(X + p) − f(X). The proof by

induction ﬁnishes here.

Problems for training

1. Compute sup

n≥1

¸

min

p,q∈N

p+q=n

[p −q

√

3[

¸

.

Putnam Competition

2. Prove that by using diﬀerent terms of the sequence [n

2

√

2006] one

can construct geometric sequences of any length.

3. Let x be an irrational number and let f(t) = min(¦t¦, ¦1 − t¦).

Prove that given any ε > 0 one can ﬁnd a positive integer n such that

f(n

2

x) < ε.

Iran 2004

4. Prove that the sequence consisting of the ﬁrst digit of 2

n

+ 3

n

is

not periodical.

Tuymaada Olympiad

215

5. Suppose that A = ¦n

1

, n

2

, . . . ¦ is a set of positive integers such

that the sequence (cos n

k

)

k≥1

is convergent. Then prove that A has zero

density.

Marian Tetiva

6. Suppose that f is a real, continuous, and periodical function such

that the sequence

n

¸

k=1

[f(k)[

k

n≥1

is bounded. Prove that f(k) = 0 for

all positive integers k. Give a necessary and suﬃcient condition ensuring

the existence of a constant c > 0 such that

n

¸

k=1

[f(k)[

k

> c ln n for all n.

Gabriel Dospinescu

7. Does the sequence sin(n

2

) + sin(n

3

) converge?

Gabriel Dospinescu

8. Let f be a polynomial with integral coeﬃcients and let a be an

irrational number. Can all numbers f(k), k = 1, 2, . . . be in the set

A = ¦[na][ n ≥ 1¦? Is it true that any set of positive integers with

positive density contains an inﬁnite arithmetical sequence?

9. Let a, b be positive real numbers such that ¦na¦ + ¦nb¦ < 1 for

all n. Then at least one of them is an integer.

10. Prove that for every k one can ﬁnd distinct positive inte-

gers n

1

, n

2

, . . . , n

k

such that [n

1

√

2], [n

2

√

2], . . . , [n

k

√

2] and [n

1

√

3],

[n

2

√

3], . . . , [n

k

√

3] are both geometrical sequences.

After a romanian IMO TST problem

11. A ﬂea moves in the positive direction of an axis, starting from

the origin. It can only jump over distances equal to

√

2 and

√

2005.

Prove that there exists n

0

such that the ﬂea will be able to arrive in any

interval [n, n + 1] for all n ≥ n

0

.

Romanian Contest, 2005

216

12. Let a, b, c be positive real numbers. Prove that the sets

A = ¦[na][ n ≥ 1¦, B = ¦[nb][ n ≥ 1¦, C = ¦[nc][ n ≥ 1¦

cannot form a partition of the set of positive integers.

Putnam

13. Let z

1

, z

2

, . . . , z

n

be arbitrary complex numbers. Prove that for

any ε > 0 there are inﬁnitely many positive integers n such that

ε +

k

[z

k

1

+z

k

2

+ +z

k

n

[ < max¦[z

1

[, [z

2

[, . . . , [z

n

[¦.

217

THE SUM OF DIGITS OF A POSITIVE INTEGER

Problems about the sum of digits of a positive integer often occur in

mathematical contests because of their diﬃculty and the lack of stan-

dard ways to tackle the problem. This is why a synthesis of the most

frequent techniques that occur in such cases would be useful. We have

selected several representative problems to show how the main results

and techniques work and why they are so important.

We will work only in base 10 and we will denote the decimal sum of

digits of the positive integer x by s(x). The following ”formula” can be

checked easily:

s(n) = n −9

¸

k≥1

n

10

k

¸

(1)

From (1) we can easily deduce some well-known results about s(n) such

as s(n) ≡ n(mod9) and s(m+n) ≤ s(m) +s(n). Unfortunately, (1) is a

clumsy formula, which can hardly be used in applications. On the other

hand, there are several more or less known results about sum of digits,

results which may oﬀer simple ways to tackle hard problems. This is

what we will discuss about in the following.

The easiest of these techniques is, probably, just the careful anal-

ysis of the structure of the numbers and their digits. This can work

surprisingly well, as we will see in the following examples.

1. Prove that among any 79 consecutive numbers, one can choose at

least one whose sum of digits is a multiple of 13.

Baltic, 1997

Solution. Note that among the ﬁrst 40 numbers, there are exactly

4 multiples of 10. Also, it is clear that the last but one digit of one of

them is at least 6. Let x be this number. Obviously, x, x+1,..., x+39 are

among our numbers, so s(x), s(x) +1,...,s(x) +12 occur as sum of digits

218

in some of our numbers. Obviously, one of these numbers is a multiple

of 13 and we are done.

We will continue with two harder problems, which still do not require

any special result or technique.

2. Find the greatest N such that one can ﬁnd N consecutive numbers

with the property that the sum of digits of the k-th number is divisible

by k, for k = 1, 2, ..., N.

Tournament of Towns, 2000

Solution. The answer here is not trivial at all, namely 21. The

main idea is that among s(n+2), s(n+12) and s(n+22) there are two

consecutive numbers, which is impossible since they should all be even.

In truth, we make transports at a +10 only when the last but one digit

of a is 9, but this situation can occur at most once in our case. So, for

N > 21, we have no solution. For N = 21, we can choose N+1, N+2,...,

N +21, where N = 291 10

11!

−12. For i = 1 we have nothing to prove.

For 2 ≤ i ≤ 11, s(N +i) = 2 +9 +0 +9(11! −1) +i −2 = i +11! while

for 12 ≤ i ≤ 21, s(N +i) = 2 +9 +1 +(i −12) = i, so our numbers have

the desired property.

3. How many positive integers n ≤ 10

2005

can be written as the sum

of 2 positive integers with the same sum of digits?

Adrian Zahariuc

Solution. Answer: 10

2005

− 9023. At ﬁrst glance, it might seem al-

most impossible to ﬁnd the exact number of positive integers with this

property. In fact, the following is true: a positive integer cannot be writ-

ten as the sum of two numbers with the same sum of digits iﬀ all of its

digits (eventually) excepting the ﬁrst are 9 and the sum of its digits is

odd.

219

Let n be such a number. Suppose there are a, b ∈ Z

+

such that

n = a+b and s(a) = s(b). The main fact is that when we add a+b = n,

there are no transports. This is clear enough. It follows that s(n) =

s(a) +s(b) = 2s(a), which is impossible since s(n) is odd.

Now we will prove that any number n which is not one of the numbers

stated above, can be written as the sum of 2 positive integers with the

same sum of digits. We will start with the following:

Lemma. There is a ≤ n such that s(a) ≡ s(n −a)(mod2).

Proof. If the s(n) is even, take a = 0. If s(n) is odd, then n must

have a digit which is not the ﬁrst and is not equal to 9, otherwise it

would have one of the forbidden forms. Let c be the value of this digit

and p its position (from right to left). Then let us chose a = 10

p−1

(c+1).

At the adding a + (n −a) = n there is exactly one transport, so

s(a) +s(n −a) = 9 +s(n) ≡ 0(mod2) ⇒ s(a) ≡ s(n −a)(mod2)

which proves our claim.

Back to the original problem. All we have to do now is take one-by-

one a ”unity” from a number and give it to the other until the 2 numbers

have the same sum of digits. This will happen since they have the same

parity. So, let us do this rigorously. Let

a = a

1

a

2

..a

k

, n −a = b

1

b

2

...b

k

The lemma shows that the number of elements of the set I = ¦i ∈

¦1, 2, ..., k¦ : 2 does not divide a

i

+b

i

¦ is even, so it can be divided into 2

sets with the same number of elements, say I

1

and I

2

. For i = 1, 2, ..., k

deﬁne A

i

= (a

i

+b

i

)/2 if i ∈ I, (a

i

+b

i

+1)/2 if i ∈ I

1

or (a

i

+b

i

−1)/2

if i ∈ I

2

and B

i

= a

i

+b

i

−A

i

. It is clear that the numbers

A = A

1

A

2

...A

k

, B = B

1

B

2

...B

k

220

have the property that s(A) = s(B) and A + B = n. The proof is

complete.

We have previously seen that s(n) ≡ n( mod9). This is probably the

most famous property of the function s and it has a series of remarkable

applications. Sometimes it is combined with some simple inequalities

such as s(n) ≤ 9(lg n| + 1). Some immediate applications are the fol-

lowing:

4. Find all n for which one can ﬁnd a and b such that

s(a) = s(b) = s(a +b) = n.

Vasile Zidaru and Mircea Lascu, JBMO TST, 2002

Solution. We have a ≡ b ≡ a + b ≡ n(mod9), so 9 divides n. If

n = 9k, we can take a = b = 10

k

−1 and we are done since s(10

k

−1) =

s(2 10

k

−2) = 9k.

5. Find all the possible values of the sum of digits of a perfect square.

Iberoamerican, 1995

Solution. What does sum of digits has to do with perfect squares?

Apparently, nothing, but perfect squares do have something to do with

remainders mod 9! In fact, it is very easy to prove that the only possible

values of a perfect square mod 9 are 0, 1, 4 and 7. So, we deduce that

the sum of digits of a perfect square must be congruent to 0, 1, 4 or 7

mod 9. To prove that all such numbers work, we will use a small and

very common (but worth to remember!) trick: use numbers that consist

almost only of 9-s. We have the following identities:

99...99

. .. .

n

2

= 99...99

. .. .

n−1

8 00...00

. .. .

n−1

1 ⇒ s(99...99

. .. .

n

2

) = 9n

99...99

. .. .

n−1

1

2

= 99...99

. .. .

n−2

82 00...00

. .. .

n−2

81 ⇒ s(99..99

. .. .

n−1

1

2

) = 9n + 1

221

99...99

. .. .

n−1

2

2

= 99...99

. .. .

n−2

84 00...00

. .. .

n−2

64 ⇒ s(99..99

. .. .

n−1

2

2

) = 9n + 4

99...99

. .. .

n−1

4

2

= 99...99

. .. .

n−2

88 00...00

. .. .

n−2

36 ⇒ s(99..99

. .. .

n−1

4

2

) = 9n + 7

and since s(0) = 0, s(1) = 1, s(4) = 4 and s(25) = 7 the proof is

complete.

6. Compute s(s(s(4444

4444

))).

IMO 1975

Solution. Using the inequality s(n) ≤ 9(lg n|+1) several times we

have

s(4444

4444

) ≤ 9(

lg 4444

4444

**+ 1) < 9 20, 000 = 180, 000;
**

s(s(4444

4444

)) ≤ 9(

lg s(4444

4444

)

+ 1) ≤ 9(lg 180, 000 + 1) ≤ 36,

so s(s(s(4444

4444

))) ≤ 12. On the other hand, s(s(s(n))) ≡ s(s(n)) ≡

s(n) ≡ n(mod9) and since

4444

4444

≡ 7

4444

= 7 7

3

1481

≡ 7(mod9),

the only possible answer is 7.

Finally, we present a beautiful problem which appeared in the Rus-

sian Olympiad and, later, in Kvant.

7. Prove that for any N there is n ≥ N such that s(3

n

) ≥ s(3

n+1

).

Solution. Suppose by way of contradiction that there is one N such

that s(3

n+1

) − s(3

n

) > 0, ∀n ≥ N. But, for n ≥ 2, s(3

n+1

) − s(3

n

) ≡

0(mod9), so s(3

n+1

) −s(3

n

) ≥ 9, ∀n ≥ N. It follows that

n

¸

k=N+1

3

k+1

−3

k

≥ 9(n −N) ⇒ s(3

n+1

) ≥ 9(n −N), n ≥ N + 1.

But s(3

n+1

) ≤ 9(

lg 3

n+1

+ 1), so 9n − 9N ≤ 9 + 9(n + 1) lg 3, for all

n ≥ N + 1. This is obviously a contradiction.

If so far we have studied some remarkable properties of the function

s, which were quite well-known, it is time to present some problems and

222

results which are less familiar, but interesting and hard. The ﬁrst result

is the following:

Statement. If 1 ≤ x ≤ 10

n

, then s(x(10

n

−1)) = 9n.

Proof. The idea is very simple. All we have to do is write x =

a

1

a

2

...a

j

with a

j

= 0 (we can ignore the ﬁnal 0-s of x) and note that

x(10

n

−1) = a

1

a

2

...a

j−1

(a

j

−1) 99...99

. .. .

n−j

(9 −a

1

)...(9 −a

j

)(10 −a

j

),

which obviously has the sum of digits equal to 9n.

The previous result is by no means hard, but we will see that it can

be the key in many situations. A ﬁrst application is:

8. Compute s(9 99 999 ... 99...99

. .. .

2

n

).

USAMO, 1992

Solution. The problem in trivial if we know the previous result. We

have

N = 9 99 999 ... 99...99

. .. .

2

n−1

< 10

1+2+...+2

n−1

< 10

2

n

−1

so s(99...99

. .. .

2

n

N) = 9 2

n

.

However, there are very hard applications of this apparently unim-

portant result, such as the following problem.

9. Prove that for any n there is a positive integer n which is divisible

by its sum of digits.

IMO Shortlist, 1998

Solution. Only to assure our readers that this problem did not ap-

pear on the ISL out of nowhere, such numbers are called Niven numbers

and they are an important research source in number theory. Now, let’s

solve it. We will see that constructing such a number is hard. First, we

223

will get rid of the case n = 3

k

, when we can take the number 11...11

. .. .

n

(it

can be easily proved by induction that 3

k+2

[10

3

k

−1).

Due to the trick that we should search numbers with many equal

digits and the last result, we decide that the required number p should

be aa...aa

. .. .

s

b (10

t

− 1), with aa...aa

. .. .

s

b ≤ 10

t

− 1. This number will have

s+t +1 digits and its sum of digits will be 9t. Therefore, we will require

s + t = n − 1 and 9t[ aa...aa

. .. .

s

b (10

t

− 1). We now use the fact that

for t a power of 3, 9t[10

t

− 1. So, let us take t = 3

k

where k is chosen

such that 3

k

< n < 3

k+1

. If we also take in account the condition

aa...aa

. .. .

s

b ≤ 10

t

− 1, the choice p = 11...11

. .. .

n−3

k

−1

2(10

3

k

− 1) when n ≤ 2 3

k

and p = 22...22

. .. .

23

k

(10

23

k

−1) otherwise becomes natural.

We continue our investigations in ﬁnding suitable techniques for

problems involving sum of digits with a very beautiful result. The follow-

ing result turned out to have several consequences, most of them being

very hard.

Statement. Any multiple of 11...11

. .. .

k

has sum of digits at least k.

Proof. We will use the extremal principle. Suppose by way of con-

tradiction that the statement is false and take M to be the smallest mul-

tiple of a such that s(M) < k, where a = 11...11

. .. .

k

. Note that s(ia) = ik

for i = 1, 2, ..., 9. So M ≥ 10a > 10

k

. Therefore, M = a

1

a

2

...a

p

, with

p ≥ k +1 and a

p

= 0. Take the number N = M −10

p−k

a. Obviously, N

is a multiple of a. We will try to prove that s(N) < k. In this way, we

would contradict the minimality of M and the proof would be complete.

But this is not hard at all since if a

k+1

< 9, we have s(N) = s(M) < k

and if a

k+1

= 9, we have s(N) < s(M) < k.

224

We will show 3 applications of this fact, which might seem simple,

but which might be unsolvable without it.

10. Prove that for every k, we have

lim

n→∞

s(n!)

ln

k

ln n

= ∞

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Due to the simple fact that 10

]lg n|

− 1 ≤ n ⇒ 10

]lg n|

−

1[n!, we have that s(n!) ≥ lg n|, from which our conclusion follows

easily.

11. Let S be the set of positive integers whose decimal representation

contains only of at most 1988 1-s and the rest 0-s. Prove that there is a

positive integer which does not divide any member of S.

Tournament of Towns, 1988

Solution. Again, the solution follows directly from our result. We

can choose the number 10

1989

− 1, whose multiples have sum of digits

greater than 1988.

12. Prove that for any k > 0, there is an inﬁnite arithmetical se-

quence having the ratio relatively prime to 10, such that all its members

have the sum of digits greater than k.

IMO Shortlist, 1999

Solution. Let us remind that this is the last problem of ISL 1999,

so the hardest. The oﬃcial solution is indeed one for such a problem.

But, due to our ”theorem” we can chose the sequence a

n

= n(10

m

−1),

where m > k and we are done.

Now, as a ﬁnal proof of the utility of these two results, we will present

a hard, but beautiful, problem from the USAMO.

13. Let n be a ﬁxed positive integer. Denote by f(n) the smallest k

for which one can ﬁnd a set X ⊂ Z

+

of cardinality n with the property

225

that

s

¸

x∈Y

x

= k

for all nonempty subsets Y of X. Prove that C

1

lg n < f(n) < C

2

lg n

for some constants C

1

and C

2

.

Gabriel Dospinescu and Titu Andreescu, USAMO 2005

Solution. We will prove that

lg(n + 1)| ≤ f(n) ≤ 9 lg

¸

n(n + 1)

2

+ 1

¸

,

which is enough to establish our claim. Let l be the smallest integer such

that

10

l

−1 ≥

n(n + 1)

2

.

Consider the set X = ¦j(10

l

−1) : 1 ≤ j ≤ n¦. By the previous inequality

and our ﬁrst statement, it follows that

s

¸

x∈Y

x

= 9l

for all nonempty subsets Y of X, so f(n) ≤ 9l and the RHS is proved.

Let m be the largest integer such that n ≥ 10

m

− 1. We will use the

following well-known

Lemma. Any set M = ¦a

1

, a

2

, ..., a

m

¦ has a nonempty subset whose

sum of elements is divisible by m.

Proof. Consider the sums a

1

, a

1

+a

2

,..., a

1

+a

2

+... +a

m

. If one of

then is a multiple of m, them we are done. Otherwise, there are 2 of them

congruent mod m, say the i-th and the j-th. Then, m[a

i+1

+a

i+2

+...+a

j

so we are done.

From the lemma, it follows that any set X with n elements has a

subset, say Y , whose sum of elements is divisible by 10

m

− 1. By our

226

second statement, it follows that

s

¸

x∈Y

x

≥ m ⇒ f(n) ≥ m,

and the proof is complete.

The last solved problem is one we consider to be very hard, and

which uses diﬀerent techniques than the ones we have mentioned so far.

14. Let a, b ∈ Z

+

such that s(an) = s(bn) for all n ∈ Z

+

. Prove that

lg a −lg b ∈ Z.

Adrian Zahariuc and Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. We start with an observation. If (max¦a, b¦, 10) = 1, then

the problem becomes trivial. Suppose a = max¦a, b¦. Then, by Euler’s

theorem, a[10

ϕ(a)

− 1, so there is an n such that an = 10

ϕ(a)

− 1 and

since numbers consisting only of 9-s have the sum of digits greater than

all previous numbers, it follows that an = bn, so a = b.

Let us solve now the harder problem. For any k ≥ 1, there is a n

k

such that 10

k

≤ an

k

≤ 10

k

+a −1. It follows that s(an

k

) is bounded, so

s(bn

k

) is bounded as well. On the other hand,

10

k

b

a

≤ bn

k

< 10

k

b

a

+b,

so, for suﬃciently large p, the ﬁrst (nonzero) digits of b/a are exactly

the same as the ﬁrst p digits of bn

k

for large enough k. This means the

the sum of the ﬁrst p digits of b/a is bounded, which could only happen

when this fraction has ﬁnitely many decimals. Analogously, we can prove

the same result about a/b.

Let a = 2

x

5

y

m and b = 2

z

5

t

m

t

, where (m, 10) = (m

t

, 10)=1. It fol-

lows that m[m

t

and m

t

[m, so m = m

t

. Now, we can write the hypothesis

as

s(2

z

5

u

mn2

c−x

5

c−y

) = s(2

x

5

y

mn2

c−x

5

c−y

) = s(mn), ∀c ≥ max¦x, y¦

227

Now, if p = max¦z +c −x, u+c −y¦ −min¦z +c −x, u+c −y¦, we get

that there is a k ∈ ¦2, 5¦ such that s(mn) = s(mk

p

n) for all n ∈ Z

+

. It

follows that

s(m) = s(k

p

m) = s(k

2p

m) = s(k

3p

m) = ...

Let t = a

p

, so lg t ∈ R−Q unless p = 0. Now, we will use the following:

Lemma. If lg t ∈ R −Q, then for any sequence of digits, there is a

n ∈ Z

+

, such that t

n

m starts with the selected sequence of digits.

Proof. If we will prove that ¦¦lg t

n

m¦ : n ∈ Z

+

¦ is dense in (0, 1),

then we are done. But lg t

n

m = nlg t + m and by Kronecker’s theorem

¦¦nlg t¦ : n ∈ Z

+

¦ is dense in (0, 1), so the proof is complete.

The lemma implies the very important result that s(t

n

m) is un-

bounded for p = 0, which is a contradiction. So p = 0 and hence

z +c −x = u +c −y, so a = 10

x−z

b and the proof is complete.

This problem can be nicely extended to any base. The proof of the

general case is quite similar, although there are some very important

diﬀerences.

The upmetioned methods are just a point to start from in solving

such problems since the variety of problems involving sum of digits is

very large. The techniques are useful only when they are applied cre-

atively. Finally, we invite our readers to solve this proposed problems:

Proposed Problems

1. Prove that among any 39 there is one whose sum of digits is

divisible by 11.

USSR, 1961

2. Prove that among any 18 consecutive 2-digit numbers there is at

least one Niven number.

228

Tournament of Towns, Training, 1997

3. Are there positive integers n such that s(n) = 1, 000 and s(n

2

) =

1, 000, 000?

USSR, 1985

4. Prove that for any positive integer n there are inﬁnitely many

numbers m which do not contain any zero, such that s(n) = s(mn).

USSR, 1970

5. Find all x such that s(x) = s(2x) = s(3x) = ... = s(x

2

).

Kurschak, 1989

6. Are there arbitrarily long arithmetical sequences whose terms

have the same sum of digits? What about inﬁnite aritmetical sequences?

***

7. Prove that

lim

n→∞

s(2

n

) = ∞.

***

8. Are there p ∈ Z[X] such that

lim

n→∞

s(p(n)) = ∞?

***

9. Prove that there are arbitrarily long sequences of consecutive

numbers which do not contain any Niven number.

***

10. We start with a perfect number, diﬀerent form 6 (which is equal

to the sum of its divisors, except itself), and calculate its sum of digits.

Then, we calculate the sum of digits of the new number and so on. Prove

that we will eventually get 1.

***

229

11. Prove that there are inﬁnitely many x ∈ Z

+

such that

s(x) +s(x

2

) = s(x

3

).

Gabriel Dospinescu

12. a, b, c and d are primes such that 2 < a ≤ c and a = b. We now

that there is one M ∈ Z such that the numbers an +b and cn +d have

the same sum of digits for any n > M and base between 2 and a − 1.

Prove that a = c and b = d.

Gabriel Dospinescu

13. Let (a

n

)

n≥1

be a sequence such that s(a

n

) ≥ n. Prove that for

any n, we have

1

a

1

+

1

a

2

+... +

1

a

n

< 3.2

Can we replace 3.2 by 3?

Laurentiu Panaitopol

14. Prove that one can ﬁnd n

1

< n

2

< ... < n

50

such that

n

1

+s(n

1

) = n

2

+s(n

2

) = ... = n

50

+s(n

50

)

Poland, 1999

15. Study whether we can choose the numbers in the previous prob-

lem such that n

2

−n

1

= n

3

−n

2

= ... = n

50

−n

49

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

16. Deﬁne f(n) = n + s(n). A number m is called special if there

is a k such that f(k) = m. Prove that there are inﬁnitely many special

numbers 10

n

+b iﬀ b −1 is special.

Christopher D. Long

17. Find a Niven number with 100 digits.

Sankt Petersburg, 1990

230

18. Let S be a set such that for any α ∈ R−Q, there is a number n ∈

Z

+

such that α

n

| ∈ S. Prove that S contains numbers with arbitrarily

large sum of digits.

Gabriel Dospinescu

19. Let a be a positive integer such that s(a

n

+ n) = 1 + s(n) for

any n > M, where M is given. Prove that a is a power of 10.

Gabriel Dospinescu

20. Let k ∈ Z

+

. Prove that there is a positive integer m such that

the equation n +s(n) = m has exactly k solutions.

Mihai Manea, Romanian IMO TST, 2003

21. Are there 19 positive integers with the same sum of digits, which

add up to 1999?

Rusia, 1999

22. Let a, b > 0. Prove that the sequence s(an + b|) contains a

constant subsequence.

Laurentiu Panaitopol, Romanian IMO TST, 2002

23. If s(n) = 100 and s(44n) = 800, ﬁnd s(3n).

Rusia, 1999

24. Find the smallest positive integer which can be expressed at the

same time as the sum of 2002 numbers with the same sum of digits and

as the sum of 2003 numbers with the same sum of digits.

Rusia, 2002

25. Prove that

¸

n≥1

s(n)

n(n + 1)

=

10

9

ln 10.

O. Shallit

231

Open Questions

1. For any a > 1, we have

lim

n→∞

s(a

n

) = ∞

(proved only for a couple of values, namely 2, 4, 6, 8).

2. Is it true that

lim

n→∞

s(n!)

nln ln n

= ∞?

3. Let a, b ∈ Z

+

such that s(a

n

) = s(b

n

) for all n ∈ Z

+

. Prove that

lg a −lg b ∈ Z.

4. Prove that for any n, there are a, b ∈ Z such that lg a − lg b / ∈ Z

with the property that s(a

k

) = s(b

k

) for any k ∈ ¦1, 2, ..., n¦.

5. Is it true that

lim

n→∞

s(2

n

)

ln n

= ∞?

232

ANALYSIS AGAINST NUMBER THEORY?

”Olympiad problems can be solved without the aid of analysis or

linear algebra” is a sentence always heard when speaking about the el-

ementary problems given in contests. This is true, but the true nature

and essence of some of these problems is in analysis and this is the reason

for which such type of problems are always the highlight of a contest.

Their elementary solutions are very tricky and sometimes extremely dif-

ﬁcult, while using analysis they can be solved quickly. Well, of course,

”quickly” only if you see the sequence that hides after each problem.

Practically, our aim is to exhibit convergent sequences formed by in-

teger numbers. These sequences must become constant and from here

the problem is much easier. The diﬃculty is in ﬁnding those sequences.

Sometimes, this is easy, but most of the time this is a very diﬃcult task.

We will develop our skills in ”hunting” these sequences by solving ﬁrst

some easy problems (anyway, ”easy” is a relative concept: try to solve

them elementary and you will see if they really are easy) and after that

we will attack the chestnuts.

As usual, we begin with a classic beautiful problem, which has lots

of applications and extensions.

Example 1. Let f, g ∈ Z[X] be two non-constant polynomials such

that f(n)[g(n) for an inﬁnite natural numbers n. Prove that f divides g

in Q[X].

Solution. Indeed, we need to look at the remainder of g when di-

vided with f in Q[X]! Let us write g = fh+r, were h, r are polynomials

from Q[X] and deg r < deg f. Now, multiplying by the common denom-

inator of all coeﬃcients of polynomials h, r, the hypothesis becomes:

there exists two inﬁnite sequences (a

n

)

n≥1

, (b

n

)

n≥1

of integer numbers

and a positive integer N such that b

n

= N

r(a

n

)

f(a

n

)

(we could have some

233

problems with the roots of f, but they are in ﬁnite number and the

sequence (a

n

)

n≥1

tends to inﬁnity, so from a certain point, a

n

is not a

root of f). Since deg r < deg f, it follows that

r(a

n

)

f(a

n

)

→ 0, thus (b

n

)

n≥1

is a sequence of integer numbers that tends to 0. This implies that from

a certain point, all the terms of these sequence are 0. Well, this is the

same as r(a

n

) = 0 from a certain point n

0

, which is practically the same

thing with r = 0 (don’t forget that any non-zero polynomial has only a

ﬁnite number of roots!). But in this moment the problem is solved.

The next problem we are going to discuss is a particular case of a

much more general and classical result: if f is a polynomial with integer

coeﬃcients, k > 1 is a natural number and

k

**f(n) ∈ Q for all natural
**

numbers n, then there exists a polynomial g ∈ Q[X] such that f(x) =

g

k

(x). We won’t discuss here this general result (the reader will ﬁnd a

proof in the chapter about arithmetic properties of polynomials).

Example 2. Let a = 0, b, c be integers such that for any natural

number n, the number an

2

+bn+c is a perfect square. Prove that there

exist x, y ∈ Z such that a = x

2

, b = 2xy, c = y

2

.

Solution. Let us begin by writing an

2

+ bn + c = x

2

n

for a certain

sequence of nonnegative integers (x

n

)

n≥1

. We could expect that x

n

−n

√

a

converges. And yes, it converges, but it’s not a sequence of integers, so

the convergence is useless. In fact, it’s not that useless, but we need

another sequence. The easiest way is to work with (x

n+1

−x

n

)

n≥1

, since

this sequence certainly converges to

√

a (the reader has already noticed

why it wasn’t useless to ﬁnd that x

n

−n

√

a is convergent; we used this to

establish the convergence of (x

n+1

−x

n

)

n≥1

). This time, the sequence is

formed by integer numbers, so it is constant from a certain point. Thus,

we can ﬁnd a number M such that if n ≥ M then x

n+1

= x

n

+

√

a. Thus,

a must be a perfect square, let us say a = x

2

. A simple induction shows

that x

n

= x

M

+(n −M)x and so (x

M

−Mx +nx)

2

= x

2

n

2

+bn +c for

234

all n ≥ M. A simple identiﬁcation of coeﬃcients ﬁnishes the solution,

since we can take y = x

M

−Mx.

The following problem is based on the same idea, but it really doesn’t

seem to be related with mathematical analysis. In fact, as we will see,

it is closely related to the concept of convergence.

Example 3. Let a, b, c > 1 be positive integers such that for any

positive integer n there exists a positive integer k such that a

k

+b

k

= 2c

n

.

Prove that a = b.

Laurentiu Panaitopol

Solution. What does the problem say in fact? That we can ﬁnd a se-

quence of positive integers (x

n

)

n≥1

such that a

x

n

+b

x

n

= 2c

n

. What could

be the convergent sequence here? We see that (x

n

)

n≥1

is appreciatively

kn for a certain constant k. Thus, we could expect that the sequence

(x

n+1

− x

n

)

n≥1

converges. Let us see if this is true or not. From where

could we ﬁnd x

n+1

−x

n

? Certainly, by writing that a

x

n+1

+b

x

n+1

= 2c

n+1

and after that considering the value

a

x

n+1

+b

x

n+1

a

x

n

+b

x

n

= c. Now, let us sup-

pose that a > b and let us write

a

x

n+1

+b

x

n+1

a

x

n

+b

x

n

= c in the form

a

x

n+1

−x

n

1 +

b

a

x

n+1

1 +

b

a

x

n

= c,

from where it is easy to see that a

x

n+1

−x

n

converges to c. Why is it so

easy? It would be easy if we could show that x

n

→ ∞. Fortunately,

this is immediate, since 2a

x

n

> 2c

n

⇒ x

n

> nlog

a

c. So, we found

that a

x

n+1

−x

n

converges. Being a sequence of integer numbers, it must

become constant, so there exist M such that for all n ≥ M we have

235

a

x

n+1

−x

n

= c. This means that for all n ≥ M we also have

1 +

b

a

x

n+1

1 +

b

a

x

n

= 1.

But this is impossible, since a > b. Thus, our assumption was wrong

and we must have a ≤ b. Due to symmetry in a and b, we conclude that

a = b.

Another easy example is the following problem, in which ﬁnding the

right convergent sequence of integers in not diﬃcult at all. But, attention

must be paid to details!

Example 4. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

k

be positive real numbers such that

at least one of them is not an integer. Prove that there exits inﬁnitely

many natural numbers n such that n and [a

1

n] +[a

2

n] + +[a

k

n] are

relatively prime.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Arhimede Magazine

Solution. Of course, the solution of such a problem is better to be

indirect. So, let us assume that there exists a number M such that for all

n ≥ M the numbers n and [a

1

n] + [a

2

n] + + [a

k

n] are not relatively

prime. Now, what are the most eﬃcient numbers n to be used? Yes,

they are the prime numbers, since if n is prime and it is not relatively

prime with , [a

1

n] + [a

2

n] + + [a

k

n], then it must divide [a

1

n] +

[a

2

n] + + [a

k

n]. This suggests us to consider the sequence of prime

numbers (p

n

)

n≥1

. Since this sequence is inﬁnite, there is a number N

such that if n ≥ N then p

n

≥ M. According to our assumption, this

implies that for all n ≥ N there exist a natural number x

n

such that

[a

1

p

n

] +[a

2

p

n

] + +[a

k

p

n

] = x

n

p

n

. And now, you have already guessed

what is the convergent sequence! Yes, it is (x

n

)

n≥N

. This is obvious,

since

[a

1

p

n

] + [a

2

p

n

] + + [a

k

p

n

]

p

n

tends to n ≥ Na

1

+ a

2

+ + a

k

.

236

Thus, we can ﬁnd a number P such that for x

n

= a

1

+a

2

+ +a

k

for

all n ≥ P. But this is the same as ¦a

1

p

n

¦ +¦a

2

p

n

¦ + +¦a

k

p

n

¦ = 0.

Of course, this says that a

i

p

n

∈ Z for all i = 1, k and n ≥ P. Well,

the conclusion is immediate: a

i

∈ Z for all i = 1, k, which contradicts

the hypothesis. Consequently, we were wrong again and the problem

statement is right!

Step by step, we start to have some experience in ”guessing” the

sequences. Thus, it’s time to solve some more diﬃcult problems. The

next problem we are going to discuss may seem obvious after reading

the solution. In fact, it’s just that type of problem whose solution is very

short, but very hard to ﬁnd.

Example 5. Let a, b ∈ Z such that for all natural numbers n the

number a 2

n

+b is a perfect square. Prove that a = 0.

Poland TST

Solution. Again, we argue by contradiction. Suppose that a = 0.

Then, of course, a > 0, otherwise for large values of n the number

a 2

n

+b is negative. According to the hypothesis, there exists a sequence

of positive integers (x

n

)

n≥1

such that for all natural numbers n, x

n

=

√

a 2

n

+b. Then, a direct computation shows that lim

n→∞

(2x

n

−x

n+2

) =

0. This implies the existence of a natural number N such that for all

n ≥ P we have 2x

n

= x

n+2

. But 2x

n

= x

n+2

is equivalent with b = 0.

Then, a and 2a are both perfect squares, which is impossible for a = 0.

This shows, as usually, that our assumption was wrong and indeed a = 0.

A classical result of Schur states that for any non-constant polyno-

mial f with integer coeﬃcients, the set of prime numbers dividing at

least one of the numbers f(1), f(2), f(3), . . . is inﬁnite. The following

problem is a generalization of this result.

Example 6. Suppose that f is a polynomial with integer coeﬃcients

and (a

n

) is a strictly increasing sequence of natural numbers such that

237

a

n

≤ f(n) for all n. Then the set of prime numbers dividing at least one

term of the sequence is inﬁnite.

Solution. The idea is very nice: for any ﬁnite set of prime numbers

p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

r

and any k > 0, we have

¸

α

1

,α

2

,...,α

N

∈Z

+

1

p

kα

1

1

. . . p

kα

N

N

< ∞.

Indeed, it suﬃces to remark that we have actually

¸

α

1

,α

2

,...,α

N

∈Z

+

1

p

kα

1

1

. . . p

kα

N

N

N

¸

j=1

¸

i≥0

1

p

ki

j

=

n

¸

j=1

p

k

j

p

k

j

−1

.

On the other hand, by taking k =

1

2 deg(f)

we clearly have

¸

n≥1

1

(f(n))

k

= ∞.

Thus, if the conclusion of the problem is not true, we can ﬁnd

p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

r

such that any term of the sequence is of the form

p

kα

1

1

. . . p

kα

N

N

and thus

¸

n≥1

1

a

k

n

≤

¸

α

1

,α

2

,...,α

N

∈Z

+

1

p

kα

1

1

. . . p

kα

N

N

< ∞.

On the other hand, we also have

¸

n≥1

1

a

k

n

≥

¸

n≥1

1

(f(n))

k

= ∞,

which is clearly impossible.

The same idea is employed in the following problem.

Example 7. Let a, b ≥ 2 be natural numbers. Prove that there is

a multiple of a which contains all digits 0, 1, . . . , b − 1 when written in

base b.

Adapted after a Putnam problem

238

Solution. Let’s suppose the contrary. Then any multiple of a misses

at least a digit when written in base b. Since the sum of inverses of all

multiples of a diverges (because 1+

1

2

+

1

3

+ = ∞), it suﬃces to show

that the sum of inverses of all natural numbers missing at least one digit

in base b is convergent and we will reach a contradiction. But of course,

it suﬃces to prove it for a ﬁxed (but arbitrary) digit j. For any n ≥ 1,

there are at most (b − 1)

n

numbers which have n digits in base b, all

diﬀerent from j. Thus, since each one of them is at least equal to b

n−1

,

the sum of inverses of numbers that miss the digit j when written in base

b is at most equal to

¸

n

b

b −1

b

n

, which converges. The conclusion

follows.

We return to classical problems to discuss a beautiful problem, that

appeared in the Tournament of the Towns in 1982, in a Russian Team

Selection Test in 1997 and also in the Bulgarian Olympiad in 2003. It’s

beauty explains probably the preference for this problem.

Example 8. Let f ∈ Z[X] be a polynomial with leading coeﬃcient

1 such that for any natural number n the equation f(x) = 2

n

has at

least one natural solution. Prove that deg f = 1.

Solution. So, the problem states that there exists a sequence of

positive integers (x

n

)

n≥1

such that f(x

n

) = 2

n

. Let us suppose that

deg f = k > 1. Then, for large values of x, f(x) behaves like x

k

. So,

trying to ﬁnd the right convergent sequence, we could try ﬁrst to ”think

big”: we have x

k

n

∼

= 2

n

, that is for large n, x

n

behaves like 2

n

k

. Then,

a good possibly convergent sequence could be x

n+k

− 2x

n

. Now, the

hard part: proving that this sequence is indeed convergent. First, we

will show that

x

n+k

x

n

converges to 2. This is easy, since the relation

239

f(x

n+k

) = 2

k

f(x

n

) implies

f(x

n+k

)

x

k

n+k

x

n+k

x

n

k

= 2

k

f(x

n

)

x

k

n

and since

lim

x→∞

f(x)

x

k

= 1 and lim

n→∞

x

n

= ∞

(do you see why?), we ﬁnd that indeed

lim

n→∞

x

n+k

x

n

= 2.

We will see that this will help us a lot. Indeed, let us write

f(x) = x

k

+

k−1

¸

i=0

a

i

x

i

.

Then f(x

n+k

) = 2

k

f(x

n

) can be also written

x

n+k

−2x

n

=

k−1

¸

i=0

a

i

(2

k

x

i

n

−x

i

n+k

)

k−1

¸

i=0

(2x

n

)

i

x

k−i−1

n+k

But from the fact that lim

n→∞

x

n+k

x

n

= 2. it follows that the right-hand

side in the above relation is also convergent. So, (x

n+k

−2x

n

)

n≥1

is con-

vergent and it follows that there exist M, N such that for all n ≥ M we

have x

n+k

= 2x

n

+N. But now the problem is almost done, since the last

result combined with f(x

n+k

) = 2

k

f(x

n

) yields f(2x

n

+ N) = 2

k

f(x

n

)

for n ≥ M, that is f(2x + N) = 2

k

f(x). So, an arithmetical property

of the polynomial turned into an algebraic one using analysis. This al-

gebraic property helps us to immediately solve the problem. Indeed, we

see that if z is a complex root of f, then 2z + N, 4z + 3N, 8z + 7N, . . .

are all roots of f. Since f is non-zero, this sequence must be ﬁnite and

this can happen only for z = −N. Since −N is the only root of f, we

deduce that f(x) = (x + N)

k

. But since the equation f(x) = 2

2k+1

has

240

natural roots, we ﬁnd that 2

1

k

∈ N, which implies, contradiction. Thus,

our assumption was wrong and deg f = 1.

The idea of the following problem is so beautiful, that after reading

the solution the reader will have the impression that the problem is

trivial. Wrong! The problem is really diﬃcult and to make again an

experiment, we will ask the reader to struggle a lot before reading the

solution. He will see the diﬃculty.

Example 9. Let π(n) be the number of prime numbers smaller than

or equal to n. Prove that there exist inﬁnitely many numbers n such that

π(n)[n.

AMM

Solution. First, let us prove the following result, which is the key

of the problem.

Lemma. For any increasing sequence of positive integers (a

n

)

n≥1

such that lim

n→∞

a

n

n

= 0, the sequence

n

a

n

n≥1

contains all natural num-

bers. In particular, for inﬁnitely many n we have that n divides a

n

.

Proof. Even if it seems unbelievable, this is true and moreover the

proof is extremely short. Let m ≥ 1 be a natural number. Consider the

set A =

n ≥ 1[

a

mn

mn

≥

1

m

**. This set contains and it is bounded, since
**

lim

n→∞

a

mn

mn

= 0. Thus it has a maximal element k. If

a

mk

mk

=

1

m

, then

m is in the sequence

n

a

n

n≥1

. Otherwise, we have a

m(k+1)

≥ a

mk

≥

k + 1, which shows that k + 1 is also in the set, contradiction with the

maximality of k. The lemma is proved.

Thus, all we need to show is that lim

n→∞

π(n)

n

= 0. Fortunately, this is

well-known and not diﬃcult to prove. There are easier proofs than the

following one, but we prefer to deduce it from a famous and beautiful

result of Erdos.

241

Erdos’s theorem. We have

¸

p≤n

p prime

p ≤ 4

n

.

The proof of this result is magniﬁcient. The proof is by induction.

For small values of n it is clear. Now, assume the inequality true for all

values smaller than n and let us prove that

¸

p≤n

p prime

p ≤ 4

n

. If nis even,

we have nothing to prove, since

¸

p≤n

p prime

=

¸

p≤n−1

p prime

p ≤ 4

n−1

< 4

n

.

Now, assume that n = 2k + 1 and consider the binomial coeﬃcient

2k + 1

k

=

(k + 2) . . . (2k + 1)

k!

.

A simple application of the fact that

2

2k+1

=

¸

i≥0

2k + 1

i

shows that

2k + 1

k

≤ 4

k

.

Thus, using the inductive hypothesis, we ﬁnd that

¸

p≤n

p prime

p ≤

¸

p≤k+1

p prime

p

¸

k+2≤p≤2k+1

p prime

p ≤ 4

k+1

4

k

= 4

n

.

Now, the fact that lim

n→∞

π(n)

n

= 0 is trivial. Indeed, ﬁx k ≥ 1. We

have for all large n the inequality

nlg 4 ≥

¸

k≤p≤n

p prime

lg p ≥ lg k(π(n) −π(k)),

which shows that

π(n) ≤

π(k)

n

+

lg 4

lg k

.

242

This shows of course that lim

n→∞

π(n)

n

= 0. The problem is solved.

It is time now for the last problem, which is, as usual, very hard. We

don’t exaggerate if we say that the following problem is exceptionally

diﬃcult.

Example 10. Let a, b > 1 be natural numbers such that for any

natural number n, a

n

−1[b

n

−1. Prove that b is a natural power of a.

Marius Cavachi, AMM

Solution. This time we will be able to ﬁnd the right convergent

sequence only after some double recurrences. Let us see. So, initially

we are given that there exists a sequence of positive integers (x

1

n

)

n≥1

such that x

1

n

=

b

n

−1

a

n

−1

Then, x

1

n

∼

=

b

a

n

for large values of n. So, we

could expect that the sequence (x

2

n

)

n≥1

, x

2

n

= bx

1

n

−ax

2

n+1

is convergent.

Unfortunately,

x

2

n

=

b

n+1

(a −1) −a

n+1

(b −1) +a −b

(a

n

−1)(a

n+1

−1)

,

which is not necessarily convergent. But... if we look again at this

sequence, we see that for large values of n it grows like

b

a

2

n

, so

much slower. And this is the good idea: repeat this procedure until

the ﬁnal sequence behaves like

b

a

k+1

n

, where k is chosen such that

a

k

≤ b < a

k+1

. Thus, the ﬁnal sequence will converge to 0. Again,

the hard part has just begun, since we have to prove that if we deﬁne

x

i+1

n

= bx

i

n

−a

i

x

i

n+1

then lim

n→∞

x

k+1

n

= 0. This isn’t easy at all. The idea

is to compute x

3

n

and after that to prove the following statement: for

any i ≥ 1 the sequence (x

i

n

)

n≥1

has the form

c

i

b

n

+c

i−1

a

(i−1)n

+ +c

1

a

n

+c

0

(a

n+i−1

−1)(a

n+i−2

−1) . . . (a

n

−1)

for some constants c

0

, c

1

, . . . , c

i

. Proving this is not so hard, the hard part

was to think about it. How can we prove the statement otherwise than by

243

induction? And induction turns out to be quite easy. Supposing that the

statement is true for i, then the corresponding statement for i+1 follows

from x

i+1

n

= bx

i

n

−a

i

x

i

n+1

directly (note that to make the diﬀerence, we

just have to multiply the numerator c

i

b

n

+c

i−1

a

(i−1)n

+ +c

1

a

n

+c

0

with

b and a

n+i

−1. Then, we proceed in the same way with the second fraction

and the term b

n+1

a

n+i

will vanish). So, we have found a formula which

shows that as soon as a

i

> b we have lim

n→∞

x

i

n

= 0. So, we have deduced

that lim

n→∞

x

k+1

n

= 0. Another step of the solution is to take the minimal

index j such that lim

n→∞

x

j

n

= 0. Obviously, j > 1 and the recurrence

relation x

i+1

n

= bx

i

n

−a

i

x

i

n+1

shows that x

i

n

∈ Z for all n, i. Thus, there

exists M such that whenever n ≥ M we have x

j

n

= 0. This is the same

as bx

j−1

n

= a

j

x

j−1

n+1

for all n ≥ M, which implies x

j−1

n

=

b

a

j

n−M

x

j−1

M

for all n ≥ M. Let us suppose that b is not a multiple of a. Since

b

a

j

n−M

x

j−1

M

∈ Z for all n ≥ M, we must have x

j−1

M

= 0 and so

x

j−1

n

= 0 for n ≥ M, which means lim

n→∞

x

j

n

= 0. But this contradicts

the minimality of j. Since we have reached a contradiction, we must

have a[b. Let us write b = ca. Then, the relation a

n

− 1[b

n

− 1 implies

a

n

− 1[c

n

− 1. And now are ﬁnally done. Why? We have just seen that

a

n

− 1[c

n

− 1 for all n ≥ 1. But our previous argument applied for c

instead of b shows that a[c. Thus, c = ad and we deduce again that a[d.

Since this process cannot be inﬁnite, b must be a power of a.

It worth saying that there exist an even stronger result: it is enough

to suppose that a

n

− 1[b

n

− 1 for an inﬁnite number n, but this is a

much more diﬃcult problem. It follows from a result found by Bugeaud,

Corvaja and Zannier in 2003:

If a, b > 1 are multiplicatively independent in Q

∗

(that is log

a

b ∈ Q),

then for any ε > 0 there exists n

0

= n

0

(a, b, ε) such that gcd(a

n

−1, b

n

−

244

1) < 2

εn

for all n ≥ n

0

. Unfortunately, the proof is too advanced to be

presented here.

Problems for training

1. Let f ∈ Z[X] be a polynomial of degree k such that for all n ∈ N

we have

k

**f(n) ∈ Z. Prove that there exists integer numbers a, b such
**

that f(x) = (ax +b)

k

.

2. Find all arithmetic progressions of positive integers (a

n

)

n≥1

such

that for all n ≥ 1 the number a

1

+a

2

+ +a

n

is a perfect square.

Laurentiu Panaitopol, Romanian Olympiad 1991

3. Let p be a polynomial with integer coeﬃcients such that there

exists a sequence of pair wise distinct positive integers (a

n

)

n≥1

such

that p(a

1

) = 0, p(a

2

) = a

1

, p(a

3

) = a

2

, . . . . Find the degree of this

polynomial.

Tournament of the Towns, 2003

4. Let f, g : N

∗

→ N

∗

two functions such that [f(n) −n[ ≤ 2004

√

n

and n

2

+ g

2

(n) = 2f

2

(n). Prove that if f or g is surjective, then these

functions have inﬁnitely many ﬁxed points.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Moldova TST 2004

5. Let a, b be natural numbers such that for any natural number n,

the decimal representation of a +bn contains a sequence of consecutive

digits which form the decimal representation of n (for example, if a =

600, b = 35, n = 16 we have 600 + 16 35 = 1160). Prove that b is a

power of 10.

Tournament of the Towns, 2002

6. Let a, b > 1 be positive integers. Prove that for any given k > 0

there are inﬁnitely many numbers n such that ϕ(an +b) < kn, where ϕ

is the Euler totient function.

245

Gabriel Dospinescu

7. Let b an integer at least equal to 5 and deﬁne the number

x

n

= 11 . . . 1

. .. .

n−1

22 . . . 2

. .. .

n

5 in base b. Prove that x

n

is a perfect square for

all suﬃciently large n if and only if b = 10.

Laurentiu Panaitopol, IMO Shortlist 2004

8. Find all triplets of integer numbers a, b, c such that for any positive

integer n, a 2

n

+b is a divisor of c

n

+ 1.

Gabriel Dospinescu

11. Suppose that a is a real number such that all numbers

1

a

, 2

a

, 3

a

, . . . are integers. Then prove that a is also integer.

Putnam

12. Find all complex polynomials f having the property: there exists

a ≥ 2 a natural number such that for all suﬃciently large n, the equation

f(x) = a

n

2

has at least a positive rational solution.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Revue de Mathematiques Speciales

13. Let f be a complex polynomial having the property that for all

natural number n, the equation f(x) = n has at least a rational solution.

Then f has degree at most 1.

Mathlinks Contest

14. Let A be a set of natural numbers, which contains at least one

number among any 2006 consecutive natural numbers and let f a non-

constant polynomial with integer coeﬃcients. Prove that there exists a

number N such that for any n ≥ N there are at least

√

ln ln n diﬀerent

prime numbers dividing the number

¸

N≤k≤n

k∈A

f(k).

Gabriel Dospinescu

246

15. Prove that in any strictly increasing sequence of positive integers

(a

n

)

n≥1

which satisﬁes a

n

< 100n for all n, one can ﬁnd inﬁnitely many

terms containing at least 1986 consecutive 1.

Kvant

16. Any inﬁnite arithmetical progression contains inﬁnitely many

terms that are not powers of integers.

17. Find all a, b, c such that for all suﬃciently large n, the number

a 4

n

+b 6

n

+c 9

n

is a perfect square.

18. Let f, g two real polynomials of degree 2 such that for any real

x, if f(x) is integer, so is g(x). Then there are integers m, n such that

g(x) = mf(x) +n for all x.

Bulgarian Olympiad

19. Try to generalize the preceding problem (this is for the die-

hards!!!).

20. Find all pairs of natural numbers a, b such that for every positive

integer n the number an +b is triangular if and only if n is triangular.

After a Putnam problem

21. Let (a

n

)

n≥1

be an inﬁnite and strictly increasing sequence of

positive integers such that for all n ≥ 2002, a

n

[a

1

+ a

2

+ + a

n−1

.

Prove that there exists n

0

such that for all n ≥ n

0

we have a

n

= a

1

+

a

2

+ +a

n−1

.

Tournament of the Towns, 2002

22. Find all real polynomials such that the image of any repunit is

also a repunit.

After a problem from Kvant

247

23. Fie doua multimi ﬁnite de numere reale pozitive cu proprietatea

ca

¸

x∈A

x

n

[ n ∈ R

¸

⊂

¸

x∈B

x

n

[ n ∈ R

¸

.

Sa se arate ca exista k ∈ R astfel incat A = ¦x

k

[ x ∈ B¦.

Gabriel Dospinescu

248

QUADRATIC RECIPROCITY

For an odd prime p, deﬁne the function

a

p

: Z → ¦−1, 1¦ by

a

p

= 1 if the equation x

2

= a has at least a solution in Z

p

and, other-

wise,

a

p

**= −1. In the ﬁrst case, we say that a is a quadratic residue
**

modulo p, otherwise we say that it is a non quadratic residue modulo

p. This function is called Legendre’s symbol and plays a fundamental

role in number theory. Perhaps the most remarkable result involving

this symbol is Gauss’s quadratic reciprocity law. This states that for

diﬀerent odd prime numbers p, q the following equality holds:

p

q

q

p

= (−1)

p−1

2

q−1

2

.

This is a nontrivial result whose proof will be sketched later. Until

then, we will unfold some easier properties of Legendre’s symbol. First,

let us present an useful theoretical (but not practical at all) way of

computing

a

p

due to Euler.

Theorem. The following identity is true:

a

p

= a

p−1

2

(mod p).

We will prove this result and many other simple remarks concerning

quadratic residues in what follows. First, let us assume that

a

p

= 1

and consider x a solution of the equation x

2

= a in Z

p

. Using Fermat’s

theorem, we ﬁnd that a

p−1

2

= x

p−1

= 1 (mod p). Thus the equality

a

p

= a

p−1

2

(mod p) holds for all quadratic residues a modulo p. In

addition, for any quadratic residue we have a

p−1

2

= 1 (mod p). Now, we

will prove that there are exactly

p −1

2

quadratic residues in Z

p

` ¦0¦.

This will enable us to conclude that quadratic residues are precisely the

249

roots of the polynomial X

p−1

2

− 1 and also that non quadratic residues

are exactly the roots of the polynomial X

p−1

2

+ 1 (from Fermat’s little

theorem). Note that Fermat’s little theorem implies that the polynomial

X

p−1

− 1 = (X

p−1

2

− 1)(X

p−1

2

+ 1) has exactly p − 1 roots in the ﬁeld

Z

p

. But in a ﬁeld, the number of diﬀerent zeros of a polynomial cannot

exceed its degree. Thus each of the polynomials X

p−1

2

−1 and X

p−1

2

+1

has at most

p −1

2

zeros in Z

p

. These two observations show that in fact

each of these polynomials has exactly

p −1

2

zeros in Z

p

. Let us observe

next that there are at least

p −1

2

quadratic residues modulo p. Indeed,

all numbers i

2

(mod p) with 1 ≤ i ≤

p −1

2

are quadratic residues and

they are all diﬀerent. This shows that there are exactly

p −1

2

quadratic

residues in Z

p

` ¦0¦ and also proves Euler’s criterion.

We have said that Euler’s criterion is a very useful result. Indeed, it

allows a very quick proof of the fact that

a

p

: Z → ¦−1, 1¦ is a group

morphism. Indeed, we have

ab

p

= (ab)

p−1

2

(mod p) = a

p−1

2

b

p−1

2

(mod p) =

a

p

b

p

.

The relation

ab

p

=

a

p

b

p

**shows that while studying Le-
**

gendre’s symbol, it suﬃces to focus on the prime numbers only. Also,

the same Euler’s criterion implies that

a

p

=

b

p

whenever a ≡ b

(mod p).

It is now time to come back to Gauss’s celebrated quadratic reci-

procity law. First of all, we will prove a lemma (due to Gauss).

Lemma. Let p be an odd prime and let a ∈ Z such that gcd(a, p) = 1.

If m is the number of positive integers x such that x <

p

2

and

p

2

< ax

(mod p) < p, then

a

p

= (−1)

m

.

250

Proof. Let x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

m

be those numbers x for which x <

p

2

and

p

2

< ax (mod p) < p. Let k =

p −2

2

− m and y

1

, . . . , y

k

all numbers

smaller than

p

2

, diﬀerent from x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

m

.

Observe that

p−1

2

¸

x=1

(ax) = a

p−1

2

p −1

2

! ≡

a

p

p −1

2

! (mod p).

On the other hand,

p−1

2

¸

x=1

(ax) =

¸

ax (mod p)>

p

2

(ax) (mod p)

¸

ax (mod p)<

p

2

(ax) (mod p).

We clearly have

¸

ax (mod p)>

p

2

(ax) (mod p)

¸

ax (mod p)<

p

2

(ax) (mod p)

=

m

¸

i=1

ax

i

(mod p)

k

¸

j=1

ay

i

(mod p).

On the other hand, the numbers p − ax

i

(mod p) and ay

i

(mod p)

give a partition of 1, 2, . . . ,

p −1

2

(mod p). Indeed, it suﬃces to prove

that p − ax

i

(mod p) = ay

j

(mod p), which is clearly true by the deﬁ-

nition of x

i

, y

j

<

p

2

. Hence we can write

m

¸

i=1

ax

i

(mod p)

k

¸

j=1

ay

i

(mod p)

= (−1)

m

m

¸

i=1

(p −ax

i

(mod p))

k

¸

j=1

ay

j

(mod p)

≡ (−1)

m

p−1

2

¸

i=1

i (mod p) = (−1)

m

p −1

2

! (mod p).

Combining these facts, we ﬁnally deduce that

a

p

= (−1)

m

.

251

Using Gauss’s lemma, the reader will enjoy proving the next two

classical results.

Theorem. The identity

2

p

= (−1)

p

2

−1

8

holds for any odd prime

number p.

Theorem. (quadratic reciprocity law) For any diﬀerent odd primes

p, q, the following identity holds:

p

q

q

p

= (−1)

p−1

2

q−1

2

.

Using this powerful arsenal, we are now able to solve some interest-

ing problems. Most of them are merely direct applications of the above

results, but we think that they are still worthy not necessarily because

they appeared in various contests.

Example 1. Prove that the number 2

n

+ 1 does not have prime

divisors of the form 8k −1.

Vietnam TST 2004

Solution. Indeed, assume that p is a prime divisor of the form 8k−1

that divides 2

n

+ 1. Of course, if n is even, the contradiction is im-

mediate, since in this case we would have −1 ≡ (2

n

2

)

2

(mod p) and

so −1 = (−1)

p−1

2

=

−1

p

**= 1. Now, assume that n is odd. Then
**

−2 ≡ (2

n+1

2

)

2

(mod p) and so

−2

p

**= 1. This can be also written in
**

the form

−1

p

2

p

= 1, or (−1)

p−1

2

+

p

2

−1

8

= 1. Fortunately, if p is of

the form 8k −1 the later cannot hold and this is the contradiction that

solves the problem.

Based on the same idea and with a bit more work, we arrive at the

following result.

Example 2. Prove that for any positive integer n, the number 2

3

n

+1

has at least n prime divisors of the form 8k + 3.

252

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Using the result of the previous problem, we deduce that

2

n

+ 1 does not have prime divisors of the form 8k + 7. We will prove

that if n is odd, then it has no prime divisors of the form 8k +5 either.

Indeed, let p be a prime divisor of 2

n

+ 1. Then 2

n

≡ −1 (mod p) and

so −2 ≡ (2

n+1

2

)

2

(mod p). Using the same argument as the one in the

previous problem, we deduce that

p

2

−1

8

+

p −1

2

is even, which cannot

happen if p is of the form 8k + 5.

Now, let us solve the proposed problem. We will assume n > 2

(otherwise the veriﬁcation is trivial). The essential observation is the

identity:

2

3

n

+ 1 = (2 + 1)(2

2

−2 + 1)(2

23

−2

3

+ 1) . . . (2

23

n−1

−2

3

n−1

+ 1)

Now, we will prove that for all 1 ≤ i < j ≤ n − 1, gcd(2

23

i

− 2

3

i

+

1, 2

23

j

−2

3

j

+1) = 3. Indeed, assume that p is a prime number dividing

gcd(2

23

i

−2

3

i

+ 1, 2

23

j

−2

3

j

+ 1) We will then have p[2

3

i+1

+ 1. Thus,

2

3

j

≡ (2

3

i+1

)

3

j−i−1

≡ (−1)

3

j−i−1

≡ −1 (mod p),

implying

0 ≡ 2

23

j

−2

3

j

+ 1 ≡ 1 −(−1) + 1 ≡ 3 (mod p).

This cannot happen unless p = 3. But since v

3

(gcd(2

23

i

− 2

3

i

+

1, 2

23

j

−2

3

j

+ 1)) = 1 (as one can immediately check), it follows that

gcd(2

23

i

−2

3

i

+ 1, 2

23

j

−2

3

j

+ 1) = 3

and the claim is proved.

It remains to show that each of the numbers 2

23

i

− 2

3

i

+ 1, with

1 ≤ i ≤ n − 1 has at least a prime divisor of the form 8k + 3 diﬀerent

from 3. It would follow in this case that 2

3

n

+1 has at least n−1 distinct

prime divisors of the form 8k+3 (from the previous remarks) and since it

253

is also divisible by 3, the conclusion would follow. Fix i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n−1¦

and observe that any prime factor of 2

23

i

−2

3

i

+1 is also a prime factor

of 2

3

n

+1 and thus, from the ﬁrst remark, it must be of the form 8k +1

or 8k + 3. Because v

3

(2

23

i

− 2

3

i

+ 1) = 1, it follows that if all prime

divisors of 2

23

i

− 2

3

i

+ 1 except for 3 are of the form 8k + 1, then

2

23

i

− 2

3

i

+ 1 ≡ 8 (mod 8), which is clearly impossible. Thus at least

a prime divisor of 2

23

i

− 2

3

i

+ 1 is diﬀerent from 3 and is of the form

8k + 3 and so the claim is proved. The conclusion follows.

At ﬁrst glance, the following problem seems trivial. Far from being

true! It is actually very tricky, because brute force will take us nowhere.

In the framework of the above results, this should not be so diﬃcult

now.

Example 3. Find a number n between 100 and 1997 such that

n[2

n

+ 2.

APMO, 1997

Solution. If we search for odd numbers, then we will certainly fail

(actually, this result due to Sierpinski has been proved in the topic ”Look

at the exponent!”). So let us search for even numbers. The ﬁrst step

would be choosing n = 2p, for some prime number p. Unfortunately this

cannot work by Fermat’s little theorem. So let us try setting n = 2pq,

with p, q diﬀerent prime numbers. We need pq[2

2pq−1

+ 1 and so we

must have

−2

p

=

−2

q

**= 1. Also, using Fermat’s little theorem,
**

p[2

2q−1

+ 1 and q[2

2p−1

+ 1. A small veriﬁcation shows that q = 3, 5, 7

are not good choices, so let us try q = 11. In this case we ﬁnd p = 43

and so it suﬃces to show that pq[2

2pq−1

+ 1 for q = 11 and p = 43.

This is immediate, since the hard work has already been completed: we

have shown that it suﬃces to have p[q

2q−1

, q[2

2p−1

+ 1, and

−2

p

=

254

−2

q

= 1 in order to have pq[2

2pq−1

+1. But as one can easily check, all

these conditions are veriﬁed and the number 2 11 43 is a valid answer.

Were we wrong when choosing to present the following example? It

apparently has no connection with quadratic reciprocity, but let us take

a closer look.

Example 4. Let f, g : Z

+

→ Z

+

functions with the properties:

i) g is surjective;

ii) 2f

2

(n) = n

2

+g

2

(n) for all positive integers n.

If, moreover, [f(n)−n[ ≤ 2004

√

n for all n, prove that f has inﬁnitely

many ﬁxed points.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Moldova TST, 2005

Solution. Let p

n

be the sequence of prime numbers of the form

8k + 3 (the fact that there are inﬁnitely many such numbers is a trivial

consequence of Dirichlet’s theorem, but we invite the reader to ﬁnd an

elementary proof). It is obvious that for all n we have

2

p

n

= (−1)

p

2

n

−1

8

= −1.

Using the condition i) we can ﬁnd x

n

such that g(x

n

) = p

n

for all n. It

follows that 2f

2

(x

n

) = x

2

n

+p

2

n

, which can be rewritten as 2f

2

(x

n

) ≡ x

2

n

(mod p

n

). Because

2

p

n

**= −1, the last congruence shows that p
**

n

[x

n

and p

n

[f(x

n

). Thus there exist sequences of positive integers a

n

, b

n

such

that x

n

= a

n

p

n

, f(x

n

) = b

n

p

n

for all n. Clearly, ii) implies the relation

2b

2

n

= a

2

n

+ 1. Finally, using the property [f(n) −n[ ≤ 2004

√

n we infer

that

2004

√

x

n

≥

f(x

n

)

x

n

−1

=

b

n

a

n

−1

,

that is

lim

n→∞

a

2

n

+ 1

a

n

=

√

2.

255

The last relation immediately implies that lim

n→∞

a

n

= 1. Therefore,

starting from a certain rank, we have a

n

= 1 = b

n

that is f(p

n

) = p

n

.

The conclusion now follows.

We continue with a diﬃcult classical result, that often proves very

useful. It characterizes numbers that are quadratic residues modulo all

suﬃciently large prime numbers. Of course, perfect square are such num-

bers, but how to prove that they are the only ones?

Example 5. Suppose that a ∈ N is not a perfect square. Then

a

p

**= −1 for inﬁnitely many prime numbers p.
**

Solution. One may assume that a is square-free. Let us write a =

2

e

q

1

q

2

. . . q

n

, where q

i

are diﬀerent odd primes and e ∈ ¦0, 1¦. Let us

assume ﬁrst that n ≥ 1 and consider some odd distinct primes r

1

, . . . , r

k

each of them diﬀerent from q

1

, . . . , q

n

. We will show that there exists a

prime p, diﬀerent from r

1

, . . . , r

k

, such that

a

p

= −1. Let s be a non

quadratic residue modulo q

n

.

Using the Chinese remainder theorem, we can ﬁnd a positive integer

b such that

b ≡ 1 (mod r

i

), 1 ≤ i ≤ k

b ≡ 1 (mod 8),

b ≡ 1q

i

, 1 ≤ i ≤ n −1

b ≡ s (mod q

n

)

Now, write b = p

1

. . . p

m

with p

i

odd primes, not necessarily distinct.

Using the quadratic reciprocity law, it follows immediately that

m

¸

i=1

2

p

i

=

m

¸

i=1

(−1)

p

2

i

−1

8

= (−1)

b

2

−1

8

= 1

and

m

¸

j=1

q

i

p

j

=

m

¸

j=1

(−1)

p

j

−1

2

q

i

−1

2

p

j

q

i

= (−1)

q

i

−1

2

b−1

2

b

q

i

=

b

q

i

256

for all i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦. Hence

m

¸

i=1

a

p

i

=

m

¸

j=1

2

p

j

¸

¸

2

n

¸

i=1

m

¸

j=1

q

i

p

j

=

n

¸

i=1

b

q

i

=

b

q

n

=

s

q

n

= −1.

Thus, there exists i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , m¦ such that

a

p

i

= −1. Because

b ≡ 1 (mod r

i

), 1 ≤ i ≤ k we also have p

i

∈ ¦1, 2, . . . ¦ ` ¦r

1

, . . . , r

k

¦ and

the claim is proved.

The only remaining case is a = 2. But this one is very simple, since it

suﬃces to use Dirichlet’s theorem to ﬁnd inﬁnitely many primes p such

that

p

2

−1

8

is odd.

As in other units, we will now focus on a special case. This time it is

a problem almost trivial in the above framework and almost impossible

to solve otherwise (we say almost because there is a beautiful, but very

diﬃcult solution using analytical tools, that we will not present here).

Example 6. Suppose that a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

2004

are nonnegative integers

such that a

n

1

+a

n

2

+ +a

n

2004

is a perfect square for all positive integers

n. What is the minimal number of such integers that must equal 0?

Gabriel Dospinescu, Mathlinks Contest

Solution. Suppose that a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

k

are positive integers such that

a

n

1

+ a

n

2

+ + a

n

k

is a perfect square for all n. We will show that k

is a perfect square. In order to prove this, we will use the above result

and show that

k

p

**= 1 for all suﬃciently large prime p. This is not a
**

diﬃcult task. Indeed, consider a prime p, greater than any prime divisor

of a

1

a

2

. . . a

k

. Using Fermat’s little theorem, a

p−1

1

+a

p−1

2

+ +a

p−1

k

≡ k

(mod p), and since a

p−1

1

+a

p−1

2

+ +a

p−1

k

is a perfect square, it follows

that

k

p

**= 1. Thus k is a perfect square. And now the problem becomes
**

257

trivial, since we must ﬁnd the greatest perfect square smaller than 2004.

A quick computation shows that this is 44

2

= 1936 and so the desired

minimal number is 68.

Here is another nice application of this idea. The following example

is adapted after a problem given in Saint Petersburg Olympiad.

Example 7. Suppose that f ∈ Z[X] is a second degree polynomial

such that for any prime p there exists at least an integer n for which

p[f(n). Prove that f has rational zeros.

Solution. Let f(x) = ax

2

+ bx + c be this polynomial. It suﬃces

of course to prove that b

2

− 4ac is a perfect square. This boils down

to proving that it is a quadratic residue modulo any suﬃciently large

prime. Pick a prime number p and an integer n such that p[f(n). Then

b

2

−4ac ≡ (2an +b)

2

(mod p)

and so

b

2

−4ac

p

= 1.

This shows that our claim is true and ﬁnishes the solution.

Some of the properties of Legendre’s symbol can be also found in

the following problem.

Example 8. Let p be an odd prime and let

f(x) =

p−1

¸

i=1

i

p

X

i−1

.

a) Prove that f is divisible by X−1 but not by (X−1)

2

if and only

if p ≡ 3 (mod 4);

b) Prove that if p ≡ 5 (mod 8) then f is divisible by (X − 1)

2

and

not by (X −1)

3

.

Romanian TST, 2004

258

Solution. The ﬁrst question is not diﬃcult at all. Observe that

f(1) =

p−1

¸

i=1

i

p

= 0

by the simple fact that there are exactly

p −1

2

quadratic and non qua-

dratic residues in ¦1, 2, . . . p −1¦. Also,

f

t

(1) =

p−1

¸

i=1

(i −1)

i

p

=

p−1

¸

i=1

i

i

p

,

because f(1) = 0. The same idea of summing up in reversed order allows

us to write:

p−1

¸

i=1

i

i

p

=

p−1

¸

i=1

(p −i)

p −i

p

= (−1)

p−1

2

p−1

¸

i=1

2(p −i)

i

p

= −(−1)

p−1

2

f

t

(1)

(we used again the fact that f(1) = 0).

Hence for p ≡ 1 (mod 4) we must also have f

t

(1) = 0. In this case

f is divisible by (X −1)

2

. On the other hand, if p ≡ 3 (mod 4), then

f

t

(1) =

p−1

¸

i=1

i

i

p

≡

p−1

¸

i=1

i =

p(p −1)

2

≡ 1 (mod 2)

and so f is divisible by X −1 but not by (X −1)

2

.

The second question is much more technical, even though it uses the

same main idea. Observe that

f

tt

(1) =

p−1

¸

i=1

(i

2

−3i + 2)

i

p

=

p−1

¸

i=1

i

2

i

p

−3

p−1

¸

i=1

i

i

p

**(once again we use the fact that f(1) = 0). Observe that the condition
**

p ≡ 5 (mod 8) implies, by a), that f is divisible by (X −1)

2

so actually

f

tt

(1) =

p−1

¸

i=1

i

2

i

p

.

259

Let us break this sum into two pieces and treat each of them inde-

pendently. Let us deal with

p−1

2

¸

i=1

(2i)

2

2i

p

= 4

2

p

p−1

2

¸

i=1

i

2

i

p

.

Note that

p−1

2

¸

i=1

i

2

i

p

≡

p−1

2

¸

i=1

i

2

≡

p−1

2

¸

i=1

i =

p

2

−1

8

≡ 1 (mod 2),

so

p−1

2

¸

i=1

(2i)

2

2i

p

≡ ± (mod 8)

(actually, using the fact that

2

p

= (−1)

p

2

−1

8

, we obtain that its value

is −4). On the other hand,

p−1

2

¸

i=1

(2i −1)

2

2i −1

p

≡

p−1

2

¸

i=1

2i −1

p

(mod 8).

If we prove that the last quantity is a multiple of 8, then the problem

will be solved. But note that f(1) = 0 implies

0 =

p−1

2

¸

i=1

2i

p

+

p−1

2

¸

i=1

2i −1

p

.

Also,

p−1

2

¸

i=1

2i

p

= 1 +

p−3

2

¸

i=1

2i

p

= 1 +

p−3

2

¸

i=1

¸

¸

¸

2

p −1

2

−i

p

¸

= 1 +

p−3

2

¸

i=1

2i + 1

p

=

p−1

2

¸

i=1

2i −1

p

.

Therefore

p−1

2

¸

i=1

2i −1

p

**= 0 and the problem is ﬁnally solved.
**

260

Finally, a diﬃcult problem.

Example 9. Find all positive integers n such that 2

n

−1[3

n

−1.

Solution. We will prove that n = 1 is the only solution to the

problem. Suppose that n > 1 is a solution. Then 2

n

− 1 cannot be a

multiple of 3, hence n is odd. Therefore, 2

n

≡ 8 (mod 12). Because any

odd prime diﬀerent from 3 is of one of the forms 12k±1, 12k±5 and since

2

n

−1 ≡ 7 (mod 12), it follows that 2

n

−1 has at least a prime divisor

of the form 12k ± 5, call it p. Obviously, we must have

3

p

= 1 and

using the quadratic reciprocity law, we ﬁnally obtain

p

3

= (−1)

p−1

2

.

On the other hand

p

3

=

±2

3

= −(±1). Consequently, −(±1) =

(−1)

p−1

2

= ±1, which is the desired contradiction. Therefore the only

solution is n = 1.

Problems for training

1. Prove that for any odd prime p, the smallest positive quadratic

non residue modulo p is smaller than 1 +

√

p.

2. Let p be a prime number. Prove that the following statements are

equivalent:

i) there is a positive integer n such that p[n

2

−n + 3;

ii) there is a positive integer m such that p[m

2

−m+ 25.

Polish Olympiad

3. Let x

1

= 7 and let x

n+1

= 2x

2

n

− 1. Prove that 2003 does not

divide any term of the sequence.

Valentin Vornicu, Mathlinks Contest

4. Let p be a prime of the form 4k + 1. Compute

p−1

¸

k=1

¸

2k

2

p

−2

¸

k

2

p

.

261

Korea TST 2000

5. Prove that the number 3

n

+2 does not have prime divisors of the

form 24k + 13.

Laurentiu Panaitopol, Gazeta Matematica

6. What is the number of solutions to the equation a

2

+ b

2

= 1 in

Z

p

Z

p

. What about the equation a

2

−b

2

= 1?

7. Suppose that p is an odd prime and that A, B are two diﬀerent

non empty subsets of ¦1, 2, . . . , p −1¦ for which

i) A∪ B = ¦1, 2, . . . , p −1¦;

ii) If a, b are in the same set among A, B, then ab (mod p) ∈ A;

iii) If a ∈ A, b ∈ B, then ab ∈ B.

Find all such subsets A, B.

India

8. Let a, b, c be positive integers such that b

2

− 4ac is not a perfect

square. Prove that for any n > 1 there are n consecutive positive integers,

none of which can be written in the form (ax

2

+ bxy + cy

2

)

z

for some

integers x, y and some positive integer z.

Gabriel Dospinescu

9. Let be integers relatively prime with an odd prime p. Prove that:

p−1

¸

i=1

ai

2

+bi

p

= −

a

p

.

10. Compute

p−1

¸

k=1

f(k)

p

**, where f is a polynomial with integral
**

coeﬃcients and p is an odd prime.

11. Suppose that for a certain prime p, the values the polynomial

with integral coeﬃcients f(x) = ax

2

+bx+c takes at 2p −1 consecutive

integers are perfect squares. Prove that p[b

2

−4ac.

IMO Shortlist

262

12. Suppose that φ(5

m

− 1) = 5

n

− 1 for a pair (m, n) of positive

integers. Here φ is Euler’s totient function. Prove that gcd(m, n) > 1.

Taiwan TST

13. Let p be a prime of the form 4k+1 such that p

2

[2

p

−2. Prove that

the greatest prime divisor q of 2

p

−1 satisﬁes the inequality 2

q

> (6p)

p

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

263

SOLVING ELEMENTARY INEQUALITIES WITH

INTEGRALS

Why are integral pertinent for solving inequalities? Well, when we

say integral, we say in fact area. And area is a measurable concept, a

comparable one. That is why there are plenty of inequalities which can

be solved with integrals, some of them with a completely elementary

statement. They seem elementary, but sometimes ﬁnding elementary

solutions for them is a real challenge. Instead, there are beautiful and

short solutions using integrals. Of course, the hard part is to ﬁnd the

integral that hides after the elementary form of the inequality (and to

be sincere, the idea of using integrals to solve elementary inequalities

is practically inexistent in Olympiad books). First, let us state some

properties of integrals that we will use here.

1) For any integrable function f : [a, b] →R we have

b

a

f

2

(x)dx ≥ 0.

2) For any integrable functions f, g : [a, b] → R such that f ≤ g we

have

b

a

f(x)dx ≤

b

a

g(x)dx (monotony for integrals).

3) For any integrable functions f, g : [a, b] →R and any real numbers

α, β we have

b

a

(αf(x)+βg(x))dx = α

b

a

f(x)dx+β

b

a

g(x) (linearity of integrals).

Also, the well-known elementary inequalities of Cauchy-Schwarz,

Chebyshev, Minkowski, H¨older, Jensen, Young have corresponding in-

tegral inequalities, which are derived immediately from the algebraic

inequalities (indeed, one just have to apply the corresponding inequal-

ities for the numbers f

a +

k

n

(b −a)

, g

a +

k

n

(b −a)

, . . . with

264

k ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ and to use the fact that

b

a

f(x)dx = lim

n→∞

b −a

n

n

¸

k=1

f

a +

k

n

(b −a)

.

The reader will take a look at the glossary if he doesn’t manage to

state them.

It seems at ﬁrst glance that this is not a very intricate and diﬃcult

theory. Totally false! We will see how strong is this theory of integration

and especially how hard it is to look beneath the elementary surface

of a problem. To convince yourself of the strength of the integral, take

a look at the following beautiful proof of the AM-GM inequality using

integrals. This magniﬁcent proof was found by H. Alzer and published

in the American Mathematical Monthly.

Example 1. Prove that for any a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

≥ 0 we have the in-

equality

a

1

+a

2

+ +a

n

n

≥

n

√

a

1

a

2

. . . a

n

.

Solution. Let us suppose that a

1

≤ a

2

≤ ≤ a

n

and let

A =

a

1

+a

2

+ +a

n

n

, B =

n

√

a

1

a

2

. . . a

n

.

Of course, we can ﬁnd an index k ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , n − 1¦ such that

a

k

≤ G ≤ a

k+1

. Then it is immediate to see that

A

G

−1 =

1

n

k

¸

i=1

G

a

i

1

t

−

1

G

dt +

1

n

n

¸

i=k+1

a

i

G

1

G

−

1

t

dt

and the last quantity is clearly nonnegative, since each integral is non-

negative.

Truly wonderful, isn’t it? So, after all, integrals are nice! This is also

conﬁrmed by the following problem, an absolute classic whose solution

by induction can be a real nightmare.

265

Example 2. Prove that for any real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

the fol-

lowing inequality holds:

n

¸

i=1

n

¸

j=1

a

i

a

j

i +j

≥ 0.

Poland Mathematical Olympiad

Solution. Now, we will see how easy is this problem if we manage

to handle integrals and especially to see from where they come. The

essential suggestion is the observation that

a

i

a

j

i +j

=

1

0

a

i

a

j

t

i+j−1

dt.

And now the problem is solved. What follows are just formalities;

the hard part was translating the inequality. After that, we will decide

what is better to do. So,

n

¸

i,j=1

a

i

a

j

i +j

≥ 0

is equivalent to

n

¸

i,j=1

1

0

a

i

a

j

t

i+j−1

dt ≥ 0,

or, using the linearity of the integrals, to

1

0

¸

n

¸

i,j=1

a

i

a

j

t

i+j−1

¸

dt ≥ 0.

This form suggests us that we should use the ﬁrst property, that is

we should ﬁnd an integrable function f such that

f

2

(t) =

n

¸

i,j=1

a

i

a

j

t

i+j−1

dt.

This isn’t hard, because the formula

n

¸

i=1

a

i

x

i

2

=

n

¸

i,j=1

a

i

a

j

x

i

x

j

266

solves the task. We just have to take

f(x) =

n

¸

i=1

a

i

x

i−

1

2

.

We continue the series of direct applications of classical integral in-

equalities with a problem proposed by Walther Janous and which may

also put serious problems if not attacked appropriately.

Example 3. Let t ≥ 0 and the sequence (x

n

)

n≥1

deﬁned by

x

n

=

1 +t + +t

n

n + 1

.

Prove that

x

1

≤

√

x

2

≤

3

√

x

3

≤

4

√

x

4

≤ . . .

Walther Janous, Crux Mathematicorum

Solution. It is clear that for t > 1 we have

x

n

=

1

t −1

t

1

u

n

du

and for t < 1 we have

x

n

=

1

1 −t

t

1

u

n

du.

This is how the inequality to be proved reduces to the more general

inequality

k

b

a

f

k

(x)dx

b −a

≤

k+1

b

a

f

k+1

(x)dx

b −a

for all k ≥ 1 and any nonnegative integrable function f : [a, b] → R.

And yes, this is a consequence of the Power Mean Inequality for integral

functions.

The following problem has a long and quite complicated proof by

induction. Yet, using integrals it becomes trivial.

267

Example 4. Prove that for any positive real numbers x, y and any

positive integers m, n

(n −1)(m−1)(x

m+n

+y

m+n

) + (m+n −1)(x

m

y

n

+x

n

y

m

)

≥ mn(x

m+n−1

y +y

m+n−1

x).

Austrian-Polish Competition ,1995

Solution. We transform the inequality as follows:

mn(x −y)(x

m+n−1

−y

m+n−1

) ≥ (m+n −1)(x

m

−y

m

)(x

n

−y

n

) ⇔

x

m+n−1

−y

m+n−1

(m+n −1)(x −y)

≥

x

m

−y

m

m(x −y)

x

n

−y

n

n(x −y)

(we have assumed that x > y). The last relations can be immediately

translated with integrals in the form

(y −x)

x

y

t

m+n−2

dt ≥

x

y

t

m−1

dt

x

y

t

n−1

dt.

And this follows from the integral form of Chebyshev inequality.

A nice blending of arithmetic and geometric inequality as well as

integral calculus allows us to give a beautiful short proof of the following

inequality.

Example 5. Let x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

k

be positive real numbers and m, n

positive real numbers such that n ≤ km. Prove that

m(x

n

1

+x

n

2

+ +x

n

k

−k) ≥ n(x

m

1

x

m

2

. . . x

m

k

−1).

IMO Shortlist 1985, proposed by Poland

Solution. Applying AM-GM inequality, we ﬁnd that

m(x

n

1

+ +x

n

k

−k) ≥ m(k

k

(x

1

x

2

. . . x

k

)

n

−k).

Let

P =

k

√

x

1

x

2

. . . x

k

.

268

We have to prove that

mkP

n

−mk ≥ nP

mk

−n,

which is the same as

P

n

−1

n

≥

P

mk

−1

mk

.

This follows immediately from the fact that

P

x

−1

xln P

=

1

0

e

xt ln P

dt.

We have seen a rapid but diﬃcult proof for the following problem,

using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. Well, the problem originated by

playing around with integral inequalities and the following solution will

show how one can create diﬃcult problems starting from trivial ones.

Example 6. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c such

that a +b +c = 1 we have

(ab +bc +ca)

a

b

2

+b

+

b

c

2

+c

+

c

a

2

+a

≥

3

4

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. As in the previous problem, the most important aspect

is to translate the expression

a

b

2

+b

+

b

c

2

+c

+

c

a

2

+a

in the integral

language. Fortunately, this isn’t diﬃcult, since it is just

1

0

a

(x +b)

2

+

b

(x +c)

2

+

c

(x +a)

2

dx.

Now, using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we infer that

a

(x +b)

2

+

b

(x +c)

2

+

c

(x +a)

2

≥

a

x +b

+

b

x +c

+

c

a +x

2

.

Using again the same inequality, we minor

a

x +b

+

b

x +c

+

c

a +x

with

1

x +ab +bc +ca

. Consequently,

a

(x +b)

2

+

b

(x +c)

2

+

c

(x +a)

2

≥

1

(x +ab +bc +ca)

2

269

and we can integrate this to ﬁnd that

a

b

2

+b

+

b

c

2

+c

+

c

a

2

+a

≥

1

(ab +bc +ca)(ab +bc +ca + 1)

.

Now, all we have to do is to notice that

ab +bc +ca + 1 ≤

4

3

.

Now, another question for the interested reader: can we prove the

general case (solved in Cauchy Schwarz’s inequality topic) using integral

calculus? It seems a diﬃcult problem.

There is an important similarity between the following problem and

example 2, yet here it is much more diﬃcult to see the relation with

integral calculus.

Example 7. Let n ≥ 2 and S the set of the sequences

(a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

) ⊂ [0, ∞) which verify

n

¸

i=1

n

¸

j=1

1 −a

i

a

j

1 +j

≥ 0.

Find the maximum value of the expression

n

¸

i=1

n

¸

j=1

a

i

+a

j

i +j

, over all

sequences from S.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Consider the function f : R →R, f(x) = a

1

+a

2

x+ +

a

n

x

n−1

. Let us observe that

n

¸

i=1

n

¸

j=1

a

i

a

j

i +j

=

n

¸

i=1

a

i

¸

n

¸

j=1

a

j

i +j

¸

=

n

¸

i=1

a

i

1

0

x

i

f(x)dx

=

1

0

xf(x)

n

¸

i=1

a

i

x

i−1

dx =

1

0

xf

2

(x)dx.

270

So, if we denote M =

¸

1≤i,j≤n

1

i +j

, we infer that

1

0

xf

2

(x)dx ≤ M.

On the other hand, we have the identity

n

¸

i=1

n

¸

j=1

a

i

+a

j

i +j

= 2

a

1

2

+ +

a

n

n + 1

+ +

a

1

n + 1

+ +

a

n

2n

= 2

1

0

(x +x

2

+ +x

n

)f(x)dx.

This was the hard part: translating the properties of the sequences

in S and also the conclusion. Now, the problem becomes easy, since we

must ﬁnd the maximal value of

2

1

0

(x +x

2

+ +x

n

)f(x)dx

where

1

0

xf

2

(x)dx ≤ M.

Well, Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for integrals is the way to proceed.

Indeed, we have

1

0

(x +x

2

+ +x

n

)f(x)dx

2

=

1

0

xf

2

(x)

x(1 +x + +x

n−1

)

2

dx

2

=

1

0

xf

2

(x)dx

1

0

(1 +x + +x

n−1

)

2

dx ≤ M

2

.

This shows that

n

¸

i=1

n

¸

j=1

a

i

+a

j

i +j

≤ 2M and now the conclusion easily

follows: the maximal value is 2

¸

1≤i,j≤n

1

i +j

, attained for a

1

= a

2

= =

a

n

= 1.

271

Two more words about fractions. We have already said that bunching

is a mathematical crime. It is time to say it again. This is why we

designed this topic, to present a new method of treating inequalities

involving fractions. Some relevant examples will be treated revealing

that bunching could be a great pain for the reader wanting to use it.

Example 8. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c the

following inequality holds:

1

3a

+

1

3b

+

1

3c

+

3

a +b +c

≥

1

2a +b

+

1

2b +a

+

1

2b +c

+

1

2c +b

+

1

2c +a

+

1

2a +c

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Of course, the reader has noticed that this is stronger

than Popoviciu’s inequality, so it seems that classical methods will have

no chances. And what if we say that this is Schur’s inequality revisited?

Indeed, let us write Schur’s inequality in the form:

x

3

+y

3

+z

3

+ 3xyz ≥ x

2

y +y

2

x +y

2

z +z

2

y +z

2

x +x

2

z

where x = t

a−

1

3

, y = t

b−

1

3

, z = t

c−

1

3

and integrate the inequality as t

ranges between 0 and 1. And surprise... since what we get is exactly the

desired inequality.

In the same category, here is another application of this idea.

Example 9. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c the

following inequality holds:

1

3a

+

1

3b

+

1

3c

+ 2

1

2a +b

+

1

2b +c

+

1

2c +a

≥ 3

1

a + 2b

+

1

b + 2c

+

1

c + 2a

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

272

Solution. If the previous problem could be solved using bunching

(or not? Anyway, we haven’t tried), this one is surely impossible to solve

in this manner. With the experience from the previous problem, we see

that the problem asks in fact to prove that

x

3

+y

3

+z

3

+ 2(x

2

y +y

2

z +z

2

x) ≥ 3(xy

2

+yz

2

+zx

2

)

for any positive real numbers x, y, z.

Let us assume that x = min(x, y, z) and write y = x +m, z = x +n

for some nonnegative real numbers m, n. Simple computations show that

the inequality is equivalent to

2x(m

2

−mn +n

2

) + (n −m)

3

+m

3

≥ (n −m)m

2

.

Therefore, it suﬃces to prove that

(n −m)

3

+m

3

≥ (n −m)m

2

,

which is the same as (via the substitution t =

n −m

m

) t

3

+ 1 ≥ t for all

t ≥ −1, which is immediate.

Starting this topic, we said that there is a deep relation between

integrals and areas, but in the sequel we seemed to neglect the last

concept. We ask the reader to accept our apologizes and bring to their

attention two mathematical gems, in which they will surely have the

occasion to play around with areas. If only this was easy to see... In fact,

these problems are discrete forms of Young and Steﬀensen inequalities

for integrals.

Example 10. Let a

1

≥ a

2

≥ ≥ a

n+1

= 0 and let b

1

, b

2

, . . . , b

n

∈

[0, 1]. Prove that if

k =

¸

n

¸

i=1

b

i

¸

+ 1,

273

then

n

¸

i=1

a

i

b

i

≤

k

¸

i=1

a

i

.

Saint Petersburg Olympiad, 1996

Solution. The very experienced reader has already seen a resem-

blance with Steﬀensen’s inequality: for any continuous functions f, g :

[a, b] →R such that f is decreasing and 0 ≤ g ≤ 1 we have

a+k

a

f(x)dx ≥

b

a

f(x)g(x)dx,

where

k =

b

a

f(x)dx.

So, probably an argument using areas (this is how we avoid in-

tegrals and argue with their discrete forms, areas!!!) could lead to a

neat solution. So, let us consider a coordinate system XOY and let

us draw the rectangles R

1

, R

2

, . . . , R

n

such that the vertices of R

i

are

the points (i − 1, 0), (i, 0), (i − 1, a

i

), (i, a

i

) (we need n rectangles of

heights a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

and weights 1, so that to view

k

¸

i=1

a

i

as a sum

of areas) and the rectangles S

1

, S

2

, . . . , S

n

, where the vertices of S

i

are

the points

¸

i−1

¸

j=1

b

j

, 0

¸

,

¸

i

¸

j=1

b

j

, 0

¸

,

¸

i−1

¸

j=1

b

j

, a

i

¸

,

¸

i

¸

j=1

b

j

, a

i

¸

(where

0

¸

j=1

b

j

= 0). We have made this choice because we need two sets of pair

wise disjoint rectangles with the same heights and areas a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

and a

1

b

1

, a

2

b

2

, . . . , a

n

b

n

so that we can compare the areas of the unions

of the rectangles in the two sets. Thus, looking in a picture, we ﬁnd im-

mediately what we have to show: that the set of rectangles S

1

, S

2

, . . . , S

n

can be covered with the rectangles R

1

, R

2

, . . . , R

k+1

. Intuitively, this is

evident, by looking again at the picture. Let us make it rigorous. Since

274

the weight of the union of S

1

, S

2

, . . . , S

n

is

n

¸

j=1

b

j

< k + 1 (and the

weight of R

1

, R

2

, . . . , R

k+1

is k + 1), it is enough to prove this for any

horizontal line. But if we consider a horizontal line y = p and an index

r such that a

r

≥ p > a

r+1

, then the corresponding weight for the set

R

1

, R

2

, . . . , R

k+1

is p, which is at least b

1

+b

2

+ +b

p

, the weight for

S

1

, S

2

, . . . , S

n

. And the problem is solved.

And now the second problem, given this time in a Balkan Mathe-

matical Olympiad.

Example 11. Let (x

n

)

n≥0

be an increasing sequence of nonnegative

integers such that for all k ∈ N the number of indices i ∈ N for which

x

i

≤ k is y

k

< ∞. Prove that for any m, n ∈ N we have the inequality

m

¸

i=0

x

i

+

n

¸

j=0

y

j

≥ (m+ 1)(n + 1).

Balkan Mathematical Olympiad, 1999

Solution. Again, experienced reader will see immediately a similar-

ity with Young’s inequality: for any strictly increasing one to one map

f : [0, A] → [0, B] and any a ∈ (0, A), b ∈ (0, B) we have the inequality

a

0

f(x)dx +

b

0

f

−1

(x)dx ≥ ab.

Indeed, it suﬃces to take the given sequence (x

n

)

n≥0

as the one to

one increasing function in Young’s inequality and the sequence (y

n

)

n≥0

as the inverse of f. Just view

m

¸

i=0

x

i

and

m

¸

j=0

y

j

as the corresponding

integrals and the similarity will be obvious.

Thus, probably again a geometrical solution is hiding behind some

rectangles. Indeed, consider the vertical rectangles with weight 1 and

heights x

0

, x

1

, . . . , x

m

and the rectangles with weight 1 and heights

y

0

, y

1

, . . . , y

n

. Then in a similar way one can prove that the set of these

275

rectangles covers the rectangle of sides m+1 and n +1. Thus, the sum

of their areas is at least the are of this rectangle.

It will be diﬃcult to solve the following beautiful problems using

integrals, since the idea is very well hidden. Yet, there is such a solution

and it is more than beautiful.

Example 12. Prove that for any a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

, b

1

, b

2

, . . . , b

n

≥ 0 the

following inequality holds

¸

1≤i<j≤n

([a

i

−a

j

[ +[b

i

−b

j

[) ≤

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[a

i

−b

j

[.

Poland, 1999

Solution. Let us deﬁne the functions f

i

, g

i

: [0, ∞) →R,

f

i

(x) =

1, t ∈ [0, a

i

],

0, t > a

i

and g

i

(x) =

1, x ∈ [0, b

i

],

0, x > b

i

.

Also, let us deﬁne

f(x) =

n

¸

i=1

f

i

(x), g(x) =

n

¸

i=1

g

i

(x).

Now, let us compute

∞

0

f(x)g(x)dx. We see that

∞

0

f(x)g(x)dx =

∞

0

¸

¸

1≤i,j≤n

f

i

(x)g

j

(x)

¸

dx

=

¸

1≤i,j≤n

∞

0

f

i

(x)g

j

(x)dx =

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

, b

j

).

A similar computation shows that

∞

0

f

2

(x)dx =

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

, a

j

)

and

∞

0

g

2

(x)dx =

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(b

i

, b

j

).

276

Since

∞

0

f

2

(x)dx+

∞

0

g

2

(x)dx =

∞

0

(f

2

(x)+g

2

(x))dx ≥ 2

∞

0

f(x)g(x)dx,

we ﬁnd that

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

, a

j

) +

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(b

i

, b

j

) ≥ 2

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

, b

j

).

Now, remember that 2 min(x, y) = x + y − [x − y[ and the last

inequality becomes

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[a

i

−a

j

[ +

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[b

i

−b

j

[ ≤ 2

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[a

i

−b

j

[

and since

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[a

i

−a

j

[ = 2

¸

1≤i<j≤n

[a

i

−a

j

[,

the problem is solved.

Using this idea, here is a diﬃcult problem, whose elementary solution

is awful and which has a 3-lines solution using the above idea... Of course,

this is easy to ﬁnd for the author of the problem, but in a contest things

change!

Example 13. Let a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

> 0 and let x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

be real

numbers such that

n

¸

i=1

a

i

x

i

= 0.

a) Prove that the inequality

¸

1≤i<j≤n

x

i

x

j

[a

i

−a

j

[ ≤ 0 holds;

b) Prove that we have equality in the above inequality if and only if

there exist a partition A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

k

of the set ¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ such that

for all i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , k¦ we have

¸

j∈A

i

x

j

= 0 and a

j

1

= a

j

2

if j

1

, j

2

∈ A

i

.

Gabriel Dospinescu, Mathlinks Contest

277

Solution. Let λ

A

be the characteristic function of the set A. Let us

consider the function

f : [0, ∞) →R, f =

n

¸

i=1

x

i

λ

[0,a

i

]

.

Now, let us compute

∞

0

f

2

(x)dx =

¸

1≤i,j≤n

x

i

x

j

∞

0

λ

[0,a

i

]

(x)λ

[0,a

a

]

(x)dx

=

¸

1≤i,j≤n

x

i

x

j

min(a

i

, a

j

).

Hence

¸

1≤i,j≤n

x

i

x

j

min(a

i

, a

j

) ≥ 0.

Since

min(a

i

, a

j

) =

a

i

+a

j

−[a

i

−a

j

[

2

and

¸

1≤i,j≤n

x

i

x

j

(a

i

+a

j

) = 2

n

¸

i=1

x

i

n

¸

i=1

a

i

x

i

= 0,

we conclude that

¸

1≤i<j≤n

x

i

x

j

[a

i

−a

j

[ ≤ 0.

Let us suppose that we have equality. We ﬁnd that

∞

0

f

2

(x)dx = 0

and so f(x) = 0 almost anywhere. Now, let b

1

, b

2

, . . . , b

k

the distinct

numbers that appear among a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

> 0 and let A

i

= ¦j ∈

¦1, 2, . . . , n¦[ a

j

= b

i

¦. Then A

1

, A

2

, . . . , A

k

is a partition of the set

¦1, 2, . . . , n¦ and we also have

k

¸

i=1

¸

¸

j∈A

i

x

j

¸

λ

[0,b

i

]

= 0

278

almost anywhere, from where we easily conclude that

¸

i∈A

i

x

j

= 0 for all i ∈ ¦1, 2, . . . , k¦.

The conclusion follows.

And since we have proved the nice inequality

¸

1≤i,j≤n

x

i

x

j

min(a

i

, a

j

) ≥ 0

for any numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

, a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

> 0 let’s make a step fur-

ther and give the magniﬁcent proof found by Ravi B. (see mathlinks

site) for one of the most diﬃcult inequalities ever given in a contest,

solution based on this result:

Example 14. Prove the following inequality

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

a

j

, b

i

b

j

) ≤

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

b

j

, a

j

b

i

).

G. Zbaganu, USAMO, 1999

Solution. Let us deﬁne the numbers r

i

=

max(a

i

, b

i

)

min(a

i

, b

i

)

−1 and x

i

=

sgn(a

i

− b

i

) (if, by any chance, one of a

i

, b

j

= 0, we can simply put

r

i

= 0). The crucial observation is the following identity:

min(a

i

b

j

, a

j

b

i

) −min(a

i

a

j

, b

i

b

j

) = x

i

x

j

min(r

i

, r

j

).

Proving this relation can be achieved by distinguishing 4 cases, but

let us remark that actually we may assume that a

i

≥ b

i

and a

j

≥ b

j

,

which leaves us with only two cases. The ﬁrst one is when at least one of

the two inequalities a

i

≥ b

i

and a

j

≥ b

j

becomes an equality. This case

is trivial, so let us assume the contrary. Then

x

i

x

j

min(r

i

, r

j

) = b

i

b

j

min

a

i

b

i

−1,

a

j

b

j

−1

= b

i

b

j

min

a

i

b

i

,

a

j

b

j

−1

= min(a

i

b

j

, a

j

b

i

) −b

i

b

j

= min(a

i

b

j

, a

j

b

i

) −min(a

i

a

j

, b

i

b

j

).

279

Now, we can write

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

b

j

, a

j

b

i

)−

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

a

j

, b

i

b

j

) =

¸

i,j

x

i

x

j

min(r

i

, r

j

) ≥ 0,

the last inequality being nothing else than the main ingredient of the

preceding problem.

Finally, here is a very funny problem, which is a consequence of

this last hard inequality. Consider this a hint and try to solve it, since

otherwise the problem is really extremely hard.

Example 15. Let x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

some positive real numbers such

that

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[1 −x

i

x

j

[ =

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[x

i

−x

j

[.

Prove that

n

¸

i=1

x

i

= n.

Gabriel Dospinescu

Solution. Consider b

i

= 1 in the inequality from example 14. We

obtain:

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(x

i

, x

j

) ≥

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(1, x

i

x

j

).

Now, use the formula min(u, v) =

u +v −[u −v[

2

and rewrite the

above inequality in the form

2n

n

¸

i=1

x

i

−

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[x

i

−x

j

[ ≥ n

2

+

n

¸

i=1

x

i

2

−

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[1 −x

i

x

j

[.

Taking into account that

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[1 −x

i

x

j

[ =

¸

1≤i,j≤n

[x

i

−x

j

[,

we ﬁnally obtain

2n

n

¸

i=1

x

i

≥ n

2

+

n

¸

i=1

x

i

2

,

280

which can be rewritten as

n

¸

i=1

x

i

−n

2

≤ 0

Therefore

n

¸

i=1

x

i

= n.

Problems for practice

1. Show that for all a, b ∈ N

∗

ln

bn + 1

an + 1

<

1

an + 1

+

1

an + 2

+ +

1

bn

< ln

b

a

.

2. Prove that for any a > 0 and any positive integer n the inequality

1

a

+ 2

a

+ +n

a

<

(n + 1)

a+1

−1

a + 1

holds. Also, for a ∈ (−1, 0) we have the reversed inequality.

Folklore

3. Prove that for any real number x

n

n

¸

k=0

x

2k

≥ (n + 1)

n

¸

k=1

x

2k−1

.

Harris Kwong, College Math. Journal

4. Let a continuous and monotonically increasing function f :

[0, 1] →R such that f(0) = 0 and f(1) = 1. Prove that

9

¸

k=1

f

k

10

+

10

¸

k=1

f

−1

k

10

≤

99

10

.

Sankt Petersburg, 1991

5. Prove the following inequality

a

n

+b

n

2

+

a +b

2

n

≥ 2

a

n

+a

n−1

b + +ab

n−1

+b

n

n + 1

for any positive integer n and any nonnegative real numbers a, b.

281

Mihai Onucu Drambe

6. Prove that if a

1

≤ a

2

≤ ≤ a

n

≤ 2a

1

the the following inequality

holds

a

n

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

, a

j

) ≥

n

¸

i=1

a

i

2

+

2n −

n

¸

i=1

a

i

2

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

7. For all positive real number x and all positive integer n we have:

2n

0

x

−

2n

1

x + 1

+

2n

2

x + 2

− +

2n

2n

x + 2n

> 0.

Komal

8. Prove that the function f : [0, 1) →R deﬁned by

f(x) = log

2

(1 −x) +x +x

2

+x

4

+x

8

+. . .

is bounded.

Komal

9. Prove that for any real numbers a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

n

¸

i,j=1

ij

i +j −1

a

i

a

j

≥

n

¸

i=1

a

i

2

.

10. Let k ∈ N, α

1

, α

2

, . . . , α

n+1

= α

1

. Prove that

¸

1≤i≤n

1≤j≤k

α

k−j

i

α

j−1

i+1

≥

k

n

k−2

n

¸

i=1

α

i

k−1

.

Hassan A. Shah Ali, Crux Mathematicorum

11. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c such that a+b =

c = 1 we have:

1 +

1

a

b

1 +

1

b

c

1 +

1

c

a

≥ 1 +

1

ab +bc +ca

.

Marius and Sorin Radulescu

282

12. Prove that for all a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

, b

1

, b

2

, . . . , b

n

≥ 0 the inequality

holds

¸

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

, a

j

)

¸

¸

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(b

i

, b

j

)

¸

≥

¸

¸

1≤i,j≤n

min(a

i

, b

j

)

¸

.

Don Zagier

13. Prove that for any x

1

≥ x

2

≥ ≥ x

n

> 0 we have

n

¸

i=1

x

2

i

+x

2

i+1

+ +x

2

n

i

≤ π

n

¸

i=1

x

i

.

Adapted after an IMC 2000 problem

14. Let ϕ be Euler’s totient function, where ϕ(1) = 1. Prove that

for any positive integer n we have

1 >

n

¸

k=1

ϕ(k)

k

ln

2

k

2

k

−1

> 1 −

1

2

n

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

15. Let p

1

, p

2

, . . . , p

n

some positive numbers which add up to 1 and

x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

some positive real numbers. Let also

A =

n

¸

i=1

a

i

x

i

and G =

n

¸

i=1

x

p

i

i

.

a) Let us denote

I(x, a) =

∞

0

tdt

(1 +t)(x +at)

2

.

Prove that

ln

A

G

=

n

¸

i=1

p

i

(x

i

−A)

2

I(x

i

, A).

Deduce the arithmetic-geometric inequality.

b) Suppose that x

i

≤

1

2

and deﬁne A

t

, G

t

the corresponding means

for 1 −x

i

. Prove that

A

G

≥

A

t

G

t

.

Oral examination ENS

283

16. Prove that for any positive real numbers x

1

, x

2

, . . . , x

n

such that

n

¸

i=1

1

1 +x

i

=

n

2

,

we have the inequality

¸

1≤i,j≤n

1

x

i

+x

j

≥

n

2

2

.

Gabriel Dospinescu

17. Prove that we can ﬁnd a constant c such that for any x ≥ 1 and

any positive integer n we have

n

¸

k=1

kx

(k

2

+x)

2

−

1

2

≤

c

x

.

IMC, 1996

18. Let 0 = x

1

< < x

2n+1

= 1 some real numbers. Prove that if

x

i+1

−x

i

≤ h for all 1 ≤ i ≤ 2n then

1 −h

2

<

2n

¸

i=1

x

2i

(x

2i+1

−x

2i−1

) <

1 +h

2

.

Turkey TST, 1996

19. Prove that for any a

1

, a

2

, . . . , a

n

≥ 0 we have the following in-

equality

¸

1≤i,j≤n

a

i

a

j

i +j

≤ π

n

¸

i=1

a

2

i

.

Hilbert’s inequality

284

TWO USEFUL SUBSTITUTIONS We know that in most inequalities with a constraint such as abc = 1 x y z the substitution a = , b = , c = simpliﬁes the solution (don’t kid y z x yourself, not all problems of this type become easier!). But have you ever thought about other similar substitutions? For example, what if we had the conditions x, y, z > 0 and xyz = x + y + z + 2? Or x, y, z > 0 and xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1? There are numerous problems that reduce to these conditions and to their corresponding substitutions. You will be probably surprised when ﬁnding out that the ﬁrst set of conditions implies the existence of positive real numbers a, b, c such that x= b+c , a y= c+a , b z= a+b . c

Let us explain why. The condition xyz = x + y + z + 2 can be written in the following equivalent way: 1 1 1 + + = 1. 1+x 1+y 1+z Proving this is just a matter of simple computations. Take now a= 1 , 1+x b= 1 , 1+y c= 1 . 1+z

b+c 1−a = . Of course, in the same Then a + b + c = 1 and x = a a a+b b+c c+a c+a way we ﬁnd y = ,z= . The converse (that is, , , b c a b a+b satisfy xyz = x + y + z = 2) is much easier and is settled again by c basic computations. Now, what about the second set of conditions? If you look carefully, you will see that it is closely related to the ﬁrst one. 1 1 Indeed, x, y, z > 0 satisfy xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1 if and only if , , x y 1 1 1 1 1 verify = + + + 2, so the substitution here is z xyz x y z x= a , b+c y= b , c+a

2

z=

c . a+b

So, let us summarize: we have seen two nice substitutions, with even nicer proofs, but we still have not seen any applications. We will see them in a moment ... and there are quite a few inequalities that can be solved by using these ”tricks”. First, an easy and classical problem, due to Nesbitt. It has so many extensions and generalizations, that we must discuss it ﬁrst. Example 1. Prove that a b c 3 + + ≥ b+c c+a a+b 2 for all a, b, c > 0. Solution. With the ”magical” substitution, it suﬃces to prove that 3 if x, y, z > 0 satisfy xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1, then x + y + z = . 2 3 Let us suppose that this is not the case, i.e. x + y + z < . Because 2 (x + y + z)2 3 xy + yz + zx ≤ , we must have xy + yz + zx < and 3 4 3 x+y+z 1 since xyz ≤ , we also have 2xyz < . It follows that 3 4 3 1 1 = xy + yz + zx + 2xyz < + = 1, a contradiction, so we are done. 4 4 Let us now increase the level of diﬃculty and make an experiment: imagine that you did not know about these substitutions and try to solve the following problem. Then look at the solution provided and you will see that sometimes a good substitution can solve a problem almost alone. Example 2. Let x, y, z > 0 such that xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1. Prove that 1 1 1 + + ≥ 4(x + y + z). x y z Mircea Lascu, Marian Tetiva Solution. With our substitution the inequality becomes b+c c+a a+b + + ≥4 a b c

3

a b c + + b+c c+a a+b

.

But this follows from 4s a a ≤ + , b+c b c stitution. Here is a geometric application of the previous problem. Example 3. Prove that in any acute-angled triangle ABC the following inequality holds 1 cos2 A cos2 B+cos2 B cos2 C+cos2 C cos2 A ≤ (cos2 A+cos2 B+cos2 C). 4 Titu Andreescu Solution. We observe that the desired inequality is equivalent to cos A cos C cos A cos B cos B cos C + + ≤ cos C cos A cos B ≤ Setting x= cos B cos C , cos A y= cos A cos C , cos B z= cos A cos B , cos C 1 4 cos A cos B cos C + + cos B cos C cos C cos A cos A cos B 4b b b ≤ + , c+a c a 4c c c ≤ + . a+b a b

Simple and eﬃcient, these are the words that characterize this sub-

the inequality reduces to 4(x + y + z) ≤ 1 1 1 + + . x y z

But this is precisely the inequality in the previous example. All that remains is to show that xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1. This is equivalent to cos2 A + cos2 B + cos2 C + 2 cos A cos B cos C = 1, a well-known identity, proved in the chapter ”Equations and beyond”. The level of diﬃculty continues to increase. When we say this, we refer again to the proposed experiment. The reader who will try ﬁrst to solve the problems discussed without using the above substitutions will certainly understand why we consider these problems hard.

4

Example 4. Prove that if x, y, z > 0 and xyz = x + y + z + 2, then √ √ √ 2( xy + yz + zx) ≤ x + y + z + 6. Mathlinks site Solution. This is tricky, even with the substitution. There are two main ideas: using some identities that transform the inequality into an easier one and then using the substitution. Let us see. What does √ √ √ 2( xy + yz + zx) suggest? Clearly, it is related to √ √ √ ( x + y + z)2 − (x + y + z). Consequently, our inequality can be written as √ x+ √ y+ √ z≤ 2(x + y + z + 3).

The ﬁrst idea that comes to mind (that is using the Cauchy√ √ √ 3(x + y + z) ≤ Schwarz inequality in the form x + y + z ≤ 2(x + y + z + 3)) does not lead to a solution. Indeed, the last inequality is not true: setting x+y+z = s, we have 3s ≤ 2(s+3). This is because s3 s3 from the AM-GM inequality it follows that xyz ≤ , so ≥ s + 2, 27 27 2 ≥ 0, implying s ≥ 6. which is equivalent to (s − 6)(s + 3) Let us see how the substitution helps. The inequality becomes b+c + a c+a + b a+b ≤ c 2 b+c c+a a+b + + +3 a b c

The last step is probably the most important. We have to change b+c c+a a+b the expression + + + 3 a little bit. a b c We see that if we add 1 to each fraction, then a + b + c will appear as common factor, so in fact b+c c+a a+b + + + 3 = (a + b + c) a b c

5

1 1 1 + + a b c

.

2 + x2 2 + y2 2 + z2 This is in fact the same as 2x + 1 2y + 1 2z + 1 5 + 2 + 2 ≤ . Taking our substitution into account. USAMO 2003 Solution. The desired inequality is equivalent to 1+ 2+ b+c a b+c a 2 2+ 2 + 2+ c+a b c+a b 2 1+ 2 + 2+ a+b c a+b c 2 2 ≤ 8. The following solution is again not easy. Zuming Feng. c the following inequality holds (2a + b + c)2 (2b + c + a)2 (2c + a + b)2 + 2 + 2 ≤ 8. + + a b c We continue with a 2003 USAMO problem. but it is natural for someone familiar with this kind of substitution. x2 + 2 y +2 z +2 2 Now. Prove that for any positive real numbers a. b. we transform this inequality into (x − 1)2 (y − 1)2 (z − 1)2 1 + 2 + 2 ≥ . 2a2 + (b + c)2 2b + (c + a)2 2c + (a + b)2 Titu Andreescu. by employing again the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality: b+c + a c+a + b a+b ≤ c (b + c + c + a + a + b) 1 1 1 . then (2 + x)2 (2 + y)2 (2 + z)2 + + ≤ 8.And now we have ﬁnally solved the problem. There are many proofs for this inequality. 2+2 x y +2 z +2 x + y2 + z2 + 6 6 . 2+2 x y +2 z +2 2 This last form suggests using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality to prove that (x − 1)2 (y − 1)2 (z − 1)2 (x + y + z − 3)2 + 2 + 2 ≥ 2 . none of them easy. it suﬃces to prove that if xyz = x + y + z + 2. amusingly. Example 5.

there is an easy solution using the substitutions described in this unit. Let us write the given condition as x y y z z x x y z · + · + · + 2 · · = 1. c such that x= 2a . z are and use the AM-GM inequality three times). b. 1998 Solution. 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 Hence there are positive real numbers a. z ≥ 0 satisfy xy + yz + zx + xyz = 4 then x + y + z ≥ xy + yz + zx. y. we ﬁnd that xy + yz + zx ≥ 12 and x + y + z ≥ 6 (by the same AM-GM inequality). But this is not diﬃcult. Example 6. India. since the inequality x + y + z ≥ xy + yz + zx is equivalent to a b c 2ab 2bc 2ca + + ≥ + + . We have seen a diﬃcult solution in the chapter ”Equations and beyond”. And this diﬃcult problem is solved! The following problem is also hard. the inequality becomes a(a + b)(a + c) + b(b + a)(b + c) + c(c + a)(c + b) ≥ 7 . Indeed. from xyz ≥ 8 (recall who x. clearly true. b+c y= 2b . which is equivalent to (s−3)(s−6) ≥ 0. we are left with proving that 2(x + y + z − 3)2 ≥ x2 + y 2 + z 2 + 6. this inequality is equivalent to 2(x + y + z − 3)2 ≥ (x + y + z)2 − 2(xy + yz + zx) + 6. c+a z= 2c . This shows that it suﬃces to prove that 2(s−3)2 ≥ s2 −18 for all s ≥ 6. a+b But now the solution is almost over. Yet. Prove that if x.So. Now. b+c c+a a+b (c + a)(c + b) (a + b)(a + c) (b + a)(b + c) After clearing denominators. y.

8 8 . Let R be the circumradius of the triangle ABC. in which the substitution described plays a key role. c. Example 7. the desired inequality can be written as (a + b + c)R2 ≥ (a + b)(b + c)(c + a) . y. First. After basic computations. c are the sides of a triangle ABC. b. c+a−b can be negative. it reduces to a(a − b)(a − c) + b(b − a)(b − c) + c(c − a)(c − b) ≥ 0. This is true because no more than one of the numbers a+b−c. then xyz(x − 1)(y − 1)(z − 1) ≤ 8. It is not diﬃcult to ﬁnd the formula (a + b − c)(b + c − a)(c + a − b) = a2 b2 c2 . a y= c+a . It is readily seen that this form is stronger than Schur’s inequality (a + b − c)(b + c − a)(c + a − b) ≤ abc. z > 0 satisfy xyz = x + y + z + 2. Using the substitution x= b+c . Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. Prove that if x. But this time using the substitution only will not suﬃce.≥ 2ab(a + b) + 2bc(b + c) + 2ca(c + a). b z= a+b . (a + b + c)R2 Consequently. b+c−a. since otherwise the left-hand side in (1) is negative. we may assume that a. c the inequality becomes (a + b)(b + c)(c + a)(a + b − c)(b + c − a)(c + a − b) ≤ 8a2 b2 c2 (1) for any positive real numbers a. But this is Schur’s inequality! We end the discussion with a diﬃcult problem. b.

This inequality follows from the following ones: 8 8(a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 ) ≥ (a + b + c)3 3 and 1 9(a + b)(b + c)(c + a) ≤ (a + b + c)3 . 3 while the second is a consequence of the AM-GM inequality. Prove that if x. Prove that if x. then xyz ≤ 1 3 and xy + yz + zx ≥ . Nesbitt 3. 3 The ﬁrst inequality reduces to 1 a2 + b2 + c2 ≥ (a + b + c)2 . Prove that xyz ≤ x + y + z + 2. Prove that for any positive real numbers a. z > 0 satisfy xy + yz + zx + 2xyz = 1. Problems for training 1. y. y. 9R2 ≥ a2 + b2 + c2 . 2 4. y. Let x. Gabriel Dospinescu. z > 0 such that xy + yz + zx = 2(x + y + z). b. then xy + yz + zx ≥ 2(x + y + z) and √ x+ √ y+ √ z≤ 3√ xyz. a b c b+c c+a a+b 2 J. Hence it suﬃces to prove that 8(a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 ) ≥ 9(a + b)(b + c)(c + a). By combining these two results. z > 0 and xyz = x + y + z + 2. the desired inequality follows. Mircea Lascu 9 . 8 4 2.But we know that in any triangle ABC. c the following inequality holds b+c c+a a+b a b c 9 + + ≥ + + + .

c > 0. Prove that if a. 1 1 1 7. (cos A + cos B)2 + (cos B + cos C)2 + (cos C + cos A)2 ≤ 3. b. Prove that for any a. (c + a − b)2 (a + b − c)2 3 (b + c − a)2 + + ≥ . Prove that in any triangle ABC the following inequality holds 1 cos A + cos B + cos C ≥ (3 + cos(A − B) + cos(B − C) + cos(C − A)). (b + c)2 + a2 (c + a)2 + b2 (a + b)2 + c2 5 Japan. b. y = b + . Prove that in every acute-angled triangle ABC. c > 0 and x = a + . 1997 10 .5. then b c a xy + yz + zx ≥ 2(x + y + z). z = c + . 4 Titu Andreescu 6. Vasile Cartoaje 8.

a direct application of the inequality. that is a0 a1 an−1 + = ··· = . This is equivalent to the proportionality of the n-tuples (a0 . Prove that the ﬁnite sequence a0 . since they are too well-known. a2 . This time the inequality is hidden in a closed form. . . employing then gradually the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality in some of the most diﬃcult problems. it underlines something less emphasized: the analysis of the equality case. . We see that the relation given in the problem is in fact the equality case in the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. Hence the problem is solved. an of positive real numbers is a geometrical progression if and only if (a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 )(a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 ) = (a0 a1 + a1 a2 + · · · + an−1 an )2 . . Example 1. Another easy application of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality is the following problem. Yet. There are countless problems that reduce readily to this inequality and even more problems in which the CauchySchwarz inequality is the key idea of the solution. . . In this unit we will not focus on the theoretical results. This is the reason why we will see this inequality in action in several simple examples ﬁrst. . . seeing the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality at work is not so well spread out. Note that Lagrange’s identity allowed us to work with equivalences. . . an indispensable tool of any serious problem solver. 11 . a1 . 0 1 n−1 1 2 n Solution. a1 . . Let us begin with a very simple problem. an ). . a1 a2 an But this is just actually the deﬁnition of a geometrical progression.ALWAYS CAUCHY-SCHWARZ In recent years the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality has become one of the most used results in elementary mathematics. an−1 ) and (a1 . Yet.

Russian Mathematical Olympiad Solution. If we work only with the closed expression p(x2 )p(y 2 ) ≥ p2 (xy). p(xk ) ≥ pk (x1 x2 . ∞) → (0. y > 0 are useless. And now the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality comes into the picture: (a0 + a1 xy + · · · + an xn y n )2 √ √ = ( a0 · a0 + a1 x2 · a2 y 2 + · · · + √ an xn · √ an y n )2 ≤ (a0 + a1 x2 + · · · + an x2n )(a0 + a1 y 2 + · · · + an y 2n ). .which suggests using calculus. since we have of course p2 (xy) ≤ p2 (|xy|). but we note a simple consequence: the more general inequality p(xk )p(xk ) . 12 . we see that the conditions x. The idea of that solution is to prove that the second derivative of is nonnegative. ∞). 1 2 k which follows the Jensen’s inequality for the convex function f (x) = ln p(ex ). So. Let p be a polynomial with positive real coeﬃcients. Prove that p(x2 )p(y 2 ) ≥ p2 (xy) for any positive real numbers x. y. The desired inequality becomes (a0 + a1 x2 + · · · + an x2n )(a0 + a1 y 2 + · · · + an y 2n ) ≥ (a0 + a1 xy + · · · + an xn y n )2 . We will not prove this here. note an interesting consequence of the problem: the function f : (0. the chances of seeing a way to proceed are small. . There exists a solution by using derivatives. . And the problem is solved. that is why we said in the introduction to this problem that it has a solution based on calculus. Moreover. f (x) = ln p(ex ) is convex. let us write p(x) = a0 + a1 x + · · · + an xn . . Additionally. but it is not as elegant as the featured one: Example 2. xk ).

This ≤ (a + b + c) encourages us to take a = x. the reversed inequality holds. z > 0 satisfy + + = 2. Hence this approach fails. this inequality is 2 9 not true. Then. We will also see during our trip through the exciting world of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality a nice application of Aczel’s inequality. 9 which is equivalent to x + y + z ≤ . since in this case x−1 y−1 z−1 + + = 1 and a + b + c = x + y + z. a b c So. y. Iran. We continue with a classical result. b = y. but this time in the form √ x − 1+ √ √ y − 1+ z − 1 = a· x−1 √ + b· a y−1 √ + c· b z−1 c x−1 y−1 z−1 + + . c = z. Unfortunately. using again the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. the not so well-known inequality of Aczel. 1998 Solution.Here is another application of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. The obvious and most natural approach is to apply the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality in the form √ x−1+ y−1+ √ z−1≤ 3(x + y + z − 3) √ and then to try to prove the inequality 3(x + y + z − 3) ≤ x + y + z. a b c √ We would like to have the last expression equal to x + y + z. 2 1 1 1 9 since 2 = + + ≥ . 13 . though this time you might be surprised why the ”trick” fails at a ﬁrst approach: 1 1 1 Example 3. this idea works and the problem is solved. then x y z √ √ √ x − 1 + y − 1 + z − 1 ≤ x + y + z. Prove that if x. that is x + y + z ≥ . we x y z x+y+z try another approach. In fact.

Let a1 . And by combining the last two inequalities the desired inequality follows. b1 . . . 14 . Solution. From our assumption and the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. As a consequence of this inequality we discuss the following problem. B > 0 such that A2 ≥ a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 or B 2 ≥ b2 + b2 + · · · + b2 . where a = a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 and b = b2 + b2 + · · · + b2 . 1 2 n 1 2 n Otherwise the left-hand side of the desired inequality is smaller than or equal to 0 and the inequality becomes trivial. a2 . We observe ﬁrst that we may assume that A2 > a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 and B 2 > b2 + b2 + · · · + b2 . bn be real numbers and let A.Example 4. b2 . 1 2 n 1 2 n Then (A2 − a2 − a2 − · · · − a2 )(B 2 − b2 − b2 − · · · − b2 ) 1 2 n 1 2 n ≤ (AB − a1 b1 − a2 b2 − · · · − an bn )2 . in which the condition seems to be useless. we can n n 1 2 1 2 apply the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. . Now. . it is the key that suggests using Aczel’s inequality. . . In fact. . we infer that a1 b1 +a2 b2 +· · ·+an bn ≤ a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 · n 1 2 b2 + b2 + · · · + b2 < AB n 1 2 Hence we can rewrite the inequality in the more appropriate form a1 b1 + a2 b2 + · · · + an bn + (A2 − a)(B 2 − b) ≤ AB. . ﬁrst in the form √ a1 b1 +a2 b2 +· · ·+an bn + (A2 − a)(B 2 − b) ≤ ab+ (A2 − a)(B 2 − b) and then in the form √ ab + (A2 − a)(B 2 − b) ≤ (a + A2 − a)(b + B 2 − b) = AB. an .

TST 2004. the problem does not seem to be related to Aczel’s inequality. At ﬁrst glance. the following example shows that an apparently very diﬃcult inequality can become quite easy if we do not complicate things more than necessary. bn be real numbers such that (a2 +a2 +· · ·+a2 −1)(b2 +b2 +· · ·+b2 −1) > (a1 b1 +a2 b2 +· · ·+an bn −1)2 . . . while the n n 1 2 1 2 conclusion is (1). b2 . a2 . we have now the conditions 1 > a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 and 1 > b2 + b2 + · · · + b2 . b1 . Let a1 . For given n > k > 1 ﬁnd in closed form the best constant T (n. USA Solution. Moreover. The conclusion follows. . . Of a diﬀerent kind. since they have the same sign n 1 2 (this follows immediately from the hypothesis of the problem). . as we can see from the solution. Dorin Andrica. Indeed. x2 . we want to prove that (a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 − 1)(b2 + b2 + · · · + b2 − 1) 1 2 n 1 2 n ≤ (a1 b1 + a2 b2 + · · · + an bn − 1)2 (1) in order to obtain the desired contradiction. And all of a sudden we arrived at the result in the previous problem. . we may even assume that both numbers a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 − 1 n 1 2 and b2 + b2 + · · · + b2 − 1 are negative. 1 2 n 1 2 n Prove that a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 > 1 and b2 + b2 + · · · + b2 > 1. with A = 1 and B = 1. . It is also a reﬁnement of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. it is not diﬃcult to observe that an indirect approach is more eﬃcient. xn the following 15 . Example 6. . k) such that for any real numbers x1 . Now. an . . . But this is exactly Aczel’s inequality. . . Let us take a more careful look. n n 1 2 1 2 Titu Andreescu.Example 5. First of all.

let us take them all to be zero. k) > 0. k) 1≤i<j≤n 1≤i<j≤k (xi − xj )2 . We observe that n n 2 (xi − xj ) is nothing else than n 1≤i<j≤n k i=1 2 x2 i − i=1 k xi 2 and also (xi − xj ) = k 1≤i<j≤k i=1 2 x2 i − i=1 xi . So. according to Lagrange’s identity. only if in the end it turns out that T (n. We also observe that in the left-hand side there are n − k variables that do not appear in the right-hand side and that the left-hand side is minimal when these variables are equal. k) k k k 2 . k) − 1) i=1 xi ≥ (kT (n. In this form. Consequently. so we need an eﬃcient transformation. n i=1 x2 − i i=1 xi x2 − i i=1 i=1 xi And now we see that it is indeed a reﬁnement of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. k) − n) i=1 16 x2 i (1) . k). the inequality can be written in the equivalent form n n 2 ≥ T (n. we cannot make any reasonable conjecture about T (n. The result is k k 2 ≥ T (n. n i=1 x2 − i i=1 xi x2 − i i=1 i=1 xi which is equivalent to k 2 k (T (n. k) k k k 2 . Gabriel Dospinescu Solution.inequality holds: (xi − xj )2 ≥ T (n.

Now. the conclusion is settled: T (n. k) − n > 0. let us k 2 Hence we must have kT (n. We ﬁnd that n ≥ n−k n 2 n i=k+1 x2 i xi i=k+1 and so it suﬃces to prove that n n A2 ≥ (A + B)2 − B 2 . which is clear. we have to apply the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. We continue the series of diﬃcult inequalities with a very nice problem of Murray Klamkin. n then it will follow that T (n. k) ≤ proceed with the converse. xk ) such k k that i=1 xi = 0 and i=1 x2 = 0 and we contradict the inequality (1). i n . But (3) is straight- forward. . . x2 . xn . x2 . n−k k n k (3) where we have taken A = i=k+1 xi and B = i=1 xi . . Now. that is showing that 2 n k n n 2 n k xi − x2 − xi ≥ i k i=1 i=1 i=1 k (2) xi i=1 for any real numbers x1 . because we need i=k+1 n xi . But (2) is of course equivalent to k n n 2 n i=k+1 n x2 i ≥ i=1 xi n − k k 2 xi i=1 . If we manage to prove this inequality. Finally. This time. . since it is equivalent to (kA − (n − k)B)2 + k(n − k)B 2 ≥ 0. k) = . k) = constant. one part of the problem is obvious 17 n is the best k . if kT (n. . Now. . . . we can take a k-tuple (x1 . k) − n ≤ 0 that is T (n.

Hence. Finding the upper bound does not seem to be too diﬃcult. Let a. y. c be positive real numbers. but the second one is not immediate. 3 But for the lower bound things are not so easy. so the new inequality cannot have a very complicated form. z are real numbers such that x2 + y 2 + z 2 = 1. Example 7. Why not squaring it? After all. we should try to prove the inequality a2 x2 + b2 y 2 + c2 z 2 + b2 x2 + c2 y 2 + a2 z 2 + c2 x2 + a2 y 2 + b2 z 2 ≥ a + b + c. 3(a2 + b2 + c2 ) is the upper bound and this value if attained for √ 3 x=y=z= . we conclude that the minimal value should be a + b + c. Let us see. We have used here the hypothesis x2 + y 2 + z 2 = 1. Thus. b. Crux Mathematicorum Solution. attained when two variables are zero and the third one is 1 or −1. Murray Klamkin. It becomes a2 x2 + b2 y 2 + c2 z 2 · 18 b2 x2 + c2 y 2 + a2 z 2 .from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. we observe that a2 x2 + b2 y 2 + c2 z 2 + b2 x2 + c2 y 2 + a2 z 2 + c2 x2 + a2 y 2 + b2 z 2 = a2 + b2 + c2 . Find the extreme values of the expression a2 x2 + b2 y 2 + c2 z 2 + b2 x2 + c2 y 2 + a2 z 2 + c2 x2 + a2 y 2 + b2 z 2 where x. since from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality it follows that a2 x2 + b2 y 2 + c2 z 2 + ≤ b2 x2 + c2 y 2 + a2 z 2 + c2 x2 + a2 y 2 + b2 z 2 ≤ 3(a2 x2 + b2 y 2 + c2 z 2 + c2 y 2 + a2 z 2 + c2 x2 + a2 y 2 + b2 z 2 ) = 3(a2 + b2 + c2 ). Investigating what happens when xyz = 0.

an n 1 such that ai = . 0. And indeed. . This is a very hard problem. . y. . (1 − ai )2 . We will discuss two hard inequalities and after that we will leave for the reader the pleasure of solving many other problems based on these techniques. (1 − ai )(1 − aj ) 2(2n − 1)2 Vasile Cartoaje Solution. the following inequality holds 2 i=1 1≤i<j≤n ai aj n(n − 1) ≤ . 2 (1 − ai ) (2n − 1)2 We apply now the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality to ﬁnd that n i=1 ai 1 − ai 2 n n ≤ i=1 ai i=1 19 ai (1 − ai )2 n = i=1 ai 2 . attained for example when (x. Fasten your seat belts! Let us write the inequality in the form n i=1 ai 1 − ai 2 n ≤ i=1 a2 n(n − 1) i + . This shows that the minimal value is indeed a + b + c. We will concoct a solution using a combination between the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality and Jensen’s inequality. 0). the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality: a2 x2 + b2 y 2 + c2 z 2 · b2 x2 + c2 y 2 + a2 z 2 ≥ abx2 + bxy 2 + caz 2 and the other two similar inequalities. it is true and it follows from what else?. but we warn the reader that such a solution cannot be invented easily. It is now time for the champion inequalities. z) = (1. a2 . .+ b2 x2 + c2 y 2 + a2 z 2 · + c2 x2 + a2 y 2 + b2 z 2 · c2 x2 + a2 y 2 + b2 z 2 a2 x2 + b2 y 2 + c2 z 2 ≥ ab + bc + ca which has great chances to be true. in which intuition is better than technique. Example 8. Prove that for any nonnegative numbers a1 .

. . . Then i∈S ai is of the form sj1 −si1 +sj2 −si2 +· · ·+sjk −sik . . We end this discussion with a remarkable solution. Now. Example 9. ik < jk . Romania Solution. a2 . an be real numbers and let S be a nonempty subset of {1. n}. j1 < j2 < · · · < jk and also i1 < j1 . TST 2004. partition S into groups of consecutive numbers. . This is not diﬃcult. to the diﬃcult problem given in 2004 in one of the Romanian Team Selection Tests. 1 → R. . . found by the member of the Romanian Mathematical Olympiad Committee. Claudiu Raicu. Prove that 2 ai i∈S ≤ (ai + · · · + aj )2 . 2 (1 − ai ) (2n − 1)2 This encourages us to study the function f : 0. . .Thus. . . with 0 ≤ i1 < i2 < · · · < ik ≤ n. it remains to prove the inequality n i=1 ai 2 ≤ (1 − ai )2 n i=1 n(n − 1) a2 i + . Let us deﬁne si = a1 + a2 + · · · + ai for i ≥ 1 and s0 = 0. 2 (1 − ai ) (2n − 1)2 The latter can be written of course in the following form: n i=1 ai (1 − 2ai ) 2n(n − 1) ≤ . for a short computa−6x ≤ 0. 1≤i≤j≤n Gabriel Dospinescu. Now. . let us observe that 20 . 2. 2 f (x) = x(1 − 2x) (1 − x)2 and to see if it is concave. Hence we can apply Jensen’s tion shows that f (x) = (1 − x)4 inequality to complete the solution. Let a1 .

. And this is how we arrived at the inequality (a1 − a2 + a3 − · · · + a2k−1 − a2k )2 ≤ 1≤i<j≤2k (ai − aj )2 (1) The latter inequality can be proved by using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality k-times: (a1 − a2 + a3 − · · · + a2k−1 − a2k )2 ≤ k((a1 − a2 )2 + (a3 − a4 )2 + · · · + (a2k−1 − a2k )2 ) (a1 − a2 + a3 − · · · + a2k−1 − a2k )2 ≤ k((a1 − a4 )2 + (a3 − a6 )2 + · · · + (a2k−1 − a2 )2 ) . Let us take a1 = si1 . . .. a2k−1 = sik . The solution ends here. which proves that (1) is correct.the left-hand side is nothing else than n s2 + i i=1 (sj − si )2 = 1≤i<j≤n 1≤i<j≤n+1 (sj − si )2 . . a2k = sjk and observe the obvious (but important) inequality (sj − si )2 ≥ 0≤i<j≤n+1 1≤i<j≤2k (ai − aj )2 . a2 = sj1 . . Hence we need to show that (sj1 − si1 + sj2 − si2 + · · · + sjk − sik )2 ≤ 0≤i<j≤n+1 (sj − si )2 . 21 . 2 (a − a + a − · · · + a 1 2 3 2k−1 − a2k ) ≤ k((a1 − a2k )2 + (a3 − a2 )2 + · · · + (a2k−1 − a2k−2 )2 ) and by summing up all these inequalities. In the right-hand side we obtain an even smaller quantity than 1≤i<j≤2k (ai − aj )2 .

. . . x p(x) Titu Andreescu. an ) such that a1 + a2 + · · · + an ≥ n2 and a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 ≤ n3 + 1. then it is true for all x > 0. . c ≥ 1 the following inequality holds: √ a−1+ √ b−1+ √ c−1≤ a(bc + 1). an . Prove that 1 1 if p ≥ is true for x = 1. Prove that for any positive real numbers a. Prove that (ax2 + bx + c)(cx2 + bx + a) ≥ (a + b + c)2 x2 for all nonnegative real numbers x. 2002 5. bn be real numbers such that ai aj > 0. . a + b b + c c + a 2 3 abc (a + b)(b + c)(c + a) Titu Andreescu. 4. . b2 . . For any positive integer n ﬁnd the number of ordered n-tuples of integers (a1 . c be nonnegative real numbers. Let a1 . c. Prove that for any real numbers a. . Let a. AMM 22 . Let p be a polynomial with positive real coeﬃcients. a2 . 1≤i<j≤n Prove the inequality 2 1≤i=j≤n 1≤i=j≤n ai aj 1≤i=j≤n bi bj ai bj ≥ Alexandru Lupas. b1 . . 1 2 n China. b. b. . √ 1 (a + b + c + 3 abc)2 1 1 1 + + + √ ≥ . .Problems for training 1. . Titu Andreescu. Gazeta Matematica 2. b. Revista Matematica Timisoara 3. MOSP 1999 6. a2 .

c. Let n ≥ 2 be an even integer. xn be positive real numbers such that 1 1 1 + + ··· + = 1. Determine the least possible value of a2 + a2 + · · · + 1 2 a2 . We consider all polynomials of the form xn + an−1 xn−1 + · · · + a1 x + 1.7. with real coeﬃcients and having at least one real zero. Saint Petersburg. . 2002 π 10. . USAMO 2002 9. such that 2 sin2 x1 + sin2 x2 + · · · + sin2 x10 = 1. x10 ∈ 0. 3 Vasile Cartoaje. Titu Andreescu. The triangle ABC satisﬁes the relation cot A 2 2 + 2 cot B 2 2 + 3 cot C 2 2 = 6s 7r 2 . y. . . . Given are real numbers x1 . Prove that 3(sin x1 + sin x2 + · · · + sin x10 ) ≤ cos x1 + cos x2 + · · · + cos x10 . b. Kvant 23 . z the following inequality holds ax + by + cz + 2 (a2 + b2 + c2 )(x2 + y 2 + z 2 ) ≥ (a + b + c)(x + y + z). . x2 . 2002 8. Vojtech Jarnik Competition. . x. 2001 11. Let x1 . Show that ABC is similar to a triangle whose sides are integers and ﬁnd the smallest set of such integers. . n−1 Czech-Polish-Slovak Competition. Prove that for any real numbers a. 1 + x1 1 + x2 1 + xn Prove the inequality √ x1 + √ x2 + · · · + √ xn ≥ (n − 1) 1 1 1 √ + √ + ··· + √ x1 x2 xn . x2 .

c. xn such that xi xj = i≤i<j≤n n . Let n > 2 and x1 . . . x2 . . Gabriel Dospinescu 24 . n(n − 1) 1 1 1 + + ··· + x1 x2 xn = n2 + 1. z such that xy + yz + zx = 3. . x2 . a2 . xn the following inequality holds n n 2 |xi − xj | i=1 i=1 ≤ 2(n2 − 1) 3 n n |xi − xj |2 . b+c c+a a+b Titu Andreescu. b. . i=1 j=1 IMO 2003 13. Gabriel Dospinescu 15. y. . Gabriel Dospinescu 14. . x. . . an . xn be positive real numbers such that (x1 + x2 + · · · + xn ) Prove that (x2 + x2 + · · · + x2 ) 1 2 n 1 1 1 + + ··· + 2 xn x2 x2 1 2 > n2 + 4 + 2 . a2 + · · · + an a1 + · · · + an−1 Vasile Cartoaje. x1 . x2 . a b c (y + z) + (x + z) + (x + y) ≥ 3. . Prove that for any positive real numbers a1 . . 2 the following inequality holds an a1 (x2 + · · · + xn ) + · · · + (x1 + · · · + xn−1 ) ≥ n. . Prove that for any positive real numbers a.12. . Prove that for any real numbers x1 . . . .

y. c such that abc = 1 and write 1 x=a+ . without any ideas. we compute the product xyz = = a2 + 1 a2 a+ 1 a b+ 1 b2 1 b c+ 1 c 1 c2 +2 + b2 + + c2 + = (x2 − 2) + (y 2 − 2) + (z 2 − 2) + 2. b. −1)). But this is a mathematical crime! Here is a nice idea. but we will go beyond. z) = (1. independent of a. c. z. b. x2 + y 2 + z 2 − xyz = 4 and this is the answer to the problem. b. To generate a relation involving x. Thus. In this case. We begin this discussion with a problem. an important task characterizing the set of solutions by using parameters. showing how a simple idea can generate lots of nice problems. Example 1. some of them really diﬃcult. but this problem is in fact the introduction that leads to the other themes in this discussion.EQUATIONS AND BEYOND Real equations with multiple unknowns have in general inﬁnitely many solutions if they are solvable. Now. c and then substitute the results in the relation abc = 1. Of course. y. another question appears: is the converse true? Obviously not (take for example the numbers (x. Consider three real numbers a. It may seem unusual. We are going to discuss two real equations and two parameterizations. one would solve the equations from (1) with respect to a. y =b+ a Find an algebraic relation between 1 1 . But looking again 25 (2) . 1. y. z =c+ (1) b c x. z.

the discriminant must be nonnegative. we ﬁnd that y 2 ≥ 4 and so there exist a non-zero real number 1 v for which y = v + . β. c) = u. c with abc = 1 satisfying (1). Example 2. in 2 which this time it is clear that a. |z|} ≥ 2. But since |x| > 2. |z|} > 2. and now we are almost done. v. If z = uv+ A direct consequence of the previous problem is the following: If x. ∞). Indeed. Prove that there exist real numbers a. which means that (x2 − 4)(y 2 − 4) ≥ 0. we see that we must have min{|x|. uv uv 1 u u v . (we have used here u the condition |x| > 2). y. . let us regard (2) as a second degree equation with respect to z. c > 0 and we take α = ln a. |y|. b. Whenever we have a condition of the form max{|x|. Here. b. then we take (a. where ch : R → (0. |y|. it is better to make a choice. We will prove the following result. We ﬁnd two solutions: z1 = uv + 1 .at (1). z > 0 are real numbers that verify (2). z be real numbers with max{|x|. ch(x) = χ = ln c. let us take |x| > 2. How do we ﬁnd the corresponding z? Simply by v solving the second degree equation. b. we write (1). Inspired by the previous equation. All the conditions and if z = + . |z|} > 2. ex + e−x . Now. β = ln b. Let x. y. y = 2ch(β). uv z2 = u v + v u 1 1 we take (a. v. let us consider another one x2 + y 2 + z 2 + xyz = 4. |y|. c) = v u u v are satisﬁed and the problem is solved. z = 2ch(χ). This shows that there 1 exists a nonzero real number u such that x = u + . b. χ ∈ R such that x = 2ch(α). Since this equation has real roots. then there exist α. 26 (3) .

First. y. let us consider the system x − y cos C − z cos B = 0 −x cos C + y − z cos A = 0 −x cos B + y cos A − z = 0 From the above observation. z < 2. For the converse. − cos B − cos A which expanded gives cos2 A + cos2 B + cos2 C + 2 cos A cos B cos C = 1. y = 2 cos B. B. Now. we see ﬁrst that 0 < x. 2) we 27 . y. z > 0. 2 equation with respect to z and taking into account that z ∈ (0. that is (a. let us prove that all these triples are solutions. B ∈ 0. 2 cos C) where A. Solving the numbers A. but here is a nice proof employing geometry and linear algebra. it follows that this system has a nontrivial solution. 2 cos B. C are the angles of an acute triangle. We know that in any triangle we have the relations a = c cos B + b cos C b = a cos C + c cos A c = b cos A + a cos B which are simple consequences of the Law of Cosines. We will prove that the set of solutions of this equation is the set of triples (2 cos A. This identity can be proved readily by using the sum-to-product formulas.where x. hence there are π such that x = 2 cos A. c) and so we must have 1 − cos C − cos C − cos B 1 − cos A 1 = 0. This reduces to the identity cos2 A + cos2 B + cos2 C + 2 cos A cos B cos C = 1. b.

Thus we can take C = π − A − B and we will have (x. b2 = b2 + 2 . z satisfy (3) if and only if there exists an acute-angled triangle ABC such that x = 2 cos A. cn ) = an + 1 1 1 n . b + n . Prove that for all n ≥ 1 the triple (an . Let x. a reasonable conjecture is that (an . with abc = 1. cn ) = an + 1 n 1 1 . a b c Then 1 1 1 a2 = a2 + 2 .obtain z = −2 cos(A + B). With the introduction and the easy problems over it is now time to see some nice applications of the above results. z > 2 satisfying (2). b2 = y 2 − 2. z) = (2 cos A. Example 4. (bn )n≥1 . bn . We deﬁne the sequences (an )n≥1 . c2 = c2 + 2 . We have established that (an . 2 cos B. bn . b + n . c1 = z and a2 = x2 − 2. y. this follows by induction from an + 1 an 2 + a2 + 1 an−1 1 −2 a2 = an+1 + 1 an+1 an−1 + and two similar identities. z = 2 cos C. (cn )n≥1 by an+1 = a2 + x2 − 4 n . 2 cos C). y = b+ . The positive real numbers x. bn . Let us write x = a+ . cn + n an b c . cn ) also satisﬁes (2). c2 = z 2 − 2. All in all we have solved the following problem. 1 1 1 Solution. bn−1 cn+1 = c2 + z 2 − 4 n . y. Indeed. y = 2 cos B. an−1 bn+1 = b2 + y 2 − 4 n . a b c So. b1 = y. y. Example 3. z = c+ . cn + n n a b c 28 . cn−1 with a1 = x.

It is exactly xy+ (x2 − 4)(y 2 − 4). z) Using the hypothesis. Not exactly. y. h(y.c + b c 1 1 + k b + .c + a b c =0 whenever abc = 1. There are polynomials g(x. y. y. z). To show this. |y|} > 2.c + b c 1 1 1 a + . Well. z). it seems that this is a dead end. b c 2 2 1 Then it is easy to compute a+ . which shows that indeed the triple (an . the function x → x2 − 4 is 29 . And now? The last relation suggests that we √ should prove that for each y with |y| > 2. we deduce that 0= a+ 1 a 1 1 h b + . y. z) = (x2 + y 2 + z 2 − xyz − 4)g(x. z) + k(y.But if abc = 1. y = c + with b = . it is now clear that the polynomials divisible by x2 + y 2 + z 2 − xyz − 4 are solutions to the problem. From the introduction. z) + xh(y. then certainly an bn cn = 1. |y|} > 2 and we write 1 x + x2 − 4 y + y2 − 4 1 x = b + . z) with real coeﬃcients such that f whenever abc = 1. Now we take two numbers x. y such√ that min{|x|. Find all polynomials f (x. y) + k(x. Example 5. we have found that (xy + (x2 − 4)(y 2 − 4))h(x.c= . The following problem is a nice characterization of the equation (2) by polynomials and also teaches us some things about polynomials in two or three variables. bn . cn ) satisﬁes (2). z) with real coeﬃcients such that f (x. we use the classical polynomial long division. a So. y) = 0 whenever min{|x|. But it is not obvious why any desired polynomial should be of this form. k(y.b + . Gabriel Dospinescu Solution.

IMO Shortlist. y) = k(x. for each y with |y| > 2 we have h(x. c > 0. v = √ . y) = 0 for all x. than each q(x) zero of x2 − 4 should have even multiplicity. w = 2 cos C. 30 . that is. there aren’t polynomials p. z) of positive real numbers such that x+y+z =a+b+c a2 x + b2 y + c2 z + abc = 4xyz Titu Andreescu. that is our polynomial is divisible with x2 + y 2 + z 2 − xyz − 4. w = √ . q such that x2 − 4 = p(x) . y. Let a. v = 2 cos B. We try to use the information given by the second equation. We have made use of the second condition. y) = 0 for all x. the following problem and the featured solution prove that sometimes an eﬃcient substitution can help more than ten complicated ideas. Example 6. But this means that h(x. O a diﬀerent kind. Consequently. This equation can be written as a2 b2 c2 abc + + + =4 yz zx xy xyz and we already recognize the relation u2 + v 2 + w2 + uvw = 4 b c a where u = √ . 1995 Solution. which is not the case. According to example 3. Find all triples (x. y) = k(x. b.√ not rational. so we use the ﬁrst one to deduce that √ √ √ x + y + z = 2 xy cos C + 2 yz cos A + 2 zx cos B. we can yz xy zx ﬁnd an acute-angled triangle ABC such that u = 2 cos A. But this is easy because if such polynomials existed. y.

Hence there is a unique triple that is solution to the given system. we ﬁnd the Because this discriminant is nonnegative. we infer that √ y sin C = √ z sin B and √ x= √ y cos C + √ z cos B. z satisfy xy + yz + zx + xyz = 4. This could be another possible solution of the problem. Prove that if the positive real numbers x. 2 xy and it is immediate to see that this triple satisﬁes both conditions. we ﬁnd that √ √ √ y x z = = sin A sin B sin C Now we square these relations and we use the fact that a cos A = √ . 1998 31 . 2 y= c+a . y. Example 7. India. We will see that example 3 helps us ﬁnd a nice geometric solution to this inequality. Combining the last two relations.Trying to solve this as a second degree equation in discriminant √ √ −4( y sin C − z sin B)2 . Notice that the condition √ √ √ x + y + z = 2 xy cos C + 2 yz cos A + 2 zx cos B is the equality case in the lemma stated in the solution of the following problem. 2 z= a+b 2 b cos B = √ . We have discussed the following very diﬃcult problem in the chapter ”An useful substitution”. 2 zx c cos C = √ . √ x. then x + y + z ≥ xy + yz + zx. 2 yz The conclusion is: x= b+c .

y. we can use the result from example 3 and we deduce the existence of an acute-angled triangle ABC such that √ yz = 2 cos A √ zx = 2 cos B √ xy = 2 cos C We solve the system and we ﬁnd the triplet (x. then x2 + y 2 + z 2 ≥ 2yz cos A + 2zx cos B + 2xy cos C. z are arbitrary real numbers. Q. If ABC is a triangle and x. Proof of the lemma. BC. z) = 2 cos B cos C 2 cos A cos C 2 cos A cos B . cos A cos B cos C This one is a hard inequality and it follows from a more general result. CA. respectively. Let us write the condition xy + yz + zx + xyz = 4 in the form √ xy 2 + √ yz 2 + √ zx + 2 √ xy · √ yz · √ zx = 4. It is not diﬃcult to observe that at ﬁrst glance. the condition xy + yz + zx + xyz = 4 it’s not the same as the equation (3). Lemma. which is obviously true. Let us consider points P. cos A cos B cos C Hence we need to prove that 2 cos B cos C 2 cos A cos C 2 cos A cos B + + ≥ 2(cos2 A+cos2 B+cos2 C).Solution. R on the lines AB. Then we see that the inequality is equivalent to − → −→ − − → (x · AP + y · BQ + z · CR)2 ≥ 0. such that AP = BQ = CR = 1 and P. . 32 . R and do not lie on the sides of the triangle. Now. y. Q.

Let’s make another x small step: proving that f (x) ≥ 2 for all x. We are going to discuss two problems in which the identity is very well masked. this type of identities does not appear only in inequalities. ∞) → (0. cos B z= 2 cos A cos B cos C in the above lemma and the problem will be solved. y xy y2 = x . Repeating this argument. but still far from the solution. we ﬁnd that for all x we have f (x) > 2+ 2+ √ 2 + . observe that by symmetry in x.. We are right. Wrong! Let’s observe that f (x2 ) + f (y 2 ) = f (xy)f for all x. These relations should now ring a bell! It seems that we are searching for something like f (x) = 1 xk + k . = 2 (the last equality being immediate for a beginner in analysis). Next. y we must x y 1 have f =f and so f (x) = f . till now nothing related to our theme. we just have to take x= 2 cos B cos C cos A y= 2 cos A cos C . by taking x = y = 1 y x x we obtain f (1) = 2 and then f (x2 ) = f 2 (x) − 2. Example 8. √ f 2 (x) = f (x2 ) + 2 > 2 + 2. it suﬃces to write x x2 = xy . since f (x2 ) = f 2 (x) − 2 implies that f (x) > 2 for all x. this is going to be √ easy. Sankt Petersburg Solution.The lemma being proved. y. Thus. But of course. Indeed.. Indeed. ∞) satisfying f (x)f (y) = f (xy) + f x y . Find all continuous functions f : (0. y x y 33 . Yet. First of all.

∞) → [1. By considering h(x) = ln g(ex ). Using the idea from the chapter with real equations. do more: who is x0 ? And the answer x0 = 2 Let us remark that 2 √ 1 x0 + √ = 49 x0 34 . Now. ∞) such that f (x) = g(x) + . The the given condition becomes write an = xn + xn xn+1 = xn xn−1 (we have used here explicitly that xn > 1). we 1 . these are all solutions of the equation (the veriﬁcation of the identity is immediate for this class of functions). we deduce that xn = xFn . Titu Andreescu Solution. we deduce the existence of a con1 tinuous function g : (0. Let (an )n≥0 be a non-decreasing sequence of positive integers such that a0 = a1 = 47 and a2 + a2 + a2 − an−1 an an+1 = 4 for all n ≥ 1. we have to 0 √ 47 + 472 − 1 won’t suﬃces. Using also the fact that f (x) ≥ 2. which shows that (ln xn )n≥0 is a Fibonacci-type sequence. with xn > 1. And ﬁnally. Since x0 = x1 . This shows that g(x) = xk and that our thoughts were right. let us make one more step and write f 2 (x) + f 2 (y) − 4 = f (x2 ) + f (y 2 ) = f (xy)(f (x)f (y) − f (xy)). an apparently inextricable recursive relation. since we ﬁnd that f 2 (x) + f 2 (y) + f 2 (xy) = f (x)f (y)f (xy) + 4.With this information. We are now on the right track. where F0 = F1 = 1. Fn+1 = Fn + Fn−1 . we obtain that h is a continuous solution of Cauchy’s functional equation f (x + y) = f (x) + f (y). n−1 n n+1 Prove that 2 + an and 2 + √ 2 + an are perfect squares for all n ≥ 0. Example 9. The g(x) above relation implies of course that g(xy) = g(x)g(y). thus h(x) = kx for a certain k.

All we are left to prove is that λ2k + isn’t diﬃcult. solutions to the system: x2 + y 2 + z 2 = xyz + 4 xy + yz + zx = 2(x + y + z) 2. y. x0 Solving the equation. λ2 λ4 + 1 ∈R λ4 1 ∈ R for all k ∈ R. y. Let x. Prove that (2 − a)(2 − b) + (2 + a)(2 + b) (2 − b)(2 − c) + (2 + b)(2 + c) (2 − c)(2 − a) = 1. since √ an + 2 = (λ4Fn + λ−4Fn )2 and 2 + 2 + an = (λ2Fn + λ−2Fn )2 . we obtain √ 4 x0 = = λ2 that is x0 = λ8 . we obtain that √ 4 1 x0 + √ = 3. 1 ∈ R. Romanian Inter-county Contest 35 . 4 x 0 √ 1+ 5 2 2 1 x0 + √ = 7. since λ2 + and λ2(k+1) + 1 λ2(k+1) = λ2 + 1 λ2 λ2k + 1 λ2k − λ2(k−1) + 1 λ2(k−1) . z of positive real numbers. (2 + c)(2 + a) Cristinel Mortici. And now the problem becomes easy. Find all triples x. But this λ2k Problems for training 1. z > 0 such that x2 + y 2 + z 2 + xyz = 4. And so we have found the general formula an = λ8Fn + λ−8Fn .from where we ﬁnd that √ Similarly.

Find all pairs of positive integers (x. Titu Andreescu. c ≥ 0 satisfy the condition |a2 +b2 +c2 −4| = abc. y. b. solutions to the system a2 + b2 + c2 + abc = 4 a+b+c=3 Cristinel Mortici. c) of positive real numbers. Romanian Inter-county Contest 5. Prove that if a. MOSP 2000 8. Gabriel Dospinescu 7. z > 0 such that xy + yz + zx + xyz = 4. 2 2 2 6. n 36 . Prove that in any acute-angled triangle the following inequality holds cos A cos B 2 + cos B cos C 2 + cos C cos A 2 + 8 cos A cos B cos C ≥ 4.3. Prove that 3 1 1 1 √ +√ +√ y x z 2 ≥ (x + 2)(y + 2)(z + 2). y) such that xy − (x + y)2 = n − 4. then (a − 2)(b − 2) + (b − 2)(c − 2) + (c − 2)(a − 2) ≥ 0. Let x. Titu Andreescu 9. Gazeta Matematica 4. Let n > 4 be a given positive integer. Prove that in any triangle the following inequality holds sin A B C + sin + sin 2 2 2 2 ≤ cos2 A B C + cos2 + cos2 . b. Solve in positive integers the equation (x + 2)(y + 2)(z + 2) = (x + y + z + 2)2 . Find all triples (a. Titu Andreescu.

c ≥ 0 satisfy a2 + b2 + c2 + abc = 4 then 0 ≤ ab + bc + ca − abc ≤ 2. Hojoo Lee. USAMO 2001 37 . c ≥ 2 satisfy the condition a2 +b2 +c2 = abc+4. Find all triplets of positive integers (k. where a0 = a1 = 97 and an+1 = √ an−1 an + (a2 − 1)(a2 − 1) for all n ≥ 1. proposed for IMO 2002 12. ∞) → (0. l. has real solutions. Titu Andreescu. Prove that if a. b. b. Marian Tetiva 14. m) with sum 2002 and for which the system x y + =k y x y z + =l z y z +x =m x y Titu Andreescu.Titu Andreescu 10. Find all functions f : (0. Let the sequence (an )n≥0 . Prove that 2 + 2 + 2an is n n−1 a perfect square for all n ≥ 0. y. ∞) with the following properties: √ √ √ a) f (x)+f (y)+f (z)+f (xyz) = f ( xy)f ( yz)f ( zx) for all x. Prove that if a. Titu Andreescu 11. b) if 1 ≤ x < y then f (x) < f (y). z. then a + b + c + ac + bc ≥ 2 (a + b + c + 3)(a2 + b2 + c2 − 3). IMO Shortlist 2004 13.

Euler. . c)·lcm(c. . Less straightforward is n n 5). . But what do we do when we have to prove for example that lcm(a. For simplicity. vp (b)} ≤ vp (a + b) ≤ max{vp (a). if p doesn’t divide a. b. Observe that 3) and 4) are simple consequences of the deﬁnitions. vp (a2 ). . let us repeat the above idea in terms of vp (a): we have a|b if and only if for any prime number p we have vp (a) ≤ vp (b) and we have a = b if and only if for any prime number p. a) for any positive integers a. Also.LOOK AT THE EXPONENT! Most of the times. Now. . a1 . c? Then one thing is sure: the above methods fail. let us denote by vp (a) the exponent of the prime number p in the decomposition of a. This follows from the fact that there are multiples of p. b. . 1. . vp (a) = vp (b). vp (an )}. . where a0 . b. . an )) = min{vp (a1 ). Of course. . let us write n = a0 + a1 p + · · · + ak pk . a2 . 4) vp (lcm(a1 . proving divisibility reduces to congruences and the famous theorems from this ﬁeld. . c)2 |lcm(a. . it is easy to prove the following properties of vp (a): 1) min{vp (a). b)·lcm(b. such as Fermat. 2 are p p multiples of p2 and so on. Here. or Wilson. vp (an )} and n − sp (n) n n n 5) vp (n!) = + 2 + 3 +· · · = whenever p|n. p p p p−1 sp (n) is the sum of digits of n when written in base b. . vp (b)} 2) vp (ab) = vp (a) + vp (b) for any positive integer numbers a. a2 . . . . . another smart idea appears: if we have to prove that a|b. ak ∈ {0. vp (a2 ). The other equality is not diﬃcult. . . Indeed. . p − 1} 38 . . then vp (a) = 0. . then it is enough to prove that the exponent of any prime number in the decomposition of a is at least the exponent of that prime number in the decomposition of b. Yet. . Some other useful properties of vp (a) are: 3) vp (gcd(a1 . . an )) = max{vp (a1 ).

We have chosen with intention the ﬁrst problem (the classical one) a very nasty one. Prove that ∈ Z for (2a + 3b)!(a + 2b)!(a + b)!a!(b!)2 any positive integers a. Now. Then n n + 2 +· · · = a1 +a2 p+· · ·+ak pk−1 +a2 +a3 p+· · ·+ak pk−2 +· · ·+ak p p and now using the formula 1 + p + · · · + pi = pi+1 − 1 . b. let’s see some concrete results. (3a + 3b)!(2a)!(3b)!(2b)! Example 1... We ﬁnd that vp ((3a + 3b)!(2a)!(3b)!(2b)!) = k≥1 3a + 3b 2a 3b 2b + k + k + k pk p p p and also vp = ((2a + 3b)!(a + 2b)!(a + b)!a!(b!)2 ) = k≥1 a + 2b a+b a b 2a + 3b + + + k +2 k k k k p p p p p 39 . p−1 we ﬁnd exactly 5). Enough with the introduction. let us take a prime p and let us apply formula 5).. let us clearify something. as well as the ﬁrst observations. First. Let us see. so that the reader doesn’t think that all the above formulas were for nothing and because it oﬀers us the opportunity to prove a very nice inequality. Richard Askey.and ak = 0. There are hundreds of variants of it in all contests around the world and in all elementary magazines. When we write n n n + 2 + 3 + . AMM 6514 Solution. p p p we write in fact k≥1 n pk and this sum has clearly a ﬁnite number of non-zero terms.

. b3 |a4 . after splitting in some cases. This isn’t easy. . we have to prove that for any nonnegative real numbers x. it is enough to prove that for each k ≥ 1 the term corresponding to k in the ﬁrst sum is greater than or equal to the term a corresponding to k in the second sum. . a5 |b6 . so that to see when [2{x}]. a5 |b6 . but with another useful idea the inequality will become easy. y we p have [3x + 3y] + [2x] + [3y] + [2y] ≥ [2x + 3y] + [x + 2y] + [x + y] + [x] + 2[y]. Let us take a prime p and try to prove that vp (a) = vp (b). [3{y}]. Let a. that is vp (a) ≤ lim n→∞ 4n + 2 vp (b) = vp (b). The conclusion follows: a = b. After this operation. is the same as a4n+1 |b4n+2 and b4n+3 |a4n+4 for all natural number n. [2{y}] are 0. p b y = k . . . Prove that a = b. The idea is that [3x + 3y] = 3[x] + 3[y] + [3{x} + 3{y}] and similar relations for the other terms of the inequality. We see that the hypothesis a|b2 . b3 |a4 . Solution. 4n + 1 Similarly. Why is the new inequality easy? Because we can easily compute all terms. But the relation a4n+1 |b4n+2 can be interpreted as (4n + 1)vp (a) ≤ (4n + 2)vp (b) for all n. y < 1. since another beautiful problem is waiting. . With the substitution x = k . 1 or 2. 40 . .Of course. b7 |a8 . Example 2. b be positive integers such that a|b2 . the condition b4n+3 |a4n+4 implies vp (a) ≥ vp (b) and so vp (a) = vp (b). We won’t continue studying these cases. b7 |a8 . we see that it suﬃces to prove the inequality only for 0 ≤ x.

y. x} ≥ 2 max{x. Let p an arbitrary prime number. It is time for some diﬃcult problems. b. so we should better see what happens if a! · b!|n!. c. Of course. x}. So. b. Now. since we may assume that x ≥ y ≥ z (the symmetry allows us this supposition) and the inequality becomes 2x + y ≥ 2x. b) · lcm(b. So. y} + max{y. z} for any nonnegative integers x. y} + max{y. we need to prove that max{x. where 41 . z} + max{z. b) · lcm(b. Prove that lcm(a. there is no reasonable estimation of this constant. b. Example 4. c)2 ) = 2 max{x. z} and vp (lcm(a. But this is easy. y = vp (b). z} + max{z. Prove that there exists a constant c such that for any positive integers a. z = vp (c). Example 3. y. c) · lcm(c. a) for any positive integers a. a)) = max{x. c) · lcm(c. which are all based on the observations from the beginning of the discussion. y. Solution. although for sure the reader has already done this. we need another observation: the sum of digits of a number A when written in binary is at most the number of digits of A in base 2. Then v2 (a!) + v2 (b!) ≤ v2 (n!). which is 1 + [log2 A] (this follows from the fact that 2k−1 ≤ A < 2k . This time the other formula for vp (n!) is useful. where x = vp (a). which can be translated as a − s2 (a) + b − s2 (b) ≤ n − s2 (n) < n. z. c)2 |lcm(a. We have vp (lcm(a. obviously true. n that verify a! · b!|n! we have a + b < n + c ln n.We have mentioned in the beginning of the discussion a nice and easy problem. we have found almost exactly what we needed: a + b < n + s2 (a) + s2 (b). Paul Erdos Solution. b. so probably it’s time to solve it.

n! is a divisor of n−1 (2n − 2k ).k is the number of digits of A in base 2). let us take a prime number p. Of course. 6) = 1. for the argument to be non-trivial. This is surely not a power of exponent at least 2. So. where (y. their sum is not an integer power of exponent at least 2? Kvant Solution. we have the estimations a + b < n + s2 (a) + s2 (b) ≤ n + 2 + log2 ab ≤ n + 2 + 2 log2 n (since we have of course a. So. We have v2 (n!) = n − s2 (n) ≤ n − 1 42 . Prove that for any natural number n. their sum will be of the form 2x · 3x+1 · y. And now the conclusion is immediate. since otherwise the exponent should divide both x and x + 1. The following problem shows the beauty of elementary numbertheory. Is there an inﬁnite set of positive integers such that no matter how we choose some elements of this set. Let us take A = {2n · 3n+1 |n ≥ 1} If we consider some diﬀerent numbers from this set. It took quite a long time before an olympic found an extraordinary solution. Thus this set is actually a good choice. We shall not present his solution. k=0 Solution. The following problem appeared in Kvant as a hard problem. This one is also a classic problem. we take p ≤ n (otherwise doesn’t divide n!). even easier. Example 6. let us see what happens with p = 2. Example 5. First. b ≤ n). that appeared in lots of mathematics competitions. but another one. It combines diverse ideas and techniques and the result is at least beautiful.

we must have v2 (n!) ≤ n . p−1 But we know that v2 (n!) = n − sp (n) n−1 n ≤ < p−1 p−1 p−1 and since v2 (n!) ∈ R. p−1 From these two inequalities. we conclude that n−1 v2 k=0 (2n − 2k ) ≥ v2 (n!) and now the problem is solved.and also n−1 n−1 v2 k=0 (2 − 2 ) n k = k=0 v2 (2n − 2k ) ≥ n − 1 (since 2 n − 2k is even for k ≥ 1). Now. so we are done with this case. let us assume that p > 2. 43 . n−1 (2n − 2k ) = 2 k=0 n(n−1) 2 n (2k − 1) k=1 and so. from the above remarks we infer that n−1 n v2 k=0 (2n − 2k ) = k=1 v2 (2k − 1) ≥ 1≤k(p−1)≤n v2 (2k(p−1) − 1) ≥ card{k|1 ≤ k(p − 1) ≤ n} Since card{k|1 ≤ k(p − 1) ≤ n} = we have found that n−1 n . so we also have p|2k(p−1) − 1 for all k ≥ 1. We have p|2p−1 − 1 from Fermat’s theorem. Now. p−1 v2 k=0 (2n − 2k ) ≥ n .

taking into account that nk is a power of 5. suppose that x. So. nk = nk−1 + 1. So. y are positive. Again this implies v2 (nk !) = v5 (nk !) and we have seen that this gives no solution. . . .Diophantine equations can also be solved using the methods employed in this topic. given in a russian olympiad. . This implies of course that j 2 5 nk nk j (because we clearly have > j ) and so nk ≤ 3. . . (n1 + 1) . Since nk is a power of 5. . It follows nk nk that ≤ 1+ and thus nk ≤ 6. A veriﬁcation 2j 5 by hand shows that there is no solution in this case. A crucial observation is that if nk > nk−1 + 1. Thus. we 2 5 44 . . Example 7. . (nk − 1)nk + 1 is relatively prime with 10 and it follows nk nk = j for all that v2 (nk !) = v5 (nk !). . (nk − 1)nk + 1 is congruent to 2 modulo 4 and thus v2 (nk !) = n+1 ≤ v5 (nk !)+1. Prove that the equation 1 1 1 1 = + + ··· + 10n n1 ! n2 ! nk ! does not have integer solutions such that 1 ≤ n1 < n2 < · · · < nk . (nk − 1)nk + 1 is again odd and thus we ﬁnd again that v2 (nk !) = n ≤ v5 (nk !). Tuymaada Olimpiad Solution. (nk − 1)nk + · · · + (nk−1 + 1) . . then (n1 + 1) . . We have 10n ((n1 + 1) . . nk !. Let us write nk = 2x · 5y . Suppose we have found a solution of the equation and let us consider P = n1 !n2 ! . . Then (n1 +1) . . we deduce that (n1 + 1) . Next. . . . (nk − 1)nk + · · · + (nk−1 + 1) . (nk − 1)nk + · · · + (nk−1 + 1) . (nk − 1)nk + 1) = nk ! which shows that nk divides 10n . (nk − 1)nk + · · · + (nk−1 + 1) . impossible. . First of all. suppose that y = 0. (nk −1)nk +· · ·+(nk−1 + 1) . . But then. (nk − 1)nk + 1 is odd and thus v2 (nk !) = n ≤ v5 (nk !). . . actually x = 0. Here is a diﬃcult one.

the given equation has no solution in natural numbers. nk−1 = and a quick research of all possibilities shows that there are no solutions. AMM E 2637 45 . Hence we can write n − 1 = 2m t. proposed by Armond E. . Note. which is clearly impossible. small veriﬁcations show that all such numbers are even. . an the number ai − aj is an integer. Thus pi = 2. A tricky APMO problem asked once upon a time to prove there is a number 2 < n < 2000 such that n|2n + 2. Let n = i=1 pk i i where p1 < · · · < ps are prime numbers... Example 8.ﬁnd that nk = 5. Then of course we have n ≡ 1 (mod 2mi ). Example 9. Although very short. it appeared in various contests. Choose that pi which minimizes this quantity and write pi = 1 + 2ri mi with mi odd. Prove that for any n > 1 we cannot have n|2n−1 + 1. We continue with a very nice and hard problem. it will be proved that 2 11 43 is a solution of the problem. Proving this turns out to be a diﬃcult problem and this was proved for the ﬁrst time by Sierpinski. a2 . Prove that for any integers a1 . s Solution. i−j 1≤i<j≤n Armond Spencer. in which the idea of looking at the exponents really saves us. Yet. . . The idea is to look at v2 (pi − 1). We will let to the reader the job to verify that 2 · 11 · 43 is a solution (and especially the job to ﬁnd how we arrived at this number) and also the exercise to prove that there are actually inﬁnitely many such numbers. After the quadratic reciprocity law topic. Spencer. In the last years. the proof is tricky. Thus. This problem seemed to appear for the ﬁrst time in AMM . We have 22 −1 ≡ 2 2m tmi mt ≡ −1 (mod pi ) thus we surely have ≡ 2(pi −1)t ≡ 1 (mod pi ) (the last congruence being derived from Fermat’s theorem).

any of them is of the form n−i n i + jp. 2 1≤i<j≤n i=0 n+i n+i (there are numbers k p pk congruent with i (mod p) between 1 and n. let us ﬁx k ≥ 1 and let us suppose that there are exactly bi indices j ∈ {1. of course.Solution. . . Now. . we consider a prime number p and we prove that for each k ≥ 1. So. p p k We see that if ai = i. . pk − 1}. the problem will be solved if we prove our claim. for each i ∈ {0. . if i = 0 we have 1 ≤ j ≤ ). 2. Since vp (here Nx y∈A 1≤i<j≤n (ai − aj ) = k≥1 Npk 1≤i<j≤n (ai − aj ) y is the number of terms from the sequence A that are multiples of x) and vp 1≤i<j≤n (i − j) = k≥1 Npk 1≤i<j≤n (i − j) . 2 46 . then bi = p −1 Npk and it suﬃces to prove that pk −1 (i − j) = i=0 ni pk 1≤i<j≤n 2 i=0 bi 2 pk −1 ≥ i=0 ni pk . n} such that aj ≡ i (mod pk ). Then we have pk −1 bi = Npk (ai − aj ) . with 0 ≤ j ≤ . 1. . This time. . . there are more numbers divisible by pk in the sequence of diﬀerences (ai −aj )1≤i<j≤n than in the sequence (i−j)1≤i<j≤n .

So. pk i=0. . xpk −1 − 1) which has the sum of the components n. . Let a. observe that we are practically asked to ﬁnd the minimal pk −1 value of i=0 pk −1 xi . when 2 pk −1 pk −1 xi = n (it is clear that i=0 i=0 bi = n = ni from the deﬁnition of bi ). For this. so it is true. . . 2. . x1 . x2 . . Let us start by writing a = . Example 10. . b two diﬀerent positive rational numbers such that for inﬁnitely many numbers n.pk −1 Finally. pk − 1} such that x0 = x1 = · · · = xj and xj+1 = xj+2 = · · · = xpk −1 = x0 + 1. where x. If xpk −1 > x0 + 1. . but for which x1 x0 + 1 + 2 2 < x0 2 + x1 2 + ··· + xpk −2 2 xpk −2 2 + xpk −1 − 1 2 xpk −1 . there is j ∈ {0. .Now. b = . . Mathlinks Contest x y Solution. it is time for a challenge. . y. b are also integers. 2 + ··· + + The last inequality is true. Then prove that a. We know thus that z n |xn −y n 47 . z are z z diﬀerent natural numbers relatively prime. . then we consider the n-tuple (x0 + 1. Gabriel Dospinescu. let us suppose that pk i=0 x1 ≤ x2 ≤ · · · ≤ xpk −1 is the n-tuple which attains the minimal pk −1 value (such a n-tuple exists since the equation i=0 xi = n has a ﬁnite number of solutions). . xpk −1 ). Thus. . . . . pk − 1}. we must have xpk −1 ≤ x0 + 1 and from here it follows that xi ∈ {x0 . xpk −2 . 2. . 1. x1 . since it is equivalent with xpk −1 > x0 +1. . x0 + 1} for all i ∈ {0. But this contradicts the minimality of (x0 . an − bn is integer. . This easily implies that the minimal n+i n-tuple is in fact and the problem is solved. 1.

Let M be the set of those numbers n. x. Similarly. . But xvn −1 + xvn −2 + · · · + xy vn −2 + y vn −1 is obviously odd (since vn . ii) If p is odd. 48 . Let x = tu. Consequently. we can prove that v2 (xvn + y vn ) = v2 (x + y). (2un )n∈M is bounded. (x2 un −1 v n − y2 un −1 v n ) it follows that un −1 v2 (x − y ) = v2 (x n n vn −y )+ k=0 vn v2 (x2 kv n + y2 kv n ). y = tv. assume that z > 1 and take p a prime divisor of z. where vn is odd. y are odd). hence v2 (xvn − y vn ) = v2 (x − y). Then for any n in M we will have p|xn −y n . . Hence (un )n∈M takes only a ﬁnite number of values and from (∗) it follows that (vn )n∈M also takes a ﬁnite number of values. Since for k > 0 we have x2 we ﬁnally deduce that 2un vn ≤ v2 (xn − y n ) ≤ v2 (x + y) + v2 (x − y) + un − 1 (∗) kv n + y2 kv n ≡ 2 (mod 4). We have thus two cases: i) If p = 2. Now. then let n such that 2n |xn − y n and write n = 2un vn .for inﬁnitely many numbers n. Assuming that p does not divide x. then let d the smallest positive integer k such that p|xk −y k . that is M is ﬁnite. it obviously follows that it can’t divide y. From the identity x2 un v n − y2 un v n = (xvn − y vn )(xvn + y vn ) . a simple reason being the inequality 2un ≤ v2 (x + y) + v2 (x − y) + un − 1.

we can write Aj = B j + wp and then a simple Let us prove now that we cannot have p2 | computation using Newton’s binomial formula shows that Apj − B pj = Aj(p−1) + Aj(p−2) + · · · + B j(p−1) Aj − B j ≡ pB j(p−1) + p − 1 j(p−2) 2 B p ≡ pB j(p−1) 2 (mod p2 ) and thus it would follow that p|B. v) = 1. we also have p2 |Ajp k−1 (p−1) + Ajp k−1 (p−2) B jp k−1 + · · · + bjp k−1 (p−1) .d) and by the choice of d. otherwise we would have Ajpk−1 − B jpk−1 k k p2 |Ajp − B jp ⇒ p2 |Apj − B pj (Euler’s theorem). . we must have d|n. Apj − B pj . Now. un −v n ) = u(n. false.where (u. jpi−1 A − Bj A − B jpi−1 j j i i (we have assumed that i > 1. We clearly have A −B m m Apj − B pj Ajp − B jp = (A − B ) j . where j is relatively prime with p. othAj − B j erwise (since p|A − B). An essential observation is that we cannot have jpk − B jpk 2| A p for a certain k > 1. tuv is not a multiple of p. since the ﬁnal conclusion will be obvious in any other case). Let R the inﬁnite set of those numbers m. Moreover. that is p|y. Then pm |pn |xn − y n = Am − B m and this happens for inﬁnitely many numbers m. Take now n in M and write it in the form n = md.d) −y (n. Indeed.d) |x(n. For any m in R we have m ≤ vp (Am − B m ). Let A = xd . false. p|A − B. From p2 |Aj − B j we have Ajp k−1 (p−1) + Ajp k−1 (p−2) B jp k−1 + · · · + B jp k−1 (p−1) ≡ pAjp k−1 (p−1) (mod p2 ). with m natural. Yet. Indeed. B = y d .d) −v (n. let us write m = pi j. 49 . . so we should have p|A. that is p|x. It follows then that p|(ud −v d . Obviously.

b. Prove that gcd a1 m1 a2 m2 ak mk . . c. Prove that gcd(a. Using again the fact that A ≡ B (mod p). . Problems for training 1. . c) · gcd(a.. b are integers. b) · lcm(b. . b. a) for any positive integers a. . a2 . . . y. . d) = a · gcd(a. . .. d be positive integers such that ab = cd. c. 1972 2. . which is clearly impossible. d). ak . bi ) = 1 for all i ∈ {1. . b1 . a) gcd(a. . . c)2 = lcm(a. . . contradiction with the fact that x. for inﬁnitely many numbers m we have m ≤ vp (A − B) + [log2 m].. IMO Shortlist 1974 50 (mod p). a2 . Thus. we infer that Aj−1 + Aj−2 B + · · · + B j−1 ≡ jAp−1 ≡ j which shows that vp (Aj − B j ) = vp (A − B). USAMO. . c) · lcm(c. bk ]. we have shown that in this case we must have m ≤ vp (Am − B m ) ≤ vp (Aj − B j ) + i. 2. . c. . z are relatively prime. we must have p|x and p|y.. b2 . b. ak ). b2 . b. b. . b1 b2 bk = gcd(a1 . Let m − lcm[b1 . Thus. . b) · gcd(b. c)2 gcd(a. Let a1 . c) · gcd(c. bk be positive integers such that gcd(ai . Let a.After all. This shows that z = 1 and a. k}. Prove the identity lcm(a. Polish Mathematical Olympiad 3. .

. 2. Peter L Montgomery. Komal 10. . Tournament of the Towns. Prove that the product of the numbers between 21917 + 1 and 21991 − 1 is not a perfect square. Porter. Prove that for any natural number n we have (n2 )! n n n+1 2n − 1 . . Let n such that 2n−2005 |n!.4. Prove that this number has at most 2005 non-zero digits when written in base 2. TST 1990 Romania 9. AMM E 3123 6. 2. 1 2 n if and only if n + 1 is a prime. n + 1) 2 k=1 ak = k−1 bk and k=1 (2 )! = k=1 ak bk !.. n!n n n ∈ R.. Let 0 < a1 < · · · < an be integers... . . AMM E 2686 7. Show that if n is a positive integer and a and b are integers. . 1991 11.n for any positive integer n.. . (a + (n − 1)b)bn − 1. Prove that the least common multiple of the numbers 1.. Laurentiu Panaitopol. Gabriel Dospinescu 8. then n! divides a(a + b)(a + 2b) . Prove that for any n ∈ N we have n!(n + 1)!(n + 2)!|(3n)!. 51 . R. . n n n n equals the least common multiple of the numbers . . 5. . Find the maximal value of the number m for which we can ﬁnd the integers 0 < b1 < · · · < bm such that n m n m n k = lcm(1. .M Grassl. T. Prove the identity (n + 1)lcmk=0.

. we have a1 k · · · + an < 1 + [ai ]. goes to inﬁnity as n → ∞. prove that x2n ≥ 2n − n + 1 (hint: try to prove ﬁrst the identity n−1 2 22 2n 2n 1 + + ··· + = ). Prove that there is a unique index i ∈ {1. n} such that a1 + 52 . Prove that the product of at most 25 consecutive integers is not a square. .IMO Shortlist. Poland Olympiad 13. . Narumi’s theorem + ··· + an k < 1. Even the numerator of + 1 2 n more. n−1 1 2 n n k=0 k Adapted after a Kvant problem 18. y be relatively prime diﬀerent natural numbers. AMM 14. Let x. Find the exponent of 2 in the decomposition of the number 2n+1 2n − 2n . 2. . Prove that k!k 2 +k+1 divides (k 3 )!. Prove that for inﬁnitely many primes p the exponent of p in xp−1 − y p−1 is odd. . an > 0 such that whenever k is a prime number of a power of a prime number. 2n−1 AMM 17. . Prove that (xn )n≥1 the exponent of 2 in the decomposition of 22 2n 2 + · · · + . . 16. Let a1 . 1985 12. .

PRIMES AND SQUARES The study of the properties of the prime numbers is so well developed (yet. that some properties have become classical and need to be known. These things are not new. we have a list of ([ n] + 1)2 > n numbers and it follows that two numbers among them give the same remainder when divided by n. So. we will consider A. but the theorem itself is a diamond. let us consider all the pairs xa − y. which is far from easy. y ≤ [ n]. Example 1. Thus. Solution. The most spectacular property of the set A is surely the fact that any element is the sum of two squares of positive integers. C. So. let them be ax1 − y1 and ax2 − y2 . Our purpose is to present some classical things related to A. many old conjectures and open questions wait their solution). don’t skip this unit! Since we will use some facts several times in this paper. Indeed. B the sets of all prime numbers of the form 4k + 1 and 4k + 3. The proof is simple. Prove that A is a subset of C. we need to prove that any prime number of the form 4k+1 is the sum of two squares. but they must be included in the mathematical culture of a serious problem-solver. let C be the set of all numbers which can be written as the sum of two perfect squares. we will discuss as usual some non-classical and surprising problems. respectively. We will use a very nice theorem of Thue. Also. we prefer to make some notations before discussing the problems. This is not a trivial property and we will see a beautiful proof for this theorem of Fermat. B. In this unit. we will try to present a unitary view over the properties of some classes of primes and also some classical results related to representations as sum of two squares. in the end of the unit. √ √ with 0 ≤ x. It is not diﬃcult to see 53 . So. then there exist integers 0 < x. y ≤ n such that xa ≡ ±y (mod n) for a suitable choice of the signs + and −. Yet. which says that if n is a positive integer and a is relatively prime with √ n.

since p|n2 + 1. we can write x2 ≡ −y 2 (mod p). (p − 1) ≡ (−1) p−1 2 ! ≡ (2k)!2 2 (mod p) and the claim is proved. Since they are easier. Why? Because from Wilson’s theorem we have −1 ≡ (p − 1)! (mod p) ≡ 1 · 2 .that we may assume that x1 > x2 (we certainly cannot have x1 = x2 or y1 = y2 ). y = |y1 − y2 |. it is clear that p and n are relatively prime. Combining this with the observation that (x. The theorem is proved. Because p|x2 + y 2 . Then p|(x. all the conditions are satisﬁed and the theorem is proved. The second one follows clearly from the ﬁrst one. This settles the ﬁrst question. Now. Hence we can apply Thue’s theorem and we ﬁnd √ √ the existence of positive integers 0 < x. Let us focus on the ﬁrst question. . We will use now Wilson’s theorem to ﬁnd an integer n such that p|n2 + 1. Then. it is time now to study some properties of the set B. we ﬁnd that p|x2 + y 2 and because √ 0 < x. p) = (y. 54 . Now. y) is not true. Solution. Consequently. . we ﬁnd that 1 ≡ xp−1 ≡ (−1) p−1 2 ≡ (−1) p−1 2 ≡ −1 (mod p). we will discuss them all in a single example. . Example 2. p−1 2 p−1 2 p− p−1 2 . it is obvious that xy is not a multiple of p. y < p. let us write p = 4k + 1 and observe that we can take n = (2k)!. Indeed. Conclude that A is inﬁnite and then that B is inﬁnite. it remains to prove the third assertion. If we take x = x1 − x2 . which is clearly impossible. Let p ∈ B and suppose that x. Suppose that p|(x. Because p|n2 + 1. p) = 1 and with Fermat’s theorem. y are integers such that p|x2 + y 2 . y < p (since p ∈ R) such that p|n2 x2 − y 2 . we conclude that we have in fact p = x2 + y 2 . y). . Now. any number of the form n2 + 1 has only prime factors that belong to A or are equal to 2.

. India. q2 . it is time to see how many applications these two examples have. qm )2 + 1. Since 1997 ∈ A. pn are all the elements of B greater than 3 and consider the odd number N = 4p1 p2 . the congruence n2 ≡ −1 (mod 1997) surely has at 55 . Because N ≡ 3 (mod 4). . . . But since pi is not a divisor of N for any i = 1. Find the number of integers x ∈ {−1997. It is not diﬃcult to characterize the elements of the set C. Indeed. . Indeed. The conclusion is plain. we consider this time the number M = (q1 q2 . This is not diﬃcult. where q1 . An easy consequence of the previous observations is the following.Proving that B is inﬁnite is almost identical with the proof that there exist inﬁnitely many primes. . 1997} for which 1997|x2 + (x + 1)2 . suppose that p1 . which is surely easy for someone who knows Fermat’s theorem regarding the elements of A and very diﬃcult otherwise. n the contradiction is reached and thus B is inﬁnite. The proof is just a consequence of the ﬁrst examples and we will not insist. p2 . since x2 + (x + 1)2 ≡ 0 (mod 1997) is of course equivalent to 2x2 + 2x + 1 ≡ 0 (mod 1997). So. 1998 Solution. Example 3. . A number is a sum of two squares if and only if any prime factor of it that also belongs to B appears at an even exponent in the decomposition of that number. pn + 3. qm are all the elements of A and then simply apply the result from the second question. . . . . . In the same manner we can prove that A is inﬁnite. N must have a prime factor that belongs to B. . which in turn becomes (2x + 1)2 + 1 ≡ 0 (mod 1997). but this time we must use the second question. We know that any congruence of the second degree reduces to the congruence x2 ≡ a (mod p). . Having presented some basic results that we will use in this unit. let us proceed and reduce the given congruence to this special form. . . we consider the following problem. As a simple application of the ﬁrst example.

1996}. 1997) = 1. 2. then vp (n) ∈ 2R}. . Example 4.least a solution. Hence we know what we have to do. that we have just discussed: C = {n ∈ R| if p|n and p ∈ B. This suggests that the set X is quite RARA. . we ﬁnd that there are exactly two solutions with x ∈ {−1997. . 1996} because if n0 is a solution. . . The statement of the problem suggests using the Chinese Remainder Theorem. . . . p2 . . each of them having a prime factor that belongs to B and has exponent 1. Because (2. More precisely. there are exactly two solutions that belong to {1. −1996. . let them p1 . From a previous observation. 2. . the function x → 2x + 1 is a permutation of R1997 and so the initial congruence has exactly two solutions with x ∈ {1. so is 1997 − n0 and it is clear that it has at most two non-congruent solutions mod 1997. . −1}. . that is there are arbitrarily long sequences of integers. . . More precisely. Therefore there are exactly four numbers x ∈ {−1997. pn (we can take as many as we need. we take diﬀerent elements of B. . We will take long sequences of consecutive integers. . . . we know that the condition that a number is a sum of two squares is quite restrictive. This conclusion can be translated in the following nice problem. no term of which can be written as the sum of two perfect squares. AMM Solution. In a similar way. since B is inﬁnite) and then we look for a 56 . Prove that C doesn’t have bounded gaps. but here the main idea is to use the complete characterization of the set C. 1997} such that 1997|x2 + (x + 1)2 . .

The Diophantine equation x(x + 1)(x + 2) . with a nice ﬂavor of elementary mathematics. Hence n2 ≡ 1 · 2(p − 1) ≡ −1 (mod p). Let us suppose that the positive integers x + 1. . the numbers x + 1. from the hypothesis it follows that there exists a positive integer n such that (x + 1)(x + 2) . x + 2. p − 1. . which means that the set of remainders of these numbers when divided by p is exactly 1. x + 2. Y . . but p2 does not divide x + i. where p ∈ B. . cannot be partitioned into two subsets. . Thus. Prove that a set of p − 1 consecutive positive integers. . . the last congruence being true by Wilson’s theorem.. since pi |xi . (x + n) = y k has been extensively studied by many mathematicians and great results have been obtained.solution of the system of congruences x ≡ p1 − 1 (mod p2 ) 1 x ≡ p − 2 (mod p2 ) 2 2 . . But these results are very diﬃcult to prove and we prefer to present a related problem. each of them having the same product of the elements. . . If at least one of them is a multiple of p. x ≡ p − n (mod p2 ) n n The existence of such a solution follows from the Chinese Remainder Theorem. 2. each having the same product of the elements. . Thus. Example 5. x + n cannot be written as the sum of two perfect squares. i Since n is as large as we want. . . . then there must be another one divisible by p (since in this case both the products of elements from X and Y must be multiples of p). . (x + p − 1) = n2 . none of these numbers is a multiple of p. which is clearly impossible. x + p − 1 have been partitioned into two classes X. Solution. Also. the conclusion follows.. . But from the second example we know that 57 .

y. but the basic idea is the same. Reid Barton. let us say x = 2k. z. we have to show that x4 − 4 does not belong to C. Example 7. Prove that the equation x4 = y 2 + z 2 + 4 does not have integer solutions. Using the factorization x4 −4 = (x2 −2)(x2 +2) and the observation that x2 +2 ≡ 3 (mod 4). by working modulo 4. We leave to the reader the details. The results stated in the second example are an useful tool in solving non-standard Diophantine equations. it is not clear how to begin. it worth noting that the equation x2 +y 2 = 4k+3 can be solved directly. we deduce that there exists p ∈ B such that vp (x2 + 2) is odd. Rookie Contest. Hence we need to ﬁnd an element of B that has an odd exponent in the decomposition of x4 − 4. which is not the case). The technique is better explained in the following two examples. Moreover. t is a multiple of p. the details are not so obvious and. Yet. The following problem is much more diﬃcult. which is clearly impossible since 4k 4 − 1 ≡ 3 (mod 4) and thus 4k 4 − 1 has a prime factor that belongs to B and has odd exponent. t are integers such that x2p +y 2p +z 2p = t2p . 1999 Solution. z. It has become a classical problem due to its beauty and diﬃculty.the congruence n2 ≡ −1 (mod p) is impossible for p ∈ B and this is the needed contradiction. We have thus shown that in any solution of the equation x is even. we must also have 4k 4 − 1 ∈ C. which are trivial. But since p cannot divide x2 − 2 (otherwise p|x2 + 2 − (x2 − 2). y. we conclude that vp (x4 − 4) is odd and so x4 − 4 does not belong to C. Practically. most important. Then. Prove that at least one of the numbers x. 58 . Example 6. Let p ∈ B and suppose that x. The ﬁrst case is when x is odd.

Find the smallest nonnegative integer n for which there exists a non-constant function f : Z → [0. we deduce that q|pt2(p−1) . 59 . we ﬁnd that p|x and p|y. Now. Since a2 (mod 4) ∈ {0. y. Suppose that it is z. Therefore q = p and so p|x2p + y 2p . This implies that at least one of the numbers x. Hence t is odd. Example 8. Supposing the contrary. It’s time for a hard problem. y. Since x2p + y 2p ∈ C. another step is required. z are even. z. First of all. z is odd. hence q|z and also q|x2p + y 2p . 1}. we obtain that x2p + y 2p + z 2p ≡ 0 (mod 4). If q = p. In particular q|t2 −z 2 and. z. The conclusion follows. This follows from the hypothesis p ∈ B and the fact that a2 ≡ 1 (mod 4) for any odd number a. z. because q|(t2 )p−1 +(t2 )p−2 z 2 +· · ·+(z 2 )p−1 . which is clearly impossible. t) = 1. we observe that it is enough to assume that x. y. t2 − z 2 which is congruent to 3 (mod 4). y. we infer that q|(x. The best candidate for this factor seems to be t2p − z 2p = (t2 )p−1 + (t2 )p−2 z 2 + · · · + (z 2 )p−1 . Because q ∈ B. the latter implies that x. Because p ∈ B. AMM Solution. Next. t) = 1. We write the equation in the form x2p + y 2p = t2p − z 2p 2 (t − z 2 ) t2 − z 2 and we look for a prime number q ∈ B with an odd exponent in the decomposition of a factor that appears in the right-hand side. it t2 − z 2 follows that vq (x2p + y 2p ) is even and so vq (t2 − z 2 ) is odd. there t2p − z 2p exists q ∈ B such that vq is odd.Barry Powel. ∞) with the following properties: a) f (xy) = f (x)f (y). we prove that t is odd. contradicting the assumption that (x. t are relatively prime. Thus. then q|t. y.

f (x) ∈ {0. We will use all results proved in the beginning of the note.b) 2f (x2 + y 2 ) − f (x) − f (y) ∈ {0. Solution. So. ﬁnd all the functions with the above properties. We have already seen that f (0) = 0. . n} for all integers x and y. We prove that there is 60 . one can easily verify that fp veriﬁes the restrictions of the problem. Thus. Then. Since f is non-constant. otherwise Using properties of sets A and B. contradiction. Then 2f (x2 +y 2 ) = f (x)+f (y) and hence 2f 2 (x) = 2f (x2 + 02 ) = f (x) + f (0). contradiction. 2 Thus. Consequently. Since f 2 (−1) = f (1) = 1 and f (−1) ∈ [0. Since f 2 (1) = f (1) and f is non-constant. we must have f (0) = 0. We will prove now that any non-constant function f which veriﬁes a) and b) must be of the form fp . We will prove now that if f is non-constant and veriﬁes the conditions of the problem. we must have f (1) = 1. But if 1 there exists x such that f (x) = . . then n > 0. we must have f (−1) = 1 and f (−x) = f (−1)f (x) = f (x) for any integer x. Suppose not. For any p ∈ B we deﬁne: fp : Z → Z. . 1}. then f 2 (x2 ) = 2f (x2 ). Also. For this n. we must have 2f 2 (x) = f (x) for every integer x. Hence fp is a solution of the problem for any p ∈ B. f (x) = 0 for any integer x and f is constant. It is clear that we have f 2 (0) = f (0). fp (x) = 0. since f (xy) = f (x)f (y). we will prove that for n = 1 there are functions which verify a) and b). ∞). . 1. if p|x 1. n = 1 is the smallest number for which there are non-constant functions which verify a) and b). We remind that A and B are the sets of all primes of the form 4k + 1 and 4k + 3. First. respectively. 2f 2 (x) − f (x) = 2f (x2 + 02 ) − f (x) − f (0) ∈ {0. 1} for every integer x. it is enough to ﬁnd f (p) for any prime p.

exactly one prime number p for which f (p) = 0. b} = 1). except for the order of the terms. 2. Then 2f (p2 + q 2 ) ∈ {0. we must have f (ap + bq) = f (aq − bp) = 0. which means f (p2 + q 2 ) = 0. But max{a. According to proposition 2. b} > 1 and there is a prime number q such that q| max{a. Therefore p ∈ A ∪ B.there is exactly one prime number p for which f (p) = 0. 1}. Then for any integers a and b we must have: 0 = 2f (a2 +b2 )f (p2 +q 2 ) = 2f ((ap+bq)2 +(aq−bp)2 ). which. Then f (x) = 0 for any even x and 2f (x2 +y 2 ) = 0 for any odd numbers x and y. there are positive integers a and b such that p = a2 + b2 . Prove that a positive integer can be written as the sum of two perfect squares if and only if it can be written as the sum of the squares of two rational numbers. So . then it can be represented in exactly one way as the sum of the squares of two integers. we would have f (max{a. Prove that if p ∈ A. Then we have 1 = f (1) = f (aq − bp) = 0. f must be fp and the conclusion follows. Since f is non-constant. Since p and q are relatively prime. Problems for training 1. contradiction. there are integers a and b such that aq − bp = 1. This implies that f (x) = f (y) = 0 for any odd numbers x and y and thus f is constant. 61 . Hence. Consequently. b} and f (q) = 0 (otherwise. Suppose there is another prime q for which f (q) = 0. as we have already seen. Let us suppose that p = 2. Suppose p ∈ A. is impossible. Then we must have f (a) = f (b) = 0. contradiction. But it is clear that q < p and thus we have found two distinct primes p and q such that f (p) = f (q) = 0. there exists a prime number p for which f (p) = 0. p ∈ B and we have f (x) = 0 for any x divisible by p and f (x) = 1 for any x which is not divisible by p. Since 0 ≤ f (x)+f (y) ≤ 2f (x2 + y 2 ) for any x and y.

1995 62 . Prove that p = x k Gauss 5. y) such that the number x2 + y 2 is a divisor of 1995. . The positive integers a. Find all positive integers n with the property that the equation n = x2 + y 2 . (an ! − 1) − 16 is a perfect square. . |y|} < and 2 2k 2 + y2.Euler 3. n) such that m2 − 1|3m + (n! − 1)m . 2xε (mod p). Find all pairs of positive integers (x. y ≡ (2k)!x (mod p). Find all pairs of positive integers (m. Find all n-tuples of positive integers (a1 . . b have the property that the numbers 15a + 16b and 16a − 15b are both perfect squares. Here is another proof of the theorem from example 1. Prove that the number 4mn − m − n cannot be a perfect square if m. n are positive integers. 4. Gabriel Dospinescu 6. . y) = 1 has exactly one solution. IMO 1984 Shortlist 8. an ) such that (a1 ! − 1)(a2 ! − 1) . a2 . x−y Bulgaria. where 0 ≤ x ≤ y and (x. y ∈ Z such that max{|x|. . Gabriel Dospinescu 9. What is the least possible value that can be taken on by the smallest of the two squares? IMO CE AN? 7. Suppose p that p = 4k + 1 ∈ A and let x. .

Prove that if n2 + a ∈ C for any positive integer n. IMO Shortlist. b we have f (ab) + f (a2 + b2 ) = f (a) + f (b).10. Find all positive integers n such that the number 2n − 1 has a multiple of the form m2 + 9. Prove that the equation y 2 = x5 − 4 does not have integer solutions. Mathlinks Contest 63 = a2 + b2 has solutions in positive integers. a) Prove that for any real number x and any natural number N 1 . one can ﬁnd integer numbers p. Let T the set of the positive integers n for which the equation n2 1. 1999 13. Gabriel Dospinescu 15. then a ∈ C. 17. if a|b then f (a) ≥ f (b) 2. Then prove that a ∈ C. Solve in integer numbers the equation x2 = y 7 + 7. Balkan. for any natural numbers a. 6583 16. 14. q such that |qx − p| ≤ N +1 b) Suppose that a ∈ Z is a divisor of a number of the form n2 + 1. Find all functions f : N → Z with the properties: 1. ROMOP. 1998 11. 2001 12. Gabriel Dospinescu. Prove that there exists inﬁnitely many pairs of consecutive numbers. no two of them having any prime factor that belongs to B. Prove that T has density . Moshe Laub.

(for the die hards) Let L0 = 2. Cohn’s theorem 64 . L1 = 1 and Ln+2 = Ln+1 + Ln be the famous Lucas’s sequence. Then the only n > 1 such that Ln is a perfect square is n = 3.18.

And now we see why calling it also the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality is natural. 2001. . . . since it is practically an equivalent form of this inequality: a2 a2 a2 1 + 2 + ··· + n x1 x2 xn ≥ a2 √ 1 · x1 + x1 (x1 + x2 + · · · + xn ) 2 a2 √ n · xn . this particular lemma has become very popular among the American students who attended the training of the USA IMO team. And there are plenty 65 . x2 . which is immediate. xn the inequality a2 a2 a2 (a1 + a2 + · · · + an )2 1 + 2 + ··· + n ≥ x1 x2 xn x1 + x2 + · · · + xn (1) holds. . But what exactly does this lemma say? It says that for any real numbers a1 . xn a2 √ 2 · x2 + · · · + x2 But there is another nice proof of (1). . Applying this result twice it follows that if x1 x2 a2 a2 a2 (a1 + a2 )2 a2 (a1 + a2 + a3 )2 1 + 2+ 3 ≥ + 3 ≥ x1 x2 x3 x1 + x2 x3 x1 + x2 + x3 and we see that a simple inductive argument ﬁnishes the proof. . Anyway. . Indeed. by induction. a2 . With this brief introduction. let us discuss some problems. it boils down to (a1 x2 − a2 x1 )2 ≥ 0 and the equality occurs if and only a2 a1 = .T2 ’S LEMMA T2 ’s lemma is clearly a direct application of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. . The inductive step is reduced practically to the case n = 2. This happened after a lecture delivered by the ﬁrst author at the Mathematical Olympiad Summer Program (MOSP) held at Georgetown University in June. an and any positive real numbers x1 . Some will say that it is actually the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality and they are not wrong.

Prove that for any positive real numbers a. This is not diﬃcult: we just have to write it in the form b4 c4 a4 + + . an old problem. a2 + ab + b2 b + bc + c2 c + ca + a2 a+b+c The second example also became representative for a whole class of problems. Example 1. c a3 b3 c3 a+b+c + 2 + 2 ≥ . 66 . b. that became classical. that is a3 b3 c3 a2 + b2 + c2 + 2 + 2 ≥ . We will see that with T2 ’s lemma it becomes straightforward and even more. We will change the left-hand side of the inequality so that we could apply T2 ’s lemma. a(a2 + ab + b2 ) b(b2 + bc + c2 ) c(c2 + ca + a2 ) It follows that the left-hand side is greater than or equal to (a2 + b2 + c2 )2 a3 + b3 + c3 + ab(a + b) + bc(b + c) + ca(c + a) But we can easily observe that a3 + b3 + c3 + ab(a + b) + bc(b + c) + ca(c + a) = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 ). so we ﬁnd it necessary to discuss it at this point. 1998 Solution. There are countless examples of this type in numerous contests and mathematical magazines. so we have proved an even stronger inequality. we will obtain a reﬁnement of the inequality.of them given in mathematical contests or proposed in mathematical magazines! First. 2 + ab + b2 2 2 a b + bc + c c + ca + a 3 Tournament of the Towns.

b + 2c + 3d c + 2d + 3a d + 2a + 3b a + 2b + 3c 3 Titu Andreescu. IMO 1993 Shortlist Solution. c. 4(ab + bc + cd + da + ac + bd) Hence it suﬃces to prove the inequality 3(a + b + c + d)2 ≥ 8(ab + bc + cd + da + ac + bd). If we write the left-hand side in the form a2 b2 c2 d2 + + + . But it is not diﬃcult to see that (a + b + c + d)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + 2(ab + bc + cd + da + ac + bd). was discussed extensively in many publications. d prove the inequality a b c d 2 + + + ≥ . given at the IMO 1995. 67 . Consequently. It could be also solved by using the above lemma. a(b + 2c + 3d) b(c + 2d + 3a) c(d + 2a + 3b) d(a + 2b + 3c) then the way to continue is clear. The problem below. which is just the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for four variables. we are left with the inequality 4(a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 ) ≥ (a + b + c + d)2 .Example 2. since from the lemma we obtain a b c d + + + b + 2c + 3d c + 2d + 3a d + 2a + 3b a + 2b + 3c ≥ (a + b + c + d)2 . implies 8(ab + bc + cd + da + ac + bd) = 4(a + b + c + d)2 − 4(a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 ). For arbitrary positive real numbers a. b.

Let a. . + c) b (c + a) c (a + b) 2 Solution. 1997 Solution. in such problems the minimal value is attained when the variables are equal. Example 4. x2 + x3 + · · · + xn x1 + x3 + · · · + xn x1 + x2 + · · · + xn−1 where x1 . Find the minimal value of the expression x5 x5 x5 n 2 1 + + ··· + . n Turkey. by using n(n − 1) n the lemma. Let n ≥ 2. . it follows that the left-hand side is greater than or equal to n 2 x3 i i=1 n . . Indeed. So. . xn are positive real numbers satisfying x2 + x2 + · · · + 1 2 x2 = 1. Prove that 1 1 1 3 + 3 + 3 ≥ . Usually.Example 3. xi (x1 + · · · + xi−1 + xi+1 + · · · + xn ) i=1 68 . c be positive real numbers such that abc = 1. The following problem is also not diﬃcult. the inequality that remains to be proved after using the lemma) is not diﬃcult. 2(ab + bc + ca) 2(ab + bc + ca) 2 2 the last inequality following from the AM-GM inequality. We have: 1 1 1 1 1 1 a2 b2 c2 + + = + + a3 (b + c) b3 (c + a) c3 (a + b) a(b + c) b(c + a) c(c + a) a3 (b 1 1 1 2 + + (ab + bc + ca)2 ab + bc + ca 3 a b c ≥ = = ≥ . x2 . It is another example in which proving the intermediate inequality (that is. b. we conjecture that the minimal value 1 1 is attained when x1 = x2 = · · · = xn = √ . but it uses a nice combination between this lemma and the Power-Mean inequality.

H. 4.But it is not diﬃcult to observe that n n 2 xi (x1 + · · · + xi−1 + xi+1 + · · · + xn ) = i=1 i=1 xi − 1. . The conclusion follows. we have n 1 3 x3 i n 1 2 x2 i ≥ n i=1 n implying n i=1 ≥ i=1 n xi i=1 n . Indeed. So. 5. . x3 i i=1 n(n − 1) But this is a simple consequence of the Power-Mean inequality. 1 x3 ≥ √ and i n n i=1 √ xi ≤ √ n. .Shapiro asked whether the following inequality is true for any positive real numbers a1 . a2 . 6. an : a1 a2 an n + + ··· + ≥ . In 1954. .S. a2 + a3 a3 + a4 a1 + a2 2 The question turned out to be extremely diﬃcult. proving that x5 x5 x5 n 1 2 + + ··· + x2 + x3 + · · · + xn x1 + x3 + · · · + xn x1 + x2 + · · · + xn−1 1 n(n − 1) reduces to proving the inequality ≥ n n 2 2 xi ≥ i=1 −1 . The answer is really unexpected: one can prove that the inequality is true for all n = 3. 7 (and for all small values of n the shortest proof is based on 69 .

the answer is positive. a2 . an and any n ≥ 3 the following inequality holds: a1 a2 an + + ··· + ≥ cn. a4 . but it is false for all even numbers n ≥ 14 as well as for suﬃciently large odd numbers n. Then we observe that a1 (a2 + a3 ) + a2 (a3 + a4 ) + a3 (a4 + a5 ) + a4 (a + 5 + a1 ) + a5 (a1 + a2 ) = a1 (S − a1 ) + a2 (S − a2 ) + a3 (S − a3 ) + a4 (S − a4 ) + a5 (S − a5 ) 2 S 2 − a2 − a2 − a2 − a2 − a2 1 2 3 4 5 . The answer is quite complicated and we 70 . a2 . we apply the lemma and we conclude that it sufﬁces to prove the inequality (a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 )2 5 ≥ [a1 (a2 + a3 ) + a2 (a3 + a4 ) + a3 (a4 + a5 ) + a4 (a5 + a1 ) + a5 (a1 + a2 )] 2 Let us denote a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 = S. is a Fields’ medalist). a problem proposed for MOSP 2001. but ﬁnding the best such constant is an extremely diﬃcult task. Let us examine the case n = 5. which is nothing else then 1 2 3 4 5 the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. It was ﬁrst solved by Drinﬁeld (who.this lemma). a3 . . 1 2 3 4 5 4 equivalent to 5(a2 + a2 + a2 + a2 + a2 ) ≥ S 2 . Prove that for any positive real numbers a1 . . Again. by the way. a5 . Another question arises: is there a positive real number such that for any positive real numbers a1 . a2 + a3 a3 + a4 a1 + a2 This time. Example 5. a2 + a3 a3 + a4 a4 + a5 a5 + a1 a1 + a2 2 Solution. . a1 a2 a3 a4 a5 5 + + + + ≥ . = 2 With this identity. . we infer that the intermediate inequality is in fact 5 (a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 )2 ≥ (S 2 − a2 − a2 − a2 − a2 − a2 ).

An ingenious argument using the arithmetic-geometric means inequality does the job: let us write the inequality in the form a1 + a2 + a3 a2 + a3 + a4 an + a1 + a2 √ + + ··· + ≥ 2 · n. . a2 . For any a1 .. an and any n ≥ 3 the following inequality holds: √ a1 a2 an + + ··· + ≥ ( 2 − 1)n. the real trick is to rewrite appropriately the last products. a2 + a3 a3 + a4 a1 + a2 The proof is completely elementary.will not discuss it here (for a detailed presentation of Drinﬁeld’s method the interested reader can consult the written examination given at ENS in 1997). Thus. ≥ ( 2)n . . using the AM-GM inequality. n n n (ai + ai+1 + ai+2 ) ≥ i=1 i=1 2 (2ai + ai+1 ) i=1 (2ai+2 + ai+1 ). yet very diﬃcult to ﬁnd. √ shows that c = 2 − 1 is such a constant (not optimal).. a2 + a3 a3 + a4 a1 + a2 Now. Let us observe that n n (2ai+2 + ai+1 ) = i=1 71 i=1 (2ai+1 + ai ). . Now. given at the Moldavian TST in 2005. we see that it suﬃces to prove the stronger inequality: √ an + a1 + a2 a1 + a2 + a3 a2 + a3 + a4 · . a2 + a3 a3 + a4 a1 + a2 Observe that (ai + ai+1 + ai+2 )2 = ai + ≥ 4 ai + ai+1 2 ai+1 ai+1 + + ai+2 2 2 ai+1 + ai+2 2 2 (the last inequality being again a consequence of the AM-GM inequality). . The following problem. .

the Irish deputy leader explained what ”SQ” stood for: ”. Here it is. 1 1 y z 2 2 +y +z x x hence x2 + y 2 + z 2 ≤ x5 + y 2 + z 2 1 + y2 + z2 xy + yz + zx x =2+ ≤ 3. A typical solution using this lemma is as follows: x5 + y 2 + z 2 = x4 y 4 z 4 (x2 + y 2 + z 2 )2 + 2+ 2 ≥ . y. This lemma came handy even at the IMO 2005 (problem 3).escu”. z such that xyz ≥ 1 the following inequality holds x2 + y 2 + z 2 ≤ 3. ma mb mb mc mc ma Ji Chen. For example. Prove that in any triangle ABC the following inequality holds ra rb rb rc rc ra + + ≥ 3.so n n n (2ai + ai+1 ) i=1 n i=1 (2ai+2 + ai+1 ) = i=1 [(2ai + ai+1 )(ai + 2ai+1 )] n 2 ≥ i=1 (2(ai + ai+1 ) ) = 2 2 n i=1 (ai + ai+1 ) .. 2 + y2 + z2 x xyz(x2 + y 2 + z 2 ) It is now time for the champions. The conclusion now follows. Example 6. a student from Ireland applied this result and called it ”SQ Lemma”.. We begin with a diﬃcult geometric inequality for which we have found a direct solution using T2 ’s lemma. During the coordination. Crux Mathematicorum 72 . In order to prove that for any positive real numbers x. x5 + y 2 + z 2 a few students successfully used the above mentioned lemma.

(b + c − a)(4a2 + b2 + c2 ) + (c + a − b)(4b2 + a2 + c2 ) + (a + b − c)(4c2 + a2 + b2 ) Basic computations show that the denominator of the last expression is equal to 4a2 (b + c) + 4b2 (c + a) + 4c2 (a + b) − 2(a3 + b3 + c3 ) and consequently the intermediate inequality reduces to the simpler form 3(a3 + b3 + c3 ) + (a + b + c)3 ≥ 6[a2 (b + c) + b2 (c + a) + c2 (a + b)]. since using Heron’s relation and the formulas K ra = . + 2b2 − a2 · 2c2 + 2a2 − b2 In this form. the inequality is more that monstrous. 73 . we start by translating the inequality into an algebraic one.Solution. so we try to +√ 2c2 see if a weaker form holds. let us try to prove the stronger inequality 2(a + b + c)(c + b − a) 2(a + b + c)(c + a − b) + 4a2 + b2 + c2 4b2 + c2 + a2 2(a + b + c)(a + b − c) ≥ 3. by applying the AM-GM inequality to each denominator. Fortunately. s−a ma = √ 2b2 + 2c2 − a2 2 and the likes the desired inequality takes the equivalent form √ (a + b + c)(b + c − a) (a + b + c)(c + a − b) √ √ +√ 2a2 + 2b2 − c2 · 2a2 + 2c2 − b2 2b2 + 2a2 − c2 · 2b2 + 2c2 − a2 (a + b + c)(a + b − c) √ ≥ 3. Of course. 4c2 + a2 + b2 Written in the more appropriate form + c+b−a c+a−b a+b−c 3 + 2 + 2 ≥ 2 + b2 + c2 2 + a2 2 + b2 4a 4b + c 4c + a 2(a + b + c) we see that by T2 ’s lemma the left-hand side is at least (a + b + c)2 . this is not diﬃcult. So.

given at the Japanese Mathematical Olympiad in 1997 and which became famous due to its diﬃculty. hence the problem is solved. The ﬁrst one is just an equivalent form of Schur’s inequality. from the introduction to this problem. c the following inequality holds (b + c − a)2 (c + a − b)2 (a + b − c)2 3 + 2 + 2 ≥ . while the second follows immediately from the identity a2 (b + c) + b2 (c + a) + c2 (a + b) − 6abc = a(b − c)2 + b(c − a)2 + c(a − b)2 . we expand (a + b + c)3 and obtain the equivalent inequality 4(a3 + b3 + c3 ) + 6abc ≥ 3[a2 (b + c) + b2 (c + a) + c2 (a + b)]. b. 1997 Solution. But with the substitution x= b+c . Example 7. which is not diﬃcult at all. Prove that for any positive real numbers a. The ﬁrst one uses a nice combination between this lemma and the substitution discussed in the unit ”Two useful substitutions”. We will present two solutions for this inequality. 2 + (b + c)2 2 2 a b + (c + a) c + (a + b) 5 Japan. Indeed. since any such approach is doomed. c . After all.Again. it follows from the inequalities 4(a3 + b3 + c3 ) ≥ 4[a2 (b + c) + b2 (c + a) + c2 (a + b)] − 12abc and a2 (b + c) + b2 (c + a) + c2 (a + b) ≥ 6abc. we have managed to prove the intermediate inequality. a y= c+a . b 74 z= a+b . the reader has already noticed that it is useless to try a direct application of the lemma. The journey continues with a very diﬃcult problem. Of course.

But here is another original solution. x2 + y 2 + z 2 + 3 5 But this is equivalent to (x + y + z)2 − 15(x + y + z) + 3(xy + yz + zx) + 18 ≥ 0. We will use the proposed problem 3 from the unit ”Two useful substitutions” to reduce the above inequality to the form (x + y + z)2 − 9(x + y + z) + 18 ≥ 0.we have to prove that for any positive real numbers x. Let us apply T2 ’s lemma in the following form: (c + a − b)2 (a + b − c)2 (b + c − a)2 + 2 + 2 a2 + (b + c)2 b + (c + a)2 c + (a + b)2 = ((b + c)2 − a(b + c))2 ((c + a)2 − b(c + a))2 ((a + b)2 − c(a + b))2 + 2 + 2 a2 (b + c)2 + (b + c)4 b (c + a)2 + (c + a)4 c (a + b)2 + (a + b)4 4(a2 + b2 + c2 )2 . a2 (b + c)2 + b2 (c + a)2 + c2 (a + b)2 + (a + b)4 + (b + c)4 + (c + a)4 75 ≥ . which follows from the inequality x + y + z ≥ 6. z satisfying xyz = x + y + z + 2. Alternative solution. x2 + 1 y +1 z +1 x + y2 + z2 + 3 Hence it is enough to prove the inequality (x + y + z − 3)2 3 ≥ . y. This is not an easy inequality. It is now time to use T2 ’s lemma in the form (x − 1)2 (y − 1)2 (z − 1)2 (x + y + z − 3)2 + 2 + 2 ≥ 2 . the inequality (x − 1)2 (y − 1)2 (z − 1)2 3 + 2 + 2 ≥ 2+1 x y +1 z +1 5 holds. And the problem is solved.

This can be done by expanding everything. it suﬃces to prove that the last quantity is greater 3 than or equal to . 3 But this inequality is not so diﬃcult. ﬁrst we observe that 2ab(a + b)2 + 2bc(b + c)2 + 2ca(c + a)2 ≤ 4ab(a2 + b2 ) + 4bc(b2 + c2 ) + 4ca(c2 + a2 ). With minor changes. since (a − b)4 ≥ 0. Hence 4ab(a2 + b2 ) + 4bc(b2 + c2 ) + 4ca(c2 + a2 ) ≤ 2(a2 + b2 + c2 )2 8 +2(a2 b2 + b2 c2 + c2 a2 ) ≤ (a2 + b2 + c2 )2 3 and so the problem is solved. we also ﬁnd that 4ab(a2 + b2 ) ≤ a4 + b4 + 6a2 b2 . Because (a + b)2 + (b + c)2 + (c + a)2 ≤ 4(a2 + b2 + c2 ). we can readily see that this solution works without the assumption that a. Indeed. but here 5 is an elegant proof using the observation that a2 (b + c)2 + b2 (c + a)2 + c2 (a + b)2 + (a + b)4 + (b + c)4 + (c + a)4 = [(a + b)2 + (b + c)2 + (c + a)2 ](a2 + b2 + c2 ) +2ab(a + b)2 + 2bc(b + c)2 + 2ca(c + a)2 . we observe that the desired inequality reduces to 8 2ab(a + b)2 + 2bc(b + c)2 + 2ca(c + a)2 ≤ (a2 + b2 + c2 )2 . based on two hidden applications of T2 ’s lemma. 76 .Consequently. c are positive. We end this discussion (which remains probably permanently open) with a diﬃcult problem. Then. b.

Example 8. Let a1 , a2 , . . . , an > 0 such that a1 + a2 + · · · + an = 1. Prove that: (a1 a2 +a2 a3 +· · ·+an a1 ) a2 2 a1 a2 an + 2 + ··· + 2 + a2 a3 + a3 a1 + a1 ≥ n . n+1

Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. How can we get to a1 a2 + a2 a3 + · · · + an a1 ? Probably a2 a2 a2 from 1 + 2 + · · · + n after we use the lemma. So, let us try a1 a2 a2 a3 an a1 this the following estimation: a1 a2 an a2 a2 a2 1 + +· · ·+ = 1 + 2 +· · ·+ n ≥ . a2 a3 a1 a1 a2 a2 a3 an a1 a1 a2 + a2 a3 + · · · + an a1 The new problem, proving that a1 a2 an n + + ··· + 2 ≥ n+1 a2 + a2 a2 + a3 a1 + a1 2 3 a1 a2 an + + ··· + a2 a3 a1

seems even more diﬃcult, but we will see that we have to make one more step in order to solve it. Again , we look at the right-hand side and we an a1 a2 + + ··· + as write a2 a3 a1 a1 a2 an + + ··· + a2 a3 a1 a1 a2 an + + ··· + a2 a3 a1 After applying T2 ’s lemma, we ﬁnd that a1 a2

2 2

.

a2 2

**a1 a2 an + 2 +···+ 2 = a1 + a2 + · · · + an + a2 a3 + a3 a1 + a1 a1 + a2 + an + a2 a3 a1 an 2 a1 a2 + + ··· + a2 a3 a1 ≥ a1 a2 an . 1+ + + ··· + a2 a3 a1
**

77

a2 a3

2

an a1

2

And we are left with an easy problem: if t =

t2 nt ≥ , or t ≥ n. But this follows immediately from the AM-GM 1+t n+1 inequality. Problems for training

a1 an + ··· + , then a2 a1

1. Let a, b, c, d be positive real numbers such that a + b + c + d = 1. Prove that a2 b2 c2 d2 1 + + + ≥ . a+b b+c c+d d+a 2 Ireland, 1999 2. Let a, b, c, be positive real numbers satisfying a2 + b2 + c2 = 3abc. Prove that a b2 c2 + b c2 a2 + c a2 b2 ≥ 9 . a+b+c India 3. Let x1 , x2 , . . . , xn , y1 , y2 , . . . , yn be positive real numbers such that x1 + x2 + · · · + xn ≥ x1 y1 + x2 y2 + · · · + xn yn . Prove that x1 + x2 + · · · + xn ≤ xn x1 x2 + + ··· + . y1 y2 yn

Romeo Ilie, Romanian Olympiad, 1999 4. For arbitrary positive real numbers a, b, c prove the inequality a b c + + ≥ 1. b + 2c c + 2a a + 2b Czech-Slovak Competition, 1999 5. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c satisfying a+b+c = 1, a b c 9 + + ≥ . 1 + bc 1 + ca 1 + ab 10 India

78

6. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c, d satisfying ab + bc + cd + da = 1 the following inequality is true a3 b3 c3 d3 1 + + + ≥ . b+c+d c+d+a d+a+b a+b+c 3 IMO 1990 Shortlist 7. Prove that if the positive real numbers a, b, c satisfy abc = 1, then b c a + + ≥ 1. b+c+1 c+a+1 a+b+1 Vasile Cartoaje, Gazeta Matematica 8. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c the following inequality holds a2 + bc b2 + ca c2 + ab + + ≥ a + b + c. b+c c+a a+b Cristinel Mortici, Gazeta Matematica 9. Prove that for any nonnegative real numbers x1 , x2 , . . . , xn , x1 x2 xn + + ··· + ≥ 2. xn + x2 x1 + x3 xn−1 + x1 Tournament of the Towns, 1982 10. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c, d, e satisfying abcde = 1, b + bcd c + cde a + abc + + 1 + ab + abcd 1 + bc + bcde 1 + cd + cdea + d + dea e + eab 10 + ≥ . 1 + de + deab 1 + ea + eabc 3 Waldemar Pompe, Crux Mathematicorum

**11. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c the following inequality holds a b+c
**

2 2 2

+

b c+a

+

c a+b

≥

3 a2 + b2 + c2 · . 4 ab + bc + ca Gabriel Dospinescu

79

12. Let n ≥ 4 an integer and let a1 , a2 , . . . , an be positive real numbers such that a2 + a2 + · · · + a2 = 1. Prove that n 1 2 a2 2 √ √ a1 a2 an 4 √ + 2 + ··· + 2 ≥ (a1 a1 + a2 a2 + · · · + an an )2 . 5 + 1 a3 + 1 a1 + 1 Mircea Becheanu, Bogdan Enescu, TST 2002, Romania 13. Find the best constant k(n) such that for any positive real numbers a1 , a2 , . . . , an satisfying a1 a2 . . . an = 1 the following inequality holds (a2 1 a1 a2 a2 a3 an a1 2 + a ) + (a2 + a )(a2 + a ) + · · · + (a2 + a )(a2 + a ) ≤ kn . + a2 )(a2 1 3 2 1 2 n 2 3 1 Gabriel Dospinescu, Mircea Lascu 14. Prove that for any positive real numbers a, b, c, (2a + b + c)2 (2b + c + a)2 (2c + a + b)2 + 2 + 2 ≤ 8. 2a2 + (b + c)2 2b + (c + a)2 2c + (a + b)2 Titu Andreescu, Zuming Feng, USAMO 2003

80

ONLY GRAPHS, NO SUBGRAPHS! There were so many strategies and useful ideas till now, that the reader might say: enough with this game of tricks! When shall we go to serious facts? Not only that we will ”dissapoint” him again, but we will try also to convince him that these are more than simple tools and tricks. They help to create a good base, which is absolutely indispensable for someone who enjoys mathematics and moreover, they are the ﬁrst step to some really beautiful and diﬃcult theorems or problems. And the reader must admit that the last problems discussed in the previous units are quite serious facts. It is worth mentioning that they are not panacea. This assertion is proved by the fact that each year problems that are based on well-known ”tricks” prove to be very diﬃcult in contests. We will focus in this unit on a very familiar theme: graphs without complete subgraphs. Why do we say familiar? Because there are hundreds of problems proposed to diﬀerent contests around the world and in mathematical magazines that deal with this subject and each one seems to add something. Before passing to the ﬁrst problem, we will assume that the basic knowledge about graphs is known and we will denote by d(A) and C(A) the number, respectively the set of vertices adjacent to A. Also, we will say that a graph does not have a complete k subgraph if there aren’t k vertices any two of them connected. For simplicity, we will say that G is k-free. First, we will discuss probably the ﬁrst classical result about triangles-free graphs, the famous Turan’ theorem. But before that, an useful lemma, which is also known as Zarankiewicz lemma and which is the main idea in Turan’ theorem’ proof. Example 1. If G is a k-free graph, then there exists a vertex having k−2 n . degree at most k−1 Zarankiewicz

81

Solution. Suppose not and take an arbitrary vertex A1 . Then |C(A1 )| > k−2 n , k−1

so there exists A2 ∈ C(A1 ). Moreover, |C(A1 ) ∩ C(A2 )| = d(A1 ) + d(A2 ) − |C(A1 ∪ A2 )| k−2 n − n > 0. k−1 Pick a vertex A3 ∈ C(A1 ) ∩ C(A2 ). A similar argument shows that ≥2 1+ |C(A1 ) ∩ C(A2 ) ∩ C(A3 )| ≥ 3 1 + Repeating this argument, we ﬁnd

k−2

k−2 n k−1

− 2n.

A4 ∈ C(A1 ) ∩ C(A2 ) ∩ C(A3 ), . . . , Ak−1 ∈

i=1

C(Ai ).

Also, we have

j

C(Ai ) ≥ j 1 +

i=1

k−2 n k−1

− (j − 1)n.

**This can be proved easily by induction. Thus,
**

k−1

C(Ai ) ≥ (k − 1) 1 +

i=1

k−2 n k−1

− (k − 2)n > 0

**and consequently we can choose
**

k−1

Ak ∈

i=1

C(Ai ).

But it is clear that A1 , A2 , . . . , Ak form a complete k graph, which contradicts the assumption that G is k-free. We are now ready to prove Turan’ theorem. Example 2. The maximal number of edges of a k-free graph with vertices is k − 2 n2 − r 2 r · + , 2 k−1 2

82

where r = n (mod k − 1). Turan’ theorem Solution. The theorem will be proved by induction on n. Since the ﬁrst case is trivial, let us suppose the theorem true for all k-free graphs having n − 1 vertices and let G a k-free graph with n vertices. Using Zarankiewicz’ lemma, we can ﬁnd a vertex A such that d(A) ≤ k−2 n . k−1

Since the subgraph determined by the other n−1 vertices is obviously k-free, using the inductive hypothesis we ﬁnd that G has at most

2 k − 2 (n − 1)2 − r1 r1 k−2 n + · + k−1 k−1 2 2

**edges, where r1 = n − 1 (mod k − 1). Let n = q(k − 1) + r = q1 (k − 1) + r1 + 1. Then r1 ∈ {r − 1, r + k − 2} (this is because r − r1 ≡ 1 (mod k − 1)) and it is easy to check that
**

2 k−2 k − 2 (n − 1)2 − r1 r1 n + · + k−1 k−1 2 2

=

k − 2 n2 − r 2 r · + 2 k−1 2

and the inductive step is proved. Now, it remains to construct a kk − 2 n2 − r 2 r free graph with n vertices and · + edges. This is 2 k−1 2 not diﬃcult. Just consider k − 1 classes of vertices, r of them having q + 1 elements and the rest q elements and join the vertices situated in diﬀerent groups. It is immediate to prove that this graph is k-free, has k − 2 n2 − r 2 r · + edges and also the minimal degree of the vertices 2 k−1 2 k−2 is n . This graph is called Turan’ graph and it is denoted by k−1 T (n, k). These two examples generate lots of beautiful and diﬃcult problems. For example, knowing them means a straightforward solution for the following bulgarian problem.

83

whose minimal 4 degree is 2001 = 1600 and which is of course 6-free. 1986 Solution. 6). the problem asks to ﬁnd the maximal n such that any graph G with 2001 vertices and minimum degree at least 1600 is not n-free.Example 3. Here. we need the at least one vertex has degree at most n−1 n−2 maximal n for which 2001 < 1600. because as soon as the graph is appropriately chosen. we need to prove that this graph has at least 100 edges. it is more important to choose the right graph than to apply the theorem. the solution is more or less straightforward. which is 6-free. But Zarankiewicz’ lemma implies that if G is n-free. Thus. which 84 . Spring Mathematics Tournament. It suﬃces to construct a graph with all degrees of the vertices at least 1600. then n−2 2001 . the answer 4 is n = 5. It is immediate to see that n−1 it is n = 5. So. we will consider the graph with vertices in the points and we will connect two points if they subtend an angle smaller than or equal to 120 at the center. Show that at least 100 pairs of points subtend an angle smaller than or equal to 120 at the center. if n = 5 then any such graph G is not n-free. Therefore. any two of which are connected by a direct bus line. It seems that this is a reversed form of Turan’ theorem. Tournament of the Towns. Practically. every one of which is connected with at least 1600 towns by a direct bus line. 2001 Solution. There are 2001 towns in a country. Find the largest n for which it is always possible to ﬁnd n towns. We will take of course T (2001. In such problems. Thus. Example 4. Here is a beautiful application of Turan’ theorem in combinatorial geometry. Given are 21 points on a circle.

From Zarankiewicz’ lemma. Anyway. Find the smallest number n (in terms of k) such that it is always possible to ﬁnd a language spoken by at least three delegates. A2 . The condition ”among any three of them there are at least two who can communicate” suggests us to take the 3-free graph with vertices in the persons and whose edges join persons that cannot communicate. It remains to prove now that we can create a situation in which there are 2k + 2 delegates. but.maximizes the number of edges in a k-free graph. Ak+1 that can communicate with A. We use again Turan’ graph. Solution. this is trickier than the contest problem. there exists a person A and k + 1 persons A1 . at least two speak a common language. Thus. among any three delegates. . But that language is known by at least three delegates and we are done. . we prove that if there are 2k + 3 delegates. since 2 it is clear that this new graph does not have triangles and so. . let us look at the ”reversed” graph. 2 Therefore. Example 5. the complementary one. There are n delegates at a conference.then the conclusion of the problem holds. Ap that know a language also known by A. by creating two groups of k + 1 85 . . but no language is known by more than two delegates. Since A knows at most k languages. the following problem seem to have no relation with the previously examples. . This problem is an adaptation of a USAMO 1978 problem. And the problem is solved. Yet. But this is immediate. Anyway. First. . . as we will see. by Turan’ 212 − 1 theorem it has at most = 110 edges. We must show 21 that it has at most −100 = 110 edges. A2 . 4 At ﬁrst glance. there exists a vertex whose degree is at most n = k + 1. the reversed form of a reversed form is the natural one. it is not connected with at least k + 1 other vertices. We will prove that n = 2k + 3. it is a simple consequence of Zarankiewicz’ lemma. there are two persons among A1 . . each of them knowing at most k languages. In the aim of this principle.

but to ﬁnd much more vertices with small degrees. being solved by 4 contestants. but this time we need a little observation. Ai1 is disjoint from at least 50 subsets. . The main idea is not to use Zarankiewicz’ lemma. The following problem turned out to be a surprise at one of the Team Selection Tests for 2004 IMO. 50 Since the union of these subsets has more than n elements. . we should take a graph with vertices in the subsets. The idea is even easier than in the previous problems. we can ﬁnd Ai1 . . In a similar way. thus it must be adjacent to a vertex B. Consequently. any two 51 of them having common elements. . . . we infer 51 50 n n that |Ai1 | < n − n = . Therefore. A101 be diﬀerent subsets of the set {1. as the conclusion suggests. that is not so obvious. It is connected with at least 51 vertices. thus there are at least 51 vertices whose degrees are greater than 51. Let A1 . . Of course. TST 2004 Romania Solution. we will prove that there are at least 51 vertices whose degree are smaller than or equal to 50. In fact. 2. n}. . Example 6. A2 . there is a vertex adjacent to both. Since A and B are each connected with at least 51 vertices. any language is spoken by at most two delegates and there are no triangles. . so we have a triangle. . Let us pick such a vertex A. connecting two subsets if they have common elements. Of course. we obtain that |Aij | ≤ 51 51 51 86 .delegates. Let us assume that this graph is 3-free. Gabriel Dospinescu. . Suppose that the union of any 50 subsets has more than 50 n elements. all of them having degrees at most 50. . Ai51 . Prove that there are three subsets among them. contradicting our assumption. In each group a person will have a common language with each other person from the group and will not have common languages with the members of the other group. whose degree is at least 51. Suppose this is not the case.

y. while z is not adjacent to any of x. 51} and so |Ai1 ∪ Ai2 ∪ · · · ∪ Ai50 | ≤ |Ai1 | + · · · + |Ai50 | < 50 n. z) in which are connected. y. Now. AMM Solution. Example 7. And the solution ends here. if G is the graph. . y. the number of triangles from the complementary graph can be expressed only in terms of the degrees of the vertices of the graph. then the number of triangles from the complementary graph is n 1 − 2 3 d(x)(n − 1 − d(x)). z) of vertices of G. y. z) that do not form a triangle in the complementary graph (here we have used the fact that G is 3-free). . y: once for x and once for y. Indeed. Therefore.W Goodman. 2 x∈X triples (x. z) in which y is connected with both x. Indeed. 51 which contradicts the hypothesis. We will count the triples that do not form a triangle in the complementary graph G. A. More precisely. . 2. But it also counts twice every triple (x. x∈X m− n2 − n 4 2 where X is the set of vertices of G. it is enough to prove 87 . We end the discussion with an adaptation of a very nice and quite challenging problem from the American Mathematical Monthly. consider the sum x∈X d(x)(n−1−d(x)). z: once for x and 1 d(x)(n − 1 − d(x)) is exactly the number of once for z. It counts twice every triple (x.for all j ∈ {1. consider all triples (x. . Believe it or not. Prove that the complementary of any 3-free graph with n vertices and m edges has at least n(n − 1)(n − 5) 2 + 24 n triangles.

CE AN? n62 3. Prove that there are at most n2 pairs (i. x∈X Problems for training 1. . Prove that all vertices have the same degree. n} such that 1 < |xi − xj | < 2. n} × {1. Also. . Let x1 . . Let G be a graph with no triangles and such that no point is adjacent to all the other vertices. . . 2. then at most segments connecting 3 √ them have length greater than 2. APMO 1990 88 . . Poland.that n 1 − 3 2 n(n − 1)(n − 5) 2 d(x)(n − 1 − d(x)) ≥ + 24 n n2 − n m− 4 2 . 1997 4. after a few computations we ﬁnd the equivalent form of the inequality d2 (x) ≥ x∈X 4m2 . If n points lie on a circle. What is the maximal number of direct ﬂights? Japan. 2. x∈X Using the observation that x∈X d(x) = 2m. . . then there exists a vertex C such that AC and BC are edges. at least two are not directly connected. 1998 2. . xn be real numbers. . In each group of three cities. j) ∈ {1. 4 MOSP. . . x2 . n But this is exactly the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality combined with the observation that d(x) = 2m. if A and B are not joined by an edge. In a country there are 1998 cities.

t2 . Let A be a subset of the set S = {1. t100 ∈ S such that the sets Aj = {x + tj |x ∈ A} are pairwise disjoint. . Prove that we can ﬁnd at least 41 people who each know at most 1958 other people.5. Out of any 50 people. . . Show that a graph with n vertices and k edges has at least n2 ) triangles. IMO 2003 6. Prove that we can ﬁnd a monochromatic triangle. Taiwan. China TST. . 89 . 1000000} having exactly 101 elements. We color these segments in 2 colours. Prove that there exist t1 . . . Prove that we can choose a vertex such that the subgraph induced by the remaining 4k vertices has at most k 1 − 2 vertices. n USAMO 1995 8. 1999 7. . 2. 1987 10. 9. . We are given 5n points in a plane and we connect some of them. Prove that it contains two triangles sharing a common edge. A graph with n vertices and k edges is 3-free. A graph with n2 + 1 edges and 2n vertices is given. Prove that for every n one can construct a graph with no triangles and whose chromatic number is at least n. at least 2 do not know each other. so that 10n2 + 1 segments are drawn. There are 1999 people participating in an exhibition. k (4k− 3n APMO 1989 6.

In this moment. one will surely expect a hard unit. We ”just” want to discuss some combinatorial problems that can be solved elegantly using complex numbers. Therefore. 1 + x + x2 + · · · + xp−1 must divide a0 + a1 x + a2 x2 + · · · + ap−1 xp−1 . If p is a prime number and a0 . the reader will surely have the pleasure of solving the proposed problems using this technique. this was not our intention. . which will show what a complex ﬁeld is combinatorics. so our purpose is to present a little bit from each of these situations. the reader will probably say we are crazy. a1 . but we will continue our idea and say that complex numbers can play a very important role in counting problems and also in problems related to tilings. p p . For fear of useless repetition. 90 2π 2π + i sin . It is enough to observe that the polynomials a0 +a1 x+a2 x2 +· · ·+ap−1 xp−1 and 1 + x + x2 + · · · + xp−1 cannot be relatively prime-because they share a common root-and since 1 + x + x2 + · · · + xp−1 is irreducible over Q.COMPLEX COMBINATORICS When reading the title. . Not before saying that in the following examples m(A) will denote the sum of the elements of the set A. which is not diﬃcult. ap−1 ∈ Q satisfy the relation a0 + a1 ε + a2 ε2 + · · · + ap−1 εp−1 = 0. By convention m(∅) = 0. . . After that. we will present in the beginning of the discussion a useful result Lemma. the lemma is proved and it is time to solve some nice problems. where ε = cos then a0 = a1 = · · · = ap−1 . There are also numerous applications in combinatorial number theory. Unfortunately. We will say just a few words about the proof. which can only happen if a0 = a1 = · · · = ap−1 .

9 and which are congruent to k modulo 7.x2 . It worth saying that Nikolai Nikolov won a special prize for the following magniﬁcent solution. formed using only the digits 1. Then 7k = k=0 a(k) − (−1)n = 6n − (−1)n . 9.3. 91 . 3. Then 6 a(k) εk = (−1)n n k=0 and from the lemma we infer that an − (−1)n = an = · · · = an .this n is because exactly 6n numbers have n digits. 7. 4. there is a solution using recurrent sequences. 7.. all equal to 1. Let 6 (0) (1) (6) k be the common value. all equal to 1. where ε = cos 2π 2π + i sin . The remark that 1 + ε + ε2 + · · · + ε6 = 0 7 7 helps us to bring (ε + ε3 + ε4 + ε6 + ε7 + ε9 )n to the simpler form (−ε5 )n . 6 (mod 7). Let an be the number of n-digits numbers. 4. 6.xn ∈{1. Example 1. 4. The same simple.. but tricky idea can oﬀer probably the most beautiful solution for the diﬃcult IMO 1995 problem 6. 6. but it is by far less elegant than the following one. How many numbers with n digits. 3.4.7. 3. Of course.The ﬁrst example is an adaptation from a problem given in the InterCounty Contest ”Traian Lalescu”. for example (the other cases can be discussed similarly). 9 are divisible by 7? Solution. We leave to the Thus.9} εx1 +x2 +···+xn = (ε + ε3 + ε4 + ε6 + ε7 + ε9 )n . 6n − (−1)n (0) . 6. 4. 3. Let us assume that n is divisible by 7.6... 7. in this case we have an = (−1)n + 7 reader the study of the other cases: n ≡ 12. 5. It is clear that 6 (k) a(k) εk = n k=0 x1 .

. Let a1 . Since X p − 1 = (X − 1)(X − ε) . . .|B|=p εm(B) = 1≤c1 <c2 <···<cp ≤2p εc1 +c2 +···+cp . 2. .Example 2. . Consider ε = cos + i sin and let xj the number of p p subsets x ⊂ A such that |X| = p and m(X) ≡ j (mod p). 2p}. . where n > 1 is a natural number. Prove that f (0) = f (1) = · · · = f (n − 1) if and only if there exists an index i ∈ {1. . . . Since there are we have x0 + x1 + · · · + xp−1 = Therefore. Marcin Kuczma. p p With a somewhat diﬀerent. . Thus. a2 . . Reid Burton. i = 1. 1 2p −2 . am be natural numbers and let f (k) the number of m-tuples (c1 . Rookie Contest . . . Let p > 2 be a prime number and A = {1. cm ) such that 1 ≤ ci ≤ ai . Then it is clear that p−1 xj εj = j=0 B⊂A. . p x0 − 2 = x1 = · · · = xp−1 .1999 92 . . . 2p . c2 . we easily ﬁnd that (X + ε)(X + ε2 ) . But 1≤c1 <c2 <···<cp ≤2p εc1 +c2 +···+cp is exactly the coeﬃcient of xp in the expansion (X + ε)(X + ε2 ) . . 2. Find the number of subsets of A. . . . m} such that n|ai . (X + ε2p ). (X + p−1 ε2p ) = (X p + 1)2 . each having p elements and the sum of the elements divisible by p. . . Example 3. m and c1 + c2 + · · · + cm ≡ k (mod n). but closely related idea we can solve the x0 = 2 + following nice problem. j=0 xj εj = 2 and lemma implies the equality 2p p subsets with p elements. (X − εp−1 ). IMO 1995 2π 2π Solution.

. 2. consider the product f (1)f (2) · n m f (m). m} → {1. . n be multiples of p such that n is odd. since if f (0) = f (1) = · · · = f (n − 1) then of course we can ﬁnd i ∈ {1. It is not diﬃcult to observe that n−1 m f (k)εk = k=0 1≤ci ≤ai εc1 +c2 +···+cm = i=1 (ε + ε2 + · · · + εai ) for any complex number ε such that εn−1 + εn−2 + · · · + ε + 1 = 0. . Then for any root ε of the polynomial n−1 n−1 n−1 X k we have k=0 n−1 k=0 f (k)εk and so the polynomial X k divides the k=0 n−1 polynomial k=0 f (k)X k . m} such that ε + ε2 + · · · + εai = 0. . suppose there exists an index i ∈ {1. . We infer that εai = 1 and so n|ai .Solution. Example 4. . . . f (m). This is because the polynomial k=0 X k has only simple roots. after all functions f : {1. m} → Solution. . Let ε = cos {1. It is 93 . . . . where we have chosen here a primitive root of the unity ε. . in which e need some tricky manipulations. . Now. p Gabriel Dospinescu 2π 2π + i sin and xk be the sum of all p p the numbers f (1)f (2) . Let p > 2 be a prime number and let m. . m} such that n|ai . Prove that the sum of these products is divisible by . one part of the problem is already proved. . n} that satisfy f (1) + f (2) + · · · + f (m) ≡ k (mod p). By a simple degree consideration. . For any function f : {1. . . The solution ends here. this is possible only if f (0) = f (1) = · · · = f (n − 1). The enthusiasm determined by the above solutions will surely be ATENUAT by the following problem. Thus. . . 2. n} that satisﬁes p|f (1) + f (2) + · · · + f (m). 2. 2. . . . 2. 2. . .

if we consider (X p−2 +2X p−3 +· · ·+(p−2)X +p−1)m = b0 +b1 X +· · ·+bm(p−2) X m(p−2) .. bj . then we have nm = (ε − 1)m where ck = k≡k (mod p) − n p m (c0 + c1 ε + · · · + cp−1 εp−1 ). then we have the relation x0 − rc0 + (x1 rc1 )ε + · · · + (xp−1 − rcp−1 )εp−1 = 0..cm ∈{1. p−1 nε nεn+2 − (n + 1)εn+1 + ε = .2. . ε−1 p Thus. If r = n − p m .clear that: p−1 xk εk = k=0 c1 . (x − 1)2 Plugging ε in the previous identity.. cm εc1 +c2 +···+cm = (ε + 2ε2 + · · · + nεn )m . we ﬁnd that ε + 2ε2 + · · · + nεn = Consequently. (ε − 1)m xk εk = k=0 On the other hand... . (ε − 1)2 ε−1 nm . it is not diﬃcult to deduce the relations εp−1 + εp−2 + · · · + ε + 1 = 0 ⇔ 1 1 = − (εp−2 + 2εp−3 + · · · + (p − 2)ε + p − 1). 94 .n} c1 c2 . Recall the identity 1 + 2x + 3x2 + · · · + nxn−1 = nxn+1 − (n + 1)xn + 1 ..c2 ...

. It is obvious that the rectangle has natural dimensions. it is clear that r|k. j). Consider a rectangle which can be tiled with a ﬁnite combination of 1×m or n×1 rectangles.BMC Contest. n n m m 95 . Since pk = x0 + x1 + · · · + xp−1 − r(c0 + c1 + · · · + cp−1 ) = (1 + 2 + · · · + n)m − r(b0 + b1 + · · · + bm(p−2) ) = n(n + 1) 2 m −r p(p − 1) 2 m . . Here we have used the hypothesis. (a. The idea is to put a complex number in each square of a table and then to translate the hypothesis and the conclusion in terms of complex numbers. . 2). . Example 5. ε2 = cos + i sin . . Next. . b). 1). The problem is solved. let us partition the rectangle into 1 × 1 squares and denote this squares (1. where m. . c1 . (a.2000 Solution. let them be a. b. (1. Now.From the lemma. where 1 2 ε1 = cos 2π 2π 2π 2π + i sin . it remains to prove that r|k. n are natural numbers. . cp−1 ∈ R. Prove that it is possible to tile this rectangle using only rectangles 1 × m or only with rectangles n × 1. it follows that x0 − rc0 = x1 − rc1 = · · · = xp−1 − rcp−1 = k. . . Because clearly c0 . . . . First. . It is time now to leave this kind of problems and to speak a little bit about some nice applications of complex numbers in tilings. some easy problems. 2). (a. . . 1). (a. But we will better see how this technique works by solving a few problems. Gabriel Carrol . put the number εi εj in the square whose label is (i. 1).

many tilings problems having straightforward solutions by using it. Suppose such a tiling is possible and label the squares of the table as in the previous problem. Next. 4 × 1 rectangle is 0. j) the number ik+2j . it is clear that we can tile the rectangle using only horizontal or vertical rectangles. Obviously. The idea in the previous problem is quite useful. But this 2 means that n|a or m|b. associate to square (k. Therefore. i−1 i −1 which clearly cannot hold. the assumption was wrong and such a tiling does not exist. 2 a b Thus. Thus. In any of these cases. at least one of the numbers i=1 εi and 1 j−1 εj is 0. 4 × 1 rectangles. This is immediate. the sum of the numbers from each 1 × 4. the sum of all numbers from the squares of the table is equal to the number in the square situated at the center of the table. Can we tile a 13 × 13 table using only 1 × 4. given in Baltic Contest in 1998.1998 Solution. 96 . but the consequence of this simple observation is really surprising. Thus.The main observation is that the sum of the numbers in any 1 × m or n × 1 rectangle is 0. Indeed. Example 6. it follows that the sum of the numbers from all the squares is 0 and so a b 0= 1≤i≤a 1≤j≤b εi εj 1 2 = i=1 εi 1 j=1 εj . An example is the following problem. i21 = (i + i2 + · · · + i13 )(i2 + i4 + · · · + i26 ) = i · i13 − 1 2 i26 − 1 ·i · 2 = i3 . such that only the center of the table does not belong to any rectangle? Baltic Contest.

the relation z1 + z2 = −1 becomes εa1 + εa2 = −1. 7. In the square labeled (k. 4. (1. 1). Let z1 = ib1 −1 εa1 . This in turn imz1 z2 plies the equalities i3(b1 −1) = i3(b2 −1) = 1. k=1 Let us suppose that the squares (a1 . if two squares remain uncovered. 97 . then they belong to S. 5. We have |z1 | = |z2 | = 1 and z1 + z2 = −1. 5. where i2 = −1 and ε2 + ε + 1 = 0. we label the squares of the table (1. (8. The sum of the numbers from any ﬁgure or rectangle is 0. Then we have of course ib1 εa1 + ib2 εa2 = −i. On a 8 × 9 table we put rectangles 3 × 1 and ﬁgures formed by rectangles 1 × 3 by cutting the median 1 × 1 square. from where we conclude that b1 ≡ b2 ≡ 1 (mod 4). The sum of the numbers from the table is 8 εk 9 j=1 ij = −i. z2 = ib2 −1 εa2 . which is possible if and only if the remainders of the numbers a1 . Prove that there exists a set S of 18 squares of the table such that if there are exactly two uncovered squares. Example 7. a2 when divided by 3 are 1 and 2. . The conclusion is immediate.The following example we are going to discuss is based on the same idea. 2. we can take S the set of squares that lie at the intersection of the lines 1. then surely they belong to S. b2 ) are the only uncovered squares. The rectangles and the ﬁgures do not intersect and cannot be rotated. but here complex numbers are more involved. b1 ). From the above argument. 2). 9) by starting from the up-left corner. 9. . 8 with the columns 1. 1 1 3 3 It follows that + = −1 and so z1 = z2 = 1. . . j) we will put the number ij · εk . Therefore. Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. Again. (a2 . Thus.

Let ak . k = 1. The faces of a die are labeled with the numbers 1. . How many subsets with 100 elements of the set {1. Let f (p) be the number of ordered triples (A. . B. C play the following game: a subset with k elements of the set {1. 3. B. C have equal chances of winning. 2. green and red balls. C) of subsets (not necessarily non-empty) of the set M = {1. B or C. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers shown by the die is a multiple of 5? IMC. We assume that xi = 0 and f (0) = f (1) = f (2). or 2 modulo 3. . we can replace two balls in the box with one or two balls according 98 . 6. initially outside the box. . i∈∅ Prove that there exists i ∈ M such that 3|ai + bi + ci .Problems for training 1. . . 2000} have the sum of their elements divisible by 5? Qihong Xie. ck ∈ R. Three persons A. n. . all selections having the same probability. There are also unlimited supplies of white. 4. High School-Mathematics 5. n} whose union is M and for which ai + i∈M \A i∈M \B bi + i∈M \C ci ≡ 3 (mod p). Find all values of k for which A. Recreatii Matematice ¸ 4. There are 2000 white balls in a box. . 2. 1. 1987 2. . . . 5. 2. 1999 3. Imo Shortlist. The winner is A. Gabriel Dospinescu. bk . B. 1986} is selected randomly. At each step. 2. . according to the case when the sum of the elements of the selected subset is congruent to 0. We throw the die n times.

two greens with a white and red. Let F be the family of the subsets of the set A = {1. (0. a) After some ﬁnite number of steps. For which odd natural numbers n can we tile a n × n table with 1 × k or k × 1 rectangles such that only the square in the center of the table does not belong to any rectangle? Arhimede Magazine. A 7 × 7 table is tiled with 16 rectangles 1 × 3 such that only one square remains uncovered. 2. For each element of F . 2001 9. 1984 7. b) Is it possible that after a ﬁnite number of steps there is just one ball in the box? Bulgaria. Find all pairs (a. b) of natural numbers such that any residue modulo n appears the same number of times on the frontier of the rectangle of vertices (0. (a. 3n} which have the sum of their elements divisible by 3. Let n ≥ 2 be an integer. Prove that at least one of them is green. 2000 6. Gabriel Dospinescu 8. compute the square of sum of its elements. . a white and green with a red or a green and red with a white. b). j) having integer coordinates we write the number i + j (mod n).to the following rules: two whites or two reds with a green. 0). . What is the value of the sum of all the obtained numbers? Gabriel Dospinescu 99 . What is the position of this square? Tournament of the Towns. Bulgaria. 0). In each point (i. . in the box there are exactly three balls. (a. . b) and also any residue modulo n appears the same number of times in the interior of the same rectangle. Let k > 2 be an integer.

.10. IMO 1999 Shortlist 100 . a2 . . . 2}p−1 such that p| j=0 jaj . 1. . . 3}p−1 such that p−1 p| j=0 jaj . a2 . . ap−1 ) ⊂ {0. 1. . let k be the number of sequences (a1 . Also. Prove that h ≤ k and that the equality appears only for p = 5. . Let p > 3 be a prime number and let h be the number of sep−1 quences (a1 . ap−1 ) ⊂ {0.

The ﬁrst problem was discussed during the preparation for IMO of the USA team. Let a1 . . r1 r2 rn 2 2. an . r2 . . .FORMAL SERIES REVISITED We start with a riddle and a challenge for the reader: what is the connection between the following problems: 1. . The set of natural numbers (including 0) is partitioned into a ﬁnite number n ≥ 2 of inﬁnite arithmetic progressions having ratios r1 . combinatorics. then let’s give him one small hint: the methods used to solve both problems are very similar and can be included into a larger ﬁeld. . reminding that the reader is supposed to be familiar with some basic analysis tools: Example 1. . . it is a famous problem given in a Russian olympiad and proposed by N. given a commutative ring A. called the ring of formal series with coeﬃcients in A and denoted A[X]. Then the following relation is satisﬁed: a1 a2 an n−1 + + ··· + = . As for the second one. An element of A[X] is of the form n≥0 an X n . Then all numbers are n 1 2 equal to 0. rn and ﬁrst term a1 . 101 . Vasiliev. The vertices of a regular polygon are colored in some fashion so that each set of vertices having the same colour is the set of vertices of a regular polygon. Then there are two congruent polygons among them. but it seems it is a classical result. What is that? Well. a2 . But let’s start working now. If the reader has no clue. a2 . . that of formal series. . number theory. . . As we are going to see in what follows. . we can deﬁne another ring. an be some complex numbers such that for any 1 ≤ k ≤ n we have ak + ak + · · · + ak = 0. these formal series have some very nice applications in diﬀerent ﬁelds: algebra. where an ∈ A. well.

. . . Now. Indeed. But what can we do if don’t know them? Here is a nice way to solve the problem (and a way to prove Newton’s relations too). Assume that not all numbers are zero and take a1 . while the second one is bounded). i i i Then it suﬃces to add these relations and to prove the statement by strong induction. as (s ≥ 1) to be the collection of numbers of maximal modulus among the n numbers. let us consider the function n f (z) = i=1 1 . . experienced reader has already noticed that this problem is a trivial consequence of Newton’s relations. . Then for all k ≥ n + 1 we have ak + bn−1 ak−1 + · · · + b0 ak−n = 0. 102 . we obtain a contrar r n 1 diction with the relation = n (indeed. observe that the given condition implies that ak + ak + · · · + ak = 0 1 2 n for all positive integer k. 1−x we obtain that f (z) = n for all suﬃciently small z (which means that |z| max(|ai |) < 1). it suﬃces to observe 1 − zp ai i=1 that the left-hand side is unbounded. . 1 − zai Developing it by using 1 = 1 + x + x2 + . Let the common value of the modulus be r. Of course. zp 1 By taking a sequence zp → such that < 1. First of all.Solution. This shows that all numbers are equal to 0. let f (X) = X n + bn−1 X n−1 + · · · + b1 X + b0 n the polynomial i−1 (x − ai ). (for |x| < 1).

Yet. . . . Obviously. x2 . which shows that all coeﬃcients of this formal series are integers multiples of m. (1 − xq z) are multiples of m. . 1 (i) (i) 103 . it follows that the formal series a1 (1 − x2 z) .. Since all coeﬃcients of a1 (1 − x2 z) .We are going to discuss a nice number theory problem. . a simple computation shows that we have the divisibility relation: q q q m|xq−1 1 i=1 ai − xq−2 i i=1 ai S1 + · · · + (−1)q−1 i=1 (i) ai Sq−1 . Then q 1 2 q m|a1 i=2 (x1 − xi ). Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. . (1 − xq z) also has all coeﬃcients multiples of m. . xq and m some integers such that m|a1 xk + a2 xk + · · · + aq xk for all k ≥ 0. Now. Example 2. . a2 . (i) This can also be rewritten in the nicer form q m| i=1 q−2 ai (xq−1 − x1 S1 + · · · + (−1)q−1 Sq−1 ).. x1 . we deduce immediately that q q f (z) = i=1 ai + i=1 ai xi z + . . Consider this time the formal series q f (z) = i=1 ai . .. . whose solution is practically based on the same idea. Let a1 . there are some details that make the problem more diﬃcult. consider St (i) the i-th fundamental symmetric sum in xj (j = i). aq . 1 − zxi By using the same formula as in the ﬁrst problem. .

. Suppose that the set of natural numbers (including 0) is partitioned into a ﬁnite number of inﬁnite arithmetic progressions of ratios r1 . . Therefore we can conclude. Let us observe that for any |x| < 1 we have the identity: xa1 +kr1 + k≥0 k≥0 (1) (1) (i) (i) xa2 +kr2 + · · · + k≥0 xan +krn = k≥0 xk . an . Indeed. (x1 − xi−1 (x1 − xi+1 ) . r2 . we need a little lemma. . We ﬁnd of course the desired relation lim x→1 1 − x 1 1 1 + + ··· + = 1. rn and ﬁrst term a1 . . . . r1 r2 rn 104 . . . which is interesting itself and which we prefer to present as a separate problem: Example 3. The above relation becomes of course the very useful relation: xa2 xan 1 xa1 + + ··· + = r1 r2 rn 1−x 1−x 1−x 1−x (1) Let us multiply the relation (1) with 1 − x and use the fact that 1 − xa = a. q 1 In order to solve the problem announced in the very beginning of the presentation. Then the following relation is satisﬁed: 1 1 1 + + ··· + = 1. . . a2 . since xq−1 − xq−2 S1 + · · · + (−1)q−1 Sq−1 = (x1 − x2 ) . . (x1 − xn ).Now. the trivial identity (x1 − x1 ) . . . r1 r2 rn Solution. (x1 − xn ) = 0 gives us the not-so obvious relation xq−1 − xq−2 S1 + · · · + (−1)q−1 Sq−1 = 0 1 1 for i ≥ 2. . all we did was to write the fact that each natural number is exactly in one of the arithmetic progressions.

rn ) < 22 n−1 . We will just a small. . So: Example 4. r2 . . a2 . . we can say that the relation 1 1 1 + + ··· + =1 r1 r2 rn implies that max(r1 . r1 r2 rn 2 MOSP Solution. A small computation let to the reader will show that n i=1 ai ri − ri (ri − 1) 2 = 0. 2 ri But it suﬃces to use the result proved in example 3 in order to conclude that we must have an n−1 a1 a2 + + ··· + = . r2 . First of all. The set of natural numbers (including 0) is partitioned into a ﬁnite number n ≥ 2 of inﬁnite arithmetic progressions having ratios r1 . . . . x2 . an . . . . using a beautiful and hard result due to Erdos. but not obvious step and we’ll be done.It’s time to solve the ﬁrst problem. . this remarkable theo- rem due to Erdos asserts that if x1 . let us derive the relation (2) and then make x → 1 in the resulting expression. . Then the following relation is satisﬁed: a1 a2 an n−1 + + ··· + = . Let us write the relation (1) in the more appropriate form: xan xa1 + ··· + =1 1 + x + · · · + xr1 −1 1 + x + · · · + xrn −1 (2) Now. r1 r2 rn 2 Some commentaries about these two relations are necessary. xk are natural numbers whose 105 . rn and ﬁrst term a1 . . . . . The fundamental relation is again (1). . Indeed.

Example 5. . . . . then 1 1 1 1 1 1 + + ··· + + + ··· + . Let us assume that the initial polygon (which we will call big from now on) has n edges and that it is inscribed in the unit circle. This shows that for ﬁxed n not only there is a ﬁnite number of ways to partition the set of natural numbers into n arithmetic progressions. the solution becomes natural. Once again. But the reader can verify immediately n that 1 1 1 1 + + ··· + =1− u1 u2 uk u1 u2 . but we also have some explicit (even though huge) bounds on ratios and ﬁrst terms. un−1 or even better rn ≤ u1 u2 . . the reader will do a short induction to prove that un ≤ 22 that max(r1 . where ε = 106 . r2 . rn can be taken as rn ). an ) < (n−1)·22 . r2 . a2 . . . Thus we can write 1− 1 1 ≤1− . However. u k (it is trivial by induction). rn u1 u2 . . un+1 = u2 −un +1. un−1 = un − 1 (the last relation being again a simple induction). . . Using the relation proved in example 4. . . . We will see that in the framework of the previous results proved here. N. . . the vertices having as aﬃxes the numbers 1. it is not at all true.sum of inverses is strictly smaller than 1. εn−1 . ε. . . The vertices of a regular polygon are colored such that vertices having the same colour form regular polygons. we also deduce that max(a1 . the problem is really diﬃcult. . rn ) < 2 2n−1 n−1 . . ε2 . Prove that there are at least two congruent polygons among them. . And here is how we can prove (since of course any number among n−1 −1 r1 . Vasiliev. It is now time to solve the remarkable problem discussed in the beginning of this note. . . Russian Olympiad Solution. ≤ x1 x2 xk u1 u2 uk where u1 = 2.

. Indeed. Or. . . we know that P (x) 1 1 = + ··· + . . Let 2iπ εj = e nj . Lemma 1. First. p−1 1 − z 1 − zζ 1 − zζ 1 − zp then we have the Proving this lemma is a very simple task. nk the number of edges of each monochromatic polygon and let us assume that all these numbers are diﬀerent. a technical result. zj εj j n −1 . if ζ = e identity 1 1 1 p + + ··· + = . . for some zj complex numbers on the 2iπ p unit circle. . . we will not loose generality with all these restrictions). + ··· + 1 − (zz1 )n1 1 − (zzk )nk 1 − zn Also. zj εj . . Consider now n1 . (1) 1 − (zz1 )n1 1 − (zz2 )n2 1 − (zzk )nk 1 − zn Let us assume now that n1 < min(n2 . 1 − (zz1 )n1 1 − (zz2 )n2 1 − (zzk )nk 1 − zn (2) 107 . Now. . . the simple observation that n1 + n2 + · · · + nk = n allows the new identity n n n n k zk k nz n n 1 z1 1 n 2 z2 2 n1 n2 z + z + ··· + z nk = . For any complex number z. P (X) X −z X − zζ p−1 By taking X = 1. . the hypothesis of the problem and lemma 1 allow to write n1 n nk = . nk ) and let us divide (1) by z n1 . . . zζ p−1 are exactly the roots of P (X) = X p − z p . .e 2iπ n (of course. it suﬃces to observe that z. . zζ. It follows that for non-zero z we have n n n n k zk k n 2 z2 2 nz n−n1 n 1 z1 1 + z n2 −n1 + · · · + z nk −n1 = . n2 . we obtain exactly the desired identity. observe that the aﬃxes of the vertices of each monochromatic polygon are zj . .

For any complex numbers a1 . 2! n thus we can say that the coeﬃcient of On the other hand. . Solution. but it has a four-line solution!!! 108 . we are done: it suﬃces to observe that if we make z → 0 n (by non-zero values) in (2) . since the coeﬃkn . a2 . Example 6. The conclusion is clear: not only the identity is cient of z n in ekz is n! true. ... Here is a magical proof using formal series. which is surely impossible since |z1 | = 1. we can write n zn in this formal series is i=1 ai . the following identity holds: n n n j=i n aj n n ai i=1 − i=1 + 1≤i<j≤n n ak − · · · + (−1)n−1 k=i. . We are going to compute it in two diﬀerent ways. it is clear that f (z) = i=1 n zai + z 2 a2 i + . z f (z) = e ai i=1 n z aj j=i n − i=1 e + · · · + (−1)n−1 i=1 ezai + (−1)n . The following problem that we are going to discuss appeared in various contests under diﬀerent forms. we obtain that z1 1 = 0. the reader is right: now everything is clear. . The proof ends here.j an = n! i i=1 i=1 ai .Well. Consider the formal series n f (z) = i=1 (ezai − 1). It is a very nice identity that can be proved elementary in a quite messy way. an ∈ C. Indeed. First of all.

Next. 1−x Replace x by x2 . consider the formal series f (x) = n≥0 bn xn . be a sequence of positive integers such that the equation ai + 2aj + 4ak = n has a unique solution i. . We shall focus a little bit more on such type of problems in the sequel. but also some beautiful concocts of numbers theory and combinatorics. Let A = {a0 . k. Example 7. Here is a very nice answer: 9817030729. The hypothesis imposed n≥0 write in a more intuitive way f (x) = on the set A translates into f (x)f (x2 )f (x4 ) = k 1 . 1 − x2k 1 1 − x23k k≥0 1 . j. . Let 0 = a0 < a1 < a2 < . 1998 Solution. . We obtain the recursive relation f (x2 )f (x2 k k+1 )f (x2 k+2 )= 1 . .There aren’t only algebra problems that can be solved in an elegant manner using formal series. Find a1998 . IMO Shortlist. the generating function of the set A (we can xan ). a1 . 23k 23k 1−x 1−x k≥0 k≥0 k≥0 k≥0 109 3k+1 3k+1 . } and bn = 1 if n ∈ A and 0 otherwise. observe two relations: f (x2 ) = k≥0 k≥0 k (f (x2 )f (x2 3k 3k+1 )f (x2 3k+2 )) = and f (x2 ) = k≥1 k≥0 k (f (x2 3k+1 )f (x2 3k+2 )f (x2 3k+3 )) = Therefore (the reader has observed that rigor was not the strong point in establishing these relations) we have 1 − x2 1 − x2 k k f (x) = = (1+x8 )f (x) = = (1+x8 ). 1 − x23k+1 k≥0 Now. .

The fact that A.This shows that the set A is exactly the set of nonnegative integers that use only the digits 0 and 1 when written in base 8. 1−x . under different forms. f (x2 ) − g(x2 ) 110 f (x) − g(x) . Consider f. in Olympiads from all over the world. the hypothesis made on the number of solutions of the equation x + y = n imposes that f 2 (x) − f (x2 ) = g 2 (x) − g(x2 ). g the generating functions of A. B form a partition of the set of nonnegative integers can be also rewritten as f (x) + g(x) = n≥0 xn = 1 . 1−x Also. The following problem is an absolute classic. Therefore. g(x) = n≥0 bn xn (as in the previous problem. an equals 1 if n ∈ A and 0 otherwise). B and write them in explicit form f (x) = n≥0 an xn . Find all partitions with two classes A. f (x2 ) − g(x2 ) = which can also be rewritten as f (x) − g(x) = 1 − x. Solution. We will present the latest one. given in a Putnam competition: Example 8. y) ∈ A × A as in B × B. B of the set of nonnegative integers having the property that for all nonnegative integers n the equation x + y = n with x < y has as many solutions (x. It appeared. A quick computation based on this observation shows that the magical term asked by the problem is 9817030729.

k −1 If we prove that 1 + x + · · · + x2 divides f (x). We will discuss two nice problems in which formal series and complex numbers appear in a quite spectacular way: Example 9. Let us consider the function (call it formal series. Prove that the number of subsets A ⊂ S such that x ≡ m (mod 2k ) does not depend on m ∈ {0. 2k − 1}. . we deduce that f (x) − g(x) = k≥0 (1 − x2 ) lim k n x→∞ f (x2 ) 1 . Then the reader can easily verify that n→∞ lim f (x2 ) = 1 and lim g(x2 ) = 0. then we have certainly done the job. B are respectively the set of nonnegative integers having even (respectively odd) sum of digits when written in binary. Let n. . the idea is the same as in the previous problems: replace x by x 2k and iterate the process. where s2 (x) is the sum of digits of binary representation of x.Now. . In order to prove this. it suﬃces of course to 111 . . Taking into account the relation f (x) + g(x) = n≥0 xn = 1 . n→∞ n n This shows that actually f (x) − g(x) = k≥0 (1 − x2 ) = k≥0 k (−1)s2 (k) xk . . if you want) n f (x) = i=1 (1 + xi ). k be positive integers such that n ≥ 2k−1 and let S = {1. . − g(x2n ) Let us assume without loss of generality that 0 ∈ A. After multiplication. 1−x we ﬁnally deduce that A. . x∈A Balkan Olympiad Shortlist 2005 Solution. 2. n}. 1. .

Example 10. But this surely contradicts the fact that none of the numbers a1 . Finally. we have n m−1 j=0 xjai = n i=1 f (x) = i=1 1 − xmai . the conclusion is immediate). such that |ei | < m for all i and such that mn |e1 a1 + e2 a2 + · · · + en an . an is a multiple of mn−1 . whose nice solution below was found by Constantin Tanasescu. 2. But it suﬃces to observe that for any l ∈ {1. 112 . it is time for a tough problem. 1 − xai On the other hand. we must have f (ε) = 0. . . .prove that any 2k th root of unity. consider f (x) = p∈A xa . IMO Shortlist 2002 n Solution. Look at the set A = i=1 ei ai | 1 ≤ ei ≤ m and observe that we can assume that A is a complete system of residues modulo mn (otherwise. . e2 . not all zero. n ≥ 2 be positive integers and a1 . Of course. a2 . a2 . Now. . . . Let m. . . . . . . none of them divisible by mn−1 . except for 1 is a root of f . . . an integers. it will be a combinatorial problem. On one hand. Therefore (the hypothesis n 2iπ ensures that εai = 1) we must have i=1 (1 − εmai ) = 0. . take ε = e mn . 2k−2−v2 (l) = −1 which proves our claim and ﬁnishes the solution. en . 2k−1 − 1} we have 2lπ 2lπ cos k + i sin k 2 2 and so f cos 2lπ 2lπ + i sin k k 2 2 = 0. Since A is a complete system of residues modulo mn . Prove that one can ﬁnd integers e1 .

Let S be the set of all words which can be obtained by concatenating words from C. which is nothing else than m m the desired inequality. . |z2 |. S (and C) has at most mk elements of length k. 113 . (∗) 1 . Proposed problems 1. . |zn |) − ε. let C ⊆ A be a set of words. . for all x ∈ 0. z2 . We know that any word from A can be obtained in at most one way by concatenating words from C. Prove that for any ε > 0 there are inﬁnitely many numbers n such that k k k k |z1 + z2 + · · · + zn | > max(|z1 |. . we have that: g(x) = 1 + f (x) + f 2 (x) + · · · = Therefore. g(x) = s∈S xl(s) . and so f (x) < 1 for all x ∈ 0. . Let A be the set of all words which can be formed using m ≥ 2 given letters. ml(c) Adrian Zahariuc Solution. . f (x)g(x) = g(x) − 1. By the deﬁnition of S. . 1 − f (x) Now. Let z1 . thus g(x) < ∞ 1 1 and f (x) < ∞ for x < . Prove the inequality: c∈C 1 ≤ 1. : m m f (x)g(x) = g(x) − 1 < g(x) 1 . All we need now is to make x tend m 1 1 to and we will obtain that f ≤ 1. For any c ∈ A. Thus. . Let f (x) = c∈C xl(c) . zn be some arbitrary complex numbers. let l(c) be its length.Example 11. Also.

an relatively prime positive integers. . Prove that if we partition the natural numbers into a ﬁnite number of inﬁnite arithmetic progressions. Here a1 . Deﬁne A1 = ∅. Find in closed form a sequence (xn )n≥1 such that if (yn )n≥1 is the number of positive integral solutions to the equation a1 x1 + a2 x2 + · · · + an xn = k. . . . then xn = 1. where n is a given positive integer? Romanian TST. . . . xk−1 .2. . . In how many ways can we parenthesis a non-associative product a1 a2 . lim n→∞ yn 114 . . then there will be two of them having the same ratio. . . . . n 2 ? China TST 2002 8. . a2 . B1 = {0} and An+1 = {1 + x| x ∈ Bn }. Bn+1 = (An \ Bn ) ∪ (Bn \ An ). How many polynomials P with coeﬃcients 0. 2. . . x1 . 1994 5. . . ak are arbitrary complex numbers. . 3. 4. 1. an such that {|ai − aj | | 1 ≤ i < j ≤ n} = 1. an ? Catalan’s problem 7. For which positive integers n can we ﬁnd real numbers a1 . What are the positive integers n such that Bn = {0}? AMM 6. . a2 . . 2 or 3 satisfy P (2) = n. Let a1 . Find the general formula for the sequence (xn )n≥1 given by xn+k = a1 xn+k−1 + · · · + ak xn in function of x0 .

Find all possibilities to color a regular polygon in the way presented in example 5. . . . an uniquely.j≤n Gabriel Dospinescu 10. i < j. determines a1 . Here C does not depend on p ≥ 1 and Ap + Ap + · · · + Ap ≤ 1 2 k X = max |xij |. . Prove that for any prime number p we have p|ap . Suppose that a0 = a1 = 1. Komal 15. Komal 14. Ak ∈ Mn (C) be some complex nθn matrices such that C p! for any natural number p ≥ 1. Erdos and Selfridge 13. . knowing the numbers ai + aj . . . Find all positive integers n with the following property: for any real numbers a1 . 12. . Then prove that An = 0 for all 1 ≤ i ≤ k. . . Deﬁne two sequences of integer numbers (an ). a2 . (bn ) : a1 = b1 = 0 and an = nbn + a1 bn−1 + a2 bn−2 + · · · + an−1 b1 . A2 .9. a2 . Is there an inﬁnite set of natural numbers such that all suﬃciently large integer can be represented in the same number of ways as the sum of two elements of the set? D. Newman 11. Prove that all terms of this sequence are integers. Let A1 . . i 1≤i. Is it possible to partition the set of all 12-digit numbers into groups of 4 numbers such that the numbers in each group have the same digits in 11 places and four consecutive digits in the remaining place? 115 . (n + 3)an+1 = (2n + 3)an + 3nan−1 . . an .

1 ≤ i ≤ n are disjoint subsets of A. bi IMO Shortlist 2004 116 .. = Gabriel Dospinescu 17.. . the sets bi A + ci . an .ε2 . Prove the following identity n k=1 1≤i1 <i2 <···<ik ≤n ε1 . Prove that n i=1 1 ≤ 1. . . a2 n 1 2 2n for any real numbers a1 .. A set of positive integers A has the property that for some positive integers bi . . .Saint Petersburg Olympiad 16. .εn ∈{−1.. ci . a2 .1} (−1)k (ε1 ai1 + ε2 ai2 + · · · + εk aik )2n 2k (−1)n (2n)!a2 a2 .

... 1 x1 x2 . ... .. This discussion practically started from the following diﬃcult problem that we solved in the chapter ”Look at the exponent!” and which appeared in the American Mathematical Monthly a long time ago. . . we need some basic facts about matrices. especially because it makes a beautiful connection between number theory and algebra. .. But ﬁrst. ... we need Vandermonde’s identity 1 1 . 1≤i<j≤n (1) . At the appropriate time......... But linear algebra has an important role as well. xn x2 1 x2 2 ... xn−1 n 117 = (xj − xi ).NUMBERS AND LINEAR ALGEBRA We have seen how analysis can help in solving number theory problems. Secondly. an the number is an inj−i 1≤i<j≤n teger.. .. . and systems of linear equations. aj − ai For any integers a1 ... a1n a2n . xn−1 1 xn−1 2 . a2 . determinants. For example. . . . a12 a22 ... ann =0 an1 an2 . has only the trivial solution... the fact that any homogeneous linear system a11 x1 + a12 x2 + · · · + a1n xn = 0 a x + a x + ··· + a x = 0 21 1 22 2 2n n a x + a x + ··· + a x = 0 n1 1 n2 2 nn n in which a11 a21 . You will see a nice and short solution to this problem. .... x2 n .

.. . . . . .. for a better understanding. .. 118 .. we are ready to begin the discussion. σ(n)n−1 = (σ(j) − σ(i)).. S0 = S1 . σ(n) n−1 1 · 1 . . ... Let σ be a permutation of the numbers 1. Then (σ(j) − σ(i)) = 1! · 2! .With these basic facts (of course. n..... . But we also need a small trick. . . . ... . . S2n−2 . 1≤i<j≤n σ(1)n−1 σ(2)n−1 σ(3)n−1 . 1≤i<j≤n Solution....... 1 σ(1) σ(2) .. Here is a nice solution. S1 S2 .... σ(2) n−1 1 σ(3) . .... by multiplying the two determinants we ﬁnd 2 (σ(j) − σ(i)) = 1≤i<j≤n 1 σ(1) . 1 σ(n) ... 1 σ(2) .. Using the fact that det A = det t A for any matrix A. . This time. Sn−1 .. (n − 1)!.. .. . .. Example 1.. we will prove a result from the theory of permutations. . σ(1) n−1 1 σ(2) .. The formula in the left-hand side suggests that we might use Vandermonde’s identity (1).. . So. Sn−1 Sn ... .. the reader should have some more knowledge on linear algebra).. we start with an easy and classical problem.. 1 σ(n) ... As usual. σ(3) n−1 .. .. . we get 1 σ(1) .. σ(1)n−1 σ(2)n−1 ....... 1 σ(3) . 2.... σ(n)n−1 σ(n) .

. . . But we have seen that 1≤i<j≤n 2 (xi − xj ) = S0 S1 ...where Si = σ(1)i + σ(2)i + · · · + σ(n)i . 2. and divisions on its coeﬃcients? Solution. . 2. 1!. n 1 2 So. . But this is a consequence of Newton’s and Vieta’s formulas. Sn−1 ... . But since σ is a permutation of the numbers 1.. we can answer immediately the following question: Example 2. S2n−2 .. Then this polynomial has a double root if and only if 2 (xi − xj ) = 0. Sn−1 Sn . .. xn are the zeros of the polynomial... multiplications.. . }. Let f (x) = a0 + a1 x + · · · + an xn . where Si = xi +xi +· · ·+xi . . . 119 i ∈ {1. . S1 S2 . . can we decide if it has a double zero only by performing additions. n. Yes. . 1≤i<j≤n where x1 . we can. 1≤i<j≤n (j − i) = (n − 1)!(n − 2)! . . . we need to express Si = xi +xi +· · ·+xi n 1 2 in terms of the coeﬃcients of the polynomial.. . which combined yield an Si + an−1 Si−1 + · · · + an−i+1 S1 + ian−i Si = 0.. . . x2 ... . . we have Si = 1i + 2i + · · · + ni and repeating the arguments we conclude that 2 2 Hence (σ(j) − σ(i)) = 1≤i<j≤n (σ(j) − σ(i)) = 1≤i<j≤n (j − i) . . 1≤i<j≤n Using this result. Given a polynomial with complex coeﬃcients.

e. since after all Si is a symmetric polynomial in n variables. then the polynomial g(x) = a0 + a1 x + · · · + an−1 xn−1 is not relatively prime with f .The last formula allows us to prove by induction that Si can be expressed only in terms of the coeﬃcients of the polynomial (this could have been shown much easier. i. which can also be expressed in terms of the coeﬃcients due to Vieta’s formulas). b. we can decide whether 1≤i<j≤n 2 (xi − xj ) = 0 only by using the described operations on the coeﬃcients of the polynomial. the polynomial f (X) = X n − 2 is irreducible. an−1 . If a0 + a1 n 2 + · · · + an−1 2 = 0. This cannot happen. hence it can be expressed only in terms of the fundamental symmetric polynomials. Example 3. Prove that if a0 . Have you ever thought about the general case? This cannot be done only with simple tricks. We need much more. which shows that the answer to the problem is positive. √ √ n−1 n−1 so if a0 + a1 n 2 + · · · + an−1 2 = 0 for some rational numbers a0 . then √ √ n−1 n ka0 + ka1 2 + · · · + kan−1 2n−1 = 0 120 . . . . . c ∈ Q verify √ √ a + b 3 2 + c 3 4 = 0. You may know the following classical problem: if a. Of course. then a0 = a1 = · · · = an−1 = 0. . g) is a polynomial of degree at most n − 1 that divides an irreducible polynomial f of degree n. But here is a beautiful proof using linear algebra. then a = b = c = 0. a direct solution could be the following: from Eisenstein’s criterion. This time we will have to be careful to work in the most appropriate ﬁeld. Hence gcd(f. . . a0 = a1 = · · · = an−1 = 0. unless g = 0. an−1 ∈ Q satisfy √ √ n−1 n a0 + a1 2 + · · · + an−1 2n−1 = 0. a1 . √ √ n−1 n−1 Solution. a1 . . Consequently.

. 2a2 . . a1 . a1 a1 a0 . we should always work in the most appropriate ﬁeld.. . . we can choose k to be the least common multiple of all denominators of the numbers a0 .. kn ) = (1. . having nontrivial solutions.. 2a2 . It equals an = 0.. . k2 . Now. Then. ..for any real number k. 2n−1 ) are good and the system becomes √ √ a0 + a1 · n 2 + · · · + an−1 · n 2n−1 = 0 n n a · √2 + a · √22 + · · · + 2a =0 0 1 n−1 .. . an−1 ). . .. Hence a0 must 0 be even. .. we may assume that a0 .. .. let us ﬁll in the blanks. an−1 ∈ Z (for example.. 121 ... This time the ﬁeld is Z2 . we conclude that a0 2an−1 . As we said before passing to the solution. . . The idea is to choose n values for k so that to obtain a system of linear equations... n 2.. . . . an−1 an−2 . the values (k1 . 2a1 a1 a0 . n 2. . .. Thus. . What √ √ n are the best values for k? This can be seen by noticing that 2n−1 · n 2 = √ √ n 2 ∈ Z. . an−1 an−2 .. . But what can we do now? Expanding the determinant leads nowhere... . a0 = 0. √ n n n−2 a · √2n−1 + 2a + · · · + a 2 =0 0 1 n−1 · √ √ n Viewing (1.. 2n−1 ) as a nontrivial solution to the system. that is a0 = 2b0 and we have b0 an−1 .. since in this case the determinant can be easily computed.. a0 = 0. . So. the determinant of the system must be zero and this will imply a0 = a1 = · · · = an−1 = 0.. .. . .. . . . a1 .

we interchange the ﬁrst two lines of the determinant. 122 . c ∈ Z}. Let A = {a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc| a. Similarly. Let us write ai = 2bi . The above solution might seem exaggeratedly diﬃcult compared with the one using Eisenstein’s criterion. Its value remains 0.Now. it suﬃces to note that a c b x z y b a c y x z = c b a z y x ax + cy + bz az + by + cx ay + bx + cz = ay + bx + cz ax + cy + bz az + by + cx az + by + cx ay + bx + cz ax + cy + bz and thus (a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc)(x2 + y 3 + z 3 − 3xyz) = A3 + B 3 + C 3 − 3ABC. Prove that if x. Indeed. but the idea was too nice not to be presented here. it is an = 0. Then we also have √ √ n−1 n−1 2 = 0 and with the same reasoning we b0 + b1 · n 2 + · · · + bn−1 · conclude that all bi are even. By the method of inﬁnite descent. we 1 ﬁnd that all ai are even. we ﬁnd that a0 = a1 = · · · = an−1 = 0. The observation that a c a + b + c − 3abc = 3 3 3 b b a c c b a leads to a quick solution. The following problem can become a nightmare despite its simplicity. Example 4. but when we expand it in Z2 . Proof. y ∈ A then xy ∈ A. we can repeat this as long as we want. b. But of course.

. w such that a(yw − zv) + b(zu − xw) + c(xv − yu) = 1.. . vn ) such that vi vn−1 v1 . . a2 .. where a x u A= b y v . . vn−1 . stating that if a1 . z. . B = az + by + cx. Consider the numbers . . k2 . Solution. . c z w So. b. kn such that k1 a1 + k2 a2 + · · · + kn an = 1. at least for n = 3. . then there are integers x. . using clever manipulations of determinant properties and induction on the dimension n of the vector v. . identities are not so hard to ﬁnd. First of all. Now. then one can ﬁnd integers k1 . . an are relatively prime. g g greatest common divisor of v1 . v2 . let us prove a much more general result. . They are relatively prime and 123 . There is a simple proof of this theorem. The following problem claims more. C = ax + cy + bz. u. Indeed. y. Any vector v whose integer components are relatively prime is the ﬁrst column of an integral matrix with determinant equal to 1. . .where A = ax + cy + bz. . . for n = 2 it is exactly Bezout’s theorem. . v. You see. . Theorem. there is a crucial observation to be made: the given condition can be also written in the form det A = 1. Example 5. . c are relatively prime integers. Prove that if a. We all know the famous Bezout’s theorem. assume that it is true for vectors in Z n−1 and take v = (v1 . . where g is the are relatively prime.

an−1.. j−i Armond Spencer.. .n an−1.2 .. . 1≤i<j≤n (j − i) equal to in 1≤i<j≤n 124 . a2 . We might want to use the same formula for the expression This is a dead end. vn−1 an−1. the way to proceed is clear. we can ﬁnd α. But we have seen what is (j − i).. (−1)n−1 β . having determinant equal to 1. For any integers a1 .. . . But we have a hurdle here.n−1 . an . a1.. but yet we did not present its solution yet. .n−1 (−1)n−1 β 0 We said at the beginning that the discussion started from the diﬃcult problem that appeared in AMM. associated to a1 . With this introduction. .. β such that αg + βvn = 1. ..n−1 . .. AMM E 2637 Solution. . vn 0 . a2 .. Example 6. v1 g .. . ... .. vn−1 g (−1)n−1 α .. it is not diﬃcult to verify that the following matrix has integral entries and determinant equal to 1: v1 a12 . an−1. Now. . using Bezout’s theorem... It is now time to do it.. What does the expression (aj − ai suggest? It is the Vandermonde’s 1≤i<j≤n 1≤i<j≤n identity (1). .thus we can ﬁnd an integral matrix v1 g . In this case.. an then aj − ai ∈ Z....2 .. vn−1 g a12 . . a1.. .

. a1 n−1 1 a2 1 a2 2 .. which can be proved easily by subtracting lines........ a2 n−1 . . the last step is the most important. . . ..... .. 1 an 1 an 2 .. . Because each number ai is an integer.. we can write 1 aj − ai 1 = j−i 1! · 2! ... 1 an 1! ..... And now we recognize the form 1 a1 1 aj − ai = j−i a1 2 . an−1 n (n − 1)! 1≤i<j≤n aj − ai = j−i .... . 1 a2 . 1 an .... .. 1!. an n−1 . A variant of this problem was given in 2004 at a TST in Romania and turned out to be a hard problem. . 1 a3 . .... 125 .. . ..... .. It equals (n − 1)!(n − 2)! . an−1 1 (n − 1)! 1 a2 1! . n−1 a2 (n − 1)! .. . The above formula can be rewritten as 1 a1 1! ... an−1 2 (n − 1)! 1 a3 1! . Now.the ﬁrst problem... 1≤i<j≤n . 1≤i<j≤n n−1 n−1 n−1 an−1 a2 a3 an 1 As usual. We end the unit with a very nice and diﬃcult problem that also appeared in AMM in 1998.. the determinant itself is an integer and the conclusion j follows. (n − 1)! a1 ...

Prove that for any prime p the number xp is a multiple of p. that is T rAp ≡ T rA (mod p) for any integral matrix and any prime p. The proof is not trivial at all. 2. Now. . . assume that the statement is true for all i = 1. . for n = 1. Consider the sequence (xn )n≥0 deﬁned by x0 = 4. This ﬁeld has clearly characteristic p (it contains Zp ) and so we have (using the binomial formula and the fact that all coeﬃcients p . . λ2 . 1 ≤ k ≤ p − 1 are multiples of p) k n n p trA = i=1 p λp i = i=1 126 λi = (T rA)p . This is going to be the easy part of the solution. . Indeed. 3 it is not diﬃcult to verify it. then by placing ourselves in a ﬁeld in which the characteristic polynomial of A has all its zeroes λ1 . AMM Solution. . x3 = 3 and xn+4 = xn + xn+1 . . Hence the claim is proved. let us prove an important result.Example 7. λn . We have used here the relation A4 = A + I4 . which can be easily veriﬁed by a simple computation. . Now. x1 = x2 = 0. . n−1 and prove that it is also true for n. A possible advanced solution is to start by considering the matrix A obtained by reducing all entries of A modulo p. Let us consider the 0 1 A= 0 0 matrix 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 and let trX be the sum of the entries of the main diagonal of the matrix X. We will ﬁrst prove that xn = T rAn (here A0 = I4 ). This is true because xn = xn−4 + xn−3 = T rAn−4 + T rAn−3 = T r(An−4 (A + I4 )) = T rAn . 2.

Ap ∈{A. . . . Let us consider two integral matrices A. Xn ) = T r(Xσ(1) . .Ap ∈{A.from where the conclusion is immediate via Fermat’s little theorem. . For these matrices we clearly have T rAp ≡ T rA (mod p) and by using the above result we can write (using Fermat’s little theorem one more time): T rAp = T r i. for any X1 .j p T r(ap Eij ) ≡ ij i. .. Observe that for any A. ...Ap ∈{A..j aij T rEij = T rA 127 . consider the matrices Eij that have 1 in position (i.B} A1 A2 .. Xn and any cyclic permutation σ.j p aij Eij (mod p).. .. T r(X1 .. . i Next. note that in the sum A1 . B we have T r(AB) = T r(BA) and by induction. B and write (A + B)p = A1 .. . But there is a beautiful elementary solution.. Ap ) is a multiple of p in any cycle. . since the sum of T r(A1 A2 . . Ap we can form 2p − 2 groups of p-cycles and we have two more terms Ap and B p .B} A1 A2 . A p .. Now. . Xσ(n) ). Ap ) ≡ T rAp + T rB p modulo p (the reader has A1 .. Thus p T r(A1 A2 . . . Thus we have proved that T r(A + B)p ≡ T rAp + T rB p and by an immediate induction we also have k (mod p) T r(A1 + · · · + Ak ) ≡ i=1 p T rAp . j) and 0 elsewhere. .B} already noticed that Fermat’s little theorem comes handy once again). ≡ i.

Octavian Stanasila. Prove that all the 2005 numbers are equal. . b. √ √ √ √ 3. f2 (x) = x and fn+1 (x) = xfn (x) + fn−1 (x). Prove that the number 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 is irrational. . a2 . Let the sequence of polynomials (fn )n≥1 be deﬁned by f1 (x) = 1. c = mv − nu. Romania 7. Compute the product 0≤i<j≤n−1 (εj − εi )2 . . Prove that for any relatively prime integers u. w satisfying au + bv + cw = 0. p such that a = nw − pv. . 128 . Let a. the rest of the numbers can be divided into at least two nonempty classes. Let F1 = 1. where 2kπ 2kπ + i sin n n εk = cos for all k ∈ {0. ap+1 have the property: no matter how we eliminate one of them. Problems for training 1. TST 1989. the rest can be divided into two groups of 1002 numbers each and having the same sum per group. there are integers m. Consider 2005 real numbers with the following property: whenever we eliminate one number. . c be relatively prime nonzero integers. 4. 2. n. b = pu − mw. . Prove that 2 Fn+1 Fn−1 − Fn = (−1)n and Fm+n = Fn Fm−1 + Fn+1 Fm . 5. Let p be a prime and suppose that the real numbers a1 . v. . . Prove that this sequence satisﬁes the following Fibonacci-type relations fm+n = fn fm−1 +fn+1 fm . 1.The result is proved and with it the fact that xp is a multiple of p. F2 = 1 and Fn = Fn−1 + Fn−2 for all n ≥ 3 be the Fibonacci sequence. 6. n − 1}.

. an ). 2 2 2 2 .. TST 1994 . . TST 2004. Calin Popescu. . an ) a1 a2 . a2 . an (aj − ai ) 1≤i<j≤n is an integer divisible by 1!2! . . . A2 . . . after ﬁnitely many moves we obtain an n-tuple (A1 . . Marius Radulescu. a2 . . Let a1 . . . Gabriel Dospinescu 129 . x2 = 2c. Prove that a1 = a2 = · · · = ap+1 . . . . . Prove that if we start with an arbitrary n-tuple (a1 . . a2 . Moreover. the number xpm is divisible by p. . Prove that for any prime p and any positive integer m. 10. . Romania 9. . Let a. x2 . (n − 2)! by any other multiple of 1!2! . . x1 = 0. . . an ∈ R and deﬁne ai n (k) = (−2)k k=0 n (k) (0) ai = (−1)n ai k for all 1 ≤ i ≤ n. . Prove that 11. . . Let a1 . . . Prove that for any integers a1 . (n − 2)!. .. .. a2 . (n − 2)!. ai (k−1) (k−1) + ai+2 for 2 all k ≥ 1 and 1 ≤ i ≤ n (the indices are taken modulo n). an the following number lcm(a1 . . An ) such that 1≤i<j≤n (0) (0) (0) max |Ai − Aj | < 1 22005 . b. x3 = 3b and xn+3 = axn−1 + bxn + cxn+1 . . xn ) into the n-tuple x1 + x2 x2 + x3 xn−1 + xn xn + x1 . . a2 .any two of them being disjoint and each class having the same arithmetic mean. c be integers and deﬁne the sequence (xn )n≥0 by x0 = 4. we cannot replace 1!2! . .. . A move is transforming the n-tuple (x1 . an ∈ R. . .Romania 8. . .

that is for any polynomial f ∈ Z[X] and any diﬀerent integers a. due to Schur. as usual. especially in a chapter like this one. For suﬃciently large n. . Although in the topic Analysis against number theory we proved an even more general result using a nice analytical argument. . . b. In this small note we joined together some classical arithmetic properties of polynomials. f (n!) ≡ 1 (mod n!) and so if we pick a prime divisor of each of the numbers f (n!). is inﬁnite. As usual. Practically..ARITHMETIC PROPERTIES OF POLYNOMIALS Another topic with old fashioned tricks. the list is just a small and insigniﬁcant introduction to this ﬁeld. suppose that f (0) = 1 and consider the numbers f (n!). when extremely diﬃcult problems with extremely simple statements can be asked. we prefer to present here a purely arithmetic proof. we obtain the conclusion (since in particular any such prime divisor is 130 . but rather an imperious need. Proof. . We will start with an essential result. how many times happened to pass too many time on a problem just because we neglected basic and trivial aspects of it? This is why we think that speaking about these ”old fashioned tricks” is not lack of imagination. Yet. a − b divides f (a) − f (b). . . so the tough solver will have his own part of lecture. and which appeared in many variants in contests. Moreover. (Schur) Let f ∈ Z[X] be a non constant polynomial.. First. Then the set of prime numbers dividing at least one non-zero number between f (1). we kept some chestnuts for the end of the note. Example 1. this is the fundamental result that we shall use continuously.. Of course. they are non-zero integers. .. will surely say the reader at ﬁrst about this small note. but some basic things should become reﬂex and between them there are also some problems we shall discuss. f (2). There is one result that should be remembered. f (n).

Indeed. Using Bezout’s theorem we conclude instantly that we can ﬁnd a non zero integer N and P. as usual. this contradicts Schur’s result. . f (a + 1). Interested reader will ﬁnd a rich literature on this ﬁeld. Yet. of course. . Bulgarian Olympiad 131 . Q ∈ Z[X] such that f P + gQ = N . g ∈ Z[X] are monic non constant irreducible polynomials such that for all suﬃciently large n. the Chinese remainder theorem. Then f = g. then the above remark and the fact that they have the same leading coeﬃcient implies they are relatively prime in Q[X]. Even more. Example 2. This shows that for all suﬃciently large n. f (n) and g(n) have the same set of prime divisors. Let f ∈ Z[X] be a non constant polynomial and n. k some positive integers. we easily get the conclusion. Suppose thus f (xf (0)) that f (0) = 0 and consider the polynomial g(x) = . But. Obviously. The result of example 2 remains true if we assume the same property valuable for inﬁnitely many numbers n. Solution. important consequences. the proof uses some highly non elementary results of Erdos in this ﬁeld. Here is a nice application. f (a + n − 1) has at least k distinct prime divisors. by Gauss’s lemma. The ingredient is. the conclusion is obvious. all prime factors of f (n) divide N . if f (0) = 0. This result has. Applying now the ﬁrst part of the solution. the two polynomials are irreducible in Q[X]. A reﬁnement of Schur’s lemma is discussed in the following example. Example 3. as we have already said. if they are not equal. . .greater than n). f (0) g ∈ Z[X] and g(0) = 1. Suppose that f. Then prove that there exists a positive integer a such that each of the numbers f (a). Now.

q−1) − 1 = p. let us consider a prime number p > k and let us look at the smallest prime divisor of g(p + 1) > 2. . since changing g and his opposite has no eﬀect. there exists M such that for all n > M we have g(n)|nn−1 − 1. we deduce that g(n)|g(n + g(n)) for all n. Now. it follows that we actually have p = q. Now. f (a + n − 1) has at least k distinct prime divisors. Example 4. f (n)|nn−1 − 1. Supposing the contrary. we may assume that the leading coeﬃcient of g is positive. using the Chinese remainder theorem we can ﬁnd a positive integer a such that ai −1 ≡ xij (mod pij ). Let us consider an array of diﬀerent prime numbers (pij )i. since n + g(n) − n|g(n + g(n)) − g(n). Since clearly f (X) = X − 1 is a solution.k such that for some positive integers xij such that f (xij ) ≡ 0 (mod pij ). for all n > k we have g(n)|g(n + g(n))|(n + g(n))n+g(n)−1 − 1 and g(n)|nn−1 − 1. q − 1) = 1 (by minimality) and gcd((p + 1)g(p+1) − 1. then. Since gcd(g(p + 1). Using the fundamental result. (p + 1)q−1 − 1) = (p + 1)gcd(g(p+1). We will prove that g is constant. let us consider an arbitrary solution and write it in the form f (X) = (X −1)r g(X) with r ≥ 0 and g ∈ Z[X] such that g(1) = 0. Classical arithmetic ”tricks” and the fundamental result that a − b divides f (a) − f (b) are the main ingredients of the following problem.Solution. it follows that each of the numbers f (a). Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. f (a + 1). Thus. In particular. Find all polynomials with integer coeﬃcients f such that for all suﬃciently large n. Now. this implies that g(n)|nn+g(n)−1 − 1 = (nn−1 − 1)ng(n) + ng(n) − 1. We clearly have q|g(p + 1)|(p + 1)g(p+1) − 1 and q|(p + 1)q−1 − 1. This shows that p|g(p + q) and thus 132 .j=1. . . Thus one can ﬁnd k > M such that for all n > k we have g(n) > 2 and g(n)|nn−1 − 1. Of course. We know that this is possible from Schur’s theorem. that is g(n)|ng(n) − 1 for all n > k. .

(again using the fundamental result) p|g(1). the relation ≡ nn−1 − 1 = (n − 1)2 [nn−3 + 2mn−4 + · · · + (n − 3)n + (n − 2) + 1] shows that (n − 1)2 |nn−1 − 1 for all n > 1 and allows to conclude that all solutions are the polynomials ±(X − 1)r . After reading the solution of the following problem. it suﬃces to exhibit k < m < n such that gcd(m(2m − 1). it is extremely 133 . since nn−3 + 2nn−4 + · · · + (n − 3)n + (n − 2) + 1 ≡ 1 + 2 + · · · + (n − 2) + 1 (n − 1)(n − 2 + 1 (mod n − 1). 2b −1) = 2gcd(a. we must have g(1) = 0. Thus. Let g(X) = c. (2n > M ). 2}. we obtain that n − 1|nn−3 + 2nn−4 + · · · + (n − 3)n + (n − 2) + 1 for all suﬃciently large n. let us prove that r ≤ 2. 1. This contradiction shows that g is indeed constant. it suﬃces to take m a prime number greater than M. n(2n − 1)) = 1 and so |c| = 1. This is very simple to realize. c|2n(2 n −1)−1 − 1 for all n > M . we deduce that (n − 1)3 |nn−1 − 1 ⇔ (n − 1)1 |nn−2 + nn−3 + · · · + n + 1 for all suﬃciently large n and since nn−2 + nn−3 + · · · + n + 1 = = n − 1 + (n − 1)[nn−3 + 2nn−4 + · · · + (n − 3)n + (n − 2)]. with r ∈ {0. in order to show that |c| = 1. Supposing the contrary. n(2n − 1)) = 1. Actually. A simple argument shows that gcd(m(2m − 1). which is clearly impossible. k and to choose n a prime number greater than m(2m − 1). Finally. 2 Hence r ≤ 2. Since gcd(2a −1. Since this happens for any prime number p > k. Indeed. Finally. the reader will have the impression the problem is very simple.b) −1.

ps (x) = c. . ps and thus (using Bezout’s theorem and multiplication with integers) there exist some polynomials with integer coeﬃcients Q. we must have q|p1 (n). . ps (n) and so vq (f (n)) = vq (p1 (n))+ kvq (g(n)). . 134 . There are many possible approaches that fail and the time spent for solving such a problem can very well tend to inﬁnity. . . This contradiction shows that the hypothesis s ≥ 1 was wrong and thus the result of the problem follows. . so we must have vq (p1 (n)) > 2. . Yet. Since p1 is irreducible in Q[X]. pks g k where 1 ≤ ki < k and pi are diﬀerent irreducible polynos mials in Q[X]. we can take a prime number q > |c| and a number n such that q|p1 (n) = 0. ps (x) = c. using the result from example 1. Then there exists a polynomial g ∈ Z[X] such that f = g k . it is relatively prime with p1 p2 . In exactly the same way we obtain vq (p1 (n + q)) ≥ 2. we can easily establish the congruency p1 (n + q) ≡ p1 (n) + qp1 (n) (mod q 2 ). But the hypothesis says that k|vq (f (n)). We shall have of course q|p1 (n + q) (since p1 (n + q) ≡ p1 (n) (mod q)). Therefore. using the binomial formula. . . R and a positive integer c such that Q(x)p1 (x) + R(x)p1 (x)p2 (x) . Let f ∈ Z[X] be a non constant polynomial and k ≥ 2 a positive integer such that k f (n) ∈ Q for all positive integers n. Let us assume the contrary and let us decompose f = pk1 1 . Folklore Solution. which contradicts q > |c| and Q(x)p1 (x) + R(x)p1 (x)p2 (x) . Example 5. . Now. The choice q > |c| ensures that q does not divide p1 (n)p2 (n) . Suppose that s ≥ 1 (which is the same as denying the conclusion).diﬃcult.

. Since f is monic. pr all prime numbers at most equal to n and let us consider the sets Ai = {f ∈ M | pi |f (m). k) = 1. Lagrange’s theorem ensures that we can ﬁnd m such that p is not a divisor of f (m). Let us call a polynomial f ∈ Z[X] special if for any positive integer k > 1.The next problem was given in the USA TST 2005 and uses a nice combination of arithmetic considerations and computations using complex numbers. us such that qi does not divide f (ui ). we can ﬁnd a positive integer x such that x ≡ ui (mod qi ). with coeﬃcient in the set {1. Prove that for any n > 1. f (2). Obviously. . . Let now k > 1 and q1 . n!} are special. . although the problem itself is not so diﬃcult. Using the Chinese remainder theorem. . Example 6. f (3). p2 . We shall prove that the set T of special polynomials is r exactly M \ i=1 r Ai . n!}. Let p1 . . Then f (x) ≡ f (ui ) (mod qi ) and thus qi does not divide f (x). . however is not that easy. f (2). . . Let us suppose that f ∈ Z[X] belongs to M \ i=1 Ai and let p be a prime number greater than n. . . . USA TST 2005 Solution. . . thus gcd(f (x). . . . 2. in the sequence f (1). is not a multiple of q. .. . The equality of the two sets is thus proved. 2. Titu Andreescu. where M is the set of monic polynomials of degree n. . ∀ m ∈ N∗ }. Of course. qs its prime divisors. . at least 71% of all monic polynomials of degree n. of course.. q2 . . it would be better to ﬁnd an easier characterization for them. It follows then that for any prime number q at least one of the numbers f (1). There are many arithmetic properties of polynomials speculated in this problem. Gabriel Dospinescu. one can ﬁnd numbers which are relatively prime with k. with coeﬃcient in the set {1. The converse. 135 . . f (3). . if we ﬁnd the good way to solve it. . before counting such polynomials. we have T ⊂ M \ i≤r Ai . Then we know we can ﬁnd u1 . .

)m +(a2 +ap+1 +a2p +. . . x2 . . . We are going to use this later. . )m2 +· · ·+(ap−1 +a2p−2 +a3p−3 +. A simple argument related to the irreducibility of the polynomial 1 + X + X 2 + · · · + X p−1 shows that all cardinals that appear in the above sum are equal and that their sum is (n!)s . . where.Using a brutal estimation. . . Let ε = cos Let us observe that 0 = (ε + ε2 + · · · + εn! )s p−1 2π 2π + i sin . we put p = pi . Actually. x2 . 2. ap . n!}s | x1 + · · · + xs ≡ k (mod p)}|. . p|ap−1 + a2p−2 + . f (X) = X n + an−1 X n−1 + · · · + a1 X + a0 . . (n!)n . . . . Assume that among the numbers a1 . p We are now ready to ﬁnish the proof. . a2p−1 . Let f a ppi i Let’s compute now |Ai |. Then for any m > 1 we have 0 ≡ f (m) ≡ a0 + (a1 + ap + a2p−1 + a3p−2 + . . we will show that monic polynomial in Ai . . Using Lagrange’s theorem it follows that p|a0 . . . . we obtain r r |T | = |M | − i=1 Ai ≥ |M | − i=1 |Ai |. for simplicity. . . )mp−1 (mod p). there are exactly v1 numbers that among 136 . . . thus each cardinal (n!)s equals . . p|a1 + ap + a2p−1 + . . . where u is ﬁxed. . . Let us count the number of s-tuples (x1 . p p = k=0 εk |{(x1 . . n!}s such that x1 + x2 + · · · + xs ≡ u (mod p). . but we still need a small observation. 2. . . . . xs ) ∈ {1. xs ) ∈ {1.

we obtain |T | ≥ (n!)n − p prime n! (n!)v1 (n!)vp−1 (n!)n . we can choose q > c a prime divisor 137 . 5 5 < 1 1000 and so the percent of special polynomials is at least 100 1 − 1 1 1 − − 4 27 1000 = 75 − 100 1 − > 71. Q such that P (n)f (n) + Q(n)f (n) = c for a certain positive integer c. · . f ) = 1 in C[X] and thus also in Q[X] (because of the division algorithm and Euclid’s algorithm). Since f has no double root. pp But 1 1 1 + 7 + ··· < 5 5 5 7 5 1+ 1 1 + 2 + . Using the above observations.. = p p p pp (n!)n . that is for all n. . Using the result stated in the ﬁrst example. 27 10 The solution of the problem ends here. Then for any positive integer r there exists n such that f (n) has at least r distinct prime divisors. a2p−2 . Using Bezout’s theorem in Q[X]. all prime divisors of f (n) appear with exponent at least 2. Example 7. . Iran Olympiad Solution.. Already for r = 1 the problem is in no way obvious. we deduce that we can ﬁnd integer polynomials P.. we deduce that gcd(f. . there are vp−1 numbers.. Suppose that the non constant polynomial f with integer coeﬃcients has no double roots. so let’s not try to attack it directly and concentrate at ﬁrst on the case r = 1. it follows that we have |Ai | = Hence. Suppose the contrary.ap−1 . all of them appearing with exponent 1 in the decomposition of f (n) in prime factors.

since a trivial veriﬁcation shows that q. . 138 . we easily obtain that f (N ) ≡ f (n + (p1 . f (N ))|c ⇒ q ≤ |c|. In this case. pr . The hypothesis made ensures that q 2 |f (n). p2 ). . contradiction). we may very well suppose from the beginning that n is not a root of f . pr )2 u)) = vq (g(u)) ≥ 2. Using Newton’s binomial formula. . . . . . . pr )2 u) + uq(p1 . if vq (f (n)) ≥ 2. . . all prime numbers q. . Let us try to prove the property by induction and suppose it is true for r. . . We ﬁnally deduce that q|p (n) and so q|c. Using once again binomial formula. . For any pi . we deduce immediately that f (n+q) ≡ f (n)+qf (n) (mod q 2 ). pr . . . . pr have exponent 1 in the decomposition of f (n+kp2 p2 . there is n such that at least r prime divisors of f (n) appear with exponent 1. Thus. then since vq (f (n + (p1 . . . p2 . using again the result in example 1. . . Since at most a ﬁnite number among them can r 1 2 be roots of f . Thus the case r = 1 was proved. . If vq (g(u)) = 1. . p1 . But it is obvious that n + kp2 p2 . |p(n)|} so necessarily q|u (if q|f (N ) ⇒ q|(f (N ). But then we also have q|f (n + q) and so q 2 |f (n + q). Let us prove that in the decomposition of f (N ). . pr are diﬀerent prime numbers whose exponents in f (n + (p1 . pr )2 f (N ) (mod q 2 ). . By inductive hypothesis. . . victory is ours. . p1 . . p2 . . . we shall consider the number N = n+u(p1 . pr )2 X). we have q|u(p1 . which is obviously non constant. . pr appear with exponent 1. . |p(n)|} a prime number and a number u such that q|g(u). But since q|g(u). The diﬃcult case is when vq (g(u)) ≥ 2. . pr )2 ). . pr )2 . . the existence of P. impossible since our choice was q > c. . Of course. . Consider now the polynomial g(X) = f (n + (p1 . . pr )2 +uq(p1 . Remember that the choice was q > max{|c|. . Now. Q such that P (n)f (n)+Q(n)f (n) = c for a certain positive integer c did not depend on r. . p2 has the same propr 1 2 erty: all prime divisors p1 . pr )2 u) are all 1. . p1 . . . so we keep the above notations. this is obvious since f (N ) ≡ f (n) (mod (p1 . we can ﬁnd q > max{|c|. pr )2 f (N ). . . p1 . Let these prime factors be p1 . pr .of a certain f (n).

pr . It is obvious that q has positive leading coeﬃcient and the same property as f .we must have q|g(0) = f (n). Thus . Since f (n)|kf (n) = kf (n) + n − n|f (kf (n) + n) − f (n). From now on. Suppose that there is n > M such that gcd(f (n). impossible. Since any integer diﬀerent from zero has a ﬁnite number of divisors. Since f is not constant. Repeating the above argument. n) = 1 for any n > M . Find all non constant polynomials f with integer coefﬁcients and with the following property: for any relatively prime positive integers a. . Consequently. the sequence (f (n + kf (n))n≥1 will contain at least two relatively prime numbers.we obtain that s. Thus. then q(0) = 0 and q(X) = Xh(X). . any two of which are relatively prime. But hopefully. we conclude that f (0) = 0. We have shown that gcd(f (n). we infer that if q is non-constant. Example 8. the above argument cannot be repeated inﬁnitely many times and thus one of the 139 . −X n with n a positive integer. . we consider only n > M . Let them be s. . Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. b. Hence . n) = 1 for any such n. This allows to ﬁnish the induction step and to solve the problem. the sequence (f (an + b))n≥1 contains an inﬁnite number of terms. Because changing f with its opposite does not modify the property of the polynomial. we ensured that n is not a roof of our polynomial and also that q > max{|c|. r. Thus. Let us prove that we have gcd(f (n). we have f (n)|f (n + kf (n)) for any positive integer k.for any prime p > M we have p|f (p) and so p|f (0). We will prove that the only polynomials with the speciﬁed property are those of the form X n . p1 . n) = 1. r are multiples of f (n) > 2. there exists a constant M such that for any n > M we have f (n) > 2. |p(n)|} so that the last divisibility relation cannot hold. we can suppose that the leading coeﬃcient of f is positive. there is a polynomial q with integer coeﬃcients such that f (X) = Xq(X).

. . more elementary approach. xi ) = 1 for i ∈ {1. Example. . xp are terms of the sequence. . Let (an )n≥1 be an increasing sequence of positive integers such that for a certain polynomial f ∈ Z[X] we have an ≤ f (n) for all n. We have obtained that f must have the form X n . xp . x2 . . . Let us observe that there is another. 2. . Here is an absolute classic. . we infer that any solution of the problem is a polynomial of the form X n . Suppose also that m − n|am − an for all distinct positive integers m. . we must have k = 1. Suppose that Fie n natural nenul. . any two of which are relatively prime. . Now let us prove that the polynomials of the form X n .polynomials g. But since f is a solution if and only if −f is a solution. . . It is enough to prove for X n and even for X. such that xp+1 ≡ (1 − b)a−1 (mod xi ). . k such that f (X) = kX n . x2 . But this follows trivially from Dirichlet’s theorem. Care este gradul minim al unui polinom monic cu coeﬁcienti intregi f astfel incat n|f (k) pentru orice k natural? Proposed problems 1. there are positive integers n. it uses only the fundamental result. xp are relatively prime with a. . where a−1 is a’s i i ∗ inverse in Zxi . It is clear that x1 . p}. x2 . n. . Then gcd(xp+1 . Consequently. . Let us suppose that x1 . 140 . Very easy. But since the sequence (f (2n + 3))n≥1 contains at least two relatively prime integers. −X n . . that appears in at least one Olympiad around the world each year. x2 . . . i ∈ {1. We prove that we can add another term xp+1 so that x1 . xp+1 has the same property. 2. . . . −X n are solutions. . so we can apply the Chinese remainder theorem to ﬁnd xp+1 greater than x1 . h must be constant. p} and thus we can add xp+1 .

the following property is satisﬁed: for any positive integer n. suppose that for some positive integers r. Folklore 5. k. Are there polynomials p. the sequence (f [n] (c))n≥1 is relatively prime. at most r prime factors of f (n) have appear with exponent at most equal to k. Suppose that f ∈ Z[X] is a non constant polynomial. Given is a ﬁnite family of polynomials with integer coeﬃcients. Find all polynomials with integer coeﬃcients such that f (n)|2n −1 for any positive integer n. Poland Olympiad 6. r with positive integer coeﬃcients such that p(x) + (x2 − 3x + 2)q(x) and q(x) = x2 x 1 − + 20 15 12 r(x)? Vietnam Olympiad 4. Also. we obtain only composite numbers.Prove that there exists a polynomial g ∈ Z[X] such that an = g(n) for all n. Here f [n] is the composition of f with itself n times. if we evaluate any member of the family in n. q. an ) = 1 for any diﬀerent positive integers m. Prove that for inﬁnitely many numbers n. Find all integer polynomials f ∈ Z[X] such that for any positive integer c. Is it true that any polynomial f ∈ Z[X] that has a root modulo n for any positive integer n must necessarily have a rational root? 141 . Does it follow that any root of this polynomial appears with multiplicity at least equal to k + 1? 7. Leo Mosser 3. n. We call the sequence of positive integers (an )n≥1 relatively prime if gcd(am . USAMO 1995 2.

.8. 10. Prove that the two polynomials are relatively prime in Q[X] if and only if Df. Let f. Prove that the polynomial f (f (X))−X has at most n integer roots. n (indices are taken mod n). with integer coeﬃcients. Andronache. Find all integers n > 1 for which there exists a polynomial f ∈ Z[X] such that for any integer k we have f (k) ≡ 0. . xn such that f (xi ) = xi−1 . n. Show that the sequence f (3n ) (mod b) is not bounded. . f (n) are also relatively prime. M.g = {gcd(f (n). Sankt Petersburg Olympiad 12. . 14. Gh. For the die hard: ﬁnd all polynomials with the above property. Folklore 16. 13. Let f ∈ Z[X] a polynomial of degree n at least 2. Find all trinomials f ∈ Z[X] with the property that for any relatively prime integers m. Let us consider the set Df. the numbers f (M ). Gazeta Matematica 1985 9. i = 1. g ∈ Z[X] some non zero polynomials. Let f ∈ Z[X] be a non constant polynomial. 142 . 1 (mod n) and both these congruences have solutions.g . g(n))| n ∈ N}. Prove that there are no polynomials f ∈ Z[X] with the property: there exists n > 3 and integers x1 . Eckstein. Is there a second degree polynomial f ∈ Z[X] such that for any positive integer n all prime factors of f (n) are of the form 4k + 3? AMM 15. Romanian TST 11. Prove that for any n there exists a polynomial f ∈ Z[X] such that all numbers f (1) < f (2) < · · · < f (n) are a) prime numbers b) powers of 2.

17. Let p be a prime number. knowing that its degree is at most p and that if p divides f (m) − f (n) then it also divides m − n. n for which p|φm (n). but p does not divide any other number of the form φd (n). Find the maximal degree of a polynomial f ∈ Z[X] having coeﬃcients in the set {0. p − 1}. You may be interested to characterize those numbers m. 18.n)=1 2iπk n ) to prove that there are inﬁnitely many prime numbers of the form 1+kn for any given n ≥ 2. . . Use example 1 and properties of the cyclotomic polynomials φn (X) = (X − e 1≤k≤n (k. where d is a divisor of m diﬀerent from m Classical result 143 . . . 1.

Then the polynomial g − f also has degree smaller than or equal to n and vanishes at 0. . Also. and the proof is not diﬃcult at all. which shows that if we know the value in 1 + deg f points. an . . . . we will see that it helps in establishing 144 . n}. then we can ﬁnd easily the value in any other point without solving a complicated linear system. n}? The answer turns out to be positive and a possible solution to this question is based on Lagrange’s interpolation formula. xn and some arbitrary real numbers a0 . x1 .LAGRANGE INTERPOLATION Almost everyone knows the Chinese Remainder Theorem. And the reader has already noticed that this follows directly from the formula (1). . . Then. It says that an example of such polynomial is n f (x) = i=0 ai 0≤j=i≤n x − xj xi − xj (1) Indeed. 1. . . x2 . . it must be null and the uniqueness is proved. which is a remarkable tool in number theory. Just suppose we have another polynomial g of degree smaller than or equal than n and such that g(xi ) = ai for i ∈ {0. it is immediate to see that f (xi ) = ai for i ∈ {0. But does everyone know the analogous form for polynomials? Stated like this. . . . . . a2 . . What is Lagrange’s interpolation theorem good for? We will see in the following problems that it helps us to ﬁnd immediately the value of a polynomial in a certain point if we know the values in some given points. . . . 1. a1 . . Also. from the above expression we can see that this polynomial has degree less than or equal to n. . . let us make it easier and also reformulate it: is it true that given some pair wise distinct real numbers x0 . n}. Thus. Is this the only polynomial with this supplementary property? Yes. . n. 1. . this question may seem impossible to answer. 1. . we can ﬁnd a polynomial f with real coeﬃcients such that f (xi ) = ai for i ∈ {0.

. . As promised. . 2 3 n+1 But this is terrible. . i−j . a1 . i−j so that f (n + 1) = n i=0 i i+1 145 n≤i n+1−j . Example 1. we have n f (x) = i=0 i i+1 j=i x−j . an from the linear system 1 2 n f (0) = 0. f (n) = . . f (2) = . . . . f (1) = . f (2) = . the problem is straightforward. we will see ﬁrst how we can compute rapidly the value in a certain point for some polynomials. The ﬁrst example is just an immediate application of formula (1) and became a classical problem. Let f be a polynomial of degree n such that 1 2 n f (0) = 0. f (n) = . . as the following examples will show. Great Britain 1989 Solution. USAMO 1975. . Indeed. Now. f (1) = . since the determinants that must be computed are really complicated. This is surely a dead end.some inequalities and bounds for certain special polynomials and will even help us in ﬁnding and proving some beautiful identities. But for someone who knows Lagrange’s Interpolation Theorem. A ﬁrst direct approach would be to write n f (x) = k=0 ak xk and to determine a0 . . 2 3 n+1 Find f (n + 1). let us begin the journey trough some nice examples of problems where this idea can be used. This was one of the favorite’s problems in the old Olympiads. .

computing the above sum is not so diﬃcult. . The ﬁrst example was straightforward because we didn’t ﬁnd any diﬃculties after ﬁnding the idea. Fn+2 = Fn + Fn+1 and let f be a polynomial of degree 990 such that f (k) = Fk for k ∈ {992. This shows that f (n + 1) = n + 1. (−(n − i)) j=i According to these small observations. . after all. we can write n f (n + 1) = i=0 n i (n + 1)! · (−1)n−i i + 1 (n + 1 − i) · i! · (n − i)! (n + 1)! (−1)n−i (n + 1 − i)! · (i − 1)! n−1 i=0 = i=1 n = (n + 1) i=1 n (−1)n−i = (n + 1) i−1 n (−1)n+1−i . Example 2. 1982}. According to this. IMO 1983 Shortlist 146 . i And we have arrived at a familiar formula: the binomial theorem. n−1 i=0 n i=0 n (−1)n+1−i = − i n (−1)n−i − 1 i = 1. It’s not the case with the following problem. . . 1 · (−1) . how do we compute this? The reader might say: but we have already found the value of f (n+1)! Well. . . . . it is tacit that the answer should be expressed in the closest possible form. Show that f (1983) = F1983 − 1. Indeed. Titu Andreescu. But. . . .Now. 1 n+1−j = . i−j i(i − 1) . (n + 1 − (i − 1))(n + 1 − (i + 1)) . Let F1 = F2 = 1. we can see that n+1−j (n + 1)! = (−1)n−i i−j (n + 1 − i) · i! · (n − i)! j=i just by writing (n + 1)n . .

we can of where a = 2 2 course try a direct approach: Fn = 990 k=0 991 Fk+992 (−1)k k 990 k=0 1 =√ 5 990 k=0 990 k=0 991 k+992 a (−1)k − k 990 k=0 991 k+992 b (−1)k . Having this in mind. we ﬁnd that 990 990 k=0 g(991) = k=0 991 g(k) (−1)k = k 991 Fk+992 (−1)k k which shows that we need to prove the identity 990 k=0 991 Fk+992 (−1)k = F1983 − 1. Indeed. since it can be done immediately with the formula for Fn . 990 and we need to prove that f (992 + 991) = F1983 − 1. This simple observation shows that we don’t have to bother too much with k + 992. But we know how to compute g(991). k This isn’t so easy. k 147 . k But using the binomial theorem. 990. 5 √ √ 5+1 1− 5 and b = . the above sums vanish: 991 k+992 a (−1)k = a992 k 991 (−a)k = a992 [(1 − a)991 + a991 ]. we could try to establish a more general identity that could be proved by induction.Solution. we know that an − bn √ . for k = 0. Now. Indeed. looking again at the previous problem. But why. The device is: never complicate things more than necessary! Indeed. which also has degree 990. the problem becomes: if g(k) = Fk+992 . So. since we could work as well with the polynomial g(x) = f (x+992). then g(991) = F1983 − 1. but with a little bit of help it can be done. we have f (k + 992) = Fk+992 for k = 0.

we ﬁnd that p−1 f (x) = k=0 f (k) j=k 148 x−j . Then. k−j . Example 3. Let f be a polynomial with integer coeﬃcients and let p be a prime such that f (0) = 0. IMO Shortlist 1997 Solution. 5 5 = And this is how with the help of a precious formula and with some smart computations we could solve this problem and also ﬁnd a nice property of the Fibonacci numbers. Since in all this argument we have used only the fact that a2 = a + 1 and since b also veriﬁes this relation. such a problem should be solved indirectly. The following example is a very nice problem proposed for IMO 1997. we ﬁnd that 990 k=0 991 1 Fk+992 (−1)k = √ (a1983 − b1983 − a + b) k 5 a1983 − b1983 a − b √ − √ = F1983 − 1. it causes great diﬃculties in solving.Since a2 = a + 1. using the Interpolation formula. Here. the following steps after using Lagrange’s Interpolation formula are even better hidden in some congruencies. we have a992 [(1 − a)991 + a991 ] = a(a − a2 )991 + a1983 = −a + a1983 . let us suppose that deg f ≤ p − 2. It is the typical example of a good Olympiad problem: no matter how much the contestant knows in that ﬁeld. f (1) = 1 and f (k) = 0. Show that deg f is at least p − 1. So. As usual. 1 (mod p) for all positive integer k. arguing by contradiction.

let us write the above relation in the form p−1 (−1)k k=0 p−1 f (k) = 0 k and let us take this equality modulo p. 1 (mod p) for all k and not all of the numbers f (k) have the same remainder modulo p (for example. . since deg f ≤ p − 2. (p − 1) ≡ (−1)k k! (mod p) we ﬁnd that p−1 k and so p−1 ≡ (−1)k (mod p) (−1)k k=0 p−1 f (k) ≡ k p−1 f (k) (mod p). the coeﬃcient of xp−1 in the right-hand side of the identity must be zero. It’s time now for some other nice identities. Indeed. since f (k) ≡ 0. This contradiction shows that our assumption was wrong and the conclusion follows. p−1 f (k) ≡ 0 (mod p). k=0 Thus. k!(p − 1 − k)! From here we have one more step. we have p−1 k=0 (−1)p−k−1 f (k) = 0.Now. k=0 which is impossible. . Consequently. where polynomials do not appear at ﬁrst sight. f (0) and f (1)). 149 . Since k! p−1 k = (p − k)(p − k + 1) . We will see how some terrible identities are simple consequences of the Lagrange Interpolation formula.

Combining ai − aj n them.Example 4. where r is a polynomial of degree at most n − 1. we recognize the Lagrange Interpolation formula for the polynomial f (x) = xk . a2 . All these observations are immediate. since the formula works and we obtain n r(x) = i=1 r(ai ) j=i x − aj . . which is an integer. (ai − aj ) i=1 j=i 150 . ai − aj Now. But we may have some problems when the degree of this polynomial is greater than or equal to n. . let us proceed. . Thus. . So. but we n ak i also found a rapid way to compute the sums of the form . not only that we have solved the problem. by writing f (x) = g(x)h(x) + r(x). Just by looking at the expression. n ak i Prove that for any positive integer k the number is an (ai − aj ) i=1 j=i integer. Great Britain Solution. (x − an ). an be pairwise distinct positive integers. we need three observations. Let a1 . But this can be solved by working with the remainder of f modulo g(x) = (x − a1 )(x − a2 ) . The ﬁrst one is r(ai ) = ak . the seci ond one is that the polynomial r has integer coeﬃcients and the third one n ak i is that is just the coeﬃcient of xn−1 in the polynomial (ai − aj ) i=1 j=i n r(ai ) i=1 j=i x − aj . we ﬁnd that i=1 j=i ak i (ai − aj ) is the coeﬃcient of xn−1 in r. . This time we don’t have to worry. .

we have no problems in applying the Interpolation formula n f (x) = k=0 f (Ak h) j=k x − A − jh . n − 1} and n n k = n!. 1. Prove that for any non-zero real number h and any real number A we have n (−1)n−k k=0 n f (A + kh) = a0 · hn · n!. . . the second problem is much more diﬃcult. . (k − j)h Now.The following two problems we are going to discuss refer to combinatorial sums. The reader might say after reading the solution: but this is quite natural! Yes. Simple and elegant! Notice that the above problem implies the well-known combinatorial identities n (−1)k k=0 n n p k =0 k (−1)n−k for all p ∈ {0. k which is exactly what we had to prove. . We ﬁnd that n n a0 = k=0 f (A + kh) j=k 1 [(k − j)h] = 1 n!hn (−1)n−k k=0 n f (A + kh). If the ﬁrst one is relatively easy to prove using a combinatorial argument (it is a very good exercise for the reader to ﬁnd this argument). 2. Since this polynomial has degree at most n. it is natural for someone who knows very well the Lagrange Interpolation 151 . But we will see that both are immediate consequences of the Interpolation Formula. Let f (x) = k=0 ak xn−k . let us identify the leading coeﬃcients in both polynomials that appear in the equality. we will discuss a much more diﬃcult problem. k k=0 As we promised. n Example 5. k Alexandru Lupas Solution.

Prove the identity n (−1)n−k k=0 n n+1 n(n + 1)! k = . k And now the problem is solved. Were Lagrange interpolation formula good only to establish identities and to compute values of polynomials. this isn’t always so easy. it wouldn’t have been such a great discovery. 152 . . we are not going to enter this ﬁeld and we prefer to concentrate on another elementary aspect of this formula and see how it can help us establish some remarkable inequalities. Of course it is not the case. we identify the coeﬃcient of xn−1 in both terms.formula and especially for someone who thinks that using it could lead to a solution. Unfortunately. Yet. And some of them will be really tough. . (x − k − 1)(x − k + 1) . We ﬁnd that n 0= k=0 (−1)n−k n n k (1 + 2 + · · · + n − k). since we found that n (−1)n−k k=0 n n+1 n(n + 1) k = 2 k n (−1)n−k k=0 n n k k and we also know that n (−1)n−k k=0 n n k = n! k from the previous problem. it plays a fundamental role in analysis. k 2 Solution. Example 6. . (x − n) (−1)n−k (n − k)!k! Now. . We take the polynomial f (x) = xn (why don’t we take the n polynomial f (x) = xn+1 ? Simply because (−1)n−k appears when k writing the formula for a polynomial of degree at most n) and we write the Interpolation Formula n x = k=0 n kn x(x − 1) .

x2 . which is in fact the main step.We begin with a really diﬃcult inequality. how do we choose the polynomial? The answer is simple: we will choose it to be arbitrary and only in the end we will decide which is one is optimal. The presence of j=i |xj − xi | is the only hint to this prob- lem. Example 7. . Iran Olympiad Solution. But even if we know it. Then we have n f (x) = k=1 f (xk ) j=k x − xj .. . . in which the interpolation formula is really well hidden. the denominators give sometimes precious indications. we arrive at a new inequality n |f (x)| ≤ k=1 |f (xk )| j=k x − xj . let us proceed by taking n−1 f (x) = k=0 ak xk an arbitrary polynomial of degree n − 1. Prove that for any real numbers x1 . So. xk − xj Combining this with the triangular inequality . 1] the following inequality is true: n i=1 j=i 1 |xj − xi | ≥ 2n−2 . . From the above inequality we ﬁnd that f (x) ≤ xn−1 n k=1 j=k 153 |f (xk )| |xk − xj | j=k 1− xj x . Yet.. xk − xj Only now comes the beautiful idea. xn ∈ [−1.

This is the right moment to decide what polynomial to take. it is not so hard after all. And it says that Chebyshev polynomials are the best. Let f ∈ R[X] be a polynomial of degree n with leading coeﬃcient 1 and let x0 < x1 < x2 < · · · < xn be some integers. The problem is not simple at all. in the framework of the previous problems and with the experience of Lagrange’s interpolation formula. Note also that the inequality |an−1 | ≤ k=1 j=k n |f (xk )| |xk − xj | can be proved by identifying the leading coeﬃcients in the identity n f (x) = k=1 f (xk ) j=k x − xj xk − xj and then using the triangular inequality. 1] and such that the leading coeﬃcient is 2n−2 . This time our mathematical culture will decide. Example 8.and since this is true for all non-zero real numbers x. Yet. We need a polynomial f such that |f (x)| ≤ 1 for all x ∈ [−1. since they are the polynomials with the minimum deviation on [−1. It is easy to see that such a polynomial exists. we may take the limit when x → ∞ and the result is pretty nice n |an−1 | ≤ k=1 |f (xk )| |xk − xj | j=k . has degree n − 1 and leading coeﬃcient 2n−2 . The following example is a ﬁne concoct of ideas. 1] (the reader will wait just a few seconds and he will see a beautiful proof of this remarkable result using Lagrange’s interpolation theorem). so this choice solves our problem. Prove 154 . So. we take the polynomial deﬁned by f (cos x) = cos(n − 1)x. since many possible approaches fail.

(xk − xk−1 )(xk+1 − xk ) . Naturally (but would this be naturally without having discussed so many related problems before?). . 2n We shall discuss one more problem before entering in a more detailed |f (xk )| ≥ study of Chebyshev polynomials and their properties. . xk − xj Now. n! it follows trivially that n! . . since n k=0 1 1 = k!(n − k)! n! n k=0 n k = 2n . we are done. since using these inequalities. n} such that |f (xk )| ≥ n! . 1 · 1 · 2 . (n − k) = k!(n − k)!. a problem given 155 . since |xk − xj | = (xk − x0 )(xk − x1 ) . 2n Crux Matematicorum Solution. . 2. And yes. . we start with the identity n f (x) = k=0 f (xk ) j=k x − xj . . . It is time to use that we are dealing with integers. k!(n − k)!| Now. we deduce that n k=0 |f (xk )| ≥ 1. (xn − xk ) j=k ≥ k(k − 1)(k − 2) . . repeating the argument in the previous problem and using the fact that the leading coeﬃcient is 1. This will allow us to ﬁnd a good inferior bound for j=k |xk − xj | ≥ 1. . This is easy. . . we ﬁnd that n k=0 j=k |f (xk )| |xk − xj | ≥ 1.that there exists k ∈ {1. .

the idea is always the same. let us call them simply x0 . Thus. Marius Cavachi. of course we would like. We have then |g (xi )| = j=i (xi − xj ) . Example 9. . Romanian Olympiad Solution. This inequality was already proved in the two problems above. consider the polynomial n g(x) = i=0 (x − xi ). Till then.in the Romanian mathematical Olympiad and which is a very nice application of Lagrange’s interpolation formula. Now. but this time it is necessary to ﬁnd the good points in which we should write the interpolation formula. As usual. if possible. x2 . . In this case it would follow from ≥1 |g (xk )| |xk − xj | k=0 k=0 n j=k that at least one of the numbers |f (xk )| is at least equal to 1 and the problem would be solved. to have |xi | = 1 and also n 1 |f (xk )| ≤ 1. Now. . we shall be blind and we shall try to ﬁnd these points. It is useless to say that it follows trivially using a little bit of integration theory and Fourier series. |g (xk )| k=0 156 . Prove that for any polynomial f of degree n and with leading coeﬃcient 1 there exists a point z such that |z| = 1 and |f (z)| ≥ 1. x1 . . we should ﬁnd a monic polynomial g of n 1 degree n + 1 with all roots of modulus 1 and such that ≤ 1. Of course. xn and write n k=0 j=k |f (xk )| |xk − xj | ≥ 1.

The conclusion follows. 0 ≤ k ≤ n. but very useful.This is trivial: it suﬃces of course to consider g(x) = xn+1 − 1. which is not diﬃcult to establish. In order to do all this. if we consider √ x2 − 1 [(x + x2 − 1)n − (x − x2 − 1)n ]. Moreover.. 1] and also to establish some new inequalities. from the obvious fact that lim n+1 = 1. The next problems will be based on a very nice identity that will allow us to prove some classical results about norms of polynomials. We have an explanation to give: we said the problem follows trivially with a little bit of integration theory tools. then n √ n x2 − 1 f (x) = (x − tk ) = [(x + x2 − 1)n − (x − x2 − 1)n ]. if we write f (x) = n ak xk then one can check with a trivial computation that k=0 ak = 1 2π 2π 0 f (eit )e−ikt dt and from here the conclusion follows since we will have 2π 2π = 0 f (eit )e−int dt ≤ 0 2π |f (eit |dt ≤ 2π max |f (z)|. we x→∞ x deduce that it is actually a monic polynomial of degree n + 1. The proof is simple. Indeed.. If we put tk = cos . to ﬁnd the polynomials having minimal deviation on [−1. we need two quite technical lemmas. kπ Lemma 1. The fact 157 . g(x) = 2n using the binomial formula we can establish immediately that it is a g(x) polynomial. knowing already this in 10-th grade (the problem was given to students in 10-th grade) is not something common. |z|=1 Of course. Indeed. 2n k=0 Proof.

using the above forx→±1 mula. (Chebyshev theorem) Let f ∈ R[X] be a monic polynomial of degree n. All this proves the ﬁrst lemma.1] 1 2n−1 and this bound cannot be improved. Of course. about minimal deviation of polynomials on [−1. tk − tj . A little bit more computational is the second lemma. 2 j=k n ii) iii) (t0 − tj ) = j=1 n−1 j=0 n . He’s right. 1]. The ﬁrst one is a classical theorem of Chebyshev. Then max |f (x)| ≥ x∈[−1. the reader hopes that all these computations will have a honourable purpose. 2n x2 − 1 Using this formula and Moivre’s formula we easily deduce i).that g(tk ) = 0 for all 0 ≤ k ≤ n is easily veriﬁed using Moivre’s formula. Using again the observation from problem 7. We leave the computations to the reader. Solution. Simple computations. To prove ii) and iii) it suﬃces to compute lim f (x). Lemma 2. The following relations are true: (−1)k n i) (tk − tj ) = n−1 if 1 ≤ k ≤ n − 1. left to the reader. 2n−2 (−1)n n . since these lemmas will allow us to prove some very nice results. 2n−2 (tn − tj ) = Proof. we obtain the identity: n I= k=0 f (tk ) j=k 158 1 . allow us to write: f (x) = + √ n [(x + 2n x2 − 1)n + (x − x2 − 1)n ] x [(x + x2 − 1)n − (x − x2 − 1)n ]. Example 10.

Now. This shows that max |f (x)| ≥ x∈[−1. it suﬃces to apply lemma 2 to conclude that we actually have n k=0 j=k 1 (tk − tj ) 1 = 2n−1 . but we chosen this one because it shows the power of Lagrange interpolation theory. . . It is an easy exercise to prove that this is really a polynomial (called the nth polynomial of Chebyshev of the ﬁrst kind) and that it has leading coeﬃcient 2n−1 and degree n. many of them are much easier. . it suﬃces to use the polynomial Tn (x) = cos(n arccos(x)).1] 2n−1 max 1 Tn (x) = 1 2n−1 . To prove that this result is optimal. Not to say that the use of the two lemmas allowed us to prove that the inequality presented in example 7 is actually the best. a1 .1] 2n−1 and so the result is proved. Then the 1 polynomial n−1 Tn is monic of degree n and 2 x∈[−1. Example 11. Suppose that a0 . It is true that it is a very diﬃcult one. Walther Janous presented in Crux the following problem as open problem. 159 . . Some years ago. an are real numbers such that for all x ∈ [−1. but here is a very simple solution using the results already achieved. 1] we have |a0 + a1 x + · · · + an xn | ≤ 1.Thus. we have n 1 ≤ max |f (tk )| 0≤k≤n k=0 j=k 1 (tk − tj ) . There are many other proof of this result .

Using Lagrange’s interpolation formula and modulus inequality. we are going to prove a stronger result. the hypothesis says that f ≤ 1 and so by the lemma we have k=0 |f (x)| ≤ |Tn (x)| for all |x| ≥ 1. By combining the two results. Crux Matematicorum Solution. 1] we also have |an + an−1 x + · · · + a0 xn | ≤ 2n−1 . 1] we have: f 1 u 1 ≤ f |u|n n k=0 j=k 1 − tj u . Denote f = max |f (x)|. that is: Lemma. We shall then have Tn 1 u 1 = |u|n n (−1) k=0 k j=k 1 − utj 1 = t k − tj |u|n n k=0 j=k 1 − utj |tk − tj | (the last identity being ensured by lemma 2). we obtain f 1 u ≤ Tn 1 u f for all u ∈ [−1. |tk − tj | The very nice idea is to use now again Lagrange interpolation formula. Proof. Coming back to the problem and considering the polynomial f (x) = n ak xk . 160 .1] Then for any polynomial f ∈ R[X] of degree n the following inequality is satisﬁed: |f (x)| ≤ |Tn (x)| · f for all |x| ≥ 1. Actually. Walther Janous. 1] and the conclusion follows. this time for the polynomial Tn . x∈[−1.Then for all x ∈ [−1. we deduce that for all u ∈ [−1.

a2 . we present the optimal bound. that reﬁnes a problem given in a Japanese mathematical Olympiad in 1994. 161 . We end this topic with a very diﬃcult problem.2] i=1 |x − ai | ≤ 108n max x∈[0. 1]: |an + an−1 x + · · · + a0 xn | = xn f It suﬃces to prove that xn Tn which can be also written as (1 + 1 − x2 )n + (1 − 1 − x2 )n ≤ 2n . it asked to prove that n n max x∈[0. 1 x ≤ xn Tn 1 x . √ 1 − x2 ∈ [0. Recent work by Alexandru Lupas √ reduces this bound to 1 + 2 6. an . The problem has a nice story: given initially in an old Russian Olympiad. 1] 1 x ≤ 2n−1 . thus its superior bound is attained in 0 or 1 and there the inequality is trivially veriﬁed. The Japanese problems asked only to prove the existence of a constant that could replace 108. . A brutal choice of points in Lagrange interpolation theorem gives a better bound of approximately 12 for this constant. . Therefore we have |an + an−1 x + · · · + a0 xn | ≤ 2n−1 and the problem is solved. In the following.We will then have for all x ∈ [−1. But this inequality is very easy to prove: just set a = and observe that h(a) = (1 − a)n + (1 + a)n is a convex function on [0. 1]. . .1] |x − ai | i=1 for any real numbers a1 .

we deduce numbers xk = 2 that n |f (x)| ≤ k=0 j=k n x − xk = xk − xj n n k=0 j=k x − xj |xk − xj | ≤ k=0 j=k 2 − xj = |xk − xj | k=0 j=k 3 − tj . . an . for simplicity. . cn = 2 We thus need to prove that f f (x) = i=1 [0.1] n |x − ai |.1] where (x − ai ). . which allows us to suppose that f [0. Using Lagrange interpolation formula.Example 12. |tk − tj | Using lemma 2. (3 − tj ) + j=1 162 . Let us denote f [a. √ √ (3 + 2 2)n + (3 − 2 2)n . a2 .1] = 1. the following inequality holds: n max x∈[0. we can write n k=0 j=k 3 − tj 2n−1 = |tk − tj | n j=0 n−1 n−1 (3 − tj ) k=1 j=k n + 2n−2 n (3 − tj ) . For any real numbers a1 . 2] and consider the 1 + tk .b] for a polynomial f and let.2] i=1 √ √ (3 + 2 2)n + (3 − 2 2)n |x − ai | ≤ max 2 x∈[0. Let us ﬁx x ∈ [1. 2] we have |f (x)| ≤ xn . We shall prove that for all x ∈ [1. We shall prove that this inequality is true for any polynomial f . i=1 Gabriel Dospinescu Solution.b] = max |f (x)| x∈[a. .2] n ≤ cn f [0.

A polynomial of degree 3n takes the value 0 at 2. 7. 3n. . 4. This proves that f [0. Problems for training 1. 3n − 1. 6. . 8. Prove that for any real number a we have the following identity n (−1)k k=0 n (a − k)n = n!. A polynomial of degree n veriﬁes p(k) = 2k for all k = 1. . 5. It’s value at 3n + 1 is 730. we easily deduce that |f (x)| ≤ cn . the value 1 at 1. Find its value at n + 2. USAMO 1984 2.1] and solves the problem. k Tepper’s identity 163 . All we have to do now is to compute n−1 n n−1 (3 − tj ) + j=0 j=1 (3 − tj ) = 6 j=1 (3 − tj ).Using again the two lemmas. . . 3n − 2 and the value 2 at 0. n + 1. we deduce immediately that n−1 (3 − tj ) = j=1 √ √ √ [(3 + 2 2)n − (3 − 2 2)n ]. . . . 3. 2n+1 2 1 Putting all these observations together and making a small computation. we obtain: √ √ √ √ n 3 √ [(3 + 2 2)n − (3 − 2 2)n ] [(3 + 2 2)n + (3 − 2 2)n ] + 2n 2n+1 2 n−1 n−1 n = k=1 j=k (3 − tj ) + j=0 (3 − tj ) + j=1 (3 − tj ). But using lemma 1. Vietnam 1988 3. . Find n. that we let to the reader. . .2] ≤ cn f [0. .

k AMM 5. Prove that if |x| ≤ 1 then |f (x)| ≤ 5 and x2 f 4 1 x ≤ 2. 1]. then f − 1 n ≤ 2n+1 − 1. 1].n 4. Find k=0 (−1)k n n+2 k and k n (−1)k k=0 n n+3 k . What is the maximal value of |c|? Which are the polynomials in which the maximum is attained? Gabriel Dospinescu 164 . Let a. Spain. c. Prove the identity n (−1)k−1 k=1 n k (n − k)n = nn k n k=2 1 . b. b. Prove that n k=0 j=k xn+1 k (xk − xj ) n = k=0 xk and compute n k=0 j=k xn+2 k (xk − xj ) . 6. 1996 8. k Peter Ungar. AMM E 3052 7. |f (0)|} ≤ 1. Let a. d ∈ R such that |ax3 +bx2 +cx+d| ≤ 1 for all x ∈ [−1. Let f ∈ R[X] a polynomial of degree n that veriﬁes |f (x)| ≤ 1 for all x ∈ [0. 9. c be real numbers and let f (x) = ax2 + bx + c such that max{|f (±1)|.

p∈A |x|≤1 IMC. d ∈ R such that |ax3 + bx2 + cx + d| ≤ 1 for all x ∈ [−1.10. Let a ≥ 3 be a real number and p be a real polynomial of degree n. p ± ≤1 .J. (1 − zk )2 where zk are the roots of the polynomial |X n + 1. Find the maximal value of the expression a2 + b2 + c2 if |ax2 + bx + c| ≤ 1 for all x ∈ [−1. b) Deduce Bernstein’s inequality: f |x|≤1 ≤ n f where f = max |f (x)|. b. Laurentiu Panaitopol 12. What is the least x∈[0. c.n+1 India. b. Deﬁne F (a. AMM 15. P. 1996 1 13. Prove that max |ai − p(i)| ≥ 1. 1]. i=0. IMO Shortlist. c) = max |x3 − ax2 − bx − c|. Let a. Let A = p ∈ R[X]| deg p ≤ 3. 2001 11. 1]. 1998 14. a) Prove that for any polynomial f having degree at most n. 2 Find sup max |p (x)|.3] possible value of this function over R3 ? China TST 2001 165 . |p(±1)| ≤ 1. O’Hara. the following identity is satisﬁed: xf (x) = n 1 f (x) + 2 n n f (xzk ) k=1 2zk . Prove that |a| + |b| + |c| + |d| ≤ 7.

Here it is. but this happens sometimes and we will prove it in the next. It is quite hard to imagine that behind a simple game. but it is easy and a very nice application of how linear-algebra can solve elementary problems. respectively. the reader doesn’t need any special knowledge. as soon as we advance. 2. we can begin the battle.HIGHER ALGEBRA IN COMBINATORICS Till now. Writing the diﬀerence n n |i − σ(i)| − σ∈An i=1 σ∈Bn i=1 n |i − σ(i)| as ε(σ) σ∈Sn i=1 166 |i − σ(i)| = 0. it is not easy to discover that ”non-elementary” fact that hides after a completely elementary problem. Anyway. Example 1. things change. Since we have clariﬁed what is the purpose of the unit. the most important fact is not the knowledge. Prove the equality n n |i − σ(i)| = σ∈An i=1 σ∈Bn i=1 |i − σ(i)|. For the beginning of the discussion. we have seen numerous applications of analysis and higher algebra in number theory and algebra. . n}. . Nicolae Popescu. It is time to see the contribution of this ”non-elementary mathematics” to combinatorics. . . just imagination and the most basic properties of the matrices. The ﬁrst problem we are going to discuss is not classical. but the ideas and. Let n ≥ 3 and let An . Gazeta Matematica Solution. such as football for example or behind a quotidian situation such as handshakes there exists such complicated machinery. Bn be the sets of all even. . but. as we will see. odd permutations of the set {1.

. a|−nσ(n)| |i−σ(i)| = σ∈An ai=1 − σ∈Bn |i−σ(i)| ai=1 This is how we have obtained the identity 1 x x2 . x 1 x . . xn−2 xn−1 xn−3 xn−2 xn−4 xn−3 .. . We have taken here Sn = An ∪ Bn .. . if σ ∈ Bn ε(σ)a1σ(1) a2σ(2) . (1) Anyway. This time. and then to take x = 1. if σ ∈ An −1. n |i−σ(i)| = σ∈Sn σ par˘ a xi=1 − σ impar˘ a σ∈Sn |i−σ(i)| xi=1 . x n . 1 xn−1 xn−2 .... .. x2 x 1 ... anσ(n) . which is nothing else than a polynomial identity.... we still do not have the desired diﬀerence.. But we don’t have any product in our sum! That is why we will take an arbitrary positive number a and we will consider the matrix A = (a|i−j| )1≤i.. det A = σ∈Sn n n (−1)ε(α) a|1−σ(1)| .. . .where ε(σ) = reminds us about the formula det A = σ∈Sn 1.j≤n .. ... . . . Before 167 ... What can we do to obtain it? The most natural way is to derive the last relation. .

Thus. Solution.. The question that arises is how many of them are even.. Here is a direct answer to the question... .. .. 2. Here is another nice application of this trick.doing that.. using determinants. Let us consider Cn . . . 1 xn−1 xn−2 .. respectively. n}. . in the left-hand side we will obtain 0. . . Example 2.. is divisible by (x − 1)2 . . .. . Since in the right-hand side we obtain exactly n n |i − σ(i)| − σ∈An i=1 σ∈Bn i=1 |i − σ(i)| the identity is established. n} that do not have ﬁxed points. ... Find the number of even permutations of the set {1. let us observe that the polynomial 1 x x2 .. x 1 x . xn−2 xn−1 xn−3 xn−2 xn−4 xn−3 . . We know how to ﬁnd the sum |Cn | + |Dn |. .. . We have seen how many permutation do not have a ﬁxed point. x2 x 1 .. that do not have any ﬁxed points. . x .. We have seen it in the unit ”Principiul includerii si excluderii” that it is equal to n! 1 − 1 (−1)n 1 + − ··· + 1! 2! n! 168 . which shows that after we derive the relation (1) and take x = 1. Dn . . the sets of even and odd permutations of the set {1.... 2. the derivative of this polynomial is a polynomial divisible by x − 1. This can be easily seen by subtracting the ﬁrst line from the second and the third one and taking from each of these line x − 1 as common factor..

. 0 |Cn | − |Dn | = 1 . ... will be able to answer to the question. we observe that this reduces to computing the determinant of the matrix T = (tij )1≤i. if xi ∈ Xj 0. . . where j=1.Hence if we manage to compute the diﬀerence |Cn | − |Dn |. . We will focus in the next problems on a very important combinatorial tool.. if i = j But it is not diﬃcult to compute this determinant. 1 1 0 .j≤n . xn } and X1 .n ...... . then we subtract the ﬁrst column from each of the other columns. 1. 1 .. if xi ∈ Xj 169 . where tij = That is. .. 1 1 1 .. 0 . . . X2 . The result is |Cn | − |Dn | = (−1)n−1 (n − 1) and the conclusion is quite surprising: 1 1 1 (−1)n−2 |Cn | = n! 1 − + − · · · + 2 2! 3! (n − 2)! + (−1)n−1 (n − 1)... . Xk a family of subsets of X.k aij = 1. Indeed. that is the incidence matrix (cum se spune la matricea de incidenta?). . If we write |Cn | − |Dn | = σ∈An σ(i)=i 1− σ∈Bn σ(i)=i 1. ... deﬁne the matrix A = (aij )i=1. What is this? Suppose we have a set X = {x1 . x2 . Now. we add all columns to the ﬁrst one and we give n − 1 as common factor. if i = j 0. 1 1 .

. An+1 and compute the product t T ·T = n n n t2 k1 k=1 k=1 tk1 tk2 . Xk and the set X... Of course. . . From this point. Solution. . n tkn+1 tk1 k=1 k=1 tkn+11 tk2 . . n .. computing the product t A · A helps us to modelate algebraically the conditions and the conclusions of a certain problem. k=1 170 . . . .. . each of which having exactly three elements. Prove that there are two distinct subsets among them that have exactly one point in common. . . A2 . This says something about the classical character and beauty of this problem. .. Example 3.. . An+1 be distinct subsets of the set {1. Tournament of the Towns 1985 and in Bulgarian Spring Mathematical Competition 1995. 2. . let T be the incidency matrix of the family A1 . the machinery activates and the problem is on its way of solving.. n}. . 2} for all i = j.This is the incidence matrix of the family X1 . . X2 . . tk tkn+1 . In many situations. .. Now.. we argue by contradiction and suppose that |Ai ∩ Aj | ∈ {0. Let A1 . It appeared in USAMO 1979.. 2}. . . A2 . Let us discuss ﬁrst a classical problem. though a diﬃcult one. n t2 kn+1 k=1 But we have of course n x2 = |Ai | = 3 ki k=1 and n xki xkj = |Ai ∩ Aj | ∈ {0. k=1 .

A2 . thus rank t T · T = n + 1 which contradicts the inequality rank t T ·T ≤ rankT ≤ n. |An | . ... 1 1 tT · T = . .. we obtain as in the previous problem the following relation t |A1 | . 0 0 . . ·).. ... ... Indeed... . . This shows that our assumption was wrong and there exist indeed indices i = j such that |Ai ∩ Aj | = 1. n}... . ·). Solution. |A1 ∩ An | .. each of them having an even number of elements.Thus. Now. . We ﬁnd that 0 1 . .. Since of course det X = det X. 0 (R2 . hence non-zero.. T ·T = |An ∩ A1 | |An ∩ A2 | . 0 .. . Example 4. . 1 where X is the matrix having as elements the residues classes of the elements of the matrix X. Prove that among these subsets there are two having an even number of elements in common. 0 . .. . .. 1 1 . ..... The following problem is very diﬃcult to solve by elementary means. This means that t T yT is an invertible matrix of size n + 1. .. |A1 ∩ A2 | . . . . .. An . considered in the ﬁeld 1 tT · T = . 1 0 171 .. . A2 . +. Let n be an even number and A1 ... +..... the previous relation shows that det t T · T is odd. . . let us suppose that all the numbers |Ai ∩ Aj | are odd and interpret the above relation in the ﬁeld (R2 . . ... we have 0 . but the solution using linear-algebra is straightforward. if T is the incidency matrix of the family A1 . An be distinct subsets of the set {1.... 2.

1 1 . For example. Just observe that the sum of elements of the column i of T is |Ai |..... Indeed.. only this time we work in a diﬀerent ﬁeld. Thus. Since the value of the determinant doesn’t change under this operation.. . if we work in (R2 .. +. . Note that this is the moment when we use the hypothesis that n is even. ·) can allow us to ﬁnd quite interesting solutions.which means again that det t T . Example 5. if we add all lines to the ﬁrst line.. ·). The squares of a n×n table are colored with white and black. our assumption was wrong and the problem is solved. Hence we should try to prove that in fact det T is an even number and the problem will be solved. . The technique used is exactly the same as in the second example.. 1 . Working in a simple ﬁeld such as (R2 . we will discuss the following problem.. we obtain 0 . we obtain that det T is also an odd number. since det t T ·T = det2 T . Gabriel Dospinescu 172 . Now.. Since a number cannot be both even and odd. used for the IMO preparation of the Romanian IMO team in 2004. T is odd. 1 1 . the conclusion is plain: det T is an even number. . Suppose that there exists a non-empty set of lines A such that any column of the table has an even number of white squares that also belong to A. hence an even number. +. 0 = 1. Prove that there exists a non-empty set of columns B such that any line of the table contains an even number of white squares that also belong to B... 1 . we will obtain only even numbers on the ﬁrst line..

x2 . we will discuss a very diﬃcult problem. Now.. It 173 ... We thus obtain a binary matrix T = (tij )1≤i. Suppose that k A contains the columns a1 . But this mean that any line of the table contains an even number of white squares that also belong to B and the problem is solved. in which just knowing the trick of computing t A · A does not suﬃce. n. Thus. . From now on. But this means that the system u11 y1 + u12 y2 + · · · + u1n yn = 0 u y + u y + ··· + u y = 0 21 1 22 2 2n n . In each white square we write the number 1 and in each black square we put a 0. if i ∈ A 0. It follows that i=1 ta. let us take xi = 1. if i ∈ A It follows that the system t11 z1 + t21 z2 + · · · + tn1 zn = 0 t z + t z + ··· + t z = 0 12 1 22 2 n2 n . ak . But this is not that easy to see. t z + t z + ··· + t z = 0 1n 1 2n 2 nm n admits the non-trivial solution (x1 . This is just the combinatorial translation of the wellknown fact that a matrix T is invertible in a ﬁeld if and only if its transpose is also invertible in that ﬁeld. .j≤n . . we take B = {i| yi = 0} and we will clearly have B = ∅ and x∈B uix = 0. u y + u y + ··· + u y = 0 n1 1 n2 2 nn n also has a non-trivial solution in R2 . we work only in (R2 . .Solution. . +. .. xn ). In the end of this sub-unit. det T = 0 and consequently det t T = 0. . i = 1. Now.j = 0 for all j = 1. ·). . n. Let us proceed easily. a2 .

is true that it is one of the main steps, but there are much more things to do after we compute t A · A. And if for these ﬁrst problems we have used only intuitive or well-known properties of the matrices and ﬁelds, this time we need a more sophisticated machinery: the properties of the characteristic polynomial and eingenvalues of a matrix. It is exactly that kind of problem that kills you just when we feel most strong. Example 6. Let S = {1, 2, . . . , n} and A be a family of pairs of elements from S with the following property: for any i, j ∈ S there exist exactly m indices k ∈ S for which (i, k), (k, j) ∈ A. Find all possible values of m, n for which this is possible. Gabriel Carrol Solution. This time, it is easy to see what hides after the problem. Indeed, if we take T = (tij )1≤i,j≤n , where 1, if (i, j) ∈ A 0, otherwise

aij =

the existence of the family A reduces to m m m ... m ... ... ... ... m

m T2 = ... m

m . ... m

**So, we must ﬁnd all values of m, n for which there exist a binary matrix T such that
**

2

m

m m ... m

174

... ... ... ...

m

m T = ... m

m . ... m

Let us consider m m m ... m ... ... ... ... m

m TB = ... m

m . ... m

and ﬁnd the eigenvalues of B. This is not diﬃcult, since if x is an eingenvalue, then m−x m ... m m m ... m ... ... ... ... m m ... m−x .

If we add all columns to the ﬁrst one and then take the common factor mn − x, we obtain the equivalent form 1 (mn − x) 1 ... 1 m ... m ... ... ... m m ... m−x = 0.

m − x ...

In this ﬁnal determinant, we subtract from each column the ﬁrst column multiplied by m and we obtain in the end the equation xn−1 (mn − x) = 0, which shows that the eigenvalues of B are precisely 0, 0, . . . , 0, mn. But these are exactly the squares of the eigenvalues of

n−1 √ T . Thus, T has the eingevalues 0, 0, . . . , 0, mn, because the sum of the n−1

eingenvalues is nonnegative (being equal to the sum of the elements of the matrix situated on the main diagonal). Since T rT ∈ R, we ﬁnd that mn must be a perfect square. Also, because T rT ≤ n, we must have m ≤ n.

175

Now, let us prove the converse. So, suppose that m ≤ n and mn is a perfect square and write m = du2 , n = dv 2 . Let us take the matrices I = (11 . . . 11),

dv

O = (00 . . . 00).

dv

**Now, let us deﬁne the circulant matrix 111 . . . 1 00 . . . 0 u v−u 0 11 . . . 1 00 . . . 0 S= u v−u−1 ∈ Mv,n ({0, 1}). ... 111 . . . 1 00 . . . 0 1
**

u−1 v−u

Finally, we take S

S A= ∈ Mn ({0, 1}). ... S It is not diﬃcult to see that m m A2 = ... m

m m ... m

... ... ... ...

m

m . ... m

The last idea that we present here (but certainly these are not all the methods of higher mathematics applied to combinatorics) is the use of vector spaces. Again, we will not insist on complicated notions from the theory of vector spaces, just the basic notions and theorems. Maybe the most useful fact is that if V is a vector space of dimension n (that is, V has a basis of cardinal n), then any n + 1 or more vectors are linearly dependent. As a direct application, we will discuss the following problem,

176

which is very diﬃcult to solve by means of elementary mathematics. Try ﬁrst to solve it elementary and you will see how hard it is. The following example is classical, too, but few people know the trick behind it. Example 7. Let n be a positive integer and let A1 , A2 , . . . , An+1 be nonempty subsets of the set {1, 2, . . . , n}. Prove that there exist nonempty and disjoint index sets I1 = {i1 , i2 , . . . , ik } and I2 = {j1 , j2 , . . . , jm } such that Ai1 ∪ Ai2 ∪ · · · ∪ Aik = Aj1 ∪ Aj2 ∪ · · · ∪ Ajm . Solution. Let us associate to each subset Ai a vector vi ∈ Rn , where vi = (x1 , x2 , . . . , xn ) and i i i xj = i 0, if j ∈ Ai 1, if j ∈ Ai

Since dim Rn = n, these vectors we have just constructed must be linearly dependent. So, we can ﬁnd a1 , a2 , . . . , an+1 ∈ R, not all of them 0, such that a1 v1 a2 v2 + · · · + an+1 vn+1 = 0. Now, we take I1 = {i ∈ {1, 2, . . . , n + 1}| ai > 0} and I2 = {i ∈ {1, 2, . . . , n+1}| ai < 0}. It is plain that I1 , I2 are nonempty and disjoint. Now, let us prove that

i∈I1

Ai =

i∈I2

**Ai and the solution will be complete. Ai . Then the vectors vi
**

i∈I2

Let us take x ∈

i∈I1

Ai and suppose that x ∈

**with i ∈ I2 have zero on their xth component, so the xth component of the vector a1 v1 +a2 v2 +· · ·+an+1 vn+1 is
**

x∈Aj j∈I1

**aj > 0, which is impossible, Ai ⊂
**

i∈I1 i∈I2

since a1 v1 + a2 v2 + · · · + an+1 vn+1 = 0. This shows that

Ai .

**But the reversed inclusion can be proved in exactly the same way, so we conclude that
**

i∈I1

Ai =

i∈I2

Ai .

177

In the end of this ”non-elementary” discussion, we solve another problem, proposed for the TST 2004 in Romania, whose idea is also related to vector spaces. Example 8. 30 boys and 20 girls are preparing for the 2004 Team Selection Test. They observed that any two boys have an even number of common acquaintances among the girls and exactly 9 boys know an odd number of girls. Prove that there exists a group of 16 boys such that any girls attending the preparation is known by an even number of boys from this group. Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. Let us consider the matrix A = (aij ) where

aij =

1, if Bi knows Fj 0, otherwise

We have considered here that B1 , B2 , . . . , B30 are the boys and F1 , F2 , . . . , F20 are the girls. Now, consider the matrix T = A · t A. We observe that all the elements of the matrix T , except those from the

20

**main diagonal are even (because tij =
**

k=1

aik ajk is the number of com-

mon acquaintances among the girls of the boys Bi , Bj ). The elements on the main diagonal of T are exactly the number of girls known by each boy. Thus, if we consider the matrix T in (R2 , +, ·), it will be diagonal, with exactly nine non-zero elements on its main diagonal. From now on, we will work only in (R2 , +, ·). We have seen till now that rankT = 9. Using Sylvester inequality, it follows that

**9 = rankT ≥ rankA + rank t A − 20 = 2rank t A − 20
**

178

.hence r = rank t A ≤ 14. For any permutation σ ∈ Sn . That is why we can choose a solution (x1 . . . having at least 16 components equal to 1. ·): a11 x1 + a21 x2 + · · · + a301 x30 = 0 a x + a x + ··· + a x = 0 12 1 22 2 302 30 . 2. p−1}. respectively. Let n ≥ 2. . 20. 30}| xi = 1}.. But we observe that j∈M aji is just the number of boys Bk with k ∈ M such that Bk knows Fi . we consider n S(σ) = k=1 kσ(k). . 1. be the set of even. Bj . a x + a x + ··· + a x =0 120 1 220 2 3020 30 The set of solutions of this system is a vector space of dimension 30 − r ≥ 16. Let Aj . Thus. . Gabriel Dospinescu 2. if we choose the group of those boys Bk with k ∈ M . +. Find the greatest number p such that for all k ∈ {1. Prove that n > p if and only if Aj and Bj have the same number of elements for all j ∈ {0. . . x2 . Finally. .. respectively odd permutations σ for which S(σ) ≡ j (mod p). . . . 2. Let p > 2 be an odd prime and let n ≥ 2. consider the set M = {i ∈ {1. We have proved that |M | ≥ 16 and also j∈M aji = 0 for all i = 1. p} we have n k n k if (i) σ∈An i=1 = σ∈Bn 179 i=1 if (i) . . . . then each girl is known by an even number of boys from this group and the problem is solved. Problems for training 1. Let us consider now the linear system in (R2 . . x30 ) of the system. .

2. . . Prove that n is even. respectively. n ≥ 2 teams compete in a tournament and each team plays against any other team exactly once. Problema de la Vietnamezi cu cunostintele 7. not all zero. Bn are. A2 . n}.where An . 1998 6. . Iran Olympiad. . A step consists of recoloring each edge which is the same color as both of its neighbours in red.1972 8. Prove that m ≤ n. respectively. The edges of a regular 2n -gon are colored red and blue. Is there in the plane a conﬁguration of 22 circles and 22 points on their union (the union of their circumferences) such that any circle contains at least 7 points and any point belongs to at least 7 circles? Gabriel Dospinescu. 2 points are given to the winner. and recoloring each other edge in blue. D. odd permutations of the set {1. Karpov. Moldova TST 2004 4. It is known that for any subset S of teams. l such that 180 . In each game. . 5. . 1 point for a draw and 0 points for the looser. if and only if there exist integers k. Gabriel Dospinescu 3. . Prove that it is possible to write a real number in each square. The two sides of length n are taped together to form a cylinder. Suppose that any two of these subsets have exactly one elements in common. the sets of all even. On an m × n sheet of paper is drawn a grid dividing the sheet into unit squares. . Am be distinct subsets of a set A with n ≥ 2 elements. so that each number is the sum of the numbers in the neighboring squares. one can ﬁnd a team (possibly in S) whose total score in the games with teams in S is odd. Prove that after 2n−1 steps all of the edges will be red and show that this need not hold after fewer steps. Let A1 . Russian Olympiad.

m n+1 2 Ciprian Manolescu. In a contest consisting of n problems. . . After the participants submitted their answers. Russian Olympiad. such that every distance between pairs of elements occurs at least twice. . . Prove that S consists of rational numbers only. the jury realizes that given any ordering of the participants (where ties are not permitted). in terms of n. l) also has dimension m. Strauss theorem 181 cos . . the maximum number of participants for which such a scenario could occur. Determine. Iran Olympiad 11. . x1 . xn be real numbers and suppose that the vector space spanned by xi − xj over the rationals has dimension m. except for the distance 1. x1 = 1. 1] be a ﬁnite set of real numbers with x0 = 0. any other participant receives 0 points. the jury deﬁnes the diﬃculty of each problem by assigning it a positive integral number of points (the same number of points may be assigned to diﬀerent problems). Romanian TST 1998 9. xn } ⊂ [0. Any participant who answers the problem correctly receives that number of points for the problem. . Let S = {x0 . Let x1 .n + 1 does not divide k and 2lπ kπ 1 + cos = . it could have deﬁned the problems’ diﬃculty levels to make that ordering coincide with the participants’ ranking according to their total scores. 2001 10. Then the vector space spanned only by those xi −xj for which xi −xj = xk −xl whenever (i. j) = (k. .

12. . Bn ⊂ A = {1. . . . Benyi Sudakov 17. B1 . . . . . An . Then prove that B1 = B2 = · · · = Bn . Then all numbers are equal. Bp subsets of {1. the rest of them can be divided into two groups of n numbers. Am some subsets of {1. Ai and Bj have exactly one common element. . . 15. acquaintance is mutual and even more. . . Then there are disjoint sets I. . any two persons have exactly one friend. 2. A2 . Let A1 . . . n}. . . There is no partition of the set of edges of the complete graph on n vertices into (strictly) fewer than n − 1 complete bipartite graphs. Then mp ≤ 2n−1 . Let 2n+1 real numbers with the property that no matter how we eliminate one of them. In a society. n} such that Ai ∩ Bj is an odd number for all i. . . . . . Gabriel Dospinescu 182 . j. 2. n} with the properties: a) for any nonempty subset T of A. . . . the sum of the numbers in the two groups being the same. Let A1 . 2. there is i ∈ A such that |Ai ∩ T | is odd. Universal friend theorem 16. Lindstrom theorem 13. J with non-empty union such that i∈I Ai = j∈J Aj and Ai = i∈I j∈J Aj . . b) for any i. . j ∈ A. Then there is a person that knows all the others. . Graham-Pollak theorem 14. . . . Let A1 . . Am and B1 .

Prove that we can ﬁnd some rows in this matrix such that their sum is a vector having all of its components odd. A symmetric matrix of zeros and ones has only ones on the main diagonal.18. Iran Olympiad 183 .

In general. b ∈ A and all 0 ≤ t ≤ 1 we have ta + (1 − t)b ∈ A). Indeed. The proof is surprisingly simple. First of all. We will admit that convex bodies have volumes (just think about it in the plane or space. Theorem. mentioned in the bibliographies. Then there is a lattice point in A diﬀerent from the origin. we will content to present only a mere introduction to this ﬁeld. we will work in Rn and we will call convex body a bounded subset A of Rn which is convex (that is for all a. for all x ∈ A we also have −x ∈ A). having as centers the points that have all coordinates even numbers. The reader will surely have the pleasure to read some reference books about this fascinating ﬁeld. which will be practically always used in our applications). (Minkowski) Suppose that A is a convex body in Rn having volume strictly greater than 2n . which is symmetric about the origin (that is. but geometry it really useful in number theory and sometimes it can help proving diﬃcult results with some extremely simple arguments. it may look weird. It is clear that any two such cubes will 184 . We will see that this theorem gives a very simple criterion for a nice region (we are also going to explain what we understand by nice) to have a non-trivial lattice point and the existence of this point will have important consequences in the theory of representation of numbers by quadratic forms or in approximation of real numbers with rational numbers. let us state the conditions in which we will work and what is a nice ﬁgure. Let us start by proving the celebrated Minkowski’s theorem. extremely well developed. As usual. In the sequel we are going to show some applications of geometry in number theory. almost all of them playing around the celebrated Minkowski theorem.GEOMETRY AND NUMBERS Again an apparently paradoxical note!!! Indeed. let us start by making a sort of partition of Rn in cubes of edge 2.

This is clearly a convex body in space and using Minkowski’s theorem we deduce the existence of a non-trivial lattice point in this cylinder (or on the border). which is even more useful. the theorem proved before admits a more general formulation. it is clear that the sum will be ﬁnite). it follows that is a lattice point diﬀerent 2 from the origin and belonging to A.have disjoint interiors and that they cover all space. That is why we can say that the volume of the convex body is equal to the sum of volumes of the intersections of the body with each cube (since the body is convex. Then any line that passes through the origin will intercept a certain ball. Let us suppose the contrary and let us consider a very long r cylinder having as axe the line and basis a circle of radius . But since A is centrally x−y symmetric and convex. Necessarily there will be two bodies which intersect in a point X. We have found two diﬀerent points x. one can bring any cube into the cube centered around the origin by using a translation by a vector all of whose coordinates are even. look at the cubes where these two bodies where taken from and look at the points in these cubes that give by translations the point X. we will have now an agglomeration of bodies in the central cube (the one centered in the origin) and the sum of volumes of all these bodies is strictly greater that 2n . Here is a surprising result that follows directly from this theorem. Since translations preserve volume. Problem 1. This means that the line will intercept the ball centered around this point. Now. The theorem is thus proved. Suppose that in each lattice point in space except for the origin one draws a ball of radius r > 0 (common for all the balls). y in our convex body such that x − y ∈ 2Zn . Actually. But of course. We choose 2 it suﬃciently long to ensure that it will have a volume strictly greater than 8. 185 . Solution.

Indeed. 0). . Also consider n the fundamental parallelepiped P = i=1 xi vi | 0 ≤ xi ≤ 1 and de- note V ol(P ) its volume. vn some linearly independent vectors in Rn . v2 . It V ol(P ) suﬃces to apply the ﬁrst theorem to this convex body and to look at the preimage of the lattice point (in Zn ). Let us prove it diﬀerently. Visibly. . Next. We have already proved that for any prime number of the form 4k + 1. Indeed. . .Theorem 2. n ∈ Z such that x = mp + na. . Proof. 0) one can easily see that P is sent into the ”normal” cube in Rn (that is. 1). call it p. they are linearly independent and moreover for any point (x. using Minkowski’s theorem. Moreover. With all these terms. y = n and thus x2 + y 2 ≡ n2 (a2 + 1) ≡ 0 (mod p). The second theorem is thus proved. it would seem that this is extremely diﬃcult to prove. the set of vectors all of whose components are between 0 and 1) and that f maps L into Zn . . . y) in the lattice L = Zv1 + Zv2 we have p|x2 + y 2 . Problem 2. . one can ﬁnd a such that p|a2 + 1. . Any prime number of the form 4k + 1 is the sum of two squares. there are m. it follows trivially from the ﬁrst theorem. it will send A into a convex body of volume > 2n . . Then let us consider v1 = (p. Since the transformation V ol(A) is linear. Actually. 1. A must contain at least a point of the lattice L = Zv1 + · · · + Zvn diﬀerent from the origin. . by considering the linear application f sending vi into the vector ei = (0. . in order to ﬁnd a non-trivial point of A ∩ L. Assuming that A has a volume strictly greater than 2n · V ol(P ). 0. 0. the area of the fundamental parallelogram is v1 ∧ v2 = p. (Minkowski) Let A is a convex body in Rn and v1 . We have already proved that any prime number of the form 4k + 1 is the sum of two squares. v2 = (a. consider as convex 186 .

A simple computation 4π shows that it is an elliptical disc having as area √ > 4. 187 . Since ac = b2 + b + 1. Here is an example. y not both 0 the inequality ax2 − (2b + 1)xy + cy 2 > 0. Poland Olympiad Solution. Thus for (x. there is a point (x. An elliptical 3 disc is obviously a convex body and even more this elliptical disc is symmetric about the origin.body the disc centered in the origin and having as radius √ 2p. the experience of the preceding problem should ring a bell. Here is a very quick approach: consider in R2 the set of points verifying ax2 − (2b + 1)xy + cy 2 < 2. but what can we do when we are asked to prove that a certain equation has solutions? Minkowski’s theorem and in general geometry of numbers allow quick responses to such problems. Then the equation ax2 − (2b + 1)xy + cy 2 = 1 has integer solutions. which shows that p = x2 + y 2 . Thus. Consider positive integers such that ac = b2 + b + 1. Obviously. For this point we have p|x2 + y 2 and x2 + y 2 < 2p. The solution using geometry of numbers is more natural. y) ∈ Z2 \ {(0. Problem 3. but it is not at all obvious how to proceed. we have for all x.. taken from a polish Olympiad. Yet. y) diﬀerent from the origin that lies in this disc and also in the lattice L = Zv1 + Zv2 . 0)} a lattice point of this region.. by Minkowski’s theorem we can ﬁnd a point of this region diﬀerent from the origin. we have ax2 − (2b + 1)xy + cy 2 = 1 and the existence of a solution of the equation is proved. Proving that a certain Diophantine equation has no solution is a very classical problem. its area is strictly greater than four times the area of the fundamental parallelogram. The following problem (as the above one) has a quite diﬃcult elementary solution. Thus.

0)} such that x2 + xy + y 2 < 2n and n divides ax − by. b. y) ∈ Z2 \ {(0. Then this equation has integer solutions as well. b. c are non-zero (otherwise the conclusion follows trivially). consider the lattice formed by the 3 points (x. . We will try again to ﬁnd a couple of integers (x. In this case we will have x2 + xy + y 2 = n and the conclusion will follow. c such that a2 + ab + b2 = c2 n.Problem 4. b). We will assume that a. xn ) ∈ Rn \ {0} the set of points verifying aij xi xj ≤ 1 1≤i. Suppose that n is a natural number for which the equation x2 + xy + y 2 = n has rational solutions. we can ﬁnd (x. . 0)} such that x2 + xy + y 2 < 2n and n divides x2 + xy + y 2 . We claim that this will give an integer solution of the equation. y) such that n divides ax − by.j≤n 188 . Of course. Again. Observe that ab(x2 + xy + y 2 ) = c2 xyn + (ax − by)(bx − ay) and so n also divides x2 + xy + y 2 (since n is relatively prime with a. By Minkowski’s theorem. a classical argument allows to assume that a. Komal Solution. let us look at the region deﬁned by x2 + xy + y 2 < 2n. Before continuing with some more diﬃcult problems. let us remind that for any symmetric real matrix A such that aij xi xj > 0 1≤i. x2 . b are relatively prime. y) ∈ Z2 \ {(0. . the problem reduces to: if there are integer numbers a. then x2 + xy + y 2 = n has integer solutions. This allows us to conclude. Next.j≤n for all x = (x1 . . Even more. The area of the fundamental parallelepiped is clearly at most n. First. simple computations show that it is an 4π elliptical disc of area √ n.

Even more. In particular. but the idea is always the same. 0. why not present the beautiful classical proof of Lagrange’s theorem on representations using 4 squares. Proof. Since there are squares in Zp (as we 2 have already seen in previous notes). p. Problem 5. Let thus p > 2 a prime number and consider the sets A = {x2 | x ∈ Zp }. v2 = (0. p+1 B = {−y 2 − 1| y ∈ Zp }. The proof of this result is non elementary and we invite the reader to read more about it in any decent book of multivariate integral calculus. With these results (that we will admit) in mind. −x. one can easily verify that for all point (x. 0. 0). A simple computation (using the above formulas) allows to prove that the volume of the fundamental parallelepiped is p2 . If we spoke about squares. where has a volume equal to √ det A V ol(Bn ) = ∞ π2 n Γ 1+ (here Γ(x) = 0 n 2 e−t tx−1 dt is Euler’s gamma function). z. y ≤ p − 1 and p|x2 + y 2 + 1. the reader has noticed that these results can be applied to previous problems to facilitate the computations of diﬀerent areas and volumes. y. v3 = (x. these two sets cannot be disjoint. Consider now the vectors v1 = (p. y. 0). v4 = (y. there are x. The main diﬃculty is ﬁnding the appropriate lattice and convex body. 1. In particular.V ol(Bn ) . First of all. y such that 0 ≤ x. Moreover. This is the observation that will allow us to ﬁnd a good lattice. one can 189 . (Lagrange’s theorem) Any natural number is a sum of 4 squares. 0. 0. t) ∈ L one has p|x2 + y 2 + z 2 + t2 . 1) and the lattice L generated by these vectors. 0). This is going to be much more complicated. let us prove the result for prime numbers. let’s attack some serious problems.

c. everything would be nice if the product of two sums of 4 squares is always a sum of 4 squares.also prove (by employing the non-elementary results stated before this problem) that the volume of the convex body A = {x = (a. Thus the theorem is proved for prime numbers. z. very nice. Consider the numbers z1 = a + bi. but how could one think at such an identity? The eternal question. It follows form the miraculous identity: (a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 )(x2 + y 2 + z 2 + t2 ) = (ax + by + cz + dt)2 = (ay − bx + ct − dz)2 + (az − bt + dy − cx)2 + (at + bz − cy − dx)2 . z2 = c + di. z3 = x + yi. thus A ∩ L is not empty.. y. But surprise! We have MN = z 1 z3 − z2 z 4 z1 z 4 + z2 z 3 z1 z2 −z 2 z 1 . −z1 z4 + z2 z3 z1 z3 − z2 z 4 190 . t) ∈ L ∩ A and we will clearly have x2 + y 2 + z 2 + t2 = p. b. Of course. let us reason only with four. this time there is a very nice reason: instead of thinking in eight variables. Introduce the matrices M= We have det(M ) = |z1 |2 + |z2 |2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 and similarly det(N ) = x2 + y 2 + z 2 + t2 . Hopefully.. z4 = z + ti. It is then normal to try to express (a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 )(x2 + y 2 + z 2 + t2 ) as det(M N ). Of course. Well. It suﬃces then to choose a point (x. d) ∈ R4 | a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 < 2p} is equal to 2π 2 p2 > 16V ol(P ). but the proof is not obvious at all. N= z3 z4 −z 4 z 3 . it is the case.

x2 . n} is 1 2n c1 .. . n} is exactly the image trough A−1 of the parallelepiped {Y ∈ Rn | − ci < Yi < ci . . . . i = 1. thus {Y ∈ Rn | |A−1 Y |i < ci . n} which has volume 2n c1 . . n. The identity appears thus naturally. n} (here A−1 Y = (|A−1 Y |1 . |A−1 Y |n ). xn integers between −a and a. . . We need to prove that there exists a non-zero vector X that also belongs to the region {Y ∈ Rn | |A−1 Y |i < ci . . which will verify the conditions of the problem. . All we need to do is to apply the result in problem 6 for A Im the invertible matrix . not all 0. . . . . . . Let us concentrate a little bit more on approximations of real numbers. . . . We have some beautiful results of Minkowski that deserve to be presented after this small introduction to geometry of numbers. . not all 0. . i = 1. . . . cn > | det A|. Problem 6. i = 1.. Problem 7. x2 . . . . . such that j=1 aij xj < ci for all i = 1. . But observe that {Y ∈ Rn | |A−1 Y |i < ci . (Minkowski’s linear forms’ theorem) Let A = (aij ) be a n × n invertible matrix of real numbers and suppose that c1 . . . .and so det(M N ) is again a sum of 4 squares. . And here is a nice consequence of the previous theorem. . j=1 n Solution. cn > 2n . . . By Minkowski’s theoa convex body of volume det A rem. c2 . . . Then there n are integers x1 . . Suppose A = (aij )1≤i≤m is a matrix with m. such that n aij xj < a− m for all 1 ≤ i ≤ m. n real 1≤j≤n numbers and a ≥ 1 is a real number. . cn are positive real numbers such that c1 c2 . this body will contain a non-zero lattice point. Solution. Then one can ﬁnd x1 . . whose determinant equals 1 or −1 In 0 191 . . i = 1. cn . . xn .

Suppose that a natural number is the sum of three squares of rational numbers. he can see at least a point situated at the exterior of the disc. not all 0. 1 ≤ i ≤ n. b. Incredibly. Consider a disc of radius R. b. R AMM 4. . t integers such that a = x2 + y 2 . z. Suppose that a. Suppose that a. Then . one plants a circular tree of radius r. Suppose that a. Davenport-Cassels lemma 3. Imo Shortlist 2. 6. c = xz + yt. Then there exist x. c are positive integers such that ac = b2 + 1. Prove that we can ﬁnd three integers x. Then prove that √ 1 R2 +1 ≤r< 1 . y. Prove that the equation ax2 + 2bxy + cy 2 = 1 is solvable in integers. y. such that 2 ax + by + cz = 0 and max{|x|. xn ) ∈ Rn \ {0} we have 1≤i. .j≤n 192 n aij xi xj > 0.and make the choice c1 = · · · = cm = a− m . but the proof ends here!!! Proposed problems 1. |y|. except for the origin. . |z|} < √ a + 1. b = z 2 + t2 . 3 Miklos Schweitzer competition 5. c are positive integers such that a > b > c. b. z. Suppose that r is optimal with respect to the following property: if one regards from the origin. Then prove that it is also a sum of squares of three natural numbers (the use of three squares theorem is forbidden!). c are positive integers such that ac = b2 + 1. . cm+i = a. Suppose that aij (1 ≤ i. j ≤ n) are rational numbers such that for any x = (x1 . At each lattice point of this disc.

Using the non-elementary results presented in the topic. . . Let us denote A(C.j≤n can ﬁnd an integer matrix B such that A = B · t B. Kurschak contest 9. Prove that one can ﬁnd 1 < |i − j| < n − 1 such that |ai bj − aj bi | = 1. . xn ) ∈ Rn \ {0}. . x2 . . x2 . r) the set of points w on the unit sphere in C Rn with the property that |wk| ≥ for any non-zero vector k ∈ Zn k r (here wk is the usual scalar product and k is the Euclidean norm of the vector k ∈ Zn ). . 11. . . 8. . . xn . . xn such that √ n aij xi xj < n det A. . . . Mathlinks contest (after an ENS entrance exam problem) 10.there are integers (not all zero) x1 . b are rational numbers such that the equation ax2 + by 2 = 1 has at least one rational solution. prove that if A = (aij )1≤i. . 1 ≤ i ≤ n (here (an+1 . Then the set of n-tuples (f (x1 ). .j≤n where A = (aij ). bn+1 ) = (a1 . then we 1≤i. Minkowski 7. f (xn )) with f ∈ Z[X] is dense in Rn . but if r < n − 1 there is no such C > 0. Let n ≥ 5 and a1 . . . . f (x2 ). an . 1≤i. . r) is non-empty. . . x2 . .j≤n is a symmetric integer matrix such that aij xi xj > 0 for all x = (x1 . b1 )). xn are algebraic integers such that for any 1 ≤ i ≤ n there is at least a conjugate of xi which is not between x1 . . Deduce the result from problem 1. b1 . 193 . bn some integers verifying that all pairs (ai . Suppose that a. . . bi ) are diﬀerent and |ai bi+1 − ai+1 bi | = 1. Suppose that x1 . . Prove that if r > n − 1 there exists C > 0 such that A(C. Then it has inﬁnitely many rational solutions. .

d be positive integers such that there are 2004 pairs (x. Bulgaria Olympiad 13. ﬁnd (b.Korea TST 12. y ∈ [0. cx + dy ∈ Z. yi ) such that xi − xj . 1] and ax + by. Let a. c. d). yi − yj ∈ Z for all 1 ≤ i. b. j ≤ n + 1. Nikolai Nikolov. If (a. Prove that it contains n + 1 points Ai (xi . y) such that x. c) = 6. China TST 1988 194 . A polygon of area greater than n is given in a plane.

we note a ﬁrst application of this simple observation: on (a)|ϕ(n). but in fact they are much more. the order of an element. a large amount of simple ideas can solve very diﬃcult problems. The complexity of this concept will follow from the examples. In this unit. before that. All these can be called ”tricks”. It may seem contradictory for us to talk about simple ideas and then say ”a fundamental concept”. But from the deﬁnition of d it follows that d ≤ gcd(k. But. we will discuss a fundamental concept in number theory. Now. which may seem really trivial after this introduction. an old and nice problem. But do not get excited so easily. We have seen or will see a few such examples in our journey through the world of numbers: clever congruences that readily solve Diophantine equations. we ﬁnd that n|agcd(k. as you are going to see soon. the problem has an 195 . what we are going to discuss about is the bridge between simplicity and complexity. Indeed. This is a consequence of the above property and of Euler’s theorem. The deﬁnition is correct. d). In what follows we will denote by on (a) the order of a modulo n. properties of the primes of the form 4k + 3 or even complex numbers and analysis.d) − 1. Well. then d|k. n) = 1. There is a simple property of on (a). But could such a simple idea be good at anything? The answer is positive and will follow from the solutions of the problems to come. which has important consequences: if k is a positive integer such that n|ak − 1. since from Euler’s theorem we have n|aϕ(n) − 1 so such numbers d indeed exist. the smallest possible integer d for which n|ad −1 is called the order of a modulo n.THE SMALLER. because n|ak − 1 and n|ad − 1. THE BETTER Often. which cannot hold unless d|k. The reason for which we say it is a simple idea can be easily guessed from the deﬁnition: given are the positive integer n > 1 and the integer a such that gcd(a. Nice and easy.

Prove that n|ϕ(an − 1) for all positive integers a. p|22 n+1 − 1 and consequently op (2)|2n+1 . since of course oan −1 (a) = n. then op (2)|2n and so p|2op (2) −1|22 −1. Prove that any prime factor of the nth Fermat number n 22 + 1 is congruent to 1 modulo 2n+1 . Then d|22 n+1 − 1 and so d|22 n+k − 1. Combining 196 . The second part is a direct consequence of the ﬁrst. What is oan −1 (a)? It may seem a silly question. but this does not mean that it is obvious. Indeed. suppose that d|gcd(22 + 1. Indeed. Therefore. Then n many prime numbers of the form 2n k + 1 for any ﬁxed n. Then we could take a prime factor of each such Fermat’s number and apply the ﬁrst part to obtain that each such prime is of the form 2n k + 1. Here is another beautiful application of the order of an element. This ensures the existence of a positive integer k ≤ n + 1 such that op (2) + 2k . we obtain exactly n|ϕ(an − 1). Show that there are inﬁnitely Solution. But this follows from the introduction. Using the observation in the introduction.extremely short solution. we have found that op (2) = 2n+1 and we have to prove that op (2)|p − 1 to ﬁnish the ﬁrst part of the question. since p|22 +1. 22 n n+k + 1). if this is not the case. It is the ﬁrst case case of Dirichlet’s theorem that we intend to discuss and is also a classical property. Solution. n. but in fact any two diﬀerent Fermat’s numbers are relatively prime. The proof is easy. Example 2. It appeared in Saint Petersburg Mathematical Olympiad and also in Gazeta Matematica. it is enough to prove that there exists an inﬁnite set of Fermat’s numbers (22 nk n n + 1)nk >a any two relatively prime. We will prove that in fact k = n + 1. But not only it is easy to ﬁnd such a sequence of Fermat’s coprime numbers. Indeed. Example 1. But this is impossible. Let us consider a prime p such that p|22 + 1.

we need to ﬁnd a sequence (mk )k≥1 of multiples of p such that fp (mk ) are pairwise relatively prime. Anyway. but we like the following one: take m1 = p and mk = pf (m1 )fp (m2 ) . But we are tempted to use a) and to explore the properties of fp (m). then q|m−1 and because q|1+m+· · ·+mp−1 . just like in the previous problem. Now. it is clear that gcd(q. Let us prove that fp (mk ) 197 . q|m − 1 and because q|fp (m). p}. . Otherwise. Because q|1 + m + · · · + mp−1 . prove that there exists a prime factor of fp (m) that is relatively prime with m(m − 1). This is not as easy as in the ﬁrst example. There are many other approaches. just by trial and error. m−1) = 1. which is clearly impossible. fp (mk−1 ). Example 3. b) Prove that there are inﬁnitely many numbers n such that pn + 1 is prime. If oq (m) = p. if gcd(q. But p|m and we ﬁnd that q|m. Take such a prime divisor q. But this implies that oq (m)|q and consequently oq (m) ∈ {1. We continue with another special case of the well-known diﬃcult theorem of Dirichlet on arithmetical sequences. Though classical. it is not diﬃcult to ﬁnd such a sequence. we will prove that any prime factor of fp (m) is relatively prime with m(m − 1). a) is straightforward.this with d|22 n+k + 1. m) = 1. we deduce that q|p. a) If p|m. Hence both parts of the problem are solved. the following problem is not straightforward and this explains probably its presence on a Korean TST in 2003. But we have seen while solving a) that this is not possible. So. we obtain a contradiction. let fp (x) = xp−1 + xp−2 + · · · + x + 1. Solution. it follows that q|p. then q ≡ 1 (mod p). Then we have of course q|mp − 1. In fact. hence q = p. . For a prime p. let us take a prime q|fp (m) for a certain positive integer m divisible by p. so the only choice is p|q−1. Moreover. More diﬃcult is b).

fp (mk−1 )|fp (mk ) − fp (0)|fp (mk ) − 1. we proceed by ﬁnding the exponent of 2 in each factor of this product. . Solution. this is easy. but not a multiple of 4. Fortunately. 198 k t . (172 k k−1 k + 1). since it uses elementary facts and the method is more than beautiful. Now. since fp (m1 )fp (m2 ) . It seems to be a favorite Olympiad problem. v2 (172 − 1) = 4 + k and the order is found by solving the equation k + 4 = 2005. . Example 5. Find all primes p. . 5|2003q + 1 and it is easy to deduce that q is even. Find the smallest number n with the property that 22005 |17n − 1. o22005 (17) = 22001 is the answer to the problem. . q such that p2 + 1|2003q + 1 and q 2 + 1|2003p + 1. .is relatively prime to fp (m1 ). Let us suppose that p ≤ q. . fp (mk−1 ). . . so o22005 (17) = 2k . The following problem became classical and variants of it have been given in contests for years. The problem actually asks for o22005 (17). because for all i ≥ 0 the number 172 + 1 is a multiple of 2. we also need some properties of the prime numbers. it is time to work with exponents. We know that o22005 (17)|ϕ(22005 ) = 22004 . . The solution ends here. Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. But this is not diﬃcult. fp (m2 ). 2004}. Example 4. Thus. Another simple. We have 22005 |172 − 1. We discuss ﬁrst the trivial case p = 2. Here. that we have already studied in a previous unit. but not straightforward application of the order of an element is the following divisibility problem. where k ∈ {1. Thus. The order of an element has done its job. . 2. In this case. . . Using the factoring 172 − 1 = (17 − 1)(17 + 1)(172 + 1) .

Suppose that (q. because 2003q + 1 ≡ 2 (mod 13) and r|2003q + 1. Reid Barton. More diﬃcult is the following problem. Now. This implies that p2 + 1 ≡ 2 (mod q). using the order of an element. it follows that or (2003)|2q. r > 2. Anyway.. we have found that for any prime factor r of p2 + 1.hence q = 2. then the relation p|q r + 1 is impossible. r) such that p|q r + 1. that is q|(p − 1)(p + 1). Combining this with the assumption that p ≤ q yields q|p + 1 and in fact q = p + 1. which combined with p|q r + 1 yields p = 2. 13}. the problem is not very diﬃcult and the solution follows naturally. q. Find all ordered triples of primes (p. Therefore the only pair is (2. Another simple observation narrows the number of possible cases: because r|p2 + 1. we have either r = 2 or q|or (2003). Because r|20032q − 1. Let us see. but not divisible by 4 and because any odd prime factor of it is congruent to 1 modulo q. q. which 199 . Example 6. We will prove that we cannot have p. r are distinct. It is quite clear that p. The case r = 13 is also impossible. must be of the form 4k + 1 or equal to 2 and now we do not have many possibilities: r ∈ {2. we must have p2 + 1 ≡ 2 (mod q). The ﬁrst condition p|q r + 1 implies p|q 2r − 1 and so op (q)|2r. So. Suppose this is the case. q|rp + 1. r|pq + 1. which is a solution of the problem. Indeed.2). Then or (2003)|2 and r|20032 − 1 = 23 · 3 · 7 · 11 · 13 · 167. or (2003)) = 1. If op (q) is odd. which in turn implies q|r−1. if for example p = q. proposed by Reid Barton for the USA TST in 2003. q. contradicting the assumption p > 2. TST USA 2003 Solution. It seems that this is a dead end. Because p2 +1 is even. since there are too many possible values for r.. suppose that p > 2 and let r be a prime factor of p2 + 1. It follows that p = 2. it follows that p|q r − 1.

which does not need a single division.is impossible. we ﬁnd that op (12) = 216 and so 216 |p − 1. so indeed 200 15 15 q−1 q−1 16 15 15 5 . But it is wellknown that 216 + 1 is a prime (and if you do not believe. Can you ﬁnd the smallest prime factor of the number 22 + 1. with a large amount of work. But what about the number 122 +1? It has more than 30000 digits. We cannot have p|q −1. you can check. we ﬁnd that op (12)|216 . or (2)|2 and r|3. all solutions are given by cyclic permutations of the components of this triple. Could we have op (q) = 2r? No. Let q = 216 + 1. or (2)|2q. Thus. Thus. Because p|122 − 1. In the same way. Solution. If q|or (2). Thus. it is not that diﬃcult). So. Therefore p ≥ 1 + 216 . Therefore. because p|q r +1 and p = 2. q+1 r+1 p|q + 1 and in fact p| . So. As a matter of fact. But here is a beautiful and short solution. op (q) is either 2 or 2r. which contradicts the already established result that q is odd. so you will probably be bored before ﬁnding its smallest prime factor. It remains to see whether = −1. the only possibility is op (q) = 2 and so p|q 2 −1. r. q|r2 + 1 and r|2q + 1. Let p be this prime number. Then q is odd. yielding the triple (2. since this would imply that 2r|p − 1 and so 0 ≡ pq + 1 (mod r) ≡ 2 (mod r). Moreover. q. It is immediate to verify that this triple satisﬁes all conditions of the problem.3). Find the smallest prime factor of the number 122 + 1. we might try to see if this number divides 122 + 1. But this is done in q the unit Quadratic reciprocity and the answer is positive. This is clearly impossible. Exactly as in the solution of the ﬁrst example. then q|r − 1 and so q|r2 +1−(r2 −1) = 2. you will probably ﬁnd it. false. Then 122 + 1 = 2q−1 · 3 2 + 1 ≡ 3 2 + 1 3 (mod q). that is r = 2. this implies that r = 3 and q = 5.5. our assumption was wrong and indeed one of the three primes must equal 2. Similarly. Yes. just by looking at the largest among 2 p. Example 7. Suppose without loss of generality that p = 2. we ﬁnd that q| and 2 2 p+1 r| .

2005 Solution. Let p be a nonzero polynomial with integral coeﬃcients. let us write 22 + 1 = pk1 . Now everything becomes sim2n . Ok. reduce the relation 22 + 1 = pk1 . Indeed. Problems for training 1... number 3 201 n . Yet. Let p > 3 be a prime. Prove that any positive divisor of the 2p + 1 is of the form 2kp + 1. since we have > (1+2n+1 )k1 +···+kr and so k1 +· · ·+kr ≤ This shows that qr ≤ 2(n + 1) and the proof ﬁnishes here. China TST. . even if it uses only this simple idea. The reader will not imagine how simple this problem re- ally is. . . n+1 ple. 3. Prove that for any n > 1 the largest prime factor of n 22 n + 1 is at least equal to n · 2n+2 + 1. Example 8. . If the start is correct. n > 2 be positive integers such that n|an−1 − 1 and n does not divide any of the numbers ax − 1. here is a problem that will keep you occupied for a certain period of time. Now. pkr r 1 r n n modulo 22n+2 . Let a. . pkr r 1 with p1 < . It follows that 1 ≡ 1 + 2n+1 r r i=1 ki qi (mod 22n+2 ) and so ki qi ≥ 2n+1 . Prove that n is a prime number. But then qr i=1 i=1 n 22 +1 ki ≥ 2n+1 . where x < n − 1 and x|n − 1.3 q−1 2 + 1 ≡ 0 (mod 2) and 216 + 1 is the smallest prime factor of the 15 number 122 + 1. . 2. We know that we can ﬁnd qi ∈ N such that pi = 1 + 2n+1 qi . you must be already tired of this old fashioned idea that any prime factor of 22 + 1 is congruent to 1 modulo 2n+1 . Prove that there are at most ﬁnitely many numbers n for which p(n) and 22 + 1 are not relatively prime. pr prime numbers. .

Prove that q > p. IMO 1989 Shortlist 9. Suppose further that there is an integer a such that n|an−1 − 1 and for all primes p dividing n − 1 we have gcd(n. Prove that there is a positive integer n such that op (n) = d. Let n be a positive integer such that n − 1 = F R. R) = 1. Laurentiu Panaitopol. where all the prime factors of F are known and gcd(F. Let 0 < m < n be integers such that 1978m and 1978n have the same last three digits. Let p be a prime number and let d a positive divisor of p − 1. a n−1 p n n n − 1) = 1. 202 . Find the smallest repunit divisible by 19. Find the smallest number n such that 21989 |mn − 1. 1997 6. Bulgaria. Find oq (k) in terms of n and v2 (m) J.Fermat 4. Prove that any prime factor of n is congruent to 1 modulo F . d < n. IMO 1978 10. n for which n|1 + m3 + m2·3 . Let m > 1 be an odd number. TST Romania 8. where k is odd. Find the least possible value of m + n. Let p be a prime and q > 5 a prime factor of the number 2p + 3p . Gazeta Matematica 7. with d|n. Let a > b > 1 and n > 1 be positive integers. 11. Find all positive integers m. 5. van de Lune 12. Let q = k · 2m + 1 be a divisor of the number 22 + 1. Prove that any positive divisor of the number an − bn is either of the form nk + 1 or divides a number of the form ad − bd .

opj (n) = pd for 2 ≤ j ≤ l and opj (n) = pj−l+1 d. Prove that for any prime p there is a prime number q that does not divide any of the numbers np − p. Gabriel Dospinescu 203 . Let d = op (n) and let k = vp (nd − 1). b) If k = 1 then let l = vp (npd −1). Prove that for inﬁnitely many n the largest prime factor of an − 1 is greater than n loga n. Lehmer Test 13. Pocklington.Proth. 7. f (p) = is unbounded. 15. Prove p−1 that the function f : {2. Jerrold W Grossman. with n ≥ 1. op (a) Jon Froemke. . for all j ≥ l. . Let a > 1 be a positive integer. } → N. 11. Let a > 1 be an integer and let us deﬁne op (a) = 0 if p|a. Let A be a ﬁnite set of prime numbers and let a ≥ 2 be a positive integer. Prove that there are only ﬁnitely many positive integers n such that all prime factors of an − 1 are in A. a) If k > 1 then opj (n) = d for j ≤ k and opj (n) = pj−k d for all j ≥ k. AMM 14. 5. Prove that op (n) = d. IMO 2003 17. Iran Olympiad 16. . 3.

1] if a is an irrational number. Radu Gologan. √ Example 1. We will prove that there are arbitrarily long geometric sequences with ratio p. But observe that 204 . The proofs are non-trivial and require some heavy-duty analysis. let us prove that we can ﬁnd a positive integer m such that √ √ [pk m 2003] = pk [m 2003] for all 1 ≤ k ≤ n. Let us take p a very large number. consequences of this theorem. but because we will prove a much stronger result about the sequence ({na})n≥1 . Prove that the sequence ([n 2003])n≥1 contains arbitrarily long geometric progressions with arbitrarily large ratio. If the existence of such a number is proved.DENSITY AND REGULAR DISTRIBUTION Everyone knows that ({na})n≥1 is dense in [0. Given n ≥ 3. Instead. then the conclusion is immediate. This is the reason for which we will try to discuss some classical approximation theorems. We skip the proof. Of course. particularly the very eﬃcient Weil criterion and its consequences. the consequences that will be discussed here are almost elementary. there are some examples in which this result is ineﬀective. not only because it is very well-known. a classical theorem of Kronecker. The natural question: what fraction of numbers between 1 and n have this property (speaking here about large values of n) is much more diﬃcult and to answer it we need some stronger tools. Yet. IMO TST Romania Solution. one cannot start a topic about approximation theorems without talking ﬁrst about Kronecker’s theorem. we will discuss two beautiful problems. A simple one is as follows: using Kronecker’s theorem one can easily prove that for any positive integer a that is not a power of 10 there exists n such that an begins with 2006. Yet. Various applications of this nice result have appeared in diﬀerent contests and will probably make the object of Olympiad problems in the future.

Example 2. Deﬁne the sequence xn as the number formed by the ﬁrst k digits of the number [an ] with n ≥ 1. . xk · 10p−k ≤ m < (x1 . assuming the contrary.√ √ √ [pk m 2003] = pk [m 2003] is equivalent to [pk {m 2003}] = 0. Then m = x1 . . Prove that this sequence is not eventually periodical. but which is again a simple consequence of Kronecker’s theorem. . xp . it follows that k − 1 + {log[arT ]} < log(1 + 10k−1 ) for all r. . . . that x1 . n a −1 205 . . . Mathlinks Contest Solution. The solution is based on certain simple. but useful remarks. xk = 10p−k Another remark is the following: there is a positive integer r such that xrT > 10k−1 . arT − 1 It suﬃces now to consider a sequence of positive integers (rn ) such 1 that 1 − < {rn T log a} (the existence is a simple consequence of Kron necker’s lemma) and we will deduce that: = {rT log a} − log log 1 + 1 10k−1 + 1 arn T + log rn T > 1 for all n. hence x1 . with p ≥ k. Using the ﬁrst observation. The existence of a positive integer m with the last p property is ensured by Kronecker’s theorem. the claim is proved. xk + 1) · 10p−k . The proof of this claim is not diﬃcult. let us write m = x1 x2 . Consider k ≥ 1 and a such that log a is irrational. we ﬁnd that for all r > 0 we have xrT = 10k−1 . or to √ 1 {m 2003} < n . Gabriel Dospinescu. the number formed with the ﬁrst k digits of a number m is [10k−1+{log m} ]. Thus log 1 + 1 10k−1 > log[arT ] − [log[arT ]] > log(arT − 1) − [log arT ] arT . . Indeed. Here is a problem that is apparently very diﬃcult. . . . It follows m and. First of all. xp . Indeed. since p = 1 + [log m]. xk · 10p−k + xk+1 .

let us state and prove this result. . There exists a positive integer n and integers p1 . Thus we need to prove that if we have a ﬁnite set of real numbers. But ﬁrst. Example 3. . . 2. (Dirichlet) Let x1 . α2 . . n} a sequence of k positive integers α1 . . [0. yet surprising result. . we must speak about a simple. assume the existence of such an r. Js = s−1 s . x2 . . . 1) in ε N intervals. where 206 . as we will see in one of the examples. we can multiply all its elements by a suitable integer such that the elements of the new set are as close to integers as we want. αk .The last inequality is clearly impossible. pk such that |nxi − pi | < ε for all i. thus {log[anT ]} ≥ log 1 + This shows that log 1 + 1 10k−1 ≤ log[anT ] − [log[anT ]] ≤ nT log a − [log anT ] = {nT log a} for all n > r. . . Before passing to the quantitative results stated at the beginning of this chapter. 1) = s=1 Js . N 1 10k−1 . N N . it can even help us reducing the problem to integers. Solution. choose n = Nk + 1 and associate to any positive integer q ∈ {1. . which turns out to be very useful when dealing with real numbers and their properties. . . 1 Let us choose an integer N > and partition the interval [0. It follows that for n > r we have xnT = xrT . Now. But this contradicts Kronecker’s theorem. xk be some real numbers and let ε > 0. . Finally. Sometimes. . . p2 .

x2 . Putnam Competition and later on in a Japanese Mathematical Olympiad. . . This means that for all 1 ≤ i ≤ k we have |{uxi } − {vxi }| < 1 ≤ ε. . . Solution. assume that they are real numbers. which is clearly much more subtle. otherwise. Let x1 . Thus assume that at least one of the numbers is irrational. pk have 207 . Example 4. . We obtain at most N k sequences corresponding to these numbers and so by Dirichlet’s criterion we can ﬁnd 1 ≤ u < v ≤ n such that the same sequence is associated to u and v. pi = [vxi ] − [uxi ]. . . N It suﬃces thus to pick n = v − u. there are not many such problems. j = i. we subtract 1 from each one and then divide by 2). . such that the sum of the numbers in each group is the same. . and some integers p1 . Of course. pk such that |nxi − pi | < ε for all i. p2 . Prove that all numbers are equal. We claim that if ε > 0 is small enough. a positive integer n. First of all. And here is how we can use this result in problems where it is more comfortable to work with integers. Now. But don’t kid yourself. Consider ε > 0. the corresponding p1 . if they are all rational. The one we are going to discuss has had a circuitous itinerary between world’s Olympiads: proposed for IMO long time ago. . . the problem for integers is very well-known and easy: it suﬃces to observe that in this case all numbers xi have the same parity and the use of inﬁnite descent solves the problem (either they are all even and in this case we divide each one by two and obtain a new set with smaller sum and the same properties.L. p2 . x2n+1 be positive real numbers with the property: for any 1 ≤ i ≤ 2n + 1 one can make two groups of n numbers by using xj .αi = s if and only if {qxi } ∈ Js . it appeared next at the W. . it suﬃces to multiply by their common denominator and apply the ﬁrst case.

x2 . is famous and deserves to be discussed because of its beauty and apparent simplicity. x2 .j |xi − xj | = 0 and the problem is i. Weil criterion. . Then aij pj = j=i j=i aij (nxj − pj ) ≤ 2nε. take some i and write the partition condition in the form aij nxj = 0 or j=i j=i aij (nxj − pj ) = − j=i aij pj (where of course aij ∈ {−1. 1}). pk j=i have the same property. But 2 > |nN | max |xi − xj |. .1]. pN such that |nN xi − pN | ≤ . ai ∈ [a. Thus if we choose ε < 1 . Since they are all integers. Let (an )n≥1 be a sequence of real numbers from the interval [0. . b]}| = b − a.j N solved. . due to Weil. . hence maxi. p2 . because of the ﬁrst case). . . it is not diﬃcult to prove that the sequence (nN )N >2n is unbounded. 1 n→∞ n lim n 1 f (ak ) = k=1 208 0 f (x)dx. x2n+1 . x2n+1 is irrational. Indeed. let us turn to more quantitative results about the set of fractional parts of natural multiples of diﬀerent real numbers. n n→∞ b) For any continuous function f : [0. Then the following statements are equivalent: a) For any real numbers 0 ≤ a ≤ b ≤ 1. Now. 1] → R. . lim |{i| 1 ≤ i ≤ n. Thus we have proved that for any 1 N > 2n there are integers nN .the same property as x1 . The following criterion. then 2n aij pj = 0 and so p1 . . . they must be equal (again. . N Because at least one of the numbers x1 . . .

a]. But then if we write 1 n n 1 f (ak ) − k=1 0 f (x)dx ≤ 1 n n 1 |f (ak ) − g(ak )| + k=1 1 0 |f (x) − g(x)|dx 1 + n n g(ak ) − k=1 0 g(x)dx and apply the result in b) for the function g. That is. First of all. this remains true for any piecewise function. b − (being aﬃne otherwise). k=1 In this case we will say that the sequence is equidistributed. we easily deduce that b) is true for any continuous function. b]}| 1 fk (aj ) ≤ ≤ n n 209 n gk (aj ). 1] and 1 on a + . ai ∈ [a. [b.1]. Next. b]). 1]. given ε > 0. Now. By linearity. b] with 0 < a < b < 1. The fact that b) implies c) is immediate.c) For any positive integer p ≥ 1. Let us consider the subinterval I = [a. Therefore 1 n n j=1 |{i| 1 ≤ i ≤ n. k k while gk has ”the same” properties but is greater than or equal to λI (the characteristic function of I = [a. j=1 . consider two sequences of continuous functions fk . containing yet all the necessary ingredients. 1 n→∞ n lim n e2iπpak = 0. gk such that fk 1 1 is zero on [0. More subtle is that b) implies a). we can ﬁnd a piecewise function g such that |g(x) − f (x)| < ε for all x ∈ [0. we observe that a) says precisely that b) is true for the characteristic function of any sub-interval of [0. there is a well-known and easy to verify property of continuous functions: they can be uniformly approximated with piecewise functions. We will present just a sketch of the solution.

1] → R satisfying f (0) = f (1) can be uniformly approximated by trigonometric polynomials (this is a really non-trivial result due to Weierstrass). one can easily see that b) is true for any continuous function. Finally. we need another deﬁnition: we say that the sequence 210 . it is immediate that for any ε > 0 we can ﬁnd two continuous functions g. The above inequalities show that actually for all suﬃciently large positive integer n |{i| 1 ≤ i ≤ n. a linearity argument allows us to assume that b) is true for any trigonometric polynomials of any degree. ai ∈ [a. we deduce that b) is true for continuous functions f for which f (0) = f (1). b]}| − b + a ≤ 2ε n and the conclusion follows. both having equal values at 0 and 1 and such that 1 |f (x) − g(x)| ≤ h(x) and 0 h(x)dx ≤ ε. h. let us prove that c) implies b). Using the same arguments as those used to prove that b) implies a). Of course. We invite the reader to ﬁnd an elementary proof in order to appreciate the power of Weil’s criterion. let us take ε > 0 and k suﬃciently large.But from the hypothesis. 1 n and 1 n n 1 n 1 fk (aj ) → j=1 0 fk (x)dx = b − a − 1 k gk (aj ) → j=1 0 1 gk (x)dx = b − a + . The ﬁrst problem that we discuss is in fact the most common result about equidistribution. 1] → R continuous. Now. Before presenting the second problem. k Now. The reader has already seen how to adapt this proof for the case a = 0 or b = 1. given f : [0. Because any continuous function f : [0.

again a reward: this is going to be equally easy (of course. . ap . Indeed. Well. a2 . . it suﬃces to prove that c) is veriﬁed. after so much work. But this is just a geometric series!!! A one-line computation shows that (∗) is trivially satisﬁed and thus we have the desired result. . Then the sequence (na)n≥1 is uniformly distributed mod 1. which reduces to proving that 1 lim n→∞ n n e2iπpka = 0 k=1 (∗) for all integers p ≥ 1.(an )n≥1 is uniformly distributed mod 1 if the sequence of fractional parts of an is equidistributed. ..). Let a be an irrational number. This can be rewritten in the form log 2007 + p > n log 2 ≥ log 2006 + p 2006 2007 > {n log 2} > log . . . . It’s probably time to solve the problem presented in the very beginning of this note: how to compute the density of those numbers n for which 2n begins with 2006 (for example).. Solution. . What is the density of the set of positive integers n for which 2n begins with 2006? Solution. . Indeed. . 9} such that 2n − 2006a1 a2 . 2n begins with 2006 if and only if there is a p ≥ 1 and some digits a1 . 1. 1000 1000 Thus the density of the desired set is exactly the density of the set of This implies [n log 2] = p + 3 hence log 211 . Example 6. ap ∈ {0. we deserve a reward: this is a simple consequence of Weil’s criterion. Example 5. So. Well. here is the classical example. the reader needs some rest before looking at some deeper results. which is clearly equivalent to the existence of p ≥ 1 such that 2007 · 10p > 2n ≥ 2006 · 10p .

This is the reason for which we present a proof of this theorem. the following inequality is true (with the convention that zi = 0 for any integer i not in {1. the last set has density log answer to our problem. We have seen a beautiful proof of the fact that if a is irrational. . . z2 . . Actually. The next two examples are two important theorems. Lemma. much more is true. This is not an Olympiad problem!!! But mathematics is not just Olympiad and from time to time (in fact. a diﬃcult proof that uses the ”well-known” but not easy to remember inequality of Van der Corput.positive integers n satisfying log 2007 2006 > {n log 2} > log . but this much more is also much more diﬃcult to prove. . n}. . then (na)n≥1 is uniformly distributed mod 1. . We will limit to give the main idea of the 212 . from a certain time on) one should try to discover what is behind such great results. . Example 7. Unbelievable. but true! Not to mention that the proof of this inequality is anything but easy. 2. 1000 1000 2007 and so this is the 2006 From example 5. . 2. n}): n 2 p−1 n−r n h 2 i=1 zi ≤ (n + h − 1) 2 r=1 (h − r)Re i=1 zi zi+r +h i=1 |zi |2 . . The ﬁrst is due to Van der Corput and shows how a brilliant combination of algebraic manipulations and Weil’s criterion can yield diﬃcult and nice results. zn and any h ∈ {1. . (Van der Corput) For any complex numbers z1 . Then the sequence (xn ) is also equidistributed. (Van der Corput) Let (xn ) be a sequence of real numbers such that the sequences (xn+p − xn )n≥1 are equidistributed for all p ≥ 1. . .

.. Of course. the idea is to prove that 1 n→∞ n lim n e2iπpxk = 0 for all p ≥ 1. we have: 1 n n 2 zj j=1 ≤ 1 n+h−1 · hn + 2 n2 h2 213 h−1 i=1 (h − i)Re n−i j=1 zj · zi+j .. the computations being very technical.. if they have the patience to expand i=1 j=0 zi−j and see that it is nothing else than p−1 n−r n 2 r=1 (p − r)Re i=1 zi zi+r +p i=1 |zi |2 . 1) (h may depend on ε). Also. we will now prove Van der Corput’s theorem. You would have never guessed: the Cauchy Schwarz inequality!!! The simple observation that n n+h−1 h−1 h i=1 zi = i=1 j=0 zi−j allows us to write (via Cauchy Schwarz’s inequality): n 2 n+h−1 h−1 2 h 2 i=1 zi ≤ (n + h − 1) i=1 j=0 zi−j . k=1 Fix such a p ≥ 1 and take for the moment a positive real number h and ε ∈ (0. denote zj = e2iπpxj . this is where the readers will get some satisfacn+p−1 p−1 2 tion. Using the lemma.proof. by using this lemma and Weil’s criterion. The idea behind this fundamental inequality is another fundamental one. And next ? Well.. Wishing them good luck with the computations.

Now. It is related to the equidistribution of the sequence ({f (n)})n≥1 where is a real polynomial having at least one irrational coeﬃcient except for the free term. . We will not prove this here. but focus on the following result. j=1 Using Weil’s criterion for the sequences (xn+i − xn ) for i = 1. but why not taking one more step once we are already here? Let us prove the following weaker (but as the reader will probably agree. This was surely the most diﬃcult result of this unit. . . j=1 Therefore 1 n n 2 zj j=1 1 n+h−1 hn + 2εn ≤ 2· n h2 h−1 (h − i) i=1 < 2(1 + ε) n+h−1 (1 + ε) < nh h 2(1 + ε) . j=1 This shows that Weil’s criterion is veriﬁed and thus (xn ) is equidistributed. absolutely nontrivial) version of famous theorem of Weil. 2. Now. we deduce ε2 for all suﬃciently large n. h − 1 we deduce that for all suﬃciently large n we have n−i e2iπp(xj −xi+j ) ≤ εn. by choosing h > that for all suﬃciently large n we have 1 n n zj ≤ ε. . let us regard n−i n−i j=1 e2iπp(xj −xi+j ) ≤ n−i Re j=1 zj · zi+j = Re e2iπp(xj −xi+j ) . 214 .

if the result holds for polynomials of degree at most k.q∈N p+q=n Putnam Competition √ 2. the sequence (f (n + p) − (f (n)) is equidistributed. then the conclusion is immediate (see example 5). Indeed. Indeed.Example 8. Prove that given any ε > 0 one can ﬁnd a positive integer n such that f (n2 x) < ε. The proof by induction ﬁnishes here. {1 − t}). Let x be an irrational number and let f (t) = min({t}. The reader has probably noticed that this is an immediate consequence of Van der Corput’s theorem (but just imagine the amount of work done to arrive at this conclusion!!!). (Weil) Let f be a polynomial with real coeﬃcients and irrational leading coeﬃcient. Tuymaada Olympiad 215 . Prove that by using diﬀerent terms of the sequence [n2 2006] one can construct geometric sequences of any length. Prove that the sequence consisting of the ﬁrst digit of 2n + 3n is not periodical. Iran 2004 4. Then the sequence ({f (n)})n≥1 is equidistributed. if f has degree 1. the proof by induction is immediate. it suﬃces (by Van der Corput’s theorem) to prove that for all positive integers p. Problems for training √ 1. Now. But this is exactly the induction hypothesis applied to the polynomial (whose leading coeﬃcient is clearly irrational) f (X + p) − f (X). n≥1 p. 3. Compute sup min |p − q 3|.

. Marian Tetiva 6. 2005 216 . After a romanian IMO TST problem 11. n2 . Prove that there exists n0 such that the ﬂea will be able to arrive in any interval [n. . Let f be a polynomial with integral coeﬃcients and let a be an irrational number. [nk 3] are both geometrical sequences. Then at least one of them is an integer. . Can all numbers f (k). Let a. 10. be in the set A = {[na]| n ≥ 1}? Is it true that any set of positive integers with positive density contains an inﬁnite arithmetical sequence? 9. It can only jump over distances equal to 2 and 2005. [nk 2] and [n1 3]. . . nk such that [n1 2]. . Prove that f (k) = 0 for k k=1 n≥1 all positive integers k. Suppose that A = {n1 . . k k=1 Gabriel Dospinescu 7. . Give a necessary and suﬃcient condition ensuring n |f (k)| the existence of a constant c > 0 such that > c ln n for all n. Prove that for every k one can ﬁnd distinct positive inte√ √ √ √ gers n1 . . [n2 2]. . Romanian Contest. Suppose that f is a real. A ﬂea moves in the positive direction of an axis.5. √ √ [n2 3]. . } is a set of positive integers such that the sequence (cos nk )k≥1 is convergent. starting from √ √ the origin. 2. and periodical function such n |f (k)| that the sequence is bounded. . . n + 1] for all n ≥ n0 . n2 . . Does the sequence sin(n2 ) + sin(n3 ) converge? Gabriel Dospinescu 8. Then prove that A has zero density. k = 1. continuous. . b be positive real numbers such that {na} + {nb} < 1 for all n. . . .

B = {[nb]| n ≥ 1}. . Putnam 13. zn be arbitrary complex numbers. . . Prove that the sets A = {[na]| n ≥ 1}. Let a. . |z2 |. 217 . b. . . c be positive real numbers. . |zn |}. Let z1 . z2 .12. C = {[nc]| n ≥ 1} cannot form a partition of the set of positive integers. . Prove that for any ε > 0 there are inﬁnitely many positive integers n such that ε+ k k k k |z1 + z2 + · · · + zn | < max{|z1 |.

THE SUM OF DIGITS OF A POSITIVE INTEGER Problems about the sum of digits of a positive integer often occur in mathematical contests because of their diﬃculty and the lack of standard ways to tackle the problem. Let x be this number. We have selected several representative problems to show how the main results and techniques work and why they are so important.. which can hardly be used in applications.. This is why a synthesis of the most frequent techniques that occur in such cases would be useful. as we will see in the following examples.. x+1. Also.. This can work surprisingly well. Obviously. We will work only in base 10 and we will denote the decimal sum of digits of the positive integer x by s(x). x. The easiest of these techniques is. just the careful analysis of the structure of the numbers and their digits. one can choose at least one whose sum of digits is a multiple of 13. Unfortunately.. there are exactly 4 multiples of 10. On the other hand.s(x) + 12 occur as sum of digits 218 .. results which may oﬀer simple ways to tackle hard problems. 1997 Solution. Prove that among any 79 consecutive numbers. Baltic. it is clear that the last but one digit of one of them is at least 6. x+39 are among our numbers. probably. The following ”formula” can be checked easily: s(n) = n − 9 k≥1 n 10k (1) From (1) we can easily deduce some well-known results about s(n) such as s(n) ≡ n( mod 9) and s(m + n) ≤ s(m) + s(n).. This is what we will discuss about in the following.. so s(x). 1. s(x) + 1. there are several more or less known results about sum of digits. Note that among the ﬁrst 40 numbers. (1) is a clumsy formula.

one of these numbers is a multiple of 13 and we are done... namely 21. so our numbers have the desired property. Obviously.. for k = 1. For N = 21. Tournament of Towns. s(N + i) = 2 + 9 + 1 + (i − 12) = i. s(N + i) = 2 + 9 + 0 + 9(11! − 1) + i − 2 = i + 11! while for 12 ≤ i ≤ 21. Find the greatest N such that one can ﬁnd N consecutive numbers with the property that the sum of digits of the k-th number is divisible by k. where N = 291 · 1011! − 12. In truth... which is impossible since they should all be even. N +2. The main idea is that among s(n + 2).. s(n + 12) and s(n + 22) there are two consecutive numbers. we have no solution. For i = 1 we have nothing to prove. So. we can choose N +1. which still do not require any special result or technique. Answer: 102005 − 9023. 2. but this situation can occur at most once in our case. How many positive integers n ≤ 102005 can be written as the sum of 2 positive integers with the same sum of digits? Adrian Zahariuc Solution. it might seem almost impossible to ﬁnd the exact number of positive integers with this property.in some of our numbers. . The answer here is not trivial at all. the following is true: a positive integer cannot be written as the sum of two numbers with the same sum of digits iﬀ all of its digits (eventually) excepting the ﬁrst are 9 and the sum of its digits is odd. 3. For 2 ≤ i ≤ 11. 219 . we make transports at a + 10 only when the last but one digit of a is 9. In fact. for N > 21.. At ﬁrst glance. We will continue with two harder problems. 2000 Solution. 2. N . N + 21.

For i = 1. The main fact is that when we add a + b = n..ak . Let c be the value of this digit and p its position (from right to left)..Bk 220 . so s(a) + s(n − a) = 9 + s(n) ≡ 0(mod2) ⇒ s(a) ≡ s(n − a)(mod2) which proves our claim.Ak .bk The lemma shows that the number of elements of the set I = {i ∈ {1.. k deﬁne Ai = (ai + bi )/2 if i ∈ I... B = B1 B2 . It follows that s(n) = s(a) + s(b) = 2s(a). Proof. can be written as the sum of 2 positive integers with the same sum of digits. k} : 2 does not divide ai + bi } is even.. otherwise it would have one of the forbidden forms. At the adding a + (n − a) = n there is exactly one transport. (ai + bi + 1)/2 if i ∈ I1 or (ai + bi − 1)/2 if i ∈ I2 and Bi = ai + bi − Ai . There is a ≤ n such that s(a) ≡ s(n − a)(mod2).. So. All we have to do now is take one-byone a ”unity” from a number and give it to the other until the 2 numbers have the same sum of digits. which is impossible since s(n) is odd. We will start with the following: Lemma. there are no transports. This will happen since they have the same parity... 2. say I1 and I2 . 2. . Let a = a1 a2 . Now we will prove that any number n which is not one of the numbers stated above. Then let us chose a = 10p−1 (c+1).. If the s(n) is even. b ∈ Z+ such that n = a + b and s(a) = s(b).. so it can be divided into 2 sets with the same number of elements.Let n be such a number. then n must have a digit which is not the ﬁrst and is not equal to 9. n − a = b1 b2 .. This is clear enough. Suppose there are a. If s(n) is odd.. let us do this rigorously. Back to the original problem. . take a = 0. It is clear that the numbers A = A1 A2 .

99 2 = 99. we can take a = b = 10k − 1 and we are done since s(10k − 1) = s(2 · 10k − 2) = 9k.have the property that s(A) = s(B) and A + B = n. What does sum of digits has to do with perfect squares? Apparently..99 2 ) = 9n n n−1 n−1 n 99. nothing. Find all n for which one can ﬁnd a and b such that s(a) = s(b) = s(a + b) = n.00 81 ⇒ s(99. so 9 divides n. 5. If n = 9k.. We have previously seen that s(n) ≡ n( mod 9).00 1 ⇒ s(99.99 12 ) = 9n + 1 n−1 n−2 n−2 221 n−1 . but perfect squares do have something to do with remainders mod 9! In fact... 1.. JBMO TST. we will use a small and very common (but worth to remember!) trick: use numbers that consist almost only of 9-s. We have a ≡ b ≡ a + b ≡ n(mod9)..99 82 00. So.99 12 = 99. We have the following identities: 99. The proof is complete. Some immediate applications are the following: 4. Iberoamerican. 4 and 7. Find all the possible values of the sum of digits of a perfect square.99 8 00. This is probably the most famous property of the function s and it has a series of remarkable applications. Sometimes it is combined with some simple inequalities such as s(n) ≤ 9( lg n + 1). 2002 Solution.. 1995 Solution... it is very easy to prove that the only possible values of a perfect square mod 9 are 0.... 1. To prove that all such numbers work... Vasile Zidaru and Mircea Lascu. 4 or 7 mod 9. we deduce that the sum of digits of a perfect square must be congruent to 0..

. This is obviously a contradiction. 000..99 88 00. for n ≥ 2.. Using the inequality s(n) ≤ 9( lg n + 1) several times we have s(44444444 ) ≤ 9( lg 44444444 + 1) < 9 · 20. s(1) = 1.. IMO 1975 Solution. in Kvant. 7.. It follows that n 1481 ≡ 7(mod9). On the other hand. Compute s(s(s(44444444 ))). 000 = 180. so s(3n+1 ) − s(3n ) ≥ 9. If so far we have studied some remarkable properties of the function s. But. it is time to present some problems and 222 .00 36 ⇒ s(99.99 22 = 99. s(s(44444444 )) ≤ 9( lg s(44444444 ) + 1) ≤ 9(lg 180. s(3n+1 ) − s(3n ) ≡ 0(mod9).. 000 + 1) ≤ 36. Solution. for all n ≥ N + 1. ∀n ≥ N .99. Suppose by way of contradiction that there is one N such that s(3n+1 ) − s(3n ) > 0. 6..99 84 00. which were quite well-known. Finally..99 22 ) = 9n + 4 n−1 2 n−2 n−2 n−1 99. Prove that for any N there is n ≥ N such that s(3n ) ≥ s(3n+1 )..00 64 ⇒ s(99. later. so 9n − 9N ≤ 9 + 9(n + 1) lg 3. we present a beautiful problem which appeared in the Russian Olympiad and. s(s(s(n))) ≡ s(s(n)) ≡ s(n) ≡ n(mod9) and since 44444444 ≡ 74444 = 7 · 73 the only possible answer is 7.. s(4) = 4 and s(25) = 7 the proof is complete. 3k+1 − 3k ≥ 9(n − N ) ⇒ s(3n+1 ) ≥ 9(n − N ).. k=N +1 But s(3n+1 ) ≤ 9( lg 3n+1 + 1).. so s(s(s(44444444 ))) ≤ 12. ∀n ≥ N .99 42 ) = 9n + 7 n−1 n−2 n−2 n−1 and since s(0) = 0..99 4 = 99. n ≥ N + 1..

we 223 .results which are less familiar. The previous result is by no means hard.99(9 − a1 ). Prove that for any n there is a positive integer n which is divisible by its sum of digits.99 N ) = 9 · 2n ... The idea is very simple. but interesting and hard. · 99.(9 − aj )(10 − aj ). IMO Shortlist.. First.. The ﬁrst result is the following: Statement... then s(x(10n − 1)) = 9n.. We have N = 9 · 99 · 999 · . If 1 ≤ x ≤ 10n . there are very hard applications of this apparently unimportant result.aj with aj = 0 (we can ignore the ﬁnal 0-s of x) and note that x(10n − 1) = a1 a2 . Proof. but we will see that it can be the key in many situations...aj−1 (aj − 1) 99. such as the following problem. 2n USAMO. 2n However. let’s solve it. n−j which obviously has the sum of digits equal to 9n.. such numbers are called Niven numbers and they are an important research source in number theory.. The problem in trivial if we know the previous result.+2 2n−1 n−1 < 102 − 1 n so s(99. Now.. · 99.99 < 101+2+. We will see that constructing such a number is hard.. Only to assure our readers that this problem did not appear on the ISL out of nowhere.99)... All we have to do is write x = a1 a2 .. 9... 1998 Solution. 1992 Solution. A ﬁrst application is: 8.. Compute s(9 · 99 · 999 · ..

. In this way..11 has sum of digits at least k. 2·3k We continue our investigations in ﬁnding suitable techniques for problems involving sum of digits with a very beautiful result. This number will have s s k s + t + 1 digits and its sum of digits will be 9t...aa b ≤ 10t − 1.. we have s(N ) = s(M ) < k and if ak+1 = 9...11 (it n can be easily proved by induction that 3k+2 |103 − 1). 2.. Take the number N = M − 10p−k a. We now use the fact that s for t a power of 3... The following result turned out to have several consequences. 9t|10t − 1. k Proof. N is a multiple of a. So M ≥ 10a > 10k . Due to the trick that we should search numbers with many equal digits and the last result. If we also take in account the condition aa.. But this is not hard at all since if ak+1 < 9.. So...11. with aa..11 2(103 − 1) when n ≤ 2 · 3k s n−3k −1 k 22. Note that s(ia) = ik k for i = 1.aa b ≤ 10t − 1.. we decide that the required number p should be aa.. . Therefore. with p ≥ k + 1 and ap = 0... Therefore. where a = 11.will get rid of the case n = 3k . when we can take the number 11. most of them being very hard. we have s(N ) < s(M ) < k. Any multiple of 11..22(102·3 k and p = − 1) otherwise becomes natural. Statement.aa b · (10t − 1).. we would contradict the minimality of M and the proof would be complete. Obviously. Suppose by way of contradiction that the statement is false and take M to be the smallest multiple of a such that s(M ) < k.aa b · (10t − 1). We will try to prove that s(N ) < k.. the choice p = 11.ap . 9. let us take t = 3k where k is chosen such that 3k < n < 3k+1 . 224 . We will use the extremal principle. M = a1 a2 . we will require s + t = n − 1 and 9t| aa..

we will present a hard. But. whose multiples have sum of digits greater than 1988. 11. 1988 Solution. Let S be the set of positive integers whose decimal representation contains only of at most 1988 1-s and the rest 0-s. Prove that there is a positive integer which does not divide any member of S. 1999 Solution. the solution follows directly from our result. Now. but which might be unsolvable without it. IMO Shortlist. from which our conclusion follows . Let us remind that this is the last problem of ISL 1999. 10. 12. Prove that for any k > 0. Again. such that all its members have the sum of digits greater than k. as a ﬁnal proof of the utility of these two results. 13. there is an inﬁnite arithmetical sequence having the ratio relatively prime to 10. so the hardest. we have lim s(n!) =∞ lnk ln n Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. Tournament of Towns.We will show 3 applications of this fact. The oﬃcial solution is indeed one for such a problem. which might seem simple. we have that s(n!) ≥ lg n . Due to the simple fact that 10 easily. where m > k and we are done. Denote by f (n) the smallest k for which one can ﬁnd a set X ⊂ Z+ of cardinality n with the property 225 lg n n→∞ − 1 ≤ n ⇒ 10 lg n − 1|n!. due to our ”theorem” we can chose the sequence an = n(10m − 1). but beautiful. Prove that for every k. Let n be a ﬁxed positive integer. We can choose the number 101989 − 1. problem from the USAMO.

2 which is enough to establish our claim. If one of then is a multiple of m... We will use the following well-known Lemma. a2 . Let l be the smallest integer such that 10l − 1 ≥ n(n + 1) . Then. By the previous inequality and our ﬁrst statement.. a1 + a2 . whose sum of elements is divisible by 10m − 1. so f (n) ≤ 9l and the RHS is proved.. Any set M = {a1 . Proof. Gabriel Dospinescu and Titu Andreescu. say the i-th and the j-th.. a1 + a2 + . m|ai+1 +ai+2 +. Consider the sums a1 . it follows that any set X with n elements has a subset. them we are done.. 2 Consider the set X = {j(10l −1) : 1 ≤ j ≤ n}.that s x∈Y x =k for all nonempty subsets Y of X. + am . Let m be the largest integer such that n ≥ 10m − 1.. am } has a nonempty subset whose sum of elements is divisible by m. From the lemma. USAMO 2005 Solution. it follows that s x∈Y x = 9l for all nonempty subsets Y of X. We will prove that lg(n + 1) ≤ f (n) ≤ 9 lg n(n + 1) +1 ... Otherwise. Prove that C1 lg n < f (n) < C2 lg n for some constants C1 and C2 . . say Y .. there are 2 of them congruent mod m.+aj so we are done.. By our 226 .

b}. If (max{a. there is a nk such that 10k ≤ ank ≤ 10k + a − 1. Adrian Zahariuc and Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. Analogously. It follows that s(ank ) is bounded. a a so. It follows that m|m and m |m. and which uses diﬀerent techniques than the ones we have mentioned so far. Let us solve now the harder problem. we can write the hypothesis as s(2z 5u mn2c−x 5c−y ) = s(2x 5y mn2c−x 5c−y ) = s(mn). it follows that s x∈Y x ≥ m ⇒ f (n) ≥ m. it follows that an = bn. For any k ≥ 1. Let a. This means the the sum of the ﬁrst p digits of b/a is bounded.second statement. for suﬃciently large p. We start with an observation. so a = b. ∀c ≥ max{x. y} 227 . which could only happen when this fraction has ﬁnitely many decimals. Suppose a = max{a. where (m. Prove that lg a − lg b ∈ Z. Let a = 2x 5y m and b = 2z 5t m . 10) = 1. 10k b b ≤ bnk < 10k + b. The last solved problem is one we consider to be very hard. we can prove the same result about a/b. a|10ϕ(a) − 1. so m = m . the ﬁrst (nonzero) digits of b/a are exactly the same as the ﬁrst p digits of bnk for large enough k. 10)=1. by Euler’s theorem. Then. and the proof is complete. so there is an n such that an = 10ϕ(a) − 1 and since numbers consisting only of 9-s have the sum of digits greater than all previous numbers. Now. 10) = (m . b}. so s(bnk ) is bounded as well. 14. b ∈ Z+ such that s(an) = s(bn) for all n ∈ Z+ . then the problem becomes trivial. On the other hand.

we will use the following: Lemma. so lg t ∈ R − Q unless p = 0. Proof. u + c − y}.. if p = max{z + c − x. Let t = ap . USSR. The techniques are useful only when they are applied creatively.. Prove that among any 18 consecutive 2-digit numbers there is at least one Niven number. 1961 2. If lg t ∈ R − Q.Now. 5} such that s(mn) = s(mk p n) for all n ∈ Z+ . then we are done. So p = 0 and hence z + c − x = u + c − y. so the proof is complete. 228 . If we will prove that {{lg tn m} : n ∈ Z+ } is dense in (0. The lemma implies the very important result that s(tn m) is unbounded for p = 0. This problem can be nicely extended to any base. Prove that among any 39 there is one whose sum of digits is divisible by 11. 1). then for any sequence of digits. such that tn m starts with the selected sequence of digits. although there are some very important diﬀerences. u + c − y} − min{z + c − x. The upmetioned methods are just a point to start from in solving such problems since the variety of problems involving sum of digits is very large. we invite our readers to solve this proposed problems: Proposed Problems 1. But lg tn m = n lg t + m and by Kronecker’s theorem {{n lg t} : n ∈ Z+ } is dense in (0. Now. so a = 10x−z b and the proof is complete. It follows that s(m) = s(k p m) = s(k 2p m) = s(k 3p m) = . there is a n ∈ Z+ . which is a contradiction. 1). we get that there is a k ∈ {2. Finally. The proof of the general case is quite similar.

such that s(n) = s(mn). and calculate its sum of digits. = s(x2 ). *** 229 . *** 10. Find all x such that s(x) = s(2x) = s(3x) = .. diﬀerent form 6 (which is equal to the sum of its divisors. 000 and s(n2 ) = 1. Kurschak. 000. Prove that for any positive integer n there are inﬁnitely many numbers m which do not contain any zero. Prove that n→∞ lim s(2n ) = ∞. Are there p ∈ Z[X] such that n→∞ lim s(p(n)) = ∞? *** 9. Prove that we will eventually get 1. we calculate the sum of digits of the new number and so on. 1989 6. USSR. Are there positive integers n such that s(n) = 1. We start with a perfect number. except itself). Prove that there are arbitrarily long sequences of consecutive numbers which do not contain any Niven number. 1985 4. Then. 000? USSR. 1997 3.Tournament of Towns. Training. 1970 5. *** 8. Are there arbitrarily long arithmetical sequences whose terms have the same sum of digits? What about inﬁnite aritmetical sequences? *** 7..

= n50 + s(n50 ) Poland. Prove that one can ﬁnd n1 < n2 < . Find a Niven number with 100 digits. Long 17. we have 1 1 1 + + . A number m is called special if there is a k such that f (k) = m. Deﬁne f (n) = n + s(n).2 by 3? Laurentiu Panaitopol 14. We now that there is one M ∈ Z such that the numbers an + b and cn + d have the same sum of digits for any n > M and base between 2 and a − 1. Prove that for any n. = n50 − n49 . c and d are primes such that 2 < a ≤ c and a = b. Let (an )n≥1 be a sequence such that s(an ) ≥ n. Gabriel Dospinescu 12.. Study whether we can choose the numbers in the previous problem such that n2 − n1 = n3 − n2 = ... b. + < 3. 1990 230 . Prove that there are inﬁnitely many x ∈ Z+ such that s(x) + s(x2 ) = s(x3 ). Prove that there are inﬁnitely many special numbers 10n + b iﬀ b − 1 is special..... Gabriel Dospinescu 16.11. Prove that a = c and b = d. Christopher D. 1999 15.. a.2 a1 a2 an Can we replace 3. Sankt Petersburg. < n50 such that n1 + s(n1 ) = n2 + s(n2 ) = . Gabriel Dospinescu 13.

there is a number n ∈ Z+ such that αn ∈ S. Find the smallest positive integer which can be expressed at the same time as the sum of 2002 numbers with the same sum of digits and as the sum of 2003 numbers with the same sum of digits. Gabriel Dospinescu 20. Are there 19 positive integers with the same sum of digits. Mihai Manea. 2002 25. Let S be a set such that for any α ∈ R−Q. Let a be a positive integer such that s(an + n) = 1 + s(n) for any n > M . Let a. which add up to 1999? Rusia. Rusia. Prove that n≥1 10 s(n) = ln 10. Prove that the sequence s( an + b ) contains a constant subsequence. Let k ∈ Z+ . Rusia. 2002 23.18. Prove that a is a power of 10. Shallit 231 . 1999 22. ﬁnd s(3n). 1999 24. Laurentiu Panaitopol. If s(n) = 100 and s(44n) = 800. n(n + 1) 9 O. 2003 21. b > 0. Gabriel Dospinescu 19. Romanian IMO TST. Prove that S contains numbers with arbitrarily large sum of digits. Prove that there is a positive integer m such that the equation n + s(n) = m has exactly k solutions. Romanian IMO TST. where M is given.

namely 2.. Prove that for any n. . 2.. Let a. 5. we have n→∞ lim s(an ) = ∞ (proved only for a couple of values.. 8). For any a > 1. 4. 4. b ∈ Z+ such that s(an ) = s(bn ) for all n ∈ Z+ . n}. Prove that n→∞ lim lg a − lg b ∈ Z. Is it true that s(2n ) = ∞? n→∞ ln n lim 232 .Open Questions 1. 2. Is it true that s(n!) = ∞? n ln ln n 3. 6. b ∈ Z such that lg a − lg b ∈ Z / with the property that s(ak ) = s(bk ) for any k ∈ {1. there are a.

Their elementary solutions are very tricky and sometimes extremely difﬁcult. Solution. As usual. Example 1. (bn )n≥1 of integer numbers r(an ) and a positive integer N such that bn = N (we could have some f (an ) 233 . We will develop our skills in ”hunting” these sequences by solving ﬁrst some easy problems (anyway. Prove that f divides g in Q[X]. The diﬃculty is in ﬁnding those sequences. Practically. which has lots of applications and extensions. ”quickly” only if you see the sequence that hides after each problem. we begin with a classic beautiful problem. r. of course. ”easy” is a relative concept: try to solve them elementary and you will see if they really are easy) and after that we will attack the chestnuts. Now.ANALYSIS AGAINST NUMBER THEORY? ”Olympiad problems can be solved without the aid of analysis or linear algebra” is a sentence always heard when speaking about the elementary problems given in contests. g ∈ Z[X] be two non-constant polynomials such that f (n)|g(n) for an inﬁnite natural numbers n. were h. the hypothesis becomes: there exists two inﬁnite sequences (an )n≥1 . Sometimes. multiplying by the common denominator of all coeﬃcients of polynomials h. but most of the time this is a very diﬃcult task. Let f. This is true. but the true nature and essence of some of these problems is in analysis and this is the reason for which such type of problems are always the highlight of a contest. we need to look at the remainder of g when divided with f in Q[X]! Let us write g = f h + r. while using analysis they can be solved quickly. this is easy. r are polynomials from Q[X] and deg r < deg f . These sequences must become constant and from here the problem is much easier. Indeed. our aim is to exhibit convergent sequences formed by integer numbers. Well.

k > 1 is a natural number and k f (n) ∈ Q for all natural numbers n. Let a = 0. Thus. The easiest way is to work with (xn+1 − xn )n≥1 . Well. A simple induction shows that xn = xM + (n − M )x and so (xM − M x + nx)2 = x2 n2 + bn + c for 234 . Solution. In fact. this is the same as r(an ) = 0 from a certain point n0 . √ we can ﬁnd a number M such that if n ≥ M then xn+1 = xn + a. the sequence is formed by integer numbers. an is not a r(an ) root of f ). which is practically the same thing with r = 0 (don’t forget that any non-zero polynomial has only a ﬁnite number of roots!). This implies that from a certain point. the number an2 + bn + c is a perfect square. Since deg r < deg f . it converges. b = 2xy. all the terms of these sequence are 0. then there exists a polynomial g ∈ Q[X] such that f (x) = g k (x). b. let us say a = x2 . Prove that there exist x. but it’s not a sequence of integers. Example 2. Thus. We could expect that xn −n a converges. but we need another sequence. And yes. we used this to establish the convergence of (xn+1 − xn )n≥1 ). c = y 2 . But in this moment the problem is solved. The next problem we are going to discuss is a particular case of a much more general and classical result: if f is a polynomial with integer coeﬃcients. so the convergence is useless. since √ this sequence certainly converges to a (the reader has already noticed √ why it wasn’t useless to ﬁnd that xn −n a is convergent. but they are in ﬁnite number and the sequence (an )n≥1 tends to inﬁnity. so it is constant from a certain point. a must be a perfect square. Let us begin by writing an2 + bn + c = x2 for a certain n √ sequence of nonnegative integers (xn )n≥1 . We won’t discuss here this general result (the reader will ﬁnd a proof in the chapter about arithmetic properties of polynomials). so from a certain point. thus (bn )n≥1 f (an ) is a sequence of integer numbers that tends to 0.problems with the roots of f . it’s not that useless. it follows that → 0. c be integers such that for any natural number n. y ∈ Z such that a = x2 . This time.

Let a. but it really doesn’t seem to be related with mathematical analysis. as we will see. So. Being a sequence of integer numbers. it must become constant. From where could we ﬁnd xn+1 −xn ? Certainly. What could be the convergent sequence here? We see that (xn )n≥1 is appreciatively kn for a certain constant k. this is immediate. let us supaxn + bxn xn+1 + bxn+1 a pose that a > b and let us write = c in the form axn + bxn b a b 1+ a xn+1 1+ axn+1 −xn xn = c. it is closely related to the concept of convergence. by writing that axn+1 +bxn+1 = 2cn+1 axn+1 + bxn+1 and after that considering the value = c. so there exist M such that for all n ≥ M we have 235 . Now.all n ≥ M . b. from where it is easy to see that axn+1 −xn converges to c. we could expect that the sequence (xn+1 − xn )n≥1 converges. Prove that a = b. Thus. c > 1 be positive integers such that for any positive integer n there exists a positive integer k such that ak +bk = 2cn . Why is it so easy? It would be easy if we could show that xn → ∞. since 2axn > 2cn ⇒ xn > n loga c. In fact. The following problem is based on the same idea. we found that axn+1 −xn converges. Laurentiu Panaitopol Solution. A simple identiﬁcation of coeﬃcients ﬁnishes the solution. Fortunately. What does the problem say in fact? That we can ﬁnd a sequence of positive integers (xn )n≥1 such that axn +bxn = 2cn . Let us see if this is true or not. since we can take y = xM − M x. Example 3.

our assumption was wrong and we must have a ≤ b. let us assume that there exists a number M such that for all n ≥ M the numbers n and [a1 n] + [a2 n] + · · · + [ak n] are not relatively prime. what are the most eﬃcient numbers n to be used? Yes. Another easy example is the following problem. This is obvious. According to our assumption. attention must be paid to details! Example 4. since a > b. Now. . This suggests us to consider the sequence of prime numbers (pn )n≥1 . they are the prime numbers. Of course. Arhimede Magazine Solution. Due to symmetry in a and b. Prove that there exits inﬁnitely many natural numbers n such that n and [a1 n] + [a2 n] + · · · + [ak n] are relatively prime. This means that for all n ≥ M we also have 1+ b a b 1+ a xn+1 xn = 1. But this is impossible. . we conclude that a = b. you have already guessed what is the convergent sequence! Yes. in which ﬁnding the right convergent sequence of integers in not diﬃcult at all. the solution of such a problem is better to be indirect. . there is a number N such that if n ≥ N then pn ≥ M . And now. [a1 pn ] + [a2 pn ] + · · · + [ak pn ] since tends to n ≥ N a1 + a2 + · · · + ak . pn 236 . it is (xn )n≥N . Since this sequence is inﬁnite. since if n is prime and it is not relatively prime with . this implies that for all n ≥ N there exist a natural number xn such that [a1 pn ] + [a2 pn ] + · · · + [ak pn ] = xn pn . . then it must divide [a1 n] + [a2 n] + · · · + [ak n]. a2 . So.axn+1 −xn = c. [a1 n] + [a2 n] + · · · + [ak n]. Let a1 . Gabriel Dospinescu. ak be positive real numbers such that at least one of them is not an integer. But. Thus.

it’s time to solve some more diﬃcult problems. xn = √ a · 2n + b. Of course. we were wrong again and the problem statement is right! Step by step. we argue by contradiction. we start to have some experience in ”guessing” the sequences. Suppose that a = 0.Thus. a direct computation shows that lim (2xn − xn+2 ) = n→∞ 0. b ∈ Z such that for all natural numbers n the number a · 2n + b is a perfect square. Example 6. Poland TST Solution. . Then. which is impossible for a = 0. that our assumption was wrong and indeed a = 0. Suppose that f is a polynomial with integer coeﬃcients and (an ) is a strictly increasing sequence of natural numbers such that 237 . otherwise for large values of n the number a·2n +b is negative. Well. but very hard to ﬁnd. Thus. Example 5. Again. a > 0. Then. Let a. which contradicts the hypothesis. This shows. it’s just that type of problem whose solution is very short. is inﬁnite. k. This implies the existence of a natural number N such that for all n ≥ P we have 2xn = xn+2 . the set of prime numbers dividing at least one of the numbers f (1). the conclusion is immediate: ai ∈ Z for all i = 1. But this is the same as {a1 pn } + {a2 pn } + · · · + {ak pn } = 0. . . we can ﬁnd a number P such that for xn = a1 + a2 + · · · + ak for all n ≥ P . f (2). A classical result of Schur states that for any non-constant polynomial f with integer coeﬃcients. as usually. The following problem is a generalization of this result. According to the hypothesis. there exists a sequence of positive integers (xn )n≥1 such that for all natural numbers n. a and 2a are both perfect squares. this says that ai pn ∈ Z for all i = 1. f (3). of course. Consequently. Prove that a = 0. But 2xn = xn+2 is equivalent with b = 0. In fact. The next problem we are going to discuss may seem obvious after reading the solution. Then. k and n ≥ P .

.. . pkαN N < ∞. The same idea is employed in the following problem.an ≤ f (n) for all n..α2 .. b − 1 when written in base b. b ≥ 2 be natural numbers.. (f (n))k Thus. Solution. pr such that any term of the sequence is of the form pkα1 . . (f (n))k n≥1 n≥1 which is clearly impossible.αN ∈Z+ N j=1 i≥0 pkα1 . . 1. . we also have 1 ≥ ak n 1 = ∞. pr and any k > 0.α2 . On the other hand. we can ﬁnd p1 . Adapted after a Putnam problem 238 . . it suﬃces to remark that we have actually 1 α1 . Then the set of prime numbers dividing at least one term of the sequence is inﬁnite.αN ∈Z+ n≥1 pkα1 1 . . pkαN N < ∞..α2 . pkαN 1 N pk 1 j = .. ki k−1 pj p j=1 j n On the other hand. we have 1 α1 . .. if the conclusion of the problem is not true. . pkαN and thus 1 N 1 ≤ ak n 1 α1 . . Prove that there is a multiple of a which contains all digits 0. . .. p2 . .. The idea is very nice: for any ﬁnite set of prime numbers p1 . . . p2 . . . . by taking k = 1 we clearly have 2 deg(f ) n≥1 1 = ∞. Example 7. ..αN ∈Z+ pkα1 1 . . Indeed. . Let a..

Solution. trying to ﬁnd the right convergent sequence. for large values of x. we xn+k will show that converges to 2. all diﬀerent from j. We return to classical problems to discuss a beautiful problem. f (x) behaves like xk . there are at most (b − 1)n numbers which have n digits in base b. that appeared in the Tournament of the Towns in 1982. = n a good possibly convergent sequence could be xn+k − 2xn . the problem states that there exists a sequence of positive integers (xn )n≥1 such that f (xn ) = 2n . since each one of them is at least equal to bn−1 . in a Russian Team Selection Test in 1997 and also in the Bulgarian Olympiad in 2003. Let’s suppose the contrary. that is for large n. Then any multiple of a misses at least a digit when written in base b. Now. Let us suppose that deg f = k > 1. The conclusion b n follows. So. It’s beauty explains probably the preference for this problem. Then. it suﬃces to prove it for a ﬁxed (but arbitrary) digit j. the hard part: proving that this sequence is indeed convergent. This is easy. Then. Let f ∈ Z[X] be a polynomial with leading coeﬃcient 1 such that for any natural number n the equation f (x) = 2n has at least one natural solution. So. But of course. it suﬃces to show 2 3 that the sum of inverses of all natural numbers missing at least one digit in base b is convergent and we will reach a contradiction. Prove that deg f = 1. For any n ≥ 1. Example 8. First. we could try ﬁrst to ”think n big”: we have xk ∼ 2n . xn behaves like 2 k . Thus.Solution. the sum of inverses of numbers that miss the digit j when written in base b−1 n b is at most equal to b . since the relation xn 239 . which converges. Since the sum of inverses of all 1 1 multiples of a diverges (because 1 + + + · · · = ∞).

f (xn+k ) = 2k f (xn ) implies f (xn+k ) xk n+k and since f (x) = 1 and lim xn = ∞ x→∞ xk n→∞ (do you see why?), we ﬁnd that indeed lim xn+k = 2. n→∞ xn lim We will see that this will help us a lot. Indeed, let us write

k−1

xn+k xn

k

= 2k ·

f (xn ) xk n

f (x) = xk +

i=0

ai xi .

**Then f (xn+k ) = 2k f (xn ) can be also written
**

k−1

ai (2k xi − xi ) n n+k xn+k − 2xn =

i=0 k−1 k−i−1 (2xn )i xn+k i=0

xn+k = 2. it follows that the right-hand But from the fact that lim n→∞ xn side in the above relation is also convergent. So, (xn+k − 2xn )n≥1 is convergent and it follows that there exist M, N such that for all n ≥ M we have xn+k = 2xn +N . But now the problem is almost done, since the last result combined with f (xn+k ) = 2k f (xn ) yields f (2xn + N ) = 2k f (xn ) for n ≥ M , that is f (2x + N ) = 2k f (x). So, an arithmetical property of the polynomial turned into an algebraic one using analysis. This algebraic property helps us to immediately solve the problem. Indeed, we see that if z is a complex root of f , then 2z + N, 4z + 3N, 8z + 7N, . . . are all roots of f . Since f is non-zero, this sequence must be ﬁnite and this can happen only for z = −N . Since −N is the only root of f , we deduce that f (x) = (x + N )k . But since the equation f (x) = 22k+1 has

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natural roots, we ﬁnd that 2 k ∈ N , which implies, contradiction. Thus, our assumption was wrong and deg f = 1. The idea of the following problem is so beautiful, that after reading the solution the reader will have the impression that the problem is trivial. Wrong! The problem is really diﬃcult and to make again an experiment, we will ask the reader to struggle a lot before reading the solution. He will see the diﬃculty. Example 9. Let π(n) be the number of prime numbers smaller than or equal to n. Prove that there exist inﬁnitely many numbers n such that π(n)|n. AMM Solution. First, let us prove the following result, which is the key of the problem. Lemma. For any increasing sequence of positive integers (an )n≥1 an n such that lim = 0, the sequence contains all natural numn→∞ n an n≥1 bers. In particular, for inﬁnitely many n we have that n divides an . Proof. Even if it seems unbelievable, this is true and moreover the proof is extremely short. Let m ≥ 1 be a natural number. Consider the amn 1 set A = n ≥ 1| ≥ . This set contains and it is bounded, since mn m amk 1 amn = 0. Thus it has a maximal element k. If = , then lim n→∞ mn mk m n m is in the sequence . Otherwise, we have am(k+1) ≥ amk ≥ an n≥1 k + 1, which shows that k + 1 is also in the set, contradiction with the maximality of k. The lemma is proved. π(n) = 0. Fortunately, this is n→∞ n well-known and not diﬃcult to prove. There are easier proofs than the Thus, all we need to show is that lim following one, but we prefer to deduce it from a famous and beautiful result of Erdos.

241

1

**Erdos’s theorem. We have
**

p≤n p prime

p ≤ 4n .

The proof of this result is magniﬁcient. The proof is by induction. For small values of n it is clear. Now, assume the inequality true for all values smaller than n and let us prove that

p≤n p prime

p ≤ 4n . If nis even,

**we have nothing to prove, since =
**

p≤n p prime p≤n−1 p prime

p ≤ 4n−1 < 4n .

Now, assume that n = 2k + 1 and consider the binomial coeﬃcient 2k + 1 k = (k + 2) . . . (2k + 1) . k!

**A simple application of the fact that 22k+1 =
**

i≥0

2k + 1 i

shows that 2k + 1 k ≤ 4k .

**Thus, using the inductive hypothesis, we ﬁnd that p≤
**

p≤n p prime p≤k+1 p prime

p

k+2≤p≤2k+1 p prime

p ≤ 4k+1 · 4k = 4n .

π(n) = 0 is trivial. Indeed, ﬁx k ≥ 1. We n→∞ n have for all large n the inequality Now, the fact that lim n lg 4 ≥

k≤p≤n p prime

lg p ≥ lg k(π(n) − π(k)),

**which shows that π(n) ≤ π(k) lg 4 + . n lg k
**

242

π(n) = 0. The problem is solved. n It is time now for the last problem, which is, as usual, very hard. We This shows of course that lim

n→∞

don’t exaggerate if we say that the following problem is exceptionally diﬃcult. Example 10. Let a, b > 1 be natural numbers such that for any natural number n, an − 1|bn − 1. Prove that b is a natural power of a. Marius Cavachi, AMM Solution. This time we will be able to ﬁnd the right convergent sequence only after some double recurrences. Let us see. So, initially we are given that there exists a sequence of positive integers (x1 )n≥1 n n b n 1 = b − 1 Then, x1 ∼ for large values of n. So, we such that xn n = an − 1 a could expect that the sequence (x2 )n≥1 , x2 = bx1 − ax2 is convergent. n n n n+1 Unfortunately, x2 = n bn+1 (a − 1) − an+1 (b − 1) + a − b , (an − 1)(an+1 − 1)

which is not necessarily convergent. But... if we look again at this b n sequence, we see that for large values of n it grows like , so a2 much slower. And this is the good idea: repeat this procedure until n b the ﬁnal sequence behaves like , where k is chosen such that ak+1 ak ≤ b < ak+1 . Thus, the ﬁnal sequence will converge to 0. Again, the hard part has just begun, since we have to prove that if we deﬁne

k+1 = 0. This isn’t easy at all. The idea xi+1 = bxi − ai xi n n n+1 then lim xn n→∞

is to compute x3 and after that to prove the following statement: for n any i ≥ 1 the sequence (xi )n≥1 has the form n ci bn + ci−1 a(i−1)n + · · · + c1 an + c0 (an+i−1 − 1)(an+i−2 − 1) . . . (an − 1) for some constants c0 , c1 , . . . , ci . Proving this is not so hard, the hard part was to think about it. How can we prove the statement otherwise than by

243

induction? And induction turns out to be quite easy. Supposing that the statement is true for i, then the corresponding statement for i+1 follows from xi+1 = bxi − ai xi n n n+1 directly (note that to make the diﬀerence, we just have to multiply the numerator ci bn +ci−1 a(i−1)n +· · ·+c1 an +c0 with b and an+i −1. Then, we proceed in the same way with the second fraction and the term bn+1 an+i will vanish). So, we have found a formula which shows that as soon as ai > b we have lim xi = 0. So, we have deduced n

n→∞

**that lim xk+1 = 0. Another step of the solution is to take the minimal n
**

n→∞

**index j such that lim xj = 0. Obviously, j > 1 and the recurrence n
**

n→∞ i relation xi+1 = bxi − ai xi n n n+1 shows that xn ∈ Z for all n, i. Thus, there

exists M such that whenever n ≥ M we have xj = 0. This is the same n b n−M j−1 as bxj−1 = aj xj−1 for all n ≥ M , which implies xj−1 = xM n n n+1 aj for all n ≥ M . Let us suppose that b is not a multiple of a. Since b n−M j−1 xM ∈ Z for all n ≥ M , we must have xj−1 = 0 and so M aj j j−1 xn = 0 for n ≥ M , which means lim xn = 0. But this contradicts

n→∞

the minimality of j. Since we have reached a contradiction, we must have a|b. Let us write b = ca. Then, the relation an − 1|bn − 1 implies an − 1|cn − 1. And now are ﬁnally done. Why? We have just seen that an − 1|cn − 1 for all n ≥ 1. But our previous argument applied for c instead of b shows that a|c. Thus, c = ad and we deduce again that a|d. Since this process cannot be inﬁnite, b must be a power of a. It worth saying that there exist an even stronger result: it is enough to suppose that an − 1|bn − 1 for an inﬁnite number n, but this is a much more diﬃcult problem. It follows from a result found by Bugeaud, Corvaja and Zannier in 2003: If a, b > 1 are multiplicatively independent in Q∗ (that is loga b ∈ Q), then for any ε > 0 there exists n0 = n0 (a, b, ε) such that gcd(an − 1, bn −

244

Find the degree of this polynomial. Moldova TST 2004 5. Prove that for any given k > 0 there are inﬁnitely many numbers n such that ϕ(an + b) < kn. 2003 √ 4. b be natural numbers such that for any natural number n. Tournament of the Towns. 245 . n = 16 we have 600 + 16 · 35 = 1160). then these functions have inﬁnitely many ﬁxed points. . Prove that if f or g is surjective. Let a. 2. Let a. where ϕ is the Euler totient function. p(a2 ) = a1 . Laurentiu Panaitopol. Problems for training 1. the proof is too advanced to be presented here. Gabriel Dospinescu. Prove that there exists integer numbers a.1) < 2εn for all n ≥ n0 . g : N∗ → N∗ two functions such that |f (n) − n| ≤ 2004 n and n2 + g 2 (n) = 2f 2 (n). b > 1 be positive integers. Romanian Olympiad 1991 3. . Let p be a polynomial with integer coeﬃcients such that there exists a sequence of pair wise distinct positive integers (an )n≥1 such that p(a1 ) = 0. b such that f (x) = (ax + b)k . if a = 600. . . Find all arithmetic progressions of positive integers (an )n≥1 such that for all n ≥ 1 the number a1 + a2 + · · · + an is a perfect square. Let f. the decimal representation of a + bn contains a sequence of consecutive digits which form the decimal representation of n (for example. 2002 6. b = 35. Prove that b is a power of 10. Let f ∈ Z[X] be a polynomial of degree k such that for all n ∈ N we have k f (n) ∈ Z. p(a3 ) = a2 . Tournament of the Towns. Unfortunately.

Revue de Mathematiques Speciales 13. . . 2 5 in base b. Suppose that a is a real number such that all numbers 1a . Gabriel Dospinescu 246 . c such that for any positive integer n. Let f be a complex polynomial having the property that for all natural number n. Find all complex polynomials f having the property: there exists a ≥ 2 a natural number such that for all suﬃciently large n. Gabriel Dospinescu. Laurentiu Panaitopol.Gabriel Dospinescu 7. . Mathlinks Contest 14. a · 2n + b is a divisor of cn + 1. Let b an integer at least equal to 5 and deﬁne the number xn = 11 . which contains at least one number among any 2006 consecutive natural numbers and let f a nonconstant polynomial with integer coeﬃcients. . IMO Shortlist 2004 8. b. Putnam 12. the equation f (x) = an has at least a positive rational solution. Gabriel Dospinescu 11. Then f has degree at most 1. Prove that xn is a perfect square for n−1 n all suﬃciently large n if and only if b = 10. Prove that there exists a √ number N such that for any n ≥ N there are at least ln ln n diﬀerent prime numbers dividing the number N ≤k≤n k∈A 2 f (k). . Then prove that a is also integer. 3a . . Find all triplets of integer numbers a. Let A be a set of natural numbers. 2a . . the equation f (x) = n has at least a rational solution. 1 22 . are integers.

Try to generalize the preceding problem (this is for the diehards!!!). Kvant 16. so is g(x). c such that for all suﬃciently large n. 18. Let (an )n≥1 be an inﬁnite and strictly increasing sequence of positive integers such that for all n ≥ 2002. 20. b. Find all real polynomials such that the image of any repunit is also a repunit. b such that for every positive integer n the number an + b is triangular if and only if n is triangular. Prove that in any strictly increasing sequence of positive integers (an )n≥1 which satisﬁes an < 100n for all n. After a Putnam problem 21. Any inﬁnite arithmetical progression contains inﬁnitely many terms that are not powers of integers. Bulgarian Olympiad 19. 2002 22. Let f. Tournament of the Towns. Prove that there exists n0 such that for all n ≥ n0 we have an = a1 + a2 + · · · + an−1 . Then there are integers m. an |a1 + a2 + · · · + an−1 . the number a · 4n + b · 6n + c · 9n is a perfect square. g two real polynomials of degree 2 such that for any real x. 17. Find all a. if f (x) is integer.15. Find all pairs of natural numbers a. n such that g(x) = mf (x) + n for all x. After a problem from Kvant 247 . one can ﬁnd inﬁnitely many terms containing at least 1986 consecutive 1.

Gabriel Dospinescu 248 . Fie doua multimi ﬁnite de numere reale pozitive cu proprietatea ca xn | n ∈ R x∈A ⊂ x∈B xn | n ∈ R . Sa se arate ca exista k ∈ R astfel incat A = {xk | x ∈ B}.23.

We will prove this result and many other simple remarks concerning a quadratic residues in what follows. we p−1 will prove that there are exactly quadratic residues in Zp \ {0}. 1} by = 1 if the equation x2 = a has at least a solution in Zp and. a p : Z → {−1. First. In p p−1 addition. other- a = −1. This is a nontrivial result whose proof will be sketched later. let us assume that =1 p and consider x a solution of the equation x2 = a in Zp . 2 This will enable us to conclude that quadratic residues are precisely the 249 p−1 . Now. p Theorem. we say that a is a quadratic residue p modulo p. deﬁne the function a p wise. This states that for diﬀerent odd prime numbers p. This function is called Legendre’s symbol and plays a fundamental role in number theory. Using Fermat’s theorem. Until then. The following identity is true: a p =a p−1 2 (mod p). we ﬁnd that a 2 = xp−1 = 1 (mod p). In the ﬁrst case. Thus the equality p−1 a = a 2 (mod p) holds for all quadratic residues a modulo p.QUADRATIC RECIPROCITY For an odd prime p. q the following equality holds: p q q p = (−1) p−1 q−1 · 2 2 . First. for any quadratic residue we have a 2 = 1 (mod p). we will unfold some easier properties of Legendre’s symbol. let us present an useful theoretical (but not practical at all) way of a computing due to Euler. otherwise we say that it is a non quadratic residue modulo p. Perhaps the most remarkable result involving this symbol is Gauss’s quadratic reciprocity law.

1} is a group p morphism. Indeed. the number of diﬀerent zeros of a polynomial cannot exceed its degree. Also. then = (−1) p 250 . We have said that Euler’s criterion is a very useful result. (mod p) < p. These two observations show that in fact 2 p−1 each of these polynomials has exactly zeros in Zp . This shows that there are exactly quadratic 2 residues in Zp \ {0} and also proves Euler’s criterion. p) = 1. But in a ﬁeld. it suﬃces to focus on the prime numbers only. Indeed. Thus each of the polynomials X 2 − 1 and X 2 + 1 p−1 has at most zeros in Zp . ab a b = shows that while studying Lep p p gendre’s symbol. a b the same Euler’s criterion implies that = whenever a ≡ b p p (mod p). The relation It is now time to come back to Gauss’s celebrated quadratic reciprocity law. Let p be an odd prime and let a ∈ Z such that gcd(a. Note that Fermat’s little theorem implies that the polynomial − 1)(X p−1 2 + 1) has exactly p − 1 roots in the ﬁeld p−1 p−1 Zp . we will prove a lemma (due to Gauss). Let us observe 2 p−1 quadratic residues modulo p.roots of the polynomial X p−1 2 − 1 and also that non quadratic residues p−1 2 are exactly the roots of the polynomial X X p−1 − 1 = (X p−1 2 + 1 (from Fermat’s little theorem). we have ab p = (ab) p−1 2 (mod p) = a p−1 2 b p−1 2 (mod p) = a p b p . Lemma. Indeed. p p If m is the number of positive integers x such that x < and < ax 2 2 a m. it a allows a very quick proof of the fact that : Z → {−1. First of all. next that there are at least 2 p−1 all numbers i2 (mod p) with 1 ≤ i ≤ are quadratic residues and 2 p−1 they are all diﬀerent.

. We clearly have (ax) (mod p) ax (mod p)> p 2 m ax k (mod p)< p 2 (ax) (mod p) = i=1 axi (mod p) j=1 ayi (mod p). it suﬃces to prove give a partition of 1. 2 that p − axi (mod p) = ayj (mod p). . On the other hand. Combining these facts. Let k = − m and y1 . xm be those numbers x for which x < and 2 p p−2 < ax (mod p) < p. yj < . p−1 2 (ax) = x=1 ax (mod p)> p 2 (ax) (mod p) ax (mod p)< p 2 (ax) (mod p). x2 . . 2 a p = (−1)m . . we ﬁnally deduce that 251 . the numbers p − axi (mod p) and ayi (mod p) p−1 (mod p). .p Proof. . Let x1 . . . diﬀerent from x1 . . 2 On the other hand. 2 Observe that p−1 2 (ax) = a x=1 p−1 2 p−1 !≡ 2 a p p−1 ! (mod p). . Hence we can write 2 m k axi i=1 m (mod p) j=1 ayi (mod p) k = (−1)m i=1 p−1 2 (p − axi (mod p)) j=1 ayj (mod p) ≡ (−1) m i=1 i (mod p) = (−1)m p−1 ! (mod p). 2. . x2 . yk all numbers 2 2 p smaller than . . Indeed. . which is clearly true by the deﬁp nition of xi . . xm . . .

but we think that they are still worthy not necessarily because they appeared in various contests. the reader will enjoy proving the next two classical results. if p is of p p the form 8k − 1 the later cannot hold and this is the contradiction that solves the problem. 252 n n . since in this case we would have −1 ≡ (2 2 )2 (mod p) and p−1 −1 = 1. Of course. Theorem. assume that n is odd. Now. q. the number 23 +1 has at least n prime divisors of the form 8k + 3. Theorem. Fortunately. Example 2. we arrive at the following result. Then so −1 = (−1) 2 = p n+1 −2 −2 ≡ (2 2 )2 (mod p) and so = 1. Prove that the number 2n + 1 does not have prime divisors of the form 8k − 1. Most of them are merely direct applications of the above results. the following identity holds: p q q p = (−1) p−1 q−1 · 2 2 2 p = (−1) p2 −1 8 holds for any odd prime . we are now able to solve some interesting problems. the contradiction is immediate. Indeed. Based on the same idea and with a bit more work. The identity number p. This can be also written in p p−1 p2 −1 −1 2 the form = 1. Example 1. Vietnam TST 2004 Solution. Prove that for any positive integer n. assume that p is a prime divisor of the form 8k −1 that divides 2n + 1. (quadratic reciprocity law) For any diﬀerent odd primes p. Using this powerful arsenal.Using Gauss’s lemma. if n is even. or (−1) 2 + 8 = 1.

which cannot 8 2 happen if p is of the form 8k + 5. Using the same argument as the one in the p2 − 1 p − 1 previous problem. We will prove that if n is odd. The essential observation is the identity: 23 + 1 = (2 + 1)(22 − 2 + 1)(22·3 − 23 + 1) . Using the result of the previous problem. It remains to show that each of the numbers 22·3 − 23 + 1. we deduce that + is even. (22·3 n n−1 n+1 2 − 23 n−1 + 1) i Now. assume that p is a prime number dividing gcd(22·3 − 23 + 1. we deduce that 2n + 1 does not have prime divisors of the form 8k + 7. This cannot happen unless p = 3. let us solve the proposed problem. let p be a prime divisor of 2n + 1. with 1 ≤ i ≤ n − 1 has at least a prime divisor of the form 8k + 3 diﬀerent from 3. Then 2n ≡ −1 (mod p) and so −2 ≡ (2 )2 (mod p). 22·3 − 23 + 1) We will then have p|23 23 ≡ (23 implying 0 ≡ 22·3 − 23 + 1 ≡ 1 − (−1) + 1 ≡ 3 (mod p). It would follow in this case that 23 + 1 has at least n − 1 distinct prime divisors of the form 8k+3 (from the previous remarks) and since it 253 n i i i i j j j j i i j j j i+1 i i j j i+1 j j i + 1. we will prove that for all 1 ≤ i < j ≤ n − 1. then it has no prime divisors of the form 8k + 5 either. Indeed. . 22·3 − 23 + 1) = 3. . Now. 22·3 − 23 + 1) = 3 and the claim is proved. Indeed. it follows that gcd(22·3 − 23 + 1. . Thus. gcd(22·3 − 23 + 1. But since v3 (gcd(22·3 − 23 + 1. )3 j−i−1 ≡ (−1)3 j−i−1 ≡ −1 (mod p).Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. 22·3 − 23 + 1)) = 1 (as one can immediately check). We will assume n > 2 (otherwise the veriﬁcation is trivial).

Example 3. In the framework of the above results. using Fermat’s little theorem. . from the ﬁrst remark. q|22p−1 + 1. 7 are not good choices. A small veriﬁcation shows that q = 3. and = p 254 i i i i i i i i n i i . it must be of the form 8k + 1 or 8k + 3. Also. . it follows that if all prime divisors of 22·3 − 23 + 1 except for 3 are of the form 8k + 1. . the following problem seems trivial. for some prime number p. At ﬁrst glance. In this case we ﬁnd p = 43 and so it suﬃces to show that pq|22pq−1 + 1 for q = 11 and p = 43. We need pq|22pq−1 + 1 and so we −2 −2 = = 1. So let us search for even numbers. which is clearly impossible. this result due to Sierpinski has been proved in the topic ”Look at the exponent!”). The conclusion follows. 2. since the hard work has already been completed: we −2 have shown that it suﬃces to have p|q 2q−1 . . must have p q p|22q−1 + 1 and q|22p−1 + 1. Unfortunately this cannot work by Fermat’s little theorem. Because v3 (22·3 − 23 + 1) = 1. then we will certainly fail (actually. If we search for odd numbers. q diﬀerent prime numbers. Fix i ∈ {1. The ﬁrst step would be choosing n = 2p.is also divisible by 3. Far from being true! It is actually very tricky. with p. APMO. So let us try setting n = 2pq. this should not be so diﬃcult now. n−1} and observe that any prime factor of 22·3 − 23 + 1 is also a prime factor of 23 + 1 and thus. so let us try q = 11. Thus at least a prime divisor of 22·3 − 23 + 1 is diﬀerent from 3 and is of the form 8k + 3 and so the claim is proved. then 22·3 − 23 + 1 ≡ 8 (mod 8). Find a number n between 100 and 1997 such that n|2n + 2. This is immediate. the conclusion would follow. 1997 Solution. because brute force will take us nowhere. 5.

Gabriel Dospinescu. prove that f has inﬁnitely many ﬁxed points. Finally. |f (n)−n| ≤ 2004 n for all n. bn such that xn = an pn . It follows that 2f 2 (xn ) = x2 + p2 . √ If. Thus there exist sequences of positive integers an . Were we wrong when choosing to present the following example? It apparently has no connection with quadratic reciprocity. But as one can easily check. f (xn ) = bn pn for all n. Clearly.−2 = 1 in order to have pq|22pq−1 +1. which can be rewritten as 2f 2 (xn ) ≡ x2 n n n 2 (mod pn ). ii) implies the relation √ 2b2 = a2 + 1. but let us take a closer look. √ xn xn an that is n→∞ lim a2 + 1 √ n = 2. but we invite the reader to ﬁnd an elementary proof). Because = −1. It is obvious that for all n we have 2 pn = (−1) p2 −1 n 8 = −1. using the property |f (n) − n| ≤ 2004 n we infer n n that 2004 f (xn ) bn ≥ −1 = −1 . Using the condition i) we can ﬁnd xn such that g(xn ) = pn for all n. Let pn be the sequence of prime numbers of the form 8k + 3 (the fact that there are inﬁnitely many such numbers is a trivial consequence of Dirichlet’s theorem. ii) 2f 2 (n) = n2 + g 2 (n) for all positive integers n. Let f. g : Z + → Z + functions with the properties: i) g is surjective. all q these conditions are veriﬁed and the number 2 · 11 · 43 is a valid answer. an 255 . Example 4. the last congruence shows that pn |xn pn and pn |f (xn ). 2005 Solution. Moldova TST. moreover.

The conclusion now follows. . . Of course. . . Using the quadratic reciprocity law. Therefore. . . Solution. write b = p1 . 1 ≤ i ≤ k b ≡ 1 (mod 8). Let us assume ﬁrst that n ≥ 1 and consider some odd distinct primes r1 . Let us write a = 2e q1 q2 . where qi are diﬀerent odd primes and e ∈ {0. . we have an = 1 = bn that is f (pn ) = pn . we can ﬁnd a positive integer b such that b ≡ 1 (mod ri ). b ≡ 1qi . Let s be a non p quadratic residue modulo qn . 1}. perfect square are such numbers. We will show that there exists a a prime p. diﬀerent from r1 . that often proves very useful.The last relation immediately implies that lim an = 1. not necessarily distinct. . . . but how to prove that they are the only ones? Example 5. rk . qn . . Suppose that a ∈ N is not a perfect square. it follows immediately that m i=1 2 pi m = i=1 (−1) p2 −1 i 8 = (−1) b2 −1 8 =1 and m j=1 qi pj m = j=1 (−1) pj −1 q −1 · i2 2 pj qi 256 = (−1) qi −1 b−1 · 2 2 b qi = b qi . rk each of them diﬀerent from q1 . We continue with a diﬃcult classical result. . It characterizes numbers that are quadratic residues modulo all suﬃciently large prime numbers. Then a p = −1 for inﬁnitely many prime numbers p. 1 ≤ i ≤ n − 1 b ≡ s (mod q ) n Now. One may assume that a is square-free. . . pm with pi odd primes. such that = −1. n→∞ starting from a certain rank. . . Using the Chinese remainder theorem. qn .

a2 . . . since it suﬃces to use Dirichlet’s theorem to ﬁnd inﬁnitely many primes p such p2 − 1 is odd. . In order to prove this. . } \ {r1 . The only remaining case is a = 2. m} such that the claim is proved. rk } and Thus. . ak are positive integers such that an 1 + an + · · · + an is a perfect square for all n. . We will show that k 2 k is a perfect square. . Because pi b ≡ 1 (mod ri ). consider a prime p. . a2 . . . This time it is a problem almost trivial in the above framework and almost impossible to solve otherwise (we say almost because there is a beautiful. . 2. greater than any prime divisor of a1 a2 . Using Fermat’s little theorem. that 8 As in other units. And now the problem becomes p 257 . 2. Mathlinks Contest Solution. What is the minimal number of such integers that must equal 0? Gabriel Dospinescu. it follows 1 2 k that = 1. This is not a p diﬃcult task. Hence m a = pi i=1 n m j=1 2 2 pj b qn = n m i=1 j=1 qi pj = i=1 b qi = s qn = −1. 2. there exists i ∈ {1.for all i ∈ {1. a = −1. . . . Example 6. 1 ≤ i ≤ k we also have pi ∈ {1. . that we will not present here). and since ap−1 + ap−1 + · · · + ak is a perfect square. Suppose that a1 . . . ak . . . . we will use the above result k and show that = 1 for all suﬃciently large prime p. a2004 are nonnegative integers such that an + an + · · · + an is a perfect square for all positive integers 1 2 2004 n. . Suppose that a1 . ap−1 + ap−1 + · · · + ap−1 ≡ k 1 2 k p−1 (mod p). . . But this one is very simple. Thus k is a perfect square. . . Indeed. but very diﬃcult solution using analytical tools. we will now focus on a special case. n}.

a) Prove that f is divisible by X − 1 but not by (X − 1)2 if and only if p ≡ 3 (mod 4). The following example is adapted after a problem given in Saint Petersburg Olympiad. Let f (x) = ax2 + bx + c be this polynomial. Then b2 − 4ac ≡ (2an + b)2 and so b2 − 4ac p = 1. 2004 258 . Some of the properties of Legendre’s symbol can be also found in the following problem. since we must ﬁnd the greatest perfect square smaller than 2004. A quick computation shows that this is 442 = 1936 and so the desired minimal number is 68. This boils down to proving that it is a quadratic residue modulo any suﬃciently large prime. Example 8. Pick a prime number p and an integer n such that p|f (n). Example 7. Here is another nice application of this idea. b) Prove that if p ≡ 5 (mod 8) then f is divisible by (X − 1)2 and not by (X − 1)3 . Romanian TST. Prove that f has rational zeros. It suﬃces of course to prove that b2 − 4ac is a perfect square. (mod p) This shows that our claim is true and ﬁnishes the solution. Suppose that f ∈ Z[X] is a second degree polynomial such that for any prime p there exists at least an integer n for which p|f (n).trivial. Solution. Let p be an odd prime and let p−1 f (x) = i=1 i p X i−1 .

On the other hand. . because f (1) = 0. . p − 1}. that f is divisible by (X − 1)2 so actually p−1 f (1) = i=1 259 i2 i p . Observe that p−1 p−1 p−1 f (1) = i=1 (i2 − 3i + 2) i p = i=1 i2 i p −3 i=1 i i p (once again we use the fact that f (1) = 0). then p−1 f (1) = i=1 i i p p−1 ≡ i=1 i= p(p − 1) ≡ 1 (mod 2) 2 and so f is divisible by X − 1 but not by (X − 1)2 . The second question is much more technical.Solution. Observe that the condition p ≡ 5 (mod 8) implies. . . Hence for p ≡ 1 (mod 4) we must also have f (1) = 0. by a). Also. p−1 f (1) = i=1 (i − 1) i p = i=1 i i p . The ﬁrst question is not diﬃcult at all. 2. In this case f is divisible by (X − 1)2 . if p ≡ 3 (mod 4). The same idea of summing up in reversed order allows us to write: p−1 i i=1 p−1 2 i p p−1 = i=1 (p − i) i p p−i p p−1 2 p−1 = (−1) 2(p − i) i=1 = −(−1) f (1) (we used again the fact that f (1) = 0). even though it uses the same main idea. Observe that p−1 f (1) = i=1 i p =0 p−1 quadratic and non qua2 p−1 by the simple fact that there are exactly dratic residues in {1.

Therefore i=1 2i − 1 p = 0 and the problem is ﬁnally solved. p−1 2 . we obtain that its value (2i − 1)2 i=1 2i − 1 p p−1 2 ≡ i=1 2i − 1 p (mod 8). On the other hand. Also. p−1 2 i=1 2i p p−3 2 =1+ i=1 p−3 2 2i p p−3 2 =1+ i=1 p−1 2 2 p−1 −i 2 p =1+ i=1 p−1 2 2i + 1 p = i=1 2i − 1 p . Note that p−1 2 i i=1 2 i p p−1 2 p−1 2 ≡ i=1 p−1 2 i ≡ i=1 2 i= p2 − 1 ≡ 1 (mod 2). Let us deal with p−1 2 p−1 2 (2i)2 i=1 2i p =4 2 p i2 i=1 i p . then the problem will be solved. 8 so (2i)2 i=1 2i p 2 p ≡ ± (mod 8) = (−1) p2 −1 8 (actually. using the fact that is −4). But note that f (1) = 0 implies p−1 2 p−1 2 0= i=1 2i p + i=1 2i − 1 p . 260 .Let us break this sum into two pieces and treat each of them independently. If we prove that the last quantity is a multiple of 8.

Prove that for any odd prime p. which is the desired contradiction. Therefore. the smallest positive quadratic √ non residue modulo p is smaller than 1 + p. ii) there is a positive integer m such that p|m2 − m + 25. Obviously. 261 . Consequently. 3 p ±2 On the other hand = = −(±1). Prove that 2003 does not n divide any term of the sequence.Finally. Let p be a prime of the form 4k + 1. call it p. we ﬁnally obtain = (−1) 2 . Therefore the only solution is n = 1. Mathlinks Contest 4. Because any odd prime diﬀerent from 3 is of one of the forms 12k±1. a diﬃcult problem. it follows that 2n − 1 has at least a prime divisor 3 of the form 12k ± 5. we must have = 1 and p p−1 p using the quadratic reciprocity law. Solution. Problems for training 1. Example 9. Suppose that n > 1 is a solution. Let x1 = 7 and let xn+1 = 2x2 − 1. Let p be a prime number. Prove that the following statements are equivalent: i) there is a positive integer n such that p|n2 − n + 3. Compute p−1 k=1 k2 2k 2 −2 p p . Find all positive integers n such that 2n − 1|3n − 1. −(±1) = 3 3 p−1 (−1) 2 = ±1. hence n is odd. 12k±5 and since 2n − 1 ≡ 7 (mod 12). 2n ≡ 8 (mod 12). Polish Olympiad 3. Valentin Vornicu. Then 2n − 1 cannot be a multiple of 3. 2. We will prove that n = 1 is the only solution to the problem.

Prove that: p−1 i=1 p−1 ai2 + bi p =− a p . . B. Suppose that for a certain prime p. What about the equation a2 − b2 = 1? 7. Prove that p|b2 − 4ac. . iii) If a ∈ A. IMO Shortlist 262 . ii) If a. . . where f is a polynomial with integral p k=1 coeﬃcients and p is an odd prime. India 8. the values the polynomial with integral coeﬃcients f (x) = ax2 + bx + c takes at 2p − 1 consecutive integers are perfect squares. 2. Gazeta Matematica 6. then ab ∈ B. f (k) . . . Gabriel Dospinescu 9. Suppose that p is an odd prime and that A.Korea TST 2000 5. What is the number of solutions to the equation a2 + b2 = 1 in Zp × Zp . then ab (mod p) ∈ A. 2. B are two diﬀerent non empty subsets of {1. Prove that for any n > 1 there are n consecutive positive integers. b ∈ B. . b are in the same set among A. Find all such subsets A. b. Compute 11. c be positive integers such that b2 − 4ac is not a perfect square. y and some positive integer z. Laurentiu Panaitopol. B. p − 1} for which i) A ∪ B = {1. p − 1}. 10. none of which can be written in the form (ax2 + bxy + cy 2 )z for some integers x. . Prove that the number 3n + 2 does not have prime divisors of the form 24k + 13. Let be integers relatively prime with an odd prime p. Let a.

Gabriel Dospinescu 263 . Prove that gcd(m. n) of positive integers. Let p be a prime of the form 4k+1 such that p2 |2p −2. Here φ is Euler’s totient function. n) > 1.12. Taiwan TST 13. Prove that the greatest prime divisor q of 2p − 1 satisﬁes the inequality 2q > (6p)p . Suppose that φ(5m − 1) = 5n − 1 for a pair (m.

the hard part is to ﬁnd the integral that hides after the elementary form of the inequality (and to be sincere. a comparable one. . the well-known elementary inequalities of Cauchy-Schwarz. Jensen. 1) For any integrable function f : [a. . First. which are derived immediately from the algebraic inequalities (indeed. Chebyshev. but sometimes ﬁnding elementary solutions for them is a real challenge. with n n 264 . some of them with a completely elementary statement. That is why there are plenty of inequalities which can be solved with integrals. b] → R we have b f 2 (x)dx ≥ 0. And area is a measurable concept. Of course. Young have corresponding ino tegral inequalities.SOLVING ELEMENTARY INEQUALITIES WITH INTEGRALS Why are integral pertinent for solving inequalities? Well. Instead. a 2) For any integrable functions f. H¨lder. when we say integral. g a + (b − a) . β we have b b b (αf (x)+βg(x))dx = α a a f (x)dx+β a g(x) (linearity of integrals). we say in fact area. g : [a. They seem elementary. let us state some properties of integrals that we will use here. there are beautiful and short solutions using integrals. g : [a. 3) For any integrable functions f. . the idea of using integrals to solve elementary inequalities is practically inexistent in Olympiad books). b] → R and any real numbers α. one just have to apply the corresponding inequalk k ities for the numbers f a + (b − a) . Minkowski. Also. b] → R such that f ≤ g we have b b f (x)dx ≤ a a g(x)dx (monotony for integrals).

Prove that for any a1 . . n Of course. we can ﬁnd an index k ∈ {1. since each integral is nonnegative. Truly wonderful. 2. Example 1. 2. Let us suppose that a1 ≤ a2 ≤ · · · ≤ an and let A= √ a1 + a2 + · · · + an . n − 1} such that ak ≤ G ≤ ak+1 . an . take a look at the following beautiful proof of the AM-GM inequality using integrals. . integrals are nice! This is also conﬁrmed by the following problem. . . an ≥ 0 we have the inequality √ a1 + a2 + · · · + an ≥ n a1 a2 . . . B = n a1 a2 . n} and to use the fact that b a f (x)dx = lim b−a n→∞ n n f k=1 a+ k (b − a) . Alzer and published in the American Mathematical Monthly. . 265 . after all. To convince yourself of the strength of the integral. isn’t it? So. a2 . n The reader will take a look at the glossary if he doesn’t manage to state them. . . This magniﬁcent proof was found by H.k ∈ {1. . . n Solution. an absolute classic whose solution by induction can be a real nightmare. It seems at ﬁrst glance that this is not a very intricate and diﬃcult theory. . Then it is immediate to see that A 1 −1= G n k i=1 G ai 1 1 − t G dt + 1 n n ai i=k+1 G 1 1 − G t dt and the last quantity is clearly nonnegative. Totally false! We will see how strong is this theory of integration and especially how hard it is to look beneath the elementary surface of a problem. an . . . . .

j=1 0 1 ai aj ti+j−1 dt ≥ 0.j=1 ai aj ≥0 i+j is equivalent to n i. Now. an the following inequality holds: n n i=1 j=1 ai aj ≥ 0.j=1 ai aj ti+j−1 dt ≥ 0. the hard part was translating the inequality. What follows are just formalities. 0 And now the problem is solved. The essential suggestion is the observation that ai aj = i+j 1 ai aj ti+j−1 dt. Prove that for any real numbers a1 . we will decide what is better to do. we will see how easy is this problem if we manage to handle integrals and especially to see from where they come. i+j Poland Mathematical Olympiad Solution. n i. . This isn’t hard. a2 . .j=1 ai aj ti+j−1 dt. So. or. . that is we should ﬁnd an integrable function f such that n f 2 (t) = i. using the linearity of the integrals. . to 1 n 0 i. This form suggests us that we should use the ﬁrst property. After that.j=1 266 ai aj xi xj . because the formula n 2 n ai xi i=1 = i.Example 2.

. 267 . . b] → R. 1 + t + · · · + tn . 1 We continue the series of direct applications of classical integral inequalities with a problem proposed by Walther Janous and which may also put serious problems if not attacked appropriately. using integrals it becomes trivial. Example 3. Yet. Crux Mathematicorum Solution. It is clear that for t > 1 we have xn = and for t < 1 we have xn = 1 1−t t 1 t−1 t un du 1 un du. The following problem has a long and quite complicated proof by induction. Let t ≥ 0 and the sequence (xn )n≥1 deﬁned by xn = Prove that x1 ≤ √ x2 ≤ √ 3 x3 ≤ √ 4 x4 ≤ . this is a consequence of the Power Mean Inequality for integral functions.solves the task. We just have to take n f (x) = i=1 ai xi− 2 . n+1 Walther Janous. And yes. 1 This is how the inequality to be proved reduces to the more general inequality b k b f k (x)dx a k+1 f k+1 (x)dx a b−a ≤ b−a for all k ≥ 1 and any nonnegative integrable function f : [a.

. y and any positive integers m. . . 268 k (x1 x2 . 1 2 1 2 k k IMO Shortlist 1985.Example 4. we ﬁnd that m(xn + · · · + xn − k) ≥ m(k 1 k Let P = √ k x1 x2 . proposed by Poland Solution. We transform the inequality as follows: mn(x − y)(xm+n−1 − y m+n−1 ) ≥ (m + n − 1)(xm − y m )(xn − y n ) ⇔ xm+n−1 − y m+n−1 xm − y m xn − y n ≥ · (m + n − 1)(x − y) m(x − y) n(x − y) (we have assumed that x > y). . xk )n − k). . Prove that m(xn + xn + · · · + xn − k) ≥ n(xm xm . xk . Prove that for any positive real numbers x.1995 Solution. A nice blending of arithmetic and geometric inequality as well as integral calculus allows us to give a beautiful short proof of the following inequality. Austrian-Polish Competition . Let x1 . And this follows from the integral form of Chebyshev inequality. . Applying AM-GM inequality. xm − 1). xk be positive real numbers and m. . . The last relations can be immediately translated with integrals in the form x x x (y − x) y tm+n−2 dt ≥ y tm−1 dt y tn−1 dt. . x2 . . Example 5. n (n − 1)(m − 1)(xm+n + y m+n ) + (m + n − 1)(xm y n + xn y m ) ≥ mn(xm+n−1 y + y m+n−1 x). n positive real numbers such that n ≤ km. .

Now. the problem originated by playing around with integral inequalities and the following solution will show how one can create diﬃcult problems starting from trivial ones.We have to prove that mkP n − mk ≥ nP mk − n. the most important aspect a b c is to translate the expression 2 + 2 + 2 in the integral b +b c +c a +a language. 4 Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. Example 6. Fortunately. Using again the same inequality. Consequently. 0 We have seen a rapid but diﬃcult proof for the following problem. we minor with 1 . x + ab + bc + ca a b c 1 + + ≥ 2 2 2 (x + b) (x + c) (x + a) (x + ab + bc + ca)2 269 b c a + + x+b x+c a+x . which is the same as Pn − 1 P mk − 1 ≥ . Well. since it is just 1 0 b c a + + 2 2 (x + b) (x + c) (x + a)2 dx. As in the previous problem. using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. b. c such that a + b + c = 1 we have (ab + bc + ca) b c a + + b2 + b c2 + c a2 + a 3 ≥ . using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. Prove that for any positive real numbers a. we infer that a b c + + ≥ 2 2 (x + b) (x + c) (x + a)2 a b c + + x+b x+c a+x 2 . n mk This follows immediately from the fact that Px − 1 = x ln P 1 ext ln P dt. this isn’t diﬃcult.

another question for the interested reader: can we prove the general case (solved in Cauchy Schwarz’s inequality topic) using integral calculus? It seems a diﬃcult problem. f (x) = a1 + a2 x + · · · + an xn−1 . 3 Now. Let us observe that n n i=1 j=1 ai aj = i+j 1 n i=1 ai n j=1 aj = i+j n 1 ai i=1 0 xi f (x)dx n 1 = 0 xf (x) i=1 ai xi−1 dx = 0 xf 2 (x)dx. yet here it is much more diﬃcult to see the relation with integral calculus. Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. . There is an important similarity between the following problem and example 2. over all i+j sequences from S. 270 . . an ) ⊂ [0. 1+j n n Find the maximum value of the expression i=1 j=1 ai + aj . Consider the function f : R → R. . Let n ≥ 2 and S the set of the sequences (a1 . all we have to do is to notice that 4 ab + bc + ca + 1 ≤ . a2 . +b c +c a +a (ab + bc + ca)(ab + bc + ca + 1) Now. . ∞) which verify n n i=1 j=1 1 − ai aj ≥ 0.and we can integrate this to ﬁnd that b2 a b c 1 + 2 + 2 ≥ . Example 7.

attained for a1 = a2 = · · · = follows: the maximal value is 2 i+j 1≤i. 0 On the other hand. we infer that i+j xf 2 (x)dx ≤ M. the problem becomes easy. ai + aj ≤ 2M and now the conclusion easily i+j i=1 j=1 1 . if we denote M = 1≤i. we have the identity n n i=1 j=1 ai + aj =2 i+j =2 a1 an a1 an + ··· + + ··· + + ··· + 2 n+1 n+1 2n 1 (x + x2 + · · · + xn )f (x)dx. since we must ﬁnd the maximal value of 1 2 0 (x + x2 + · · · + xn )f (x)dx 1 where xf 2 (x)dx ≤ M.j≤n an = 1.j≤n 1 1 . we have 1 2 (x + x + · · · + x )f (x)dx 0 1 2 2 n = 0 1 xf 2 (x) 1 x(1 + x + · · · + xn−1 )2 dx = 0 xf 2 (x)dx 0 n n (1 + x + · · · + xn−1 )2 dx ≤ M 2 . 0 Well. Indeed.So. Now. 0 This was the hard part: translating the properties of the sequences in S and also the conclusion. Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for integrals is the way to proceed. This shows that 271 .

b. Some relevant examples will be treated revealing that bunching could be a great pain for the reader wanting to use it. here is another application of this idea. b. y = tb− 3 .Two more words about fractions. Gabriel Dospinescu 272 1 1 1 1 1 1 + + a + 2b b + 2c c + 2a . Prove that for any positive real numbers a. to present a new method of treating inequalities involving fractions. since what we get is exactly the desired inequality. c the following inequality holds: 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 + + + ≥ + + 3a 3b 3c a + b + c 2a + b 2b + a 2b + c + 1 1 1 + + . let us write Schur’s inequality in the form: x3 + y 3 + z 3 + 3xyz ≥ x2 y + y 2 x + y 2 z + z 2 y + z 2 x + x2 z where x = ta− 3 . 2c + b 2c + a 2a + c Gabriel Dospinescu Solution. Prove that for any positive real numbers a. the reader has noticed that this is stronger than Popoviciu’s inequality. Of course. And surprise.. We have already said that bunching is a mathematical crime.. In the same category. And what if we say that this is Schur’s inequality revisited? Indeed. z = tc− 3 and integrate the inequality as t ranges between 0 and 1. It is time to say it again. c the following inequality holds: 1 1 1 + + +2 3a 3b 3c ≥3 1 1 1 + + 2a + b 2b + c 2c + a . Example 9. This is why we designed this topic. Example 8. so it seems that classical methods will have no chances.

. . If the previous problem could be solved using bunching (or not? Anyway. . it suﬃces to prove that (n − m)3 + m3 ≥ (n − m)m2 . Starting this topic. z. these problems are discrete forms of Young and Steﬀensen inequalities for integrals. If only this was easy to see.. 1]. bn ∈ [0. we see that the problem asks in fact to prove that x3 + y 3 + z 3 + 2(x2 y + y 2 z + z 2 x) ≥ 3(xy 2 + yz 2 + zx2 ) for any positive real numbers x. . which is immediate. In fact. y. in which they will surely have the occasion to play around with areas. z) and write y = x + m. Let us assume that x = min(x. . b2 . We ask the reader to accept our apologizes and bring to their attention two mathematical gems. Simple computations show that the inequality is equivalent to 2x(m2 − mn + n2 ) + (n − m)3 + m3 ≥ (n − m)m2 . 273 . Prove that if n n−m 3 ) t + 1 ≥ t for all m k= i=1 bi + 1. we said that there is a deep relation between integrals and areas. Therefore. n. which is the same as (via the substitution t = t ≥ −1. Example 10. z = x + n for some nonnegative real numbers m.Solution. this one is surely impossible to solve in this manner. we haven’t tried). With the experience from the previous problem. Let a1 ≥ a2 ≥ · · · ≥ an+1 = 0 and let b1 . but in the sequel we seemed to neglect the last concept. y.

let us consider a coordinate system XOY and let us draw the rectangles R1 . Since 274 . j=1 bj . Sn . . a2 b2 . looking in a picture. R2 . .then n k ai bi ≤ i=1 i=1 ai . . 0). Saint Petersburg Olympiad. So. Thus. . . where the vertices Si are of . g : [a. a2 . ai ) (we need n rectangles of k heights a1 . . . The very experienced reader has already seen a resemblance with Steﬀensen’s inequality: for any continuous functions f. . an bn so that we can compare the areas of the unions of the rectangles in the two sets. j=1 b j . an and weights 1. the points j=1 0 bj . areas!!!) could lead to a neat solution.. (i. by looking again at the picture. . j=1 bj . . probably an argument using areas (this is how we avoid integrals and argue with their discrete forms. Intuitively. ai . 0). So. . we ﬁnd immediately what we have to show: that the set of rectangles S1 . . . (i. an and a1 b1 . S2 . . S2 . . . . a2 . so that to view i=1 i−1 i i−1 i ai as a sum of areas) and the rectangles S1 . Rk+1 . b] → R such that f is decreasing and 0 ≤ g ≤ 1 we have a+k b f (x)dx ≥ a a f (x)g(x)dx. . We have made this choice because we need two sets of pair j=1 wise disjoint rectangles with the same heights and areas a1 . R2 . . 0. . where b k= a f (x)dx. . Rn such that the vertices of Ri are the points (i − 1. 1996 Solution. 0. ai (where bj = 0). Let us make it rigorous. . . . . . Sn can be covered with the rectangles R1 . this is evident. ai ). (i − 1.

b ∈ (0. it is enough to prove this for any horizontal line. yn . which is at least b1 + b2 + · · · + bp . given this time in a Balkan Mathematical Olympiad. Indeed. . Balkan Mathematical Olympiad. . . Sn . And the problem is solved. . the weight for S1 . B] and any a ∈ (0. A). . R2 . . . S2 . . . Then in a similar way one can prove that the set of these 275 . . Again. . Indeed. . .n the weight of the union of S1 . then the corresponding weight for the set R1 . xm and the rectangles with weight 1 and heights y0 . Rk+1 is p. . it suﬃces to take the given sequence (xn )n≥0 as the one to one increasing function in Young’s inequality and the sequence (yn )n≥0 m m as the inverse of f . experienced reader will see immediately a similarity with Young’s inequality: for any strictly increasing one to one map f : [0. And now the second problem. 1999 Solution. B) we have the inequality a b f (x)dx + 0 0 f −1 (x)dx ≥ ab. . . . . probably again a geometrical solution is hiding behind some rectangles. x1 . Prove that for any m. . Example 11. But if we consider a horizontal line y = p and an index r such that ar ≥ p > ar+1 . Sn is j=1 bj < k + 1 (and the weight of R1 . n ∈ N we have the inequality m n xi + i=0 j=0 yj ≥ (m + 1)(n + 1). Just view i=0 xi and j=0 yj as the corresponding integrals and the similarity will be obvious. . R2 . y1 . . A] → [0. Let (xn )n≥0 be an increasing sequence of nonnegative integers such that for all k ∈ N the number of indices i ∈ N for which xi ≤ k is yk < ∞. . Rk+1 is k + 1). S2 . . Thus. consider the vertical rectangles with weight 1 and heights x0 . .

t ∈ [0. Now. since the idea is very well hidden.rectangles covers the rectangle of sides m + 1 and n + 1.j≤n ∞ min(ai .j≤n 276 min(bi . x > bi . Poland. bj ). an . .j≤n fi (x)gj (x) dx f (x)g(x)dx = 0 ∞ 0 = 1≤i. bn ≥ 0 the following inequality holds (|ai − aj | + |bi − bj |) ≤ 1≤i<j≤n 1≤i. t > ai and gi (x) = 1. Yet. ai ]. aj ) and 0 g 2 (x)dx = 1≤i. . . A similar computation shows that ∞ f 2 (x)dx = 0 1≤i. Thus. b2 . bj ).j≤n |ai − bj |.j≤n 0 fi (x)gj (x)dx = 1≤i. . gi : [0. x ∈ [0.j≤n min(ai . Let us deﬁne the functions fi . 1999 Solution. . fi (x) = 1. 0. b1 . bi ]. the sum of their areas is at least the are of this rectangle. a2 . . We see that ∞ 1≤i. there is such a solution and it is more than beautiful. 0. let us compute 0 ∞ f (x)g(x)dx. It will be diﬃcult to solve the following beautiful problems using integrals. . . let us deﬁne n n f (x) = i=1 fi (x). ∞) → R. . Also. ∞ g(x) = i=1 gi (x). Prove that for any a1 . Example 12.

. .j≤n 1≤i. Let a1 . . j2 ∈ Ai .. Of course. A2 . .j≤n min(ai . x2 .j≤n min(bi . .j≤n |ai − bj | and since |ai − aj | = 2 1≤i. bj ). but in a contest things change! Example 13.j≤n 1≤i. remember that 2 min(x. a2 . bj ) ≥ 2 1≤i. . i=1 a) Prove that the inequality 1≤i<j≤n xi xj |ai − aj | ≤ 0 holds. . n} such that for all i ∈ {1. 2. k} we have j∈Ai xj = 0 and aj1 = aj2 if j1 . Now.j≤n |bi − bj | ≤ 2 1≤i.j≤n 1≤i<j≤n |ai − aj |. xn be real numbers such that n ai xi = 0. . . y) = x + y − |x − y| and the last inequality becomes |ai − aj | + 1≤i. the problem is solved. we ﬁnd that min(ai . here is a diﬃcult problem. . . . this is easy to ﬁnd for the author of the problem. Using this idea. . . Gabriel Dospinescu. .Since ∞ ∞ ∞ ∞ f 2 (x)dx+ 0 0 g 2 (x)dx = 0 (f 2 (x)+g 2 (x))dx ≥ 2 0 f (x)g(x)dx. . Ak of the set {1. b) Prove that we have equality in the above inequality if and only if there exist a partition A1 . 2. .. an > 0 and let x1 . . Mathlinks Contest 277 . . whose elementary solution is awful and which has a 3-lines solution using the above idea. . aj ) + 1≤i.

∞) → R. .ai ] . an > 0 and let Ai = {j ∈ {1. . let us compute ∞ f= i=1 xi λ[0. Hence xi xj min(ai . . . . Let us consider the function n f : [0. .j≤n i=1 xi i=1 ai xi = 0. A2 . we conclude that xi xj |ai − aj | ≤ 0. .j≤n xi xj min(ai . 1≤i<j≤n Let us suppose that we have equality. aj ) ≥ 0.Solution.j≤n Since min(ai .aa ] (x)dx = 1≤i. n} and we also have k xj λ[0. . . Then A1 . Let λA be the characteristic function of the set A. .ai ] (x)λ[0. . Ak is a partition of the set {1. . . . . Now. aj ) = and n n ai + aj − |ai − aj | 2 xi xj (ai + aj ) = 2 1≤i. ∞ f 2 (x)dx = 0 1≤i. We ﬁnd that ∞ f 2 (x)dx = 0 0 and so f (x) = 0 almost anywhere. . 2. 2. . aj ).bi ] = 0 i=1 j∈Ai 278 . . 1≤i. . let b1 .j≤n xi xj 0 λ[0. n}| aj = bi }. Now. b2 . . bk the distinct numbers that appear among a1 . a2 .

2. bi bj −1 = min(ai bj . bj = 0. . aj bi ) − min(ai aj . This case is trivial. bi bj ). rj ) = bi bj min aj ai − 1. . aj ) ≥ 0 1≤i. bi bj ) = xi xj min(ri . solution based on this result: Example 14. The ﬁrst one is when at least one of the two inequalities ai ≥ bi and aj ≥ bj becomes an equality. bi bj ) ≤ 1≤i. . k}. aj bi ) − min(ai aj . Let us deﬁne the numbers ri = min(ai . from where we easily conclude that xj = 0 for all i ∈ {1. by any chance. but let us remark that actually we may assume that ai ≥ bi and aj ≥ bj . Proving this relation can be achieved by distinguishing 4 cases. i∈Ai The conclusion follows. xn . Zbaganu. 279 . a2 . −1 bi bj = bi bj min ai aj . . one of ai . . bi ) − 1 and xi = Solution. . .j≤n for any numbers x1 .j≤n min(ai bj . which leaves us with only two cases. an > 0 let’s make a step further and give the magniﬁcent proof found by Ravi B. G. Prove the following inequality min(ai aj . Then xi xj min(ri . aj bi ). aj bi ) − bi bj = min(ai bj . x2 . USAMO. And since we have proved the nice inequality xi xj min(ai . . a1 . so let us assume the contrary. . (see mathlinks site) for one of the most diﬃcult inequalities ever given in a contest. we can simply put ri = 0). 1999 max(ai . .j≤n 1≤i. rj ). . .almost anywhere. The crucial observation is the following identity: min(ai bj . bi ) sgn(ai − bi ) (if.

j xi xj min(ri .j≤n n 1≤i. aj bi ) − 1≤i. the last inequality being nothing else than the main ingredient of the preceding problem. use the formula min(u.j≤n min(1. rj ) ≥ 0. since otherwise the problem is really extremely hard. . Example 15.j≤n |xi − xj |. Consider bi = 1 in the inequality from example 14.j≤n 1≤i.j≤n |1 − xi xj |. xn some positive real numbers such that |1 − xi xj | = 1≤i. bi bj ) = i.Now. Taking into account that |1 − xi xj | = 1≤i.j≤n min(ai aj . Finally.j≤n 1≤i. here is a very funny problem. . . u + v − |u − v| and rewrite the 2 n 2 Now. we ﬁnally obtain n n 2 2n i=1 xi ≥ n + i=1 280 2 xi . Gabriel Dospinescu Solution.j≤n |xi − xj |. xi xj ). Consider this a hint and try to solve it.j≤n 1≤i.j≤n |xi − xj | ≥ n + i=1 2 xi − 1≤i. which is a consequence of this last hard inequality. Let x1 . xj ) ≥ 1≤i. x2 . We obtain: min(xi . . we can write min(ai bj . Prove that i=1 xi = n. v) = above inequality in the form n 2n i=1 xi − 1≤i. .

1991 5. b ∈ N∗ ln bn + 1 an + 1 < 1 1 1 b + + ··· + < ln . b. Prove that 9 10 f k=1 k 10 + k=1 f −1 k 10 ≤ 99 . for a ∈ (−1. College Math. 10 Sankt Petersburg. Prove the following inequality an + bn + 2 a+b 2 n ≥2· an + an−1 b + · · · + abn−1 + bn n+1 for any positive integer n and any nonnegative real numbers a. 1] → R such that f (0) = 0 and f (1) = 1. Prove that for any a > 0 and any positive integer n the inequality 1a + 2a + · · · + na < holds. 0) we have the reversed inequality. Harris Kwong. Let a continuous and monotonically increasing function f : [0. Also.which can be rewritten as n 2 xi − n i=1 ≤0 Therefore n xi = n. 281 . Show that for all a. i=1 Problems for practice 1. Folklore 3. an + 1 an + 2 bn a (n + 1)a+1 − 1 a+1 2. Prove that for any real number x n n n k=0 x2k ≥ (n + 1) k=1 x2k−1 . Journal 4.

Prove that for any real numbers a1 . . Prove that if a1 ≤ a2 ≤ · · · ≤ an ≤ 2a1 the the following inequality holds n 2 n 2 an 1≤i. a2 . c such that a + b = c = 1 we have: 1+ 1 a b 1+ 1 b c 1+ 1 c a ≥1+ 1 . Shah Ali. . Prove that the function f : [0. For all positive real number x and all positive integer n we have: 2n 0 x 2n 2n 2n 1 2 2n − + − ··· + > 0. Gabriel Dospinescu 7.Mihai Onucu Drambe 6. . is bounded. α2 . . 1) → R deﬁned by f (x) = log2 (1 − x) + x + x2 + x4 + x8 + . . . x+1 x+2 x + 2n Komal 8. Prove that k−j j−1 αi αi+1 1≤i≤n 1≤j≤k ≥ k nk−2 n k−1 αi i=1 . ab + bc + ca Marius and Sorin Radulescu 282 . b. . an n i. Prove that for any positive real numbers a. α1 .j≤n min(ai . Komal 9.j=1 ij ai aj ≥ i+j−1 n 2 ai i=1 . αn+1 = α1 . . Let k ∈ N. . aj ) ≥ i=1 ai + 2n − i=1 ai . 10. . Crux Mathematicorum 11. Hassan A.

. i=1 Adapted after an IMC 2000 problem 14. A). . .j≤n min(ai . i a) Let us denote ∞ I(x. pn some positive numbers which add up to 1 and x1 . bj ) ≥ 13. Let also n n A= i=1 ai xi and G = i=1 xpi . Prove that for any x1 ≥ x2 ≥ · · · ≥ xn > 0 we have n i=1 x2 + x2 + · · · + x2 n i i+1 ≤π i n xi . Prove that ≥ . . bn ≥ 0 the inequality holds 1≤i.j≤n min(ai . bj ) . . . where ϕ(1) = 1.j≤n 1≤i. a2 . aj ) 1≤i. i=1 Deduce the arithmetic-geometric inequality. Let p1 . an . . . b1 . . . . 1 b) Suppose that xi ≤ and deﬁne A . . Don Zagier min(bi . Prove that for all a1 . G G Oral examination ENS 283 . . b2 . G the corresponding means 2 A A for 1 − xi . a) = 0 tdt . (1 + t)(x + at)2 Prove that A ln = G n pi (xi − A)2 I(xi . Let ϕ be Euler’s totient function. x2 . p2 . k 2 2 −1 Gabriel Dospinescu 15. . Prove that for any positive integer n we have n 1> k=1 2k 1 ϕ(k) ln k > 1 − n.12. xn some positive real numbers. . .

1996 18. 1 + xi 2 we have the inequality n2 1 ≥ . . . a2 . i i=1 Hilbert’s inequality 284 . . xn such that n i=1 n 1 = . Prove that for any positive real numbers x1 .j≤n (k 2 1 c kx − ≤ . .16. Let 0 = x1 < · · · < x2n+1 = 1 some real numbers. x2 . 1996 19. Prove that for any a1 . 2 + x) 2 x IMC.j≤n ai aj ≤π i+j n a2 . 2 Turkey TST. xi + xj 2 Gabriel Dospinescu 17. Prove that if xi+1 − xi ≤ h for all 1 ≤ i ≤ 2n then 1−h < 2 2n x2i (x2i+1 − x2i−1 ) < i=1 1+h . an ≥ 0 we have the following inequality 1≤i. . . . . Prove that we can ﬁnd a constant c such that for any x ≥ 1 and any positive integer n we have n k=1 1≤i.