1. On-condition maintenance of reciprocating engine is covered under A. CAR series D part I. B. aircraft rule 70. C. aircraft rule 72. D.

CAR series D part III. 2. Aircraft maintenance programme and their approval are covered under A. IAF 60(2). B. IAR 62. C. CAR series D part II. D. Both a and c are correct. 3. Alert value means A. maximum reliability index. B. minimum reliability index. C. maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but within the allowable operating range. D. None of the above. 4. When the operator is in the alert area the RAO will A. monitor the corrective programmes closely to determine their effectiveness and indicate the necessity of the amendment. B. keep the DGCA informed of the progress and effectiveness of the corrective programme. C. inform the manufacturer of the aircraft for taking corrective action. D. Both a and b is correct. 5. Reliability is a function of A. maintenance. B. basic design. C. personal training. D. All of the above. 6. IAR 60 (2) authorise DGCA to A. specify the standard of balloons maintenance. B. specify the standard of glider maintenance. C. specify the standard of aircraft maintenance. D. None of the above. 7. Restoring an aircraft unit to it original design performance level after replacing/re-working parts to a given standard is termed as A. maintenance. B. overhaul. C. top overhaul. D. None of the above. 8. An item is judge damage-tolerant A. if structural element or assembly is judged significant because of reduction in aircraft residual strength or loss of structural function. B. if it can sustain damage & the remaining structure can withstand reasonable load or excessive structural deformation when the damage is detected. C. a and b are correct. D. All of the above are correct. 9. S.S.I. Are A. solid structure items. B. structuallly significant instruction. C. significant service instruction.

D. structural significant item. 10. S.S.I are A. structural assembly. B. structural assembly which is judge significant because of the reduction in aircraft residual strength. C. damage tolerant item. D. None of the above. 11. On-condition maintenance implies the philosophy A. of fit and forget it. B. of fit until failure. C. a and b are correct. D. None of the above. 12. Condition monitoring implies the philosophy A. of fit and forget it. B. of fit until failure. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None of the above. 13. Substantial damage means A. any damage beyond repair. B. any damage which necessitate the replacement of any component. C. any damage necessitating the replacement or extensive repair of any major component. D. any damage beyond economical repair. 14. Approved maintenance process is monitored by A. hard time maintenance. B. on-condition maintenance. C. Both a and b are correct. D. aircraft mechanical delay & PDR. 15. The continuing capability of the aircraft to perform in a satisfactory manner the flight operation for which it was designed is termed as A. maintenance. B. condition monitoring. C. airworthiness. D. on-condition. 16. Hard time maintenance is carried out at A. calendar time. B. no. of cycles. C. no. of landing. D. any one of the above is correct. 17. In an approved maintenance process, pilot report is computed as A. rate per 1000 hrs of operation/per 100 departures. B. rate per 100 hrs of operation/per 100 departures. C. rater per 1000 hrs of operation/per 500 departures. D. any one of the above is correct. 18. S.S.I.D contains A. significant structural item, method of inspection and required corrective action. B. supplemental structural inspection document. C. approved programme to be included in a.c. manual. D. None of the above.

19. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record of the engine parameter in a A. tabulated form. B. graphical form. C. graphical form if feasible or tabulated form. D. graphical & tabulated form. 20. The engine parameters are recorded under stabilized condition A. during take off. B. during landing. C. during ground rein. D. during cruise level flying. 21. The life record of all the engine acessories is available in A. T.B.O charts. B. J.L.B. C. Engine log book. D. O/H procedure sheet. 22. Every engine parameter has an alert value which is fixed by A. operator. B. DGCA. C. RAO. D. operator in consultation with RAO. 23. Engine overhaul records are preserved for a period of A. one year. B. two years. C. five years. D. ten years. 24. Alert values are A. reference values only. B. accepting limits only. C. both a and b are correct. D. None of the above. 25. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded A. in the engine log log book. B. in the aircraft log book. C. by an AME. D. both a and b are correct. 26. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded A. after post overhaul test of the engine. B. after the partial/top overhaul or repair of the engine followed by a test run/test flight, as applicable. C. at periods approved as per the approved maintenance schedule. D. All the above are correct. 27. The daily upliftment of fuel and oil consumption in aircraft fuel and oil register is signed by A. lincensed AME. B. QCM. C. Dy QCM. D. any authorised person. 28. The reliability of engines fitted to aircraft is measured in terms of

B. C. 1500 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC. All the above are correct. 12 months. 1500 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC. B. the QCM. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular type of airframe.A. 'Mean value' plus "standard deviation". the number and nature of all in-flight shut down in relation to number of airframe hours. C. 18 months. 32. Alert value is numerically equal to A. B. sampling inspection. If the operator's reliability index is above the alert value. All are correct. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 25th day of the month. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 1000 hours of engine operation on that particular type of airframe and engine combination. air taxi operator. 3000 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC. 36. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 10th day of the month. D. 24 months. B. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular type of engine. The requirements to CAR are applicable to all A. D. Validity of ATPL of pilot below 25 years of age is A. 33. un-schedule maintenance & schedule maintenance. Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will gather information from A. Alert notice is issued by A. D. C. B. C. B. private airlines. 30. B. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 25th day of the month. C. D. the number and nature of all flameouts in relation to number of airframe flight hours. 29. the RAO. un-schedule removals. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 10th day of the month. D. the DGCA. C. 31. Reliability index is A. C. he will A. B. D. D. . C. 'Mean value' plus "mode value". the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to propeller flight hours. 2000 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC. C. 34. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular type of airframe and engine combination. B. D. the RMU. 06 months. 35. D. 'Mode value' plus "two standard deviation". schedule airlines. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to number of engine flight hours. 'Mean value' plus "two standard deviation". A person of issue of ATPL shall have A.

C. can carry out training of aircraft personel. 40. None of the above. C. D. category 'C'. D. D. carries out manufacture storage & distribution. category 'D'. A firm approved in carrying out C of A aircraft is approved in A. . category 'D'. B. 41. in duplicate to the RAO. Organisation approved for manufacture of aircraft is approved in A. C. can carry out maintenance of aircraft. D.U. category 'B'. B. category 'A'. can carry out distribution of fuels. to all concerned persons of the organisation. heat treatment. B. category 'A'. 43. category 'B'. An organisation approved in carrying out propeller overhaul is approved in A. A firm approved in carrying out FTD of Avionics sets is approved in A. D. A firm doing processing of aircraft components by electroplating. category 'B'. 44. category 'A'. C. can carry out manufacture of aircraft. carries out manufacture of aircraft. B. C. 39. C. B. category 'B'.37. carries out maintenance of aircraft. category 'E'. D. A firm approved in carrying out non-destructure test of aircraft approved A. Firms approvedin category 'E' A. category 'E'. C. A. category 'E'. 42. category 'B'. category 'D'. category 'D'. etc. category 'E'. category 'F'. category 'C'. A firm approved in category 'A' A. C. category 'A'. carries out storage & distribution. C. D. B. B.M. category 'C'. D. anodic treatment. 45. 38. B. D. category 'D'. B. Both a and c are correct. category 'C'. Alert Notice will be issued by the R. is approved in A. metal spraying. in duplicate to the RAO on 25th of every month.

B. category 'D'. two years. A firm carrying out chemical analysis physical test and metallurgical tests is approved in A. in case any conponent or equipment fitted on aircraft is due for replacement earlier than the validity of flight release certificate issued by AME. B. maintenance manual. five years. supplier. One copy of all documents used in the system of quality control in respect of activities performed including all incoming certification is preserved for a minimum period of A. two years. one year. D. . Release and rejection notes are preserved for a period of A. 48. Which of the following statement is false? A. Certificate of approval is cancelled by A. the FRC automatically ceases to be valid the item or component is not removed in a stipulated time. type instruction & type service manual. D. Release notes are distributed as follows A. B. D. C. a person approved by RAO. 2nd copy to consignee. detailed drawing. 2nd copy to supplier. five years. 50. 1st copy to consignee. FRC is invalid if aircraft suffers any major damage. 'Release notes' is signed by A. C. All of the above. First copy of 'Rejection note' is issued to A. a person named in terms of approval. six months. B. 47. C. a person approved by DGCA. D. category 'E'. 49. C. D. one should submit the following A. All these are correct. ten years. D. Both a and c are correct. C. C. 1st copy to supplier. The validity of FRC is 12 hrs of operation of four days. B. C. Both b and c are correct. 2nd copy to RAO. consignee. C.46. RAO/DAI. B. category "E & D'. organisation records. D. 2nd copy to organisation records. RAO. 51. 1st copy to RAO. B. 52. D. 53. C. whichever is earlier. 1st copy to organisation records. Director of Airsafety. one year. To get type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments. 54. B. DGCA. B.

55. Both a & b are correct. Approved maintenance organisation. C. aircraft components or materials. storing and distribution of previously certified aircraft goods by a firm is approved in A. D. aircraft component or item of equipment. by RAO to signify the design of a type of aircraft. ten specimens of 6"x2"x16swg. 56. All the above are correct. C. D. category 'A'. Certificate of approval A. Manufacturer means A. is a document issued by an organisation to state its approval in category viz. to a particular type of aircraft or for a series of aircraft. An organisation engaged in manufacture of aircraft component issues A. including paints. twelve specimens of 8"x2"x16swg. C. . B. 'Aircraft goods' means A. aircraft components or items of equipment to approved specifications and drawings. certificate of approval. C. certificate of airworthiness.D. B. is a document issued by an approved organisation and defines the scope of organisation. 58. any part of the soundness and correct functioning of which is essential to the continued airworthiness or safety of the aircraft. C. 59. an organisation engaged in the maintenance of aircraft. dopes. 'B' etc. certificate of maintenance. Engineering Organisation manual. The pilot can certify pre-flight inspection schedule in respect of an aircraft engaged in non-schedule operation provided he is approved by DGCA. 57. C. B. 61. As per CAR series E part I. D. B. Maintenance system manual. twelve specimens of 6"x2"x16swg. Quality Control manual. B. D. category 'F'. by DGCA to signify the design of a type of aircraft. maintaining private aircraft may reflect the arrangement in their A. is a document issued by DGCA to an approved organisation and giving the scope of approval. engine. D. 62. Both a & b are correct. fuel lubricant and special petroleum products intended in use in civil aircraft. category 'D'. B. thinner. Operation manual. Type certificate means a certificate issued A. to an organisation engaged in the manufacture of particular 'type of aircraft'. ten specimens of 8"x2"x16swg. category 'C'. C. C. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of airframe. certificate of manufacture. An organisation desiring approval in category 'B' for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA A. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of aircraft. aircraft components and items of equipment. D. D. D. 60. B. aircraft component or item of equipment. 'A'. B.

B. D. manual. B. Q. D. manual. issued by an approved organisation for purpose of advising the details of rejection of certified aircraft goods which fail to meet applicable requirements. Both a & c are correct. C. two different types of manual. C. Engineering Organisation manual.C. Maintenance System manual is approved by: A. issued by RAO to cover the return of any aircraft component received under incoming release note. M S manual. Three different manuals required for approval of an organisation are A. Controller of Airworthiness. M S Manual. Engineering Organisation manual is A. Q. C. Q. Quality Control manual is approved by A. All AME's should be medically checked up by at least MBBS doctor once A.C. organisational set-up (organisation tree) of the firm with particular reference to the duties and responsibilities of the various major units of engineering facility like production. manual. C. B. in two years. 65. Q. in a year. approved by operator. release note. apply to DGCA in duplicate along with the enclosures. C. quality control D. 71. 70. An organisation seeking approval will normally submit A. B. apply to DGCA in duplicate. An organisation seeking approval in any of the categories A to G should A. 69. 66. C. D. D. 67. Engine Overhaul manual. B. sale certificate. B. D. RAO.C. D. manual. B. D. C. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components. materials and goods and certifying that the same were obtained from an approved source after manufacture /repair /overhaul is called A. three different types of manual. in six years. B. issued by DGCA to an approved organisation to cover the return of aircraft component received under incoming certificate. approved by RAO. None of the above. Director Aeronautical Inspection. Rejection note is a document A. spares. apply to RAO in duplicate. DGCA. DGCA in consultation with RAO.C. DGCA. three different types of manual in three sets. release certificate. Structural Repair manual.63. 68. None of the above. C. B. C. DGCA in consultation with RAO. 64. Structural Repair manual. in five years. Engine Overhaul manual M S manual. . approved by DGCA. apply to RAO in duplicate along with the enclosures.

RAO in consultation with DGCA. D. all aircraft above 15000 kg. ASI. 76. B. 78. Engineering Organisation manual. turbine engine having AUW of 5700 kg or above. 74. all turbine engined aircraft. Certification of AME 'R' for flight release on private aircraft may not necessary if ground facilities are not available the certification may be deferred to A. B. B. 75. B. altimetr. machine and engines. B. D. B. D. C.D.S. A sensitive altimeter and electrical power failure indicator is a must on aircraft A. D. C. align with any schedule within 50 hours. C. watch.C.S. ASI. Procedure for release of aircraft by 'maintenance' to 'operation' is contained in A. altimeter. D. radido communication and navigation system. C. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above. 72. instruments and autopilots. B. manual. D. The installation of CVR is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft with A. Installation of FDR is a must for issue/renewal/validity of C of A on A. autopilots and radar systems. Mechanical stream means the trades of A. altimeter.manual. Any one of the above. manufactured after 30th June 1978. ASI. None of the above. Avionic stream means the trades of A. C. electrical and instruments system. fire extinguisher. D. 73. M. C.C. Q. C. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity wherever applicable in respect of periodic maintenance of aircraft component is contained in A. as in (b) having AUW of 15000 kg or above. intended to cruising above 30000 feet. . None is correct. As per rule 52 of IAR minimum mandatory instruments and equipments required for having single engine are A. Q. M. with AUW above 15000 kg and flying in IFR. on international flight over international waters. B. inspection associated with next flight certification. C. manual. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 5700 kg and above. 80. 77. D. airframe and engines. C. B. Engineering Organisation manual. ASI. piston engines having AUW below 5700 kg. RPM indicator. manual. next 100 hours schedule. altimeter. None is correct. Both a and b are correct. 79.

B. An applicant applying for licence on helicopter of AUW below 3000 kg will have to show a total aeronautical experience of four years both on airframe and engine simultaneously out of which A. 86. D. aircraft. C. electrical equipment. ICAO type IV licence. B. 89. C. C. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will have to show on additional experience of A. 6 months. Concurrent experience means A. engine. B. C. ICAO type I licence. 3 months. B. with AUW below 3000 kg. 83. AME licence in category 'D' is equivalent to A. ICAO type III lincece. B. C. six months. with AUW below 15000 kg. D. D. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (LA) on aircraft of similar construction will have to show an additional experience of A. 6 months with 3 months recent experience. 82. All are correct. 12 months. D. D. 87.D. Paper IV of AME licence exam is related to specific type of A. 24 months. D. C. C. All are correct. ICAO type I licence. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience. twelve months. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied categories of different streams. AME licence in category 'B' is given to helicopter A. B. ICAO type IV licence. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied categories of the same stream. 85. D. 81. D. 88. AME licence in category 'A' is equivalent to A. 84. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 12 month recent experience. None is correct. experience acquired simultaneously on engine and instruments system. Both b and c are correct. three months. D. B. 24 months with 6 months recent experience. C. with AUW below 2000 kg. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 3 month recent experience. C. . B. Recent experience means experience acquired in the preceding A. 6 months. ICAO type II licence. with AUW below 5700 kg. ICAO type II licence. 12 months with 3 months recent experience. ICAO type III licence. B.

below 500 BHP. 12 months experience on type on which 3 months should be recent experience. 12 months on particular type of glider. B. B. ADF. VOR. overhaul of electrical system installed on light aircraft. Both a and b are correct. C. D. audio equipment. VLF/OMEGA and CW hyperblic equipment. 98. D. B. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience in relevant category. HF. C. 1 month on particular type of glider. 24 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience. Radio altimeter. CVR. B. overhaul of radio equipment. C. CVR. below 450 BHP. D. 12 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience. ILS. valid for communication/navigation/radar system installed on the under mentioned aircraft. Person having valid AME licence covering aircraft below 5700 kg and desirous of having an extension of glider will have to show a recent experience of A. 97. 'valid for heavy aircraft'. . VHF. An applicant may be allowed to appear for paper I. HF. D. The licence in category R pertaining to heavy aircraft will be endorsed as A. VOR. 3 months on particular type of glider. a valid RTR (Aero) licence issued by Ministry of Communications at the time of oral-cum-practical test. D. D. VLF/Omega. 94. C. All are correct. 92. BAMEC in category ES. Airborne navigation system includes A. Both a and b are correct. a licence in category E. II and III of AME licence examination after he/she has acquired at least A. C. ATC transponder.90. WX Radar. VOR. D. IS. DME. HF. B. VHF. C. Airborne communication system includes A. C. below 300 BHP. DME weather radar etc. For issue of licence in category 'V' the candidate must possess A. below 250 BHP. propeller. C. VHF. For an extension on turbine engine in category 'C' the candidate should have A. AME licence is category 'D' is issued for all piston engines A. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience in relevant category. on particular type of aircraft. ADF. 91.P. B. overhaul of V. VHF. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience. ADF. B. 96. HF. HF. 24 months experience on type on which 12 months should be recent experience. VLF/omega ADF. audio equipment. 6 months on particular type of glider. VHF. VHF. D. B. HF. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience. 95. FDR. FDR.I and R. VLF/omega and CW hyperbolic equipment. C. 93. ILS. ILS audio equipment. audio equipment. B. RN and have undergone an approved training course on integrated avionics system. Licence in category 'X' is issued for A.

D. WX Radar, VOR/DME, ILS, Radio altimeter, ATC transponder. 99. Airborne radar system includes A. ADF, WX Radar, VOR/ILS, ATC transponder. B. ADF, VOR, Radar, VOR/ILS ATC transponder HF. C. WX Radar, DME, Radio Altimeter, ATC transponder. D. WX Radar, DME, ATC transponder. 100. CAR are issued by DGCA A. to amplify any specific aircraft rule for the understanding of the operator. B. as a statutory requirement, non-compliance of which is a violation. C. to meet the technological developments and changes in maintenance concept on sophisticated new generation aircraft. D. All above are correct. 101. The purpose of itnroduction of CAR series C is A. to stipulate the requirement of recording, reporting, investigation, rectification and analysis of defect. B. to raise in general the safety consciousness of the operator quality control organisation. C. to indicate an analytical approach to reliability monitoring during maintenance to insure safety of operation and timely preventive maintenance measures. D. to introduce a procedure by which operator maintenance standard can be monitored from a distance. 102. All major defects experienced by an organisation engaged in maintenance/major maintenance A. should only be reported to DGCA in the manner specified in the CAR. B. may also be reported to the manufacturer of the aircraft / aircraft componentsw for seeking advice to prevent recurrence of defects. C. It is necessary for an operator to apprise the manufacturer of major defects to undertake continuous assessment of structural integrity. D. Both b & c are correct. 103. Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at A. identifying potential problems. B. optium utilisation of aircraft. C. achieving operational economy. D. keeping in force with present day technology. 104. An "item of equipment" means A. functionally significant item on aircraft. B. an essential unit on aircraft for safety of aircraft or its components. C. it is a self contained unit. D. a combination of all. 105. The content/scope/frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised A. only when maker so desires. B. only when DGCA so desires. C. only when justification based on operator's experience is acceptable to DGCA. D. only after incorporation of a major modification. 106. A critical I.F.S.D means A. engine failure in air beyond pilot's control. B. any IFSD associated with training flights/test flights. C. a "shut down" affected by pilot on observing abnormal indication. D. Both b & c are correct. 107. According to CAR series D part II "condition monitoring" component means A. that contains those units and system which may be operating for a limited period.

B. either approved by DGCA or the QCM of the organisation. C. that contains those units and system which may be inoperative in service for a limited period without affecting the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft. D. a configuration deviation list (CDL) in respect of transport category aircraft. 108. In the event of any damage caused to the aircraft while taxying by an authorised individual it should be promptly intimated to A. owner/operator of the aircraft. B. International Airport authority of India. C. concerned regional/sub regional inspection office. D. Both a & c are correct. 109. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category may be used for A. research or experimental purpose. B. racing aircraft. C. carrying passengers/mails/goods or for imparting training. D. normal category after obtaining permission from DGCA. 110. While operating an agricultural aircraft the minimum requirement for preflight inspection A. must be carried before each flight. B. may be carried out once before the first flight of the day unless the aircraft is suspected to have suffered from any defect or damage. C. need not be carried out if the flight release certificate is valid. D. None of the above is correcty. 111. If the defects observed in the aircraft other than public transport aircraft at places other than normal base they may be recorded in the A. defect register which must be carried on board. B. loose sheet for ultimate transferring to defect register kept at normal base. C. JLB for ultimate transferring to defect register. D. All the above are correct. 112. As per CAR series 'C' part I the records associated with the defects and their rectification shall be preserved for a period of A. one year. B. six months. C. two years. D. Not required to be preserved. 113. In determining the proven 'service life' of an aircraft or any of its component might be the factor that will be kept in view will be the A. area of operation, manufacturer recommendation and applicant's own service experience on similar type of components. B. number of landings effecting on flight sector I.e. shorthaul and longhaul operation. C. other operator service experience of similar equipment. D. All are correct. 114. The periodical inspection schedules are prepared by the QCM of the firm and is submitted for approval. This is not applicable in case of A. non-schedule operators. B. private operators. C. gliding clubs. D. schedule operators. 115. The application form for change of ownership of aircraft is A. CA 23. B. CA 28.

C. CA 27. D. CA 98. 116. With effect from 1st Jan 80 passenger safety information briefing card should be provided at every passenger seat by A. schedule operator. B. non-schedule operator. C. state aircraft. D. All the above are correct. 117. Deficiency list is to be approved by DGCA. This is applicable to A. schedule operator. B. non-schedule operator. C. private operator. D. Both a & b are correct. 118. Alert value means maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but within the allowable operating range which will not cause malfunction to an extent where aircraft safety is in jeopardy. This is applicable to A. all aircraft engines. B. piston engines only. C. turbine engines only. D. small aircraft engine operator only. 119. The formal for maintenance of records of fuel and oil uplift and consumption in respect of light aircraft engine is given in A. advisory circular no. 4 of 1976. B. CAR series D part V. C. not given anywhere. The operator has to make for himself and get it approved by DGCA. D. AME notice no. 1 of 1970. 120. The grant of approval to an organisation in any category will depend upon A. the request of the applicant. B. capability/capacity to perform the work. C. qualification of QCM/Dy QCM and other technical staff. D. All the above are correct. 121. How you will know the mandatory modification status of your aircraft? A. From the pink page of relevant log book. B. From the green page of log book. C. From the white page of log book. D. From the manufacturer. 122. All aircraft registered in India must have A. fire extinguisher and defuelling means. B. fire extinguisher and first aid Kit, contents of which, has been certified by an AME. C. play-card indicating up-to what estent smoking is allowed. D. Both b & c are correct. 123. As per IAR on aircraft involved in an accident which has major defect A. aircraft engine caught fire during refuelling on the departure day. B. a passenger is badly injured during time of take off. C. under-carriage accidentally retracts during a major inspection. D. All the above are correct. 124. Mark the correct statement

B. 128. 127. not withstanding the MEL. B. 130. complete engine and landing gears. C. only under emergency condition of flight. D. to examine the nature of defect experience on the previous day. passengers. B. Both a & b are correct. jib column II. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft organisation is approved by the A. C. the offender is issued show-cause notice. non-schedule operator. 129. All are correct. MEL may not include items like galley equipment entertainment systems. flight report book and the aircraft can only be released for further flight when duly rectified by the AME. convenience equipment which do not effect the airworthiness of the aircraft. C. If during an investigation the cause of the defects is attributed to wilful negligence of the aircraft maintenance engineer A. AME need not to certify the aircraft for flight release or a pilot need not to accept the aircraft for flight if it is feared that it is unsafe to do so. to discuss analysis and decide action on defects in co-operation with AID. B. during climbing phase soon after take off. D. the crew member should record all necessary parameter readings A. B. or it is necessary for an operator to apprise the manufacturer of only structural defects. the capacity of the firm to undertake the job. C. the person concerned is suspended by the QCM immediately. the equipment available and technical literature. B. MEL does not include flying controls. C. On public transport aircraft the defects reported by the pilot are recorded in A. All the above are correct. private owner of aircraft. D. B. For effective monitoring of aircraft and engine system for functioning in flight. B. aircraft owned by state govts. D. schedule operator. 125. the Quality Control Manager should be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action. C. D. 132. action by QCM should not be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action. only under stabilised cruise condition. once during each sector of flight. flight report book only when the nature of the defect is major.A. C. in the manner specified in CAR. C. C. B. to decide action on defects of repetitive nature. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on A. . 126. suitable & QCM & Dy QCM. to satisfy if rectification action are adequate. D. Only b & c are correct. Quality Control Manager of only Indian Airlines and Air India. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation. D. Only one of the following need not have the approval of the maintenance organisation A. D. The dailyreview board meeting is obligatory on the part of schedule operator A. Controller or Director of Airworthiness of the region. should also be reported to the manufacturer of the aircraft component for seeking advise on prevention of recurrence of similar defects. 131. All major defects experienced by an organisation during maintenance should be reported to DGCA A.

B. C D L. Maintenance procedure for GPWS will be included in A. evaluate alert values.D. 133. the QCM. C. Maintenance System Manual. the RMU. the DGCA. relate to restriction only in the vicinity of airports. B. manufacturer. should have been complied with an aircraft before 21. should not be done in haste. Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at A. D. Analytical study of in-flight instrument reading of engine parameters (EGT/EPR/TAS/N1/N2) is intended to A.85. C. timely corrective action.12. may be exempted by DGCA for any aircraft or class of aircrafts. identifying potential areas. appropriate maintenance schedule. should be done with speed for timely preventive/curative action. only when makers so desire. 136. 134. The contents of scope and frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised A. B. Aircraft noise level requirements A. smooth functioning of the reliability and statistical quality control system. to pin-point the cause is more important. only when DGCA so desires. keeping in pace with present day technology. D. 135. C. C. B. . optimum utilisation of aircraft. any one of the above. D. B. C. B. 141. effective monitoring. only after the incorporation of a major modifications. are applicable to supersonic aircraft. An alert notice in the event of system reliability exceeding alert value is issued by A. 139. Quality Control Manual. M E L. C. B. D. M S manual. D. establish aerodynamic cleanliness. C. B. D. 138. detect in-service deterioration. Flight Manual. 140. Flight Manual. B. The circumstances under which an aircraft may be released with GPWS as unserviceable will be spelt out in A. 137. D. achieving operational economy. C. A major defect investigation A. D. The purpose behind recording of defects and inflight instrument reading is to achieve A. only when justification based on operator's experience is acceptable to DGCA. determine reliability index. defect register maintained by the Quality Control Manager to ensure corrective action. C.

AME. Whenever a new issue of a CAR part is issued it is given A. B. All the above. C. When an aircraft registered outside India is in Indian territory sustains major damage or a major defect is found A. the earlier issue of that particular CAR part stands cancelled. Critical shut-down are those A. all pilots. . DGCA may prohibit the aircraft from flying.D. D. None of the above is correct. When a new issue of any CAR parts becomes effective A. 146. the earlier series stand cancelled. A current list of all in-flight shut down rate. B. D. all AME's. None of the above. C. D. which cause aircraft structural damage. 144. C. a new issue is issued. Reflection of the requirements of the CAR in the quality control-cum-maintenance system manual is the responsibility of the A. 143. All of the above. operator/owner. B. a part no. B. C. head of the organisation. QCM. B. an amendment is issued. D. C. 142. C. Both a and c are correct. issue number along with the date of issue & date of effectively. D. When minor changes are made to a CAR part A. issue number along with the date of issue. At present one copy of each CAR is supplied free to A. 149. shut down for test or training. a new part is issued. new series are issued. by the end of each month. 147. D. generate projection or fires adversely effecting the controllability of aircraft. B. by the 15th of each month. instead of prohibiting the aircraft from flying DGCA informs the fact to the country of registration and allows the aircraft to fly. all owners/operators of the aircraft. D. engine hours flown and reliability index is submitted in a consolidated manner to the RAO A. B. those which cannot be put down or feathered. D. 148. the earlier parts stand cancelled. an issue number. 145. C. by the tenth of each month. the earlier issued stands cancelled. DGCA should not prohibit the aircraft from flying without concurrence of the appropriate authority of the country of registration of the aircraft. C. B.

undertake aircraft work. All the above are correct. Flight manual is a manual A. The form used for applications for approcal of firm in any of the categories mentioned in the CAR series E part I is A. D. modification. associated with the C of A. CA 180. Flight time as per aircraft rules means A. 158. 151. D. steady parking light and such switches may be operated. carry persons or cargo for renumeration. B. B. 155. B. B. C. C. B. A person having qualification recognised by DGCA. which is for the time-being a party to the convention of the ICAO. the ground power unit. carry passengers but not cargo. D. CA 28. that has signed a bilateral agreement with another state. D. Public transport aircraft can A. C. C. Mark the correct statement A. On an India registered aircraft a mandatory modification is to be carried in a non-contracting state. 153. synonymous to term "chock to chock". release note. contracted for a particular condition for carrying passengers. During refuelling of aircraft A. aircraft radio and electrical. None of the above. B. certificate of maintenance review. radar switches may remain 'ON'. the moment aircraft first moves under its own power for taking off until it comes to rest at the end of the flight. D. 156. An approved person of the non-contracting state. Aerial work aircraft can be used for private and agricultural spraying. A normal category aircraft can be used for only manoeuvre which is suitable for normal category. D. 157. An approved person of contracting state. CA 182. also be a private aircraft. B. D. The certification to the effect that any servicing. associated with the C of R. which need not be carried on board. C. C. inspection have been carried out in accordance with airworthiness requirements of the DGCA is called A. B. Contracting state as per aircraft rules means any state A. D. 152. 154. CA 23. repair. C. B. Aerobatic category can be used for all categories. The following can carry the modification: A. C. . certificate of maintenance. which is for the time-being a party to the IATA. synonymous to the term "block to block". C. certificate of flight release. associated with the FRC. tractor and similar equipment shall be located outside the defined "danger zone". no special precautions are necessary for ground power supply.150.

3. Route guide. which contains those units and systems which may remain inoperative in service for a limited period. C. a. B. 160. C of A. D. A Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is a document A. as in (a) but permissible AUW of 15000 kg or above. piston engine and permissible AUW of 5700 kg or above.5. Maintenance manual. The quanitity of unusable fuel is required to be determined if not available in the flight manual before A. FRC. D. C. B. Engine power check on ground is done on helicopter by A. which contains those units and systems which may be inoperative in service for a limited period without effecting safety and airworthiness of the airc. D.6. A. All the above. . D.2. approved by the DGCA. B. Types instructions and typed service manual. turbine engines & permissible AUW of 5700 kg or above. RT licence if required. Qualified to use radio communications.3. Disposable load is A. 162. C. An aicraft which is flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome and coming back without landing at any other place.7. C. JLB. C. B. All of the above. C of R cockpit and emergency check-list. Both (b) & (c) are correct. B. The installation of flight data recorder is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft having A. C. Fuel that can be thrown out of the aircraft during emergency conditions. 164. 159. flight crew. Detailed drawings. 2. Fuel and oil which is unusable. any type of engine and permissible AUW 5700 kg or above.D. B. D. All the above. C. D. an AME having licence on that engine. B. 166. C of A renewal. C. A person should know layout of aerodrome. 163. For taxying an aircraft. 1.4. D. All the above.8. b & care correct. All persons and their belongings. The following documents have to be carried by all aircraft on all flights: A. 165. 161.3. Empty load and variable load. an AME having vast experience. 4. To get a type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments should contain the following: A. a person having AME cat 'C' licence should possess the following: A. D. 167. should carry the following document (I) C of A (II) C of R (III) Cockpit & Emergency checklist (IV) FRC (V) MEL (VI) Route Guide (VII) Pilot Crew Licences (VIII) Flight Manual if applicable. B. Both a & b are correct.

D. operation manual. Maintenance has been carried out by appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person. C of A. C. the aircraft has been maintained as per stipulated maintenance schedules by the DGCA. on-condition & hard time. C. 168. for agricultural aircraft. C. 170. One of the following conditions does not result in automatic suspension of C of A A. C. flying executives to their factory without any remuneration. experimental purposes. D. quality control manual. engineering organisation manual. D. C of R. The minimum standard of manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be A. Whenever an aircraft develops a defect which effects primary structure. None of the above is correct. one year from the date of issue. as laid down in FAA -FAR pts 23 & 25. B. C.'s. Approved maintenance organisation maintaining private aircraft may reflect this arrangement in their A. maintenance system manual. D. Certification of airworthiness of aircraft shows that it is valid for normal category sub-division "Private Aircraft". Whenever "lifted" components are not removed at their stipulated T. 173. Certificate of flight release shall be preserved for a period of A. log book. hard time & condition monitoring. as specified in operation manual. complete overhaul of the aircraft. C. Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due. B. 172. on-condition & condition monitoring. . B. D. This aircraft can be used for A. C. C. Maintenance carried out has been certified by appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person in the specified period.B. Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing. Both (a) & (b) are correct. B. 169. as laid down in CAA -B CAR secs 'K' & 'D'. (a) above. as laid down by australian govt. aerial works. six months from the date of expiry. B. D. no.B. type certificate. Aqll are correct. D. D. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported into India. The minimum conditions to be complied with under aircraft rules.S. 175. type certifcation of aircraft. D. aerobatic purposes. C. For information regarding name and address of the owner of the aircraft the document referred to is A. 171. before any aircraft is allowed to be flown are: A. B. six months from the date of issue. 174. B. B. The two preventive maintenance processes are known as A. hard time & conditioning.

B. schedule & non-schedule operator. For all aircraft engaged in public transport. Master Minimum Equipment List. Manufacture Minimum Equipment List. wings. 179. B. approval by DGCA. B. MEL is applicable to aircraft operated by: A. A manual associated with C of A containing limitation within which the aircraft is considered to be airworthy is called A. Q C manual. A.176. Can it execute any steep turns? A. B. 181. Limited bank if specified in flight manual. Mandatory Minimum Equipmet List. 180. 183. For aircraft engaged in non-schedule operation including training aircraft. private operator. flight manual. No. C. C. maintenance system manual. entertainment system. increased crew load and increased airworthiness. Main Minimum Equipment List. All aircraft registered in India. decreased crew load and decreased airworthiness. C. D. D. A public transport aircraft is categorised in "Normal category" sub-division a) passenger. D. 'cockpit check-list' and 'Emergency check-list' are applicable as per rules on which of the following category/classification of aircraft. D. B. C. MMEL stands for A. Yes. D. 184. keep on flying for unlimited period. B. MEL is framed on A. Angle of bank should not exceed 60 degree due to increase in G-forces. 178. B. operator experience. 182. complete Engine & its accessories. For state aircraft. B. Deficiency list includes A. D. D. C. . MEL allows the aircraft to A. galley equpment. increased crew load and decreased airworthiness. decreased crew load and increased airworthiness. B. the basis of MMEL. C. by all aircraft having C of A. fly from transit station to base station where maintenance facilities exist. keep on flying for limited period. 177. operating manual. D. Invoking MEL for a period longer than absolutely necessary will result in A. non-schedule operator. All the above are correct. C. All the above. landing gears. flight controls. C. C.

When an aircraft is flying on MEL A. emergency check-list. B. 7 B. . 185. safety list.D. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing within 24 hours if aircraft is released under the purview of MEL from the parent base. C. cockpit check-list. 62 B. All the above. 191. 190. B. C. B. (a). C. Cockpit check-list. Cockpit check-list means A. 188. 189. D. D. only to main base station. B. D. D. B. defining the main base and transit stations. C. none of the above. Cockpit and Emergency check-list are prepared under the purview of aircraft rule A. to terminal station. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew after the flight. The MEL pre-amble contains A. whenever emergent situations develop in flight on account of failures/malfunction of aircraft systems/components and requiring extra alertness on the part of flight crew is A. None of the above. D. (b) & (c) are correct. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew & ground crew in the order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of a aircraft. when and where the defects/items will be rectified/replaced. 186. An AME after releasing the aircraft after invoking MEL A. A list containing items of inspections/action to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of aircraft is A. safety list. shall make an entry in the technical log and placard the inoperative system. emergency check list. procedure for release of aircraft with items of equipment unserviceable as per MEL. 70 B. C. the operator has to inform the RAO and DGCA in writing within 24 hours. B. shall inform the pilot of the aircraft of the same. D. C. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of aircraft. emergency list. 192. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew after and before the days of flight. B. D. 60 A. check-list. C. D. C. A list containing items of action to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed. Both (a) & (c) are correct. 187. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing within 24 hours. to transit station. Deficiency list (MEL) is applicable A. shall inform the RAO of the same. B.

80%. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting manufacturer approval. D. 90%. C. two years. Quarantine store is a store where A. Bonded store is a store where A. D. 90%. C. till the life of covered item. material bear evidence of having been received from approved sources. B.193. C. bearings. 197. D. Release note contains A. D. 60%. 196. 'Chief Instructor' is a mandatory requirement for organisation approved in A. category'C'. C. C. a cross reference to the outgoing certification document. 80%. C. Separate stores are maintained for A. hardwares. 199. propellers. ten years. C. The duration of training period for specialised course for specific aircraft/engines shall be decided by A. 200. 70%. five years. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting manufacturer approval. All the above are correct. B. D. B. category 'G'. D. airtworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting DGCA approval. 198. manufacturer of aircraft/engines. category 'A'. 195. organisation. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting DGCA approval. 201. B. category 'F'. 70%. RAO. Incoming release notes or other equipvalent documents shall be preserved for A. 60%. details from the outgoing certification of any deviation from the approved design document. The 'Pass marks' in approved training school shall not be less than A. . B. B. B. inflammable goods. In case of re-examination of failed candidate in approved training school the passing mark shall not be less than A. C. D. B. D. D. a cross reference to the incoming certification document. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting evidence of having been received from approved sources. material bear evidence of having been received from approved sources. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting evidence of having been received from approved sources. DGCA. 194. B. C.

D. 80% attendance.M of only Indian Airlines & Air India. The aircraft is mainteined in airworthy condition by subjecting the aircraft & component to A. once approved by DGCA can be revised by the Quality Control Manager. D. controller of Airworthiness. C. Managing Director of an organisation.A. Quality Control manual & may be revised as per maker's recommendation.G. 209. certificate of Airworthiness only for test flight. B. consignment note available. B.C.A. Manufactuere of the Aircraft. certificate of maintenance release available. B. D.A. B. D. controller of Director of Airworthiness of the region. D. Chief Engineer of an airline operator.202. Regional Airworthiness Office. B.C. Owner/Operator of the Aircraft. B. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft organisation are approved by the A. D. periodical inspections as approved by D. 210. Maintenance system manyual and may be revised in concurrence of the DGCA. C. 206. 208. D.G.G. D.A. certificate of safety available. replace "lifed" components at intervals approved by the D. Maintenance System manual & may be revised as per maker's recommendation. proper release note available. Both b and c are correct.C.C. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation. None of the above. C. 90% attendance.M. In an organisation approved in category 'G' during any course the practical training shall not be normally A. To ensure that the aircraft has a current and valid C of A is the responsibiloity of A. The component life list is a part of A. C.G. 207. certificate of Airworthiness. B. 203. C. are approved by the A. current and valid certificate of airworthiness before it is flown. All the above are correct. more than 40% of total training time. less than 50% of total training time. C.C. The Q. . C. 205. When any component or item is drawn from the bonded stores by the AME.C. 60% attendance. carry out repairs/modifications as required by D. A candidate appearing for examination in any approved course should have at least A. 70% attendance. 204. D. C. he should ensure that there is a A. M. B. less than 40% of total training time. Quality control manual. B. Every Inidian registered aircraft is required to possess A.C. C. DGCA. more than 50% of total training time. & Dy Q. Q. D.

B.I. D. Operator co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.R.I. B. 219. A. see his pilots operate the aircraft as per operating limitations. D. A. It is the responsibility of the owner to A. B. D. hard time maintenance. B.D. Officers monitor the airworthiness standards stipulated by D. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.A. D. 215.I. on-condition maintenance.b.211. The maintenance process for locating and resolving problem areas through analytical study of failure or malfunction not affecting safety of aircraft is called A. design levels of reliability. preventive maintenance. B. 212. through medium of spot checks. when the operator / owner is ready. at a pre-determined stage to ensure compliance with prescribed airworthiness standards. C. D.A. B. A. 214.G.I. C. Both a & b are correct. 218. D. through the D.D.C. C. D. The main objective of the Airworthiness authority is to ensure A.D. Both a & b are correct. a. preventive maintenance.D. All the above.D. D. C. The maintenance process requiring assembly inspection of aircraft and aircraft components at fixed period is A. All are correct.A. to determine the continued serviceability of aircraft and aircraft components without having to dismantle them completely and before such components reach a critical stage in their operation is termed as . emergency landing. 217. report all defects encountered in flight or during routine maintenance to A. etc. record such defects as per procedure specified in C. series 'C'. B. Both a& b are not correct. Accomplishment of repetitive (1) visual inspection or (2) physical measurement or (3) in situ/bench test. C. C. in supervising the engineering activities. promulgation and enforcement of highest achievable standards of airworthiness. None. condition monitoring.C. normal landing. 213. heavy landing. operating safety of civil registered aircraft. B. An unintentional landing effected on account of failure/malfunction of an aircraft component or a system is A. A. C. hard time maintenance. Technical officers of R A O may require owners/operators to submit their aircraft/aircraft components for inspection.c are correct. through investigation of defects reported to them.I. on-condition maintenance. whenever they like. 216. C.G. forced landing. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.

B. 222.A.C. C. every month. D. D. on-condition and hard time. A. Condition monitoring is A. on-condition maintenance. preventive maintenance. c are correct. on condition. 223. 224. every twelve months. A. C. 225.C.G. 221.G.G. 227. b. B.A. every nine months. None of the above. hard line. every month.C. None. a. D.G. Non-schedule operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to the D. Preventive maintenance is A. condition monitoring. D.C. 226. C. D. hard time. A. 220. every nine months. D. condition-monitoring. Private operator shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to the D. . Preventive maintenance is A.A. hard time maintenance. every month. C. every year. B. A. every month. B. B. hard time maintenance.C. C. A. Schedule operators would furnish the information concerning major defect / incident/ accident to the D. B. every six months. Training aircraft operators would furnish the information concerning major defect/ incident /accident to D. every six months. B. D. every six months. Aerial work operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to D. every month. C. work performed at pre-determined intervals to maintain an aircraft. every six months. D. a & b is correct.A. C. aircraft component or aircraft system in an airworthy condition. preventive maintenance.A. B. on-condition. every nine months. B.A.G. every three months. every three months. every six months. C.

B. objective of AID. A current list of all CAR with amendments.A. 234. D. CAR series A part III refers to A. 133 C. 62 B.C etc. . B. B. D. D. CAR is issued bearing different series identification serial as I. C. does not have to send any information to R. All are correct. 133 B. C. None of the above. Both b & c are correct. series B part I. if any.C etc. suggests additional preventive maintenance. 231. If the A. CAR is issued bearing different series identification alphabetical letter such as series A. B. If there is no information concerning individual major defect /incident /accident the operator A.I. 236. 235. C. When substantial changes are made to a CAR part A. series A part I. series A part II. a new part is issued. D. at the end of each year. CAR is issued bearing different parts such as A. proposes varying the frequency of existing preventive maintenance. D. number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per 1000 Hrs. 233. B.B. is covered in CAR A.G. targets of AID. B. C. None. D.C. suggests incorporation of modifications on mandatory basis.B. Both a & b are correct. observes adverse 'trends' in performance of aircraft he A. series B part II. All the above.D. D. Procedure for issuing of CAR including amendments. B. Despatch reliability is the percentage ratio between A. of scheduled service during the period. B. B. procedure for issue of CAR. 228. number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per number of scheduled service during the period. 230. at the beginning of each year. III etc. 229. is also issued A. every three months. number of services which were despatched in time per 1000 hrs. C. CAR is issued under rule A. D. 232. D. in the middle of each year. C.C. number of services which were despatched in time per no.O. II.A. a new issue is issued. 133 A. C. has to send a "NIL' information. does not have to send any information to D. C. Mark the correct statement A.

5 MPH above the stipulated speed. variation in speed during descent not to exceed A. B. adverse affects of weather. D. engines are developing correct power. D. B. C. CAR series F part III. 5 MPH above or below the stipulated speed. D. C. CAR series O part III. 240. All are correct. 242. 239. C. The PIC of every aircraft shall before commencing any flight satisfy himself of the A. D. 244. new series and part are issued.C. 5 MPH below the stipulated speed. take off and landing. C. D. B. C. new series are issued. All are correct. All pilots before flying as PIC of multi engined aircraft of licensed air transport service shall demonstrate to a check pilot let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use. 2000 feet. The responsibility of briefing the passengers of smoking limitation lies with A. B. C. 237. PIC shall ensure that the aircraft carries sufficient amount of fuel for the flight considering A. 245. D. D. Critical phase of flight includes A. B. 1500 feet. for promoting airlines. Co-pilot. sufficient length of runway is available. All are correct. all flight operations conducted below 10000 feet except cruise flight. CAR series O part II. taxying. AME. D. D. B. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot check loss in height shall not exceed A. QCM. valid flight release in respect of the aircraft. 241. 243. 238. availability of an alternate aerodrome. B. 1000 feet. CAR series F part II. 500 feet. C. All are correct. a headgear is worn. for ordering galley supplies. B. . C. Duties not required for safe operation of the aircraft includes company required calls made A. 10 MPH above or below the stipulated speed. B. a crash helmet is worn. No pilot may carry out acrobatic man cover in an aircraft unless A. PIC. for confirming passenger's connections. pilots wearing spectacles must weare flying goggles over and above the spectacles. Minimum fuel and oil requirements for public transport aircraft is contained in A.

is same as for turbo prop aircraft. The fuel and oil carried in the case of propeller driven aircraft when alternate airport is not required shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft A. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes. as in (b) thereafter for 20 minutes. 250. emergency that may be expected during the flight. D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes. is same as for turbo jet aircraft. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes. D. C. In computing fuel and oil required for aircraft operation one should consider A. one instruments approach at the destination aerodrome including one missed approach. C. 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned hence to an alternate. D. as in (a) thereafter for 20 minutes. The fuel carried on turbo jet aircraft (when an alternate aerodrome is not required) shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft A. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to A. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes. anticipated ATC routing and traffic delays. C. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes. 120 minutes at normal cruise consumption. 247. B. 251. The fuel on board a turbo jet aircraft when no suitable alternate aerodrome is available to fly to which the flight is planned and there-after for a period of A. B. as in (b) thereafter for 45 minutes. All are correct. 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption. C. 253. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 metres above the destination aerodrome. meteorological forecast. . The fuel carried in case of propeller driven aircraft (when alternate airport is required) shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft A. fly to first point of intended landing. None is correct. 246. fly to first point of intended landing and then to alternate. B. B. as in (a) thereafter for 15 minutes. as in (a) & to fly for 45 minutes. C. D. C. Minimum fuel required for operation of supersonic aircraft A. 248. 249. fly to first point of intended landing. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned. D. B. C. D.C. B. C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes. 60 minutes at normal cruise consumption. 252. All are correct. is same as for helicopter. as in (a) thereafter for 45 minutes. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned. B. D. D. B. D. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under IFR condition is to A.

B. D. All helicopters intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly deployable means of floatation if distance from land corresponds to more than A. All helicopters below 2000 kg AUW must be equipped with A. Flight data recorders are 'must' for all helicopters A. position lights. guidance to ATC transponder. C. 30 minutes at normal cruise speed. . guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be effected. guidance to WX radar. B. performance class II helicopter. 258. CVR's are must for all helicopter A. performance class IV helicopter. 262. D. performance class IV helicopter. guidance to a point from which instrument landing can be effected. C. D. A helicopter with performance such that in case of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile a forced landing must be performed is called A. except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off or after a defined point before landing. in case of critical power unit failure it is able to safely continue the flight. 256. as in (b) provide the watch is accurate and shows time in hours. 257. with AUW of over 2000 kg. D. with AUW of over 5700 kg. an accurate time piece showing time in hour minutes and seconds. C. slip indicator. B. D. performance class I helicopter. All are correct. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed. 260. 259. B. pilot may use his personal watch in lieu of (a). A helicopter with such performance that in case of critical power unit failure it is able to land on the rejected take off aread or safely condinue the flight to an appropriate landing area. B. with AUW of over 7000 kg. landing lights. performance class I helicopter. performance class II helicopter. performance class IV helicopter. 10 minutes at normal cruise speed. D. C. C. 255. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio equipment capable of receiving signals providing A. with AUW of over 7000 kg. 261. 15 minutes at normal cruise speed. B. performance class II helicopter. B. All are correct. Helicopter operating in IFR condition in addition to instruments in VFR flying shall have A. performance class III helicopter.254. performance class III helicopter. depending on the failure occurred is called A. B. in which case a forced landing may be required is called A. C. C. performance class I helicopter. A helicopter with such performance that. with AUW of over 2700 kg. C. D. D. minutes and seconds. performance class III helicopter.

C. MDA/H is specified altitude or height in a A. threshold elevation. MDA/H. D. tower elevation.B. D. Decision height (DH) is referred to A. is always the aerodrome of departure. C. B. mean sea level. C. type III FDR. C. the last 25 hours of operation. average sea level. CAR series F part IV. D. FDR used on helicopter shall be A. is at least 500 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure. mean sea level. C. D. B. the last 10 hours of operation. the last 10 hours of operation. the last 30 minutes of operation. D. B. 264. may be aerodrome of departure. type II FDR. C. DA/H. type I FDR. 268. CAR series F part I. B. All are correct. C. non-precision approach below which descent may be made without visual reference. B. B. the least 30 minutes of operation. 266. Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to A. B. CAR series O part I. the last one hour of operation. type IV FDR. 270. MDA/G. with AUW of over 2000 kg. 267. is at least 450 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure. C. the last one hour of operation. B. 265. D. with AUW of over 5700 kg. CVR used on helicopters shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least A. FDR used on helicopter shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least A. . D. CAR series O part IV. average sea level. 263. the last 25 hours of operation. C. Operation of helicopter is contained in A. An alternate aerodrome A. with AUW of over 2700 kg. threshold elevation. D. 271. tower elevation. B. D. Aerodrome operating minima is the limits of usability of an aerodrome for either take-off or landing usually expressed in times of A. 269. non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference.

D. morning when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree below the horizon. All are correct. 01-12-1970. C. 277. 276.M.G. Civil twilight ends in the A.M. D. D. .C. be operated only by a person who holds appropriate licence issued by DGCA. C. D. B. installation of radar equipment. evening when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree below the horizon. 272. six copies of drawing to RAO. Installation of anti-collision light is applicable to all aircraft issued with C of A for the first time after A. empty weight of the aircraft remains same after installation. C. The radio equipment installed in aircraft registered in India shall A. 15000 kg. 20 nautical miles away from land. 5700 kg. 50 nautical miles away from land. All are correct. be installed and operated with a licence issued by DGCA. 275. 280. D. evening at 6 P. red. B. morning at 6 A. aircraft radio equipment. 100 nautical miles away from land. precision approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on board when flown beyond A. 273. not be operated in flight unless it has been inspected and certified as being in proper working order by a person authorised by the DGCA. installation of navigation equipment.G. 278. yellow. empty weight C. should remain in limit after installation. outlined in white to contrast with the background. D. C. 279. Flight recorders are not required for aircraft below A. C. precision approach below which descent may be made without visual reference. B. B. All are correct. 31-12-1970. B. 7000 kg. The colour of marking of 'break in points' in aircraft shall be A. D. remains same after installation. 274. B. While installing anew avionic system on an aircraft in the absence of manufacturer's guidelines the AME 'R' shall make a feasibility study to check that A. C. None is correct. 31-12-184. 01-12-1984. AME 'R' shall submit the modification details along with A.G. CAR series R Part I pertains to A. in absence of manufacturer's guidelines. D. C. C. loaded weight C. B. C. D. For approval of an avionic installation. remains same after installation. B. installation of communication equipment.

12 hours or 7 days elapsed time. CAR series E part II. AME cat 'R'. Maintenance check carried out on radio equipments are A. D. 286. B. permanent aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications. B. On comletion of structural and electrical wiring on an aircraft the complete wiring shall be checked for A. NDT checks. in situ checks & bench checks. bonding and insulation. C. 287. After installation of new avionic system on an aircraft the EWCG shall be amended accordingly by A. B. B. D. AME cat 'B'. aircraft radio equipment. 282. C & R. C. The antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper insulation to ensure that A. installation of aircraft radio equipment. D. All are correct. B. continuity. 9 Sub-rule 3. AME cat A & C. Both a and c are correct.B. the permit from DGCA. 51 A. 284. C. Maintenance of airborne communication and navigation equipments shall be carried out in accordance with A. 288. static interference is minimum. 9A. 283. CAR series E part III. Installation of a new avionic system on an aircraft can be carried out only after obtaining A. AME cat A. D. six copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs). D. static interference is maximum. precipitation static interference is minimum. boroscope checks. D. 281. B. C. B. B. short term aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications. bench check only. B. CAR series R part III pertains to A. three copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs). the permission from DGCA. three copies of drawing to RAO. 289. D. maintenance of airborne radio equipment. C. FRC of a radio communication system installed on a flying training club aircraft is A. 285. sub-rule 3. D. D. valid for 24 hours. CAR series R part III. CAR series R part II. C. installation and maintenance of airborne radio equipment. radio interference is least. insulation and continuity. . C. C. Aircraft shall be equipped with radio apparatus as may be specified is required as per IAR A. C.

D. C. AME cat 'B' (radio). once in six months. Aircraft after flying through electrical storm or lightning strike has to be inspected for A. DME and R NAV after A. None is correct. Pilot shall file de-briefing report regarding the range and performance of WX Radar. B. once in a 2 years linked with C of A or any major check. 180 days of flying. B. None is correct. HIS. C. 10 hours or 4 days elapsed time. C. aircraft tyres. All are correct. VHF. B. AME cat 'R'. . valid for 30 days. 295. every month or so. once in a year. aircraft engines. FRC of a radio communication/navigation system installed on a flying training club aircraft is A. D. 292. bonding of RF cables. all antenna shall be inspected for any damage to the wire. B. once in 2 years (for valve equipment). all digital and CRT indicator shall be inspected for any possible damage to glass components. insulation of radio equipments. 294. All are correct. D. The tyres should be turned to a new position A. valid for 90 days. 90 days of flying. B. every 3 months or so. D. Omega NAV. C. loop antenna which is to be demagnetised. RMI. B. every 2 months or so. aircraft instruments. 10 days of flying. HF. 291. once in a year (for valve equipment). 297. Aircraft tyres should be stored vertically in racks having support tubes so that each tyre is supported at two point on the treads. B. B. CAR series S part I pertains to storage of A.C. FTD checks of ADF. 293. B. AME cat 'X' (radio). once in 2 years. D. 296. D. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days inspection schedule of radio system it is a must to carry out A. Final test data check of solid state equipment shall be carried out A. D. AME cat A & B (radio). 298. valid for 200 hours. C. VSWR of HF & VHF transmitter. C. C. D. Major modifications regarding safety of aircraft radio equipment shall be carried out by A. once in six months. D. 290. aircraft hardware. C. VOR & ILS equipment are carried out A. C. the day's flying. valid for 24 hours.

4 years. B. 303. D. in coiled state supported in racks having support tubes. oil. . between 50 degree F and 90 degree F. 6 years. in coiled and supported state so as to relieve stresses. 10 years from the cure date. The storage/shelf life of group A hoses are A. C. 60%. in coiled state. 8 years. 304. B. every 6 months or so. in coiled state with french chalk sprayed. Group 'B' hoses are A. D. None is correct. between 50 degree C and 70 degree C. C. B. 299. 305. 50%. 6 years from the cure date. 4 years.D. 6 years. The service life of group A houses are A. Group 'A' hoses are A. B. 65%. between 50 degree F and 70 degree F. 8 years. C. 75%. D. 10 years. B.5 times the working pressure. The storage temperature of rubber parts should A. 8 years. between 50 degree C and 90 degree C. as in (a) before installation pressure test should be carried out 1. C. fuel. fuel. D. D. 6 years. All are correct. C. D. All are correct. C. B. Aircraft hoses should be stored A. C. 306. The relative humidity of the room where hoses are stored shall be around A. C. 307. D. B. 10 years. D. fuel return line. 300. B. hydraulic pressure hoses. 4 years. B. D. The service life of group B hoses are A. The service life of group A and group B hoses can be increased by A. hydraulic return line and instrument hoses. C. 301. pneumatic pressure hoses. 302. 2 years. oil.

B. D. 313. C. 20% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification. D. 20% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification. two engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out. as in (a) and also assessing the satisfactory completion of maintenance. None is correct. during C of A renewal. Both a and c are correct. 10 years from the cure date. C. C. All are correct. 4 years. 8 years from cure date. 6 years from the cure date. 10% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification. 8 years. C. 315. Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement by . 309. A private aircraft shall be flight tested A. C. D. 311. C. The maximum service life of rubber seals shall not exceed A. Test flight of an Indian airlines aircraft will be carried out A. 312. 10 years. B. one engine provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out. None is correct. without any passenger on board for the purpose assessing the deterioration in performance. aircraft manufactured in series. B. 317. B. D. B. C. as in (a) and (b) and can carry passengers. after 'top-overhaul'. for the purpose of evaluation of engine power. D. D. C. D. Series aircraft means A. C. 8 years. Flight test means the flying of an aircraft A. three engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out. On a four-engine aircraft the test flight may not be carried out after change of A. B. 6 years. Rubber seals which have been stored for more than four years should be checked for deterioration by stretching the seal to A. during C of A renewal. 5 years. 4 years from the cure date. 10% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification. after 'block-overhaul'. 310. as in (a) and can carry passengers.308. subsequent to change of an engine. B. The 'shelf life' of valve seats used in hydraulic system is A. aircraft belonging to 'A' series. The calendar life of reciprocating engines are A. All are correct. 314. 6 years. B. arcraft supplied in series. B. D. 316. D.

means temperature. B. 324. When an India registered aircraft suffers major damage of defect then it shall be the responsibility of A. officer incharge of RAO A. On receipt of a report regarding major defect/damage to an aircraft. for the period the original revalidation would have lasted had the suspension not taken place. 326. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection only when rectification is complete. means altitude. for one year. B. 320. may formally suspend the C of A. Aircraft rule 53 and 53A together . the operator to inform the DAI. 319. C. B. When a suspended C of A is revalidated it is A. Both a and b are correct. Co-pilot. 318. Flight Engineer. C. D. if reasonable doubts exist to the safety of aircraft or as to the safety of this type of aircraft to which the aircraft belongs. re-installation of the engine in the same position. All are correct. The owner/operator during carrying out rectification of major defect A. All are correct. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection during rectification work. that 'al-engine-operating' climbed performance is within acceptable limits specified by the manufacturer/DGCA. minimum AUW. the operator to inform the RAO. shall not submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection. may suspend C of A. that the cruise speed at the cruising engine power is within the range specified. engine removed from any position of the same aircraft to any other aircraft. 321. D. None is correct. B. Both b and c are correct. 323. means weight. D. the operator to inform the DGCA. 322. may suspend C of A. D. Test flight shall be continued if practicable at A. an overhauled engine. D. if reasonable doubts exist to the safety of aircraft. The routine test flight procedure will at least insure A. PIC. 1/2 of maximum AUW. B. that the stalling speed has not increased beyond the figure specified by the manufacturer/DGCA. All are correct. D. C. C. B. D. B. AME. maximum AUW. C. while effecting climb at the 'best climbing speed'.A. 325. C. The responsibility of recording the results of test flight lies entirely with A. C. D. D. C. for six months. 3/4 of maximum AUW. C. The observed actual climb performance is related to the test condition A. B. None is correct. B.

A. B. D. to the wing by permanent means. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during maintenance of aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the maintenance of aircraft. All are correct. D. C. D. This number will normally be the number assigned A. parts purchased are genuine. rebuilding of aircraft. 331. 333. D. Only those aircraft are permitted to be rebuilt A. . C. An approved firm can undertake the rebuilding of A. to the fuselage by permanent means. 327. 332. B. Rebuilt aircraft will be assigned a serial number by the constructor. rebuilding of damaged aircraft. B. 330. C. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. to the fuselage. C. 328. C. to complete aircraft. proper history of parts are available. C. C. prescribes the persons authorised to certify the maintenance of aircraft. All are correct. None is correct. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 3000 kg. B. D. Before starting rebuilding of an aircraft the constructor must insure that A. to the cockpit by permanent means. B. B. Both a and c are correct. parts are imported. which has sufficient data regarding maintenance and prformance standards. to the wing. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during maintenance of aircraft. Registration number assigned to a rebuilt aircraft A. B. B. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during manufacture of aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the manufacture of aircraft. B. rebuilding of aircraft wreckage. which were earlier type certificated. C. 334. None is correct. Rebuilding means A. D. assembling an aircraft from parts approved by AME to an acceptable airworthiness standards and then fitted to an aircraft to be type certificated. C. will be the same registraqtion number which was given to aircraft of which airframe was a part. All are correct. all pressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards and fitted in an aircraft to be type certificated. 329. CAR series F part VI deals with A. D. The constructor number in case of rebuilt aircraft will be affixed A. will be the same registration number which was given to aircraft of which fuselage was a part. in case of new fuselage or imported fuselage new registration mark will be allotted. all aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. which were flying with C of A. D. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards and then fitted to type certificated aircraft.

to carry special persons (VIPs). B. DGCA may permit special flight for an aircraft when the C of A is suspended vide A. D. None of the above. B. the purpose of flight. Aircraft parts are completely stripped/inspected /overhauled prior to assembling of aircraft during rebuilding if the parts had been in storage for more than A. D. Both a and b are correct. 342. 340. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5. All are correct. B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3. 335. eight years. the crew required to operate the equipment. D. C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4. D. D. 338. Both a and b are correct. to ferry-fly an aircraft.D. C. for production flight testing new production aircraft. 339. B. C. C of A renewal procedure. A special flight permit is a permission A. The operator who wishes to avail a special flight permit must submit an application to RAO indicating A. by DGCA. D. five years. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5. D. C. to ferry fly to a base without passengers on board where repairs. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3. spcial flight permit. C. suspension of C of A. category 'C'. A special flight authorisation is a permission accorded A. category 'A'. 343. category 'B". Aircraft with suspended C of A due to defect or damage shall not undertake any flight without specific permission of DGCA vide A. 337. two years. C. D. The RAO may authorise a special ferry flight subject to A. Series F part VII contains A. category 'D'. C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2. B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4. B. 336. B. All are correct. to authorise flight for special purposes. B. 341. the crew required to operate the aircraft. modifications and maintenance required to remove the suspension of the C of A can be performed. C. inspection or tests by the operation for determining the safety of aircraft for the intended flight and certified to that effect by appropriately licensed AME. . AME under-taking the rebuilding of aircraft must be endorsed in A. ten years.

Both b and c are correct. 348. 344. General requirements regarding maintenance and certification of Aircraft is dealt in A. If aircraft log book is not readily available because of aircraft being away from the base then A. B. D. C. duplicate. None of the above. can't maintain & fly their aircraft. one copy of log book entry should be kept in the JLB. C. D. FRC will become invalid A. CAR series F part VIII. post lighting strike. D. All are correct. D. quadruplicate. D. for one week. upto arrival at destination or date whichever is applicable. B. have to request DGCA for certification. All are correct. D. Important schedules like heavy landing. C. to RAO any abnormality encountered during flight. B. if unapproved manoeuvers are taken. post propeller strike etc. CAR series F part VII. CAR series F part VI. B. 347. D. None. On completion of special flight the operator with render A. 346. B. one copy of log book entry should be sent to the RAO. B. 345. C. C. aone copy of log book entry should be sent to DGCA. D. . 349. 24 hours. 351. limitation that the operating weight on any ferry flight must be the minimum necessary. C. 352. 48 hours of completion. to DGCA any abnormality encountered during flight. six hours of completion. upto arrival at destination airport. C. C. B. Special flight authorisation issued by regional/sub-regional airworthiness office is valid A. C of A of their a/c will be cancelled. triplicate. D. 12 hours of aircraft operator operation. to DGCA action taken at base to render aircraft airworthy. B. should be submitted to the RAO for approval in A. if aircraft suffers major damage. manufacture for which the aircraft is limited. 350. can get maintenance and certification performed by organisation approved for the purpose. All works on a/c must be recorded in the relevant log books within A. if unapproved parts are used. Operator who do not have their own facility for maintenance and certification of aircraft A. an hour of completion. CAR series F part V. 24 hours of completion. C.B. All are correct. Validity of FRC of schedule operator including corporation is A. B.

360. B. 354. D. D. 90 days elapsed time. None is correct. 10 hrs/7 days. D. aircraft is A. persons authorised in four category. 355. is valid for every 24 hours (one day). B. 90 days elapsed time. persons authorised in two category. 90 days elapsed time. D. 50 hrs/30 days. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier. 30 days elapsed time. B. All are correct. 50 hrs/30 days. 180 days elapsed time. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier. 60 days elapsed time. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier. 358. persons authorised in three category. persons authorised in five category. D. 50 hrs/60 days. B. C. 60 days elapsed time. D. C. Validity of FRC of Radio communication equipment of private aircraft is A. C. 90 days elapsed time. None is correct. 180 days elapsed time. 356. B. 359. Validity of FRC of State Govt. 60 days elapsed time. C. decided by the RAO is consultation with the operator. C. C. B. FRC of private aircraft is valid for A. 357. Both a and b are correct. FRC for aircraft of AUW of 15000 kg and above is signed by A. 25 hrs/15 days. is valid for 12 hours of aircraft operation when aircraft is away from main base. 30 days elapsed time. . 60 days elapsed time. 353. C. 361. is valid for 4 days elapsed time when aircraft is away from main base. 30 days elapsed time. as stated in approved maintenance system manual. D. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier. None is correct. as stated in approved QC manual. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment of training aircraft is A. FRC of aerial work aircraft is A.C. D. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment of private aircraft is A. D. Validity of FRc of Radio communication equipment of training aircraft is A. 30 days elapsed time. B. B. C. D. C. Validity of FRC of flying training aircraft A. B.

In case of private aircraft the schedule of inspection lower than 50 hrs may be carried out by A. one year from the date of issue. 370. 369. 368. accidental damage. C. triplicate. Distribution of FRC is done as follows: A. To ensure structural integrity of aging aircraft manufacturers have issued A. B. None is correct. SSIP & CPCP. D. D. C. Aging aircraft requires more frequent inspection of structural components for damage due to A. the pilot having at least ALTP. D. replacement of "lifed" components. D. quadruplicate. All are correct. fatigue prevention document. B. B. C. . replacement of "life limited" item. C. licence on that particular type of aircraft. All are correct. the pilot holding C. D. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment must be obtained from approved sources. C. Schedule maintenance includes the following work A. C. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment on such aircraft shall periodically be inspected/overhauled and certified. All are correct. Rule 53 of aircraft rule specifies that A. C. fatigue. B. All are correct. D. CPCP. None is correct. heavy landing schedule. C. Not required to be preserved. B. B. D.P. 363. one copy is kept in aircraft. 366. Flight release certificate is signed in A. one month from the date of issue. special inspections such as x-rays. SSIP. D. Both b and c are correct. lighting sticks schedule. duplicate. D. one copy is with organisation record. 365. Unschedule maintenance includes the following work A.362. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment must possess a valid release note. environmental deterioration. C. FRC is preserved for A. the pilot having vast experience. B. 367. 364. one copy to RAO. B. six months from the date of issue. B. heavy landing schedule.

At present SSID have been issued for A. 3% or 3 months (whichever is less). Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's of components upto a maximum of A. C. completed their designed economic life. B. All are correct. . five or more cracks on one site which link up in to longer crack. B 737. five or more dents on one site. Both b and c are correct. All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of A. 30 years. completed their life. C. B 747. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). environmental damage. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's of components upto a maximum of A. 375. B. 372. 10% or 3 months (whichever is less). fatigue crack at number of fasteners which stand to link up into longer crakcs. B. corrosion damage. B. of over 100 hrs. B. C. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). None is correct. FA 152. HS 748. C 90A. B. 376. All are correct. of 100 hrs and above. two years. D. B. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). fatigue damage. completed their designed service life.371. B 200C. D. PA 12. of over 300 hrs. Multiple site damage are A. Damage due to environment in form of corrosion and stress corrosion is A. C. 374. C. B 55. D. D. C. 378. B. C 90a. 373. completed their service life. D. 379. Aging aircraft are those aircraft which have A. C. J 3C. C. ten years. D. 20 years. one year. The owner/operator shall inform to RAO/sub-RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance about the commencement of all the inspection schedules A. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). C. D. accidental damage. B. five years. Design economic life of Airbus is A. 10 years. 377. B 737. A 35. D.

51.000 hrs. B. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by A. 50 years.000 hrs.000 flight cydes. C. Design economic life of B 747 is A. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 6 months experience of the type of aircraft involved. C. C. D. Design economic life of B707 is A. 388. 60. 50 years. 20 years.000 hrs.000 flight cydes. 30 years.000 hrs. by any CPL holder.000 flight cydes. 381. Design economic life of Douglas. before the first flight of all aircraft after assembly and rigging. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 3 months maintenance experience on the type of aircraft involved. engine controls. 51. Both a and c are correct. before C of A flight. 60. 51. 40 years. by a person specially authorised by the DGCA. C. B. 75. 25 years. F27 & HS-748 are A.000 flight cydes. 60. B. 25 years. 50 years.D. D. C. 387. a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the type of aircraft. 25 years. D.000 hrs. by a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the aircraft. D. a flight engineer. 20 years. 60. C. 25 years. 384. 60. 60.000 flight cydes. 25 years. B. . B. D. 75. D. 382.000 flight cydes. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is away from the base in carried out by A. C. after rigging. The control system of which duplicate inspections are carried out are A. 380. 75. B. 20. 383. D. persons approved for the purpose in an approved organisation.000 hrs. 60.000 flight cydes.000 hrs. 60. 20 years. engine and associated controls. Design economic life of B 737 is A. 60.000 flight cydes. Duplicate inspection of all control system shall be made A. before the first flight after C of A.000 flight cydes. 60. 20. B. 20 years.000 hrs. 75. C.000 hrs. 50 years. Both a and b are correct. 20 years. 75. 385. 75.000 flight cydes. flying controls.000 hrs. 50 years. 60. 386.000 hrs. B. B.000 hrs. D. 20. RAO can authorise a person to carry out duplicate inspection of aircraft if A.000 flight cydes. engine controls & flying controls. 51. flying.000 flight cydes.

None is correct. will not be renewed in any case. All are correct. ADF. D. Certificate of compliance is a certification to the effect that all the works on A. B. B. C. ten years. 396. loop test has been satisfactorily carried out. development of fungus. 394. All are correct. CAR series F part XIV. CAR series I part II. The C of A of gliders is renewed only during test flight A. D. one year. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and one year maintenance experience on the type of aircraft involved. the glider component have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA. D. C. CAR series I part I. chemical action of glue due to aging. B. variomate. 393. RPM indicator. D. 397. 390. CAR series F part XIII. timber shrinkage. B. D. Factors causing wood deterioration are A. the aircraft component have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA. B. two years. The constructions of gliders shall be maintained and overhauled in accordance with the procedure in A. All gliders shall be equipped with A. will not be renewed. 395. Both a and b are correct. D. Aircraft of composite contruction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of certificate of airworthiness and thereafter in periods not exceeding A. spin test has been satisfactorily carried out. B. . C. VOR. Series 'F' part XII deals with A. C. the aircraft have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA. C. Both a and b are correct. mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage. All are correct. B. 389. 391. glue deterioration. 392. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are especially prove to A. stall test has been satisfactorily carried out. duplicate inspection of engine controls. D. C. C. duplicate inspection of flying controls. If 'loop test' is not carried out during test flight of a glider then its C of A A.C. C. B. five years. inspection of wooden aircraft. Both b and c are correct. D. B. D.

six months. capacity of the firm to undertake the job. suitable QCM & Dy. not required to be preserved. D. ground equipment. D. for one year after the date of accident. equipment available and technical literating. D. for ten years after the date of accident. B. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders should be preserved for A. 399. D. C. CA 23A. B. one day. 403. three months. will not be renewed temporarily. None is correct. before issue of C of A. B. CA 56. C. 402. Components and spare parts used on gliders A. should be covered by a rejection note. B. for which high prices are quoted. . When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A. common to automobile industry. 401. C. QCM. should be covered by a certificate of maintenance. for five years after the date of accident. Rejection note is a document issued byan approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of rejection of aircraft good/parts A. B. Only one of the following need not have the approval of maintenance organisation A. for two years after the date of accident. every three years. B. C. private owner of aircraft. C. 404. 400. None is correct. three months. D. C. C. D. 405. 406. CA 23. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders is valid for A. CA 57. 398. B. six months. D. will be renewed provided the glider is suitably placarded that 'loop manoeuvres are prohibited. the C of A is issued on form A. should be covered by a release note. D. Procedures/work sheets pertaining to gliders which meet with accidents and damages beyond economical repairs shall be preserved A. D. one month. Gliders should be weighed A. all the above.C. C. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on A. on a routine basis. one month. B. which fail to meet applicable requirement.

413. 412. D. carriage of mails. C. An aircraft above 2000 kg is required to be weighed A. Both b and c are correct.1 of the CAR do the second check on arrival of the aircraft at the base. B. B. QCM. C.B. an approved person as per approved schedule. B. 408. a normal DI followed by a higher schedule of inspection. every three years unless required to be weighed in accordance with para 4. every two years. An aircraft certified in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake A. aerial work. D. B. Controller of Director of Airworthiness of region. any 'B' and /or 'D' licensed engineer. or any AME or flight engineer. C. B. As per appendix 'A' of CAR series 'F' part IV and aircraft certified in normal category shall not be used for purpose mentioned either in A. D. special category or passenger sub-division. B. aircraft owned by State Govt. D. any schedule due and/or a 100 hrs inspection schedule. DGCA. C. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation. B. C. D. an AME. the answer (a) is correct subject to the condition that person authorised as per para 3. 411. only when it sustains damage requiring extensive repair. C. a pilot having AME licence also. racing aircraft sub-division or goods aircraft sub-division. D. C.3 of the CAR series 'X' part II. QCM of only Indian Airlines and Air India. a pilot as per approved schedule. every three years. 410. a major schedule next to 100 hrs inspection schedule. As per CAR series 'F' part IV the duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls of an aircraft away from base can be carried out by a pilot A. 409. 414. B. shceduled airlines. The certificate of flightr release of an aircraft below 15000 kg AUW remains valid provided the pre flight inspection is carried out by A. D. C. None of the above. special category or aerobatic category. non-schedule operator. C.3. D. For the purpose of C of A revalidation if the aircraft has been maintained in accordance with continuous cycle of maintenance the aircraft is subject to A. carriage of goods. The maintenance schedules of an organisation are approved by the A. provided his CPL/CHPL is endorsed on the type of aircraft. CAW of the region. The lives of the components of an aircraft are approved by A. 407. . 500 hrs inspection schedule. aerobatic category or aerial work sub-division.

B. aerial-work. as laid down by Australian Govt. B. CE of an organisation. as laid down in CAA. following instruments are required A. QCM of the operator permits. for agricultural aircraft. C. D. This aircraft is used for A. 417. pilot in command certifies it as safe.'s. whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing. 422. The C of A an imported aircraft can be revalidated by the DGCA A. B. if the aircraft meets the type certificate issued by the country of origin. None is correct. provided all mandatory modifications and major defects are not outstanding. C. C. D. DGCA permits on application. B CAR section 'K' & 'D'. need not be re-weighed on routine basis. approved inspection schedules are not completed when due. 418.sub-division private aircraft. D. D. 415. after completion of the minimum of 100 hours inspection schedule. All are correct. B. B. For powered gliders. D. B. C. as laid down in FAA FAR parts 23 & 25. experimental purposes. if it meets all requirements and standards laid down by the DGCA. D. An aircraft can be ferry-flown only when the A. One of the following conditions does result in automatic suspension if C of A A.O. Validity of flight release for radio equipment for flying club aircraft is A. B. every three years. free air temperature gauge is not required if cqarburettor heating gauge is there. D. 420. 90 days.B. aerobatic purposes. every overhaul. every C of A renewal. C. 421. C. C of A renewal of aircraft under continuous maintenance system can be effected A. C. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported in to India the minimum standard of manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be A. Weighing requirements in respect of aircraft less than 2000 kg AUW are A. B. Both a and b are correct. if the C of A for export is issued by the country of origin. Both a and c are correct. . 50 hrs/30 days. 423. Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft shows that it is valid for 'Normal category' . All are correct. C. free air temperature gauge. B.D. 30 days. whenever 'lifed' components are not remjoved as stipulated in T. oil temperature gauge. D. C. 419. while the aircraft is flying. whenever aircraft develops a defect that effects primary structure. carriage of executives of his factory without any remuneration. 416.

an appropriately licensed AME. expiry of C of A. authorised to carry more than 30 passengers. inspection. None of the above is correct. carriage of mails. An India registered aircraft having C of A as per IAR can fly as A. 425. 432. Both a and c are corret. For flight over water by public transport aircraft at a distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the shore the equipments required are A. B. An aircraft certificated in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake A. Both a and b are correct. Ground proxiity warning system as per CAR series I part II is mandatory for all turbine engine aeroplane registered in India after 1-7-79 which are A. C. 3 years/2000 hours. two days food. journey log book should be preserved for 2 years.D. 428. 1 year/2000 hours. D. D. D. B. 2 years. None of f the above is correct as it is applicable to all aircraft. 429. 2 years. B. D. C. Gyro instruments are overhauled at every A. D. aircraft log book should be preserved for 5 years. D. D. C. B. Life of automatic pilots (except gyro units) are A. pilot under training may be allowed. B. None is correct. C. aerial work aircraft can be operated as public transport aircraft. . None is correct. having seating capacity of 100 or more. life saving rafts in sufficient number. For purpose of C of A in case the final inspection is carried out after the expiry date of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A would start from the date of A. B. B. 426. carriage of goods. test flight. 431. None is correct. aerial work. B. 427. C. flight release should be preserved for six weeks. 430. For the purpose of snag rectification an aircraft can always be taxied from bay to the maintenance hangar by A. 100 hrs/90 days. freight aircraft can fly as passenger aircraft provided seats are installed. 424. C. C. Mark the correct statement A. an individual authorised by the QCM of the firm. C. passenger aircraft can fly as freight aircraft. None of the correct. 2 years/1000 hours. D. survival radio equipment operated on VHF.

60%. 433. D. altimeters are to be overhauled A. Instruments installed on aircraft has not been operated for a continuous period of six months A. instruments as required. Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall be fitted and equipped with A. 440. one year. 438. D. 2 years/1000 hours. radio apparatus as required.B. B. 439. below 5 degree centigrade. D. C. C. one year and at the end of six months bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations. C. 80%. C. 3 years/2000 hours. D. 441. Places storing instruments shall have humidity below A. bench-checked every 2 years. every alternate year. 434. All are correct. D. The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed A. D. 2 years. two years. one year. one year. B. one year. two years. two years and at the end of one year bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations. six years. B. Life of engine instruments are A. 2 years/3000 hours. . D. D. Temperature required for storing of instruments is A. bench-checked every 3 years. every 2 year. 75%. The aircraft shall be subject to test flight before use. 437. shall be subject to overhaul before use. 15 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. C. B. The shlelf life of instruments other than gyro instruments shall not exceed A. equipments as required. B. 435. C. C. All are correct. 5 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. every year. C. D. B. C. C. D. B. 15 degree centigrade. 70%. four years. 3 years/2000 hours. B. B. Free air temperature gauge has to be A. 436. shall be subject to bench check before use. overhauled every year. overhauled every 2 years. 2 years/1000 hours.

442. 449. All are correct. three years. . air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 250. two years. D. aircraft. B. 450. The requirement of ELT for training aircraft is/will be effected from A. B. 1-1-87 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew. B. All aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped with a seat/berth for each person over the age of A. five years. 446. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles. C. 445. D. B. C. All are correct. 3 g. Aeroplane on flight over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on board A. C. 447. C. 444. 31st December 1992. B CAR C 91a. 30th April 1992. 4 g. self-survival radio equpment operated on VHF shall be carried on board on long range over water flights by all A. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles away from the land. D. as aft as possible. B. water resistant. as far as possible. FAR Part 91. 443. 31st July 1992. ELT of aircraft flying over land should be activated due to impact of more than A. D. All aircraft shall be fitted with an ELT meeting requirements as laid down in A. non-schedule operators. 448. C. 1-10-76 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 300. water cooled engine having rated BHP above 250. C. B. 5 g. in the centre of the aircraft. C. None of the above. B. The ELT must be installed on the aircraft A. D. private aircraft only. Two sets of portable. All aircraft issued with a C of A for the first time after A. FAA TSO C 91a. 8 g. 31st December 1993. C. C. 1-9-76 shall have safety hareness for aircraft crew. 1-12-86 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew. public transport aircraft only. B. when the take off approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a possibility of ditching. CHT gauge is mandatory on each A. D. B. in the Radome section. D. D.

B. aircraft having AUW of 5700 kg and above.D. all aircraft above 15000 kg AUW. DME/VOR. FL 220. 453. 375 metres. All are correct. having AUW of 5700 kg and above. Black box contains A. C. DFDR. D. 457. CVR. having AUW of 3000 kg and above. red light on the right tip side and green light on left tip side and red light near the tail. 700 metres. C. B. C. C. D. CVR. 455. B. FL 240. red light on the left tip side and green light on the right tip side and white light near the tail. C. D. B. C. Electrical power failure indicator is mandatory for A. All turbine engined aeroplane of 5700 kg or more shall be provided with VOR and DME when flying at or above A. C. B. Unpressurised aeroplanes shall not be operated at altitude at which the atmosphere pressure in flight crew/passenger compartments will be less than A. FL 200. irrespective of weights. C. 452. 456. 15 parameter continously for 25 hours. 451. DFDR. All are correct. CVR. D. 7 parameter continously for 25 hours. FL 180. All are correct. Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have navigation light as A. VOR/ILS. FDR. D. CVR. An anti-collision light. 459. 10 persons. D. All jet aircraft imported in to the country for public transport shall be equpped with digital flight data recorder (DFDR) capable of recording minimum of A. B. Whenever a pressurised aeroplane flies at analtitude of 10000 to 13000 feet it shall carry sufficient stored breathing oxygen for A. Both a and c are correct. 458. all aircraft. ELT. B. having AUW of 15000 kg and above. all aircraft above 5700 kg AUW. red light on the left tip side and green light on right tip side and red light near the tail. D. 100 persons. intended to attract attention to the aircraft is mandatory for all aircraft A. VOR/ILS. 25 parameter continously for 25 hours. all crew members and passengers. For flight on which licensed navigator is required according to rules drift indicator is mandatory for machines with a seating capacity of more than A. 454. D. FDR/DFDR. ELT. 5 persons. B. 600 metres. 30 persons. 33 parameter continously for 25 hours. .

7600 metres. one passenger. floats when operated over water beyond auto rotative/gliding distance from land. C. 461. all crew members and 30% passengers. two passengers. 463. 465. first aid kit. D. 31st December 1993. C. CAR series I part III deals with A. The requirement of ELT operating on 406. when 50% of their useful life has expired. B.B. D. aircraft instruments. D. When an unpressurised aeroplane flies at an altitude in such an atmospheric pressure is less than 620 mb in its compartment it shall carry sufficiently stored breathing oxygen for A. 467. maintenance of test equipment. B. 30th April 1992. . D. All are correct. All pressurised aeroplanes are equpped with a device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any dangerous loss of pressurisation when they fly at an altitude of A. D. B. C. Glider certificated for cloud flying shall be equipped with A. None is correct.0 MHZ is/will be mandatory from A. when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hours. artificial horizon. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on board. All are correct. 13000 metres. C. B. pilot and one passenger. Both a and c are correct. D. D. for all crew and passengers. All are correct. 464. D. 4000 metres. Batteries used in the ELT must be replaced A. aircraft equipment. for all crew and 10% passengers. RPM indicator for main rotor. All helicopters shall be equipped with A. 10000 metres. D. B. B. 466. C. C. 31st December 1992. for all crew and 30% passengers. C. Their numbers should be at least A. all crew members and 10% passengers. 1 of each rating. when 50% of their useful life of charge (for rechargeble batteries) has expired. turn and bank indicator. 460. pilot and co-pilot only. C. 462. 468. B. B. During a planned cloud flying glider can carry on board A. C. all crew members. RPM indicator for tail rotor. pilot and co-pilot.

B. a license issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1895 and amended from time to time. overhauled every two years. D. 475. B. D. 25 hours/15 days. All are wrong. Other conditions remaining unchanged during refuelling of the aircraft A. None is correct. smoking is not permitted within 30 metres from aircraft or fuelling equipment. a licence issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1885 and amended from time to time. For certification of ignition apparatus of light aircraft the AME should have his licence in . 474. Helicopter flying under IFR condition should carry the following amount of fuel A. During refueling of aircraft A. D. five degrees. 470. bench checked every year. All the above statements are correct. 469. D. also to go to another place if it cannot land at destination. The change in indication from the original heading shall not exceed A. one degree. 4 of each rating. two degrees. aircraft radio electrical and radar swtiches may remain 'on'. None is correct. amount to reach the destination. B. as in (b) additionally the helicopter to fly for 45 minutes at straight and normal flight with cruise speed. 473. B. D. helicopter is aeroplane. a little spilage if. D. balloon is an aircraft. C. C. 472. The pilot friction of compass shall be determined by deflecting the compass needle 10 degrees and allowing it to return to the magnetic Meridian. consent of DGCA. steady parking light and such switches may be operated. C. kite is a flying machine. Ammeters and voltmeters are A. C. three degrees. D. no special precaution is necessary for ground power supply. None of above. B. 100 hours/90 days. C. 471. D. as in (a). 476. C. passengers embarking/disembarking are not permitted under any condition. According to IAR check correct statement A. 477. C. B. B.B. can be washed into the drain. bench checked every two years. D. The radio equipment installed on India registered aircraft shall be operated with A. 3 of each rating. 2 of each rating. C. 200 hours/180 days. Transistorised or IC equipped radio comm has to be certified in case of non-scheduled aerial work aircraft A. 50 hours/30 days. B. the ground power unit tractor and siilar equipment shall be located outside the defined 'danger zone'. C.

C. Category 'B'. B. 70%. D. 484. Category 'X'. general papers. The pass percentage of specific paper is A. general paperss and specific papers. can't appear in the AME licence exam. C. can appear in the AME licence exam after getting his form forwarded by the QCM of the organisatioin he last worked. Paper I. 1st April 1992. The Indian Aircraft Rule 61 9revised) became effective from A. 1st April 1991. D. D. The written paper of AME licence examination comprised A. 485. paper II. III. 481. III. 80%. 480. D. D.A. 80%. 482. B. general papers. II. CA 9. 478. III. C. 1st Jan 1991. Application for appearing in the AME licence examination is submitted on from A. B. CA 9 (Appendix A). C. C. basic papers and specific papers. can't appear in the AME licence exam after obtaining permission from the RAO. B. III. B. II. . Category 'C'. D. Category 'A'. None of the above. 70% in quiz type and 60% in essay type. Paper III. CA 9 (annex I). Paper I. D. C. Paper II. III. multiple choice question of paper II. B. The pass percentage in AME licence examination is A. basic papers & specific papers. II. multiple chioce question of Paper I. 31st Jan 1991. C. B. D. D. B. Defence personnel appearing in AME licence exam are exempted from appearing in A. The basic paper consists of A. 483. Those applicants who are not engaged in any organisation but meet all the requirements for appearing in the AME licence exam A. 479. 80% in quiz type and 70% in essay type. C. paper I. C. 70%. may directly send their application to Director of Airworthiness (CEO) New Delhi. II. 60%. III. CA 9 (Revised). basic papers. B.

C. AUW is below 2000 kg. AUW is below 2000 kg. D. of one month duration for light aircraft. B. B. CAR series L Part I. has open rating in category 'D'. B. category 'E'. D. AUW is below 3000 kg. 489. C. CA 73 to the RAO of candidate's region. C. 490. CAR series L Part II. of one month duration for heavy aircraft. C. CA 73 to the QCM of the candidate's organisation. of two months' duration. B. B. CAR series L Part IV. D. main gear boxes intermediate gear boxes. D. AUW is below 15000 kg. A candidate applying for endorsement in category 'A' will be exempted from appearing in general paper III if he A. None is correct. category 'B'. The candidates who have passed all the written papers and are due to appear in oral-cum-practical test for issue or extension of AME licence will be intimated and CEO will issue for their oral form A. main gear boxes. D. all parts of airframe for assembly and condition. has vast experience. 488. C. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor. AME licence for helicopter in category 'A' & 'C' is issued in combined form whose A. 492. A combined specific paper for airframe and engine is undertaken for helicopter whose A. DGCA will recognize the approved course of a foreign country provided it has been approved by that country and is A. B. D. AUW is below 3000 kg. C. CA 73 to the candidate. AUW is below 5700 kg. proper functioning and rectification of minor defects of helicopter fall under purview of AME licensed in A. CAR series L Part III. CA 63 to the RAO of candidate's region. C. category 'X'. category 'A'. B. Endorsement of AME licence is contained in A. All are correct. of three months' duration for heavy aircraft. has endorsement in category 'C' and 'D'. C. AUW is below 5700 kg. D. engine mounts and cowls for condition & security of attachment. 493. D. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor. All are correct. B. A helicopter engineer in category 'A' can certify A. C. 491. Certification of electrical system for condition. 494. B.486. . An AME licensed in category 'C' on helicopter can certify A. 487.

electrical and radio systems of A. B. C. . C. and aircraft as are entered on his licence. An AME can exercise his privileges only A. B. 499. certification of replacement of approved components. powerplants. The privileges of AME licence shall be exercised only in respect of such operation A. D. D. B. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for A. B. group V. and airframes. Airbus A 320. group VII. aircraft systems including electrical instruments and radio systems and component as are entered on his licence. Both a and b are correct. C. when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less than six months.D. None is correct. D. D. D. 498. certification of minor repair. 501. has AME licence in category 'B' for the type of aircraft for which endorsement is required. certification of major repair. D. D. All are correct. certification of major modification. Avionics system includes instruments. Both a and b are correct. piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg AUW. group IV. group VI. Boeing 747. Turbojet/Turbofan engines in accordance with CAR series L part IV appendix 'B' are in A. group V. 500. According to appendix 'A' of CAR series 'L' part IV group V contains A. group VII. 495. 502. certification of major repair. C. certification of major modification. when within the preceding 12 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less than 3 months. pressurised twin turbine engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW. C. Airbus A 300. 497. C. In accordance with CAR series L Part IV all turbine engine helicopter not exceeding 3000 kg AUW comes under A. certification of replacement of approved components. group VI. when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less than 3 months. pressurised twin piston engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW. group IV. B. B. C. Boeing 737. C. B. B. when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less than 12 months. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for A. 496. D.

D. A person will be deemed to be engaged in aircraft maintenance if A. If an AME has certificated the work on appropraite procedure sheets and is on outstation duty then the log book entry on his behalf can be made by A. C. Grant of open AME licences is contained in A. 400 BHP. certificate of maintenance for airframe. certificate of maintenance for engine controls. cat A with a note valid for DR compass. B. cat 'X' for compass. B. Chief Engineer. 511. B. CAR series L part V. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg. any other AME. None is correct. The holder of category 'A' licence for light aircraft is entitled to issue A.503. certificate of maintenance for electrical systems. cat D with a note valid for DR compass. CAR series L PART VII. B. D. 508. 506. 505. oil & coolant system. 250 BHP. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg. B. C. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg. B. he is employed in production division of aircraft manufacturer. C. dismantling of main rotating assembles of a turbine engine. he has undergone an approved refresher course run by approved training schools. D. 500 BHP. 504. Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence in category 'A' & 'B' is given to cover A. 510. CAR series L part VI. C. dismantling of main casing of a turbine engine. 507. 'Open' rating in category 'D' is given for piston engines not exceeding A. 509. Quality Control Manager. D. D. other than piston/cylinder assemblies. Both b and c are correct. An AME licenced in category 'C' undertake A. B. Certification of DR compass will be done by person holding licence in A. CAR series L part IV. B. B. D. D. All are correct. certificate of maintenance for autopilots. C. D. 'Open' rating in cat 'R' and 'X' is given for aircrafts . C. certificate of maintenance for engine fuel. dismantling of piston engines. All are correct. C. 300 BHP. C. C. All are correct. 512. The holder of licence in category 'B' can issue A. certificate of maintenance for instruments. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg. D. All are correct. he is employed as an AME in an airline.

. For 'open rating endorsement' on all single engined aircraft of composite construction with an AUW not exceedign 3000 kg the applicant should have A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar. D. C. B. An organisation seeking approval for any electroplating will submit to DGCA A. have held an AME licence for 5 years continuously. 'open' rating in cat 'X' is not given. its skin covering is of one material. 518. three specimens of 6"x1" round bar. B. its skin covering is of two different materials. as in 'b' the weight of 3 aeroplanes should not exceed 3000 kg. An applicant desirous of having an open rating in category 'R" for aircraft below 5. C. all of the above. three specimens of 8"x2"x16swg. A firm seeking approval for hand chromium plating has to submt A. D. B. its skin covering is of two or more different materials.A. D. C. three specimens of 12"x1/2" round bar. B. Both a and b are correct. B. as in 'b' and licenced endorsed in cat A/B as applicable. 519. its skin covering (including flight control surface) is of two or more different materials.700 kg AUW must have A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar. C. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg. A composite construction of an aeroplane means A. 515. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar. B. 513. three specimens of 12"x1" round bar. All are correct. C. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg. have at least 5 types of aeroplanes endorsed on his licence. C. certificate of flight approval. C. B. For obtaining an open rating on single engine aircraft of all metal contruction with AUW below 3000 kg an AME should A. held an AME licence in cat A/B for five years continuously. An organisation seeking approval for cadmium plating will submit to DGCA A. D. alleast three types of aeroplanes of composite construction of which at least two should be single engined aircraft with AUW not exceeding 3000 kg. D. with AUW below 15000 kg. 517. None is correct. twelve specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg. held an AME 'R' licence for three years continuously. certificate of flight release. None of the above. D. D. with AUW below 5700 kg. with AUW below 3000 kg. C. B. 516. A certificate issued in respect of a complete aircraft by appropriately licensed AME/AME's approved or authorised persons certifying that the aircraft has been inspected as per approved schedule and is airworthy in all respects and is safe for flight for a period specified in the certificate. All are correct. held an AME 'R' licence for five years continuously. 514. B. 520. D. is called A.

a and b are correct. release note. to certify the quantity of the product. Both a and b are correct. None of them is correct. B. C. C. shall be prepared in triplicate. B. C. D. 525. catory 'F'. blending of aviation fuel. D. C. An organisation approved in category 'D' after completion of work issues a A. none of the above is correct. D. distribution of paints. catory 'D'. B. Refueling voucher shall be A. distribution of aviation fuel. 526. The number allotted to a petroleum product which is considered as one lot for sampling and listing is called A. D. B. serial number. Aviation fuel consigned for storage prior to loading into organisation fueling equipment shall be certified on A. A firm approved in category 'E' can carry out A. catory 'E'. identification number. certificate of maintenance. Certificate of manufacture contains A. B. C. 524. catory 'A'. firms approval number. to certify the quality of the product. to certify the contents of the product. None of the above. C. part number. 523. certificate of maintenance. D. None of them is correct. approved release note quoting batch no. 527. test report. D. B.C. The Indian Oil refueling station shall issue voucher to the customer with each consignment of aviation fuel A. signature of AME. certificate of manufacture. C. 521. B. D. rest flight report. C. D. serially numbered with the batch number specification details and quantity to be delivered. Both a and b are correct. D. 528. B. Both a and b are correct. . batch number. 522. An organisation undertaking calibration of instruments of master gauges and tools as applied to the activities of CAD is approved in A. test report number and specification.

in laminated form and is readily accessible to the flight crew in flight. 534. Any part. B. stand-by store. FAA. B. CAR Series B part I pertains to A. 533. D. D. 530. bonded store. aircraft system. bonded store. in safe place in aircraft. quarantine store. aircraft component. None of the above. Both (b) & (c) are correct. deficiency list (MEL). B. RAO. B. awaiting evidence of having been received from approved sources are stocked is called A. All the above. D. DGCA. C. quarantine store. C. airworthy store. Manufacturer. emergency check-list. D. B. C. Check-list is carried A. airworthiness store.529. deficiency list (MEL). C. 535. D. snag. need not be carried on board it forms a part of flight manual. current store. D. D. C. 532. emergency check-list. CAR Series B part II pertains to A. Stores where materials bearing evidence of having been received from approved sources are stocked called A. both (b) & (c) are correct. C. . Stores where airworthy and serviceable materials. cockpit & emergency check-lists. A condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft component arising out of any cause other than damage which would preclude it or another aircraft component from performing their intended function that would reduce the expected service life of the aircraft or aircraft component is termed as A. D. B. 531. B. the soundness and correct functioning of which when fitted on an aircraft is essential to the continues airworthiness or safety of the aircraft or its occupants is termed as A. Alteration to the Check-list may also by made by A. None of the above. C. C. aircraft item. DGCA. 537. 536. cockpit & emergency check-lists. manufacturer. RAO. Alteration to check-list on the basis of operator's own experience must be carried only after obtaining the concurrence of A. B.

replacement. Repetitive defect means A. overhaul. C. C. All are correct. P D R. a condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft component arising from any cause other than damage. in spite of rectification attempt on the same aircraft or on another aircraft of the same type. 539. in spite of rectification attempt on the same aircraft. testing. testing. D. C. repair. overhaul. adjustment. schedule operator. C. A defect of such a nature that reduces the safety of the aircraft or its occupants and includes defects discovered as a result of the occurrence of any emergency or in the course of normal operation or maintenance is called A. a defect in an aircraft which recurs. 543. inspection. within four months. All the above are correct. An aircraft operator who operates its fleet whole or part of it as per published schedule is known as a A. normal operator.B. modification action taken. private operator. B. defect. repetitive defect. within 24 hours. C. adjustment. continuous defect. 542. non-schedule operator. in writing. B. B. B. B. within one month. within 15 days. inspection. repair. treatment. repair. overhaul. adjustment. 541. no information. 540. testing. a defect in an aircraft which recurs. date and place of occurrence. inspection. a condition which would reduce the expectable service life of the aircraft or aircraft component. C. 538. D. D. a defect in an aircraft which recurs in spite of rectification. . D. C. minor defect. 545. adjustment. minor defect. D. major defect. Maintenance means any type of A. repair. 544. D. defect. testing. within 7 days. in writing or on telephone followed by written information. B. a condition which preclude it or another aircraft component from performing their intended function. D. treatment. defect report as made by the pilot/AME. reconditioning or modification. C. Defect means A. B. replacement or modification. nature of defect. C. aircraft type & registration. B. Both a & b are correct. All major detects shall be reported to concerned RAO (AID) A. D. Initial information format of major defect contains A. All particulars of the initial information format of defect report shall be submitted by the operator to the RAO A. D.

none of the above. 549. D. defect. 550. C. one week from the date of intimation of defect. within two months. in duplicate to RAO. C. three weeks from the date of intimation of defect. Failure of a component or a system that results in taking emergency action in flight is a A. 15 minutes or more. B. 547. Apparent on actual cause of defect. B. Duration of defect. fuel starvation in flight. two weeks from the date of intimation of defect. Which one of the following is known as major defect A. D. D. Investigation of major defect shall be completed A. Aircraft type & registration. D. within one month. 30 inutes or more. significant contamination of fuel. 24 hours. B. Any mechanical delay has to be reported to the RAO within A. six weeks. Which of the following forms a part of final investigation report? A. ten years. 15 minutes or more to schedule services. repetitive defect. Records associated with the defect shall be preserved for a period of A. in duplicate to DGCA. C. in triplicate to RAO. 551. C. C. Both a & b are correct. B. D. B. 24 hours of receipt of information by the main base station. Component associated with major defect shall be preserved for a period of A. within six months. 553. need not be preserved. major defect. The final defect investigation report has to be sent A. 552. C. C. two weeks. 554. B. 548. within four months. B. D. B. C. D.546. 7 days. one year. Action taken by the operator against manufacturer. Mechanical delay is any delay of A. None of the above. D. in triplicate to DGCA. minor defet. C. 30 minutes or more to schedule services. B. D. .

Defects observed at a place away from the normal base are recorded in A. C.555. None of the above. at least once in each sector of flight. B. B. In-flight instruments reading should be recorded A. 563. at least once in each sector of flight under stabilized cruise condition. defect register. series C part I. Recording of in-flight instrument readings and reporting of flight defect is contained in CAR A. AME will not release the aircraft for next day flight. D. 562. C. C. C. D. (col XI). C. D. D. QCM. Chief Engineer.V. Flight crew. C. analytical study of in-flight instrument readings. D. Series C Part-IV refers to A. both b & c are correct. readings is the responsibility of A. snag. may even require replacement of the deteriorated engine. section III. Recording of all parameters readings. D. B. D. B. D. D. is to avoid recurrence of defects. Both a & b are correct. B. C. If there is no defect reported by the crew in a previous day's flight A. B. series A part II. airframe log book. 559. JLB. as in (a) and to find the cause of defects. 561. C. B. 557. All the above.M. RAO may require accomplishment of such curative measures as considered necessary. series C part II. as indicated by the respective instruments under appropriate columns of the approved flight report including the A. The main purpose of investigation of defects A. 556. B. B. JLB. major defect. minor defect. If deterioration is observed in aircraft's performance in respect of engine A. AME will release the aircraft if a 'NIL' entry has been made in the PDR by the pilot duly signed. in the event of emergency condition of flight. AME will consult the QCM and release the aircraft for next day's flight. Defect leading to critical malfunctioning of any system or depriving the pilot some of the critical aspect of its controls is A. recording of in-flight instrument readings. C. . repetitive defect. AME will release the aircraft for next day's flight. 558. 560. series D part II. RAO may requrie the carrying out of test flight to determine the increase in drag. to find the person who has caused the defects. reporting of defects observed on all aircraft. AME.

FDR contains A. 571. B. 570. airspeed. airspeed. magnetic heading against time scale. D. D. altitude. After the completion of 1st flight the pilot has not observed any defect… A. B. C. B. serial no. operator of aircraft. recorded in engine log look after 25 hours. in writing when full information is available. airworthiness authorities. None of the above. C. B. submit the form to DGCA headquarter for inspection and approval. Approved release note contains A. a period stated in the quality control manual. D. altitude and airspeed against time scale. Air & Fuel consumption in cause of light aircraft should be A. DGCA action does not stop an operator from taking penal action against its staff. 566. D. in writing within 12 hours. B. 569. magnetic heading. fill CA-182 form. and date. telephonically only. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry been signed and dated by crew. . vertical acceleration against a time scale. altitude. B. DGCA approval no. Both b & c are correct. the AME can write 'NIL' on behalf of pilot. recorded after post overhaul of the engine. C. D. For making changes in maintenance control by reliability programme you need the due approval of A. If it is determined that defect was caused by the careless and casual attitude or negligence of technical staff A. the 'NIL' report need not be signed.564. vertical acceleration. C. after awaiting investigation report. D. 568. airspeed & magnetic heading. the remaining detailed information must be furnished within A. operator will take departmental penal action as per the rules against the staff. of engine if component is for engine. in writing (or telephone followed by a letter) within 24 hours (working hours of AID). C. signature of the chief engineer of the firm. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engg. To get an organisation approved under approval system the organisation has to A. All major defects shall be reported to RAO A. 4 months. as in (a) followed by a defect investigation report within 4 months of the occurrence of the defect. of aircraft if component is for airframe. altitude. recorded in engine and aircraft log books. 565. time. series no. C./QCM.E. C. B. D. D. fill one form and offer for inspection to RAO. Maintenance. C. All of the above are correct. C. B.M. After initial reporting of major defects to the regional airworthiness office. B. DGCA will take action as per the aircraft Act and aircraft rules against the staff. owner of aircraft. 7 days in an approved defect report form. 572. C. 567. D.

3000 kgs. by a firm is approved in A. petroleum contained in receptable but less than 900 litres in capacity. D. C.573. ground eqiupment. testing laboratories. aircraft component and item of equipment. C. 577. no aircraft is permitted to have the watch repaired from commercial watch maker. C. D. category 'A'. B. CA 23. category 'F'. B. 581. 15000 Kgs. Rejection note is a document issued by an approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of rejection of aircraft goods/parts A. B. C. B. When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A is issued on form A. B. the NIL report need not be signed. Amendment of quality control-cum-maintenance system manual in accordance with latest issues of CAR are the responsibility of A. C. 579. C. D. 578. D. D. C. 580. D. After completion of test flight pilot has not observed any defect A. petroleum contained in receptacle exceeding 900 litres. B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engineering maintenance. owner of the aircraft. C. As per CAR series E part I storing & distribution of previously certified aircraft/part. petroleum contained in any receptacle of 900 litres. Petroleum in bulk means A. 574. 576. training school. airworthiness authorities. CEM/QCM. by appropriately licensed AME. Any commercial watchmaker/watch repairing agencies are permitted to overhaul/repair the clock/watches installed on aircraft having AUW below A. Entry in log book can be signed A. fuel oil and lubricants storage & distribution. which fails to meet applicable requirement. D. operator of the aircraft. B. by key persons of organisation. manufacture of aircraft. B. category 'C'. B. common to automobile industry. CA 23A. by an AME having vast experience. 575. D. the AME can write NIL on behalf of pilot. Approval under category 'E' according to CAR series E refers to A. . category 'D'. by a technician. 2000 kgs. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry has been signed and dated by crew. None is correct. for which high prices quoted.

not less than 200 hrs in a year (4 months). DGCA is must. quality control manual. An AME school shall submit to the DGCA for approval of A. all of the above. 588. it belongs to an aircraft issued with C of A by the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer. C. D. D. C. C. the damage tolerance retaining. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of any duration. B. Both A and b and correct. D. B.C. it meets DGCA's standard. D. D. it is approved by CAA/FAA only. B. D. Examination papers of an approved training school shall be preserved for a period of A. not less than 100 hrs in a year (2 months). C. B. D.D identifies fatigue proof areas to specify A. Both b and c are correct. Controller/director of that region is must. Instructors who are employed full time on instructional duties relating to specific types of aircraft/engine/equipment shall have job experience of A. B.S. frequency of SSI. twelve months from the date of examination. appication of specific NDT. D. CA 56. C. B. C. not less than 500 hrs in a year (6 months). three months from the date of examination. any person having appropriate BAMEC with requisite experience in specific training and QCM approval. a school organisation manual. nine months from the date of examination. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses. B. C. Both a and b are correct. not less than 1000 hrs in a year (1 year). The DGCA can validate the type certificate of an imported component provided A. 589. any authorised person with appropriate BAMEC and 3 years experience in the specific shop. Whenever an approved school introduces a new course or modifies the existing course DGCA should be informed at least . 582. Certification of maintenance release of aircraft component after major maintenance for aircraft AUW of 15000 kg and above can be done by A. Both a and b are correct. For any change in course material prior permission of A.I. six months from the date of examination. 587. S. the key person of the concerned shop. C. 586. D. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of more than two months duration. 584. Any one of above as the circumstances demand. 590. a training manual. CA 57. B. The chief instructor or his deputy shall keep the records of A. RAO is must. 585. 583.

not required to be informed. is for establishing the legal ownership of an aircraft. one month in advance. procedures relating to registration of microlight aircraft. One category only. D. Registration of the aircraft by the DGCA A. D. 593. C. D. B. it bears name & address of the owner. Four cateries. B. 33. B. The nationality and registration mark should be affixed on the aircraft in accordance with aircraft rule A. B. D. procedures relating to registration of balloon. C. QCM/Dy QCm. Both b and c are correct. IAR 30 empowers the Govt. Quality control check of the products is carried out by A. All are correct. Both a and b are correct. CAR series 'F' part I refers to A. 1st copy of release note. . None is correct. to maintain an aircraft in India. C. 35. Both a and b are correct. by a company or corporation registered. to register an aircraft in India. 1st copy of rejection note. 30. 37. procedures relating to registration of aircraft. D. 594. 597. of India A. two months in advance.A. is for the purpose of controlling the safety of aviation in India. B. two weeks in advance. B. C. B. 598. 596. it has been registered. B. Aircraft registered in category 'B' is A. CEM. Regional airworthiness office receive the A. 599. to import an aircraft in India. C. D. C. 595. D. 591. Two categories. representative of DGCA. 3rd copy of rejection note. to fly aircraft in India. D. B. it bears nationality & registration. An aircraft in India is registered in A. D. 592. Rule 5 of the aircraft rules requires than no person shall fly any aircraft unless A. owned by a citizen of India. Three categories. C. C. C. All are correct. B.

CA 23A. two years. DGCA. B. C. An aircraft registered in category 'B' is owned by A. a person resident/residing in or carrying on business in India without citizenship. rule 28. None of the above. D. Temporary certificate of registration is valid A. D. 604. D. C. B. All of the above.C. . one year. until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in India. the prescribed fees. D. 606. B. 605. mutilated C of A. rule 28 (appendix A). 602. DAI. D. D. Application for registration of aircraft is given in A. by a company whose chairman and at least two thirds of directors are citizens of India. B. B. C. C. CA 23. 603. D. None of them is correct. six months. C. For issue of a duplicate certificate of registration the owner has to apply to A. CA 28 (appendix A). B. a foreign national. the previous certificate of registration duly endorsed on the reverse by the old owner. 607. for issuance of a duplicate C or R the owner has apply along with A. C. When C of R of Indian registered aircraft is lost. D. Certificate of registration is valid for A. a person residing/resident in or carrying on business in India without citizenship. RAO. When a person buys an old aircraft already registered in India then the certificate of registration must be accompanied by A. an affidavit duly authenticated by notary public/oath commissioner from the owner confirming his ownership. an affidavit indicating that he has sold the aircraft to the new owner and has received the sale proceeds in the full. When an aircraft is solid to another person or company or ceases to be owned by the owner indicated on its certificate of registration its registration is deemed to have been cancelled in accordance with A. CA 28. All are correct. C. B. rule 30. citizen of India. B. original C of A. for one month. photostat copy of C or R. D. 601. 600. rule 33. for one week. until the validity of the C of A. C.

608. A register of all civil aircraft registered in India is maintained at A. Ministry of Civil Aviation. B. DGCA. C. HAL. D. All of them are correct. 609. The nationality mark of all Indian registered aircraft are A. E.I. B. I.O. C. A.V.U. D. V.T. 610. The size and method of affixing the registration marking is given in A. CAR series F part II. B. CAR series F part III. C. car SERIES X part I. D. None of the above. 611. Procedure for issue/revalidation of type certificate of aircraft and its Engines/propeller is contained in A. CAR series E part II. B. CAR series E part III. C. CAR series F part II. D. CAR series F part III. 612. Aircraft rule 49 empowers A. the DGCA to revalidate C of A. B. the DGCA to issue C of A. C. the DGCA to issue type certificate for aircraft. D. All are correct. 613. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of aircraft rules A. 49A. B. 49B. C. 49C. D. 49. 614. Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate for aircraft is to be submitted in the form as in A. IAR 49. B. IAR 49 c Annexure II. C. CAR series F part II annexure U. D. CAR series F part II Annexure II. 615. Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor craft is submitted in the form as per the A. CAR series F part I annexure I. B. CAR series F part I annexure II. C. CAR series F part II annexure II. D. CAR series F part II annexure I. 616. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA confirms that the aircraft meets with the requirements of A. FAR 23 & 25. B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25. C. FAR 27 & 29. D. Both a and b are correct.

617. Type certificate of a rotor craft imported in India can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and construction confirms with the A. FAR 23 & 25. B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25. C. FAR 27 & 29. D. BCAR 27 & 29. 618. An aero engine manufactured outside India can be type certificated by the DGCA if it confirms to A. FAR 33. B. JAR 33. C. FAR 30. D. Both a and c are correct. 619. DGCA revalidates the type certificate in respect of engine/propeller under the purview of A. Aircraft rule 49. B. Aircraft rule 49A. C. Aircraft rule 49B. D. Aircraft rule 49C. 620. For revalidation of type certificate of the aircraft imported to India which of the following document is not required A. type-certificate. B. type-design datasheet. C. the basis on ETOPS certification if applicable. D. Quality Control & Maintenance system manual. 621. Before revalidation of type certificate DGCA may visit the country of manufacturer A. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the representative of the manufacturer. B. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer. C. Both a and b are correct. D. Both a and b are not correct. 622. DGCA has to revalidate the type certificate of imported aircraft A. just as it is. B. it can modify it. C. it can impose special condition for safe operation of aircraft in India. D. it cannot modify it. 623. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to DGCA A. test flight report of the aircraft. B. test flight schedule of scrutiny and approval. C. test schedule of scrutiny and approval. D. None of the above is correct. 624. The certification of aircraft/aircraft component manufactured in India shall be done by approved authorised person as per A. aircraft rule 53. B. aircraft rule 53A. C. aircraft rule 53B. D. aircraft rule 53C. 625. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of the aircraft shall be preserved for a period of A. 1 year. B. 2 years.

C. 5 years. D. 10 years. 626. The test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out as in accordance with A. form CA 57. B. form CA 56. C. approved manufacturer test flight schedule. D. test flight schedule approved by the DGCA. 627. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft/aircraft component A. approval of DGCA is must. B. written approval of manufacturer is must. C. approval of QCM/CEM is must. D. All are correct. 628. A major modification is one A. which has no appreciable effect on the weight and balance. B. which has no appreciable effect on the structural strength. C. which has appreciable effect on the reliability and operational characteristic affecting the airworthiness of the aircraft/aircraft component. D. None of them is correct. 629. A minor modification is one A. which has appreciable effect on the weight and balance. B. which has appreciable effect on the structural strength. C. which has appreciable effect on the flight characteristic of aircraft/aircraft component. D. None of them is correct. 630. Designs submitted for type approval shall bear A. description title & drawing number. B. description title and date of issue. C. description title, issue number and date of issue. D. Both a and c are correct. 631. A person holding open rating endorsement on his AME licence can exercise his privileges A. straight way on a new aircraft. B. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of six months. C. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of three months. D. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of one month. 632. For renewal of AME licence the applicant has to apply on form A. CA 29. B. CA 29 (revised). C. CA 68 B. D. CA 68 A. 633. AME's licence will be renewed only if in the preceding 24 months he has been engaged in aeronautical engineering duties for a period of A. 24 months. B. 18 months. C. 12 months. D. 6 months. 634. Which of the following AME's will be considered to be employed in AME activity and will be considered for renewal of their licences A. refuelling operation of approved aircraft fuel vendors.

by the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working in consultation with the DGCA hqrs. CAR series L part VI. D. BAMEC is issued under the provision of A. When an AME licence has remained lapsed for a period of more than one year but less than two years. None is correct. five categories. B. as a member of flying crew. 639. C. D. by any authority acceptable to ICAO. it will be renewed from the date of receipt. CAR series L part VII. C. An AME to keep his licence valid will have to submit a medical certificate A. his licence can be renewed after A. 15 days before expiring. B. None is correct. IV of AME licence exam. All are correct. D. 637. every 12 months. 7 days before expiring. it depends on the age of AME. C. C. every 6 months. Paper I. Paper I. C. C. C. CAR series L part VIII. D. by the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working. B. D. D. 638. B. every 24 months. 642. . a warning to the AME. an oral check by the RAO. The licence of Indian AME's working aboard will be renewed A. 636. paper IV. 640. B. B. 641. 17 years. II of AME licence exam. by the DGCA Hqrs. All are correct. four categories.B. II. III of AME licence exam. Paper I. III. BAMEC is issued when a candidate passes A. B. BAMEC is issued in A. The candidate for issuance of BAMEC must be of A. 643. II. C. seven categories. 30 days before expiring. it will be renewed from the date of last validity. 635. D. D. AME's shall submit their licence for renewal at least A. six categories. D. If an AME submits his licence between 15 days to 30 days after expiry A. CAR series L part V. it will be renewed with a warning to AME. AME has appeared in the specific paper I.e. approved organisation stocking aircraft components. C. B. All of the above.

being considered blameworthy in any investigation of accident by the DGCA during the preceding 6 months. C. having at least 3 months practical experience on similar type of aircraft /engine /equipment etc. For grant of approvl a candidate must be A. The validity of an authorisation may be extended to a maximum period of A. one copy to RAO and one coyp to DGCA. pass a familiatisation course on the aircraft with at least 70% marks in the examination. D. B. D. B. 18 years. 17 years. B. 644. B. only single copy.B. 652. All are correct. 651. at least a matriculate. B. one copy to person. Approval is valid for A. For grant of approval to certify overhaul the candidate should be of A. one copy to person and one copy to RAO. 21 years. D. Chief Engineer. holder of current AME licence in relevant category. triplicate. C. D. D. Approval is granted in A. three months. B. Authorisation will not be issued to a person A. C. DGCA. 20 years. B. being considered blameworthy in any investigation of defect. An AME proposed for authorisation should be A. 20 years. 3 months. RAO/Sub-RAO. Holding BAMEC in relevant category. If authorisation is wanted for an aircraft having all AUW exceeding 5700 kg then the AME must A. All are correct. D. six months. 650. 20 years of age. employed with the organisation on a full-time basis. All are correct. Application for grant of Authorisation to an AME/approved person is forwarded to A. 646. 21 years. 648. QCM. C. 645. C. C. B. duplicate. C. C. 649. failing in the examination for issue of licence in which the subject of authorisation is covered. All are correct. . 647. C. twleve months. D. possess at least 6 months practical experience on similar type of aircraft. one month. All are correct. 18 years. D. possess licence in category B. D.

D. C. CAR series L part V. 25 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months. 656. Central Govt. 41A.E's licence for a minimum period of three years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE. CAR series L part VI. sub-rule to of IAR 1937. 12 months. Welder's approval is issued A. B. 50 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application. C. 654. C. Flight Engineer Examiner appointment is valid for A. 657. B. 50 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application. A person appointed as Check Flight Engineer must have held a A. D. None is correct. current F. as per CAR series L part VI. 100 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application. State Govt. A Flight Engineer Examiner's appointment may be renewed subject to the condition that he has A. D. C. D. material and jointwise.E's licence for a minimum period of two years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE. C. as per FAA requirements. B. Flight Engineer Examiner should have at least 500 hours flight experience of which not less than A. materialwise. 6 months. 10 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months. B. 655. 12 months. D. C. processwise. air transport operator. as per CAR series L part VI. 653. 100 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application. 24 months. B. two one test piece. D. three different test pieces. an approved organisation. C. sub-rule to of IAR 1937. as per DGCA requirements.E's licence for a minimum period of three years and at least 3000 hours flight experience as FE.B. two different test pieces. 20 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months. Organisation. A Check Flight Engineer should be sponsored by A. D. . D. Flight Engineer Examiners are appointed as per rule A. current F. 6 months. 658. C. apart from other requirements the candidate is required to submit A. material and processwise. 24 months. B. 50 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months. 659. Organisation. B. 660. Current F. 61A. B. C. three different test pieces. D. In order to seek approved welder's certificate. None is correct.

B. None is correct. C. B. B. 60% in each and 70% in aggregate. 70% in each and 80% in aggregate. 6 months of training. 70%.G degree in engineering. 667. GETS candidate fails in three oral-cum-practicual examinations. P. C. B. None is correct. D. all crew and passengers are to be provided with sufficient oxygen. D. three oral-cum-practical examinations. 12 months of training. Pass marks in GETS re-examination is A. Unpressurised aircraft operating at altitude between 620mb to 700 mb for more than thirty minutes of flight should be provided with A. two oral-cum-practical examinations. 60 days from the date of completion of the main course. Engineers undergoing training under GETS shall have A. 24 months of training. B. B. Indian Airlines & Air India. C. 666. C. D. he again undergoes a refresher course and will be again eligible for A. D. D. C. . D. 662. C. None is correct. D. Candidate under GETS will have to repeat main course if he A. only pilot and co-pilot are to be provided with oxygen. 80%. degree in engineering. 90 days from the date of completion of the main course. only one oral-cum-practical examination.661. Pawan Hans Ltd. 18 months of training. 80% in each and 90% in aggregate. B. fail in the tandem course. GETS at present is run by A. fails in any one phase with less than 60% marks in the main course. C. fails to secure 80% marks in aggregate in main course. Both a & b are correct. GETS is eligible to appear for paper I of AME/BAMEC examination after the completion of A. B. C. 665. 664. 90%. 30 days from the date of completion of the main course.G degree in electronics. All are correct. D. The passing marks in GETS is. B. All are correct. None is correct. C. P. adequate supply of oxygen for crew plus 10% pax. D. Re-examination in GETS can be held after 15 days break within A. 668. The passing marks in GETS is A. 663. 669. 45 days from the date of completion of the main course.

49D. D. 49A. C. of the lost licence. 675. B. B. 80% in each phase and 90% in aggregate. 678. C. The pass marks in refresher course of GETS is A. 673. he has to pay only half fees. the DGCA. he will get one more chance to appear in oral-cum-practical test. An AME will have to pay no fees for issuance of a duplicate AME licence if A. 679. 674. the licence is more than 25 years old. Mandatory modifications and inspections are promulgated by A. C. 49A. lays down the acceptable standards for modification/repair. B. Mandatory modifications/inspections are carried out in accordance with aircraft rule A. 51A. All are correct. the licence is more than 10 years old. which amends an approved document. Both b and c are correct. he has to pay no fees. 60% in each phase and 70% in aggregate. When an AME licence is lost by the holder (other than act of God) then for a duplicate licence A. B. 672. All are correct. B. 677. D. the manufacturer of the aircraft. 60% in each phase and 80% in aggregate. C. C. B. C. continued safe operation of the aircraft. D. 70% in each phase and 80% in aggregate. C. D. Mandatory modification/inspection is issued under the purview of aircraft rule A. 49B. Mandatory modifications/inspections prescribe the mandatory action required for A. 49D. he will have to take the main course again. B. to keep aircraft. C. requires modification/inspection to be carried out in aircraft. B. which requires a modification. Airworthiness directive means an instruction issued by an airworthiness authority A. . he will get two more chances to appear in oral-cum-practical test. the licence is more than 5 years old. 50D. aircraft components in an airworthy condition. D. All are correct. B. Aircraft rule 52 A. continued airworthiness of aircraft. All are correct. 676. 671. the licence is more than 20 years old. D.670. keeping the C of A valid. he has to submit FIR. 50A. D. provides for incorporation of modification in aircraft. D. C. If a GETS candidate fails in oral-cum-practical test again after taking the refresher course A. B. D.

non-schedule operator. approved organisation. maintenance system manual. manufacturer. the maintenance requirements as specified by the DGCA. whom DGCA thinks so. All are correct. C. All are correct. C. B. DGCA will declare only those service bulletins/instructions as mandatory in respect of those A. D. 688. CAA as mandatory. 683. DGCA as mandatory. private aircraft. All are correct. VFR operation. D. only mandatory modification is due on aircraft component. in respect of which AD's are issued. 687. B. 685. B. B. Aircraft rule 140 requires than all aircraft owners/operators shall comply with A. A multi-engined aircraft when loaded to the maximum gross weight shall be capable of maintaining level flight with one engine inoperative at an altitude of not less than A. D. C. 681. D. A consolidated list of all mandatory/modifications /inspections of aircraft engines and equipment are compiled and distributed by A. engineering organisation manual. 1000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute. . schedule. All are correct. RAO. non-schedule night operation. the safety requirements as specified by the DGCA. non-schedule VFR operation. D. D. B. C. DGCA. 686. any modification is due on aircraft. None of the above. C. B. the engineering requirements as specified by the DGCA. D. List of components with approved overhaul lives is given in A. CAR series 'O' part I deals with minimum requirements to be compiled with by operator engaged in A. B. the airworthiness authority. 2000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute. C of A will not be renewed if it is observed than A. B. C. Single engined aircraft with retractable undercarriage shall not be used in A. quality control manual. 682. FAA as mandatory. 680. All are correct. are issued in red colour. 684. D. schedule operator. All are correct. C. D. DGCA will declare all modifications issued by A. any inspection is due on item of equipment. B. the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer of aircraft. C.C.

flight crew operation manual. flight manual. 697. the procedure for refuelling the aircraft. B. 150 miles. operation manual. D. 691. the condition under which oxygen shall be used. 693. private aircraft. D. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be continued should any instrument have become inoperative is in A. C. a list of navigational equipment to be carried. C. quality control manual. 3000 feet above the water. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operation manual and airplane flight manual then precedence will be given to A. 692. B. B. 150 km. 695. Operation manual contains A. flying training aircraft. When an aircraft is landing under INE. D. D. any one can be accepted. B. emergency check list. The maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members is contained in A. 260 km. operation manual. maintenance system manual. D. D. from ILS system. all are correct. The maximum flight altitude for each route as required for scheduled operations forms a part of A. it shall be provided with a radio equipment capable of receiving signals A. route guide. D. The required number of aircrew on a licensed air transport service is found in aircraft A. All are correct. All are correct. C. from ATC transponder. For operation of single engined aircraft there shall be an emergency landing ground at intervals of not more than A. Operation manual is not a necessary requirement of A. C. non-schedule operator.C. flight manual. C. B. B. operation manual. from VOR station. operation manual. 694. 260 miles. 690. . D. 689. B. B. All are correct. flight manual. D. C. 696. schedule operator. C. C. flight manual. providing guidance to a point from which visual landing can be effected. Both a and c are correct.

300 feet. B. twice a year. The first pilot of an airlines shall have made at least A. not less than 6 months and not more than 8 months.B. every six months. 2% of the 'expected climbed performance'. C. D. not less than 3 months and not more than 6 months. During an IR check the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to port and starboard variation in height shall not exceed A. B. every two years. B. 702. as in (a) also in IFR condition. B. C. not less than 3 months and not more than 8 months. D. D. The IR check of a pilot carried out by an approved check pilot includes A. D. B. once in two years. 703. one flight as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly in VFR condition. not less than 4 months and not more than 8 months. . recovery from spins. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by the DGCA that they are familiar A. C. C or R. 700. B. C. 701. All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check A. every year. 200 feet. three flights as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly VFR conditions. D. 705. D. B. The expected climbed performance shall be obtained from A. 698. 100 feet. 699. The observed actual climb performance (in terms of feet per minute) shall in no case be lower by more than A. All are correct. once a year. None is correct. 706. 150 feet. Both a and b are correct. C of A. Proficiency check of licenced air transport service pilots shall be carried out at an interval of A. 704. C. C. C. with its loading. twice a year. All are correct. B. a and b are correct. recovery from loops. let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use. C. D. None is correct. with ATC system. Instruments rating check of a pilot is carried out A. operations manual. C. D. D. two flights as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly in VFR conditions. pilot's notes. flight manual.

22 inches. CAR series C part I. on the fuselage and stabilizer. C. 7% of the 'expected climbed performance'. The height of registration marks on the aircraft fuselage shall be at least A. C. C. one-half of the height of the letter. on the fuselage and vertical fin. 712. ROC correction factor graph for constant speed propellers is available in A. three-eighth of the height of the letter. 713. pressure altitude (in metres). D. B. 709. 714. D. B.B. 50 inches. one-eighth of the height of letter. on the fuselage and wing. B. 711. C. pressure altitude (in metres). C. The width of each letter of (except letter I) and the length of hyphens shall be A. D. one-sixth of the width of letter. 30 cm. 708. D. The thickness of the lines of letters of registration marking shall be A. temp (degree C). temp (degree F). D. D. The registration marking on the aircraft shall appear A. D. CAR series T part I. on the hull. as in (a) and on the fuselage. pressure altitude (in feet). . D. on the right half of the lower surface of the wing. The separation between the letter of registration marking shall not be less than A. on the left half of the lower surface of the wing. C. B. temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor. one-eighth of the width of letter. 710. two-third of the height of the letter. CAR series T part II. B. 5% of the 'expected climbed performance'. D. one-quarter of letters length. The varaiables of ROC graphs as given in CAR series T part II are A. as in (b) and on the fuselage. 50 cm. B. 707. C. three-fourth of the height of the letter. one-quarter of letters width. The nationality and registration marks of an airship appears A. B. CAR series C part II. one-sixth of the height of letter. 60 cm. 60 cm. 50 cm. pressure altitude (in feet). The height of registration marks on an aircraft shall be at least A. B. C. C. 3% of the 'expected climbed performance'. 20 cm. temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor. 715. B.

type of engine. all instruments should be installed. till it is replaced by a fresh schedule. 717. D. 721. B. The separation between the letters of registration marking shall not be less than A. The load must be securely tight. The calculated C. C. B. representative of RAO. position for 'take off & land before take off are computed for A. 719. The load tying ropes must be of sufficient strength to withstand the loads imposed on it in flight. 716. one-third of letters height. hydraulic fluid should be full. for 2 years. one-sixth of letters height. During loading it must be ensured that the aircraft cabin floor loading limitation are not exceeded. D. D. aerial work aircraft. C. two-third of letters height. B. six months from the date of issue. None is correct. IAR 49. D. B. IAR 58. All are correct. public transport aircraft. all are correct. one-quarter of letters height. registration marking of aircraft. C. 720. C. D. two years from the date of issue. for 5 years. The load must be placed behind the passengers the cabin. 718. . C. 723. one-third of letters width. type of aircraft. The aircraft shall be weighed in the presence of A. During weighing of aircraft the equipment installed are A. D. Aircraft weight schedule shall include A. Weight and balance control of aircraft is dealt in A. The 'load sheets' of a schedule operator shall preserved for a period of A. The weight schedule of an aircraft shall be retained A. for 10 years. C. IAR 56. B. QCM. All are correct. one-third of letters length. one year from the date of issue.G. oil should be full. B. B. D.C. Mark the wrong statement A. D. C. Both b and c are correct. chief engineer. C. 724. D. private aricraft. 722. B. C. B. one month from the date of issue. D.

C. B.B. The drugs contained in the physician's kit are intended to be administered only by A. C. Physician's kit is must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of more than A. The contents of the first aid kit of training aircraft shall be examined by medical oficer once in A.B. 730. 20. 731. AME. The words 'FIRST AID KIT' on first aid kit box shall by at least A. 18 months. C. 729. D.S. moisture and dust proof. three first aid kits and one physician kit. of steel. D. M. PIC. D. Govt. 726. of aluminium alloy. private medical practitioner. Co-pilot. D. B. 60. doctor. 12 months. any medical practitioner. degree. The contents of the first aid kit of a public transport aircraft shall be examined by medical officer once in A. 12 months. medical practitioner. All aircraft with passenger-carrying capacity of 50 shall be equipped with A. one first aid kit and one physician kit. 732.B. two first aid kits and one physician kit. 100. C. D. 24 months. C. First aid kit whenever used shall be replenished and certified by a A. B. 733. any medical practitioner holding M. To check on the aircraft that the first aid kits are intact and properly sealed is the respnosibility of A. C. C. B.S. B. 728.725. 2 inches high. one first aid kit only. 18 months. 150. 3/2 inches high. C. B. an air hostess. B. medical practitioner. 6 months. QCM. D. 6 months. D. D. B. C. . 5/2 inches high. B. 727.B. D. Pilot in command. The first aid kit container shall be A. All are correct. 24 months. 1 inch high.

C.000 kg AUW. at least flame-resistant. Both b and c are correct.B. 740. 741. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and havign AUW as 15000 kg or above shall be A. Requrest from grant of 'concessions' for use of material. 736. C. C. B. the training of the crew members of public transport aircraft engaged in schedule and non-schedule services in application of first aid is undertaken by A. Concession form is submitted to the RAO in A. B. D. B. D. Medical Officer incharge. D. Furnishing material used on private aircraft shall be A. triplicate. a permission by the DGCA to rebuild an aircraft. above 5. Both b and c are correct.S. Contents of the physician's kit shall be certified by A. D.000 kg AUW. None is correct. C. owner/operator. CAR series F part IV. D. medical practitioner with at least M. 738. above 3. DGCA. a permission by the DGCA to use a limited quantity or material not in conformity with that approved by manufacturer. B. self-extinguishing. D. . B. C. CAR series X part IV. B. effecting major modification is submitted to A. Both a and c are correct. D. DGCA. FAR part 25. 739. flame resistant. self-extinguishing.700 kg AUW. a permission by the DGCA for free flight. Concession means A. Chief Medical Officer. B. degree. D. Details of furnishing materials used in aircraft are contained in A. C. C.734. 737. DAW. B. medical practitioner. DGCA and RAO. C. RAO. RAO. Director of Air Safety. C. above 15.000 kg AUW. 742. duplicate. above 2. Resistant to fire (as given in appendix F to FAR 25 part II) aircraft seats shall be installed in all aircraft A. 735. flame resistant. at least flame-resistant. B.B. quadruplicate.

B. C. C. major repair & overhaul of aircraft component or system is entered in the A. Detailed record of replacements. routine inspection records. All are correct. four. Airframe log book. The third section of the airframe log book will contain A. three. Aircraft log books are made under the pursuance of A. 743. None is correct. D. first section of the log book. B. D. IAR 57. as long as the log books are kept. Engine log book. The first section of journey log book contains A. BCAR 43. 2 years after the aircraft is withdrawn form use. second section of the log book. An approved copy of concession form is preserved by the applicant for A. modification records. D. None is correct.13 manual. AC 43. QCM. B. 750. None is correct. B. B. D. major repair records. JAR 21. . C. 745. 744. B. The number of different log books requirement for an aircraft as stated in CAR series X-part VI are A. third section of the JLB. Concession application for carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary structure is submitted to A. C. DGCA. C. DAW. None is correct. 10 years. B. B. 747. IAR 67. C. 751. DGCA's prior approval is not required if a major repair is carried out strictly in conformity with the standard aeronautical practice spelt out in A. D.D. D. RAO. D. DGCA shall issue A. 746. minor repair records. IAR 68. routine inspection records. D. CAA 43. third section of the log book. C. JLB. CAIP. overhaul records. replacement records. six. C. 2 years. D. five. 748. 749. C. B. Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures of CAA (UK).

C. C. . which are not changed with the engine should be entered in A. engine & propeller log book are preserved for A. 760. B. 755. flight log book & JLB and signed by the pilot. C. 758. In accordance with CAR flight is recorded as A. ten years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use. All are correct. B. When a component having its own log book is removed from aircraft. C. as in (c) and also in JLB. as in (b) and also in aircraft log book. chock to chock. the relevant log book. When an engine is changed. take-off to touch down may be adopted after obtaining approval from RAO. When aircraft engine log book is not kept in the manner and form as prescribed in aircraft rule 67 A. D. C. 759. JLB and signed by the pilot. two years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use. CAR series X part VII IAR 67. B. D. the log book of the replacement engine. Valid documents are carried on board an India registered aircraft in accordance with A. flight log book and aircraft log book. aircraft log book.752. Log book other than aircraft. the component relevant log book. 754. D. propeller log book is preserved for 2 years. the reason for removal should be entered in A. D. D. D. relevant log book and signed by an appropriately licenced AME. ten years. the FRC will be cancelled. then the A. the serial members and part numbers as appropriate of 'lifed' parts. Both a and c are correct. CAR series X part VII IAR 57. When an aircraft meets with an accident and is damaged beyond repair. D. D. working copies of airframe and engine log books. the hours flown. engine log book is preserved for 2 years. 756. the C of A will be cancelled. flight log book. C. 757. aircraft log book. relevant log book and signed by the pilot. JLB. All are correct. C. C. B. B. JLB. When a pilot carries out an inspection schedule of below 25 hours its entries will be made in the A. CAR series X part VII. B. the C or R will be cancelled. take-off to touch down. C. the C of A will cease to be valid. B. 753. D. ten years from the date of last entry. B. aircraft log book is preserved for 2 years. CAR series X part VII IAR 7. B. Log books carried on board an aircraft are A. Both a and c are correct.

B. 766. C of R.761. All are correct. . FRC. a complete list of drawing. None is correct. all passenger aircraft of 15. D. quadruplicate. Application for type approval is submitted in A. 765. as per annexure I of CAR series X part IX. C. B. 767. B. B. C. as per annexure I of IAR 49. D.700 kg AUW or above. D. Flight Manual. C. All are correct. D. Application for type approval has to be submitted in form A. as per annexure I of CAR series F part I. of group B. all aircraft of 15. An aircraft which does not leave the vicinity of its starting place and returns without landing elsewhere to its starting place. documents of group A and group B. 768. 'Group B' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft is/are A. B.000 kg AUW or above. C. D. None is correct. 769. with AUW below 15. all aircraft of 5.700 kg AUW or above. Application for type approval is submitted to A. B. with AUW below 5700 kg.000 kg. B. C of A. All are correct. C. D. only documents. FRC. only documents. C of A. Passenger safety information briefing card is carried on A. duplicate. C. DGCA. C.000 kg AUW or above. triplicate. all passenger aircraft of 5. 763. 764. at all times. C. B. D. DGCA (atten : Director of Aeronatucial Inspection). D. of group A. 762. B. needs to carry A. 'Group A' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft are/is A. C or R. C. The documents as required in group A and group B shall be carried on board all aircraft A. DGCA (via RAO). as per annexure I of IAR 49A. D. None is correct. DGCA (Atten : Director of Airworthiness). C or R. Applicant for type approval shall submit A.

For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension to the DGCA A. 775. Aircraft rules 30. D. B. nationality and registration marking of the aircraft. lays down the procedure for obtaining Indian certificate of registration. D. of India to issue/renew C of A. C. 778. C. If at any time the DGCA feels that the safety of aircraft is jeopardised it can A. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm. 773. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm. All are correct. C. For issuing of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy that the aircraft/rotor craft manufactured/imported meets the approved airworthiness standards of A. 772. Aircraft rule 50 empowers the A. main rotor blade chord. length of fuselage. DGCA to issue/revalidate C of A. a and b are correct. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm. Aircraft rules 50. Both b and c are correct. 774. D. length of fuselage. 777. C. lays down the procedure for obtaining certificate of registration. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm. cancel or suspend a type certificate. B. D. C of A no of the aircraft. Aircraft rules 15. All are correct. overall length. B. D. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR series F part II annexure I A. B. diameter of main rotor and tail rotor. B. For obtaining type certificate of a rotor craft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension to the DGCA A. BCAR 23 & JAR 25. C. . FAR 23 & FAR 25. lays down the procedure of obtaining Indian certificate of airworthiness. C. endorse a type certificate. B.770. height over all. length over all. Govt. 776. C. incorporate a modification in type certificate. All of them are correct. endurance (based on operational experience). None is correct. Aircraft rules 50 A. B. B. lays down the procedure of obtaining certificate of airworthiness. C. D. CAR series 'F' part III A. All aircraft registered in India must possess a current and valid C of A before it is flown is a requirement as per A. B. D. 771. RAO to renew/revalidate c of A. Along with the application for type approval the applicant should submit A. D.

C. FAR 27 & FAR 29. D. All are correct. 779. C of A aircraft which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the DGCA A. cannot be issued/renewed. B. the operator may consult the DGCA (DAW) before buying/importing such aircraft so that acceptance standards is conveyed to him. C. both a and b are correct. D. none of them is correct. 780. Application for obtaining C of A is to be submitted in form A. CA 23 (Appendix A ). B. CA 23A. C. CA 25 (Appendix A). D. CA 25. 781. For issuance of C of A the owner/operator shall supply free of cost A. original log books along with record of modification with a certificate from the Chief of Inspection that no modification/airworthiness directive/inspection is pending. B. two sets of type certificate. C. two sets of MMEL. D. all are correct. 782. In case any deficiency is noticed during inspection by airworthiness officer for issuance of C of A A. the owner will be informed and he will be responsible for making up all the deficiencies pointed out. B. C of A will not be issued. C. the owner may be asked to carry out any modification/airworthiness directives which is considered essential for the safety of the aircraft. D. both a and c are correct. 783. For issuance of C of A partially filld Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA A. to the manufacturer for completion. B. to the owner/operator for completion. C. to the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion. D. All are correct. 784. Validity of C of A is A. for one year. B. for six months. C. restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft. D. Both a and b are correct. 785. C of A validity of imported aircraft is A. for one year. B. for six months. C. the validity period shall begin from the date of issue of original export C of A. D. both a and c are correct. 786. Validity of C of A A. is for one year. B. is restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft. C. shall begin from the date of issue of original export C of A. D. both a and c are correct. 787. Short-term C of A is issued for A. un-airworthy aircraft.

B. aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration marking. C. aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking. D. aircraft having service life of less than one year. 788. The DGCA may refuse a C of A to an aircraft if A. he feels so. B. required data are not made available. C. reasonable apprehension exists regarding its airworthiness. D. both b and c are correct. 789. Documents which must accompany the application for the issue of C of A are/is A. form CA 83. B. form CA 84. C. documents as required vide AME notice no 2 of 1969. D. All of the above. 790. The three general categories of aircraft are A. normal, special, aerobatic. B. passenger, mail, goods. C. aerial, private, agricultural. D. passenger, normal, special. 791. Normal category aircraft are A. passenger, mail. B. goods, aerial. C. private, passenger. D. All are correct. 792. Aircraft certificated in normal category can be used A. in all sub-divisions. B. in special category. C. in specific sub-division (s) certificated. D. None is correct. 793. Private aircraft means A. all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public transport aircraft. B. shall not be used for hire or reward. C. shall not be used of any kind of remuneration. D. All are correct. 794. A state Govt. aircraft certificated in normal category sub-division shall be a A. passenger aircraft. B. private aircraft. C. research aircraft. D. racing aircraft. 795. Research aircraft is a subdivision of A. normal category. B. aerobatic category. C. special category. D. experimental category. 796. Racing aircraft is a subdivision of A. normal category. B. aerobatic category. C. experimental category.

D. special category. 797. Aircraft certificated in normal category shall not be used in A. special category. B. aerobatic category. C. private category. D. All are correct. 798. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category A. may be used in special category. B. may be used in normal category. C. may be used for experimental work. D. may be used for racing. 799. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g. B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g. C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g. D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g. 800. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in aerobatic category are between A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g. B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g. C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g. D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g. 801. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the requirements of A. FAR 15. B. FAR 26. C. FAR AD (87-01-40). D. FAR 21. 802. Class II & Class III aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by A. export C of A. B. airworthiness approval tag. C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA. D. None of the above. 803. Class I aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by A. export C of A. B. airworthiness approval tag. C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA. D. None of the above. 804. Complete aircraft comes under A. class I aeronautical product. B. class II aeronautical product. C. class III aeronautical product. D. class IV aeronautical product. 805. An aircraft which is being exported to India via flyway should A. display Indian nationality and registration marking. B. display foreign nationality and registration marking. C. have ferry flight authorisation. D. Both a and b are correct.

B. D. Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported to India is the responsibility of A. the quantum of work required has to be decided by oficer incharge RAO. None of the above. airworthiness approval tag. same as required for issuance of UK C of A. both b and c are correct. DGCA. the quantum of work required has to be decided by manufacturer. 811. D. exporter of the aircraft. C. 10 days in advance of expiry of C of A. FAR part 43. FAR part 65.806. Class II & III aeronautical products imported in India must accompany A. C. 814. C. 3% of flight hours. In case of the C of A of the aircraft has expired then fcr renewal A. 10% of calendar period. 808. both a and c are correct. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part P). D. B. C. both a and b are correct. same as required for issuance of US C of A. Reconditioned/used/surplus parts must be certified as per A. D. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part L). C. FAR part 145. 15 days in advance of expiry of C of A. 810. Engine/propellers imported in India must accompany A. D. Application of renewal of C of A should be made preferably A. no extension is granted. . same as required for issuance of CAA C of A. 809. D. B. Validity of C of A can be extended for A. C. 812. CAR series 'F' part IV. B. none is correct. importer of the aircraft. 813. CAR series 'F' part III. FAA. 'Noise standards' acceptable in India for issuance of Indian C of A are A. 807. export C of A. D. C. B. Requirement for renewal of C of A is contained in A. B. B. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part R). All are correct. D. D. B. aircraft rule 5. airworthiness approval tag. B. C. same as required in JAR 21. compliance with FAR 20 (sub part L). 7 days in advance of expiry of C of A. C. the quantum of work required has to be dcided by operator/QCM.

WT license. C. If mandatory modifications are not carried out as and when called for A. 821. None is correct. C of A shall cease to be valid if A. C. C of R. Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above is issued by A. Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and below is issued by A. D. All the above. D. individual AMEs. Renewal of certificate of airworthiness of Indian registered aircraft abroad A. All are correct. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'B' to cover the type of aircraft involved. authorised personnel of approved organisation. Both b and c are correct. D. the C of R will cease to be valid. 817. the WT license will cease to be valid. B. 'lifted' components are replaced on expiry of stipulated lives. B. the C of A will cease to be valid. 823. C of A. 818. C. C. 822. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document after the expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A . D. Aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above are required to be maintained by A. D. D. individual AMEs. B. C. C. C. Aircraft with AUW below 5700 can be maintained by A. All are correct. can be carried out with full justification of such exigencies to the DGCA. C. 816. approved organisation. D. individual AMEs. B. 820. 819. B. approved organisation. Both a and b are correct. B. All log books. cannot be carried out and should be avoided. D. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'D' to cover the type of engine involved. DGCA. JLB. B.815. B. 824. RAO. QCM. C. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAO A. Procedure sheets cf past one year. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAO A. B. C of A will be renewed in the normal manner. All are correct. D. airlines. All are correct. unapproved repairs/modifications are carried out. approved inspection schedule is completed when due. Both b and c are correct. All are correct.

Both a and b are correct. develops a major defect. Aircraft rules 55A. CAR series F part II. Appendix to form CA 25. Aircraft rules 55 (1). CAR series F part V. for another one year. Application for renewal of C of A is submitted on A. D. D. D. form CA 25. will start from the expiry of last C of A. D. next 100 hrs schedule. D. C. Any one of the above. DGCA can suspend or cancel the C of A of an aircraft under the purview of A. None is correct. Aircraft rules 55 (2). 825. C. C. All are correct. align with any schedule within 50 hours. All are correct. will start from the date of submitting the application. B. The certification of airworthiness of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended if A. B. 826. D. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part III. 827. it is modified or repaired otherwise then in accordance with approved procedure. B. 831. OAT gauge is a must A. only upto the date the previous currency of the C of A had remained valid. C. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part IV. B. 830. B. Suspension of C of A is dealt in A. empowers the DGCA to cancel C of A. suffers major damage. All are correct. will start from the date of inspection. inspection associated with next flight certfication. empowers the DGCA to suspend C of A. 828. CAR series F part III. Certification by AME 'R' for flight release of private aircraft may not be necessary if ground facilities are not available till A. cannot be revalidated. C. 832. C. C. provides for automatic suspension of C of A. 829. on all aircraft intended for flying. on aircraft fitted with engine with carburettor air temp. control but without carburettor air temperature gauge. 833. if it had not been suspended. Aircraft rules 55.A. B. B. B. C. C. Aircraft rules 55(1) A. D. CAR series F part IV. B. A two-way communication system and navigation equipment are essential . D. D. Suspended C of A will be revalidated A. on aircraft undertaking night flying on VFR.

when an aircraft is flying under IFR. CAR series F part XV. C. 838. CAR series L part I deals with A. with AUW of 15000 kg and above. experience requirements for issue of AME licences. with AUW of 3000 kg and above. 842.A. classification of AME licences. C. B. 300 kg. D. minimum qualification for issue of AME licence. Maximum AUM of a microlight aircraft is A. with AUW of 5700 kg and above. D. None is correct. IAR 62 B. Microlight aircraft includes A. light aircraft. 350 kg. Comprehensively all above. wing area not less than 10 sq meters. Microlight aircraft means A. D. with AUW below 15000 kg. minimum experience for issue of AME licence. 250 kg. powered hang gliders. C. Light aircraft means an aircraft A. All airworthy mcrolight aircraft should possess a A. B. Registration and airworthiness of Microlight aircraft is contained in A. 840. C. C. IAR 62. D. C. valid certificate of airworthiness. suplemented with appropriate ground facilities. None is correct. Both a and b are correct. D. all are correct. B. D. 450 kg. B. Heavy aircraft means an aircraft A. 837. with AUW below 5700 kg. 839. issue of AME licences. 835. Aircraft rule 61 lays down the A. a fixed wing aircraft. B. a single seater or two seater aircraft. CAR series F part XIV. None is correct. C. B. B. with AUW below 30000 kg. D. C. 841. hang gliders. valid certificate of safety. 836. B. comprehensively all above. C. . D. B. B. when an aircraft is flying through controlled air space. 834. None is correct. D.

one year. nine months. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the entire air space over the territory of A. an appropriately licensed AME. 20 hours in case of microlight aircraft. 10 hours. B. the aircraft has not been certificated to international requirements. D. C. 845. C. two years. 25 hours in case of microlight aircraft. B. on the lower surface of the wings. Jammu and Kashmir. 849. 15 hours in case of microlight aircraft. D. B. six months. C. D. 20 km from international border. The registration markings assigned to the microlight aircraft shall be painted A. All columns of microlight aircraft log book should be filled by A. C. B. 844. the pilot and signed by him. 50 km from international border. 20 hours. D. B. All the above are correct. 848. B. The restricted flying areas are notified by the A. 850. C. All the above. In respect of microlight aircraft a pilot can carry out the pre flight and all inspections up to A. QCM and signed by him. 5 hours. C. DGCA in consultation with the Home Ministry. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the areas falling within A. 25 hours. 847. valid permit to fly. Defence Ministry. B. an AME and signed by him. B. Only appropriately licensed AME can perform any schedule higher than A. Delhi. also on each side of fuselage. D. All are correct. C.C. B. D. D. C. . or on the upper half of the vertical fin. valid for day flying only. 25 km from international border. A permanent placard should be affixed on the microlight aircraft in full view of the occupants stating that A. D. 10 km from international border. Permit to fly is valid for A. Punjab. 10 hours in case of microlight aircraft. C. Tamilnadu. Both a and b are correct. 843. D. 846. 851. the aircraft has not been certificated for cloud flying.

Ballon means A. basket used for the balloon occupants. B. need not have a type certificate. IAR 62. B. which is used to accommodate balloon occupants. The identification plate of balloon shows A. C. C. All the above. C. C. constructor's name. C. the container suspended beneath the balloon. seven days. .D. None of the above. Application for permit to fly for microlight aircraft is submitted on A. 861. which is used to cover the balloon. 856. 855. All manned free balloons are required to be registered as per A. 860. B. B. registration markings. D. must have a type certificate. 24 hours. B. B. D. a power-driven lighter than aircraft. 5 hours in case of balloons. C. a non power-driven lighter than aircraft. CAR series F part XIV. 859. D. 48 hours. IAR 15. D. Flight release for a balloon has to be issued carry A. C. from CA 182. annex I to CAR series F part XIV. the container suspended beneath the envelope. B. 857. Both a and c are correct. CAR series X part I. CAR series F part XV. B. CAR series F part I. a power-driven heavier than aircraft. in which the lifting medium is contained. 'Basket' of balloon means A. D. Requirement for manufacture registration and airworthiness control of hot air balloons is contained in A. D. CAR series F part XV. 36 hours. D. from CA 28. balloon's serial number. A pilot can carry out inspection schedules up to A. D. Envelope means the enclosure A. D. C. A hot air balloon used for personal flying a pilot A. appendix to CAR series F part II. CAR series X part XV. 858. must have a permit to fly. 854. C. 852. Both a and b are correct. a non power-driven heavier than aircraft. B. 853. in which balloon is contained.

B. D. 15 hours in case of balloons. All the above are correct. In general a flight manual contains A. B. Both b and c are correct. 10 hours in case of ballons. B. the C of A will be valid. D. four sections. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part III section (9) chapter II. B. If an approved flight manual is not ammended up-to-date A. D. D. D. All-India registered balloon must carry on board A. The operating of the balloon flight will only be undertaken during A. certificate of registration. Procedure/worksheet pertaining to balloon shall be preserved for at least A. 866. 868. past noon session. sub-RAO. B. 25 hours in case of balloons. C. . 865. C. All amendment incorporated in the flight manual of an imported aircraft shall be intimated to A. 864. C. D. five section. C. 862. day time under VFR condition. ten years. Guidance for the preparation of flight manual is given in A. C. the C of A would cease to be valid. the C or R would cease to be valid. B. C. None of the above is correct. 25 hours in case of ballons. 869. Only an AME can carry out any inspection schedule higher than A. two years. B. 10 hours in case of balloons. between sunrise to sunset. certificate of airworthiness. three sections. cockpit and emergency check list in laminated form. 867. D. pre noon session. D. D. ten years after completion of work. B. C. Records/worksheet pertaining to 'lifed' components of balloons shall be preserved for A. 50 hours in case of ballons. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II section III chapter 9. 15 hours in case of ballons. B. five years after completion of work. C. C. two years after completion of work. C. five years. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part 9 section III chapter II. B. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II section (9) chapter III. RAO. six sections. DGCA. 870. 863. one year.

all light aircraft and helicopters. Normally no parts should be used from the parts pooled beyond A. Rule 60. 873. Rule 51. flight manual. . 50 hours of operation. then additional at least 5 litres of fuel per main tank shall be added to arrive at the zero datum for the fuel quantity gauge. D. D. C. D. 25 hours of operation. C. B. D. Light aircraft for which the unusable fuel data is not available the procedure recommended to determine.D. CAR series 'H' Part I deals with A. five litres. C. is A. replaced. emergency check list. B. D. C. C. 874. Both a and b are correct. 100 hours of operation. Which aircraft rule prohibits use of component items of equipments from being modified. B. at the time of installation. C. 875. 879. at the nearest major check. Rule 56. 871. all helicopters. repaired. zero litres. CAR series H part II. D. cockpit check list. B. Aircraft fuelling procedure is laid down in A. 878. D. 872. The fuel gauges shall be calibrated with zero datum at A. with aircraft in level flight altitude drawn the fuel system from the lowest point in the supply line. unusable fuel supply. inspected or overhauled except by an approved person of contracting state whose approval is recognised by the DGCA A. The quantity of unusable fuel in most cases is included in the appropriate A. B. Rule 61. All are correct. 877. QCM. C. All are correct. all aircraft. A fuel quantity gauge is calibrated A. at every C of A. unusable fuel. 200 hours of operation. B. C. ten litres. B. All are correct. A properly calibrated dip stick is carried on board A. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of helicopter. B. all heavy aircraft. D. 876. thereafter measure the quantity of residual fuel in each tank. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of aircraft.

Fuelling zone is regarded as the area extending A. B. 43 metres of the fuelling equipment.etres of the aircraft. 880. Both a and c are correct. As a general guide the fuelling place should be at least A. B. 15 metres from the hangar. to the fuelling equipment. Exhaust of the refuelling vehicle shall not pass over the A. Whenever wing fuelling is employed the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded A. B. . 887. kg. 20 metres from the hangar. 15 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point. Vehicles moving in the danger zone shall be fitted with A. D. 30 metres from the hangar. CAR series H part I. D. None is correct. C. intake hose. to the fuelling equipment before filler capt is removed. 25 metres from the hangar. 25 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point. B. C. C. 30 m. D. spark arrestors. C. C. B. fuelling hose. 50 metres of the aircraft. 881. none is correct. IAR 25 A. fire extinguishers. Fuelling operation shall cease when a turbo prop jet aircraft manoeuvres so as to bring the rear jet outlets within A. 30 metres of radar equipment in use. tonnes. 15 metres of fuelling equipment. C. B. 886. D. density. C. B.B. 15 metres of radar equipment in use. C. 888. No photographic flash bulbs and electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used within A. 883. D. volume. 882. D. 884. 20 metres of radar equipment in use. The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of A. C. 10 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point. to the aircraft structure before filler capt is removed. D. both a and b are correct. B. 5 metres of fuelling equipment. The aircraft shall not be fuelled within A. flame traps. D. 885. 06 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point. 33 metres of the aircraft fuelling equipment. 25 metres of radar equipment in use. B. D. C. 6 metres of fuelling equipment. both a and b is correct.

897. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation covering an area greater than 5 square metres. B. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall A. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall A. . CAR series I part I. All are correct. 889. after installation of a new electrical system. 15 metres from the spillage. B. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board. 895. 892. None of them correct. B. 893. CAR series I part III. C. a test flight after an engine change is A. B. 30 metres of fuelling equipment. Instruments shall be inspected prior to installation to insure that A. not mandatory. the range of the dial marking is adequate to reflect correct operation of the aircraft power plant or equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate operating limitation. having 4 engines. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board. All the above are correct. D. 43 metres from the spillage. Flame resistant material as per CAR Series X part IV A. 6 metres from the spillage. C. 890. having single engine. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent. D. then all persons shall be evacuated from the effected area to a place at least A. C. D. which will not ignite fire to any material. D. 891. All are correct. D. having 2 engines. susceptible to combustion or to the point of smouldering. C. the instruments are approved for the type of aircraft. Aircraft magnetic compasses shall be calibrated and compensated A. B. B. CAR series I part II. C. 896. D. is not susceptible to combustion to the point of propagating a flame after ignition source is removed. C. only C above is wrong.D. as specified in operator's MS manual. mandatory. B. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board. which will not catch fire at all. C. None of them correct. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent. at the time of initial installation of a compass. Aircraft instruments shall be overhauled and inspected in accordance with the requirement of A. On a two-engine aircraft. D. B. 30 metres from the spillage. 894. the range of any coloured sector marked on instrument dials corresponds with the ranges specified in the aircraft flight manual or aircraft/engine manufacturer manual as applicable. The test flight is not necessary for an engine change in an aircraft A. C. D. B.

None is correct. C. Regarding the log books. C. C. 905. D. once before the first flight of the day. mandatory for aircraft above 15. C. 904. B. In propeller log book. 25 years old. be six months. smoking is permitted. Validity or C of A in case of imported aircraft shall A. None is correct. 901. B. 50 years old. Component log book must be preserved for six months after permanent withdrawal of component. D.C. after every three take-offs. D. B. 898. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air-taxi operations/charter hire for public transport shall not A. B. begin from the date of issue of original export of C of A and will normally be for a period of one year. are made of A. major repairs are entered in section-2. D.000 pressurization cycles. In engine log book repairs are entered in section-III. if the inspection is carried out not more than 15 days in advance of the expiry date. begin from the date of issue of Indian C of A. be one year. A fire-proof metal plate is affixed on the aircraft to indicate A. registration mark. be more than 12 years in age. C. be more than 10 years in age. C. if the inspection is carried out more than one month in advance of the expiry date.000 pressurization cycles. 906. 902.000 pressurization cycles. flame proof materials. 903. B. have completed 50. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India for air taxi operations/charter hire for public transport shall not A. have completed 45. have completed 40. mandatory for aircraft above 5700 kg AUW. Validity of C of A would remain continuous A. flame resistance materials. D.000 pressurization cycles. B. name and address of registered owner. D.000 kg AUW. B. DGCA would not allow any aircraft to be imported for operation if it is more than A. Aircraft having AUW less than 15000 kg should have seats upholstery. B. C. D. be more than 15 years in age. belts etc. . D. the pre-flight inspection may be carried out A. self-extinguishing materials. B. Log book entry must be made within 24 hours. before each take-off. C. no smoking type materials. 899. C of A number and its date of issue. name of manufacturer and date of manufacturer. D. if the inspection is carried out not more than 30 days in advance of the expiry date. have completed 30. harness. If an aircraft makes a series of take-offs on the same day. mark the correct statement: A. if the inspection is carried out not more than 7 days in advance of the expiry date. 900.

D. B. 7 days. 24 hours. more than 15 years in age. 913.000 pressurization cycles. once a year. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public transport shall not have A. C. B. once in two years. completed 50. . C. B. completed 40. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public transport shall not be A. C. D. C. B. None is correct. D. 2 days. once in three days. every year. D. Fuelling vehicles should be purged of water and sediments A. more than 10 years in age. D. completed 30. 908. All-lined tank should be inspected for lining defects and internally inspected for cleanliness A. B.000 pressurization cycles. C. once in two days. 15 years old. 910. of imported aircraft the importer A.C. 20 years old. 3 days. D. should obtain No Objection Certificate from DGCA. All refuelling tanks shall be cleaned A. C. Both b and c are correct. every week. 911. completed 45. 914. B. should contact FAA. B. should contact CAA. obtain a No Objection Certificate from DGCA. 909. every three years. contact the aircraft manufacturer. For the import of tools/equipments required for maintenance/testing etc. more than 20 years in age. D. every two years. Fuel in delivery hoses should be recirculated if no fuel has been dispensed from on in relation for a period of A. C. D. once in six months. should contact DGCA. D. C.000 pressurization cycles. 907.000 pressurization cycles. For the export of aircraft spares/items of equipment to be overhauled abroad in certain exigencies the operator shall A. every day. every month. contact the airworthiness authority of place of manufacturer. every five years. 912. B.

C. Water sampling extraction pits should be checked for water A. AVGAS should be dispensed direct into aircraft tanks only through A. Barrelled AVGAS is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period less than A. Primary Indicator colour for Jet A-1 pipeline is A. Master gauges for checking fuel samples shall be calibrated once in A. 918. every fortnight.5 to 4. more than a trace of sediment. 2 years. D. 920. 922. None is correct. 10 years. Globules of water. Black. C. D. D. B. 12 months.5 gallons. D. 3 months. weekly. 921. 6 months. Violet. C. 919.915. 9 months. Cloudiness. Yellow. every week. 180 mesh gauze. D. C. Hose and protection filters of 100 mesh gauze should be inspected A. 9 months. 6 months. C. yearly. Red. D. once a year. every month. D. 917. B. 5 gallons. 12 months. Fuel is assessed as unsatisfactory for use in aircraft if a sample shows A. . every day. 150 mesh gauze. 3 months. 0. 916. B. 3. B. C. Red. Fuel taken out of fuel bulk storage and aircraft fuelling vehicle for checking the state of fuel should be at least A. daily. C. B. D. B. monthly. 5 years. 923. B. B.75 to 1 gallon. C. C. D. B. All are correct. 200 mesh gauze. 924. Primary Indicator colour for AVGAS pipeline is A. 100 mesh gauze. Barelled ATF is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period of less than A.

D. 80 knots calibrated air speed. once in two years. 20 microns. 375 Kgs (AUW). C. A hand glider if unpowered weighs less than A. B. C. B. B. B. 930. I. Aviation delivery hoses shall confirm to A. B. 927. D. C. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for microbiological growth A. 375 kgs (AUW).S. 15 microns. 150 Kgs (AUW). once in 18 months. B. 275 Kgs (AUW). 5 microns. . 15 microns. 20 microns. once in a year. 10 microns. 150 kgs (AUW). 931. C. Yellow. 933. 150 Kgs (AUW).B. 40 knots calibrated air speed. 926. D. Deliveries of AVGAS from the vehicles should be made through a micrfilter with a nominal rating of A. 929. once in 6 months. D. A single-seater powered hang glider weighs less than A. IS/BS/DGCA Specifications. IS/BS/DAW Specifications. D. C. 10 microns. D. 932. A double seater powered hang glider weighs less than A. 5 microns. B. IS/DAW/BS Specifications./BS/API Specifications. 928. 100 knots calibrated air speed. 70 knots calibrated air speed. D. 275 Kgs (AUW). B. C. D. 200 kgs (AUW). 300 kgs (AUW). Violet. 300 kgs (AUW). 925. Black. B. 90 knots calibrated air speed. 50 knots calibrated air speed. 300 Kgs (AUW). C. A powered hang glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than A. Hang glider shall have a power-off stall speed not exceeding A. C. Vehicles delivering aviation turbine fuels should be fitted with a microfilter or a filter separator monitor with a nominal rating of A. D. C. 250 kgs (AUW).

.C. every 2 years. Hang glider must be equipped with A. ELT. ASI & ELT. All hang gliders must possess A. 939. pilot incharge. green background with white cross. D. Pre-flight inspection and inspection schedule upto 50 hours on powered hang glider is carried out by A. C. C. None is correct. C. Valid C of A. white background with red cross. D. permit to fly. C. D. 30 knots calibrated air speed. D. B. 50 hrs of hang glider. every 5 years. rpm gauge. persons authorized by the DGCA. None is correct. every 3 years. D. 934. 935. B. 936. None is correct. C. B. D. ASI & ELT. 942. 25 hrs of hang glider and at least 10 hours on dual machine. Higher than 50 hours inspection schedules and overhaul of powered hang glider engine and its components shall be carried out by A. Both a and b are correct. None is correct. three months. C. D. C. Altimeter. Both b and c are correct. person authorized by the DGCA. Validity of permit to fly for hang glider is A. permit to fly. 25 hrs of hang glider. rpm gauge. Altimeter. B. 941. D. B. every year. 10 hrs of hang glider. AMES. D. C or R. red background with white cross. The first aid kit container shall be of A. Valid c of A. AME. C. one year. pilots. 937. six months. ASI. B. Altimeter. 25 knots calibrated air speed. C. ASI. B. All hang gliders before flight must possess a A. B. 938. The examiner/instructor for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have A. B. 940. Reweighing of Aircraft of AUW more than 2999 kg shall be done A.

an aid to navigation. 85 kgs. D. C. None is correct. communication equipment. 15 kgs. 951. The occurrence of electromagnetic interference can be categorized as A. D. 947. Global Positioning Systems (GPS) act as A. 70 kgs. 30 kgs. 950. navigation equipment. B. 10 kgs. C. periodic & aperiodic. 65 kgs. 944. Standard weight for CREW for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. 30 kgs. 20 kgs. 75 kgs. 6 months. 945. 1 years. 5 years. he clears the BAMEC in category 'PA'. C. he has successfully completed a specific training subsequent to obtaining of the BAMEC from the DGCA and adjugded fit for approval. C. 946. 40 kgs. B. B. Standard weight for INFANTS for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. C. All are correct. B. D. D. 85 kgs. II. band width. 2 years. 948. 943. waveform and occurrence. D. B. C. The second copy of load and trip sheet shall be kept by the operator for a period of A. D. 70 kgs. C. periodic & instant. Standard weight for PASSENGER for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. B. B. D. D. periodic & random. D.D. 50 kgs. Both a and b are correct. white background with green cross. C. B. III on HS 748 aircraft of AME's licence examination. 65 kgs. The operator will consider him for grant of approval only after A. . An AME trainee clears paper I. Electromagnetic Interference whether conducted or radiated can be categorized by A. B. amplitude behaviour. 75 kgs. 35 kgs. Standard weight for CHILDREN for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. C. he has proved himself fit for approval before a board chaired by QCM. 949. radar system.

None is correct. 960. D. 'Aerodrome' means any difinite or limited A. on three engine aircraft. at the time of C of A. as in (a) is not used for public transport. airship. C. aerodyne. if two engines are changed a test flight shall be carried out. aerodyne. Aircraft should be flight tested A. B. B. D. as in (a) also used for public transport. aerodyne. 959. 953. All are correct. Glider is a A. 957. Any machines which can derive support in the atmosphere from reaction of the air other than reactions of the air against the earth surface is called A. aeroplane. 958. B. All are correct. gyroplane. pilot in command and co-pilot can exercise the privilege of their licence only after obtaining special authorisation from the DGCA. B. C. None of them. co-pilot can always exercise the privilege of his licence if he is permitted by the aircraft operator. 956. D. A power driven heavier-than-air aircraft. C. C. C. aerostat. C. deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight is termed as . B. 955. C. According to IAR 1937 aerial work Aircraft means an aircraft used for A.952. aerostat. 954. aerostat. piers and other structures. as in (a) and includes all buildings & sheds. B. subsequent to maintenance repair or modification which effects operational or flight characteristic of the aircraft. D. D. as in (b) and also includes vessels. An aircraft whose support in flight is derived dynamically from the reaction on surfaces in motion relative to the air is called A. D. B. An aricraft supported in the air statically and includes all airships and balloons is termed as A. In the event of an aircraft involved in an accident required to be notified under aircraft rules 68 of the aircraft rule 1937 A. All are correct. B. None is correct. gyrostat. D. aeroplane. aerodyne. an industrial or commercial purpose or any other remunerative purpose. pilot in command of the effected aircraft can always exercise the privilege of his pilot's licence as long as it is valid. aircraft. C. D. aircraft. ground or water are intended to be used either wholly or in part for the landing or departing of aircraft.

D. hydroplane. C. aerostat. kite. C. All are correct. Both a and b are correct. B. All are correct. A powe driven lighter-than-aircraft is a A. C. B. gyroplane. amphibian. State aircraft includes A. C. Kite is an A. 962. the convention relating to International air safety. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at New York on December 7 1944. military aircraft. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at Delhi on December 7. Balloon is A. B. All are correct. 964. 967. aerostat.A. An aeroplane capable of taking off from and alighting on either land or a soled platform or water is called a A. aeroplane. C. aerostat. the convention relating to air safety. 968. C. C. D. 1944. explosive. B. 963. gyroplane. seaplane. B. D. 'Dangerous goods' means A. C. 961. aerodyne. the convention relating to ICAO. B. D. helicopter. C. aeroplane. the convention relating to air traffic. aerodyne. B. D. a convention on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7. aerostat. a suit on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7 1944. airship. any good which is likely to endanger the safety of aircraft or person or thing on board the aircraft. aircraft. B. 969. B. Convention means A. 'Contracting state' means any state which is for the time being a party to A. 965. aerodyne. non-explosive. All are correct. D. Flying machine/s may be A. D. D. D. aircraft. flying machines. 1944. . 966.

that has signed a bilateral agreement with a nother state. DGCA. B. 17 years. 16 years. 21 years. C. State Government aircraft. C. C. 18 years. 974. District Magistrate is obtained. D. one. C. contracted for any particular condition for carriage of passengers. C. 21 years. three. B. 10 hours before the commencement of the flight. D. 970. authorised for it. . All are correct. D. Both a and b are correct. D. C. B. D. director of Civil Aviation Security. C. 973. 972. No alcoholic drink shall be consumed by the operating crew members A. commissioner of Airport Security. DGCA under rule 34-A. 976. B. Minimum age for solo control of glider is A. B. DGCA under rule 24-C. No animals/reptiles shall be carried by air without permission from A. 17 years. 6 hours before the commencement of the flight. D. All are correct. 18 years. 975. D. 977. 16 years. Minimum age for solo control of aeroplane is A. contracting state as per aircraft rules means any state A.B. 971. Director Air Safety is obtained. C. B. 17 years. Commissioner of Police is obtained. C. two. D. NAA. B. 978. D. B. 8 hours before the commencement of the flight. 16 years. B. For aircraft having a seating capacity of not less than 10 and not more than 50 passengers the number of cabin attendents required are A. No paper containing printed matter shall be dropped from aircraft unless written permission of A. 18 years. a doctor. 21 years. 12 hours before the commencement of the flight. Arms and ammunitions can be carried by air only with the special permission of A. four. Central Government aircraft. Minimum age of issue of CPL is A.

24 hours of occurrence. a magistrate. 987. a magistrate. B. C. D. 48 hours of occurrence. nationality and registration marks of the aircraft. 984. Passenger and crew's personal luggage shall be removed from a wrecked aircraft under the supervision of A. Both b and c are correct. B. Investigation of accident is carried out in A. B. as in (c) and (a). report on accidents. D. two ways. Information of accident to DGCA shall be made within A. fee payable for renewaql of AME licence exam. all are correct. 12 hours of occurrence. District Magistrate. Mails from a wrecked aircraft shall be removed under the supervision of A. removed and preservation of damaged aricraft. notification of accidents. the region in which the aircraft is based. cause of accident. Aircraft rule 62 deals with A. Aircraft 69 refers to A. D. None is correct. C. 979. Slaughtering of animal is prohibited within A. C. 986. D. 985. D. C. an officer of CAD. fee payable for AME licence exams of DGCA. B. 981. 982. which is for the time being a party to ICAO. an officer of post and telegraph department. B. . 980. D. three ways. a radius of 8 km of aerodrome. Initial accident information to DGCA shall contain A. When an accident occurs it has to be notified by the PIC/operator/owner to the A. 983. C. B. All are correct. fee payable for all licence exams of DGCA. which is for the time being a party to convention of the ICAO. B. one way. B. C. DGCA. an officer of CAD. 5 km of aeroplane reference point. an officer of police department. C. DM & officer-in-charge of the nearest police station. a radius of 10 km of aerodrome reference point. an hour of occurrence. D. C.C. B. C. D. Both a and b are correct. All are correct. D.

a written examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology. communication facilities. D. 25 years. manoeuvring and obstruction. the area included within in a radius of 1 km from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills. 20 hours solo. the area included within in a radius of 1 mile from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills. C. D. 995. one year. Bombay. Bombay. C. An applicant for issuance of private pilot licence shall produce evidence of having flown A. Bombay. An applicant for Assistant Flight Instructor rating shall be of atleast A. Area over which flight by aircraft is prohibited. 25 hours solo. Air traffic control service means a service provided for purpose of A. B. C. B. descent. 19 years. D. 990. C. D. navigation aids available on the route to be flown. ascent. 993. C. Route guide contains A. B. Cross country flight for issuance of PPL licence may be a flight to a point beyond A. D. 20 nm from the aerodrome of departure. ten years. the area included within in a radius of 2 mile from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills. B. D. instruments let down procedure for aerodrome on route. straight and level flight. Bombay. D. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology air navigation. 30 hours solo. 20 years. as in a. Student for issuance of student pilot licence shall pass A. D. 989. signalling aircraft. 10 nm from the aerodrome of departure. 988. significant portion of a flight. 991. C.c and specific instruments for computation of the quantities of fuel and oil to be carrie don board. five years. the area included within in a radius of 2 km from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills. C. B. B. preventing collisions between aircraft. 15 hours solo. 21 years. 996. C. C. 40 nm from the aerodrome of departure. B. two years. Cruising level means level maintained during A. . B. 30 nm from the aerodrome of departure. is A. 994. All are correct. meterological minima for each of the aerodromes to be flown. D. Period of validity of aerodrome licence is A.D. a radius of 5 km of aerodrome reference point. an oral examination in air regualtion aircraft and engine aviation meteorology. an oral examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology and air navigation.b. 992. B.

1004. 300 m. 12 months from the date of issue for person above 38 years of age.997. D. 60 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter. 12 months from the date of issue. When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so that there is a danger of collision A. C. C. 5 kms. 3 kms. preceding 9 months. aircraft at higher altitude shall give way to aircraft at the lower altitude. B. preceding 6 months. 500 m above the ground. 998. 500 m. B. C. 200 m. other than the aerodrom of departure. C. 80 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter. When two or more heavier than aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing A. an overtaking aircraft is a aircraft that approaches another from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than A. D. C. The validity of PPL is A. B. D. Aerobatic in aircraft shall be carried out at a height of at least A. B. other than the aerodrom of departure. C. aircraft at lower altitude shall give way to aircraft at the higher altitude. B. each shall alter its heading to the right. aircraft at lower altitude shall land first. two full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome. other than the aerodrom of departure. 999. 1003. one shall dive and other shall climb. other than the aerodrom of departure. 24 months from the date of issue. C. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ground visibility is less than A. preceding 12 months. B. D. . 8 kms. C. 90 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter. 1001. B. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ceiling is less than A. C. all are correct. D. 1005. An applicant for issuance of private pilot must have at least A. 70 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter. B. D. one full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome. B. aircraft at higher altitude shall land first. 12 months from the date of issue for person below 38 years of age. Night rating is valid only when the licence holder has carried out 5 take-off and 5 landing by night as pilot in command within the A. 600 m above the ground. each shall alter its heading to the left. 1002. four full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome. 1000 m. 10 kms. D. 1000. D. 2000 m above the ground. three full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome. 1000 m above the ground. preceding 3 months. D.

aerodrome unsafe do not land. All are correct. Which of the signal means that grave and imminent danger threatens and immediate assistance is requested A. C. All are correct. B. return for landing. None is correct. B. distress signal. A signal said by a radio telegraphy consisting of spoken work "SECURITE" means A. C. B. C. Repeated switching on and off of the landing light. 1010. assistance signal. clear to land. All are correct. taxi clear of landing area in use. D. D. cleared for taxi. D. distress signal. B. D. do not land for the time being. Red pyrotechnical light directed towards an aircraft flight means A. All are correct. a signal sent by radio telegraphy saying "MAYDAY". D. 1008. stop approach. B. D. not with-standing any previous instructions do not land for time being. give way to other aircraft and continue circulating. C. D. 1014. return for landing. B. A steady green light direted towards an aircraft on the ground means A. clear for take off. A steady red light directed towards the aircraft in flight means A. Which of the following is an urgency signal? A. B. C. B. 1007. 1011. D. aerodrome unsafe do not land. rocket or shells throwing red light. 1012. a succession of white pyrotechnical light. urgency signal. C. C. A series of green flashes from aerodrome traffic control means A. A series of white flashes directed towards an aircraft in flight means A. B. C. return to starting point on the aerodrom. all are correct. 1009. safety signal. The two flag signals corresponding to the letter NC of the international code of signal means A. All are corret.1006. . clear to take. D. All are correct. 1013. return to dispersal. C. Repeated switching on and off of the navigation light. a parachute flare showing red light. urgency signal. cleared for take off.

the place at which report concerning air traffic services are made. All are correct. D. special precaution must be observed in approaching to land. C. 12 months. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited. D. A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals indicate that A. 1017. All are correct. B. B. C. A series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft on the ground means A. C. D. None is correct. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited and the prohibition is liable to be prolonged. to land & take off on runway only. 1018. 6 months. A black ball displayed on a mast and clearly visible to the aircraft on the manoeuvring area indicates that A. B. fit for landing. C. special precaution must be observed in landing. aerodrome unsafe do not land. The letter 'C' displayed vertically in black against yellow background indicates A. the aircraft can take off from any direction. the direction of take off is to be decided by PIC. D. Horizontal dumbel indicates that the aircraft are required to A. B. a stop signal. C. taxi clear of landing area in use. land. the place at which catering facility is available. take off on runway. fit for movement of aircraft. C. unfit for movement of aircraft. D. Crosses of white colour displayed horizontally on the manoeuvring area indicates that area is A. D. Whoever wilfully flies any aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or to any property on land or water or in air shall be punishable with imprisonment up to A. 9 months. 1016. A horizontal white dumbel with black bar perpendicular to the shaft across each portion of the dumbel indicates that aircraft are required A. D. the direction of take off is to be verified with the aerodrome control tower. D.1015. 3 months. B. B. A signal man repeatedly crosses arms above his head indicate A. land on runway. . 1020. returned for landing. None is correct. C. taxi on tzxiway only. a straight ahead signal. B. D. B. power cut signal. 1021. 1023. C. 1019. other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways. the place at which weather information are available. C. Both a and b are correct. B. 1022. taxi on taxi ways only. return to starting point on the aerodrome. None is correct.

turn to your right. Arms down with palm towards ground then moved up and down several times is a signal for A. B.1024. slow down motor on indicated side. D. C. all clear. Either arm and hand level with shoulder. 1027. this bay. start engine. 1026. Arms down palm facing in-wards swing arms from extended position inwards in a signal for A. chocks away. slow down motor on left side. slow down. slow down motor on right side. C. 1030. B. B. Arms down palms facing outwards swing arms outwards is a signal for A. C. slow turning. hand across throat. this bay. D. rate of turning. B. cut power. Arms above head in vertical position palms facing forward brought down quickly to horizontal forward position repeating is a signal for A. D. expedite taxi. slow down. Left arm downward. Arms down with palms towards grounds. C. cut motors. C. then either right or left hand waved up and down indicating that A. right arm repeatedly moved upward and backward is a signal for A. D. 1029. 1032. C. B. Arms above head in vertical position with palms facing inwards is a signal for A. start right engine. None is correct. C. B. D. D. all clear. start moving. None is correct. C. B. slow down. 1031. cut motor. straight back. D. D. 1028. None is correct. D. start engine. insert chocks. B. . straight back. insert chocks. speed up. C. chocks away. B. 1025. start left engine. Circular motion of right hand at head level with left arm pointing to the engine is a signal to A. palm downward is signal for A. slow down. turn to y9our left. straight ahead. start turning.

D. B. 1035. 1038. turn while backing. Arms crossed and extended downwards in front of the body is a signal for hovering helicopter to A. fly for more than A. Arms extended horizontally sideways is a signal for hovering helicopter to A. 3 years for the date of last entry. D. B. D. 1036. 250 hours of flight time as PIC. A pilot opting for open rating shall have not less than A. this bay. D. C. not exceeding 1500 kg. C. 1039. None is correct. C. not exceeding 450 kg. B. B. straight back. not exceeding 1000 kg. . C. B. C. move horizontally. land. An open rating is given for all conventional types of aeroplanes having an AUW A. 1037. No pilot of a flying machine shall in his capacity as such pilot. move down wards. D. Appropriate arm extended horizontally sideways in direction of movement and other arm swing in front of body in same direction. all clear. move downwards. B. move downwards. B. Arms extended horizontally to the beckoning upwards with palms turned up is a signal for hovering helicopter to A.1033. 1040. C. 1041. move partially. 75 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days. C. For tail to star board point left arm down and right arm brought from overhead vertical position to horizontal forward position repeating right arm movement A. C. 5 years for the date of last entry. move up wards. move upwards. B. not exceeding 500 kg. move upwards. B. move downwards. 200 hours of flight time as PIC. D. 125 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days. 150 hours of flight time as PIC. keep hovering. move upward. C. 1034. 100 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for a period of not less than A. move side ways. move horizontally. 150 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days. D. None is correct. 2 years for the date of last entry. D. in a repating movement is a signal for hovering helicopters to A. 4 years for the date of last entry.

1048. D. B. magnetic heading.D. with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome. 6 months. May-day signal. C. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by day and shall consist of a flight on a stipulated route of not less than A. 50 hours of night flight as PIC. returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere. B. 150 hours of night flight as PIC. B. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group XXX means A. C. true heading. 1045. 1047. 1046. 120 mm. D. D. ATPL. B. None is correct. 1044. All are correct. The projection on the earth surface of the path of an aircraft the direction of which at any point is usually expressed in degrees from true north is called A. Development or Research. 250 nm. SCPL. 24 months. None is correct. Aircraft certified in experimental or amateur category are those which are built for A. B. B. 100 hours of night flight as PIC. C. distress signal. Education. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group 'TTT' means A. 20 hours of night flight as PIC. all are correct. returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere. PAN PAN signal. urgency signal. D. CPL. D. None is correct. D. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by night which shall consist of a flight on stipulated route of not less than A. B. safety signal. The period of validity of a CPL for a person over 40 years but below 45 years is A. 1050. 500 hours of flight time as PIC. C. For night rating a pilot must have at least A. 200 nm. with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome. with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome. B. 12 months. . B. 100 mm. C. returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere. 1049. 60 mm. C. track. 18 months. 150nm. 1042. Sports. C. C. 1043. C. D. D. Experimental or amateur built aircraft can be flown only by persons having at least A. urgency signal. safety signal.

Global positioning system at present is accepted as A. Initially the life of amateur built aircraft is restricted to A. 'Permit to Fly' of an aircraft is valid A. 1051. 50 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME. 2 years. sole means of navigation. DGCA inspection carried out in case of amateur built aircraft are A. 1055. It is mandatory for amateur built aircraft that A. ISO 8000. Precover and Final Inspection. B. Experimental built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for at least A. Final Airworthiness Inspection. 40 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination. for 12 months. D. Until C of A is issued. C. 1054. ISO 9000. 10 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination. B. 20 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination. 200 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME. 1058. 50 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination. 1056. . B. B. a replacement to GNS. ISO 2000. C. D. D. 25 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination. B. None is correct. PPL. C. B. 100 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME. D. 1 year. for 3 months. C. Amateur built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for at least A. 1059. C. C.D. D. an aid to navigation. C. 1057. for 6 months. B. D. 1053. B. Pre-cover inspection. C. The acceptable standard of Quality Assurance for aircraft manufactured in India is A. 1052. 100 Hrs/C of A renewal to be carried out by AME. Maintenance of amateur built aircraft can be carried out by A. any AME. 5 years. 30 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination. D. 5 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination. C. 10 years. D. by any person acceptable to DGCA. 50 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination. All are correct. any approved person. B. ISO 9001.

Certificate of First Aid Kit should be signed by A. 1064. D. C. D. Hydrometers used for inspection of fuel should be calibrated every A. in the 5'O clock position. 5 am. Globules of water. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree and it should also be endorsed by an AME. 1067. B. 1063. Thermometers. 12 months. traces of sediments. C. 10 am. in the 3'O clock position. D. C. B. be slightly pressurised. 3 months. none is correct. 40%. A clean room as per CAR series I Part IV in general should have a humidity level of not less than A. C. 1/4th of the depth of the product below the top surface.D. D. B. D. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree. be at sea level pressure. Cloudiness. 2 years. All are correct. A clean room as per CAR series I part IV should always A. C. D. clear off the ground on their sides with the bungs A. B. Any Registered Medical Practitioner. B. 1061. 1060. B. in the 7'O clock position. B. be at prevailing outside atmospheric pressure. D. B. pressure Gauges. a and c are correct. 10%. 8 am. in 3 or 9'O clock position. 1066. 1062. C. The upper sample of fuel is taken from a depth upto A. 1/8th of the depth of the product below the top surface. 1/10th of the depth of the product below the top surface. 30%. Barreled AV Gas should be stored under cover. . 20%. be slightly below the normal pressure. 1/6th of the depth of the product below the top surface. C. 1065. Fuel sampling shall be carried out preferrably before A. Fuel samples should be checked for A. C. D. 6 months. 6 am.

a person holding at least CPL on that type of aircraft.1068. B. D. a person holding at least ATPL on that type of aircraft. C. a person specifically endorsed for Test Flight. . Production Test Flight of 'Series' type of aircraft can be carried out by A. a person holding at least CPL and approved by DGCA to carry out production Test Flight.

Sign up to vote on this title
UsefulNot useful