Study Period 2, 2006 Deferred Examination

University of South Australia

DIVISION OF HEALTH SCIENCES

SCHOOL OF PHARMACY AND MEDICAL SCIENCES
Subject Area: Catalogue Number:

MEDI

3003

MICROBIOLOGY 300
Examination Day: Thursday Examination Time: 1530 Examination Date: 3.8.06 Length of Exam: 2.5 HOURS

Instructions to Candidates

1. The examination consists of 20 multiple choice questions in Section A and short answer/essay type questions in section B. 2. Answer Section A on the separate answer sheet attached to the back of this paper. You may detach the answer sheet and pass it up inside the answer booklet with your written answers. For the multiple choice questions, there is only one correct answer and marks are not deducted for incorrect answers. 30 minutes has been allocated for this section, hence each question is worth 1.5 marks. 3. Section B should be answered in the answer booklet. Start each question on a new page. There may be internal choice within each question. 4. ALL question papers, answer sheets and answer booklets must be handed up at the end of the examination.

What medium would you use to grow Neisseria gonorrhoeae from a urethral swab? (a) Elek’s plates (b) tellurite blood agar (c) Bordet-Gengou plates (d) chocolate agar (e) Thayer-Martin agar 3. motility. aeruginosa is fermentative with respect to lactose (a) 2. A selective and differential medium for the growth and identification of Staphylococcus aureus would be (a) MacConkey CM7 agar (b) mannitol salt agar (c) methicillin mannitol salt agar (d) methicillin blood agar (e) DNA agar 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be differentiated from members of the Enterobacteriaceae because P.Study Period 2. Salmonella spp. 2006 Deferred Examination University of South Australia SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (30 MINUTES) 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae would (a) not grow on MacConkey agar (b) not be soluble in bile salts (c) grow on MacConkey agar (d) be resistant to optochin (e) be resistant to bacitracin . aeruginosa is oxidase positive (d) Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive (e) P. indole agar (e) CIN agar 4. aeruginosa is nitrate reductase negative (b) Enterobacteriaceae are nitrate reductase negative (c) P. would produce black colonies on: (a) MacConkey CM7 agar (b) MacConkey CM115 agar (c) XLD agar (d) Urea.

E. Which of the following miscellaneous gram negative bacilli is most associated with contamination of hospital fluids including disinfectants? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Pseudomonas aeruginosa Stenotrophomonas multophilia Pseudomonas fluorescens Aeromonas hydrophila Burkholderia cepacia 9.Study Period 2. Yersinia enterocolitica is: (a) urease positive and motile (b) H2S positive and a lactose fermenter (c) urease negative and motile (d) urease positive and non-motile (e) H2S negative and a lactose fermenter 7. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be distinguished from other species of miscellaneous gram negative bacilli by (a) growth anaerobically (b) beta haemolysis (c) growth on MacConkey agar (d) no growth at 42oC (e) blue/green pigmented colonies 10. coli is normally: (a) a lactose non-fermenter (b) non motile (c) indole positive (d) H2S positive (e) urease positive 8. 2006 Deferred Examination University of South Australia 6. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is now routinely used to diagnose (a) Chlamydial genital infections (b) Genital warts (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea (e) All sexually transmitted diseases .

Adding blood to sensitivity test agar is not recommended because (a) addition of blood alters the pH (b) additives in the medium affect the density of the agar (c) antibiotics can bind non specifically to protein in blood (d) the blood may contain antimicrobial substances (e) all of the above 14. 2006 Deferred Examination University of South Australia 11. A negative catalase test reaction is useful in differentiating (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Listeria monocytogenes from Corynebacterium diphtheriae Streptococcus pyogenes from Enterococcus faecalis Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus Salmonella from E. coli Staphylococcus epidermidis from Staphylococcus aureus 13. Sensitivity to bacitracin is a useful test to identify (a) Staphylococcus epidermidis (b) Streptococcus pyogenes (c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Streptococcus pneumoniae (e) Staphylococcus saprophyticus 12. The MIC of an antibiotic (a) is the maximum effective concentration you can give to a patient (b) is the minimum concentration which will inhibit the growth of the test organism (c) can be determined from a Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test (d) is the minimum effective concentration you can give a patient (e) can only be performed via a broth dilution technique 15.Study Period 2. Which of the following organisms is commonly associated with food poisoning from paté? (a) Bacillus cereus (b) Clostridium perfringens (c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Listeria monocytogenes (e) human calicivirus .

Which of the following organisms would be suitable as positive and negative controls respectively.Study Period 2. 2006 Deferred Examination University of South Australia 16. coli and P. Super antigen toxins commonly act by (a) inserting a pore into host cell membranes (b) ADP-ribosylating G proteins (c) non-specifically stimulating T-cells (d) lysing red blood cells (e) causing diarrhea . Which of the following antibiotics (choose one only) would be most suitable for the treatment of an infection caused by a β-lactamase producing Staphylococcus aureus? (a) penicillin (b) ampicillin (c) vancomycin (d) augmentin (e) gentamicin 19. The causative agent of scrub typhus is (a) Rickettsia typhi (b) Rickettsia australis (c) Orientia tsutsugamushi (d) Rickettsia prowazekii (e) Coxiella burnettii 18. Which of the following organisms would grow on potassium tellurite agar? (a) Clostridium perfringens (b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae (c) Listeria monocytogenes (d) Propionibacterium acnes (e) Bacillus cereus 17. aeruginosa and E. aeruginosa (b) P. for the oxidase test? (a) E. aeruginosa and Aeromonas hydrophila (e) Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes 20. coli and Proteus mirabilis (d) P. coli (c) E.

2006 Deferred Examination University of South Australia SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS and ESSAY 1. What are the two most likely bacterial causes of his symptoms? Outline procedures to identify each of these causes. A 23 year old male presents to the emergency section of his local hospital with a 2 day history of vomiting. 6 marks (c) List five organisms which are common causes of UTI. What are the public health implications of these diseases? 30 marks 3. Briefly discuss six (6) of the following: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Pertussis toxin Virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa Infections associated with Streptococcus pyogenes Laboratory diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori infection Culture of obligate anaerobes (f) Community acquired MRSA (g) Cholera (h) Microbiology of gas gangrene 5 marks each 2. diarrhea and abdominal pain.Study Period 2. 5 marks . (a) What diagnostic criteria are used to assess a urine specimen for the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI)? 4 marks (b) Outline methods for quantifying the numbers of bacteria in a urine specimen and suggest a method suitable for a routine diagnostic laboratory.

Compare and contrast acute versus chronic viral infection.Study Period 2. Outline the difficulties encountered in the isolation and identification of Mycobacterium spp. 10 marks 5. 2006 Deferred Examination University of South Australia 4. 5 marks 8. How are molecular techniques overcoming these problems? 5 marks 7. 5 marks Viruses with genomic RNA can be classified into positive or negative stranded RNA. 8 marks (b) In relation to an infectious disease. . 2 marks (a) Discuss the pathogenesis and diagnosis of pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. Give one (1) example for each category. How could this disease be prevented? 10 marks (b) Name two common causes of community acquired atypical bacterial pneumonia and outline methods by which you would diagnose infections caused by these organisms. 6. (a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electron microscopy for viral diagnosis. define incidence and prevalence. Describe these two terms and name one (1) virus for each.

8. 20. 1. 14. 2006 Deferred Examination University of South Australia MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWER SHEET MICROBIOLOGY 300 NAME…………………………………………………………………………………… ID NUMBER……………………………………………………………………………….Study Period 2. A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E 11. 19. 16. A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E . 15. 18. 2. 17. 10. 9. 5. 6. 12. 13.. 4. 7. 3.