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Admissions Test, Fall ‘08 Sample Questions
These sample questions are only indicative of what you will encounter on the actual exam, and are provided only to give you a flavor of the format, structure and level of difficulty to expect.
English Test: Sample Questions
The passage below, edited from two articles by Jason Bourke in The Guardian, is followed by a number of questions. Answer them based on what is stated or implied in the passage: I would like to say that I have watched Pakistan change since 1998, but, sadly, I haven't. It is true that the stock-market has soared, but if the benefits of 8% GDP growth are meant to be "trickling down", it is taking a long time to do so. Islamabad remains as sleepy as ever, though sliced by new roads. Rawalpindi, its sister city, is still a seething, dusty chaos of spluttering motor rickshaws, brightly painted lorries, tiny overstocked shops and vast districts of packed, crumbling housing. And the new motorway to Peshawar only takes you a third of the way before you are back on the Grand Trunk Road, fringed by giant eucalyptus trees and plastic-bag strewn fields. In the evening the children from the Afghan refugee camp east of the city - one of the three main camps has been razed in the last five years - still play cricket with hacked down bits of plank and a ball made of rubber bands, and smoke from the cooking fires lies in bands like mist on a river above the flat roofs of the mud homes. The road back to Islamabad is familiar, having barely changed in 10 years. Between the towns, such as Nowshera and Attock, with their dilapidated, exhaust-choked bazaars and grimy military cantonments, are the fields and villages that make up so much of Pakistan. I watch a brokenbacked old man, stooped over an exhausted donkey, drawing an overloaded cart along the roadside. Thin children in rags scrabble in the scraps behind a roadside kebab stall. Their mother stands nearby, her face covered in weeping sores. There is so much talk of militancy and extremism in Pakistan that it is often forgotten how poor the country is. Yes, a thin slice of a new middle class is emerging, but half the population of 160 million barely scrapes enough to eat; less than half has access to clean water or sanitation; and in some areas, such as those that are causing so much trouble on the Afghan frontier, literacy rates are lower than 10%. Pakistan is known for violence and religious extremism, which is a caricature of a varied and complex, if troubled, country. Hardly anyone mentions the constant, daily humanitarian crisis unfolding there.
1. Which of the following choices best describes the spirit of this article? a. b. c. d. The people of Pakistan are extremists. Pakistan should complete the motorway to Peshawar as soon as possible. Many years of underdevelopment are now taking a toll on the people of Pakistan. Pakistan’s high rate of growth of GDP will soon bring prosperity to its people.
2. Which of the following statements best characterizes the cities described in this article? a. They are quiet and sleepy places. b. The cities are littered with plastic bags. c. All military cantonments are clean and tidy.
d. The cities are unable to keep pace with the growing population.
3. Which one or more of the following statements captures this article’s description of the quality of Pakistan’s environment? a. b. c. d. More than 80 million people may contract some disease by drinking water from the tap. Heaps of garbage are a common sight in the cities. Factories are polluting groundwater with their chemical discharge. The large number of cars, buses and rickshaws is polluting the air.
4. When was this article written? a. b. c. d. 1988 1998 2001 2007
Answers: 1) c; 2) d; 3) a & d; 4) d
The passage below, edited from a sample SAT problem in English Comprehension, is followed by a number of questions. Answer them based on what is stated or implied in the passage: What is it about stars that has intrigued humankind for thousands of years? Most people who look up towards the sky in search of stars feel no particular compulsion to learn about stellar life cycles or a star's absolute magnitude or spectral class. Their interest is not in the mathematical calculations and scientific data that fascinate astronomers. They look skyward for the same reason that poets and songwriters have done so for centuries - to absorb the silent beauty of a starry night. Throughout history, stargazing has been motivated by more than admiration for celestial objects, however. As early as 3,000 B.C., the ancient Babylonians studied the night sky and identified various constellations. Other early civilizations created star maps and tracked the position of the stars for navigation and timekeeping purposes. Their efforts were succeeded by advancements in science and technology that enabled modern society to understand more fully those twinkling lights in the sky. Although Galileo used a telescope in the early seventeenth century to make important discoveries about our solar system, his instrument had limitations - chiefly, distortion of the image. The first practical reflecting telescope was invented by Isaac Newton around 1670. By the close of the 1600s, there were a number of telescopic observatories. During the next two centuries, hundreds of stars were observed and catalogued. In 1838, the distance of a star was calculated for the first time. Further studies and innovations helped astronomers to make detailed observations of the spectra, or white light, of stars, which was key to determining a star's chemical composition. In 1849, the first photos of stars were taken at an observatory. In recent times, astronomers have learned a great deal about stars. From observation of stars at different stages, astronomers have theorized that stars have existed for hundreds of millions or billions of years. Stars are formed from dust and gas in space. They are born in regions of space called nebulae, in which gravity prompts interstellar matter to contract, generating heat. The result is the creation of a protostar. If a protostar's temperature rises high enough, nuclear fusion reactions at its core will transform it into a true star. During this stage, a star is classified as a main-sequence star.
A main-sequence star is essentially a huge ball of glowing gas with a lifespan of about 10 billion years. It is fueled by hydrogen, and when this starts to run out, further gravitational contractions occur and the star collapses. It then undergoes elemental changes that convert it into a red giant or a red supergiant if it has enough mass. After around 100 million years, supergiants collapse due to gravitational forces. It is a spectacular event. The collapse itself takes under a second and is followed by an enormous explosion called a supernova - so bright it can outshine the parent galaxy. The remnants, or debris, are flung throughout space, becoming a nebula in which new stars will be born. Everyone can readily identify the star that is indispensable to life on Earth - the Sun. Due to its proximity to Earth, it bathes our planet with sunlight - the source of almost all of the energy on Earth. It is its very closeness that makes the Sun look like a giant yellow star. It is true that the Sun's diameter is about 100 times that of the Earth's. Nevertheless, the Sun is an average-sized star. When it reaches the end of its life as a main-sequence star, the Sun will become a red giant - not a supergiant. A red giant has the same lifespan as a supergiant and collapses for the same reasons, but it does not explode. Instead, it shrinks into a star called a white dwarf, which is cold and can be smaller than Earth. The Sun is too bright for direct observation. Hence, astronomers have devised methods and instruments, such as the spectrometer, to study it. Fortunately, the Sun is the exception; gazing directly at other stars is not a problem. Nonetheless, people who live in highly populated areas, such as cities, do not see the same night sky that ancient civilizations enjoyed. Modern technology has a price. The electric lights that allow us to see at night obscure most of the 6,000 stars that would otherwise be visible from Earth with the unaided eye. In one of his works, a famous poet describes a man who, "tired and sick" of the scientific data, walks out of an astronomer's lecture. In the "mystical moist night-air," he looks up "in perfect silence at the stars." Our fascination with the stars may never end.
1. This passage serves primarily to: a. b. c. d. e. acknowledge scientific achievements in astronomy discuss the nature and the study of stars compare different reasons for stargazing explain the Sun's importance to life on Earth describe how stars are created
In the first paragraph, the reference to poets and songwriters is most likely meant to show that a. b. c. d. e. stargazing has been a source of artistic inspiration it takes a creative mind to truly appreciate the stars gazing at stars is a long-established custom not only astronomers observe the stars poets and songwriters have vivid imaginations
The second paragraph most closely supports the idea that a. b. c. d. Galileo's findings should be disregarded the rate of scientific discoveries has decreased in recent years astronomy owes a great deal to technological innovation photography revolutionized astronomical research
e. nineteenth-century astronomers made the most significant discoveries
Which of the following statements applies to both red giants and red supergiants? I. They were once main-sequence stars. II. They collapse due to gravitational forces. III. Their collapse triggers an explosion. a. b. c. d. e. I only II only III only I and II only I, II, and III
Based on the last paragraph, astronomers would best be described as a. b. c. d. e. too concerned with scientific details to enjoy gazing at stars unconcerned with astronomical discoveries of long ago inquisitive and innovative excessively reliant on technology reluctant to accept new scientific theories
Write an essay of about a hundred words on the topic below. An essay not relevant to the topic will receive no credit. Charitable donations should be made to institutions such as universities or hospitals. Giving money to individuals does not have an effective long-term impact. Take a position for or against the statement above. State your reasoning clearly.
Basic Mathematics: Sample Test
What is the area of the shaded region in the figure below?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2.
(4-π)/2 (4- π)/4 (16-3π)/4 (16-3π)/8 None of above
What is the equation of the graph shown in the figure below?
4 3 2 1 0 -1 -2 -3
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) y = x2 - 2 y = x2 - x - 2 y = (x -2)2 - 6 y = x3 - 2x2 + 2x - 2 y = (x +
1 2 1 ) –2 2 4
What is the value of x in the figure below?
x + 45
3x 2x 60 - x o 3x + 55
(Note: Figure is not drawn to scale) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 4. 10° 20° 30° 40° None of above
What is the value of x in the figure below?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 6 3
18 3 9 2 9 2 9 3 2
If x satisfies 3x + 1 > 4x – 4, and 6x < 8x + 2,
then which of the following represents the correct range of x ?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
What is the area of the region bounded by the following lines? y = x + 2, y = 0, and x = 2. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 16 4 8 10 None of above
If x% of y is 100, what is y? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 1/x 100/x x 10,000/x x/100
If a and b are negative and c and d are positive, which of the following is (are) true? (I) (II) (III) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) a-b<a-d if a < b and c < d, then a/d < b/c (1/b) < (1/c)(1/d) I only II only III only II and III only I, II and III
What is the length of the line AB in the figure below?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
10 5 2
3 3 2
10. If i =
− 1 (i.e., i2 = -1) what is the value of:
2 + 8 ((A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2
1 i 3 9 1 i 3 8 + ) + 2 (- + ) 2 2 2 2 3 3 3
-i4 8 i4
8 + i2
Answers: 1) d; 2) b; 3) e; 4) e; 5) c; 6) c; 7) d; 8) c; 9) d; 10) b
Mathematics Test: Sample Questions
1. If a straight line in a plane has slope 1, then: • A) it passes through the point (0, 1). • B) it passes through the point (1, 1). • C) it passes through the point (1, 0). • D) it passes through the point (0, 0). • E) we cannot say through which points the line will pass. 2. Do the two expressions
x2 −4 x−2
and x + 2 represent the same function?
• A) Yes, because they always have the same value. • B) Yes, except at x = 2. • C) No, because they are of diﬀerent degree. • D) Yes for every real x. • E) Yes, only at x = 2. 3. If f (x) = −f (−x) and • A) zero. • B) 2b. • C) b/2. • D) b • E) cannot be calculated.
f (x)dx = b then the value of
f (x)dx is:
4. Which of the following functions satisﬁes the conditions: f (x) > 0 and f (x) ≥ 0 for all x > 0? • A) f (x) = log x • B) f (x) = −x2 + x • C) f (x) = sin(x) • D) f (x) = 2x + 1 • E) f (x) = cos(x) 5. For any function f (x), the inverse function f −1 (x) is deﬁned such that f −1 (f (x)) = x. If f (x) = 3e−x , then f −1 (x) =
3 • A) ln ( x )
• B) ln ( x ) 3 √ • C) ln x • D)
• E) ln (3 − x) 6. √
Tan140◦ + Tan70◦ = 1 − Tan140◦ Tan70◦ • A) • B) • C) • D) • E) 3
√ 3 √ 1− 3 √ 3 3
√ 3− 3 3
7. The polynomial P (x) with integer coﬃcients is such that when divided by x2 − 4x + 3, the remainder is 65x − 68. When P (x) is divided by x2 + 6x − 7, the remainder is −5x + a. The value of a is: • A) 7 • B) -5 • C) -6 • D) 2 • E) -3 8. Consider the sequence 1, 1/2, 1/2, 1/4, 1/4. 1/4, ... where 1/2k−1 appears 2k−1 times successively (k = 1, 2, 3 ...). If the ﬁrst n terms add up to 10, n = • A) 1023 • B) 1230 • C) 2056 • D) 1003 • E) 517 9. The numbers 1 through 9 are written individually on nine cards. Choose three cards, letting x, y and z denote the numbers on these cards, arranged in ascending order. The probability that x, y and z will be consecutive numbers is • A) 1/72 • B) 1/12 • C) 1/7 • D) 1/21 • E) 1/84
√ √ 10. Consider the points O(0, 0, 0), A( 2, 0, 0) and B(0, 2, 0) and a sphere of √ radius 6, tangent to OA, OB and AB.Given that the centre of the sphere lies above the z-axis, its coordinates are: √ √ √ • A) ( 6, 6, 6) √ √ √ • B) ( 2, 2, 6) √ √ √ • C) ( 2, 2 − 1, 2 + 1) √ √ √ • D) ( 1, 1, 6) √ √ √ • E) ( 2 − 1, 2 − 1, 2 + 1)
Answers: 1) E, 2) B, 3) A, 4) D, 5) A, 6) C, 7) D, 8) A, 9) B, 10) E
Biology Test: Sample Questions
1) Concentrated salt solution is used to preserve foods because a) b) c) d) e) Microorganisms can not live in high pH. Microorganisms can not live in hypertonic media. Microorganisms can not survive corrosive salts. Microorganisms can not live in hypotonic media. Concentrated salts denature proteins of microorganisms.
2) Ability of hemoglobin to bind or release oxygen molecule in different parts of the body is a function of a) b) c) d) e) Partial pressure of oxygen. Variable valance of iron atoms. Disc shape of the RBCs. Special structure of heme ring. None of the above.
3) One of the X-chromosomes is inactivated in human females a) b) c) d) e) To form barr bodies in some tissues. To promote DNA methylation and tissue differentiation. To limit the number of eggs they produce. To compensate for double gene dosage. To temporarily pause the process of embryogenesis.
4) Antibiotic resistance gene is added to a cloning vector in order to a) b) c) d) Select bacterial cells that have incorporated the recombinant DNA. Select bacterial cells that have not incorporated the recombinant DNA. To enhance DNA replication potential of the vector. To render bacteria harmless incase these bacteria get accidentally introduced into the ecosystem. e) To protect these bacteria against infectious viruses. 5) Which of the following organisms is most closely related to an octopus? a) b) c) d) e) Jelly-fish Star-fish Crab Shark Snail
6) Oxygen molecule generated during photosynthesis is generated by a) b) c) d) e) Splitting of CO2 molecule by photosystem II. Splitting of H2O molecule by photosystem II. Splitting of CO2 molecule by photosystem I. Splitting of H2O molecule by photosystem I. Oxidation of stored starch.
7) Which of the following statement/s about DNA polymerase are untrue? a) b) c) d) e) DNA polymerase can covalently link two DNA strands. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a DNA molecule. DNA polymerase does not need and an RNA primer to initiate DNA Synthesis. a and c only. a, b and c.
8) Which of the following statement/s about antibodies are true? a) b) c) d) e) IgM are secreted in tears. Heavy chains of IgE bind to receptors on mast cells. IgG has 4 antigen binding sites b and c only. a, b and c.
9) When the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released it causes a) Vesicles containing water permeable channels to fuse with the plasma membrane of cells lining collecting ducts. b) The opening of special water absorbing channels in the glomerulus. c) Constriction of loop of Henele. d) Constriction of afferent arteriole. e) Constriction of efferent arteriole. 10) Which of the following will affect rate of transpiration from a leaf? a) b) c) d) e) Wind speed Temperature Humidity Sunlight All of above
Answers: 1) b; 2) a; 3) d; 4) a; 5) e; 6) b; 7) d; 8) b; 9) a; 10) e
Chemistry Test: Sample Questions
1. As you view the Periodic Table from left (H) to right (He), which of the following statements is true? a. b. c. d. e. Acid properties of elements decrease from left to right Acid properties of elements increase from left to right Base properties of elements increase from left to right Ionization energy of elements decreases from left to right None of the above
2. How many moles of electrons are required to reduce 100 g. of molten FeCl3 to elemental iron? a. b. c. d. e. 1.0 mole 1.55 mole 1.85 mole 2.20 mole 1.98 mole
3. The volume of a gas at 795 mm Hg pressure and 320 C is 550 ml. Calculate the volume it would occupy under standard conditions (760 mm Hg / 00 C). a. b. c. d. e. 550 ml. 558 ml 515 ml 535 ml 505 ml
4. Combustion of an organic compound yielded, by weight, 83.02 % CO2 and 16.98 % H2O. Which of the following compounds would satisfy this data? a. b. c. d. e. Hexane Diethyl ether Anthracene Benzene Toluene
5. Calculate the solubility of BaSO4 in water, given its solubility product Ksp = 1.5 x 10 -9. a. b. c. d. e. 1.22 x 10 -3 moles / liter 3.9 x 10 -5 moles / liter 3.9 x 10 -3 moles / liter 3.0 x 10-5 moles / liter 1.88 x 10-4 moles / liter
6. Which of the following compounds uses sp 2 hybridized orbitals? a. b. c. d. Ethane Butyl alcohol 2-Methyl propene Dibutyl ether
e. Chloroform 7. The decomposition of N 2 O 5 is a first-order reaction with a rate constant of 5.1 x 10 -4 s -1 at 45 0 C. If the initial concentration of N 2 O 5 was 0.25 molar, what is its concentration after 3.2 minutes? a. b. c. d. e. 0.23 molar 0.20 molar 0.25 molar 0.18 molar 0.33 molar
8. Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CS following data: C (graphite) + O 2 (gas) --------------›
from its elements, given the
CO 2 (gas) ∆HOrxn = ─ 393.5 KJ
S (rhombic) + O 2 (gas) ---------------› SO 2 (gas) ∆HOrxn = ─ 296.1 KJ CS 2 (liquid) + 3 O 2 (gas) -----------› CO 2 (gas) + 2 SO 2 (gas) ∆HOrxn = ─ 1072 KJ a. b. c. d. e. - 100 KJ +100.8 KJ +86.3 KJ +106.3 KJ - 77.8 KJ
9. Glucose undergoes fermentation to produce ethanol, as shown below. C 6 H 12 O 6 ------------------› 2 C 2 H 5 OH + 2 CO 2 Starting with 555 g. of glucose, what is the maximum amount of ethanol in grams that can be obtained using the above equation? a. b. c. d. e. 300.8 g ethanol. 333.0 g.ethanol 401.0 g ethanol 283.7 g. ethanol 293. 2 g. ethanol
10. A 1.0 g. sample of an organic amine requires 32 ml of a 0.1N HCl, using methyl orange as indicator. Calculate the molecular weight of the amine. a. b. c. d. e. 156.0 331.6 312.5 302.5 298.0
Answers: 1) b; 2) c; 3) c; 4) d; 5) b; 6) c; 7) a; 8) c; 9) d; 10) c
Physics Test: Sample Questions
1. Questions 1–2 are based on the diagram below showing capacitors arranged in five different patterns. All capacitors have the same capacitance C. An identical constant voltage source V is placed across the points P and Q. Which one of the following statements is true.
A) B) C) D) E) 2.
(a) stores the maximum and (b) stores the minimum electric charge (c) stores the maximum and (b) stores the minimum electric charge All configurations store the same amount of charge (b) stores the maximum and (c) stores the minimum electric charge (b) stores the maximum and (d) stores the minimum electric charge
Consider the delta-shaped arrangement of capacitors, figure (d). The voltage source V is removed and a resistor R is quickly placed between the contacts P and Q. In a few milliseconds, the resistor heats up. How much total heat is dissipated in the process? A) B) C) D) E) ½ C V2 V2 / R ¾ C V2 3 C V2 1/3 C V2
An object is moving in a straight line in the vertical direction. A plot of its height from ground level as a function of time is:
A possible speed-time graph for the object is: A) B)
E) none of the above
An ideal gas is held at atmospheric pressure and 100°C. If the pressure is kept constant, the density would be reduced to half at: A) B) C) D) E) 50°C 273°C 473°C 200°C 400°C
A sphere of mass 1 kg is kept in position by two strings attached to fixed supports, as shown in the diagram below. The string PQ is horizontal and RS is inclined at an angle of 60° with the horizontal.
Assuming that the acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms-2, the tensions in the strings are: A) B) C) D) E) 6. Tension in PQ = 10 N, Tension in RS = 10 N PQ = 10 / √3 N, RS = 20 / √3 N PQ = 10 / √3 N, RS = 10 / √3 N PQ = 20 / √3 N, RS = 20 / √3 N Cannot be determined from the data provided.
The naturally radioactive nuclide, protactinium decays with a half life of 6.75 hours. The daughter nucleus is an isotope of uranium, itself decaying with a half life of 2.47 × 105 years. The nuclear reactions are:
234 91Pa 234 92U
→ 23492U + a + photons
→ 23090Th + b + photons
The identities of the daughter particles, a and b are: A) B) C) D) E) 7. a = beta particle, b = alpha particle a = proton, b = alpha particle a = beta particle, b = neutron a = alpha particle, b = beta particle a = alpha particle, b = positron
If a force field is conservative, this signifies that, A) the work necessary to transport a body depends only on the initial and final positions B) energy is not conserved C) the work is equal to the variation of energy D) energy is conserved E) both energy and momentum are conserved.
A stone is thrown vertically upwards. At the highest point of its trajectory what are the forces acting on it? A) none, given that the stone is stationary B) the force of propulsion that is smaller than the force of gravity C) the force of gravity which cancels the force of propulsion D) only the force of gravity E) the force of propulsion that is greater than the force of gravity
An object is moving in a circle with uniform speed. Which of the following quantities is conserved? A) B) C) D) E) linear momentum velocity angular momentum rate of change of linear momentum none of the above
A body of mass m moves on a horizontal plane without friction with velocity v and hits another body of the same mass m. After the collision the first mass recoils with velocity 1/2 v, while the other body moves forward with velocity 3/2 v in the opposite direction. Is this event physically possible? A) No, because it does not conserve kinetic energy B) Yes, because it is an inelastic collision C) Yes, because momentum is conserved D) No, because after the collision the two bodies must move with the same velocity E) Yes, because the potential energy not conserved
Answers: 1) d; 2) c; 3) c; 4) c; 5) b; 6) a; 7) a; 8) d; 9) c; 10) a
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