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Smith is writing her daily observations of a student and writes, without interpretation, that the student is not completing the class work and is constantly speaking out of turn. Which of the following objectives does she appear to be using? a. prediction b. description c. explanation d. exploration 2. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers, counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically help them solve local problems? a. action research b. basic research c. predictive research d. orientational research 3. How much confidence should you place in a single research study? a. you should completely trust a single research study. b. you should trust research findings after different researchers have found the same findings c. neither a nor b d. both a and b 4. The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is built from which type of research? a. basic research b. action research c. evaluation research d. orientational research 5. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises? a. rationalism b. deductive reasoning c. inductive reasoning d. probabilistic 6. The idea that when selecting between two different theories with equal explanatory value, one should select the theory that is the most simple, concise, and succinct is known as ____________. a. criterion of falsifiability
b. critical theory c. guide of simplicity d. rule of parsimony 7. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the "same variables but different people" is which of the following? a. exploration b. hypothesis c. replication d. empiricism 8. ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience. a. rationalism b. deductive reasoning c. logic d. empiricism 9. According to your text, what are the five key objectives of science? a. prediction, summary, conclusion, explanation, description b. influence, prediction, questions, exploration, answers c. exploration, description, explanation, prediction, influence d. questions, answers, prediction, explanation, summary 10. A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence how well children learn spelling words. In this case, the main purpose of the study was: a. Explanation b. Description c. Influence d. Prediction 11. There is a set of churches in the U.S. where part of the service involves snake handling. The researcher wants to find out why the people attending these churches do this and how they feel and think about it. In this case, the primary purpose of the study is: a. Exploration b. Description c. Influence d. Prediction 12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good theory or explanation? a. It is parsimonious b. It is testable c. It is general enough to apply to more than one place, situation, or person d. All of the above are characteristics of good theories 13. Which of the following is not a basic assumption of science? a. Science cannot provide answers to all questions
b. It is possible to distinguish between more and less plausible claims c. Researchers should follow certain agreed upon norms and practices d. Science is best at solving value conflicts, such as whether abortion is immoral 14. What general type of research is focused on collecting information to help a researcher advance an ideological or political position? a. Evaluation research b. Basic research c. Action research d. Orientational research 15. Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory? a. Inductive b. Deductive c. Imductive d. Top down 16. Rene Descartes is associated with which of the following approached to knowledge generation? a. Empiricism b. Rationalism c. Expert opinion d. None of the above 17. Which scientific method is a top-down or confirmatory approach? a. Deductive method b. Inductive method c. Hypothesis method d. Pattern method 18. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research? a. Deductive method b. Inductive method c. Hypothesis method d. Pattern method 19. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories? a. Deductive method b. Inductive method c. Hypothesis method d. Pattern method 20. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories? a. Deductive method b. Inductive method
a 16. Which of the following statements is true of a theory? a.) 1. quantitative research b. research that attempts to generate a new theory 4. a cause-and-effect relationship d. a descriptive relationship . d 9. b 19. it answers the “how” and “why” questions c. mixed research d. d 7. b 2. qualitative research c. c 10. Which research paradigm is based on the pragmatic view of reality? a. it can be a well developed explanatory system d. a. all of the above are correct Answers: 1. qualitative research c. none of the above 3. d 15. a variable c. it most simply means “explanation” b. b 21. a 11. an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses c. Which of the following best describes quantitative research? a. d 13. research that is exploratory d. d 14. d Chapter 2 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. a constant b. Pattern method 21. a 20. a 5. none of the above 2. b 4. b 6. Hypothesis method d. the collection of nonnumerical data b. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ___. b 17. c 8. a 12. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing its findings? a. quantitative research b. mixed research d. a 18.c. a 3.
A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n): a. it relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as words and pictures .5. categorical variable b. intervening variable 6. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment 7. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except: a. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effect c. independent variable d. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except: a. it uses the deductive scientific method d. it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest b. dependent variable c. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data b.
two variables move in the same direction. random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher cannot manipulate the independent variable. the use of open-ended questions d. action research b. a. extraneous variables are never present b. action research b. basic research b. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the world d. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research? a. manipulation of the independent variable 10. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research? a. basic research c. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and the quantitative paradigm for another phase is known as ______. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-and-effect relationships? a. mixed model research 14. one variable goes up and one goes down d. b. a. 13. quantitative research . a positive correlation usually exists c. quantitative research d. mixed method research e. manipulation of the independent variable c. In _____. a. c. a negative correlation usually exists d. experimental research d. quantitative research c. focuses only on local problems 12. A positive correlation is present when _______. resistance to manipulation b. causal-comparative and correlational research 11. a. several variables never change. experimental Research 9. basic research c. two variables move in opposite directions.. nonexperimental Research b. it uses the inductive scientific method 8.c. Research in which the researcher uses both qualitative and quantitative research within a stage or across two of the stages in the research process is known as ______.
Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable? a. income. a. something that does not "vary" is called a ___________. temperature. Which of the following is the type of nonexperimental research in which the primary independent variable of interest is categorical? a. anxiety level. mixed model research 15. causal-comparative research b. What is the opposite of a variable? a. mixed method research e. qualitative research d. control group . an extraneous variable c. annual income c. constant d. both a and b 18.d. correlational research 17. method c. replication d. In research. a. experimental research c. causalcomparative research b. archival research 16. experimental research c. a data set 19. reading performance c. a dependent variable d. religion 21. historical research c.. religion. mixed research 20. variable b. ethnic group d. experimental research b. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____? a.. ethnography d. grade point average. grade point average d. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables? a. height b. a constant b.. gender. age b. age. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
00 26. b . it is very important to avoid _______. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two variables. Which correlation is the strongest? a. Ethnography 25. She believes that parent involvement has an impact on children by increasing their motivation to do school work. Correlational d. -1. Negative c. Experimental b. d 7. expressing a relationship with a correlation coefficient 23. checking the direction of the relationship d. b 3. c 2. Positive b. which in turn creates higher student achievement. Thus. A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded elementary schools. Causal-comparative c. checking the strength of relationship b. +. jumping to the conclusion of causality c. Perfect d.10 b. in her model. They are not correlated Answers: 1. a 8. Mediating or intervening variable 24. b 4. Student motivation is what kind of variable in this study? a. +. b 5. Extraneous variable c. Manipulated variable b. c 6. Confounding variable d. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research methods? a.95 c. greater parent involvement leads to higher student motivation. a. -.22. She develops a model that posits parent involvement as an important variable. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is: a.90 d.
a 19. Conveys a sense of emerging design c. Identify the intent or objective of the study c. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of the variables being investigated . Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricular activities d. d 14. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find 2. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions d. The “tool” function of theory is to: a. d 10. Summarize existing knowledge b. Describe the study 4. a 25. b 13. b 23. a 20. d 26. d 24. b 12. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular activities to conduct the study c. b 16. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested d.9. Specify the type of people to be used in the study d. Why is the statement “What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive development of school age children” not a good statement of a quantitative research question? a.) 1. b 17. d 18. e 15. A good qualitative problem statement: a. Suggest new theories 3. d 11. d 21. a Chapter 3 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitive development b. Defines the independent and dependent variables b. Summarize existing hypotheses c. c 22. The statement of purpose in a research study should: a. Identify the design of the study b.
hypothesis. None of the above 6. research question. Asks a question about some process. hypothesis b. Research topic. hypothesis d. research problem. research question. Research topic. research purpose. Research topic. research problem. research purpose. research question. or phenomenon to be explored b. research problem. Research topic. research problem. Is generally an open-ended question c. hypothesis c. both a and b are correct d. which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of the development of a research idea? a. A qualitative research question: a.5. research purpose . According to the text. research purpose. research question.
A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research questions is that: a. a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions b. False 8. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest b. Factors helpful in predicting future drug use . All of the above 13. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area c. True b. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest d. Which of the following is a function of theory? a. Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in schools d. One step that is not included in planning a research study is: a. Researchers’ own experiences as educators b. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do which of the following? a. All of the above 10. Identifying a researchable problem b. Theory and past research d.7. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research e. a. A review of current research c. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge b. What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched? a. Effectiveness of different methods of instruction b. Statement of the research question d. True b. Developing a research plan 9. All of the above are important functions of theory 12. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is not recommended by grounded theorists. Practical issues that require solutions c. Making predictions c. Sources of researchable problems can include: a. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information obtained via the internet ranges from very poor to very good. Description of educational practices c. False 14. Explaining phenomena d. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer 11.
Cost and time required to conduct the study b. Is made after the literature review c. A statement of the quantitative research question should: a. SocioFILE d. a. research methods. Is made prior to the literature review b. and materials . Computer database searches can be done: a. All of the above 17. measures. Is the following qualitative research purpose statement “well stated” or “poorly stated”? “The focus of the present study was to explore distressing and nurturing encounters of patients with caregivers and to ascertain the meanings that are engendered by such encounters. “What effect does playing high school football have on students’ overall grade point average during the football season?” 21. “What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on academic performance?” b. Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior? a. All of the above e. Will help guide the research process d.15. Which of the following is not a database containing information to be used during the literature review? a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive b. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study” generally ______. It is poorly stated 20. All of the above 18. It is a well stated b. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of: a. PsychINFO c. Potential ethical concerns d. At the library c. b and c 19. Online d. all of the above are potentially useful data bases 16. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants. The study was conducted on one of the surgical units and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a 374-bed community hospital. Skills required of the researcher c.” a. ERIC b. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the researcher will address b.
A research plan _____. a. instruments. Everyday life b. Past research d. The Introduction section of the research plan a. Are always stated after the research study has been completed 25. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted d. The research participants b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables c. and materials for the research study d. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies a. Data analysis d. it includes the research hypothesis d. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study b. Are never used d. Formulated prior to a review of the literature b. All of the above 26. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest c. b and c 24. for quantitative research. The planned research procedures e. All of the above 22. According to your text. Should be detailed b. Introduction b. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan? a. and analyzed c. Theory . Sets out the rationale for a research study d. Discussion 23. The apparatus. interpreted. Are often generated as the data are collected. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies b. Practical issues c. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study c. a. Should be given to others for review and comments c. All of the above 28. a. c and d 27. which of the following is not a source of research ideas? a. Research hypotheses are ______. Specify the variables of interest d.c. a. Method c.
False 2. A description of the purpose of the research c. a 20. e 19. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas Answers: 1. d 13. d 26. d 17. e Chapter 4 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. d 18. True b. b 4. d 28. It should never be used b. Assent from the child if he or she is capable c. c 3. d 22. a 7. b 2. d 12. Informed consent from the parent or guardian b. d 10. Which of the following is true about the use of deception in research? a. e 27. c 15. b 23. a 8. b 11. Which of the following need(s) to be obtained when doing research with children? a. Both a and b 4. d 5. a 14. Ethics is the set of principles and guidelines that help us to uphold the things we value. Informed consent from the child d. d 9.) 1. d 16. the participants may need to be debriefed . d 24. It can be used anytime c. b 21. A description of the reliability and validity of test instruments d.e. A description of the statistical analyses that will be carried out b. a. c 6. A list of publications that the researcher has had in the last ten years 3. If there is deception in a study. Which of the following is necessary in obtaining informed consent? a. b 25.
Comparativeism 7.d. Getting informed consent b. What is the primary approach that is used by the IRB to assess the ethical acceptability of a research study? a. Which of the following generally cannot be done in qualitative studies conducted in the field? a. Utilitarianism b. Ethical skepticism d. Ethical skepticism c. Utilitarianism . Maintaining consent forms d. Keeping participants from physical harm c. The use of deception must be outweighed by other benefits of the study e. Which of the following approaches says that ethical issues should be judged on the basis of some universal code? a. Deontology c. Both c and d are true 5. Deontological b. Having full anonymity rather than just confidentiality 6.
Misrepresenting data can be difficult to detect d. Deontological approach b. Deception d. None of the above 14. Discretion 15. Deontological approach b. Keeping participants’ identity anonymous d. Desensitizing 13. Guidelines b. Ethics d. a. Confidentiality b.8 Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for conducting research with humans? a. Misrepresenting data is very easy to detect c. ________ means that the participant's identity. Ethical skepticism c. Confidentiality 11. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to any one but researcher and staff? a. Misrepresenting and creating fraudulent data is dishonest b. Anonymity b. This is called: a. Anonymity b. although known to the researcher. the research participant's identity is not known to the researcher. Ontological skepticism 10. Telling participants they are free to withdraw at any time 9. Which of the three ethics approaches says research ethics should be a matter of the individual's conscience? a. Telling participants they must continue until the study has been completed c. A commitment . Utilitarianism d. Anonymity c. is not revealed to anyone outside of the researcher and his or her staff. Which of the following is not true? a. Confidentiality c. Breaking confidentiality is not a problem 12. Research participants must give what before they can participate in a study? a. Utilitarianism d. Ethical skepticism c. Getting informed consent of the participant b. Which of the following approaches taken by people to resolve ethical issues is the primary approach used by the federal government and most professional organizations? a. Ideally.
Utilitarianism 17. The act of publishing the same data and results in more than one journal or publication refers to which of the following professional issues: a. Utilitarianism d. Deontology c. Desensitizing b. Which one of the following is not one of the approaches? a. Ethical skepticism b. Debriefing c. a. Dehoaxing c. reasons for the use of deception are given. Institutional Review Board d. Duplicate publication c. Research ethics b. None of the above 19. Deontological approach c. Full publication . Private information 16. Informed consent d. When it is necessary to engage in a good amount of deception to conduct a scientifically valid study. Institutional Rating Board c. Dehoaxing d. All of the above should be considered 21. IRB is an acronym for which of the following? a. Identify the term that refers to a poststudy interview in which all aspects of the study are revealed. Partial publication b. A set of principles to guide and assist researchers in deciding which goals are most important and in reconciling conflicting values when conducting research is called ____.c. Internal Review Board b. what procedure(s) should a researcher consider following? a. and the participants’ questions are answered? a. Debriefing b. Deception d. Deploying 18. Internal Request Board 20. Ontology d. There are three basic approaches that people tend to adopt when considering ethical issues in research. Desensitizing d.
c 14. b 22. c 20. b 24. Error is rarely present in the measurement process c. Utilitarianism c. b 3. a 13. Level of higher education 23. Concerning "authorship" in educational research. Which of the following is a right of each participant according to the AERA? a. Triplicate publication d. Freedom to withdraw d. Creative contribution c. d 21. b 23. Partial publication c. c 16. None of these 24. Which of the following is not an assumption underlying testing and measurement? a. b 18. a 2. b 9. Participants have no rights Answers: 1. Duplicate publication b. a 19. Deception b.22. a 15. a 8. Which term refers to publishing several articles from the data collected in one large study? a. Various approaches to measuring aspects of the same thing can be useful b. b 11. d 6. Professional position d. d 4. intellectual ownership is predominantly a function of: a. c Chapter 5 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. c 17.) 1. b 10. a 7. Present-day behavior predicts future behavior . Effort expended b. e 5. b 12.
Professor X develops a test of emotional intelligence. 5. There must be a reliable alternative form. Interval . Predictive evidence c. Systematic error is associated with: a. Validity 3. The test correlates with highly with another test of emotional intelligence and is highly correlated with self-efficacy c. but does correlate with self-efficacy d. Concurrent evidence b. False 7. or characteristics. If a test measures a single construct then: a. True b. Both a and b are correct answers 4. The items should not correlate with the total score c. Internal consistency d. The test does not correlate with another test of emotional intelligence. Ordinal c. The items should correlate with the total score b. An ordinal scale is used to rank order people. a. Which of the following is a type of criterion–related validity evidence? a. The test does not correlate with other tests of emotional intelligence nor with selfefficacy 6. The test should not correlate with other measures of the same construct d.d. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement? a. Nominal b. Which of the following represent convergent and discriminant evidence? a. objects. Testing and assessment benefit society 2. Reliability b. The test correlates highly with another test of emotional intelligence and is uncorrelated with self-efficacy b.
a. most of the outcome/dependent variable characteristics and attributes measured in educational research probably exist at the ______________ level of measurement. a.g. A rank order of participants on some characteristic . This test would clearly have which of the following? a. the PSAT is used to indicate high-school GPA scores). Aptitude d. Stanford-Binet c. Let’s say that a test accurately indicates participants’ scores on a future criterion (e.. Ratio scale c. Interval scale b.d. Ordinal scale 11. ______ tests focus on information acquired through the informal learning that goes on in life. Ratio 8. Wechsler Scales b. Ways in which people are the same d. If a baseball coach calculates batting averages. Concurrent validity c. Anxiety enduring for months or years b. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following? a. Ordinal c. Consistency or stability b. Slosson 14. Appropriateness of interpretations on the basis of test scores c. Predictive validity d. Nominal b. what scale would be used? a. Ratio 12. Depression caused by the loss of a ball game 13. Face validity b. Intelligence 9. All of the following are examples of Intelligence Tests except _________: a. Shyness when meeting a stranger for the first time d. Content validity 10. Nominal scale d. Anxiety over just seeing a spider c. Achievement c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory(MMPI) d. According to the text. Which of the following is most clearly an example of a psychological trait? a. Personality b. Interval d.
ordinal 21. Which of the following types of reliability refers to the consistency of test scores over time? a. Measure of consistency with which a test measures a single construct or concept d. The simplest form of measurement b. A scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbers d. Splithalf c. Interval. nominal. Validation b. interval b. Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens’ four levels of measurement? a. or predict. Measure of degree of agreement between two or more scorers. Test-retest b. ratio. Internal consistency 17. A scale with an absolute zero point e. interval. Content d. Which of the following statements accurately describes test-retest reliability? a. Validity c. nominal. Reliability d.15. An ordinal scale is: a. A rank-order scale of measurement c. Prediction . judges. A categorical scale 16. Which of the following is not a type of reliability? a. the examinees' performance in some activity: a. ordinal. ordinal. or raters 18. Ordinal. Criterion-related validity d. Nominal. Measure of consistency of scores obtained from two equivalent halves of the same test c. interval. Testretest reliability d. Inference validity 20. Measure of consistency of test scores over time b. ratio c. Equivalent forms reliability b. ratio d. Split-half reliability c. Ratio. Inter-scorer reliability 19. Face validity c. Content reliability b. Identify the following term that most closely refers to a judgement of the extent to which scores from a test can be used to infer. nominal. Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences based test scores? a.
a. Which type of reliability refers to the consistency of a group of individuals' scores on two equivalent forms of a test designed to measure the same characteristic? a. “reliability” refers to asking ourselves which of the following questions? a. a 5. d 4. Scores from the test are not correlated with anything d. Scores from the test correlate highly with most tests of different constructs c. a 7. _________ refers to how well the particular sample of behaviors used to measure a characteristic reflects the entire domain of behaviors that constitutes that characteristic. Construct validity evidence b. Split-half b. b 2. with other measures of self-esteem) but much lower correlations with tests of different constructs 24.e.22. Content validity evidence d. Validity of a test designed to measure a construct such as self-esteem is best described by which of the following? a. b . Test-retest c.. a 8. c 9. Scores from the test have a relatively strong and positive correlation with other tests of the same construct (i. False 26. Face validity evidence Answers: 1. Does it measure what it is supposed to measure? b. Scores from the test correlate highly with most intelligence tests b. Equivalent forms 25. True b. b 3. Does it measure multiple constructs? 23. Does it give consistent results? d. a. c 10. Achievement tests are designed to measure the degree of learning that has taken place after a person has been exposed to a specific learning experience. Split-forms d. Criterionrelated validity evidence c. a 6. Are there ways to avoid subjective judgments when measuring something? c. When evaluating tests and assessments.
All of the above e. According to the text. 18. Avoid double-barreled questions d. All of the above 5. 16. In the future (prospective questions) d. b a c a b c a c c b a c d d a c Chapter 6 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. Both a and b are problems d. There is no problem with the above set of response categories 3. 15. 24.) 1. 14. 20. In the past (retrospective questions) b. 19. 23. Five b. The categories are not exhaustive c. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs c. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction? a. Only b and c . In the present (current time questions) c. False 4. Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructs b. 17. 13. You should mix methods in a way that provides complementary strengths and nonoverlapping weaknesses. 26. 25. This is known as the fundamental principle of mixed research. What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question “What is your current age?” 1-5 5-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 a. how many points should a rating scale have? a. questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking place when? a. 21. 12.11. 22. According to your text. The categories are not mutually exclusive b. Ten d. Somewhere from 4 to 11 points 2. Four c. a. True b.
Questionnaires b. a. Experiments .6. Interviews c. Which of these is not a method of data collection.
Confirmatory data b. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose? a. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following? a. Qualitative data c. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own words c. Which of the following statements is true? a. It takes less time than self-report approaches b. Primary data b. a. Qualitative observation is usually done for exploratory purposes. An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions depending on their response is called a ____________. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words d. Predictive data d. Probe c. a. Field notes 10. Response set b. Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data. Contingency question 9. Archived research data d. Experimental data d. Which of the following is true concerning observation? a. It costs less money than self-report approaches c. Observations 7. it is also called ___________ observation. Semantic differential d. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s predetermined response categories b. Naturalistic . Structured b. All of the above 13. a. All of the above 8. None of the above 12. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words 11. Secondary data c. Official documents b. It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they do d.d. Personal documents c. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data.
Interviews c. A question during an interview such as “Why do you feel that way?” is known as a: a. Standardized tests b. Observation b. Use natural language c. Interview protocol b. Understand your research participants d. Use "leading" or "loaded" questions b. Ranking 16. Interviews . when constructing a questionnaire it is important to do each of the following except ______. A closed quantitative interview d. Event sampling c. Probed 14. Focus groups e. The interview guide approach b. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n): a. The standardized open-ended interview 18. Complete d. Checklists 17. Probe b. Questionnaires d. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data collection that are used by educational researchers? a. The informal conversational interview c. Pilot 20. Interviews c. Questionnaires b. Response d. A census taker often collects data through which of the following? a. Summated rating scale d. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance but the sequence and wording can be modified during the interview is called: a. Secondary data d. a. Pilot your test questionnaire 15. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection: a. As discussed in chapter 6.c. Filter question c. All of the above are methods of data collection 19.
Contingency questions b. Interview guide approach b. Why do you feel that way?. c 7. Response categories 25. Avoid double-barreled questions c." etc. When constructing a questionnaire. Which of the following is not one of those principles? a. An observer-as-participant c. d 5. c 3. are all forms of: a.c. a 4. Probes c. Do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions b. d . Avoid double negatives d. Protocols d. A complete participant b. Observations 21. When conducting an interview. d 2. None of the above 22. Which type of interview allows the questions to emerge from the immediate context or course of things? a. This researcher may be which of the following? a. Standardized open-ended interview 24. Secondary data d. Questionnaires b. Focus groups c. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that is being studied. Avoid using multiple items to measure a single construct Answers: 1. there are 15 principles to which you should adhere. asking "Anything else?. d 6. d 8. Secondary data 23. Informal conversational interview c. A participant-as-observer d. What do you mean?. Closed quantitative interview d. Correlational method d. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection? a.
The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis. the larger the sample needed c. A quota sample c. a 20. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected. a 18. b 12. the larger the sample needed . Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportions c. c 11. b 24. b 25. The larger the sample size. An Equal probability selection method 2. c 13. 3. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling? a. d 17. d Chapter 7 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. a 22. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done d. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within each ethnic group at random. b 10. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number table to pick cases from the table. d. c 16. the greater the sampling error b. A snowball sample d. Randomly selecting schools.) 1. c. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample 4. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample? a. c 23. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups b. and then sampling everyone within the school. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate b.9. a 15. Which of the following statements are true? a. b 21. e 19. A nonrandom sampling method b. this is called: a. b 14.
Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size c. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include in the original sampling? a.. Systematic sampling .d. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1 b. Simple random sampling b. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method (i. EPSEM) in which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected? a. so does the size of the confidence interval 5.e. Proportion likely to respond/population size d. As sample size decreases. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond 6.
Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling? a. All of the above are EPSEM 7. Cluster sampling c. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size? a. Purposive sampling e. Cluster sampling b. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research? a. Every ten years d. Every five years c. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling 8. People who are available. volunteer. Proportional stratified sampling 11. a. A small sample based on simple random sampling c. or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method called ______. Quota sampling d. Quota sampling d. Systematic sampling d. Convenience sampling 13. Purposive sampling 10.c. Snowball sampling b. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a sample has been taken? a. and then taking convenience samples from those groups? . Simple random sampling c. Simple random sampling b. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique b. Cluster sampling using the PPS technique e. Twice a year 12. Convenience sampling c. A large sample based on simple random sampling d. Simple random sampling b. Proportional stratified sampling d. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as important. Systematic sampling d. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count? a. Every year b. A small cluster sample 9. Systematic sampling c.
a. 178). 377 d. Simple random sampling b. Snowball b. 242 b.6 (pg. Proportional stratified sampling b. A datum b. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting cases that disconfirm the researcher's expectations and generalizations is referred to as _______________. Cluster random sampling d. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research participants? a. Independent variable b. and then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females.000? a. how many participants will you need for a research study with a population of 120. Using Figure 6. Extreme case sampling b. A statistic . One-stage cluster sampling d. 384 16. the variable on which we would divide the population is called the _____. Sampling variable 19. 331 c. Purposive d. Dependent variable c. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City. Negative-case sampling 15. Proportional stratified sampling c. Quota 17. Systematic sampling 18. Typical-case sampling c. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a characteristic of the population is called which of the following? a. divided them by gender.a. Stratification variable d. Two-stage cluster sampling 14. a. Quota sampling c. Convenience c. Critical-case sampling d. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed in your chapter? a.
Census c. Survey research d. A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to the population before the next member is selected is called _________. Quota . 1000 or less d. 100 or less c. Quota sampling d. Probability proportional to size or PPS 24. A population 20. Systematic sampling 21. a. Quota sampling 23. Sampling with replacement c. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its efficiency? a. One stage cluster sampling b. Cluster sampling b. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________. It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample when the population size is of what size? a. Sampling without replacement b. Purposive sampling e. Simple random sampling d. a. They are all type of nonrandom sampling 22. you should always use a sample 26. Two-stage sampling d.c. Two stage cluster sampling d. One-stage sampling c. Convenience sampling c. a. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling? a. None of the above 25. Sampling b. Purposive b. 500 or less b. Cluster sampling b. Simple random sampling c. A parameter d. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling technique? a.
Stratified Random Sampling c. c 9. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules. d . Cluster sampling 30. e 8. d 13. Element 29. Statistic d. Simple Random Sampling b. d 6. Quota sampling c. Convenience sampling b.c. a. a 11. b 5. b 4. a. Quota sampling c. Snowball sampling Answers: 1. randomly selecting a number between 1 and k. Purposive sampling d. d 15. Purposive sampling d. Systematic Sampling d. Cluster 27. e 7. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____. c 3. d 10. d 2. Sample b. and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling? a. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population? a. Population c. b 14. Determining the sample interval (represented by k). c 12. Convenience d. Random sampling 28. Convenience sampling b.
23. A testing effect . 25. 21. A statistical relation of X and Y is insufficient evidence for inferring causality d. 17. A statistical relationship is sufficient evidence to infer causality b. 29. The failure to find an effect may be due to: a. He found no treatment effect. A moderating variable d. 26. the researcher finds out that the students in the control group are higher achievers than those in the experimental group. Which of the following statements is true? a. it is called: a. another reason for the change in scores could be: a. 24. When a extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent variable and influences the dependent variable. 30. 22. a b c c b a b d a b d d a c c Chapter 8 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. History b. A group of researchers do a study where children from particular classrooms are assigned to treatment or control conditions. Regression artifact c. While it is possible that the program made the difference. 27. Differential selection 4. After the study. A treatment effect b. A school district examines a program that uses mentors to help very poor readers improve their reading performance. Temporal order of the cause and effect is not important in inferring causality c.) 1. The children in the program are at the 4th percentile at pretest. An unreliable variable 2. 20. Multiple-treatment interference d. 28. Another dependent variable b. 18.16. Temporal order of cause and effect variables and statistical relation are all that are needed to infer causality 3. 19. At posttest they are around the 20th percentile. A confounding variable c.
Both schools had reading achievement that was around the 50th percentile. but not the control school is involved in the initiative. One serves as the control and the other the experimental group. Selection by mortality interaction b. the experimental group does better than the control. Mortality c. The experimental. A differential selection effect d. a statewide reading initiative is started in randomly selected schools. A researcher examines a program looking at the effects of mentoring on poor readers' reading achievement.c. Selection-history effect . From the information presented above. a likely threat to the internal validity of the study is: a. During the time that the mentoring program is in place in the experimental group. At the end of the year. He looks at two different schools. A maturation effect 5.
Second variable d. _____________ is the lowest inference descriptor of all because it uses the participant’s own words. Population validity c. Population validity c. Both a and b are correct 9. Multiple operationalism d. Which type of validity refers to the ability to infer that the independent and dependent variables are related ant that the measured strength of the relationship is accurate? a.d. Instrumentation b. Internal validity b. What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be generalized across time? . Investigator triangulation 11. An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent variable and also influences the dependent variable is known as a _______________. Interpretive validity b. boredom. Third variable c. ___________ refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals over time. Maturation d. Researcher bias c. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the relationship between two variables is causal? a. A verbatim c. Statistical conclusion validity 8. The use of multiple observers to allow cross-checking of observations to make sure that the investigators agree with what took place is known as _______. Statistical conclusion validity 7. Selection-maturation effect 6. Ecological validity d. Testing 12. such as aging. Ecological validity d. and fatigue. a. Internal validity b. Participant feedback b. a. hunger. Data triangulation d. learning. History c. Investigator triangulation 10. a. a Confounding variable b.
a. Group effect 18. Degree to which a theoretical explanation fits the data d. Reactivity c. Evidence that the relationship between the variables being investigated is not due to a confounding extraneous variable c. Fourth variable . External validity c. Evidence that changes in variable A occur before changes in variable B d. Data feedback 17. Ability to generalize the study results across settings 14. Which of the following terms is a strategy where the researcher actively engages in critical self-reflection about his or her potential biases and predispositions. Pattern matching c.a. Third variable d. Temporal validity 13. Data matching b. Data triangulation d. Investigator triangulation d. Experimenter effect b. Ecological validity b. The temporal ordering of the variables being investigated does not matter because a relationship is all that is really needed 16. Factual accuracy of an account as reported by the researcher b. Last variable b. Selection-history effect c. First variable c. Evidence that the independent and dependent variables are related b. What is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable? a. What may happen when different comparison groups experience a different history event? a. Selection effect d. Accurately portraying the meanings given by the participants to what is being studied c. The use of multiple data sources to help understand a phenomenon is one strategy that is used to promote qualitative research validity. History effect b. Reflexivity 15. Which of the following terms describes this strategy? a. Internal validity d. Which of the following is not considered one of the criteria for inferring causality? a. Which of the following best describes interpretive validity? a.
a. Multiple operationalism b. Which of the following terms describes the ability to generalize from the sample of individuals on which a study was conducted to the larger target population of individuals and across different subpopulations within the larger target population? a. Maturation c. Peer review b. Ecological validity d. Attrition generally occurs in research where ____. Multiple construct measurement c. Some participants do not complete the study d. Random assignment 22. None of above 24. The use of several measures of a construct is called: a. Differential attrition occurs when the people dropping out from one group are different from the others in their group or from the people in the comparison group. Methods triangulation 23. Instrumentation b. A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time that affects their performance on the dependent variable is called ________. False 26. Regression d. a. Testing d. Population validity c. Temporal validity 21. a. Selection 20. Extended fieldwork d. The study fails c. True b. Operationalism d. Internal validity refers to which of the following? . External validity b. The study is very brief 25. Which of the following is not a strategy used to promote qualitative research validity? a. Theory triangulation c. Instrumentation b. Which of the following refers to any systematic change that occurs over time in the way in which the dependent variable is assessed? a. Maturation c.19. You do demographic research b.
History 30. History b. Ecological validity d. Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal validity? a. The ability to infer that a casual relationship exists between 2 variables b. Member checking 28. The ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included in the study 27. Internal validity c. None of the above 29. This type of validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a study across settings. Which type of validity refers to the factual accuracy of an account as reported by the researcher? a. Instrumentation c. Differential selection 32. The extent to which study results can be generalized to and across populations of persons. and times c. Sampling error d. Ecological validity b. Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses multiple research methods to study a phenomenon? a. Data triangulation b. Temporal change d. Temporal validity d. Methods triangulation c. Maturation b. Descriptive validity d. Operationalism b. a. External validity 31. Temporal validity c. Testing c. The use of effective measurement instruments in the study d. a. settings. Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research design? a. Alteration in performance due to being aware that one is participating in a study is known as ______. Theory triangulation d. Reactivity c. Mortality .a. Temporal validity b.
d 8. d 22. The idea that the more times a research finding is shown with different sets of people. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific variables b. a 7. a 20. c 12. c 19. b 2.33. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups d. b 24. d 15. The group solving problems in . b 11. b 21. Replication logic Answers: 1. c 17. a 26. c 3.) 1. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables 2. To determine whether noise affects the ability to solve math problems. c 30. c 6. a researcher has one group solve math problems in a quiet room and another group solve math problems in a noisy room. d 13. d 9. Analysis of covariance is: a. a 27. c 5. a 23. the more confidence we can place in the finding and in generalizing beyond the original participants is known as ___________. b 28. c 32. c 31. c 25. a. b 18. d Chapter 9 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. Methods generalization c. d 10. Naturalistic generalization b. b 4. d 16. c 29. b 33. b 14. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects c. Data triangulation d.
Carryover effects c. a. the difficulty of the problems 3. The posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups is likely to control for which of the following threats to internal validity: a.the noisy room completes 15 problems in one hour and the group solving problems in the quiet room completes 22 problems in one hour. History b. the independent variable is ____________ and the dependent variable is _____________. Order effects b. Analysis of covariance d. she picks children to study who are only from low SES homes. Differential selection c. The noise level in the room. When all participants receive all treatment conditions. Holding the extraneous variable constant d. Because she is concerned that socio-economic-status (SES) is a potential extraneous variable in her study. the noise level in the room c. The number of problems solved. the number of problems solved d. the study is susceptible to: a. Which of the following terms best describes an interaction effect? a. Matching b. Additive and interactive effects d. The noise level in the room. In this experiment. Differential attrition 4. The control technique she used in this study was: a. The number of problems solves. the difficulty of the problems b. The effect of one independent variable (on a DV) depends on the level of another independent variable b. Statistically controlling the extraneous variable 6. Random assignment c. a and b 5. A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later school performance. Eliminating any differential influence of extraneous variables .
Only used when one pretest variable needs to be controlled c. The effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable 7. a. One-group pretest-posttest design b. Amount technique c. Differential influence c. Both b and c 10. a. Matching c. Sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment conditions are administered d.c. Which of the following terms refers to a statistical method that can be used to statistically equate groups on a pretest or some other variable? a. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups d. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the ________. Experimental group b. All of the above 11. Control group c. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for both known and unknown variables? a. Random technique 9. Analysis of covariance 8. Experimental control b. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment variable is introduced into the research setting. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable? a. Random assignment d. a. Counterbalancing is _________. Presence technique b. Matching d. a. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____. Analysis of covariance 13. Experimental group . Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects* d. Independent group 12. Type technique d. Pretest-posttest control group design c. Usually based on random selection of participants b. Participant group d. Building the extraneous variable into the design b.
Both b and c are excellent designs 19. A cell is a combination of two or more ____ in a factorial design. Presence technique 20. Pretest-posttest control-group design d. Sequencing effects d. Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type on the independent variable that is presented to the different comparison groups is known as _____.. Amount technique b. Research designs b. Research measurements c. Type technique d. Even versus odd numbers c. None of the above 15. Matching c. Which of the following terms is a sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment conditions are administered? . Let the researcher decide which group will be the best 16. Which control technique is considered to be the best? a. a. a. first half versus second half of a school directory) b. Posttest-only control-group design c. Which of the following designs does an excellent job of controlling for rival hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an experiment? a. Independent group 14. Independent variables 18. Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program d. Treatment group d. Random assignment b. Counterbalancing d.g. Dependent variables d. Absence technique c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups b. Carryover effect b. Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to groups in an experimental study? a. Matching 17. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be controlled. Split-half (e. Which term is not a related to counterbalancing? a. Control group c. Order effect c.b.
Pretest-posttest control-group design 25. When manipulating the independent variable in an educational experiment. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their independent and interactive effects on the dependent variable c. Repeated measures design c. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their independent and interactive effects on the dependent variable d. on the dependent variable. Independent variable d. One-group posttest-only design . An independent variable is manipulated using the presence or absence technique b. Counterbalancing e. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects 26. None of the above 21. a. the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect produced by the ____. The researcher varies the type of the independent variable d. A factorial design is one in which ____. Carry-over effect b. Factorial design b. Order effect c. Building the extraneous variable into the research design d. Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on the dependent variable b. a. Dependent variable b. The design in which one group of research participants is administered a treatment and is then compared. Replicated design d. Randomly assign research participants to the groups 23. Holding extraneous variables c. In an experimental research study. Extraneous variable c. a. Confounding variable 24. The researchers varies the amount of the independent variable that is administered c. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental treatment conditions. a. Sequencing effects d.a. Matching individual participants b. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes precedence over all other methods? a. which of the following describes this method? a. All of the above are possible 22. with another group of research participants who did not receive the experimental treatment is ____.
Pretest-posttest control-group design c. a 7. Proactive effect 28. Which of the following is possible in a factorial design with two independent variables? a. Order effect 29. Which of the following is a factorial design where different participants are randomly assigned to the levels of one independent variable but participants take all levels on another independent variable? a. All of the above are possible 30. a. There are two main effects present c. a. c 11. Interaction effect b. Reactive effect c. d 5. A sequencing effect that occurs when performance in one treatment condition is influenced by participation in a prior treatment condition is known as ____. time series design 27. Counterbalancing effect b. Carryover effect c. a . a 2. d 8. There are two main effects and an interaction effect present d. b 14. a 12. Treatment effect d. c 6. a 4. Main effect d. One-group pretest-posttest b. b 10. Factorial design based on a mixed model Answers: 1. _____ refers to the influence of a single independent variable. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups d. c 3. There is only one main effect present b. c 13. d 9. Factorial design d.b. One-group pretest-posttest design c.
15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
c d d d c b d e c b c c c b d d
Chapter 10 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question.) 1. A researcher does a study examining the effects of a preschool program. He uses a nonequivalent comparison group design. He finds that the cognitive growth of his experimental group is greater than that of his control. Unfortunately, he later finds that in general children who live in the area where he drew his experimental group tend to grow faster cognitively than children who were from the area where he drew his control group. When he discovered this problem, he discovered what threat to the internal validity of his study? a. Selection-maturation effect b. History effect c. Selection-instrumentation effect d. Testing effect 2. For a treatment to be deemed effective when used in the context of an AB-A single case design, what has to occur? a. Behavior should change as the treatment is implemented b. Behavior should return to baseline levels when the treatment is removed c. When the treatment is removed, behavior should stay at the level that was created by the treatment rather than revert back to the baseline d. Both a and b 3. In a changing-criterion design, changes in criterion are best done: a. As soon as the prior criterion is met b. When the previous criterion is met and the behavior has stabilized c. Regardless of the previous criteria d. After a fixed number of trials 4. The non-equivalent comparison group design is a quasi-experimental design in which, for reasons of practicality, we cannot insure that the control and experimental groups are equivalent to each other when the experiment begins. The major interpretational difficulty imposed by this design is: a. Measuring whether the two groups are different from each other on the posttest b. Deciding how much each group has gained c. Determining when enough data points are collected
d. Being sure that any differences between groups at the end of the experiment are due to the independent variable’s influence and not due to preexisting group differences 5. A treatment effect is demonstrated in the regression discontinuity design by: a. A discontinuity in the regression line b. A significant difference in the pretest and posttest scores c. Analysis of covariance d. The demonstration of an interaction
6. Which of the following is a primary threat to the interrupted time-series design? a. History effect b. Selection-history c. Selection-maturation d. All of the above 7. A design consisting of an experimental and a control group but participants are not randomly assigned to the groups is which of the following? a. Interrupted time-series design b. Nonequivalent comparisongroup design c. Single case design d. A-B-A-B design 8. A form of the nonequivalent comparison-group design is recommended when ____. a. It is not possible to control for a basic history effect b. It is not possible to randomly assign participants to groups c. It is not possible to identify two groups d. All of the above 9. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design is the _____ effect. a. Selection-maturation effect b. Selection-history effect c. Selection-regression d. All of the above are threats 10. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design is the _____ effect. a. Maturation effect b. Selection-history effect c. Failure to revert to baseline d. All of the above 11. How many variables should be changed at a time when conducting a single-case design? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 12. In quasi-experimental research designs, causal interpretations can be made _______. a. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be plausible b. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be implausible c. Only when the participants have been randomly selected d. Only when there is a single participant in the experiment 13. In single-case research, “baseline” refers to ________.
A-B-A-B c. Variance d. Nonequivalent comparison-group b. The most frequently used quasi-experimental design is the _________ design. a. Interrupted time-series c. A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is compared to baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called what? a. Reverse 17. A-B-A design b. accuracy. Sequencing effect c.a. Baseline c. Flat line b. Is used as the standard against which change induced by the treatment is assessed b. The beginning point of the treatment condition b. The end point of the treatment condition c. Changing-criterion d. a. a. Which of the following occurs in a comparison group design when one of the two groups of participants grows or naturally develops faster than the other group? a. Single-case design c. A-B design 15. An observation of a dependent variable response prior to any attempt to change this response is known as the ___________. A baseline _____________. Order effect d. Nonequivalent comparison-group design b. Selection-maturation effect 16. Main effect b. Multiple-baseline d. The rate of response established prior to the experimental intervention d. Regression discontinuity 18. Changing-criterion design d. or frequency of some behavior over a period of time? a. Changing-criterion . All of the above are true 19. Is first obtained prior to the administration of a treatment d. Is the occurrence of a response in its freely occurring or natural state c. Which type of design can be used when the goal is to create a step-bystep increase (or decrease) in the amount. The time during which a treatment condition is administered 14.
you hope that the behavior of the participants prior to the administration of a treatment condition is ________. a. Not highly variable b. Highly variable c. Introduction of treatment c. Changing one variable allows isolation of the cause of the change b. None of the above 21. A-B design b. Baseline measurement b. What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design? a. Moving at a steep rate of change d. Changing more than one variable at a time confounds those independent variables c. Which of the following is not a phase in the A-B-A design? a. A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of the treatment condition during the last phase 26. a. Interrupted time-series design c. Both a and b are true d. Removal of treatment . Changing-criterion design b. Introduction of a second treatment d. Both designs end on the treatment condition b. Baseline conditions are only established in the A-B-A-B design d. The ________________ design rules out history by demonstrating that the dependent variable response reverts back to the baseline when the treatment is withdrawn. In a single-case design. Neither design ends on a treatment condition c. Interrupted time-series design 22. A-B-A design c. Which design would use analysis of covariance during data analysis? a. Changing criterion design d. A-B-A design d. A-B c. None of the above 25.20. A-B-A-B design 23. The interrupted time-series design can also be viewed as a(n): a. A-B-A-B design d. Control-group design 24. Nonequivalent comparison-group design b. Why is it important to change one variable at a time in single case designs? a.
a 24. she pairs each child who was an early reader with a child of the same IQ level who was not an early reader. b 17. In developing her groups for her study. c 27.27. Researchers can attempt to eliminate the threat of bias from the selection-maturation effect in the nonequivalent comparison-group design by matching experimental and control participants on important variables. True b. The number of police officers and the number of crimes are positively related. False Answers: 1. Group comparison designs are always superior to single-case designs. a 6.) 1. b 11. True b. a 2. c 14. a 23. False 28. c 25. A spurious relationship 2. a. b 8. This relationship is: a. a. a 7. d 26. A probabilistic causal relation d. b 4. a 20. d 10. c 22. d 5. d 19. b 13. c 15. d 12. b 9. a 18. d 16. d 3. a 21. a 28. A causal relationship b. The control technique she used was: . b Chapter 11 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. A research studies the relation between early reading and later school achievement. She decides that a potentially extraneous variable in the relationship is IQ. A direct relationship c.
They randomly sample students from the program and have them fill out questionnaires with items asking about the types of jobs they have had. Examining the relationship between two or more variables controlling for additional variables statistically b. Explanatory 5. a. Limiting the sample to individuals at a constant level of an extraneous variable 4. Descriptive b. Independent . Holding the extraneous variable constant b. Descriptive b. This project is best described as having what kind of objective: a. The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see what types of jobs their graduates take after they finish their program. Matching b. Random assignment 3. Predictive c. When research is done to test hypotheses and theories about how and why phenomena operate as they do. Predictive c. Including only one group in a correlational analysis c.a. Partial correlation analysis involves: a. They also are asked to describe the roles they play in their current positions. Matching d. Explanatory 6. Statistical control c. The variable the researcher matches to eliminate it as an alternative explanation is called a(n) _________ variable. Matching participants on potential confounding variables d. then the primary purpose of such research is: a.
General Lab Model d. Trend d. Partial correlation c.c. Predictive research b. Panel b. None of the above 14. A variable b. Nonspurious d. Which of the following is not a longitudinal design? a. Cross-sectional c. General Limited Model c. When a researcher starts with the dependent variable and moves backwards. The positive correlation between teachers’ salaries and the price of liquor is _________. The method of working multiple hypotheses refers to a technique for identifying rival explanations. Dependent d. General Logit Model b. it is called ________. Making the argument that because A preceded B. a. False 12. General Linear Model 13. Both a and c are longitudinal designs 8. Descriptive research 11. Exploratory research d. they cannot be correlated d. Which one of the following is not a step in nonexperimental research? . Partial 7. The post hoc fallacy is ____. Both b and c 10. A must have caused B b. Spurious b. A and B must be correlated c. Making the argument that because A preceded B. a. True b. GLM refers to which of the following? a. Analysis of covariance d. Both a and b 9. Making the argument that because A preceded B. a. Due to a third-variable c. Which of the following is considered a special case of the general linear model? a. Retrospective research c. a.
All of the above 17. Causal-comparative b. If a research finding is statistically significant. Which of the following independent variables cannot be manipulated in a research study? a. Causal modeling b. Descriptive research d. Predictive research c. Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for causation? a. One CANNOT say without additional information (i. a. Ethnicity c. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal? a. Interpret results d. Correlational c. Correlational c. Gender b. The observed result is probably not due to chance b. The lack of alternative explanation condition d. Historical 21. None of ht above can be manipulated in a research study 18. All are steps 15. it could be either depending on how well the researcher established the three necessary conditions for cause . Causal-comparative b. a.a. __________ is a form of explanatory research in which the researcher develops a theoretical model and empirically tests the model to determine how well the model fits the data.. Analyze data c. Experimental d. Causal-comparative research b. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal? a. a. The temporal antecedence condition c. Determine research problem and hypotheses b. Correlational research 20. The null hypothesis of “no relationship” is probably true 16. The observed result cannot possibly be due to chance c. Intelligence and other traits d. then ____. The observed result is probably a chance result d.e. Exploratory research 19. The relationship condition b. Nonexperimental research in which the primary independent variable of interest is categorical is sometimes called_____________.
the original relationship will become zero as measured by a correlation coefficient) 27.and effect) 22. Statistical control d. Strong c. It is best to use the method of working multiple hypotheses when _____.96. we would probably be able to say that the relationship is ____. The relationship between the original variables will get weaker or. Holding extraneous variables constant c. Matching b. Condition 1: Variable A and Variable B must be related (the relationship condition). a. None of the above 24. Matching can be done when your independent variable is categorical or quantitative. Which of the following is NOT a form of longitudinal research? a. b. a. it will disappear (i. You are finished with your research b. If a correlation coefficient is .0 d. a. What happens in a completely spurious relationship once the researcher controls for a confounding third-variable? a The relationship between the original variables will get stronger b. b is true and c is probably true 26. Condition 3: The relationship between variable A and Variable B must not be due to some confounding extraneous variable" d. Statistically significant d. Static control 23. True b. False 25. Weak b. The relationship between the original variables will remain unchanged c. You are planning your research study c. c. Nonexperimental research is always weak on all three of the conditions 28. You are hoping to publish your already obtained research results d. Trend study . a. if the original relationship is fully spurious.e. Which of the three necessary conditions for cause and effect is almost always problematic in nonexperimental research? a. _______ is the most commonly used technique for controlling for extraneous variables in nonexperimental research. The correlation coefficient will get closer to 1. Condition 2: Proper time order must be established (the temporal antecedence condition)..
Cross-sectional study 29. Curvilinear b. Neither a nor b 31. Both a and b d. a 14. Panel study c. a. Linear Answers: 1. c 6. d 2. d 10. Predictive research c. Nonlinear c. d . a. The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of _________ relationship present between two variables. d 9. This type of research tests hypotheses and theories in order to explain how and why a phenomenon operates as it does.b. Descriptive research b. Observing a relationship between two variables is NOT sufficient grounds for concluding that the relationship is a causal relationship. Explanatory research d. None of the above 32. Trend study b. True b. c 3. a. a 16. a 5. This type of longitudinal research studies the same individuals over an extended period of time. d 15. a 4. a 12. Panel study c. a 7. b 11. d 13. a. False 30. d 8. Linear and quadratic d.
32. The specific cultural conventions or statements that people who share a culture hold to be true or false are called ______. 28. 27. Standardized tests and measures 2. Identifying essences of a phenomenon 4. She found that it was common for such students to report that they felt like they had little control of their destiny. A researcher studies how students who flunk out of high school experienced high school. Axial coding b. Random sampling c. Philosophy b. 18. A narrative b. A grounded theory c. A probabilistic cause 6. 26. 29. The term used to describe suspending preconceptions and learned feelings about a phenomenon is called: a. Ethnography 5. 25. axial. 19. Generalization to the population b. Her report that this lack of control was an invariant part of the students’ experiences suggests that lack of control is _______ of the “flunking out” experience. Design flexibility c. Phenomenology has its disciplinary origins in: a. d a a c c c b a d d c c a b c d Chapter 12 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. 31. 20.17. Many disciplines 3. 22. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research? a. 24. a. An essence d. Bracketing d. 30. Holistic description and search for cultural themes c. Cross-case analysis d.) 1. Anthropology c. 21. and selective coding b. Unique case orientation d. . The primary data analysis approach in ethnography is: a. Open. Sociology d. 23.
Shared attitudes b. . Shared values d. The written and unwritten rules that specify appropriate group behavior are called _____. Shared beliefs c.a. Norms 7.
Shared beliefs c. Grounded theory d. Shared values d. ________ is a general methodology for developing theory that is based on data systematically gathered and analyzed. Ethnography c. _________ is the study of human consciousness and individuals’ experience of some phenomenon. Shared attitudes b. Multiple cases can be compared for similarities and differences b.a. a. Shared attitudes b. Axial coding b. Case study research 11. Shared beliefs c. Norms 10. Shared values d. Theory confirmation b. Norms 8. a. Multiple cases can more effectively test a theory than a single case c. The final stage in grounded theory data analysis is called ___________. a. a. All of the above 12. Theoretical saturation c. _____ are the standards of a culture about what is good or bad or desirable or undesirable. Constant comparative method d. Grounded theory c. Context sensitivity d. Phenomenology b. Theory deduction d. All of the above 13. Generalizations about population are usually better when based on multiple cases. Which major characteristic of qualitative research refers to studying real world situations as they unfold naturally? . d. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research? a. Inductive analysis c. Cost is lower and depth of analysis is easier when you study multiple cases in a single research study 9. Design flexibility b. Selective coding 14. Which of the following is not an advantage of studying multiple cases? a.
Single case study c. The study of the cultural past of a group of people d. Special words or terms used by the people in a group b. Design flexibility b. Which of the following is usually not a characteristic of qualitative research? a. a. An external. a. Dynamic systems c. It could be b or c 19. Case study 16. The grounded theorist is finished analyzing data when theoretical saturation occurs. Case study 17. Ethnography d. In which of the following case study designs does the researcher focus her primary interest on understanding something more general than the particular case? a. Phenomenology b. False 18. Phenomenology b.a. In which qualitative research approach is the primary goal to gain access to individuals’ inner worlds of experience? a. Instrumental case study d. Naturalistic inquiry d. Intrinsic case study b. Grounded theory c. Collective case study . Deductive design 21. social scientific view of reality c. Naturalistic inquiry c. Grounded theory d. Ethnography c. Which of the following involves the studying of multiple cases in one research study? a. Instrumental case study c. Intrinsic case study b. True b. Judging people from a different culture according to the standards of your own culture 20. Inductive analysis 15. The type of qualitative research that describes the culture of a group of people is called ____. Which of the following phrases best describes "ethnocentrism"? a. Collective case study d. Holistic perspective b. Dynamic systems d.
Involves direct and personal contact with participants 23. This experience is called _____. Emic perspective C. the step which focuses on the main idea. A phenomenal experience b. A vicarious experience c. a. Which of the following does not apply to qualitative research? a. Ethnography . Case study d. Data are often words and pictures b. A significant experience d. Etic perspective D. Ethnocentrism B. Holism 25. You want to study a Native American group in New Mexico for a six month period to learn all you can about them so you can write a book about that particular tribe. Which of the following is not one of the 4 major approaches to qualitative research. A dream 28. Theoretical saturation 26. You want the book to be accurate and authentic as well as informative and inspiring. a. In "phenomenology. a. The difference between ethnographic research and other types of qualitative research is that ethnographers specifically use the concept of “culture” to help understand the results. Open coding b. What type of research will you likely be conducting when you get to New Mexico? a. Axial coding c. Grounded theory e. False 24. and finalizing the theory is called ________. What term refers to the insider's perspective? A. Ends with a statistical report d. Nonexperimental 27. In data analysis of the grounded theory approach." a well written report will be highly descriptive of the participants’ experiences and will often elicit in the reader a feeling that they feel as though they are experiencing the phenomenon themselves. Phenomenology c.22. Ethnography b. Uses the inductive scientific method c. Selective coding d. developing the story line. a. True b.
” are known as _____ terms. c 10.” “book worms. d 8. When a researcher identifies so completely with the group being studied that he or she can no longer remain objective you have what is called _________. a 18. c 2. b 15. a 16. Instrumental case study 31. Terms such as “geeks. Going native c. Grounded theory d. a. Phenomenology c. False 30. b 4.b. a. b 13. a 11. c 5. Collective case study 29.” “preps. Phenomenology b. d . Culture shock b. social scientific view of reality. a. _________ is used to describe cultural scenes or the cultural characteristics of a group of people. Regression d. b 7. d 9. a. True b. a 3. Etic 32. Ethnography c. The emic perspective refers to an external. d 19. Emic b. Grounded theory d. c 17. Cultural relativism Answers: 1. c 6. d 14. d 12.
The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is referred to as: a. d d c a b c e b a b b a b Chapter 13 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. 26. Internal criticism c. After investigating further. 24. A researcher was interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. Internal criticism c. he goes to three other experts who help him identify whether the manuscript is authentic or not. External criticism d. Internal criticism c. Secondary Sources c. Internal critics 2. A historical researcher studying the implementation of the “new math” during the 1960s uses as a source a text written on the subject by a critic who was a mathematics teacher during that time period. 32. 25.) 1. The diary also mentions . Secondary criticism d. Before he uses the source.20. A researcher is interested in studying approaches to teaching writing in schools during the 1800s. 23. His authentification of the object is referred to as: a. Her analysis of the document to check its accuracy is referred to as: a. the conclusions drawn were erroneous. She discovers a grammar book. Positive criticism b. Secondary criticism d. but there is no author or copyright date in the book. Primary sources b. 28. 21. Positive criticism b. She examines the typeface in the book as well as the writing style. she discovers that the data that the individual based his or her conclusions on was falsified. Sourcing b. As she examines the document. 29. 31. 27. External critics d. 30. External criticism 3. She interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are considered: a. External criticism 4. A researcher studying the history of medical education finds a manuscript that purports to be from the 14th century. Secondary criticism 5. Hence. she finds a reference to the book from a teacher’s diary from the 1800s. 22.
Sourcing b. Positive criticism c.an author’s name. After further searching around she is able to identify the author of the book. Presentism . The investigator was engaged in what process? a.
All of the above 7. Generally considered more useful that primary sources b. Can involve use of historical linguists’ knowledgeable with the writing style of the period d. Can consist of sources that include original maps. Both a and b 11. transcripts of the minutes of a meeting. To enhance understanding of the culture in which we live d.d. Stories and tales c. All of the above 10. and photographs c. a. Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons? a. Generally considered less useful than primary sources 12. All of the above 9. True b. In historical research secondary sources are _________. Helps determine the validity. Data synthesis d. Preparing a report or narrative exposition b. a. trustworthiness or authenticity of a source c. a primary source _________. To identify the relationship that the past has to the present b. a. The following is a step in the process of historical research? a. All of the above 13. Historical research is interpretative. In historical research. In evaluating historical research sources. Interviews with people b. False . Identifying a research topic and formulation of the research problem or question c. Songs d. diaries. Contextualization refers to the process of identifying when and where an event took place. Data collection and/or literature review e. a. a. Consists of first hand accounts by witnesses to events b. To uncover the unknown e. external criticism ________. Axial coding 6. To evaluate and record accomplishments of individuals or entities c. True b. Oral histories can be based on ______. a. False 8. Can involve the use of carbon dating and handwriting experts b.
Three heuristics suggested by Wineburg (1991) for evaluating documents are: a. Maintaining a distinction between intent and consequences 20. External criticism b. Is a first-hand accounts of events c. The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information contained in the sources collected is known as ______. a. a. In historical research. Is the assumption that the past influences the present 16. Contextualization b. Corroboration d. Negative criticism 17. Inferring causation based on simple correlation e. and external criticism c. Sourcing. Vagueness d. corroboration and presentism 19. Presentism in historical sources ________. and contextualization b. a. Is the assumption that the present-day connotations of terms also existed in the past d. Corroboration. Negative criticism 18. Defining and interpreting key words. Differentiating between how people should behave and how they did behave d. Contextualization b. Internal criticism c. Chronologically ordering events c. The “identification of when and where an event took place” is known as _____. a. The Chicago Manual of Style c. The Historical Manual of Style d. When writing their narratives. Sourcing c. Contextualization. internal criticism.14. Corroboration. Presentism 15. Sourcing c. Corroboration d. The Historian’s Manual of Style Answers: . sourcing. Is the presence of the author in a historical source b. The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association (1994) b. a. phrases and terms b. a. “Comparing document to each other to determine whether they provide the same information or reach the same conclusion” is known as ________. internal criticism and external criticism d. many historical researchers prefer to use _____. data synthesis usually does not include ______.
d 4. Mixed model research d. Mixed research b. a 14. Monomethod research 5. a 19. Mixed research b. d 20. The use of a quantitative research objective. d 10. Mixed method research . e 7. a 8. d 3. Mixed research b. Mixed model research d. Mixed method research c.) 1. According to the typology used in your text. Multimethod research 3. a 6.1. Multimethod research 2. Mixed method research c. research in which quantitative and qualitative approaches are mixed within or across the stages of the research process is specifically called: a. a 18. Multimethod research 4. a 2. b 15. The use of a qualitative research objective. Across-stage mixed model research d. Mixed model research d. and the use of quantitative data analysis is known as: a. c 16. c 11. Within-stage mixed model research c. and performance of quantitative analysis is an example of: a. Mixed method research c. e 9. b 5. b Chapter 14 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. research in which a quantitative phase and a qualitative phase are included in the overall research study is specifically called: a. d 13. Mixed method research b. According to the typology used in your text. research in which quantitative and qualitative techniques are mixed in a single study is specifically called: a. collection of qualitative data. b 12. According to the typology used in your text. c 17. collection of quantitative data.
False 7. The pragmatist philosophy is most closely associated with which of the following positions? . Across-stage mixed model research d.b. a. Monomethod research 6. True b. Mixed researchers typically use the pragmatist philosophy. Within-stage mixed model research c.
Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status but the qualitative phase occurs before the quantitative phase d. Here is a mixed design using notation: “QUAL-->quan” What type of mixed research is this? a. Equal-status concurrent design 15. Across-stage mixed model research 12. The researcher’s categories that are used might not reflect local constituencies’ understandings c. If you develop and use a questionnaire that includes closed-ended and open-ended items then you have done which type of research? a. The compatibility thesis 8. Mixed method 13. The incompatibility thesis b. Equal-status sequential design c. What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL-->QUAN . Words. Provides precise. Mixed model b. Data are based on the participant’s own categories of meaning c. pictures. Which of the following is a weakness of mixed research? a. Numbers can be used to add precision to words. and narrative d. Researchers can generate and test a grounded theory c. What does this mean? a. What would this mixed method design be called: Qual-->QUAN a. Dominant-status sequential design b. Here is a mixed design using notation: QUAL + QUAN. The results are more easily influenced by the researcher’s personal idiosyncrasies b. Can determine idiographic causation d. Qualitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a quantitative phase b. Can study a large number of people 9. Quantitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a qualitative phase c.a. Which of the following is a weakness of quantitative research? a. Useful for describing complex phenomena 10. Testing hypotheses that are constructed before the data are collected d. pictures. Within-stage mixed model research b. and narrative can be used to add meaning to numbers b. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Which of the following is a weakness of qualitative research? a. numerical data b. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status and they are done concurrently 14. It is more time consuming and expensive 11.
Should the study be theory driven or data driven? d. He makes qualitative observations at several churches but also hands out fairly lengthy . Dominant-status sequential design b. Dominant-status sequential design b. Equal-status sequential design c. Equal-status sequential design c. clarification of the results from one method with the results from the other method? a. Which of the following mixed research rationales seeks elaboration. All of the above 20. What two questions must be answered in order to select one of the specific mixed method designs provided in the textbook? a. Dominant-status sequential design b. Which of the following cannot be a purpose or rationale for a mixed research design? a. Triangulation b. Is the qualitative or quantitative paradigm going to be given priority. or will they be given equal status in your study? b. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Equal-status concurrent design 18. Alabama. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Equal-status sequential design c. Equal-status concurrent design 17. Initiation e.a. Expansion f. All of the above can be purposes 19. Complementarity c. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Complementarity c. What would this mixed method design be called: Qual + QUAN a. Development d. Should the qualitative and quantitative components be carried out concurrently or sequentially c. Triangulation b. and Georgia. What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL + QUAN a. a and b 21. A researcher wants to understand why people are willing to handle snakes as a part of their church activities in several rural churches in Tennessee. a and c e. Development d. enhancement. illustration. Equal-status concurrent design 16.
instruments that quantitatively measure several constructs (IQ, religiousity, self-esteem, and a political attitudes). He keeps the qualitative and quantitative data separate during analysis. He does some mixing during the discussion of his report about the qualitative and quantitative insights are related. Which design is this? a. Dominant-status sequential design b. Equal-status sequential design c. Dominant-status concurrent design d. Equal-status concurrent design Answers: 1. a 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. c 17. d 18. f 19. b 20. e 21. d Chapter 15 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question.) 1. What is the median of the following set of scores? 18, 6, 12, 10, 14 ? a. 10 b. 14 c. 18 d. 12 2. Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal distribution? a. 34% b. 95% c. 99% d. 68% 3. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is a. The standard deviation b. The difference between a score and the mean
c. The range d. The mean 4. Let's suppose we are predicting score on a training posttest from number of years of education and the score on an aptitude test given before training. Here is the regression equation Y = 25 + .5X1 +10X2, where X1 = years of education and X2 = aptitude test score. What is the predicted score for someone with 10 years of education and a aptitude test score of 5? a. 25 b. 50 c. 35 d. 80 5. The standard deviation is: a. The square root of the variance b. A measure of variability c. An approximate indicator of how numbers vary from the mean d. All of the above 6. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics. a. True b. False
7. A set of data organized in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is known as a “data set.” a. True b. False 8. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ____. a. Line graph b. Bar graph c. Scatterplot d. Vertical graph 9. The goal of ___________ is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific set of data. a. Inferential statistics b. Descriptive statistics c. None of the above d. All of the above 10. The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the ____. a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range 11. As a general rule, the _______ is the best measure of central tendency because it is more precise. a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range 12. Focusing on describing or explaining data versus going beyond immediate data and making inferences is the difference between _______. a. Central tendency and common tendency b. Mutually exclusive and mutually exhaustive properties c. Descriptive and inferential d. Positive skew and negative skew 13. Why are variance and standard deviation the most popular measures of variability? a. They are the most stable and are foundations for more advanced statistical analysis b. They are the most simple to calculate with large data sets c. They provide nominally scaled data d. None of the above 14. ____________ is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values of a dependent variable based on the values of one or more independent variables. a. Regression analysis
Standard deviation d. Which of the following is NOT a common measure of central tendency? a. t score d. All of the above 16. e score 20. a. Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability? a. SDU score c. Median c. Mean b. Pie graphs c. The ______ is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic average. Mode d. Median . Which of the following is the formula for range? a. Variance c. Median c. Range 18.b. The _______ is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data are severely skewed. a. L . H + L b. L x H c. Median b. H – L 19. Regression coefficient c. Which is a raw score that has been transformed into standard deviation units? a. Scatterplots 17. Mode b. Regression equation d. Mode d. Line graphs d.H d. a. ___________ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two quantitative variables. z score b. Mean b. Bar graphs b. Regression line 15. Range 21. Range c.
Mode d. Mean b. One or more c. Which measure of central tendency takes into account the magnitude of scores? a. a. Not skewed at all d.005. 400. Standard scores b. Reference group d. How many dependent variables are used in multiple regression? a. Two . The highest number c. 7. a. Which of the following is interpreted as the percentage of scores in a reference group that falls below a particular raw score? a. Affected by extreme scores 26.5 b. Mean 22.d. Median c. 9. 2000000? a. 2000000? a. then the distribution of scores would be _____. Percentile rank c. 4 24. 9. 7. What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4. Positively skewed b. except for a few students who had very low scores. What is the median of this set of numbers: 4.2 c. Range 27. 7. Normal 28. The average d. If a test was generally very easy.5 b. 4 23. None of the above 25. The middle point b. The median is ______. 7 d. 6. 6 c. One b. 7 d. 6. 7. Two or more d. Negatively skewed c.
If the percentages are calculated across the rows. False 33. d 2. Positively skewed c. Median c. Negatively skewed b. Symmetrical 31. d . the intervals should be what? a. d 3. then it is __________. or the middle point in a set of numbers arranged in order of magnitude? a. Inclusive b. a. Mode b. If a distribution is skewed to the left. a 4. and ----. To interpret the relationship between two categorical variables. Neither a nor b is correct Answers: 1. comparisons should be made down the columns c. then comparisons should be made across the rows b. When a set of numbers is heterogeneous. Exhaustive c. Mutually exclusive and exhaustive 34. Symmetrically skewed d. Both A and B d. Mean d. Mutually exclusive d. Exhaustive c. a. True b. you can place more trust in the measure of central tendency as representing the typical person or unit. Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile. In a grouped frequency distribution. a. a contingency table should be constructed with either column or row percentages.29. Both a and b are correct d. Non-overlapping categories or intervals are known as ______. If the percentages are calculated down the columns. Neither A nor B 32. Variance 30. d 5. Mutually exclusive b. a.
You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population parameter c. σ c. d 19. A sampling distribution d. If you drew all possible samples from some population. b 24. b 33. b 25. a 14. a 27. b 22. a 12. A sample distribution c. r d. calculated the mean for each of the samples. a 21. a 16. b 10. You can be “5% confident” that your interval will not include the population parameter . and constructed a line graph (showing the shape of the distribution) based on all of those means. b 9. d 17. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval? a.6. a 8. c 32. b 18. SD b. c 23. what would you have? a. A population distribution b. b 30. c 11. a 26. c Chapter 16 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. a 31. a 15. A parameter distribution 3. c 13. The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long run b. 0 2. a 20. a 29. Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter? a. c 34.) 1. b 7. b 28.
The sample size will increase d. What would happen (other things equal) to a confidence interval if you calculated a 99 percent confidence interval rather than a 95 percent confidence interval? a. It will become wider 5. What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called? a. Three or more b. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population d. Sampling error b.d. Simple error . The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how many group means? a. It will not change c. Two or more 7. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis? a. The defendant is guilty 6. Sample error c. The coin is not fair b. There is a correlation in the population c. All of the above statements are true 4. Standard error d. It will be narrower b.
it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a significance or alpha level of . population b. it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a significance or alpha level of . Parameter. Sample correlations c. Population. 50% d. Both the alternative and null hypothesis d. . Sample means b. True b. statistic 11. a. Sample. Population. 99% b. Statistic.05). True b. A _______ is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a ______ is a numerical characteristic of a population. When p<. Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting when he or she is engaging in hypothesis testing? a.05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship. parameter d. sample c. Parameter. statistic 10. a. A sampling distribution might be based on which of the following? a. All of the above 12. False 9. sample c. a. researchers tend to use ____ percent confidence intervals. Neither the alternative or null hypothesis 14. The null hypothesis c. As a general rule. Hypothesis testing and estimation are the two key branches of the field of inferential statistics? a. False 15. population b. When p>05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship. Statistic. 95% c.8. parameter d. Sample. none of the above 13.05). A ______ is a subset of a _________. The alternative hypothesis b. a. Sample proportions d.
a. Lower limit c. a.a. Eliminate all outliers d. Point estimate b. Large sample d. Meta error . A ________ is a range of numbers inferred from the sample that has a certain probability of including the population parameter over the long run. Large population 19. _____ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually false. Interval estimate 20. Type IV error 18. Type III error d. Levels of confidence d. False 16. Type I error b. a. Probability limit 22. Margin of error 17. this number sounds more like a(n): a. Identify which of the following steps would not be included in hypothesis testing. Confidence interval d. Standard error b. Compare the probability value to the significance level and make the statistical decision 21. True b. State the null and alternative hypotheses b. The car will probably cost about 16. Type II error c. a. ________ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.000 dollars. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________. Hypothesis b. Repeated sampling b. _________ are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval. a. Sample standard deviation c. Confidence intervals b. Set the significance level before the research study c. Confidence limits c. Small sample c. a. Obtain the probability value using a computer program such as SPSS e. Replication error d.
Sample statistics d. a. Type B 26. Significance level b. Which of the following can be viewed as an effect size indicator? a. All of the above 25. a. When the researcher rejects a true null hypothesis. Type II d. Omega-squared e. A test to determine regression to the mean c. a. Simple regression 29. One-way analysis of variance b. Chi-square test for contingency tables d. Post hoc test c. t-test for independent samples c.23. a ____ error occurs. Type I b. t-test for correlation coefficients 30. r c. a. a. Eta-squared d. The use of the laws of probability to make inferences and draw statistical conclusions about populations based on sample data is referred to as ___________. A follow-up test to the independent t-test 27. Descriptive statistics b. Inferential statistics c. A post hoc test is ___. Type A c. An effect size indicator is a statistical measure of the strength of a relationship. t-test for correlation coefficients d. The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis is called the: a. Alpha level . a. True b. A statistical test used to compare 2 or more group means is known as _____. Population statistics 28. One-way analysis of variance b. r-squared b. A statistical test used to determine whether a correlation coefficient is statistically significant is called the ___________. A test to compare two or more means in one overall test b. A follow-up test to the analysis of variance when there are three or more groups d. False 24.
What is the key question in the field of statistical estimation? a. the least precise) for a particular data set that includes exactly 500 cases? a. Is the value of my sample statistic unlikely enough for me to reject the null hypothesis? d. None of the above 32. Difference error d. Based on my random sample. Both a and b are correct 31. it should not be rejected c. Based on my random sample. a. what tends to happen to 95% confidence intervals? a. __________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis. Type B error 34. it should be rejected b. None of the above . Sampling error c. it should not be rejected e. Which ____ percent confidence interval will be the widest (i. a.c. Standard error b. Probability value d. Both a and b 33. They become more narrow c. There is no key question in statistical estimation 36. a Type I error occurs when an innocent person is found guilty. Assuming innocence until “proven” guilty. As sample size goes up. Type A error d. When the null hypothesis is true. it should be rejected d. what is my estimate of normal distribution? c. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of hypothesis testing? a.e. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population parameter. 90% d. They become more precise b. a.. False 37. Type I error b. Type II error c. When the null hypothesis is false. They become wider d. 99% b. When the null hypothesis is true. When the null hypothesis is false. True b. 95% c. what is my estimate of the population parameter? b. Both b and c are true 35.
calculate an effect size indicator. For example. Positive negative 40.38. The “equals” sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting hypothesis testing? a. Positive negative 41. If a finding is statistically significant one must also interpret the data. Alternative c.04 and relationship B has a p=. The p-value used in statistical significance testing should be used to assess how strong a relationship is. a 15. False positive b. a 10. b 16. c 6. d 5. False 42. and make an assessment of practical significance. b . c 8. d 4. c 11. False positive b. A Type II error is also known as a ______. False negative c. A Type I error is also known as a ______. True b. a. Double negative d. a. b 7. if relationship A has a p=. a 9.03 then you can conclude that relationship B is stronger than relationship A. Double negative d. It can appear in both the null and the alternative hypothesis 39. b 17. b 13. True b. Null b. a 14. d 12. b 2. False negative c. False Answers: 1. c 3. a. a.
21. c a c c a a e a c b a d d a d b e a a b a a b a b Chapter 17 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. Spatial b. Means-end d.) 1. X is part of Y" in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labeled: a. The relation between these subcategories and the overall category of positive affect is: a. 24. 31. 28. Rationale c. 20. 34. 29. Spatial b. 42. 19. Strict inclusion 3.18. 38. the relation X is a kind of Y in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labeled: a. Strict inclusion d. and shouts hooray when finished. 23. In looking at the relationships between coding categories. 41. 36. 22. 39. Spatial . Function 2. 30. Two subcategories of that category of positive affect are smiles when solves the problem. 35. the relation. In looking at the relationships between coding categories. A researcher does a study of students' phenomenological feelings about problem solving. 32. "X is a place in Y. One of her categories of codes involves positive affect. 27. 26. Sequence c. 33. 37. 25. 40.
she jots down notes concerning the interactions. Drawing diagrams . A researcher is doing a study of peer groups in middle school. hence. A priori codes b. generating hypotheses. Strict inclusion 4. Master list codes 5. she decides to generate her codes as she scans through her transcriptions of her data. She interviews 5 girls and 5 boys. Means-end d. Facesheet coding d. As she examines her data (videotapes and transcripts).b. Inductive codes d. Rationale c. Sarah is a qualitative researcher studying how children and parents interact in Head Start Centers. Transcription c. This process of jotting notes as she examines the data is called: a. Memoing b. She is doing a grounded theory study. Post hoc codes c. suggesting relationships among categories of information she is examining and so on. These codes are labeled: a.
Correlational 12. Memoing d. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single research study called? a. Coloring d. Interim analysis b. Inter-item analysis d. Segmenting 8. Constant analysis 9. a. Coding b. Qualitative data analysis is still a relatively new and rapidly developing branch of research methodology. Facesheet codes . Cause-effect d. a. Coding c. Cover codes b. False 7. Cause-effect d. Which of the following is one of Spradley’s types of relationships? a. Codes that apply to a complete document or case are called ________.6. What is the recording of reflective notes about what you are learning from your data during data analysis called? a. Inter analysis c. Segmenting c. True b. Strict inclusion b. False sheet codes c. The process of marking segments of data with symbols. All of the above 11. Concurring b. Which of the following is not one of Spradley’s types of relationships? a. descriptive words. Strict inclusion b. Sequence c. a. Sequence c. Reflecting 10. Factual codes d. or category names is known as _______.
A priori codes d. Memoing b. a. An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they _______. Coding d. A priori codes c. a. Typology b. a. Flow chart c. Which of the following refers to the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single research study? a. you have ____. Help in storing and organizing data c. Diagramming c. Inductive codes c. Interim analysis 18. Diagram b. Enumeration d. When you have high consistency among different coders about the appropriate codes for a set of data. after the data are transcribed) b. _________ are codes that are developed during the process of coding.e. a. Coding 17. Inductive codes b. Co-occurring codes d. Hierarchical category system d. a. High intracoder reliability 15. Category 14. Can reduce time required to analyze data (i. a.. False . The process of quantifying data is referred to as _________. True b. Facesheet codes 16. a. Codes developed before examining the current data being coded are called ______. A classification system generally used in the social sciences that breaks something down into different types or levels is called a ________. High intercoder reliability b. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time constraints d. Segmenting c. Co-occuring codes b. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations. Facesheet codes 20. All of the above 19.13.
A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are unwieldy and complex. d 13. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written interviews or field notes into typed text. a. this is called a(n) __________. a 3. Transcription d. Co-occurring codes c. c 10. c . c 2. Network diagrams show only direct links between variables or events over time. a 9. __________ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data. True b. d 12. c 16. When a segment of textual data has overlapping codes. a 15. d 4. Coding c. c 5. Segmenting b. a 6. a. a 7. b 8. a. False 25.21. it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool of data. a. Individuals d. c 14. Categories b. True b. Facesheet code 23. d 11. a. Priori code d. Inductive code b. None of the above 22. False Answers: 1. Units c. Memoing 24.
Regarding disabilities. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a research report of you study for a conference or for publication is a. Both a and b 5. 18. You should avoid labeling people whenever possible c. 21. a. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or sparingly. Whether the study is important enough to justify presentation or publication c. You should choose accurate and clear words that are free from bias. yr. Headings d. Whether the study is free from flaws b. 4 c.17. for second c. Insert the complete citation in parenthesis 3. d d a a a b c b a Chapter 18 Multiple Choice Questions (The answers are provided after the last question. State the first and last name of the author b. 22. for month 4. True b. You should avoid using the term “subjects” whenever possible d. Italics b. 20. When a citation includes more than ____ authors. for year d. b. mo. 5 d. a. Which of the following abbreviations can be used in a research report? a. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report you should a. Which of the following is not true about the use of language in research reports? a. False . IQ b. Whether others would be interested in the work d. All of the above 6. 23. a. 24. only the surname of the first author is cited followed by et al. Use the author.) 1. writers should “avoid equating people with their disabilities” such as in mentally retarded people. sec. Abbreviations c. 19. 25. date citation method c. 6 2. Use an asterisk and a footnote d. 3 b. All of the above are true according to the APA Guidelines 7.
50 b. a. a. You should try to use italics frequently when writing a report. False 18. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report? a. a. The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript. False 11. You should avoid the use of sexist language in research reports. True b. 300 17. Method d. A stroke victim b. 120 d. a. Results b. False 13. You should try to use abbreviations sparingly. a. True b. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results. True b. False 16. False 9. 75 c. The abstract should be about how many words? a. True b. A person who has had a stroke 10. You should double space all material in the manuscript. True b. Footnotes 15. False 14. . The Introduction section should not be labeled.8. True b. Abstract c. a. a. Use words for numbers that begin a sentence and for numbers that are below ten. False 12. Which is more appropriate when referring to someone with a disability? a. True b.
a. True b. and figures should never be used in qualitative research reports. True b. False 25. you will need to find an appropriate balance between description and interpretation. Introduction b. Where do you provide a step-by-step account of what the researcher and participants did during the research study? a. Results d. Qualitative research reports do not need a Method section. Method c. Design 20. When writing the qualitative results section. matrices. d 6. b 3. References should be single spaced. d 2. Procedure d. d 5. a. True b. a. Diagrams. a. False 22. a 4. Discussion 19. True b. False 23. True b. a. False 24. False Answers: 1. True b. False 21.a. a. When writing the qualitative results section. Abstract c. an overriding concern should be to provide sufficient and convincing evidence to back up your assertions. Your textbook authors argued that in qualitative research it is important to fit the research findings back into the relevant research literature even if the study is exploratory. tables. d . Introduction b.
a 23. b 18. a 12. a . d 19. a 8. b 10. c 17. a 14. b 11. a 9. b 25. b 21. a 24. a 13. d 15. b 22. c 20. a 16.7.
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